[Title 14 CFR ]
[Code of Federal Regulations (annual edition) - January 1, 2023 Edition]
[From the U.S. Government Publishing Office]



[[Page i]]

          

                                        Title 14

                                 Aeronautics and Space


                                ________________________

                                    Parts 60 to 109

                         Revised as of January 1, 2023

          Containing a codification of documents of general 
          applicability and future effect

          As of January 1, 2023
                    Published by the Office of the Federal Register 
                    National Archives and Records Administration as a 
                    Special Edition of the Federal Register

[[Page ii]]

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                            Table of Contents



                                                                    Page
  Explanation.................................................       v

  Title 14:
          Chapter I--Federal Aviation Administration, 
          Department of Transportation (Continued)                   3
  Finding Aids:
      Table of CFR Titles and Chapters........................     921
      Alphabetical List of Agencies Appearing in the CFR......     941
      List of CFR Sections Affected...........................     951

[[Page iv]]





                     ----------------------------

                     Cite this Code: CFR
                     To cite the regulations in 
                       this volume use title, 
                       part and section number. 
                       Thus, 14 CFR 60.1 refers 
                       to title 14, part 60, 
                       section 1.

                     ----------------------------

[[Page v]]



                               EXPLANATION

    The Code of Federal Regulations is a codification of the general and 
permanent rules published in the Federal Register by the Executive 
departments and agencies of the Federal Government. The Code is divided 
into 50 titles which represent broad areas subject to Federal 
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name of the issuing agency. Each chapter is further subdivided into 
parts covering specific regulatory areas.
    Each volume of the Code is revised at least once each calendar year 
and issued on a quarterly basis approximately as follows:

Title 1 through Title 16.................................as of January 1
Title 17 through Title 27..................................as of April 1
Title 28 through Title 41...................................as of July 1
Title 42 through Title 50................................as of October 1

    The appropriate revision date is printed on the cover of each 
volume.

LEGAL STATUS

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HOW TO USE THE CODE OF FEDERAL REGULATIONS

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[[Page vi]]

Many agencies have begun publishing numerous OMB control numbers as 
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[[Page vii]]

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    Office of the Federal Register
    January 1, 2023







[[Page ix]]



                               THIS TITLE

    Title 14--Aeronautics and Space is composed of five volumes. The 
parts in these volumes are arranged in the following order: Parts 1-59, 
60-109, 110-199, 200-1199, and part 1200-End. The first three volumes 
containing parts 1-199 are comprised of chapter I--Federal Aviation 
Administration, Department of Transportation (DOT). The fourth volume 
containing parts 200-1199 is comprised of chapter II--Office of the 
Secretary, DOT (Aviation Proceedings) and chapter III--Commercial Space 
Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, DOT. The fifth volume 
containing part 1200-End is comprised of chapter V--National Aeronautics 
and Space Administration and chapter VI--Air Transportation System 
Stabilization. The contents of these volumes represent all current 
regulations codified under this title of the CFR as of January 1, 2023.

    For this volume, Robert J. Sheehan, III was Chief Editor. The Code 
of Federal Regulations publication program is under the direction of 
John Hyrum Martinez, assisted by Stephen J. Frattini.

[[Page 1]]



                     TITLE 14--AERONAUTICS AND SPACE




                  (This book contains parts 60 to 109)

  --------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                    Part

chapter i--Federal Aviation Administration, Department of 
  Transportation (Continued)................................          60

[[Page 3]]



CHAPTER I--FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION 
                               (CONTINUED)




  --------------------------------------------------------------------

                          SUBCHAPTER D--AIRMEN
Part                                                                Page
60              Flight simulation training device initial 
                    and continuing qualification and use....           5
61              Certification: Pilots, flight instructors, 
                    and ground instructors..................         459
63              Certification: Flight crewmembers other than 
                    pilots..................................         589
65              Certification: Airmen other than flight 
                    crewmembers.............................         607
67              Medical standards and certification.........         630
68              Requirements for operating certain small 
                    aircraft without a medical certificate..         643
                         SUBCHAPTER E--AIRSPACE
71              Designation of class A, B, C, D, and E 
                    airspace areas; air traffic service 
                    routes; and reporting points............         647
73              Special use airspace........................         652
75

[Reserved]

77              Safe, efficient use, and preservation of the 
                    navigable airspace......................         654
          SUBCHAPTER F--AIR TRAFFIC AND GENERAL OPERATING RULES
89              Remote identification of unmanned aircraft..         664
91              General operating and flight rules..........         677
93              Special air traffic rules...................         838
95              IFR altitudes...............................         872
97              Standard instrument procedures..............         880
99              Security control of air traffic.............         882
101             Moored balloons,kites, amateur rockets, and 
                    unmanned free balloons..................         886
103             Ultralight vehicles.........................         892

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105             Parachute operations........................         894
106

[Reserved]

107             Small unmanned aircraft systems.............         900
108-109

[Reserved]

[[Page 5]]



                           SUBCHAPTER D_AIRMEN





PART 60_FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICE INITIAL AND CONTINUING 
QUALIFICATION AND USE--Table of Contents



Sec.
60.1 Applicability.
60.2 Applicability of sponsor rules to persons who are not sponsors and 
          who are engaged in certain unauthorized activities.
60.3 Definitions.
60.4 Qualification Performance Standards.
60.5 Quality management system.
60.7 Sponsor qualification requirements.
60.9 Additional responsibilities of the sponsor.
60.11 FSTD use.
60.13 FSTD objective data requirements.
60.14 Special equipment and personnel requirements for qualification of 
          the FSTD.
60.15 Initial qualification requirements.
60.16 Additional qualifications for a currently qualified FSTD.
60.17 Previously qualified FSTDs.
60.19 Inspection, continuing qualification evaluation, and maintenance 
          requirements.
60.20 Logging FSTD discrepancies.
60.21 Interim qualification of FSTDs for new aircraft types or models.
60.23 Modifications to FSTDs.
60.25 Operation with missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative components.
60.27 Automatic loss of qualification and procedures for restoration of 
          qualification.
60.29 Other losses of qualification and procedures for restoration of 
          qualification.
60.31 Recordkeeping and reporting.
60.33 Applications, logbooks, reports, and records: Fraud, 
          falsification, or incorrect statements.
60.35 Specific full flight simulator compliance requirements.
60.37 FSTD qualification on the basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
          Agreement (BASA).

Appendix A to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for Airplane 
          Full Flight Simulators
Appendix B to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for Airplane 
          Flight Training Devices
Appendix C to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for 
          Helicopter Full Flight Simulators
Appendix D to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for 
          Helicopter Flight Training Devices
Appendix E to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for Quality 
          Management Systems for Flight Simulation Training Devices
Appendix F to Part 60--Definitions and Abbreviations for Flight 
          Simulation Training Devices

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, and 44701; Pub. L. 111-
216, 124 Stat. 2348 (49 U.S.C. 44701 note)

    Source: Docket No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, 
unless otherwise noted.



Sec. 60.1  Applicability.

    (a) This part prescribes the rules governing the initial and 
continuing qualification and use of all aircraft flight simulation 
training devices (FSTD) used for meeting training, evaluation, or flight 
experience requirements of this chapter for flight crewmember 
certification or qualification.
    (b) The rules of this part apply to each person using or applying to 
use an FSTD to meet any requirement of this chapter.
    (c) The requirements of Sec. 60.33 regarding falsification of 
applications, records, or reports also apply to each person who uses an 
FSTD for training, evaluation, or obtaining flight experience required 
for flight crewmember certification or qualification under this chapter.



Sec. 60.2  Applicability of sponsor rules to persons who are not 
sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized activities.

    (a) The rules of this part that are directed to a sponsor of an FSTD 
also apply to any person who uses or causes the use of an FSTD when--
    (1) That person knows that the FSTD does not have an FAA-approved 
sponsor; and
    (2) The use of the FSTD by that person is nonetheless claimed for 
purposes of meeting any requirement of this chapter or that person knows 
or should have known that the person's acts or omissions would cause 
another person to mistakenly credit use of the FSTD for purposes of 
meeting any requirement of this chapter.

[[Page 6]]

    (b) A situation in which paragraph (a) of this section would not 
apply to a person would be when each of the following conditions are 
met:
    (1) The person sold or leased the FSTD and merely represented to the 
purchaser or lessee that the FSTD is in a condition in which it should 
be able to obtain FAA approval and qualification under this part;
    (2) The person does not falsely claim to be the FAA-approved sponsor 
for the FSTD;
    (3) The person does not falsely make representations that someone 
else is the FAA-approved sponsor of the FSTD at a time when that other 
person is not the FAA-approved sponsor of the FSTD; and
    (4) The person's acts or omissions do not cause another person to 
detrimentally rely on such acts or omissions for the mistaken conclusion 
that the FSTD is FAA-approved and qualified under this part at the time 
the FSTD is sold or leased.



Sec. 60.3  Definitions.

    In addition to the definitions in part 1 of this chapter, other 
terms and definitions applicable to this part are found in appendix F of 
this part.



Sec. 60.4  Qualification Performance Standards.

    The Qualification Performance Standards (QPS) are published in 
appendices to this part as follows:
    (a) Appendix A contains the QPS for Airplane Flight Simulators.
    (b) Appendix B contains the QPS for Airplane Flight Training 
Devices.
    (c) Appendix C contains the QPS for Helicopter Flight Simulators.
    (d) Appendix D contains the QPS for Helicopter Flight Training 
Devices.
    (e) Appendix E contains the QPS for Quality Management Systems for 
FSTDs.
    (f) Appendix F contains the QPS for Definitions and Abbreviations 
for FSTDs.



Sec. 60.5  Quality management system.

    (a) After May 30, 2010, no sponsor may use or allow the use of or 
offer the use of an FSTD for flight crewmember training or evaluation or 
for obtaining flight experience to meet any requirement of this chapter 
unless the sponsor has established and follows a quality management 
system (QMS), currently approved by the responsible Flight Standards 
office, for the continuing surveillance and analysis of the sponsor's 
performance and effectiveness in providing a satisfactory FSTD for use 
on a regular basis as described in QPS appendix E of this part.
    (b) The QMS program must provide a process for identifying 
deficiencies in the program and for documenting how the program will be 
changed to address these deficiencies.
    (c) Whenever the responsible Flight Standards office finds that the 
QMS program does not adequately address the procedures necessary to meet 
the requirements of this part, the sponsor must, after notification by 
the responsible Flight Standards office, change the program so the 
procedures meet the requirements of this part. Each such change must be 
approved by the responsible Flight Standards office prior to 
implementation.
    (d) Within 30 days after the sponsor receives a notice described in 
paragraph (c) of this section, the sponsor may file a petition with the 
Executive Director of Flight Standards Service (the Executive Director) 
for reconsideration of the responsible Flight Standards office finding. 
The sponsor must address its petition to the Executive Director, Flight 
Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence 
Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20591. The filing of such a petition to 
reconsider stays the notice pending a decision by the Executive 
Director. However, if the Executive Director finds that there is a 
situation that requires immediate action in the interest of safety in 
air commerce, he may, upon a statement of the reasons, require a change 
effective without stay.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006; Amdt. 60-2, 72 FR 
59599, Oct. 22, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 60-5, 83 
FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018; Docket No. FAA-2022-1355; Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 
75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

[[Page 7]]



Sec. 60.7  Sponsor qualification requirements.

    (a) A person is eligible to apply to be a sponsor of an FSTD if the 
following conditions are met:
    (1) The person holds, or is an applicant for, a certificate under 
part 119, 141, or 142 of this chapter; or holds, or is an applicant for, 
an approved flight engineer course in accordance with part 63 of this 
chapter.
    (2) The FSTD will be used, or will be offered for use, in the 
sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the aircraft being 
simulated as evidenced in a request for evaluation submitted to the 
responsible Flight Standards office.
    (b) A person is a sponsor if the following conditions are met:
    (1) The person is a certificate holder under part 119, 141, or 142 
of this chapter or has an approved flight engineer course in accordance 
with part 63 of this chapter.
    (2) The person has--
    (i) Operations specifications authorizing the use of the specific 
aircraft or set of aircraft and has an FAA-approved training program 
under which at least one FSTD, simulating the aircraft or set of 
aircraft and for which the person is the sponsor, is used by the sponsor 
as described in paragraphs (b)(5) or (b)(6) of this section; or
    (ii) Training specifications or an FAA-approved course of training 
under which at least one FSTD, simulating that aircraft or set of 
aircraft and for which the person is the sponsor, is used by the sponsor 
as described in paragraphs (b)(5) or (b)(6) of this section.
    (3) The person has a quality management system currently approved by 
the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with Sec. 60.5.
    (4) The responsible Flight Standards office has accepted the person 
as the sponsor of the FSTD and that acceptance has not been withdrawn by 
the FAA.
    (5) At least one FSTD (as referenced in paragraph (b)(2)(i) or 
(b)(2)(ii) of this section) that is initially qualified on or after May 
30, 2008, is used within the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training 
program for the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the 12-
month period following the initial/upgrade evaluation, and at least once 
within each subsequent 12-month period thereafter.
    (6) At least one FSTD (as referenced in paragraph (b)(2)(i) or 
(b)(2)(ii) of this section) that was qualified before May 30, 2008, is 
used within the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the 
aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the 12-month period 
following the first continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the 
responsible Flight Standards office after May 30, 2008 and at least once 
within each subsequent 12-month period thereafter.
    (c) If the use requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) and either (b)(5) 
or (b)(6) of this section are not met, the person will forfeit the right 
to sponsor that FSTD and that person will not be eligible to apply to 
sponsor that FSTD for at least 12 calendar months following the 
expiration of the qualification status.
    (d) In addition to the FSTD described in paragraph (b) of this 
section, an FSTD sponsor may sponsor any number of other FSTDs 
regardless of specific aircraft or set of aircraft provided either--
    (1) During the preceding 12-month period, all of the other FSTDs are 
used within the sponsor's or another certificate holder's FAA-approved 
flight training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft simulated; 
or
    (2) The sponsor obtains a written statement at least annually from a 
qualified pilot who has flown the aircraft or set of aircraft (as 
appropriate) during the preceding 12-month period stating that the 
subject FSTD's performance and handling qualities, within the normal 
operating envelope, represent the aircraft or set of aircraft described 
in the FAA Type Certificate and the type data sheet, if appropriate. The 
sponsor must retain the two most current written statements for review 
by the responsible Flight Standards office.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006; Amdt. 60-2, 72 FR 
59599, Oct. 22, 2007, as amended by Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 
60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

[[Page 8]]



Sec. 60.9  Additional responsibilities of the sponsor.

    (a) The sponsor must allow the responsible Flight Standards office 
upon request to inspect the FSTD as soon as practicable. This inspection 
may include all records and documents relating to the FSTD, to determine 
its compliance with this part.
    (b) The sponsor must do the following for each FSTD:
    (1) Establish a mechanism to receive written comments regarding the 
FSTD and its operation in accordance with the QPS appendix E of this 
part.
    (2) Post in or adjacent to the FSTD the Statement of Qualification 
issued by the responsible Flight Standards office. An electronic copy of 
the Statement of Qualification that may be accessed by an appropriate 
terminal or display in or adjacent to the FSTD is satisfactory.
    (c) Each sponsor of an FSTD must identify to the responsible Flight 
Standards office by name, one individual to be the management 
representative (MR).
    (1) One person may serve as an MR for more than one FSTD, but one 
FSTD must not have more than one person serving in this capacity.
    (2) Each MR must be an employee of the sponsor with the 
responsibility and authority to--
    (i) Monitor the on-going qualification of assigned FSTDs to ensure 
that all matters regarding FSTD qualification are being carried out as 
provided for in this part;
    (ii) Ensure that the QMS is properly established, implemented, and 
maintained by overseeing the structure (and modifying where necessary) 
of the QMS policies, practices, and procedures; and
    (iii) Regularly brief sponsor's management on the status of the on-
going FSTD qualification program and the effectiveness and efficiency of 
the QMS.
    (3) The MR serves as the primary contact point for all matters 
between the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office 
regarding the qualification of that FSTD as provided for in this part.
    (4) The MR may delegate the duties described in paragraph (c)(2) and 
(c)(3) of this section to an individual at each of the sponsor's 
locations.

[Docket No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 60.11  FSTD use.

    No person may use or allow the use of or offer the use of an FSTD 
for flight crewmember training or evaluation or for obtaining flight 
experience to meet any of the requirements under this chapter unless, in 
accordance with the QPS for the specific device, the FSTD meets all of 
the following:
    (a) Has a single sponsor who is qualified under Sec. 60.7. The 
sponsor may arrange with another person for services of document 
preparation and presentation, as well as FSTD inspection, maintenance, 
repair, and servicing; however, the sponsor remains responsible for 
ensuring that these functions are conducted in a manner and with a 
result of continually meeting the requirements of this part.
    (b) Is qualified as described in the Statement of Qualification.
    (c) Remains qualified, through satisfactory inspection, continuing 
qualification evaluations, appropriate maintenance, and use requirements 
in accordance with this part and the applicable QPS.
    (d) Functions during day-to-day training, evaluation, or flight 
experience activities with the software and hardware that was evaluated 
as satisfactory by the responsible Flight Standards office and, if 
modified, modified only in accordance with the provisions of this part. 
However, this section does not apply to routine software or hardware 
changes that do not fall under the requirements of Sec. 60.23.
    (e) Is operated in accordance with the provisions and limitations of 
Sec. 60.25.

[Docket No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 60.13  FSTD objective data requirements.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) and (c) of this section, for 
the purposes of validating FSTD performance

[[Page 9]]

and handling qualities during evaluation for qualification, the data 
made available to the responsible Flight Standards office (the 
validation data package) must include the aircraft manufacturer's flight 
test data and all relevant data developed after the type certificate was 
issued (e.g., data developed in response to an airworthiness directive) 
if such data results from a change in performance, handling qualities, 
functions, or other characteristics of the aircraft that must be 
considered for flight crewmember training, evaluation, or for meeting 
experience requirements of this chapter.
    (b) The validation data package may contain flight test data from a 
source in addition to or independent of the aircraft manufacturer's data 
in support of an FSTD qualification, but only if this data is gathered 
and developed by that source in accordance with flight test methods, 
including a flight test plan, as described in the applicable QPS.
    (c) The validation data package may also contain predicted data, 
engineering simulation data, data from pilot owner or pilot operating 
manuals, or data from public domain sources, provided this data is 
acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. If found 
acceptable the data may then be used in particular applications for FSTD 
qualification.
    (d) Data or other material or elements must be submitted in a form 
and manner acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.
    (e) The responsible Flight Standards office may require additional 
objective data, which may include flight testing if necessary, if the 
validation data package does not support FSTD qualification requirements 
as described in this part and the applicable QPS appendix.
    (f) When an FSTD sponsor learns, or is advised by an aircraft 
manufacturer or other data provider, that an addition to, an amendment 
to, or a revision of data that may relate to FSTD performance or 
handling characteristics is available, the sponsor must notify the 
responsible Flight Standards office as described in the applicable QPS.

[Docket No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 60.14  Special equipment and personnel requirements for qualification of the FSTD.

    When notified by the responsible Flight Standards office, the 
sponsor must make available all special equipment and qualified 
personnel needed to accomplish or assist in the accomplishment of tests 
during initial qualification, continuing qualification, or special 
evaluations.

[Docket No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 60.15  Initial qualification requirements.

    (a) For each FSTD, the sponsor must submit a request to the 
responsible Flight Standards office to evaluate the FSTD for initial 
qualification at a specific level and simultaneously request the 
Training Program Approval Authority (TPAA) forward a concurring letter 
to the responsible Flight Standards office. The request must be 
submitted in the form and manner described in the applicable QPS.
    (b) The management representative described in Sec. 60.9(c) must 
sign a statement (electronic signature is acceptable for electronic 
transmissions) after confirming the following:
    (1) The performance and handling qualities of the FSTD represent 
those of the aircraft or set of aircraft within the normal operating 
envelope. This determination must be made by a pilot(s) meeting the 
requirements of paragraph (d) of this section after having flown all of 
the Operations Tasks listed in the applicable QPS appendix relevant to 
the qualification level of the FSTD. Exceptions, if any, must be noted. 
The name of the person(s) making this determination must be available to 
the responsible Flight Standards office upon request.
    (2) The FSTD systems and sub-systems (including the simulated 
aircraft systems) functionally represent those

[[Page 10]]

in the aircraft or set of aircraft. This determination must be made by 
the pilot(s) described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, or by a 
person(s) trained on simulator systems/sub-systems and trained on the 
operation of the simulated aircraft systems, after having exercised the 
operation of the FSTD and the pertinent functions available through the 
Instructor Operating Station(s). Exceptions, if any, must be noted. The 
name of the person(s) making this determination must be available to the 
responsible Flight Standards office upon request.
    (3) The cockpit represents the configuration of the specific type; 
or aircraft make, model, and series aircraft being simulated, as 
appropriate. This determination must be made by the pilot(s) described 
in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, or by a person(s) trained on the 
configuration and operation of the aircraft simulated. Exceptions, if 
any, must be noted. The name of the person(s) making this determination 
must be available to the responsible Flight Standards office upon 
request.
    (c) Except for those FSTDs previously qualified and described in 
Sec. 60.17, each FSTD evaluated for initial qualification must meet the 
standard that is in effect at the time of the evaluation. However--
    (1) If the FAA publishes a change to the existing standard or 
publishes a new standard for the evaluation for initial qualification, a 
sponsor may request that the responsible Flight Standards office apply 
the standard that was in effect when an FSTD was ordered for delivery if 
the sponsor--
    (i) Within 30 days of the publication of the change to the existing 
standard or publication of the new standard, notifies the responsible 
Flight Standards office that an FSTD has been ordered;
    (ii) Within 90 days of the responsible Flight Standards office 
notification described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, requests 
that the standard in effect at the time the order was placed be used for 
the evaluation for initial qualification; and
    (iii) The evaluation is conducted within 24 months following the 
publication of the change to the existing standard or publication of the 
new standard.
    (2) This notification must include a description of the FSTD; the 
anticipated qualification level of the FSTD; the make, model, and series 
of aircraft simulated; and any other pertinent information.
    (3) Any tests, tolerances, or other requirements that are current at 
the time of the evaluation may be used during the initial evaluation, at 
the request of the sponsor, if the sponsor provides acceptable updates 
to the required qualification test guide.
    (4) The standards used for the evaluation for initial qualification 
will be used for all subsequent evaluations of the FSTD.
    (5) An FSTD sponsor or FSTD manufacturer may submit a request to the 
Administrator for approval of a deviation from the QPS requirements as 
defined in Appendix A through Appendix D of this part.
    (i) Requests for deviation must be submitted in a form and manner 
acceptable to the Administrator and must provide sufficient 
justification that the deviation meets or exceeds the testing 
requirements and tolerances as specified in the part 60 QPS or will 
otherwise not adversely affect the fidelity and capability of the FSTDs 
evaluated and qualified under the deviation.
    (ii) The Administrator may consider deviation from the minimum 
requirements tables, the objective testing tables, the functions and 
subjective testing tables, and other supporting tables and requirements 
in the part 60 QPS.
    (iii) Deviations may be issued to an FSTD manufacturer for the 
initial qualification of multiple FSTDs, subject to terms and 
limitations as determined by Administrator. Approved deviations will 
become a part of the permanent qualification basis of the individual 
FSTD and will be noted in the FSTD's Statement of Qualification.
    (iv) If the FAA publishes a change to the existing part 60 standards 
as described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section or issues an FSTD 
Directive as described in Sec. 60.23(b), which conflicts with or 
supersedes an approved deviation, the Administrator may terminate or 
revise a grant of deviation authority issued under this paragraph.

[[Page 11]]

    (d) The pilot(s) who contributes to the confirmation statement 
required by paragraph (b) of this section must--
    (1) Be designated by the sponsor; and
    (2) Be qualified in--
    (i) The aircraft or set of aircraft being simulated; or
    (ii) For aircraft not yet issued a type certificate, or aircraft not 
previously operated by the sponsor or not having previous FAA-approved 
training programs conducted by the sponsor, an aircraft similar in size 
and configuration.
    (e) The subjective tests that form the basis for the statements 
described in paragraph (b) of this section and the objective tests 
referenced in paragraph (f) of this section must be accomplished at the 
sponsor's training facility or other sponsor designated location where 
training will take place, except as provided for in the applicable QPS.
    (f) The person seeking to qualify the FSTD must provide the 
responsible Flight Standards office access to the FSTD for the length of 
time necessary for the responsible Flight Standards office to complete 
the required evaluation of the FSTD for initial qualification, which 
includes the conduct and evaluation of objective and subjective tests, 
including general FSTD requirements, as described in the applicable QPS, 
to determine that the FSTD meets the standards in that QPS.
    (g) When the FSTD passes an evaluation for initial qualification, 
the responsible Flight Standards office issues a Statement of 
Qualification that includes all of the following:
    (1) Identification of the sponsor.
    (2) Identification of the make, model, and series of the aircraft or 
set of aircraft being simulated.
    (3) Identification of the configuration of the aircraft or set of 
aircraft being simulated (e.g., engine model or models, flight 
instruments, or navigation or other systems).
    (4) A statement that the FSTD is qualified as either a full flight 
simulator or a flight training device.
    (5) Identification of the qualification level of the FSTD.
    (6) A statement that (with the exception of the noted exclusions for 
which the FSTD has not been subjectively tested by the sponsor or the 
responsible Flight Standards office and for which qualification is not 
sought) the qualification of the FSTD includes the tasks set out in the 
applicable QPS appendix relevant to the qualification level of the FSTD.
    (7) A statement referencing any deviations that have been granted 
and included in the permanent qualification basis of the FSTD.
    (h) After the responsible Flight Standards office completes the 
evaluation for initial qualification, the sponsor must update the 
Qualification Test Guide (QTG), with the results of the FAA-witnessed 
tests together with the results of all the objective tests described in 
the applicable QPS.
    (i) Upon issuance of the Statement of Qualification the updated QTG 
becomes the Master Qualification Test Guide (MQTG). The MQTG must be 
made available to the responsible Flight Standards office upon request.

[Docket No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18217, Mar. 30, 2016; Docket No. 
FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 60.16  Additional qualifications for a currently qualified FSTD.

    (a) A currently qualified FSTD is required to undergo an additional 
qualification process if a user intends to use the FSTD for meeting 
training, evaluation, or flight experience requirements of this chapter 
beyond the qualification issued for that FSTD. This process consists of 
the following:
    (1) The sponsor:
    (i) Must submit to the responsible Flight Standards office all 
modifications to the MQTG that are required to support the additional 
qualification.
    (ii) Must describe to the responsible Flight Standards office all 
modifications to the FSTD that are required to support the additional 
qualification.
    (iii) Must submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a 
confirmation statement as described in Sec. 60.15(c) that a pilot, 
designated by the sponsor in accordance with Sec. 60.15(d), has 
subjectively evaluated the FSTD in those areas not previously evaluated.
    (2) The FSTD must successfully pass an evaluation--

[[Page 12]]

    (i) Consisting of all the elements of an initial evaluation for 
qualification in those circumstances where the responsible Flight 
Standards office has determined that all the elements of an initial 
evaluation for qualification is necessary; or
    (ii) Consisting of those elements of an initial evaluation for 
qualification designated as necessary by the responsible Flight 
Standards office.
    (b) In making the determinations described in paragraph (a)(2) of 
this section, the responsible Flight Standards office considers factors 
including the existing qualification of the FSTD, any modifications to 
the FSTD hardware or software that are involved, and any additions or 
modifications to the MQTG.
    (c) The FSTD is qualified for the additional uses when the 
responsible Flight Standards office issues an amended Statement of 
Qualification in accordance with Sec. 60.15(h).
    (d) The sponsor may not modify the FSTD except as described in Sec. 
60.23.

[Docket No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 60.17  Previously qualified FSTDs.

    (a) Unless otherwise specified by an FSTD Directive, further 
referenced in the applicable QPS, or as specified in paragraph (e) of 
this section, an FSTD qualified before May 31, 2016 will retain its 
qualification basis as long as it continues to meet the standards, 
including the objective test results recorded in the MQTG and subjective 
tests, under which it was originally evaluated, regardless of sponsor. 
The sponsor of such an FSTD must comply with the other applicable 
provisions of this part.
    (b) For each FSTD qualified before May 30, 2008, no sponsor may use 
or allow the use of or offer the use of such an FSTD after May 30, 2014 
for flight crewmember training, evaluation or flight experience to meet 
any of the requirements of this chapter, unless that FSTD has been 
issued a Statement of Qualification, including the Configuration List 
and the List of Qualified Tasks in accordance with the procedures set 
out in the applicable QPS.
    (c) If the FSTD qualification is lost under Sec. 60.27 and--
    (i) Restored under Sec. 60.27 in less than (2) years, then the 
qualification basis (in terms of objective tests and subjective tests) 
for the re-qualification will be those against which the FSTD was 
originally evaluated and qualified.
    (ii) Not restored under Sec. 60.27 for two (2) years or more, then 
the qualification basis (in terms of objective tests and subjective 
tests) for the re-qualification will be those standards in effect and 
current at the time of re-qualification application.
    (d) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, any change 
in FSTD qualification level initiated on or after May 30, 2008 requires 
an evaluation for initial qualification in accordance with this part.
    (e) A sponsor may request that an FSTD be permanently downgraded. In 
such a case, the responsible Flight Standards office may downgrade a 
qualified FSTD without requiring and without conducting an initial 
evaluation for the new qualification level. Subsequent continuing 
qualification evaluations will use the existing MQTG, modified as 
necessary to reflect the new qualification level.
    (f) When the sponsor has appropriate validation data available and 
receives approval from the responsible Flight Standards office, the 
sponsor may adopt tests and associated tolerances described in the 
current qualification standards as the tests and tolerances applicable 
for the continuing qualification of a previously qualified FSTD. The 
updated test(s) and tolerance(s) must be made a permanent part of the 
MQTG.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006; Amdt. 60-2, 72 FR 
59599, Oct. 22, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 
FR 18218, Mar. 30, 2016; Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 
75711, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 60.19  Inspection, continuing qualification evaluation, and maintenance requirements.

    (a) Inspection. No sponsor may use or allow the use of or offer the 
use of an FSTD for flight crewmember training, evaluation, or flight 
experience to meet any of the requirements of this chapter unless the 
sponsor does the following:

[[Page 13]]

    (1) Accomplishes all appropriate objective tests each year as 
specified in the applicable QPS.
    (2) Completes a functional preflight check within the preceding 24 
hours.
    (b) Continuing qualification evaluation. (1) This evaluation 
consists of objective tests, and subjective tests, including general 
FSTD requirements, as described in the applicable QPS or as may be 
amended by an FSTD Directive.
    (2) The sponsor must contact the responsible Flight Standards office 
to schedule the FSTD for continuing qualification evaluations not later 
than 60 days before the evaluation is due.
    (3) The sponsor must provide the responsible Flight Standards office 
responsible Flight Standards office access to the objective test results 
in the MQTG and access to the FSTD for the length of time necessary for 
the responsible Flight Standards office to complete the required 
continuing qualification evaluations.
    (4) The frequency of the responsible Flight Standards office-
conducted continuing qualification evaluations for each FSTD will be 
established by the responsible Flight Standards office and specified in 
the Statement of Qualification.
    (5) Continuing qualification evaluations conducted in the 3 calendar 
months before or after the calendar month in which these continuing 
qualification evaluations are required will be considered to have been 
conducted in the calendar month in which they were required.
    (6) No sponsor may use or allow the use of or offer the use of an 
FSTD for flight crewmember training or evaluation or for obtaining 
flight experience for the flight crewmember to meet any requirement of 
this chapter unless the FSTD has passed a responsible Flight Standards 
office-conducted continuing qualification evaluation within the time 
frame specified in the Statement of Qualification or within the grace 
period as described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
    (c) Maintenance. The sponsor is responsible for continuing 
corrective and preventive maintenance on the FSTD to ensure that it 
continues to meet the requirements of this part and the applicable QPS 
appendix. No sponsor may use or allow the use of or offer the use of an 
FSTD for flight crewmember training, evaluation, or flight experience to 
meet any of the requirements of this chapter unless the sponsor does the 
following:
    (1) Maintains a discrepancy log.
    (2) Ensures that, when a discrepancy is discovered, the following 
requirements are met:
    (i) A description of each discrepancy is entered in the log and 
remains in the log until the discrepancy is corrected as specified in 
Sec. 60.25(b).
    (ii) A description of the corrective action taken for each 
discrepancy, the identity of the individual taking the action, and the 
date that action is taken is entered in the log.
    (iii) The discrepancy log is kept in a form and manner acceptable to 
the Administrator and is kept in or adjacent to the FSTD. An electronic 
log that may be accessed by an appropriate terminal or display in or 
adjacent to the FSTD is satisfactory.

[Docket No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18218, Mar. 30, 2016; Docket No. 
FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 60.20  Logging FSTD discrepancies.

    Each instructor, check airman, or representative of the 
Administrator conducting training, evaluation, or flight experience, and 
each person conducting the preflight inspection who discovers a 
discrepancy, including any missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative 
components in the FSTD, must write or cause to be written a description 
of that discrepancy into the discrepancy log at the end of the FSTD 
preflight or FSTD use session.



Sec. 60.21  Interim qualification of FSTDs for new aircraft types or models.

    (a) A sponsor may apply for and the responsible Flight Standards 
office may issue an interim qualification level for an FSTD for a new 
type or model of aircraft, even though the aircraft manufacturer's 
aircraft data package is preliminary, if the sponsor provides the 
following to the satisfaction of the responsible Flight Standards 
office--

[[Page 14]]

    (1) The aircraft manufacturer's data, which consists of at least 
predicted data, validated by a limited set of flight test data;
    (2) The aircraft manufacturer's description of the prediction 
methodology used to develop the predicted data; and
    (3) The QTG test results.
    (b) An FSTD that has been issued interim qualification is deemed to 
have been issued initial qualification unless the responsible Flight 
Standards office rescinds the qualification. Interim qualification 
terminates two years after its issuance, unless the responsible Flight 
Standards office determines that specific conditions warrant otherwise.
    (c) Within twelve months of the release of the final aircraft data 
package by the aircraft manufacturer, but no later than two years after 
the issuance of the interim qualification status, the sponsor must apply 
for initial qualification in accordance with Sec. 60.15 based on the 
final aircraft data package approved by the aircraft manufacturer, 
unless the responsible Flight Standards office determines that specific 
conditions warrant otherwise.
    (d) An FSTD with interim qualification may be modified only in 
accordance with Sec. 60.23.

[Docket No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 60.23  Modifications to FSTDs.

    (a) Description of a modification. For the purposes of this part, an 
FSTD is said to have been modified when:
    (1) Equipment or devices intended to simulate aircraft appliances 
are added to or removed from FSTD, which change the Statement of 
Qualification or the MQTG; or
    (2) Changes are made to either software or hardware that are 
intended to impact flight or ground dynamics; changes are made that 
impact performance or handling characteristics of the FSTD (including 
motion, visual, control loading, or sound systems for those FSTD levels 
requiring sound tests and measurements); or changes are made to the 
MQTG. Changes to the MQTG which do not affect required objective testing 
results or validation data approved during the initial evaluation of the 
FSTD are not considered modifications under this section.
    (b) FSTD Directive. When the FAA determines that FSTD modification 
is necessary for safety of flight reasons, the sponsor of each affected 
FSTD must ensure that the FSTD is modified according to the FSTD 
Directive regardless of the original qualification standards applicable 
to any specific FSTD.
    (c) Using the modified FSTD. The sponsor may not use, or allow the 
use of, or offer the use of, the FSTD with the proposed modification for 
flight crewmember training or evaluation or for obtaining flight 
experience for the flight crewmember to meet any requirement of this 
chapter unless:
    (1) The sponsor has notified the responsible Flight Standards office 
and the TPAA of their intent to incorporate the proposed modification, 
and one of the following has occurred;
    (i) Twenty-one days have passed since the sponsor notified the 
responsible Flight Standards office and the TPAA of the proposed 
modification and the sponsor has not received any response from either 
the responsible Flight Standards office or the TPAA;
    (ii) Twenty-one days have passed since the sponsor notified the 
responsible Flight Standards office and the TPAA of the proposed 
modification and one has approved the proposed modification and the 
other has not responded;
    (iii) Fewer than twenty-one days have passed since the sponsor 
notified the responsible Flight Standards office and the TPAA of the 
proposed modification and the responsible Flight Standards office and 
TPAA both approve the proposed modification;
    (iv) The sponsor has successfully completed any evaluation the 
responsible Flight Standards office may require in accordance with the 
standards for an evaluation for initial qualification or any part 
thereof before the modified FSTD is placed in service.
    (2) The notification is submitted with the content as, and in a form 
and manner as, specified in the applicable QPS.
    (d) User notification. When a modification is made to an FSTD that 
affects

[[Page 15]]

the Statement of Qualification, the sponsor must post an addendum to the 
Statement of Qualification until such time as a permanent, updated 
statement is posted.
    (e) MQTG update. The MQTG must be updated with current objective 
test results in accordance with Sec. 60.15(h) and (i) and appropriate 
objective data in accordance with Sec. 60.13, each time an FSTD is 
modified and an objective test or other MQTG section is affected by the 
modification. If an FSTD Directive is the cause of this update, the 
direction to make the modification and the record of the modification 
completion must be filed in the MQTG.

[Docket No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18218, Mar. 30, 2016; Docket No. 
FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 60.25  Operation with missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative
components.

    (a) No person may knowingly use or allow the use of or misrepresent 
the capability of an FSTD for any maneuver, procedure, or task that is 
to be accomplished to meet training, evaluation, or flight experience 
requirements of this chapter for flight crewmember certification or 
qualification when there is a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative 
(MMI) component that is required to be present and correctly operate for 
the satisfactory completion of that maneuver, procedure, or task.
    (b) Each MMI component as described in paragraph (a) of this 
section, or any MMI component installed and required to operate 
correctly to meet the current Statement of Qualification, must be 
repaired or replaced within 30 calendar days, unless otherwise required 
or authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office.
    (c) A list of the current MMI components must be readily available 
in or adjacent to the FSTD for review by users of the device. Electronic 
access to this list via an appropriate terminal or display in or 
adjacent to the FSTD is satisfactory. The discrepancy log may be used to 
satisfy this requirement provided each currently MMI component is listed 
in the discrepancy log.

[Docket No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 60.27  Automatic loss of qualification and procedures for restoration of qualification.

    (a) An FSTD qualification is automatically lost when any of the 
following occurs:
    (1) The FSTD is not used in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight 
training program in accordance with Sec. 60.7(b)(5) or (b)(6) and the 
sponsor does not obtain and maintain the written statement as described 
in Sec. 60.7(d)(2).
    (2) The FSTD is not inspected in accordance with Sec. 60.19.
    (3) The FSTD is physically moved from one location and installed in 
a different location, regardless of distance.
    (4) The MQTG is missing or otherwise not available and a replacement 
is not made within 30 days.
    (b) If FSTD qualification is lost under paragraph (a) of this 
section, qualification is restored when either of the following 
provisions is met:
    (1) The FSTD successfully passes an evaluation:
    (i) For initial qualification, in accordance with Sec. Sec. 60.15 
and 60.17(c) in those circumstances where the responsible Flight 
Standards office has determined that a full evaluation for initial 
qualification is necessary; or
    (ii) For those elements of an evaluation for initial qualification, 
in accordance with Sec. Sec. 60.15 and 60.17(c), as determined to be 
necessary by the responsible Flight Standards office.
    (2) The responsible Flight Standards office advises the sponsor that 
an evaluation is not necessary.
    (c) In making the determinations described in paragraph (b) of this 
section, the responsible Flight Standards office considers factors 
including the number of continuing qualification evaluations missed, the 
number of sponsor-conducted quarterly inspections missed,

[[Page 16]]

and the care that had been taken of the device since the last 
evaluation.

[Docket No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 60.29  Other losses of qualification and procedures for restoration of qualification.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, when the 
responsible Flight Standards office determines that the FSTD no longer 
meets qualification standards, the following procedure applies:
    (1) The responsible Flight Standards office notifies the sponsor in 
writing that the FSTD no longer meets some or all of its qualification 
standards.
    (2) The responsible Flight Standards office sets a reasonable period 
(but not less than 7 days) within which the sponsor may submit written 
information, views, and arguments on the FSTD qualification.
    (3) After considering all material presented, the responsible Flight 
Standards office notifies the sponsor about the determination with 
regard to the qualification of the FSTD.
    (4) When the responsible Flight Standards office notifies the 
sponsor that some or all of the FSTD is no longer qualified, the action 
described in the notification becomes effective not less than 30 days 
after the sponsor receives that notice unless--
    (i) The responsible Flight Standards office finds under paragraph 
(c) of this section that there is an emergency requiring immediate 
action with respect to safety in air commerce; or
    (ii) The sponsor petitions the Executive Director of Flight 
Standards Service for reconsideration of the responsible Flight 
Standards office finding under paragraph (b) of this section.
    (b) When a sponsor seeks reconsideration of a decision from the 
responsible Flight Standards office concerning the FSTD qualification, 
the following procedure applies:
    (1) The sponsor must petition for reconsideration of that decision 
within 30 days of the date that the sponsor receives a notice that some 
or all of the FSTD is no longer qualified.
    (2) The sponsor must address its petition to the Executive Director, 
Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 
Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20591.
    (3) A petition for reconsideration, if filed within the 30-day 
period, suspends the effectiveness of the determination by the 
responsible Flight Standards office that the FSTD is no longer qualified 
unless the responsible Flight Standards office has found, under 
paragraph (c) of this section, that an emergency exists requiring 
immediate action with respect to safety in air commerce.
    (c) If the responsible Flight Standards office find that an 
emergency exists requiring immediate action with respect to safety in 
air commerce that makes the procedures set out in this section 
impracticable or contrary to the public interest:
    (1) The responsible Flight Standards office withdraws qualification 
of some or all of the FSTD and makes the withdrawal of qualification 
effective on the day the sponsor receives notice of it.
    (2) In the notice to the sponsor, the responsible Flight Standards 
office articulates the reasons for its finding that an emergency exists 
requiring immediate action with respect to safety in air transportation 
or air commerce or that makes it impracticable or contrary to the public 
interest to stay the effectiveness of the finding.
    (d) FSTD qualification lost under paragraph (a) or (c) of this 
section may be restored when either of the following provisions are met:
    (1) The FSTD successfully passes an evaluation for initial 
qualification, in accordance with Sec. Sec. 60.15 and 60.17(c) in those 
circumstances where the responsible Flight Standards office has 
determined that a full evaluation for initial qualification is 
necessary; or
    (2) The FSTD successfully passes an evaluation for those elements of 
an initial qualification evaluation, in accordance with Sec. Sec. 60.15 
and 60.17(c), as determined to be necessary by the responsible Flight 
Standards office.
    (e) In making the determinations described in paragraph (d) of this 
section, the responsible Flight Standards office considers factors 
including the reason

[[Page 17]]

for the loss of qualification, any repairs or replacements that may have 
to have been completed, the number of continuing qualification 
evaluations missed, the number of sponsor-conducted quarterly 
inspections missed, and the care that had been taken of the device since 
the loss of qualification.

[Docket No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 60-5, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018; Docket No. 
FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 60.31  Recordkeeping and reporting.

    (a) The FSTD sponsor must maintain the following records for each 
FSTD it sponsors:
    (1) The MQTG and each amendment thereto.
    (2) A record of all FSTD modifications affected under Sec. 60.23 
since the issuance of the original Statement of Qualification.
    (3) A copy of all of the following:
    (i) Results of the qualification evaluations (initial and each 
upgrade) since the issuance of the original Statement of Qualification.
    (ii) Results of the objective tests conducted in accordance with 
Sec. 60.19(a) for a period of 2 years.
    (iii) Results of the previous three continuing qualification 
evaluations, or the continuing qualification evaluations from the 
previous 2 years, whichever covers a longer period.
    (iv) Comments obtained in accordance with Sec. 60.9(b) for a period 
of at least 90 days.
    (4) A record of all discrepancies entered in the discrepancy log 
over the previous 2 years, including the following:
    (i) A list of the components or equipment that were or are missing, 
malfunctioning, or inoperative.
    (ii) The action taken to correct the discrepancy.
    (iii) The date the corrective action was taken.
    (iv) The identity of the person determining that the discrepancy has 
been corrected.
    (b) The records specified in this section must be maintained in 
plain language form or in coded form if the coded form provides for the 
preservation and retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the 
responsible Flight Standards office.

[Docket No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 60.33  Applications, logbooks, reports, and records: Fraud, 
falsification, or incorrect statements.

    (a) No person may make, or cause to be made, any of the following:
    (1) A fraudulent or intentionally false statement in any application 
or any amendment thereto, or any other report or test result required by 
this part.
    (2) A fraudulent or intentionally false statement in or a known 
omission from any record or report that is kept, made, or used to show 
compliance with this part, or to exercise any privileges under this 
chapter.
    (3) Any reproduction or alteration, for fraudulent purpose, of any 
report, record, or test result required under this part.
    (b) The commission by any person of any act prohibited under 
paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for any one or any combination 
of the following:
    (1) A civil penalty.
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate held by that person 
that was issued under this chapter.
    (3) The removal of FSTD qualification and approval for use in a 
training program.
    (c) The following may serve as a basis for removal of qualification 
of an FSTD including the withdrawal of approval for use of an FSTD; or 
denying an application for a qualification:
    (1) An incorrect statement, upon which the FAA relied or could have 
relied, made in support of an application for a qualification or a 
request for approval for use.
    (2) An incorrect entry, upon which the FAA relied or could have 
relied, made in any logbook, record, or report that is kept, made, or 
used to show compliance with any requirement for an FSTD qualification 
or an approval for use.

[[Page 18]]



Sec. 60.35  Specific full flight simulator compliance requirements.

    (a) No device will be eligible for initial or upgrade qualification 
to a FFS at Level C or Level D under this part unless it includes the 
equipment and appliances installed and operating to the extent necessary 
for the issuance of an airman certificate or rating.
    (b) No device will be eligible for initial or upgrade qualification 
to a FFS at Level A or Level B under this part unless it includes the 
equipment and appliances installed and operating to the extent necessary 
for the training, testing, and/or checking that comprise the simulation 
portion of the requirements for issuance of an airman certificate or 
rating.



Sec. 60.37  FSTD qualification on the basis of a Bilateral Aviation
Safety Agreement (BASA).

    (a) The evaluation and qualification of an FSTD by a contracting 
State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation for the sponsor 
of an FSTD located in that contracting State may be used as the basis 
for issuing a U.S. statement of qualification (see applicable QPS, 
attachment 4, figure 4) by the responsible Flight Standards office to 
the sponsor of that FSTD in accordance with--
    (1) A BASA between the United States and the Contracting State that 
issued the original qualification; and
    (2) A Simulator Implementation Procedure (SIP) established under the 
BASA.
    (b) The SIP must contain any conditions and limitations on 
validation and issuance of such qualification by the U.S.

[Docket No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]



  Sec. Appendix A to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for 
                     Airplane Full Flight Simulators

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    This appendix establishes the standards for Airplane FFS evaluation 
and qualification. The Flight Standards Service is responsible for the 
development, application, and implementation of the standards contained 
within this appendix. The procedures and criteria specified in this 
appendix will be used by the responsible Flight Standards office, when 
conducting airplane FFS evaluations.

                            Table of Contents

1. Introduction.
2. Applicability (Sec. Sec. 60.1 and 60.2).
3. Definitions (Sec. 60.3).
4. Qualification Performance Standards (Sec. 60.4).
5. Quality Management System (Sec. 60.5).
6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.7).
7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (Sec. 60.9).
8. FFS Use (Sec. 60.11).
9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (Sec. 60.13).
10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of 
          the FFS (Sec. 60.14).
11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.15).
12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS (Sec. 
          60.16).
13. Previously Qualified FFSs (Sec. 60.17).
14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance 
          Requirements (Sec. 60.19).
15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (Sec. 60.20).
16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Airplane Types or Models 
          (Sec. 60.21).
17. Modifications to FFSs (Sec. 60.23).
18. Operations With Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components 
          (Sec. 60.25).
19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
          Qualification (Sec. 60.27).
20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
          Qualification (Sec. 60.29).
21. Record Keeping and Reporting (Sec. 60.31).
22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, 
          or Incorrect Statements (Sec. 60.33).
23. Specific FFS Compliance Requirements (Sec. 60.35).
24. [Reserved]
25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
          Agreement (BASA) (Sec. 60.37).
Attachment 1 to Appendix A to Part 60--General Simulator Requirements.
Attachment 2 to Appendix A to Part 60--FFS Objective Tests.
Attachment 3 to Appendix A to Part 60--Simulator Subjective Evaluation.
Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60--Sample Documents.
Attachment 5 to Appendix A to Part 60--Simulator Qualification 
          Requirements for Windshear Training Program Use.
Attachment 6 to Appendix A to Part 60--FSTD Directives Applicable to 
          Airplane Flight Simulators.

[[Page 19]]

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                             1. Introduction

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. This appendix contains background information as well as 
regulatory and informative material as described later in this section. 
To assist the reader in determining what areas are required and what 
areas are permissive, the text in this appendix is divided into two 
sections: ``QPS Requirements'' and ``Information.'' The QPS Requirements 
sections contain details regarding compliance with the part 60 rule 
language. These details are regulatory, but are found only in this 
appendix. The Information sections contain material that is advisory in 
nature, and designed to give the user general information about the 
regulation.
    b. [Reserved]
    c. The responsible Flight Standards office encourages the use of 
electronic media for all communication, including any record, report, 
request, test, or statement required by this appendix. The electronic 
media used must have adequate security provisions and be acceptable to 
the responsible Flight Standards office.
    d. Related Reading References.
    (1) 14 CFR part 60.
    (2) 14 CFR part 61.
    (3) 14 CFR part 63.
    (4) 14 CFR part 119.
    (5) 14 CFR part 121.
    (6) 14 CFR part 125.
    (7) 14 CFR part 135.
    (8) 14 CFR part 141.
    (9) 14 CFR part 142.
    (10) AC 120-28, as amended, Criteria for Approval of Category III 
Landing Weather Minima.
    (11) AC 120-29, as amended, Criteria for Approving Category I and 
Category II Landing Minima for part 121 operators.
    (12) AC 120-35, as amended, Flightcrew Member, Line Operational 
Simulations: Line-Oriented Flight Training, Special Purpose Operational 
Training, Line Operational Evaluation.
    (13) AC 120-40, as amended, Airplane Simulator Qualification.
    (14) AC 120-41, as amended, Criteria for Operational Approval of 
Airborne Wind Shear Alerting and Flight Guidance Systems.
    (15) AC 120-57, as amended, Surface Movement Guidance and Control 
System (SMGCS).
    (16) AC 150/5300-13, as amended, Airport Design.
    (17) AC 150/5340-1, as amended, Standards for Airport Markings.
    (18) AC 150/5340-4, as amended, Installation Details for Runway 
Centerline Touchdown Zone Lighting Systems.
    (19) AC 150/5340-19, as amended, Taxiway Centerline Lighting System.
    (20) AC 150/5340-24, as amended, Runway and Taxiway Edge Lighting 
System.
    (21) AC 150/5345-28, as amended, Precision Approach Path Indicator 
(PAPI) Systems.
    (22) International Air Transport Association document, ``Flight 
Simulation Training Device Design and Performance Data Requirements,'' 
as amended.
    (23) AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of 
Transport Category Airplanes.
    (24) AC 23-8, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of 
Part 23 Airplanes.
    (25) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Manual of 
Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulation Training Devices, as 
amended.
    (26) Aeroplane Flight Simulation Training Device Evaluation 
Handbook, Volume I, as amended and Volume II, as amended, The Royal 
Aeronautical Society, London, UK.
    (27) FAA Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards 
for Airline Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and 
Instrument Ratings
    (28) The FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). An electronic 
version of the AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/atpubs.
    (29) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document number 436, titled 
Guidelines For Electronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended).
    (30) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document 610, Guidance for 
Design and Integration of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simulators (as 
amended).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

               2. Applicability (Sec. Sec. 60.1 and 60.2)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.1, Applicability, or to Sec. 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to 
persons who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized 
activities.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                       3. Definitions (Sec. 60.3)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    See Appendix F of this part for a list of definitions and 
abbreviations from part 1 and

[[Page 20]]

part 60, including the appropriate appendices of part 60.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

           4. Qualification Performance Standards (Sec. 60.4)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.4, Qualification Performance Standards.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                5. Quality Management System (Sec. 60.5)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    See Appendix E of this part for additional regulatory and 
informational material regarding Quality Management Systems.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

           6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.7)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The intent of the language in Sec. 60.7(b) is to have a specific 
FFS, identified by the sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-approved 
flight training program for the airplane simulated during the 12-month 
period described. The identification of the specific FFS may change from 
one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as the sponsor 
sponsors and uses at least one FFS at least once during the prescribed 
period. No minimum number of hours or minimum FFS periods are required.
    b. The following examples describe acceptable operational practices:
    (1) Example One.
    (a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, specific FFS for its own use, 
in its own facility or elsewhere--this single FFS forms the basis for 
the sponsorship. The sponsor uses that FFS at least once in each 12-
month period in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for 
the airplane simulated. This 12-month period is established according to 
the following schedule:
    (i) If the FFS was qualified prior to May 30, 2008, the 12-month 
period begins on the date of the first continuing qualification 
evaluation conducted in accordance with Sec. 60.19 after May 30, 2008, 
and continues for each subsequent 12-month period;
    (ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, 2008, will be required 
to undergo an initial or upgrade evaluation in accordance with Sec. 
60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation is complete, the first 
continuing qualification evaluation will be conducted within 6 months. 
The 12-month continuing qualification evaluation cycle begins on that 
date and continues for each subsequent 12-month period.
    (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FFS use required.
    (c) The identification of the specific FFS may change from one 12-
month period to the next 12-month period as long as the sponsor sponsors 
and uses at least one FFS at least once during the prescribed period.
    (2) Example Two.
    (a) A sponsor sponsors an additional number of FFSs, in its facility 
or elsewhere. Each additionally sponsored FFS must be--
    (i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight 
training program for the airplane simulated (as described in Sec. 
60.7(d)(1));
     OR
    (ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder in that other 
certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the 
airplane simulated (as described in Sec. 60.7(d)(1)). This 12-month 
period is established in the same manner as in example one;
     OR
    (iii) Provided a statement each year from a qualified pilot (after 
having flown the airplane, not the subject FFS or another FFS, during 
the preceding 12-month period), stating that the subject FFS's 
performance and handling qualities represent the airplane (as described 
in Sec. 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is provided at least once in each 
12-month period established in the same manner as in example one.
    (b) No minimum number of hours of FFS use is required.
    (3) Example Three.
    (a) A sponsor in New York (in this example, a Part 142 certificate 
holder) establishes ``satellite'' training centers in Chicago and 
Moscow.
    (b) The satellite function means that the Chicago and Moscow centers 
must operate under the New York center's certificate (in accordance with 
all of the New York center's practices, procedures, and policies; e.g., 
instructor and/or technician training/checking requirements, record 
keeping, QMS program).
    (c) All of the FFSs in the Chicago and Moscow centers could be dry-
leased (i.e., the certificate holder does not have and use FAA-approved 
flight training programs for the FFSs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) 
because--
    (i) Each FFS in the Chicago center and each FFS in the Moscow center 
is used at least once each 12-month period by another

[[Page 21]]

FAA certificate holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved 
flight training program for the airplane (as described in Sec. 
60.7(d)(1));
     OR
    (ii) A statement is obtained from a qualified pilot (having flown 
the airplane, not the subject FFS or another FFS, during the preceding 
12-month period) stating that the performance and handling qualities of 
each FFS in the Chicago and Moscow centers represents the airplane (as 
described in Sec. 60.7(d)(2)).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

       7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (Sec. 60.9)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    The phrase ``as soon as practicable'' in Sec. 60.9(a) means without 
unnecessarily disrupting or delaying beyond a reasonable time the 
training, evaluation, or experience being conducted in the FFS.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                        8. FFS Use (Sec. 60.11)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.11, Simulator Use.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

            9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (Sec. 60.13)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. Flight test data used to validate FFS performance and handling 
qualities must have been gathered in accordance with a flight test 
program containing the following:
    (1) A flight test plan consisting of:
    (a) The maneuvers and procedures required for aircraft certification 
and simulation programming and validation.
    (b) For each maneuver or procedure--
    (i) The procedures and control input the flight test pilot and/or 
engineer used.
    (ii) The atmospheric and environmental conditions.
    (iii) The initial flight conditions.
    (iv) The airplane configuration, including weight and center of 
gravity.
    (v) The data to be gathered.
    (vi) All other information necessary to recreate the flight test 
conditions in the FFS.
    (2) Appropriately qualified flight test personnel.
    (3) An understanding of the accuracy of the data to be gathered 
using appropriate alternative data sources, procedures, and 
instrumentation that is traceable to a recognized standard as described 
in Attachment 2, Table A2E of this appendix.
    (4) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisition equipment or 
system(s), including appropriate data reduction and analysis methods and 
techniques, as would be acceptable to the FAA's Aircraft Certification 
Service.
    b. The data, regardless of source, must be presented as follows:
    (1) In a format that supports the FFS validation process.
    (2) In a manner that is clearly readable and annotated correctly and 
completely.
    (3) With resolution sufficient to determine compliance with the 
tolerances set forth in Attachment 2, Table A2A of this appendix.
    (4) With any necessary instructions or other details provided, such 
as yaw damper or throttle position.
    (5) Without alteration, adjustments, or bias. Data may be corrected 
to address known data calibration errors provided that an explanation of 
the methods used to correct the errors appears in the QTG. The corrected 
data may be re-scaled, digitized, or otherwise manipulated to fit the 
desired presentation.
    c. After completion of any additional flight test, a flight test 
report must be submitted in support of the validation data. The report 
must contain sufficient data and rationale to support qualification of 
the FFS at the level requested.
    d. As required by Sec. 60.13(f), the sponsor must notify the 
responsible Flight Standards office when it becomes aware that an 
addition to, an amendment to, or a revision of data that may relate to 
FFS performance or handling characteristics is available. The data 
referred to in this paragraph is data used to validate the performance, 
handling qualities, or other characteristics of the aircraft, including 
data related to any relevant changes occurring after the type 
certificate was issued. The sponsor must--
    (1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards 
office of the existence of this data; and
    (2) Within 45 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards 
office of--
    (a) The schedule to incorporate this data into the FFS; or
    (b) The reason for not incorporating this data into the FFS.
    e. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a 
``snapshot test'' or a ``series of snapshot tests'' results in lieu of a 
time-history result, the sponsor or other

[[Page 22]]

data provider must ensure that a steady state condition exists at the 
instant of time captured by the ``snapshot.'' The steady state condition 
must exist from 4 seconds prior to, through 1 second following, the 
instant of time captured by the snapshot.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    f. The FFS sponsor is encouraged to maintain a liaison with the 
manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the 
aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the 
manufacturer is no longer in business), and, if appropriate, with the 
person having supplied the aircraft data package for the FFS in order to 
facilitate the notification required by Sec. 60.13(f).
    g. It is the intent of the responsible Flight Standards office that 
for new aircraft entering service, at a point well in advance of 
preparation of the Qualification Test Guide (QTG), the sponsor should 
submit to the responsible Flight Standards office for approval, a 
descriptive document (see Table A2C, Sample Validation Data Roadmap for 
Airplanes) containing the plan for acquiring the validation data, 
including data sources. This document should clearly identify sources of 
data for all required tests, a description of the validity of these data 
for a specific engine type and thrust rating configuration, and the 
revision levels of all avionics affecting the performance or flying 
qualities of the aircraft. Additionally, this document should provide 
other information, such as the rationale or explanation for cases where 
data or data parameters are missing, instances where engineering 
simulation data are used or where flight test methods require further 
explanations. It should also provide a brief narrative describing the 
cause and effect of any deviation from data requirements. The aircraft 
manufacturer may provide this document.
    h. There is no requirement for any flight test data supplier to 
submit a flight test plan or program prior to gathering flight test 
data. However, the responsible Flight Standards office notes that 
inexperienced data gatherers often provide data that is irrelevant, 
improperly marked, or lacking adequate justification for selection. 
Other problems include inadequate information regarding initial 
conditions or test maneuvers. The responsible Flight Standards office 
has been forced to refuse these data submissions as validation data for 
an FFS evaluation. It is for this reason that the responsible Flight 
Standards office recommends that any data supplier not previously 
experienced in this area review the data necessary for programming and 
for validating the performance of the FFS, and discuss the flight test 
plan anticipated for acquiring such data with the responsible Flight 
Standards office well in advance of commencing the flight tests.
    i. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider, on a case-
by-case basis, whether to approve supplemental validation data derived 
from flight data recording systems, such as a Quick Access Recorder or 
Flight Data Recorder.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of 
                         the FFSs (Sec. 60.14)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. In the event that the responsible Flight Standards office 
determines that special equipment or specifically qualified persons will 
be required to conduct an evaluation, the responsible Flight Standards 
office will make every attempt to notify the sponsor at least one (1) 
week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in advance of the evaluation. 
Examples of special equipment include spot photometers, flight control 
measurement devices, and sound analyzers. Examples of specially 
qualified personnel include individuals specifically qualified to 
install or use any special equipment when its use is required.
    b. Examples of a special evaluation include an evaluation conducted 
after an FFS is moved, at the request of the TPAA, or as a result of 
comments received from users of the FFS that raise questions about the 
continued qualification or use of the FFS.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.15)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. In order to be qualified at a particular qualification level, the 
FFS must:
    (1) Meet the general requirements listed in Attachment 1 of this 
appendix;
    (2) Meet the objective testing requirements listed in Attachment 2 
of this appendix; and
    (3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjective tests listed in 
Attachment 3 of this appendix.
    b. The request described in Sec. 60.15(a) must include all of the 
following:
    (1) A statement that the FFS meets all of the applicable provisions 
of this part and all applicable provisions of the QPS.
    (2) Unless otherwise authorized through prior coordination with the 
responsible Flight Standards office, a confirmation that

[[Page 23]]

the sponsor will forward to the responsible Flight Standards office the 
statement described in Sec. 60.15(b) in such time as to be received no 
later than 5 business days prior to the scheduled evaluation and may be 
forwarded to the responsible Flight Standards office via traditional or 
electronic means.
    (3) A QTG, acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, 
that includes all of the following:
    (a) Objective data obtained from traditional aircraft testing or 
another approved source.
    (b) Correlating objective test results obtained from the performance 
of the FFS as prescribed in the appropriate QPS.
    (c) The result of FFS subjective tests prescribed in the appropriate 
QPS.
    (d) A description of the equipment necessary to perform the 
evaluation for initial qualification and the continuing qualification 
evaluations.
    c. The QTG described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, must 
provide the documented proof of compliance with the simulator objective 
tests in Attachment 2, Table A2A of this appendix.
    d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by the sponsor, or the 
sponsor's agent on behalf of the sponsor, to the responsible Flight 
Standards office for review and approval, and must include, for each 
objective test:
    (1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions;
    (2) Pertinent and complete instructions for the conduct of automatic 
and manual tests;
    (3) A means of comparing the FFS test results to the objective data;
    (4) Any other information as necessary, to assist in the evaluation 
of the test results;
    (5) Other information appropriate to the qualification level of the 
FFS.
    e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, 
must include the following:
    (1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and FAA approval signature blocks 
(see Attachment 4, Figure A4C, of this appendix for a sample QTG cover 
page).
    (2) [Reserved]
    (3) An FFS information page that provides the information listed in 
this paragraph (see Attachment 4, Figure A4B, of this appendix for a 
sample FFS information page). For convertible FFSs, the sponsor must 
submit a separate page for each configuration of the FFS.
    (a) The sponsor's FFS identification number or code.
    (b) The airplane model and series being simulated.
    (c) The aerodynamic data revision number or reference.
    (d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model and the aerodynamic 
coefficient data used to modify the basic model.
    (e) The engine model(s) and its data revision number or reference.
    (f) The flight control data revision number or reference.
    (g) The flight management system identification and revision level.
    (h) The FFS model and manufacturer.
    (i) The date of FFS manufacture.
    (j) The FFS computer identification.
    (k) The visual system model and manufacturer, including display 
type.
    (l) The motion system type and manufacturer, including degrees of 
freedom.
    (4) A Table of Contents.
    (5) A log of revisions and a list of effective pages.
    (6) A list of all relevant data references.
    (7) A glossary of terms and symbols used (including sign conventions 
and units).
    (8) Statements of Compliance and Capability (SOCs) with certain 
requirements.
    (9) Recording procedures or equipment required to accomplish the 
objective tests.
    (10) The following information for each objective test designated in 
Attachment 2, Table A2A, of this appendix as applicable to the 
qualification level sought:
    (a) Name of the test.
    (b) Objective of the test.
    (c) Initial conditions.
    (d) Manual test procedures.
    (e) Automatic test procedures (if applicable).
    (f) Method for evaluating FFS objective test results.
    (g) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the 
automatically conducted test(s).
    (h) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the 
manually conducted test(s).
    (i) Tolerances for relevant parameters.
    (j) Source of Validation Data (document and page number).
    (k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located in a separate binder, a 
cross reference for the identification and page number for pertinent 
data location must be provided).
    (l) Simulator Objective Test Results as obtained by the sponsor. 
Each test result must reflect the date completed and must be clearly 
labeled as a product of the device being tested.
    f. A convertible FFS is addressed as a separate FFS for each model 
and series airplane to which it will be converted and for the FAA 
qualification level sought. If a sponsor seeks qualification for two or 
more models of an airplane type using a convertible FFS, the sponsor 
must submit a QTG for each airplane model, or a QTG for the first 
airplane model and a supplement to that QTG for each additional airplane 
model. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct evaluations 
for each airplane model.
    g. Form and manner of presentation of objective test results in the 
QTG:

[[Page 24]]

    (1) The sponsor's FFS test results must be recorded in a manner 
acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that allows easy 
comparison of the FFS test results to the validation data (e.g., use of 
a multi-channel recorder, line printer, cross plotting, overlays, 
transparencies).
    (2) FFS results must be labeled using terminology common to airplane 
parameters as opposed to computer software identifications.
    (3) Validation data documents included in a QTG may be 
photographically reduced only if such reduction will not alter the 
graphic scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpretation or 
resolution.
    (4) Scaling on graphical presentations must provide the resolution 
necessary to evaluate the parameters shown in Attachment 2, Table A2A of 
this appendix.
    (5) Tests involving time histories, data sheets (or transparencies 
thereof) and FFS test results must be clearly marked with appropriate 
reference points to ensure an accurate comparison between the FFS and 
the airplane with respect to time. Time histories recorded via a line 
printer are to be clearly identified for cross plotting on the airplane 
data. Over-plots must not obscure the reference data.
    h. The sponsor may elect to complete the QTG objective and 
subjective tests at the manufacturer's facility or at the sponsor's 
training facility (or other sponsor designated location where training 
will take place). If the tests are conducted at the manufacturer's 
facility, the sponsor must repeat at least one-third of the tests at the 
sponsor's training facility in order to substantiate FFS performance. 
The QTG must be clearly annotated to indicate when and where each test 
was accomplished. Tests conducted at the manufacturer's facility and at 
the sponsor's designated training facility must be conducted after the 
FFS is assembled with systems and sub-systems functional and operating 
in an interactive manner. The test results must be submitted to the 
responsible Flight Standards office.
    i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the MQTG at the FFS location.
    j. All FFSs for which the initial qualification is conducted after 
May 30, 2014, must have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including all 
objective data obtained from airplane testing, or another approved 
source (reformatted or digitized), together with correlating objective 
test results obtained from the performance of the FFS (reformatted or 
digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The eMQTG must also contain 
the general FFS performance or demonstration results (reformatted or 
digitized) prescribed in this appendix, and a description of the 
equipment necessary to perform the initial qualification evaluation and 
the continuing qualification evaluations. The eMQTG must include the 
original validation data used to validate FFS performance and handling 
qualities in either the original digitized format from the data supplier 
or an electronic scan of the original time-history plots that were 
provided by the data supplier. A copy of the eMQTG must be provided to 
the responsible Flight Standards office.
    k. All other FFSs not covered in subparagraph ``j'' must have an 
electronic copy of the MQTG by May 30, 2014. An electronic copy of the 
MQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office. This 
may be provided by an electronic scan presented in a Portable Document 
File (PDF), or similar format acceptable to the responsible Flight 
Standards office.
    l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualification evaluation 
conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must 
also provide a person who is a user of the device (e.g., a qualified 
pilot or instructor pilot with flight time experience in that aircraft) 
and knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the operation 
of the FFS.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    m. Only those FFSs that are sponsored by a certificate holder as 
defined in Appendix F of this part will be evaluated by the responsible 
Flight Standards office. However, other FFS evaluations may be conducted 
on a case-by-case basis as the Administrator deems appropriate, but only 
in accordance with applicable agreements.
    n. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct an 
evaluation for each configuration, and each FFS must be evaluated as 
completely as possible. To ensure a thorough and uniform evaluation, 
each FFS is subjected to the general simulator requirements in 
Attachment 1 of this appendix, the objective tests listed in Attachment 
2 of this appendix, and the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of 
this appendix. The evaluations described herein will include, but not 
necessarily be limited to the following:
    (1) Airplane responses, including longitudinal and lateral-
directional control responses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix);
    (2) Performance in authorized portions of the simulated airplane's 
operating envelope, to include tasks evaluated by the responsible Flight 
Standards office in the areas of surface operations, takeoff, climb, 
cruise, descent, approach, and landing as well as abnormal and emergency 
operations (see Attachment 2 of this appendix);
    (3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this 
appendix);
    (4) Flight deck configuration (see Attachment 1 of this appendix);

[[Page 25]]

    (5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor station functions checks 
(see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix);
    (6) Airplane systems and sub-systems (as appropriate) as compared to 
the airplane simulated (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this 
appendix);
    (7) FFS systems and sub-systems, including force cueing (motion), 
visual, and aural (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attachment 1 and 
Attachment 2 of this appendix); and
    (8) Certain additional requirements, depending upon the 
qualification level sought, including equipment or circumstances that 
may become hazardous to the occupants. The sponsor may be subject to 
Occupational Safety and Health Administration requirements.
    o. The responsible Flight Standards office administers the objective 
and subjective tests, which includes an examination of functions. The 
tests include a qualitative assessment of the FFS by a pilot from the 
responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation team leader may 
assign other qualified personnel to assist in accomplishing the 
functions examination and/or the objective and subjective tests 
performed during an evaluation when required.
    (1) Objective tests provide a basis for measuring and evaluating FFS 
performance and determining compliance with the requirements of this 
part.
    (2) Subjective tests provide a basis for:
    (a) Evaluating the capability of the FFS to perform over a typical 
utilization period;
    (b) Determining that the FFS satisfactorily simulates each required 
task;
    (c) Verifying correct operation of the FFS controls, instruments, 
and systems; and
    (d) Demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this part.
    p. The tolerances for the test parameters listed in Attachment 2 of 
this appendix reflect the range of tolerances acceptable to the 
responsible Flight Standards office for FFS validation and are not to be 
confused with design tolerances specified for FFS manufacture. In making 
decisions regarding tests and test results, the responsible Flight 
Standards office relies on the use of operational and engineering 
judgment in the application of data (including consideration of the way 
in which the flight test was flown and the way the data was gathered and 
applied), data presentations, and the applicable tolerances for each 
test.
    q. In addition to the scheduled continuing qualification evaluation, 
each FFS is subject to evaluations conducted by the responsible Flight 
Standards office at any time without prior notification to the sponsor. 
Such evaluations would be accomplished in a normal manner (i.e., 
requiring exclusive use of the FFS for the conduct of objective and 
subjective tests and an examination of functions) if the FFS is not 
being used for flight crewmember training, testing, or checking. 
However, if the FFS were being used, the evaluation would be conducted 
in a non-exclusive manner. This non-exclusive evaluation will be 
conducted by the FFS evaluator accompanying the check airman, 
instructor, Aircrew Program Designee (APD), or FAA inspector aboard the 
FFS along with the student(s) and observing the operation of the FFS 
during the training, testing, or checking activities.
    r. Problems with objective test results are handled as follows:
    (1) If a problem with an objective test result is detected by the 
evaluation team during an evaluation, the test may be repeated or the 
QTG may be amended.
    (2) If it is determined that the results of an objective test do not 
support the level requested but do support a lower level, the 
responsible Flight Standards office may qualify the FFS at that lower 
level. For example, if a Level D evaluation is requested and the FFS 
fails to meet sound test tolerances, it could be qualified at Level C.
    s. After an FFS is successfully evaluated, the responsible Flight 
Standards office issues a Statement of Qualification (SOQ) to the 
sponsor. The responsible Flight Standards office recommends the FFS to 
the TPAA, who will approve the FFS for use in a flight training program. 
The SOQ will be issued at the satisfactory conclusion of the initial or 
continuing qualification evaluation and will list the tasks for which 
the FFS is qualified, referencing the tasks described in Table A1B in 
Attachment 1 of this appendix. However, it is the sponsor's 
responsibility to obtain TPAA approval prior to using the FFS in an FAA-
approved flight training program.
    t. Under normal circumstances, the responsible Flight Standards 
office establishes a date for the initial or upgrade evaluation within 
ten (10) working days after determining that a complete QTG is 
acceptable. Unusual circumstances may warrant establishing an evaluation 
date before this determination is made. A sponsor may schedule an 
evaluation date as early as 6 months in advance. However, there may be a 
delay of 45 days or more in rescheduling and completing the evaluation 
if the sponsor is unable to meet the scheduled date. See Attachment 4 of 
this appendix, Figure A4A, Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or 
Reinstatement Evaluation.
    u. The numbering system used for objective test results in the QTG 
should closely follow the numbering system set out in Attachment 2 of 
this appendix, FFS Objective Tests, Table A2A.
    v. Contact the responsible Flight Standards office for additional 
information regarding the preferred qualifications of pilots used to 
meet the requirements of Sec. 60.15(d).

[[Page 26]]

    w. Examples of the exclusions for which the FFS might not have been 
subjectively tested by the sponsor or the responsible Flight Standards 
office and for which qualification might not be sought or granted, as 
described in Sec. 60.15(g)(6), include windshear training and circling 
approaches.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS (Sec. 
                                 60.16)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.16, Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

               13. Previously Qualified FFSs (Sec. 60.17)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. In instances where a sponsor plans to remove an FFS from active 
status for a period of less than two years, the following procedures 
apply:
    (1) The responsible Flight Standards office must be notified in 
writing and the notification must include an estimate of the period that 
the FFS will be inactive;
    (2) Continuing Qualification evaluations will not be scheduled 
during the inactive period;
    (3) The responsible Flight Standards office will remove the FFS from 
the list of qualified FSTDs on a mutually established date not later 
than the date on which the first missed continuing qualification 
evaluation would have been scheduled;
    (4) Before the FFS is restored to qualified status, it must be 
evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation 
content and the time required to accomplish the evaluation is based on 
the number of continuing qualification evaluations and sponsor-conducted 
quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity.
    (5) The sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office 
of any changes to the original scheduled time out of service;
    b. Simulators qualified prior to May 31, 2016, are not required to 
meet the general simulation requirements, the objective test 
requirements or the subjective test requirements of attachments 1, 2, 
and 3 of this appendix as long as the simulator continues to meet the 
test requirements contained in the MQTG developed under the original 
qualification basis.
    c. After May 30, 2009, each visual scene or airport model beyond the 
minimum required for the FFS qualification level that is installed in 
and available for use in a qualified FFS must meet the requirements 
described in attachment 3 of this appendix.
    d. Simulators qualified prior to May 31, 2016, may be updated. If an 
evaluation is deemed appropriate or necessary by the responsible Flight 
Standards office after such an update, the evaluation will not require 
an evaluation to standards beyond those against which the simulator was 
originally qualified.
    e. Other certificate holders or persons desiring to use an FFS may 
contract with FFS sponsors to use FFSs previously qualified at a 
particular level for an airplane type and approved for use within an 
FAA-approved flight training program. Such FFSs are not required to 
undergo an additional qualification process, except as described in 
Sec. 60.16.
    f. Each FFS user must obtain approval from the appropriate TPAA to 
use any FFS in an FAA-approved flight training program.
    g. The intent of the requirement listed in Sec. 60.17(b), for each 
FFS to have a SOQ within 6 years, is to have the availability of that 
statement (including the configuration list and the limitations to 
authorizations) to provide a complete picture of the FFS inventory 
regulated by the FAA. The issuance of the statement will not require any 
additional evaluation or require any adjustment to the evaluation basis 
for the FFS.
    h. Downgrading of an FFS is a permanent change in qualification 
level and will necessitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to reflect the 
revised qualification level, as appropriate. If a temporary restriction 
is placed on an FFS because of a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative 
component or on-going repairs, the restriction is not a permanent change 
in qualification level. Instead, the restriction is temporary and is 
removed when the reason for the restriction has been resolved.
    i. The responsible Flight Standards office will determine the 
evaluation criteria for an FFS that has been removed from active status. 
The criteria will be based on the number of continuing qualification 
evaluations and quarterly inspections missed during the period of 
inactivity. For example, if the FFS were out of service for a 1 year 
period, it would be necessary to complete the entire QTG, since all of 
the quarterly evaluations would have been missed. The responsible Flight 
Standards office will also consider how the FFS was stored, whether 
parts were removed from the FFS and whether the FFS was disassembled.
    j. The FFS will normally be requalified using the FAA-approved MQTG 
and the criteria that was in effect prior to its removal from 
qualification. However, inactive periods

[[Page 27]]

of 2 years or more will require requalification under the standards in 
effect and current at the time of requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance 
                       Requirements (Sec. 60.19)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of four evenly spaced 
inspections throughout the year. The objective test sequence and content 
of each inspection must be developed by the sponsor and must be 
acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.
    b. The description of the functional preflight check must be 
contained in the sponsor's QMS.
    c. Record ``functional preflight'' in the FFS discrepancy log book 
or other acceptable location, including any item found to be missing, 
malfunctioning, or inoperative.
    d. During the continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the 
responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must also provide a 
person knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the 
operation of the FFS.
    e. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct continuing 
qualification evaluations every 12 months unless:
    (1) The responsible Flight Standards office becomes aware of 
discrepancies or performance problems with the device that warrants more 
frequent evaluations; or
    (2) The sponsor implements a QMS that justifies less frequent 
evaluations. However, in no case shall the frequency of a continuing 
qualification evaluation exceed 36 months.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    f. The sponsor's test sequence and the content of each quarterly 
inspection required in Sec. 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a 
mix from the objective test requirement areas listed as follows:
    (1) Performance.
    (2) Handling qualities.
    (3) Motion system (where appropriate).
    (4) Visual system (where appropriate).
    (5) Sound system (where appropriate).
    (6) Other FFS systems.
    g. If the evaluator plans to accomplish specific tests during a 
normal continuing qualification evaluation that requires the use of 
special equipment or technicians, the sponsor will be notified as far in 
advance of the evaluation as practical; but not less than 72 hours. 
Examples of such tests include latencies, control dynamics, sounds and 
vibrations, motion, and/or some visual system tests.
    h. The continuing qualification evaluations, described in Sec. 
60.19(b), will normally require 4 hours of FFS time. However, 
flexibility is necessary to address abnormal situations or situations 
involving aircraft with additional levels of complexity (e.g., computer 
controlled aircraft). The sponsor should anticipate that some tests may 
require additional time. The continuing qualification evaluations will 
consist of the following:
    (1) Review of the results of the quarterly inspections conducted by 
the sponsor since the last scheduled continuing qualification 
evaluation.
    (2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 objective tests from the 
MQTG that provide an adequate opportunity to evaluate the performance of 
the FFS. The tests chosen will be performed either automatically or 
manually and should be able to be conducted within approximately one-
third (\1/3\) of the allotted FFS time.
    (3) A subjective evaluation of the FFS to perform a representative 
sampling of the tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appendix. This 
portion of the evaluation should take approximately two-thirds (\2/3\) 
of the allotted FFS time.
    (4) An examination of the functions of the FFS may include the 
motion system, visual system, sound system, instructor operating 
station, and the normal functions and simulated malfunctions of the 
airplane systems. This examination is normally accomplished 
simultaneously with the subjective evaluation requirements.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

               15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (Sec. 60.20)

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.20. Logging FFS Discrepancies.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Airplane Types or Models 
                              (Sec. 60.21)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.21, Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Airplane Types or Models.

[[Page 28]]

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                 17. Modifications to FFSs (Sec. 60.23)

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. The notification described in Sec. 60.23(c)(2) must include a 
complete description of the planned modification, with a description of 
the operational and engineering effect the proposed modification will 
have on the operation of the FFS and the results that are expected with 
the modification incorporated.
    b. Prior to using the modified FFS:
    (1) All the applicable objective tests completed with the 
modification incorporated, including any necessary updates to the MQTG 
(e.g., accomplishment of FSTD Directives) must be acceptable to the 
responsible Flight Standards office; and
    (2) The sponsor must provide the responsible Flight Standards office 
with a statement signed by the MR that the factors listed in Sec. 
60.15(b) are addressed by the appropriate personnel as described in that 
section.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    FSTD Directives are considered modifications of an FFS. See 
Attachment 4 of this appendix for a sample index of effective FSTD 
Directives. See Attachment 6 of this appendix for a list of all 
effective FSTD Directives applicable to Airplane FFSs.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 18. Operation with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components 
                              (Sec. 60.25)

                            Begin Information

    a. The sponsor's responsibility with respect to Sec. 60.25(a) is 
satisfied when the sponsor fairly and accurately advises the user of the 
current status of an FFS, including any missing, malfunctioning, or 
inoperative (MMI) component(s).
    b. It is the responsibility of the instructor, check airman, or 
representative of the administrator conducting training, testing, or 
checking to exercise reasonable and prudent judgment to determine if any 
MMI component is necessary for the satisfactory completion of a specific 
maneuver, procedure, or task.
    c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day period described in Sec. 
60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend 
the deadline until the next business day.
    d. In accordance with the authorization described in Sec. 60.25(b), 
the sponsor may develop a discrepancy prioritizing system to accomplish 
repairs based on the level of impact on the capability of the FFS. 
Repairs having a larger impact on FFS capability to provide the required 
training, evaluation, or flight experience will have a higher priority 
for repair or replacement.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
                       Qualification (Sec. 60.27)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FFS will be maintained 
during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, 
hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic 
fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FFS is to be 
maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight 
Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing 
required for requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
                       Qualification (Sec. 60.29)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FFS will be maintained 
during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, 
hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic 
fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FFS is to be 
maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight 
Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing 
required for requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

              21. Recordkeeping and Reporting (Sec. 60.31)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. FFS modifications can include hardware or software changes. For 
FFS modifications involving software programming changes, the record 
required by Sec. 60.31(a)(2) must consist of the name of the aircraft 
system software, aerodynamic model, or engine model change, the date of 
the change, a summary of the change, and the reason for the change.

[[Page 29]]

    b. If a coded form for record keeping is used, it must provide for 
the preservation and retrieval of information with appropriate security 
or controls to prevent the inappropriate alteration of such records 
after the fact.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, 
                  or Incorrect Statements (Sec. 60.33)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.33, Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, 
Falsification, or Incorrect Statements.

         23. Specific FFS Compliance Requirements (Sec. 60.35)

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.35, Specific FFS Compliance Requirements.

                             24. [Reserved]

   25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
                     Agreement (BASA) (Sec. 60.37)

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.37, FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
Agreement (BASA).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  Attachment 1 to Appendix A to Part 60--General Simulator Requirements

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                             1. Requirements

    a. Certain requirements included in this appendix must be supported 
with an SOC as defined in Appendix F, which may include objective and 
subjective tests. The requirements for SOCs are indicated in the 
``General Simulator Requirements'' column in Table A1A of this appendix.
    b. Table A1A describes the requirements for the indicated level of 
FFS. Many devices include operational systems or functions that exceed 
the requirements outlined in this section. However, all systems will be 
tested and evaluated in accordance with this appendix to ensure proper 
operation.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              2. Discussion

    a. This attachment describes the general simulator requirements for 
qualifying an airplane FFS. The sponsor should also consult the 
objective tests in Attachment 2 of this appendix and the examination of 
functions and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix 
to determine the complete requirements for a specific level simulator.
    b. The material contained in this attachment is divided into the 
following categories:
    (1) General flight deck configuration.
    (2) Simulator programming.
    (3) Equipment operation.
    (4) Equipment and facilities for instructor/evaluator functions.
    (5) Motion system.
    (6) Visual system.
    (7) Sound system.
    c. Table A1A provides the standards for the General Simulator 
Requirements.
    d. Table A1B provides the tasks that the sponsor will examine to 
determine whether the FFS satisfactorily meets the requirements for 
flight crew training, testing, and experience, and provides the tasks 
for which the simulator may be qualified.
    e. Table A1C provides the functions that an instructor/check airman 
must be able to control in the simulator.
    f. It is not required that all of the tasks that appear on the List 
of Qualified Tasks (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the initial 
or continuing qualification evaluation.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

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[[Page 47]]



              Table A1B--Table of Tasks vs. Simulator Level
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   QPS requirements                        Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   Subjective        Simulator levels
             requirements In order --------------------
               to be qualified at
                 the simulator
              qualification level
                 indicated, the
 Entry No.     simulator must be                              Notes
               able to perform at    A    B    C    D
                least the tasks
              associated with that
                    level of
                 qualification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a........  Preflight Inspection    X    X    X    X
              (flight deck only).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b........  Engine Start.........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c........  Taxiing..............        R    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d........  Pre-takeoff Checks...   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Takeoff and Departure Phase
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a........  Normal and Crosswind         R    X    X
              Takeoff
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b........  Instrument Takeoff...   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c........  Engine Failure During   A    X    X    X
              Takeoff.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d........  Rejected Takeoff.....   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e........  Departure Procedure..   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Inflight Maneuvers
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a........  Steep Turns..........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b. High
 Angle of
 Attack
 Maneuvers
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.1......  Approaches to Stall..   X    X    X    X
3.b.2......  Full Stall...........             X    X   Stall maneuvers
                                                         at angles of
                                                         attack above
                                                         the activation
                                                         of the stall
                                                         warning system.
                                                        Required only
                                                         for FSTDs
                                                         qualified to
                                                         conduct full
                                                         stall training
                                                         tasks as
                                                         indicated on
                                                         the Statement
                                                         of
                                                         Qualification.
3.c........  Engine Failure--        X    X    X    X
              Multiengine Airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d........  Engine Failure--        X    X    X    X
              Single-Engine
              Airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e........  Specific Flight         A    A    A    A
              Characteristics
              incorporated into
              the user's FAA
              approved flight
              training program.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.f........  Recovery From Unusual   X    X    X    X   Within the
              Attitudes.                                 normal flight
                                                         envelope
                                                         supported by
                                                         applicable
                                                         simulation
                                                         validation
                                                         data.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.g........  Upset Prevention and              X    X   Upset recovery
              Recovery Training                          or unusual
              (UPRT).                                    attitude
                                                         training
                                                         maneuvers
                                                         within the
                                                         FSTD's
                                                         validation
                                                         envelope that
                                                         are intended to
                                                         exceed pitch
                                                         attitudes
                                                         greater than 25
                                                         degrees nose
                                                         up; pitch
                                                         attitudes
                                                         greater than 10
                                                         degrees nose
                                                         down, and bank
                                                         angles greater
                                                         than 45
                                                         degrees.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Instrument Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a........  Standard Terminal       X    X    X    X
              Arrival/Flight
              Management System
              Arrivals Procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 48]]

 
4.b........  Holding..............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c........  Precision Instrument.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1......  All Engines Operating   X    X    X    X   e.g., Autopilot,
                                                         Manual (Flt.
                                                         Dir. Assisted),
                                                         Manual (Raw
                                                         Data).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2......  One Engine              X    X    X    X   e.g., Manual
              Inoperative.                               (Flt. Dir.
                                                         Assisted),
                                                         Manual (Raw
                                                         Data).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d........  Non-Precision           X    X    X    X   e.g., NDB, VOR,
              Instrument Approach.                       VOR/DME, VOR/
                                                         TAC, RNAV, LOC,
                                                         LOC/BC, ADF,
                                                         and SDF.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e........  Circling Approach....   X    X    X    X   Specific
                                                         authorization
                                                         required.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f........  Missed Approach......
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.1......  Normal...............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.2......  One Engine              X    X    X    X
              Inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Landings and Approaches to Landings
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a........  Normal and Crosswind         R    X    X
              Approaches and
              Landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b........  Landing From a               R    X    X
              Precision/Non-
              Precision Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c........  Approach and Landing   ...   R    X    X
              with (Simulated)
              Engine Failure--
              Multiengine Airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d........  Landing From Circling        R    X    X
              Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e........  Rejected Landing.....   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.f........  Landing From a No            R    X    X
              Flap or a
              Nonstandard Flap
              Configuration
              Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Normal and Abnormal Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a........  Engine (including       X    X    X    X
              shutdown and
              restart).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b........  Fuel System..........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c........  Electrical System....   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.d........  Hydraulic System.....   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.e........  Environmental and       X    X    X    X
              Pressurization
              Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.f........  Fire Detection and      X    X    X    X
              Extinguisher Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.g........  Navigation and          X    X    X    X
              Avionics Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.h........  Automatic Flight        X    X    X    X
              Control System,
              Electronic Flight
              Instrument System,
              and Related
              Subsystems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.i........  Flight Control          X    X    X    X
              Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.j........  Anti-ice and Deice      X    X    X    X
              Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.k........  Aircraft and Personal   X    X    X    X
              Emergency Equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Emergency Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a........  Emergency Descent       X    X    X    X
              (Max. Rate).
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 49]]

 
7.b........  Inflight Fire and       X    X    X    X
              Smoke Removal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c........  Rapid Decompression..   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d........  Emergency Evacuation.   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. Postflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a........  After-Landing           X    X    X    X
              Procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b........  Parking and Securing.   X    X    X   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
``A''--indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if
  the appropriate aircraft system or control is simulated in the FSTD
  and is working properly.
``R''--indicates that the simulator may be qualified for this task for
  continuing qualification training.
``X''--indicates that the simulator must be able to perform this task
  for this level of qualification.


               Table A1C--Table of Simulator System Tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   QPS requirements                        Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   Subjective        Simulator levels
             requirements In order --------------------
               to be qualified at
                 the simulator
              qualification level
                 indicated, the
 Entry No.     simulator must be                              Notes
               able to perform at    A    B    C    D
                least the tasks
              associated with that
                    level of
                 qualification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a........  Power switch(es).....   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b........  Airplane conditions..   X    X    X    X   e.g., GW, CG,
                                                         Fuel loading
                                                         and Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c........  Airports/Runways.....   X    X    X    X   e.g., Selection,
                                                         Surface,
                                                         Presets,
                                                         Lighting
                                                         controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d........  Environmental           X    X    X    X   e.g., Clouds,
              controls.                                  Visibility,
                                                         RVR, Temp,
                                                         Wind, Ice,
                                                         Snow, Rain, and
                                                         Windshear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e........  Airplane system         X    X    X    X
              malfunctions
              (Insertion/deletion).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f........  Locks, Freezes, and     X    X    X    X
              Repositioning.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Sound Controls
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a........  On/off/adjustment....   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Motion/Control Loading System
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a........  On/off/emergency stop   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Observer Seats/Stations
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a........  Position/Adjustment/    X    X    X    X
              Positive restraint
              system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

       Attachment 2 to Appendix A to Part 60--FFS Objective Tests

                            Table of Contents
------------------------------------------------------------------------
           Paragraph No.                            Title
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.................................  Introduction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.................................  Test Requirements.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                    Table A2A, Objective Tests.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.................................  General.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.................................  Control Dynamics.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 50]]

 
5.................................  Ground Effect.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.................................  Motion System.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.................................  Sound System.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.................................  Additional Information About Flight
                                     Simulator Qualification for New or
                                     Derivative Airplanes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.................................  Engineering Simulator--Validation
                                     Data.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10................................  [Reserved]
------------------------------------------------------------------------
11................................  Validation Test Tolerances.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
12................................  Validation Data Roadmap.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
13................................  Acceptance Guidelines for
                                     Alternative Engines Data.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
14................................  Acceptance Guidelines for
                                     Alternative Avionics (Flight-
                                     Related Computers and Controllers).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
15................................  Transport Delay Testing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
16................................  Continuing Qualification
                                     Evaluations--Validation Test Data
                                     Presentation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
17................................  Alternative Data Sources,
                                     Procedures, and Instrumentation:
                                     Level A and Level B Simulators
                                     Only.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                             1. Introduction

    a. For the purposes of this attachment, the flight conditions 
specified in the Flight Conditions Column of Table A2A of this appendix, 
are defined as follows:
    (1) Ground--on ground, independent of airplane configuration;
    (2) Take-off--gear down with flaps/slats in any certified takeoff 
position;
    (3) First segment climb--gear down with flaps/slats in any certified 
takeoff position (normally not above 50 ft AGL);
    (4) Second segment climb--gear up with flaps/slats in any certified 
takeoff position (normally between 50 ft and 400 ft AGL);
    (5) Clean--flaps/slats retracted and gear up;
    (6) Cruise--clean configuration at cruise altitude and airspeed;
    (7) Approach--gear up or down with flaps/slats at any normal 
approach position as recommended by the airplane manufacturer; and
    (8) Landing--gear down with flaps/slats in any certified landing 
position.
    b. The format for numbering the objective tests in Appendix A, 
Attachment 2, Table A2A, and the objective tests in Appendix B, 
Attachment 2, Table B2A, is identical. However, each test required for 
FFSs is not necessarily required for FTDs. Also, each test required for 
FTDs is not necessarily required for FFSs. Therefore, when a test number 
(or series of numbers) is not required, the term ``Reserved'' is used in 
the table at that location. Following this numbering format provides a 
degree of commonality between the two tables and substantially reduces 
the potential for confusion when referring to objective test numbers for 
either FFSs or FTDs.
    c. The reader is encouraged to review the Airplane Flight Simulator 
Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal 
Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test 
Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-8, as 
amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, for 
references and examples regarding flight testing requirements and 
techniques.
    d. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind 
vector should be clearly noted as part of the data presentation, 
expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the runway being 
used for the test.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                          2. Test Requirements

    a. The ground and flight tests required for qualification are listed 
in Table A2A, FFS Objective Tests. Computer generated simulator test 
results must be provided for each test except where an alternative test 
is specifically authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office. 
If a flight condition or operating condition is required for the test 
but does not apply to the airplane being simulated or to the 
qualification level sought, it may be disregarded (e.g., an engine out 
missed approach for a single-engine airplane or a maneuver using reverse 
thrust for an airplane without reverse thrust capability). Each test 
result is compared against the validation data described in Sec. 60.13 
and in this appendix. Although use of a driver program designed to 
automatically accomplish the tests is encouraged for all simulators and 
required for Level C and Level D simulators, it must be possible to 
conduct each test manually while recording all appropriate parameters. 
The results must be produced on an appropriate recording device 
acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office and must include 
simulator number, date, time, conditions, tolerances, and appropriate 
dependent variables portrayed in comparison to the validation data. Time 
histories are required unless otherwise indicated in Table A2A. All 
results must be labeled using the tolerances and units given.
    b. Table A2A in this attachment sets out the test results required, 
including the parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions

[[Page 51]]

for simulator validation. Tolerances are provided for the listed tests 
because mathematical modeling and acquisition and development of 
reference data are often inexact. All tolerances listed in the following 
tables are applied to simulator performance. When two tolerance values 
are given for a parameter, the less restrictive may be used unless 
otherwise indicated. In those cases where a tolerance is expressed only 
as a percentage, the tolerance percentage applies to the maximum value 
of that parameter within its normal operating range as measured from the 
neutral or zero position unless otherwise indicated.
    c. Certain tests included in this attachment must be supported with 
an SOC. In Table A2A, requirements for SOCs are indicated in the ``Test 
Details'' column.
    d. When operational or engineering judgment is used in making 
assessments for flight test data applications for simulator validity, 
such judgment must not be limited to a single parameter. For example, 
data that exhibit rapid variations of the measured parameters may 
require interpolations or a ``best fit'' data selection. All relevant 
parameters related to a given maneuver or flight condition must be 
provided to allow overall interpretation. When it is difficult or 
impossible to match simulator to airplane data throughout a time 
history, differences must be justified by providing a comparison of 
other related variables for the condition being assessed.
    e. It is not acceptable to program the FFS so that the mathematical 
modeling is correct only at the validation test points. Unless otherwise 
noted, simulator tests must represent airplane performance and handling 
qualities at operating weights and centers of gravity (CG) typical of 
normal operation. Simulator tests at extreme weight or CG conditions may 
be acceptable where required for concurrent aircraft certification 
testing. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of 
augmentation devices.
    f. When comparing the parameters listed to those of the airplane, 
sufficient data must also be provided to verify the correct flight 
condition and airplane configuration changes. For example, to show that 
control force is within the parameters for a static stability test, data 
to show the correct airspeed, power, thrust or torque, airplane 
configuration, altitude, and other appropriate datum identification 
parameters must also be given. If comparing short period dynamics, 
normal acceleration may be used to establish a match to the airplane, 
but airspeed, altitude, control input, airplane configuration, and other 
appropriate data must also be given. If comparing landing gear change 
dynamics, pitch, airspeed, and altitude may be used to establish a match 
to the airplane, but landing gear position must also be provided. All 
airspeed values must be properly annotated (e.g., indicated versus 
calibrated). In addition, the same variables must be used for comparison 
(e.g., compare inches to inches rather than inches to centimeters).
    g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must clearly describe how the 
simulator will be set up and operated for each test. Each simulator 
subsystem may be tested independently, but overall integrated testing of 
the simulator must be accomplished to assure that the total simulator 
system meets the prescribed standards. A manual test procedure with 
explicit and detailed steps for completing each test must also be 
provided.
    h. For previously qualified simulators, the tests and tolerances of 
this attachment may be used in subsequent continuing qualification 
evaluations for any given test if the sponsor has submitted a proposed 
MQTG revision to the responsible Flight Standards office and has 
received responsible Flight Standards office approval.
    i. Simulators are evaluated and qualified with an engine model 
simulating the airplane data supplier's flight test engine. For 
qualification of alternative engine models (either variations of the 
flight test engines or other manufacturer's engines) additional tests 
with the alternative engine models may be required. This attachment 
contains guidelines for alternative engines.
    j. For testing Computer Controlled Aircraft (CCA) simulators, or 
other highly augmented airplane simulators, flight test data is required 
for the Normal (N) and/or Non-normal (NN) control states, as indicated 
in this attachment. Where test results are independent of control state, 
Normal or Non-normal control data may be used. All tests in Table A2A 
require test results in the Normal control state unless specifically 
noted otherwise in the Test Details section following the CCA 
designation. The responsible Flight Standards office will determine what 
tests are appropriate for airplane simulation data. When making this 
determination, the responsible Flight Standards office may require other 
levels of control state degradation for specific airplane tests. Where 
Non-normal control states are required, test data must be provided for 
one or more Non-normal control states, and must include the least 
augmented state. Where applicable, flight test data must record Normal 
and Non-normal states for:
    (1) Pilot controller deflections or electronically generated inputs, 
including location of input; and
    (2) Flight control surface positions unless test results are not 
affected by, or are independent of, surface positions.
    k. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of 
augmentation devices. FFSs for highly augmented airplanes will be 
validated both in the unaugmented configuration (or failure state with 
the maximum permitted degradation in handling qualities) and the

[[Page 52]]

augmented configuration. Where various levels of handling qualities 
result from failure states, validation of the effect of the failure is 
necessary. Requirements for testing will be mutually agreed to between 
the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office on a case-by-
case basis.
    l. Some tests will not be required for airplanes using airplane 
hardware in the simulator flight deck (e.g., ``side stick controller''). 
These exceptions are noted in Section 2 ``Handling Qualities'' in Table 
A2A of this attachment. However, in these cases, the sponsor must 
provide a statement that the airplane hardware meets the appropriate 
manufacturer's specifications and the sponsor must have supporting 
information to that fact available for responsible Flight Standards 
office review.
    m. For objective test purposes, see Appendix F of this part for the 
definitions of ``Near maximum,'' ``Light,'' and ``Medium'' gross weight.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    n. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a 
``snapshot test'' or a ``series of snapshot tests'' results in lieu of a 
time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that 
a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the 
``snapshot.'' The steady state condition should exist from 4 seconds 
prior to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by 
the snap shot.
    o. For references on basic operating weight, see AC 120-27, 
``Aircraft Weight and Balance;'' and FAA-H-8083-1, ``Aircraft Weight and 
Balance Handbook.''

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

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________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                               3. General

    a. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind 
vector should be clearly noted as part of the data presentation, 
expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the runway being 
used for test near the ground.
    b. The reader is encouraged to review the Airplane Flight Simulator 
Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal 
Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test 
Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-8, as 
amended, Flight Test

[[Page 87]]

Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, for references and 
examples regarding flight testing requirements and techniques.

                           4. Control Dynamics

    a. General. The characteristics of an airplane flight control system 
have a major effect on handling qualities. A significant consideration 
in pilot acceptability of an airplane is the ``feel'' provided through 
the flight controls. Considerable effort is expended on airplane feel 
system design so that pilots will be comfortable and will consider the 
airplane desirable to fly. In order for an FFS to be representative, it 
should ``feel'' like the airplane being simulated. Compliance with this 
requirement is determined by comparing a recording of the control feel 
dynamics of the FFS to actual airplane measurements in the takeoff, 
cruise and landing configurations.
    (1) Recordings such as free response to an impulse or step function 
are classically used to estimate the dynamic properties of 
electromechanical systems. In any case, it is only possible to estimate 
the dynamic properties as a result of being able to estimate true inputs 
and responses. Therefore, it is imperative that the best possible data 
be collected since close matching of the FFS control loading system to 
the airplane system is essential. The required dynamic control tests are 
described in Table A2A of this attachment.
    (2) For initial and upgrade evaluations, the QPS requires that 
control dynamics characteristics be measured and recorded directly from 
the flight controls (Handling Qualities--Table A2A). This procedure is 
usually accomplished by measuring the free response of the controls 
using a step or impulse input to excite the system. The procedure should 
be accomplished in the takeoff, cruise and landing flight conditions and 
configurations.
    (3) For airplanes with irreversible control systems, measurements 
may be obtained on the ground if proper pitot-static inputs are provided 
to represent airspeeds typical of those encountered in flight. Likewise, 
it may be shown that for some airplanes, takeoff, cruise, and landing 
configurations have like effects. Thus, one may suffice for another. In 
either case, engineering validation or airplane manufacturer rationale 
should be submitted as justification for ground tests or for eliminating 
a configuration. For FFSs requiring static and dynamic tests at the 
controls, special test fixtures will not be required during initial and 
upgrade evaluations if the QTG shows both test fixture results and the 
results of an alternate approach (e.g., computer plots that were 
produced concurrently and show satisfactory agreement). Repeat of the 
alternate method during the initial evaluation satisfies this test 
requirement.
    b. Control Dynamics Evaluation. The dynamic properties of control 
systems are often stated in terms of frequency, damping and a number of 
other classical measurements. In order to establish a consistent means 
of validating test results for FFS control loading, criteria are needed 
that will clearly define the measurement interpretation and the applied 
tolerances. Criteria are needed for underdamped, critically damped and 
overdamped systems. In the case of an underdamped system with very light 
damping, the system may be quantified in terms of frequency and damping. 
In critically damped or overdamped systems, the frequency and damping 
are not readily measured from a response time history. Therefore, the 
following suggested measurements may be used:
    (1) For Level C and D simulators. Tests to verify that control feel 
dynamics represent the airplane should show that the dynamic damping 
cycles (free response of the controls) match those of the airplane 
within specified tolerances. The Flight Standards Service recognizes 
that several different testing methods may be used to verify the control 
feel dynamic response. The responsible Flight Standards office will 
consider the merits of testing methods based on reliability and 
consistency. One acceptable method of evaluating the response and the 
tolerance to be applied is described below for the underdamped and 
critically damped cases. A sponsor using this method to comply with the 
QPS requirements should perform the tests as follows:
    (a) Underdamped response. Two measurements are required for the 
period, the time to first zero crossing (in case a rate limit is 
present) and the subsequent frequency of oscillation. It is necessary to 
measure cycles on an individual basis in case there are non-uniform 
periods in the response. Each period will be independently compared to 
the respective period of the airplane control system and, consequently, 
will enjoy the full tolerance specified for that period. The damping 
tolerance will be applied to overshoots on an individual basis. Care 
should be taken when applying the tolerance to small overshoots since 
the significance of such overshoots becomes questionable. Only those 
overshoots larger than 5 per cent of the total initial displacement 
should be considered. The residual band, labeled T(Ad) on 
Figure A2A is 5 percent of the initial 
displacement amplitude Ad from the steady state value of the 
oscillation. Only oscillations outside the residual band are considered 
significant. When comparing FFS data to airplane data, the process 
should begin by overlaying or aligning the FFS and airplane steady state 
values and then comparing amplitudes of oscillation peaks, the time of 
the first zero crossing and individual periods of oscillation. The FFS 
should show the same number

[[Page 88]]

of significant overshoots to within one when compared against the 
airplane data. The procedure for evaluating the response is illustrated 
in Figure A2A.
    (b) Critically damped and overdamped response. Due to the nature of 
critically damped and overdamped responses (no overshoots), the time to 
reach 90 percent of the steady state (neutral point) value should be the 
same as the airplane within 10 percent. Figure A2B 
illustrates the procedure.
    (c) Special considerations. Control systems that exhibit 
characteristics other than classical overdamped or underdamped responses 
should meet specified tolerances. In addition, special consideration 
should be given to ensure that significant trends are maintained.
    (2) Tolerances.
    (a) The following table summarizes the tolerances, T, for 
underdamped systems, and ``n'' is the sequential period of a full cycle 
of oscillation. See Figure A2A of this attachment for an illustration of 
the referenced measurements.

T(P0).....................................  10% of
                                             P0.
T(P1).....................................  20% of
                                             P1.
T(P2).....................................  30% of
                                             P2.
T(Pn).....................................  10(n +
                                             1)% of Pn.
T(An).....................................  10% of
                                             A1.
T(Ad).....................................  5% of
                                             Ad = residual band.
 

    Significant overshoots, First overshoot and 1 
subsequent overshoots.
    (b) The following tolerance applies to critically damped and 
overdamped systems only. See Figure A2B for an illustration of the 
reference measurements:

T(P0).....................................  10% of
                                             P0
 

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

    c. Alternative method for control dynamics evaluation.
    (1) An alternative means for validating control dynamics for 
aircraft with hydraulically powered flight controls and artificial feel 
systems is by the measurement of control force and rate of movement. For 
each axis of pitch, roll, and yaw, the control must be forced to its 
maximum extreme position for the following distinct rates. These tests 
are conducted under normal flight and ground conditions.
    (a) Static test--Slowly move the control so that a full sweep is 
achieved within 95 to 105 seconds. A full sweep is defined as movement 
of the controller from neutral to the stop, usually aft or right stop, 
then to the opposite stop, then to the neutral position.
    (b) Slow dynamic test--Achieve a full sweep within 8-12 seconds.
    (c) Fast dynamic test--Achieve a full sweep within 3-5 seconds.

    Note: Dynamic sweeps may be limited to forces not exceeding 100 lbs. 
(44.5 daN).

    (d) Tolerances
    (i) Static test; see Table A2A, FFS Objective Tests, Entries 2.a.1., 
2.a.2., and 2.a.3.
    (ii) Dynamic test--2 lbs (0.9 daN) or 10% on dynamic increment above static test.

                           End QPS Requirement

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    d. The FAA is open to alternative means such as the one described 
above. The alternatives should be justified and appropriate to the 
application. For example, the method described here may not apply to all 
manufacturers' systems and certainly not to aircraft with reversible 
control systems. Each case is considered on its own merit on an ad hoc 
basis. If the FAA finds that alternative methods do not result in 
satisfactory performance, more conventionally accepted methods will have 
to be used.

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                            5. Ground Effect

    a. For an FFS to be used for take-off and landing (not applicable to 
Level A simulators in that the landing maneuver may not be credited in a 
Level A simulator) it should reproduce the aerodynamic changes that 
occur in ground effect. The parameters chosen for FFS validation should 
indicate these changes.
    (1) A dedicated test should be provided that will validate the 
aerodynamic ground effect characteristics.
    (2) The organization performing the flight tests may select 
appropriate test methods and procedures to validate ground effect. 
However, the flight tests should be performed with enough duration near 
the ground to sufficiently validate the ground-effect model.
    b. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider the merits 
of testing methods based on reliability and consistency. Acceptable 
methods of validating ground effect are described below. If other 
methods are proposed, rationale should be provided to conclude that the 
tests performed validate the ground-effect model. A sponsor using the 
methods described below to comply with the QPS requirements should 
perform the tests as follows:
    (1) Level fly-bys. The level fly-bys should be conducted at a 
minimum of three altitudes within the ground effect, including one at no 
more than 10% of the wingspan above the ground, one each at 
approximately 30% and 50% of the wingspan where height refers to main 
gear tire above the ground. In addition, one level-flight trim condition 
should be conducted out of ground effect (e.g., at 150% of wingspan).
    (2) Shallow approach landing. The shallow approach landing should be 
performed at a glide slope of approximately one degree with negligible 
pilot activity until flare.
    c. The lateral-directional characteristics are also altered by 
ground effect. For example, because of changes in lift, roll damping is 
affected. The change in roll damping will affect other dynamic modes 
usually evaluated for FFS validation. In fact, Dutch roll dynamics, 
spiral stability, and roll-rate for a given lateral control input are 
altered by ground effect. Steady heading sideslips will also be 
affected. These effects should be accounted for in the FFS modeling. 
Several

[[Page 91]]

tests such as crosswind landing, one engine inoperative landing, and 
engine failure on take-off serve to validate lateral-directional ground 
effect since portions of these tests are accomplished as the aircraft is 
descending through heights above the runway at which ground effect is an 
important factor.

                            6. Motion System

    a. General.
    (1) Pilots use continuous information signals to regulate the state 
of the airplane. In concert with the instruments and outside-world 
visual information, whole-body motion feedback is essential in assisting 
the pilot to control the airplane dynamics, particularly in the presence 
of external disturbances. The motion system should meet basic objective 
performance criteria, and should be subjectively tuned at the pilot's 
seat position to represent the linear and angular accelerations of the 
airplane during a prescribed minimum set of maneuvers and conditions. 
The response of the motion cueing system should also be repeatable.
    (2) The Motion System tests in Section 3 of Table A2A are intended 
to qualify the FFS motion cueing system from a mechanical performance 
standpoint. Additionally, the list of motion effects provides a 
representative sample of dynamic conditions that should be present in 
the flight simulator. An additional list of representative, training-
critical maneuvers, selected from Section 1 (Performance tests), and 
Section 2 (Handling Qualities tests), in Table A2A, that should be 
recorded during initial qualification (but without tolerance) to 
indicate the flight simulator motion cueing performance signature have 
been identified (reference Section 3.e). These tests are intended to 
help improve the overall standard of FFS motion cueing.
    b. Motion System Checks. The intent of test 3a, Frequency Response, 
and test 3b, Turn-Around Check, as described in the Table of Objective 
Tests, are to demonstrate the performance of the motion system hardware, 
and to check the integrity of the motion set-up with regard to 
calibration and wear. These tests are independent of the motion cueing 
software and should be considered robotic tests.
    c. Motion System Repeatability. The intent of this test is to ensure 
that the motion system software and motion system hardware have not 
degraded or changed over time. This diagnostic test should be completed 
during continuing qualification checks in lieu of the robotic tests. 
This will allow an improved ability to determine changes in the software 
or determine degradation in the hardware. The following information 
delineates the methodology that should be used for this test.
    (1) Input: The inputs should be such that rotational accelerations, 
rotational rates, and linear accelerations are inserted before the 
transfer from airplane center of gravity to pilot reference point with a 
minimum amplitude of 5 deg/sec/sec, 10 deg/sec and 0.3 g, respectively, 
to provide adequate analysis of the output.
    (2) Recommended output:
    (a) Actual platform linear accelerations; the output will comprise 
accelerations due to both the linear and rotational motion acceleration;
    (b) Motion actuators position.
    d. Objective Motion Cueing Test--Frequency Domain
    (1) Background. This test quantifies the response of the motion 
cueing system from the output of the flight model to the motion platform 
response. Other motion tests, such as the motion system frequency 
response, concentrate on the mechanical performance of the motion system 
hardware alone. The intent of this test is to provide quantitative 
frequency response records of the entire motion system for specified 
degree-of-freedom transfer relationships over a range of frequencies. 
This range should be representative of the manual control range for that 
particular aircraft type and the simulator as set up during 
qualification. The measurements of this test should include the combined 
influence of the motion cueing algorithm, the motion platform dynamics, 
and the transport delay associated with the motion cueing and control 
system implementation. Specified frequency responses describing the 
ability of the FSTD to reproduce aircraft translations and rotations, as 
well as the cross-coupling relations, are required as part of these 
measurements. When simulating forward aircraft acceleration, the 
simulator is accelerated momentarily in the forward direction to provide 
the onset cueing. This is considered the direct transfer relation. The 
simulator is simultaneously tilted nose-up due to the low-pass filter in 
order to generate a sustained specific force. The tilt associated with 
the generation of the sustained specific force, and the angular rates 
and angular accelerations associated with the initiation of the 
sustained specific force, are considered cross-coupling relations. The 
specific force is required for the perception of the aircraft sustained 
specific force, while the angular rates and accelerations do not occur 
in the aircraft and should be minimized.
    (2) Frequency response test. This test requires the frequency 
response to be measured for the motion cueing system. Reference 
sinusoidal signals are inserted at the pilot reference position prior to 
the motion cueing computations. The response of the motion platform in 
the corresponding degree-of-freedom (the direct transfer relations), as 
well as the motions resulting from cross-coupling (the cross-coupling 
relations), are recorded. These are the tests that are important to

[[Page 92]]

pilot motion cueing and are general tests applicable to all types of 
airplanes.
    (3) This test is only required to be run once for the initial 
qualification of the FSTD and will not be required for continuing 
qualification purposes. The FAA will accept test results provided by the 
FSTD manufacturer as part of a Statement of Compliance confirming that 
the objective motion cueing tests were used to assist in the tuning of 
the FSTD's motion cueing algorithms.
    e. Motion Vibrations.
    (1) Presentation of results. The characteristic motion vibrations 
may be used to verify that the flight simulator can reproduce the 
frequency content of the airplane when flown in specific conditions. The 
test results should be presented as a Power Spectral Density (PSD) plot 
with frequencies on the horizontal axis and amplitude on the vertical 
axis. The airplane data and flight simulator data should be presented in 
the same format with the same scaling. The algorithms used for 
generating the flight simulator data should be the same as those used 
for the airplane data. If they are not the same then the algorithms used 
for the flight simulator data should be proven to be sufficiently 
comparable. As a minimum, the results along the dominant axes should be 
presented and a rationale for not presenting the other axes should be 
provided.
    (2) Interpretation of results. The overall trend of the PSD plot 
should be considered while focusing on the dominant frequencies. Less 
emphasis should be placed on the differences at the high frequency and 
low amplitude portions of the PSD plot. During the analysis, certain 
structural components of the flight simulator have resonant frequencies 
that are filtered and may not appear in the PSD plot. If filtering is 
required, the notch filter bandwidth should be limited to 1 Hz to ensure 
that the buffet feel is not adversely affected. In addition, a rationale 
should be provided to explain that the characteristic motion vibration 
is not being adversely affected by the filtering. The amplitude should 
match airplane data as described below. However, if the PSD plot was 
altered for subjective reasons, a rationale should be provided to 
justify the change. If the plot is on a logarithmic scale, it may be 
difficult to interpret the amplitude of the buffet in terms of 
acceleration. For example, a 1 x 10-3 g-rms\2\/Hz would 
describe a heavy buffet and may be seen in the deep stall regime. 
Alternatively, a 1 x 10-6 g-rms\2\/Hz buffet is almost not 
perceivable; but may represent a flap buffet at low speed. The previous 
two examples differ in magnitude by 1000. On a PSD plot this represents 
three decades (one decade is a change in order of magnitude of 10; and 
two decades is a change in order of magnitude of 100).

    Note: In the example, ``g-rms\2\ is the mathematical expression for 
``g's root mean squared.''

                             7. Sound System

    a. General. The total sound environment in the airplane is very 
complex, and changes with atmospheric conditions, airplane 
configuration, airspeed, altitude, and power settings. Flight deck 
sounds are an important component of the flight deck operational 
environment and provide valuable information to the flight crew. These 
aural cues can either assist the crew (as an indication of an abnormal 
situation), or hinder the crew (as a distraction or nuisance). For 
effective training, the flight simulator should provide flight deck 
sounds that are perceptible to the pilot during normal and abnormal 
operations, and comparable to those of the airplane. The flight 
simulator operator should carefully evaluate background noises in the 
location where the device will be installed. To demonstrate compliance 
with the sound requirements, the objective or validation tests in this 
attachment were selected to provide a representative sample of normal 
static conditions typically experienced by a pilot.
    b. Alternate propulsion. For FFS with multiple propulsion 
configurations, any condition listed in Table A2A of this attachment 
should be presented for evaluation as part of the QTG if identified by 
the airplane manufacturer or other data supplier as significantly 
different due to a change in propulsion system (engine or propeller).
    c. Data and Data Collection System.
    (1) Information provided to the flight simulator manufacturer should 
be presented in the format suggested by the International Air Transport 
Association (IATA) ``Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data 
Requirements,'' as amended. This information should contain calibration 
and frequency response data.
    (2) The system used to perform the tests listed in Table A2A should 
comply with the following standards:
    (a) The specifications for octave, half octave, and third octave 
band filter sets may be found in American National Standards Institute 
(ANSI) S1.11-1986;
    (b) Measurement microphones should be type WS2 or better, as 
described in International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) 1094-4-
1995.
    (3) Headsets. If headsets are used during normal operation of the 
airplane they should also be used during the flight simulator 
evaluation.
    (4) Playback equipment. Playback equipment and recordings of the QTG 
conditions should be provided during initial evaluations.
    (5) Background noise.

[[Page 93]]

    (a) Background noise is the noise in the flight simulator that is 
not associated with the airplane, but is caused by the flight 
simulator's cooling and hydraulic systems and extraneous noise from 
other locations in the building. Background noise can seriously impact 
the correct simulation of airplane sounds and should be kept below the 
airplane sounds. In some cases, the sound level of the simulation can be 
increased to compensate for the background noise. However, this approach 
is limited by the specified tolerances and by the subjective 
acceptability of the sound environment to the evaluation pilot.
    (b) The acceptability of the background noise levels is dependent 
upon the normal sound levels in the airplane being represented. 
Background noise levels that fall below the lines defined by the 
following points, may be acceptable:
    (i) 70 dB @ 50 Hz;
    (ii) 55 dB @ 1000 Hz;
    (iii) 30 dB @ 16 kHz
    (Note: These limits are for unweighted \1/3\ octave band sound 
levels. Meeting these limits for background noise does not ensure an 
acceptable flight simulator. Airplane sounds that fall below this limit 
require careful review and may require lower limits on background 
noise.)
    (6) Validation testing. Deficiencies in airplane recordings should 
be considered when applying the specified tolerances to ensure that the 
simulation is representative of the airplane. Examples of typical 
deficiencies are:
    (a) Variation of data between tail numbers;
    (b) Frequency response of microphones;
    (c) Repeatability of the measurements.

 Table A2B--Example of Continuing Qualification Frequency Response Test
                                Tolerance
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                Continuing
                                   Initial    qualification    Absolute
     Band center  frequency        results       results      difference
                                   (dBSPL)       (dBSPL)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
50.............................         75.0           73.8          1.2
63.............................         75.9           75.6          0.3
80.............................         77.1           76.5          0.6
100............................         78.0           78.3          0.3
125............................         81.9           81.3          0.6
160............................         79.8           80.1          0.3
200............................         83.1           84.9          1.8
250............................         78.6           78.9          0.3
315............................         79.5           78.3          1.2
400............................         80.1           79.5          0.6
500............................         80.7           79.8          0.9
630............................         81.9           80.4          1.5
800............................         73.2           74.1          0.9
1000...........................         79.2           80.1          0.9
1250...........................         80.7           82.8          2.1
1600...........................         81.6           78.6          3.0
2000...........................         76.2           74.4          1.8
2500...........................         79.5           80.7          1.2
3150...........................         80.1           77.1          3.0
4000...........................         78.9           78.6          0.3
5000...........................         80.1           77.1          3.0
6300...........................         80.7           80.4          0.3
8000...........................         84.3           85.5          1.2
10000..........................         81.3           79.8          1.5
12500..........................         80.7           80.1          0.6
16000..........................         71.1           71.1          0.0
                                ----------------------------------------
    Average....................  ...........  .............          1.1
------------------------------------------------------------------------

 8. Additional Information About Flight Simulator Qualification for New 
                         or Derivative Airplanes

    a. Typically, an airplane manufacturer's approved final data for 
performance, handling qualities, systems or avionics is not available 
until well after a new or derivative airplane has entered service. 
However, flight crew training and certification often begins several 
months prior to the entry of the first airplane into service. 
Consequently, it may be necessary to use preliminary data provided by 
the airplane manufacturer for interim qualification of flight 
simulators.
    b. In these cases, the responsible Flight Standards office may 
accept certain partially validated preliminary airplane and systems 
data, and early release (``red label'') avionics data in order to permit 
the necessary program schedule for training, certification, and service 
introduction.
    c. Simulator sponsors seeking qualification based on preliminary 
data should consult the responsible Flight Standards office to make 
special arrangements for using preliminary data for flight simulator 
qualification. The sponsor should also consult the airplane and flight 
simulator manufacturers to develop a data plan and flight simulator 
qualification plan.
    d. The procedure to be followed to gain the responsible Flight 
Standards office acceptance of preliminary data will vary from case to 
case and between airplane manufacturers. Each airplane manufacturer's 
new airplane development and test program is designed to suit the needs 
of the particular project and may not contain the same events or 
sequence of events as another manufacturer's program, or even the same 
manufacturer's program for a different airplane. Therefore, there cannot 
be a prescribed invariable procedure for acceptance of preliminary data, 
but instead there should be a statement describing the final sequence of 
events, data sources, and validation procedures agreed by the simulator 
sponsor, the airplane manufacturer, the flight simulator manufacturer, 
and the responsible Flight Standards office.


[[Page 94]]


    Note: A description of airplane manufacturer-provided data needed 
for flight simulator modeling and validation is to be found in the IATA 
Document ``Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,'' 
as amended.

    e. The preliminary data should be the manufacturer's best 
representation of the airplane, with assurance that the final data will 
not significantly deviate from the preliminary estimates. Data derived 
from these predictive or preliminary techniques should be validated 
against available sources including, at least, the following:
    (1) Manufacturer's engineering report. The report should explain the 
predictive method used and illustrate past success of the method on 
similar projects. For example, the manufacturer could show the 
application of the method to an earlier airplane model or predict the 
characteristics of an earlier model and compare the results to final 
data for that model.
    (2) Early flight test results. This data is often derived from 
airplane certification tests, and should be used to maximum advantage 
for early flight simulator validation. Certain critical tests that would 
normally be done early in the airplane certification program should be 
included to validate essential pilot training and certification 
maneuvers. These include cases where a pilot is expected to cope with an 
airplane failure mode or an engine failure. Flight test data that will 
be available early in the flight test program will depend on the 
airplane manufacturer's flight test program design and may not be the 
same in each case. The flight test program of the airplane manufacturer 
should include provisions for generation of very early flight test 
results for flight simulator validation.
    f. The use of preliminary data is not indefinite. The airplane 
manufacturer's final data should be available within 12 months after the 
airplane's first entry into service or as agreed by the responsible 
Flight Standards office, the simulator sponsor, and the airplane 
manufacturer. When applying for interim qualification using preliminary 
data, the simulator sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office 
should agree on the update program. This includes specifying that the 
final data update will be installed in the flight simulator within a 
period of 12 months following the final data release, unless special 
conditions exist and a different schedule is acceptable. The flight 
simulator performance and handling validation would then be based on 
data derived from flight tests or from other approved sources. Initial 
airplane systems data should be updated after engineering tests. Final 
airplane systems data should also be used for flight simulator 
programming and validation.
    g. Flight simulator avionics should stay essentially in step with 
airplane avionics (hardware and software) updates. The permitted time 
lapse between airplane and flight simulator updates should be minimal. 
It may depend on the magnitude of the update and whether the QTG and 
pilot training and certification are affected. Differences in airplane 
and flight simulator avionics versions and the resulting effects on 
flight simulator qualification should be agreed between the simulator 
sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office. Consultation with 
the flight simulator manufacturer is desirable throughout the 
qualification process.
    h. The following describes an example of the design data and sources 
that might be used in the development of an interim qualification plan.
    (1) The plan should consist of the development of a QTG based upon a 
mix of flight test and engineering simulation data. For data collected 
from specific airplane flight tests or other flights, the required 
design model or data changes necessary to support an acceptable Proof of 
Match (POM) should be generated by the airplane manufacturer.
    (2) For proper validation of the two sets of data, the airplane 
manufacturer should compare their simulation model responses against the 
flight test data, when driven by the same control inputs and subjected 
to the same atmospheric conditions as recorded in the flight test. The 
model responses should result from a simulation where the following 
systems are run in an integrated fashion and are consistent with the 
design data released to the flight simulator manufacturer:
    (a) Propulsion;
    (b) Aerodynamics;
    (c) Mass properties;
    (d) Flight controls;
    (e) Stability augmentation; and
    (f) Brakes/landing gear.
    i. A qualified test pilot should be used to assess handling 
qualities and performance evaluations for the qualification of flight 
simulators of new airplane types.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

                9. Engineering Simulator--Validation Data

    a. When a fully validated simulation (i.e., validated with flight 
test results) is modified due to changes to the simulated airplane 
configuration, the airplane manufacturer or other acceptable data 
supplier must coordinate with the responsible Flight Standards office if 
they propose to supply validation data from an ``audited'' engineering 
simulator/simulation to selectively supplement flight test data. The 
responsible Flight Standards office must be provided an opportunity to 
audit the engineering simulation

[[Page 95]]

or the engineering simulator used to generate the validation data. 
Validation data from an audited engineering simulation may be used for 
changes that are incremental in nature. Manufacturers or other data 
suppliers must be able to demonstrate that the predicted changes in 
aircraft performance are based on acceptable aeronautical principles 
with proven success history and valid outcomes. This must include 
comparisons of predicted and flight test validated data.
    b. Airplane manufacturers or other acceptable data suppliers seeking 
to use an engineering simulator for simulation validation data as an 
alternative to flight-test derived validation data, must contact the 
responsible Flight Standards office and provide the following:
    (1) A description of the proposed aircraft changes, a description of 
the proposed simulation model changes, and the use of an integral 
configuration management process, including a description of the actual 
simulation model modifications that includes a step-by-step description 
leading from the original model(s) to the current model(s).
    (2) A schedule for review by the responsible Flight Standards office 
of the proposed plan and the subsequent validation data to establish 
acceptability of the proposal.
    (3) Validation data from an audited engineering simulator/simulation 
to supplement specific segments of the flight test data.
    c. To be qualified to supply engineering simulator validation data, 
for aerodynamic, engine, flight control, or ground handling models, an 
airplane manufacturer or other acceptable data supplier must:
    (1) Be able to verify their ability able to:
    (a) Develop and implement high fidelity simulation models; and
    (b) Predict the handling and performance characteristics of an 
airplane with sufficient accuracy to avoid additional flight test 
activities for those handling and performance characteristics.
    (2) Have an engineering simulator that:
    (a) Is a physical entity, complete with a flight deck representative 
of the simulated class of airplane;
    (b) Has controls sufficient for manual flight;
    (c) Has models that run in an integrated manner;
    (d) Has fully flight-test validated simulation models as the 
original or baseline simulation models;
    (e) Has an out-of-the-flight deck visual system;
    (f) Has actual avionics boxes interchangeable with the equivalent 
software simulations to support validation of released software;
    (g) Uses the same models as released to the training community 
(which are also used to produce stand-alone proof-of-match and checkout 
documents);
    (h) Is used to support airplane development and certification; and
    (i) Has been found to be a high fidelity representation of the 
airplane by the manufacturer's pilots (or other acceptable data 
supplier), certificate holders, and the responsible Flight Standards 
office.
    (3) Use the engineering simulator/simulation to produce a 
representative set of integrated proof-of-match cases.
    (4) Use a configuration control system covering hardware and 
software for the operating components of the engineering simulator/
simulation.
    (5) Demonstrate that the predicted effects of the change(s) are 
within the provisions of sub-paragraph ``a'' of this section, and 
confirm that additional flight test data are not required.
    d. Additional Requirements for Validation Data
    (1) When used to provide validation data, an engineering simulator 
must meet the simulator standards currently applicable to training 
simulators except for the data package.
    (2) The data package used must be:
    (a) Comprised of the engineering predictions derived from the 
airplane design, development, or certification process;
    (b) Based on acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success 
history and valid outcomes for aerodynamics, engine operations, avionics 
operations, flight control applications, or ground handling;
    (c) Verified with existing flight-test data; and
    (d) Applicable to the configuration of a production airplane, as 
opposed to a flight-test airplane.
    (3) Where engineering simulator data are used as part of a QTG, an 
essential match must exist between the training simulator and the 
validation data.
    (4) Training flight simulator(s) using these baseline and modified 
simulation models must be qualified to at least internationally 
recognized standards, such as contained in the ICAO Document 9625, the 
``Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators.''

                           End QPS Requirement

________________________________________________________________________

                             10. [Reserved]

                     11. Validation Test Tolerances

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. Non-Flight-Test Tolerances
    (1) If engineering simulator data or other non-flight-test data are 
used as an allowable

[[Page 96]]

form of reference validation data for the objective tests listed in 
Table A2A of this attachment, the data provider must supply a well-
documented mathematical model and testing procedure that enables a 
replication of the engineering simulation results within 40% of the 
corresponding flight test tolerances.
    b. Background
    (1) The tolerances listed in Table A2A of this attachment are 
designed to measure the quality of the match using flight-test data as a 
reference.
    (2) Good engineering judgment should be applied to all tolerances in 
any test. A test is failed when the results clearly fall outside of the 
prescribed tolerance(s).
    (3) Engineering simulator data are acceptable because the same 
simulation models used to produce the reference data are also used to 
test the flight training simulator (i.e., the two sets of results should 
be ``essentially'' similar).
    (4) The results from the two sources may differ for the following 
reasons:
    (a) Hardware (avionics units and flight controls);
    (b) Iteration rates;
    (c) Execution order;
    (d) Integration methods;
    (e) Processor architecture;
    (f) Digital drift, including:
    (i) Interpolation methods;
    (ii) Data handling differences; and
    (iii) Auto-test trim tolerances.
    (5) The tolerance limit between the reference data and the flight 
simulator results is generally 40 percent of the corresponding `flight-
test' tolerances. However, there may be cases where the simulator models 
used are of higher fidelity, or the manner in which they are cascaded in 
the integrated testing loop have the effect of a higher fidelity, than 
those supplied by the data provider. Under these circumstances, it is 
possible that an error greater than 40 percent may be generated. An 
error greater than 40 percent may be acceptable if simulator sponsor can 
provide an adequate explanation.
    (6) Guidelines are needed for the application of tolerances to 
engineering-simulator-generated validation data because:
    (a) Flight-test data are often not available due to technical 
reasons;
    (b) Alternative technical solutions are being advanced; and
    (c) High costs.

                       12. Validation Data Roadmap

    a. Airplane manufacturers or other data suppliers should supply a 
validation data roadmap (VDR) document as part of the data package. A 
VDR document contains guidance material from the airplane validation 
data supplier recommending the best possible sources of data to be used 
as validation data in the QTG. A VDR is of special value when requesting 
interim qualification, qualification of simulators for airplanes 
certificated prior to 1992, and qualification of alternate engine or 
avionics fits. A sponsor seeking to have a device qualified in 
accordance with the standards contained in this QPS appendix should 
submit a VDR to the responsible Flight Standards office as early as 
possible in the planning stages. The responsible Flight Standards office 
is the final authority to approve the data to be used as validation 
material for the QTG.
    b. The VDR should identify (in matrix format) sources of data for 
all required tests. It should also provide guidance regarding the 
validity of these data for a specific engine type, thrust rating 
configuration, and the revision levels of all avionics affecting 
airplane handling qualities and performance. The VDR should include 
rationale or explanation in cases where data or parameters are missing, 
engineering simulation data are to be used, flight test methods require 
explanation, or there is any deviation from data requirements. 
Additionally, the document should refer to other appropriate sources of 
validation data (e.g., sound and vibration data documents).
    c. The Sample Validation Data Roadmap (VDR) for airplanes, shown in 
Table A2C, depicts a generic roadmap matrix identifying sources of 
validation data for an abbreviated list of tests. This document is 
merely a sample and does not provide actual data. A complete matrix 
should address all test conditions and provide actual data and data 
sources.
    d. Two examples of rationale pages are presented in Appendix F of 
the IATA ``Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements.'' 
These illustrate the type of airplane and avionics configuration 
information and descriptive engineering rationale used to describe data 
anomalies or provide an acceptable basis for using alternative data for 
QTG validation requirements.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 97]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.002


[[Page 98]]



                            Begin Information

________________________________________________________________________

         13. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Engines Data.

                              a. Background

    (1) For a new airplane type, the majority of flight validation data 
are collected on the first airplane configuration with a ``baseline'' 
engine type. These data are then used to validate all flight simulators 
representing that airplane type.
    (2) Additional flight test validation data may be needed for flight 
simulators representing an airplane with engines of a different type 
than the baseline, or for engines with thrust rating that is different 
from previously validated configurations.
    (3) When a flight simulator with alternate engines is to be 
qualified, the QTG should contain tests against flight test validation 
data for selected cases where engine differences are expected to be 
significant.

   b. Approval Guidelines For Validating Alternate Engine Applications

    (1) The following guidelines apply to flight simulators representing 
airplanes with alternate engine applications or with more than one 
engine type or thrust rating.
    (2) Validation tests can be segmented into two groups, those that 
are dependent on engine type or thrust rating and those that are not.
    (3) For tests that are independent of engine type or thrust rating, 
the QTG can be based on validation data from any engine application. 
Tests in this category should be designated as independent of engine 
type or thrust rating.
    (4) For tests that are affected by engine type, the QTG should 
contain selected engine-specific flight test data sufficient to validate 
that particular airplane-engine configuration. These effects may be due 
to engine dynamic characteristics, thrust levels or engine-related 
airplane configuration changes. This category is primarily characterized 
by variations between different engine manufacturers' products, but also 
includes differences due to significant engine design changes from a 
previously flight-validated configuration within a single engine type. 
See Table A2D, Alternate Engine Validation Flight Tests in this section 
for a list of acceptable tests.
    (5) Alternate engine validation data should be based on flight test 
data, except as noted in sub-paragraphs 13.c.(1) and (2), or where other 
data are specifically allowed (e.g., engineering simulator/simulation 
data). If certification of the flight characteristics of the airplane 
with a new thrust rating (regardless of percentage change) does require 
certification flight testing with a comprehensive stability and control 
flight instrumentation package, then the conditions described in Table 
A2D in this section should be obtained from flight testing and presented 
in the QTG. Flight test data, other than throttle calibration data, are 
not required if the new thrust rating is certified on the airplane 
without need for a comprehensive stability and control flight 
instrumentation package.
    (6) As a supplement to the engine-specific flight tests listed in 
Table A2D and baseline engine-independent tests, additional engine-
specific engineering validation data should be provided in the QTG, as 
appropriate, to facilitate running the entire QTG with the alternate 
engine configuration. The sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards 
office should agree in advance on the specific validation tests to be 
supported by engineering simulation data.
    (7) A matrix or VDR should be provided with the QTG indicating the 
appropriate validation data source for each test.
    (8) The flight test conditions in Table A2D are appropriate and 
should be sufficient to validate implementation of alternate engines in 
a flight simulator.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

                          c. Test Requirements

    (1) The QTG must contain selected engine-specific flight test data 
sufficient to validate the alternative thrust level when:
    (a) the engine type is the same, but the thrust rating exceeds that 
of a previously flight-test validated configuration by five percent (5%) 
or more; or
    (b) the engine type is the same, but the thrust rating is less than 
the lowest previously flight-test validated rating by fifteen percent 
(15%) or more. See Table A2D for a list of acceptable tests.
    (2) Flight test data is not required if the thrust increase is 
greater than 5%, but flight tests have confirmed that the thrust 
increase does not change the airplane's flight characteristics.
    (3) Throttle calibration data (i.e., commanded power setting 
parameter versus throttle position) must be provided to validate all 
alternate engine types and engine thrust ratings that are higher or 
lower than a previously validated engine. Data from a test airplane or 
engineering test bench with the correct engine controller (both hardware 
and software) are required.

                           End QPS Requirement

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

[[Page 99]]



                              Table A2D--Alternative Engine Validation Flight Tests
 
                                                                                                   Alternative
           Entry No.                 Test description                             Alternative     thrust rating
                                                                                  engine type          \2\
 
 
1.b.1., 1.b.4..................--Normal take-off/ground acceleration time and----------------X----------------X-
                                  distance
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2..........................  Vmcg, if performed for airplane certification               X                X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.5..........................  Engine-out take-off     Either test may be
1.b.8..........................  Dynamic engine failure   performed.                         X
                                  after take-off..
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.7..........................  Rejected take-off if performed for airplane                 X
                                  certification
1.d.1..........................  Cruise performance                                          X
1.f.1., 1.f.2..................  Engine acceleration and deceleration                        X                X
2.a.7..........................  Throttle calibration \1\                                    X                X
2.c.1..........................  Power change dynamics (acceleration)                        X                X
2.d.1..........................  Vmca if performed for airplane certification                X                X
2.d.5..........................  Engine inoperative trim                                     X                X
2.e.1..........................  Normal landing                                              X   ...............
 
\1\ Must be provided for all changes in engine type or thrust rating; see paragraph 13.c.(3).
\2\ See paragraphs 13.c.(1) through 13.c.(3), for a definition of applicable thrust ratings.

                           End QPS Requirement

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

   14. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics (Flight-Related 
                       Computers and Controllers)

                              a. Background

    (1) For a new airplane type, the majority of flight validation data 
are collected on the first airplane configuration with a ``baseline'' 
flight-related avionics ship-set; (see subparagraph b.(2) of this 
section). These data are then used to validate all flight simulators 
representing that airplane type.
    (2) Additional validation data may be required for flight simulators 
representing an airplane with avionics of a different hardware design 
than the baseline, or a different software revision than previously 
validated configurations.
    (3) When a flight simulator with additional or alternate avionics 
configurations is to be qualified, the QTG should contain tests against 
validation data for selected cases where avionics differences are 
expected to be significant.

        b. Approval Guidelines for Validating Alternate Avionics

    (1) The following guidelines apply to flight simulators representing 
airplanes with a revised avionics configuration, or more than one 
avionics configuration.
    (2) The baseline validation data should be based on flight test 
data, except where other data are specifically allowed (e.g., 
engineering flight simulator data).
    (3) The airplane avionics can be segmented into two groups, systems 
or components whose functional behavior contributes to the aircraft 
response presented in the QTG results, and systems that do not. The 
following avionics are examples of contributory systems for which 
hardware design changes or software revisions may lead to significant 
differences in the aircraft response relative to the baseline avionics 
configuration: Flight control computers and controllers for engines, 
autopilot, braking system, nosewheel steering system, and high lift 
system. Related avionics such as stall warning and augmentation systems 
should also be considered.
    (4) The acceptability of validation data used in the QTG for an 
alternative avionics fit should be determined as follows:
    (a) For changes to an avionics system or component that do not 
affect QTG validation test response, the QTG test can be based on 
validation data from the previously validated avionics configuration.
    (b) For an avionics change to a contributory system, where a 
specific test is not affected by the change (e.g., the avionics change 
is a Built In Test Equipment (BITE) update or a modification in a 
different flight phase), the QTG test can be based on validation data 
from the previously-validated avionics configuration. The QTG should 
include authoritative justification (e.g., from the airplane 
manufacturer or system supplier) that this avionics change does not 
affect the test.
    (c) For an avionics change to a contributory system, the QTG may be 
based on validation data from the previously-validated avionics 
configuration if no new functionality is added and the impact of the 
avionics change on the airplane response is small and based on 
acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid 
outcomes. This should be supplemented with avionics-specific validation 
data from the airplane manufacturer's engineering

[[Page 100]]

simulation, generated with the revised avionics configuration. The QTG 
should also include an explanation of the nature of the change and its 
effect on the airplane response.
    (d) For an avionics change to a contributory system that 
significantly affects some tests in the QTG or where new functionality 
is added, the QTG should be based on validation data from the previously 
validated avionics configuration and supplemental avionics-specific 
flight test data sufficient to validate the alternate avionics revision. 
Additional flight test validation data may not be needed if the avionics 
changes were certified without the need for testing with a comprehensive 
flight instrumentation package. The airplane manufacturer should 
coordinate flight simulator data requirements, in advance with the 
responsible Flight Standards office.
    (5) A matrix or ``roadmap'' should be provided with the QTG 
indicating the appropriate validation data source for each test. The 
roadmap should include identification of the revision state of those 
contributory avionics systems that could affect specific test responses 
if changed.

                       15. Transport Delay Testing

    a. This paragraph explains how to determine the introduced transport 
delay through the flight simulator system so that it does not exceed a 
specific time delay. The transport delay should be measured from control 
inputs through the interface, through each of the host computer modules 
and back through the interface to motion, flight instrument, and visual 
systems. The transport delay should not exceed the maximum allowable 
interval.
    b. Four specific examples of transport delay are:
    (1) Simulation of classic non-computer controlled aircraft;
    (2) Simulation of computer controlled aircraft using real airplane 
black boxes;
    (3) Simulation of computer controlled aircraft using software 
emulation of airplane boxes;
    (4) Simulation using software avionics or re-hosted instruments.
    c. Figure A2C illustrates the total transport delay for a non-
computer-controlled airplane or the classic transport delay test. Since 
there are no airplane-induced delays for this case, the total transport 
delay is equivalent to the introduced delay.
    d. Figure A2D illustrates the transport delay testing method using 
the real airplane controller system.
    e. To obtain the induced transport delay for the motion, instrument 
and visual signal, the delay induced by the airplane controller should 
be subtracted from the total transport delay. This difference represents 
the introduced delay and should not exceed the standards prescribed in 
Table A1A.
    f. Introduced transport delay is measured from the flight deck 
control input to the reaction of the instruments and motion and visual 
systems (See Figure A2C).
    g. The control input may also be introduced after the airplane 
controller system and the introduced transport delay measured directly 
from the control input to the reaction of the instruments, and simulator 
motion and visual systems (See Figure A2D).
    h. Figure A2E illustrates the transport delay testing method used on 
a flight simulator that uses a software emulated airplane controller 
system.
    i. It is not possible to measure the introduced transport delay 
using the simulated airplane controller system architecture for the 
pitch, roll and yaw axes. Therefore, the signal should be measured 
directly from the pilot controller. The flight simulator manufacturer 
should measure the total transport delay and subtract the inherent delay 
of the actual airplane components because the real airplane controller 
system has an inherent delay provided by the airplane manufacturer. The 
flight simulator manufacturer should ensure that the introduced delay 
does not exceed the standards prescribed in Table A1A.
    j. Special measurements for instrument signals for flight simulators 
using a real airplane instrument display system instead of a simulated 
or re-hosted display. For flight instrument systems, the total transport 
delay should be measured and the inherent delay of the actual airplane 
components subtracted to ensure that the introduced delay does not 
exceed the standards prescribed in Table A1A.
    (1) Figure A2FA illustrates the transport delay procedure without 
airplane display simulation. The introduced delay consists of the delay 
between the control movement and the instrument change on the data bus.
    (2) Figure A2FB illustrates the modified testing method required to 
measure introduced delay due to software avionics or re-hosted 
instruments. The total simulated instrument transport delay is measured 
and the airplane delay should be subtracted from this total. This 
difference represents the introduced delay and should not exceed the 
standards prescribed in Table A1A. The inherent delay of the airplane 
between the data bus and the displays is indicated in figure A2FA. The 
display manufacturer should provide this delay time.
    k. Recorded signals. The signals recorded to conduct the transport 
delay calculations should be explained on a schematic block diagram. The 
flight simulator manufacturer should also provide an explanation of why 
each signal was selected and how they relate to the above descriptions.
    l. Interpretation of results. Flight simulator results vary over 
time from test to test

[[Page 101]]

due to ``sampling uncertainty.'' All flight simulators run at a specific 
rate where all modules are executed sequentially in the host computer. 
The flight controls input can occur at any time in the iteration, but 
these data will not be processed before the start of the new iteration. 
For example, a flight simulator running at 60 Hz may have a difference 
of as much as 16.67 msec between test results. This does not mean that 
the test has failed. Instead, the difference is attributed to variations 
in input processing. In some conditions, the host simulator and the 
visual system do not run at the same iteration rate, so the output of 
the host computer to the visual system will not always be synchronized.
    m. The transport delay test should account for both daylight and 
night modes of operation of the visual system. In both cases, the 
tolerances prescribed in Table A1A must be met and the motion response 
should occur before the end of the first video scan containing new 
information.

[[Page 102]]

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[[Page 103]]


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________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

     16. Continuing Qualification Evaluations--Validation Test Data 
                              Presentation

                              a. Background

    (1) The MQTG is created during the initial evaluation of a flight 
simulator. This is the master document, as amended, to which flight 
simulator continuing qualification evaluation test results are compared.
    (2) The currently accepted method of presenting continuing 
qualification evaluation test results is to provide flight simulator 
results over-plotted with reference data. Test results are carefully 
reviewed to determine if the test is within the specified tolerances. 
This can be a time consuming process, particularly when reference data 
exhibits rapid variations or an apparent anomaly requiring engineering 
judgment in the application of the tolerances. In these cases, the 
solution is to compare the results to the MQTG. The continuing 
qualification results are compared to the results in the MQTG for 
acceptance. The flight simulator operator and the responsible Flight 
Standards office should look for any change in the flight simulator 
performance since initial qualification.

    b. Continuing Qualification Evaluation Test Results Presentation

    (1) Flight simulator operators are encouraged to over-plot 
continuing qualification validation test results with MQTG flight 
simulator results recorded during the initial evaluation and as amended. 
Any change in a validation test will be readily apparent. In addition to 
plotting continuing qualification validation test and MQTG results, 
operators may elect to plot reference data as well.
    (2) There are no suggested tolerances between flight simulator 
continuing qualification and MQTG validation test results. Investigation 
of any discrepancy between the MQTG and continuing qualification flight 
simulator performance is left to the discretion of the flight simulator 
operator and the responsible Flight Standards office.

[[Page 104]]

    (3) Differences between the two sets of results, other than 
variations attributable to repeatability issues that cannot be 
explained, should be investigated.
    (4) The flight simulator should retain the ability to over-plot both 
automatic and manual validation test results with reference data.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

 17. Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation: Level A 
                       and Level B Simulators Only

    a. Sponsors are not required to use the alternative data sources, 
procedures, and instrumentation. However, a sponsor may choose to use 
one or more of the alternative sources, procedures, and instrumentation 
described in Table A2E.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    b. It has become standard practice for experienced simulator 
manufacturers to use modeling techniques to establish data bases for new 
simulator configurations while awaiting the availability of actual 
flight test data. The data generated from the aerodynamic modeling 
techniques is then compared to the flight test data when it becomes 
available. The results of such comparisons have become increasingly 
consistent, indicating that these techniques, applied with the 
appropriate experience, are dependable and accurate for the development 
of aerodynamic models for use in Level A and Level B simulators.
    c. Based on this history of successful comparisons, the responsible 
Flight Standards office has concluded that those who are experienced in 
the development of aerodynamic models may use modeling techniques to 
alter the method for acquiring flight test data for Level A or Level B 
simulators.
    d. The information in Table A2E (Alternative Data Sources, 
Procedures, and Instrumentation) is presented to describe an acceptable 
alternative to data sources for simulator modeling and validation and an 
acceptable alternative to the procedures and instrumentation 
traditionally used to gather such modeling and validation data.
    (1) Alternative data sources that may be used for part or all of a 
data requirement are the Airplane Maintenance Manual, the Airplane 
Flight Manual (AFM), Airplane Design Data, the Type Inspection Report 
(TIR), Certification Data or acceptable supplemental flight test data.
    (2) The sponsor should coordinate with the responsible Flight 
Standards office prior to using alternative data sources in a flight 
test or data gathering effort.
    e. The responsible Flight Standards office position regarding the 
use of these alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation 
is based on the following presumptions:
    (1) Data gathered through the alternative means does not require 
angle of attack (AOA) measurements or control surface position 
measurements for any flight test. However, AOA can be sufficiently 
derived if the flight test program ensures the collection of acceptable 
level, unaccelerated, trimmed flight data. All of the simulator time 
history tests that begin in level, unaccelerated, and trimmed flight, 
including the three basic trim tests and ``fly-by'' trims, can be a 
successful validation of angle of attack by comparison with flight test 
pitch angle. (Note: Due to the criticality of angle of attack in the 
development of the ground effects model, particularly critical for 
normal landings and landings involving cross-control input applicable to 
Level B simulators, stable ``fly-by'' trim data will be the acceptable 
norm for normal and cross-control input landing objective data for these 
applications.)
    (2) The use of a rigorously defined and fully mature simulation 
controls system model that includes accurate gearing and cable stretch 
characteristics (where applicable), determined from actual aircraft 
measurements. Such a model does not require control surface position 
measurements in the flight test objective data in these limited 
applications.
    f. The sponsor is urged to contact the responsible Flight Standards 
office for clarification of any issue regarding airplanes with 
reversible control systems. Table A2E is not applicable to Computer 
Controlled Aircraft FFSs.
    g. Utilization of these alternate data sources, procedures, and 
instrumentation (Table A2E) does not relieve the sponsor from compliance 
with the balance of the information contained in this document relative 
to Level A or Level B FFSs.
    h. The term ``inertial measurement system'' is used in the following 
table to include the use of a functional global positioning system 
(GPS).
    i. Synchronized video for the use of alternative data sources, 
procedures, and instrumentation should have:
    (1) Sufficient resolution to allow magnification of the display to 
make appropriate measurement and comparisons; and
    (2) Sufficient size and incremental marking to allow similar 
measurement and comparison. The detail provided by the video should 
provide sufficient clarity and accuracy to measure the necessary 
parameter(s) to at least \1/2\ of the tolerance authorized for

[[Page 105]]

the specific test being conducted and allow an integration of the 
parameter(s) in question to obtain a rate of change.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                      Table A2E--Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    QPS REQUIREMENTS The standards in this table are required if the data gathering            Information
             methods described in paragraph 9 of Appendix A are not used.              -------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Table of objective tests            Sim level       Alternative data sources,
--------------------------------------------------------        procedures, and                   Notes
     Test entry number and title          A        B            instrumentation
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1. Performance. Taxi. Minimum           X        X   TIR, AFM, or Design data may
 Radius turn.                                             be used.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.2. Performance. Taxi Rate of Turn  .......       X   Data may be acquired by using  A single procedure may
 vs. Nosewheel Steering Angle.                            a constant tiller position,    not be adequate for all
                                                          measured with a protractor     airplane steering
                                                          or full rudder pedal           systems, therefore
                                                          application for steady state   appropriate measurement
                                                          turn, and synchronized video   procedures must be
                                                          of heading indicator. If       devised and proposed
                                                          less than full rudder pedal    for the responsible
                                                          is used, pedal position must   Flight Standards office
                                                          be recorded..                  concurrence.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1. Performance. Takeoff. Ground         X        X   Preliminary certification
 Acceleration Time and Distance.                          data may be used. Data may
                                                          be acquired by using a stop
                                                          watch, calibrated airspeed,
                                                          and runway markers during a
                                                          takeoff with power set
                                                          before brake release. Power
                                                          settings may be hand
                                                          recorded. If an inertial
                                                          measurement system is
                                                          installed, speed and
                                                          distance may be derived from
                                                          acceleration measurements.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2. Performance. Takeoff. Minimum        X        X   Data may be acquired by using  Rapid throttle
 Control Speed--ground (Vmcg) using                       an inertial measurement        reductions at speeds
 aerodynamic controls only (per                           system and a synchronized      near Vmcg may be used
 applicable airworthiness standard)                       video of calibrated airplane   while recording
 or low speed, engine inoperative                         instruments and force/         appropriate parameters.
 ground control characteristics.                          position measurements of       The nosewheel must be
                                                          flight deck controls.          free to caster, or
                                                                                         equivalently freed of
                                                                                         sideforce generation.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.3. Performance. Takeoff. Minimum        X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 Unstick Speed (Vmu) or equivalent                        an inertial measurement
 test to demonstrate early rotation                       system and a synchronized
 takeoff characteristics.                                 video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and the force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.4. Performance. Takeoff. Normal         X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 Takeoff.                                                 an inertial measurement
                                                          system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls. AOA
                                                          can be calculated from pitch
                                                          attitude and flight path.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.5. Performance. Takeoff. Critical       X        X   Data may be acquired by using  Record airplane dynamic
 Engine Failure during Takeoff.                           an inertial measurement        response to engine
                                                          system and a synchronized      failure and control
                                                          video of calibrated airplane   inputs required to
                                                          instruments and force/         correct flight path.
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.6. Performance. Takeoff.                X        X   Data may be acquired by using  The ``1:7 law'' to 100
 Crosswind Takeoff.                                       an inertial measurement        feet (30 meters) is an
                                                          system and a synchronized      acceptable wind
                                                          video of calibrated airplane   profile.
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 106]]

 
1.b.7. Performance. Takeoff. Rejected       X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 Takeoff.                                                 synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments, thrust lever
                                                          position, engine parameters,
                                                          and distance (e.g., runway
                                                          markers). A stop watch is
                                                          required..
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c. 1. Performance. Climb. Normal          X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 Climb all engines operating..                            synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and engine power
                                                          throughout the climb range.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.2. Performance. Climb. One engine       X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 Inoperative Climb.                                       synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and engine power
                                                          throughout the climb range.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.4. Performance. Climb. One Engine       X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 Inoperative Approach Climb (if                           synchronized video of
 operations in icing conditions are                       calibrated airplane
 authorized).                                             instruments and engine power
                                                          throughout the climb range.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.1. Cruise/Descent. Level flight         X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 acceleration..                                           synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments, thrust lever
                                                          position, engine parameters,
                                                          and elapsed time.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.2. Cruise/Descent. Level flight         X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 deceleration..                                           synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments, thrust lever
                                                          position, engine parameters,
                                                          and elapsed time.
1.d.4. Cruise/Descent. Idle descent..       X        X   Data may be acquired with a
                                                          synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments, thrust lever
                                                          position, engine parameters,
                                                          and elapsed time.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.5. Cruise/Descent. Emergency            X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 Descent.                                                 synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments, thrust lever
                                                          position, engine parameters,
                                                          and elapsed time.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e.1. Performance. Stopping.               X        X   Data may be acquired during
 Deceleration time and distance,                          landing tests using a stop
 using manual application of wheel                        watch, runway markers, and a
 brakes and no reverse thrust on a                        synchronized video of
 dry runway.                                              calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments, thrust lever
                                                          position and the pertinent
                                                          parameters of engine power.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e.2. Performance. Ground.                 X        X   Data may be acquired during
 Deceleration Time and Distance,                          landing tests using a stop
 using reverse thrust and no wheel                        watch, runway markers, and a
 brakes.                                                  synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments, thrust lever
                                                          position and pertinent
                                                          parameters of engine power.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.1. Performance. Engines.                X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 Acceleration.                                            synchronized video recording
                                                          of engine instruments and
                                                          throttle position.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.2. Performance. Engines.                X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 Deceleration.                                            synchronized video recording
                                                          of engine instruments and
                                                          throttle position.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 107]]

 
2.a.1.a. Handling Qualities. Static         X        X   Surface position data may be   For airplanes with
 Control Checks. Pitch Controller                         acquired from flight data      reversible control
 Position vs. Force and Surface                           recorder (FDR) sensor or, if   systems, surface
 Position Calibration.                                    no FDR sensor, at selected,    position data
                                                          significant column positions   acquisition should be
                                                          (encompassing significant      accomplished with winds
                                                          column position data           less than 5 kts.
                                                          points), acceptable to the
                                                          responsible Flight Standards
                                                          office, using a control
                                                          surface protractor on the
                                                          ground. Force data may be
                                                          acquired by using a hand
                                                          held force gauge at the same
                                                          column position data points..
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2.a. Handling Qualities. Static         X        X   Surface position data may be   For airplanes with
 Control Checks. Roll Controller                          acquired from flight data      reversible control
 Position vs. Force and Surface                           recorder (FDR) sensor or, if   systems, surface
 Position Calibration.                                    no FDR sensor, at selected,    position data
                                                          significant wheel positions    acquisition should be
                                                          (encompassing significant      accomplished with winds
                                                          wheel position data points),   less than 5 kts.
                                                          acceptable to the
                                                          responsible Flight Standards
                                                          office, using a control
                                                          surface protractor on the
                                                          ground. Force data may be
                                                          acquired by using a hand
                                                          held force gauge at the same
                                                          wheel position data points..
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3.a. Handling Qualities. Static         X        X   Surface position data may be   For airplanes with
 Control Checks. Rudder Pedal                             acquired from flight data      reversible control
 Position vs. Force and Surface                           recorder (FDR) sensor or, if   systems, surface
 Position Calibration.                                    no FDR sensor, at selected,    position data
                                                          significant rudder pedal       acquisition should be
                                                          positions (encompassing        accomplished with winds
                                                          significant rudder pedal       less than 5 kts.
                                                          position data points),
                                                          acceptable to the
                                                          responsible Flight Standards
                                                          office, using a control
                                                          surface protractor on the
                                                          ground. Force data may be
                                                          acquired by using a hand
                                                          held force gauge at the same
                                                          rudder pedal position data
                                                          points..
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.4. Handling Qualities. Static           X        X   Breakout data may be acquired
 Control Checks. Nosewheel Steering                       with a hand held force
 Controller Force and Position.                           gauge. The remainder of the
                                                          force to the stops may be
                                                          calculated if the force
                                                          gauge and a protractor are
                                                          used to measure force after
                                                          breakout for at least 25% of
                                                          the total displacement
                                                          capability.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.5. Handling Qualities. Static           X        X   Data may be acquired through
 Control Checks. Rudder Pedal                             the use of force pads on the
 Steering Calibration.                                    rudder pedals and a pedal
                                                          position measurement device,
                                                          together with design data
                                                          for nosewheel position.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.6. Handling Qualities. Static           X        X   Data may be acquired through
 Control Checks. Pitch Trim Indicator                     calculations.
 vs. Surface Position Calibration.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.7. Handling qualities. Static           X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 control tests. Pitch trim rate.                          a synchronized video of
                                                          pitch trim indication and
                                                          elapsed time through range
                                                          of trim indication.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 108]]

 
2.a.8. Handling Qualities. Static           X        X   Data may be acquired through
 Control tests. Alignment of Flight                       the use of a temporary
 deck Throttle Lever Angle vs.                            throttle quadrant scale to
 Selected engine parameter.                               document throttle position.
                                                          Use a synchronized video to
                                                          record steady state
                                                          instrument readings or hand-
                                                          record steady state engine
                                                          performance readings.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.9. Handling qualities. Static           X        X   Use of design or predicted
 control tests. Brake pedal position                      data is acceptable. Data may
 vs. force and brake system pressure                      be acquired by measuring
 calibration.                                             deflection at ``zero'' and
                                                          ``maximum'' and calculating
                                                          deflections between the
                                                          extremes using the airplane
                                                          design data curve.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.1. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 Longitudinal control tests. Power                        an inertial measurement
 change dynamics.                                         system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and throttle
                                                          position.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.2. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 Longitudinal control tests. Flap/                        an inertial measurement
 slat change dynamics.                                    system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and flap/slat
                                                          position.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.3. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 Longitudinal control tests. Spoiler/                     an inertial measurement
 speedbrake change dynamics.                              system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and spoiler/
                                                          speedbrake position.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.4. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 Longitudinal control tests. Gear                         an inertial measurement
 change dynamics.                                         system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and gear
                                                          position.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.5. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired through
 Longitudinal control tests.                              use of an inertial
 Longitudinal trim.                                       measurement system and a
                                                          synchronized video of flight
                                                          deck controls position
                                                          (previously calibrated to
                                                          show related surface
                                                          position) and the engine
                                                          instrument readings.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.6. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired through
 Longitudinal control tests.                              the use of an inertial
 Longitudinal maneuvering stability                       measurement system and a
 (stick force/g).                                         synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments; a temporary,
                                                          high resolution bank angle
                                                          scale affixed to the
                                                          attitude indicator; and a
                                                          wheel and column force
                                                          measurement indication.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.7. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired through
 Longitudinal control tests.                              the use of a synchronized
 Longitudinal static stability.                           video of airplane flight
                                                          instruments and a hand held
                                                          force gauge.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.8. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired through   Airspeeds may be cross
 Longitudinal control tests. Stall                        a synchronized video           checked with those in
 characteristics.                                         recording of a stop watch      the TIR and AFM.
                                                          and calibrated airplane
                                                          airspeed indicator. Hand-
                                                          record the flight conditions
                                                          and airplane configuration.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 109]]

 
2.c.9. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 Longitudinal control tests. Phugoid                      an inertial measurement
 dynamics.                                                system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.10. Handling qualities.                          X   Data may be acquired by using
 Longitudinal control tests. Short                        an inertial measurement
 period dynamics.                                         system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.1. Handling qualities. Lateral          X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 directional tests. Minimum control                       an inertial measurement
 speed, air (Vmca or Vmci), per                           system and a synchronized
 applicable airworthiness standard or                     video of calibrated airplane
 Low speed engine inoperative                             instruments and force/
 handling characteristics in the air.                     position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.2. Handling qualities. Lateral          X        X   Data may be acquired by using  May be combined with
 directional tests. Roll response                         an inertial measurement        step input of flight
 (rate).                                                  system and a synchronized      deck roll controller
                                                          video of calibrated airplane   test, 2.d.3.
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck lateral controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3. Handling qualities. Lateral          X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 directional tests. Roll response to                      an inertial measurement
 flight deck roll controller step                         system and a synchronized
 input.                                                   video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck lateral controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.4. Handling qualities. Lateral          X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 directional tests. Spiral stability.                     an inertial measurement
                                                          system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments; force/position
                                                          measurements of flight deck
                                                          controls; and a stop watch.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.5. Handling qualities. Lateral          X        X   Data may be hand recorded in-  Trimming during second
 directional tests. Engine                                flight using high resolution   segment climb is not a
 inoperative trim.                                        scales affixed to trim         certification task and
                                                          controls that have been        should not be conducted
                                                          calibrated on the ground       until a safe altitude
                                                          using protractors on the       is reached.
                                                          control/trim surfaces with
                                                          winds less than 5 kts.OR
                                                          Data may be acquired during
                                                          second segment climb (with
                                                          proper pilot control input
                                                          for an engine-out condition)
                                                          by using a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.6. Handling qualities. Lateral          X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 directional tests. Rudder response.                      an inertial measurement
                                                          system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          rudder pedals.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.7. Handling qualities. Lateral          X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 directional tests. Dutch roll, (yaw                      an inertial measurement
 damper OFF).                                             system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 110]]

 
2.d.8. Handling qualities. Lateral          X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 directional tests. Steady state                          an inertial measurement
 sideslip.                                                system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
                                                         Ground track and wind
                                                          corrected heading may be
                                                          used for sideslip angle..
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.1. Handling qualities. Landings.                 X   Data may be acquired by using
 Normal landing.                                          an inertial measurement
                                                          system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.3. Handling qualities. Landings.                 X   Data may be acquired by using
 Crosswind landing.                                       an inertial measurement
                                                          system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.4. Handling qualities. Landings.                 X   Data may be acquired by using
 One engine inoperative landing.                          an inertial measurement
                                                          system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and the force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls. Normal
                                                          and lateral accelerations
                                                          may be recorded in lieu of
                                                          AOA and sideslip.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.5. Handling qualities. Landings.   .......       X   Data may be acquired by using
 Autopilot landing (if applicable).                       an inertial measurement
                                                          system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.Normal
                                                          and lateral accelerations
                                                          may be recorded in lieu of
                                                          AOA and sideslip.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.6. Handling qualities. Landings.   .......       X   Data may be acquired by using
 All engines operating, autopilot, go                     an inertial measurement
 around.                                                  system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls. Normal
                                                          and lateral accelerations
                                                          may be recorded in lieu of
                                                          AOA and sideslip.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.7. Handling qualities. Landings.                 X   Data may be acquired by using
 One engine inoperative go around.                        an inertial measurement
                                                          system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls. Normal
                                                          and lateral accelerations
                                                          may be recorded in lieu of
                                                          AOA and sideslip.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.8. Handling qualities. Landings.                 X   Data may be acquired by using
 Directional control (rudder                              an inertial measurement
 effectiveness with symmetric thrust).                    system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls. Normal
                                                          and lateral accelerations
                                                          may be recorded in lieu of
                                                          AOA and sideslip.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 111]]

 
2.e.9. Handling qualities. Landings.                 X   Data may be acquired by using
 Directional control (rudder                              an inertial measurement
 effectiveness with asymmetric                            system and a synchronized
 reverse thrust).                                         video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls. Normal
                                                          and lateral accelerations
                                                          may be recorded in lieu of
                                                          AOA and sideslip.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.f. Handling qualities. Ground                      X   Data may be acquired by using  ........................
 effect. Test to demonstrate ground                       calibrated airplane
 effect.                                                  instruments, an inertial
                                                          measurement system, and a
                                                          synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 Attachment 3 to Appendix A to Part 60--Simulator Subjective Evaluation

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                             1. Requirements

    a. Except for special use airport models, described as Class III, 
all airport models required by this part must be representations of 
real-world, operational airports or representations of fictional 
airports and must meet the requirements set out in Tables A3B or A3C of 
this attachment, as appropriate.
    b. If fictional airports are used, the sponsor must ensure that 
navigational aids and all appropriate maps, charts, and other 
navigational reference material for the fictional airports (and 
surrounding areas as necessary) are compatible, complete, and accurate 
with respect to the visual presentation of the airport model of this 
fictional airport. An SOC must be submitted that addresses navigation 
aid installation and performance and other criteria (including 
obstruction clearance protection) for all instrument approaches to the 
fictional airports that are available in the simulator. The SOC must 
reference and account for information in the terminal instrument 
procedures manual and the construction and availability of the required 
maps, charts, and other navigational material. This material must be 
clearly marked ``for training purposes only.''
    c. When the simulator is being used by an instructor or evaluator 
for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter, only 
airport models classified as Class I, Class II, or Class III may be used 
by the instructor or evaluator. Detailed descriptions/definitions of 
these classifications are found in Appendix F of this part.
    d. When a person sponsors an FFS maintained by a person other than a 
U.S. certificate holder, the sponsor is accountable for that FFS 
originally meeting, and continuing to meet, the criteria under which it 
was originally qualified and the appropriate Part 60 criteria, including 
the airport models that may be used by instructors or evaluators for 
purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter.
    e. Neither Class II nor Class III airport visual models are required 
to appear on the SOQ, and the method used for keeping instructors and 
evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class 
III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the sponsor, 
but the method used must be available for review by the TPAA.
    f. When an airport model represents a real world airport and a 
permanent change is made to that real world airport (e.g., a new runway, 
an extended taxiway, a new lighting system, a runway closure) without a 
written extension grant from the responsible Flight Standards office 
(described in paragraph 1.g. of this section), an update to that airport 
model must be made in accordance with the following time limits:
    (1) For a new airport runway, a runway extension, a new airport 
taxiway, a taxiway extension, or a runway/taxiway closure--within 90 
days of the opening for use of the new airport runway, runway extension, 
new airport taxiway, or taxiway extension; or within 90 days of the 
closure of the runway or taxiway.
    (2) For a new or modified approach light system--within 45 days of 
the activation of the new or modified approach light system.

[[Page 112]]

    (3) For other facility or structural changes on the airport (e.g., 
new terminal, relocation of Air Traffic Control Tower)--within 180 days 
of the opening of the new or changed facility or structure.
    g. If a sponsor desires an extension to the time limit for an update 
to a visual scene or airport model or has an objection to what must be 
updated in the specific airport model requirement, the sponsor must 
provide a written extension request to the responsible Flight Standards 
office stating the reason for the update delay and a proposed completion 
date, or explain why the update is not necessary (i.e., why the 
identified airport change will not have an impact on flight training, 
testing, or checking). A copy of this request or objection must also be 
sent to the POI/TCPM. The responsible Flight Standards office will send 
the official response to the sponsor and a copy to the POI/TCPM. If 
there is an objection, after consultation with the appropriate POI/TCPM 
regarding the training, testing, or checking impact, the responsible 
Flight Standards office will send the official response to the sponsor 
and a copy to the POI/TCPM.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              2. Discussion

    a. The subjective tests provide a basis for evaluating the 
capability of the simulator to perform over a typical utilization 
period; determining that the simulator accurately simulates each 
required maneuver, procedure, or task; and verifying correct operation 
of the simulator controls, instruments, and systems. The items listed in 
the following Tables are for simulator evaluation purposes only. They 
may not be used to limit or exceed the authorizations for use of a given 
level of simulator, as described on the SOQ, or as approved by the TPAA.
    b. The tests in Table A3A, Operations Tasks, in this attachment, 
address pilot functions, including maneuvers and procedures (called 
flight tasks), and are divided by flight phases. The performance of 
these tasks by the responsible Flight Standards office includes an 
operational examination of the visual system and special effects. There 
are flight tasks included to address some features of advanced 
technology airplanes and innovative training programs. For example, 
``high angle-of-attack maneuvering'' is included to provide a required 
alternative to ``approach to stalls'' for airplanes employing flight 
envelope protection functions.
    c. The tests in Table A3A, Operations Tasks, and Table A3G, 
Instructor Operating Station of this attachment, address the overall 
function and control of the simulator including the various simulated 
environmental conditions; simulated airplane system operations (normal, 
abnormal, and emergency); visual system displays; and special effects 
necessary to meet flight crew training, evaluation, or flight experience 
requirements.
    d. All simulated airplane systems functions will be assessed for 
normal and, where appropriate, alternate operations. Normal, abnormal, 
and emergency operations associated with a flight phase will be assessed 
during the evaluation of flight tasks or events within that flight 
phase. Simulated airplane systems are listed separately under ``Any 
Flight Phase'' to ensure appropriate attention to systems checks. 
Operational navigation systems (including inertial navigation systems, 
global positioning systems, or other long-range systems) and the 
associated electronic display systems will be evaluated if installed. 
The pilot will include in his report to the TPAA, the effect of the 
system operation and any system limitation.
    e. Simulators demonstrating a satisfactory circling approach will be 
qualified for the circling approach maneuver and may be approved for 
such use by the TPAA in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training 
program. To be considered satisfactory, the circling approach will be 
flown at maximum gross weight for landing, with minimum visibility for 
the airplane approach category, and must allow proper alignment with a 
landing runway at least 90[deg] different from the instrument approach 
course while allowing the pilot to keep an identifiable portion of the 
airport in sight throughout the maneuver (reference--14 CFR 91.175(e)).
    f. At the request of the TPAA, the responsible Flight Standards 
office may assess a device to determine if it is capable of simulating 
certain training activities in a sponsor's training program, such as a 
portion of a Line Oriented Flight Training (LOFT) scenario. Unless 
directly related to a requirement for the qualification level, the 
results of such an evaluation would not affect the qualification level 
of the simulator. However, if the responsible Flight Standards office 
determines that the simulator does not accurately simulate that training 
activity, the simulator would not be approved for that training 
activity.
    g. The FAA intends to allow the use of Class III airport models when 
the sponsor provides the TPAA (or other regulatory authority) an 
appropriate analysis of the skills, knowledge, and abilities (SKAs) 
necessary for competent performance of the tasks in which this 
particular media element is used. The analysis should describe the 
ability of the FFS/visual media to provide an adequate environment in 
which the required SKAs are satisfactorily performed and learned. The 
analysis should also include the specific media element, such as the 
airport model.

[[Page 113]]

    h. The TPAA may accept Class III airport models without individual 
observation provided the sponsor provides the TPAA with an acceptable 
description of the process for determining the acceptability of a 
specific airport model, outlines the conditions under which such an 
airport model may be used, and adequately describes what restrictions 
will be applied to each resulting airport or landing area model. 
Examples of situations that may warrant Class_III model designation by 
the TPAA include the following:
    (a) Training, testing, or checking on very low visibility 
operations, including SMGCS operations.
    (b) Instrument operations training (including instrument takeoff, 
departure, arrival, approach, and missed approach training, testing, or 
checking) using--
    (i) A specific model that has been geographically ``moved'' to a 
different location and aligned with an instrument procedure for another 
airport.
    (ii) A model that does not match changes made at the real-world 
airport (or landing area for helicopters) being modeled.
    (iii) A model generated with an ``off-board'' or an ``on-board'' 
model development tool (by providing proper latitude/longitude 
reference; correct runway or landing area orientation, length, width, 
marking, and lighting information; and appropriate adjacent taxiway 
location) to generate a facsimile of a real world airport or landing 
area.
    i. Previously qualified simulators with certain early generation 
Computer Generated Image (CGI) visual systems, are limited by the 
capability of the Image Generator or the display system used. These 
systems are:
    (1) Early CGI visual systems that are excepted from the requirement 
of including runway numbers as a part of the specific runway marking 
requirements are:
    (a) Link NVS and DNVS.
    (b) Novoview 2500 and 6000.
    (c) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and including, VITAL III, but 
not beyond.
    (d) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2.
    (2) Early CGI visual systems are excepted from the requirement of 
including runway numbers unless the runways are used for LOFT training 
sessions. These LOFT airport models require runway numbers but only for 
the specific runway end (one direction) used in the LOFT session. The 
systems required to display runway numbers only for LOFT scenes are:
    (a) FlightSafety VITAL IV.
    (b) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T.
    (c) Link-Miles Image II.
    (3) The following list of previously qualified CGI and display 
systems are incapable of generating blue lights. These systems are not 
required to have accurate taxi-way edge lighting:
    (a) Redifusion SP1.
    (b) FlightSafety Vital IV.
    (c) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT
    (d) XKD displays (even though the XKD image generator is capable of 
generating blue colored lights, the display cannot accommodate that 
color).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

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[[Page 128]]



                Table A3C--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    Additional airport models beyond    Simulator level
                          minimum required for       -------------------
    Entry No.       qualification--Class II airport
                                 models                A    B    C    D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
This table specifies the minimum airport model content and functionality
 necessary to add airport models to a simulator's model library, beyond
 those necessary for qualification at the stated level, without the
 necessity of further involvement of the responsible Flight Standards
 office or TPAA.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                         Begin QPS Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1................  Airport model management. The following is the
                    minimum airport model management requirements for
                    simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    1.a..........  The direction of strobe lights,     X    X    X    X
                    approach lights, runway edge
                    lights, visual landing aids,
                    runway centerline lights,
                    threshold lights, and touchdown
                    zone lights on the ``in-use''
                    runway must be replicated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2................  Visual feature recognition. The following are the
                    minimum distances at which runway features must be
                    visible for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.
                    Distances are measured from runway threshold to an
                    airplane aligned with the runway on an extended
                    3[deg] glide-slope in simulated meteorological
                    conditions that recreate the minimum distances for
                    visibility. For circling approaches, all
                    requirements of this section apply to the runway
                    used for the initial approach and to the runway of
                    intended landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.a..........  Runway definition, strobe lights,   X    X    X    X
                    approach lights, and runway edge
                    white lights from 5 sm (8 km)
                    from the runway threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.b..........  Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI              X    X
                    or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) from
                    the runway threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.c..........  Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI    X    X
                    or PAPI) from 3 sm (5 km) from
                    the runway threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.d..........  Runway centerline lights and        X    X    X    X
                    taxiway definition from 3 sm (5
                    km) from the runway threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.e..........  Threshold lights and touchdown      X    X    X    X
                    zone lights from 2 sm (3 km)
                    from the runway threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.f..........  Runway markings within range of     X    X    X    X
                    landing lights for night scenes
                    and as required by the surface
                    resolution requirements on day
                    scenes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.g..........  For circling approaches, the        X    X    X    X
                    runway of intended landing and
                    associated lighting must fade
                    into view in a non-distracting
                    manner.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3................  Airport model content. The following prescribes the
                    minimum requirements for what must be provided in an
                    airport model and identifies other aspects of the
                    airport environment that must correspond with that
                    model for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D. The
                    detail must be developed using airport pictures,
                    construction drawings and maps, or other similar
                    data, or developed in accordance with published
                    regulatory material; however, this does not require
                    that airport models contain details that are beyond
                    the designed capability of the currently qualified
                    visual system. For circling approaches, all
                    requirements of this section apply to the runway
                    used for the initial approach and to the runway of
                    intended landing. Only one ``primary'' taxi route
                    from parking to the runway end will be required for
                    each ``in-use'' runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.a..........  The surface and markings for each ``in-use'' runway:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.1....  Threshold markings...............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.2....  Runway numbers...................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.3....  Touchdown zone markings..........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.4....  Fixed distance markings..........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.5....  Edge markings....................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.6....  Centerline stripes...............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.b..........  The lighting for each ``in-use'' runway
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.1....  Threshold lights.................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.2....  Edge lights......................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.3....  End lights.......................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.4....  Centerline lights................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 129]]

 
        3.b.5....  Touchdown zone lights, if           X    X    X    X
                    appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.6....  Leadoff lights, if appropriate...   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.7....  Appropriate visual landing aid(s)   X    X    X    X
                    for that runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.8....  Appropriate approach lighting       X    X    X    X
                    system for that runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.c..........  The taxiway surface and markings associated with each
                    ``in-use'' runway:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.c.1....  Edge.............................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.c.2....  Centerline.......................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.c.3....  Runway hold lines................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.c.4....  ILS critical area markings.......   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.d..........  The taxiway lighting associated with each ``in-use''
                    runway:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.d.1....  Edge.............................             X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.d.2....  Centerline.......................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.d.3....  Runway hold and ILS critical area   X    X    X    X
                    lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4................  Required model correlation with
                    other aspects of the airport
                    environment simulation The
                    following are the minimum model
                    correlation tests that must be
                    conducted for simulators at
                    Levels A, B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.a..........  The airport model must be           X    X    X    X
                    properly aligned with the
                    navigational aids that are
                    associated with operations at
                    the ``in-use'' runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.b..........  Slopes in runways, taxiways, and    X    X    X    X
                    ramp areas, if depicted in the
                    visual scene, must not cause
                    distracting or unrealistic
                    effects.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5................  Correlation with airplane and associated equipment.
                    The following are the minimum correlation
                    comparisons that must be made for simulators at
                    Levels A, B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
  5.a............  Visual system compatibility with    X    X    X    X
                    aerodynamic programming.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    5.b..........  Accurate portrayal of environment   X    X    X    X
                    relating to flight simulator
                    attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    5.c..........  Visual cues to assess sink rate          X    X    X
                    and depth perception during
                    landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    5.d..........  Visual effects for each visible,         X    X    X
                    own-ship, airplane external
                    light(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6................  Scene quality. The following are the minimum scene
                    quality tests that must be conducted for simulators
                    at Levels A, B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.a..........  Surfaces and textural cues must               X    X
                    be free of apparent and
                    distracting quantization
                    (aliasing).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b..............  Correct color and realistic                   X    X
                    textural cues.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c..............  Light points free from              X    X    X    X
                    distracting jitter, smearing or
                    streaking.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7................  Instructor controls of the following: The following
                    are the minimum instructor controls that must be
                    available in simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.a..........  Environmental effects, e.g.,        X    X    X    X
                    cloud base (if used), cloud
                    effects, cloud density,
                    visibility in statute miles/
                    kilometers and RVR in feet/
                    meters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.b..........  Airport selection................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.c..........  Airport lighting including          X    X    X    X
                    variable intensity.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.d..........  Dynamic effects including ground              X    X
                    and flight traffic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 130]]

 
                          End QPS Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            Begin Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8................  Sponsors are not required to        X    X    X    X
                    provide every detail of a
                    runway, but the detail that is
                    provided must be correct within
                    the capabilities of the system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                             End Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------


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                Table A3E--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS Requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                        Simulator level
   Entry No.                 Sound system            -------------------
                                                       A    B    C    D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
 The following checks are performed during a normal flight profile with
                            motion system ON.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1..............  Precipitation......................             X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2..............  Rain removal equipment.............             X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3..............  Significant airplane noises                     X    X
                  perceptible to the pilot during
                  normal operations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4..............  Abnormal operations for which there             X    X
                  are associated sound cues
                  including, engine malfunctions,
                  landing gear/tire malfunctions,
                  tail and engine pod strike and
                  pressurization malfunction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5..............  Sound of a crash when the flight      X    X
                  simulator is landed in excess of
                  limitations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


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[[Page 139]]


                Table A3G--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS Requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                        Simulator level
   Entry No.               Special effects           -------------------
                                                       A    B    C    D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
  Functions in this table are subject to evaluation only if appropriate
     for the airplane and/or the system is installed on the specific
                               simulator.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1..............  Simulator Power Switch(es).........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2..............  Airplane conditions
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.a........  Gross weight, center of gravity,      X    X    X    X
                  fuel loading and allocation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.b........  Airplane systems status............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.c........  Ground crew functions (e.g., ext.     X    X    X    X
                  power, push back).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3..............  Airports
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.a........  Number and selection...............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.b........  Runway selection...................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.c........  Runway surface condition (e.g.,       X    X
                  rough, smooth, icy, wet).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.d........  Preset positions (e.g., ramp, gate,   X    X    X    X
                  1 for takeoff, takeoff position,
                  over FAF).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.e........  Lighting controls..................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4..............  Environmental controls
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.a........  Visibility (statute miles             X    X    X    X
                  (kilometers)).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.b........  Runway visual range (in feet          X    X    X    X
                  (meters)).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.c........  Temperature........................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.d........  Climate conditions (e.g., ice,        X    X    X    X
                  snow, rain).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.e........  Wind speed and direction...........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.f........  Windshear..........................   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.g........  Clouds (base and tops).............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5..............  Airplane system malfunctions          X    X    X    X
                  (Inserting and deleting
                  malfunctions into the simulator).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6..............  Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.a........  Problem (all) freeze/release.......   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.b........  Position (geographic) freeze/         X    X    X    X
                  release.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.c........  Repositioning (locations, freezes,    X    X    X    X
                  and releases).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.d........  Ground speed control...............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7..............  Remote IOS.........................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8..............  Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment..   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9..............  Motion/Control Loading System
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.a........  On/off/emergency stop..............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.............  Observer Seats/Stations. Position/    X    X    X    X
                  Adjustment/Positive restraint
                  system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 140]]

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                             1. Introduction

    a. The following is an example test schedule for an Initial/Upgrade 
evaluation that covers the majority of the requirements set out in the 
Functions and Subjective test requirements. It is not intended that the 
schedule be followed line by line, rather, the example should be used as 
a guide for preparing a schedule that is tailored to the airplane, 
sponsor, and training task.
    b. Functions and subjective tests should be planned. This 
information has been organized as a reference document with the 
considerations, methods, and evaluation notes for each individual aspect 
of the simulator task presented as an individual item. In this way the 
evaluator can design his or her own test plan, using the appropriate 
sections to provide guidance on method and evaluation criteria. Two 
aspects should be present in any test plan structure:
    (1) An evaluation of the simulator to determine that it replicates 
the aircraft and performs reliably for an uninterrupted period 
equivalent to the length of a typical training session.
    (2) The simulator should be capable of operating reliably after the 
use of training device functions such as repositions or malfunctions.
    c. A detailed understanding of the training task will naturally lead 
to a list of objectives that the simulator should meet. This list will 
form the basis of the test plan. Additionally, once the test plan has 
been formulated, the initial conditions and the evaluation criteria 
should be established. The evaluator should consider all factors that 
may have an influence on the characteristics observed during particular 
training tasks in order to make the test plan successful.

                                2. Events

                          a. Initial Conditions

    (1) Airport.
    (2) QNH.
    (3) Temperature.
    (4) Wind/Crosswind.
    (5) Zero Fuel Weight /Fuel/Gross Weight /Center of Gravity.

                            b. Initial Checks

    (1) Documentation of Simulator.
    (a) Simulator Acceptance Test Manuals.
    (b) Simulator Approval Test Guide.
    (c) Technical Logbook Open Item List.
    (d) Daily Functional Pre-flight Check.
    (2) Documentation of User/Carrier Flight Logs.
    (a) Simulator Operating/Instructor Manual.
    (b) Difference List (Aircraft/Simulator).
    (c) Flight Crew Operating Manuals.
    (d) Performance Data for Different Fields.
    (e) Crew Training Manual.
    (f) Normal/Abnormal/Emergency Checklists.
    (3) Simulator External Checks.
    (a) Appearance and Cleanliness.
    (b) Stairway/Access Bridge.
    (c) Emergency Rope Ladders.
    (d) ``Motion On''/``Flight in Progress'' Lights.
    (4) Simulator Internal Checks.
    (a) Cleaning/Disinfecting Towels (for cleaning oxygen masks).
    (b) Flight deck Layout (compare with difference list).
    (5) Equipment.
    (a) Quick Donning Oxygen Masks.
    (b) Head Sets.
    (c) Smoke Goggles.
    (d) Sun Visors.
    (e) Escape Rope.
    (f) Chart Holders.
    (g) Flashlights.
    (h) Fire Extinguisher (inspection date).
    (i) Crash Axe.
    (j) Gear Pins.

                  c. Power Supply and APU Start Checks

    (1) Batteries and Static Inverter.
    (2) APU Start with Battery.
    (3) APU Shutdown using Fire Handle.
    (4) External Power Connection.
    (5) APU Start with External Power.
    (6) Abnormal APU Start/Operation.

                          d. Flight deck Checks

    (1) Flight deck Preparation Checks.
    (2) FMC Programming.
    (3) Communications and Navigational Aids Checks.

                             e. Engine Start

    (1) Before Start Checks.
    (2) Battery start with Ground Air Supply Unit.
    (3) Engine Crossbleed Start.
    (4) Normal Engine Start.
    (5) Abnormal Engine Starts.
    (6) Engine Idle Readings.
    (7) After Start Checks.

                             f. Taxi Checks

    (1) Pushback/Powerback.
    (2) Taxi Checks.
    (3) Ground Handling Check:
    (a) Power required to initiate ground roll.
    (b) Thrust response.
    (c) Nosewheel and Pedal Steering.
    (d) Nosewheel Scuffing.
    (e) Perform 180 degree turns.
    (f) Brakes Response and Differential Braking using Normal, Alternate 
and Emergency.
    (g) Brake Systems.
    (h) Eye height and fore/aft position.
    (4) Runway Roughness.

[[Page 141]]

    g. Visual Scene--Ground Assessment. Select 3 different airport 
models and perform the following checks with Day, Dusk and Night 
selected, as appropriate:
    (1) Visual Controls.
    (a) Daylight, Dusk, Night Scene Controls.
    (b) Flight deck ``Daylight'' ambient lighting.
    (c) Environment Light Controls.
    (d) Runway Light Controls.
    (e) Taxiway Light Controls.
    (2) Airport Model Content.
    (a) Ramp area for buildings, gates, airbridges, maintenance ground 
equipment, parked aircraft.
    (b) Daylight shadows, night time light pools.
    (c) Taxiways for correct markings, taxiway/runway, marker boards, 
CAT I and II/III hold points, taxiway shape/grass areas, taxiway light 
(positions and colors).
    (d) Runways for correct markings, lead-off lights, boards, runway 
slope, runway light positions, and colors, directionality of runway 
lights.
    (e) Airport environment for correct terrain and significant 
features.
    (f) Visual scene quantization (aliasing), color, and occulting 
levels.
    (3) Ground Traffic Selection.
    (4) Environment Effects.
    (a) Low cloud scene.
    (i) Rain:
    (A) Runway surface scene.
    (B) Windshield wiper--operation and sound.
    (ii) Hail:
    (A) Runway surface scene.
    (B) Windshield wiper--operation and sound.
    (b) Lightning/thunder.
    (c) Snow/ice runway surface scene.
    (d) Fog.
    h. Takeoff. Select one or several of the following test cases:
    (1) T/O Configuration Warnings.
    (2) Engine Takeoff Readings.
    (3) Rejected Takeoff (Dry/Wet/Icy Runway) and check the following:
    (a) Autobrake function.
    (b) Anti-skid operation.
    (c) Motion/visual effects during deceleration.
    (d) Record stopping distance (use runway plot or runway lights 
remaining).
    Continue taxiing along the runway while applying brakes and check 
the following:
    (e) Center line lights alternating red/white for 2000 feet/600 
meters.
    (f) Center line lights all red for 1000 feet/300 meters.
    (g) Runway end, red stop bars.
    (h) Braking fade effect.
    (i) Brake temperature indications.
    (4) Engine Failure between VI and V2.
    (5) Normal Takeoff:
    (a) During ground roll check the following:
    (i) Runway rumble.
    (ii) Acceleration cues.
    (iii) Groundspeed effects.
    (iv) Engine sounds.
    (v) Nosewheel and rudder pedal steering.
    (b) During and after rotation, check the following:
    (i) Rotation characteristics.
    (ii) Column force during rotation.
    (iii) Gear uplock sounds/bumps.
    (iv) Effect of slat/flap retraction during climbout.
    (6) Crosswind Takeoff (check the following):
    (a) Tendency to turn into or out of the wind.
    (b) Tendency to lift upwind wing as airspeed increases.
    (7) Windshear during Takeoff (check the following):
    (a) Controllable during windshear encounter.
    (b) Performance adequate when using correct techniques.
    (c) Windshear Indications satisfactory.
    (d) Motion cues satisfactory (particularly turbulence).
    (8) Normal Takeoff with Control Malfunction.
    (9) Low Visibility T/O (check the following):
    (a) Visual cues.
    (b) Flying by reference to instruments.
    (c) SID Guidance on LNAV.
    i. Climb Performance. Select one or several of the following test 
cases:
    (1) Normal Climb--Climb while maintaining recommended speed profile 
and note fuel, distance and time.
    (2) Single Engine Climb--Trim aircraft in a zero wheel climb at V2.

    Note: Up to 5[deg] bank towards the operating engine(s) is 
permissible. Climb for 3 minutes and note fuel, distance, and time. 
Increase speed toward en route climb speed and retract flaps. Climb for 
3 minutes and note fuel, distance, and time.

    j. Systems Operation During Climb.
    Check normal operation and malfunctions as appropriate for the 
following systems:
    (1) Air conditioning/Pressurization/Ventilation.
    (2) Autoflight.
    (3) Communications.
    (4) Electrical.
    (5) Fuel.
    (6) Icing Systems.
    (7) Indicating and Recording Systems.
    (8) Navigation/FMS.
    (9) Pneumatics.
    k. Cruise Checks. Select one or several of the following test cases:
    (1) Cruise Performance.
    (2) High Speed/High Altitude Handling (check the following):
    (a) Overspeed warning.
    (b) High Speed buffet.
    (c) Aircraft control satisfactory.

[[Page 142]]

    (d) Envelope limiting functions on Computer Controlled Aircraft.
    Reduce airspeed to below level flight buffet onset speed, start a 
turn, and check the following:
    (e) High Speed buffet increases with G loading.
    Reduce throttles to idle and start descent, deploy the speedbrake, 
and check the following:
    (f) Speedbrake indications.
    (g) Symmetrical deployment.
    (h) Airframe buffet.
    (i) Aircraft response hands off.
    (3) Yaw Damper Operation. Switch off yaw dampers and autopilot. 
Initiate a Dutch roll and check the following:
    (a) Aircraft dynamics.
    (b) Simulator motion effects.
    Switch on yaw dampers, re-initiate a Dutch roll and check the 
following:
    (c) Damped aircraft dynamics.
    (4) APU Operation.
    (5) Engine Gravity Feed.
    (6) Engine Shutdown and Driftdown Check: FMC operation Aircraft 
performance.
    (7) Engine Relight.
    l. Descent. Select one of the following test cases:
    (1) Normal Descent. Descend while maintaining recommended speed 
profile and note fuel, distance and time.
    (2) Cabin Depressurization/Emergency Descent.
    m. Medium Altitude Checks. Select one or several of the following 
test cases:
    (1) High Angle of Attack/Stall. Trim the aircraft at 1.4 Vs, 
establish 1 kt/sec \2\ deceleration rate, and check the following--
    (a) System displays/operation satisfactory.
    (b) Handling characteristics satisfactory.
    (c) Stall and Stick shaker speed.
    (d) Buffet characteristics and onset speed.
    (e) Envelope limiting functions on Computer Controlled Aircraft.
    Recover to straight and level flight and check the following:
    (f) Handling characteristics satisfactory.
    (2) Turning Flight. Roll aircraft to left, establish a 30[deg] to 
45[deg] bank angle, and check the following:
    (a) Stick force required, satisfactory.
    (b) Wheel requirement to maintain bank angle.
    (c) Slip ball response, satisfactory.
    (d) Time to turn 180[deg].
    Roll aircraft from 45[deg] bank one way to 45[deg] bank the opposite 
direction while maintaining altitude and airspeed--check the following:
    (e) Controllability during maneuver.
    (3) Degraded flight controls.
    (4) Holding Procedure (check the following:)
    (a) FMC operation.
    (b) Autopilot auto thrust performance.
    (5) Storm Selection (check the following:)
    (a) Weather radar controls.
    (b) Weather radar operation.
    (c) Visual scene corresponds with WXR pattern.
    (Fly through storm center, and check the following:)
    (d) Aircraft enters cloud.
    (e) Aircraft encounters representative turbulence.
    (f) Rain/hail sound effects evident.
    As aircraft leaves storm area, check the following:
    (g) Storm effects disappear.
    (6) TCAS (check the following:)
    (a) Traffic appears on visual display.
    (b) Traffic appears on TCAS display(s).
    As conflicting traffic approaches, take relevant avoiding action, 
and check the following:
    (c) Visual and TCAS system displays.
    n. Approach and Landing. Select one or several of the following test 
cases while monitoring flight control and hydraulic systems for normal 
operation and with malfunctions selected:
    (1) Flaps/Gear Normal Operation. Check the following:
    (a) Time for extension/retraction.
    (b) Buffet characteristics.
    (2) Normal Visual Approach and Landing.
    Fly a normal visual approach and landing--check the following:
    (a) Aircraft handling.
    (b) Spoiler operation.
    (c) Reverse thrust operation.
    (d) Directional control on the ground.
    (e) Touchdown cues for main and nosewheel.
    (f) Visual cues.
    (g) Motion cues.
    (h) Sound cues.
    (i) Brake and anti-skid operation.
    (3) Flaps/Gear Abnormal Operation or with hydraulic malfunctions.
    (4) Abnormal Wing Flaps/Slats Landing.
    (5) Manual Landing with Control Malfunction.
    (a) Aircraft handling.
    (b) Radio aids and instruments.
    (c) Airport model content and cues.
    (d) Motion cues.
    (e) Sound cues.
    (6) Non-precision Approach--All Engines Operating.
    (a) Aircraft handling.
    (b) Radio Aids and instruments.
    (c) Airport model content and cues.
    (d) Motion cues.
    (e) Sound cues.
    (7) Circling Approach.
    (a) Aircraft handling.
    (c) Radio Aids and instruments.
    (d) Airport model content and cues.
    (e) Motion cues.
    (f) Sound cues.
    (8) Non-precision Approach--One Engine Inoperative.

[[Page 143]]

    (a) Aircraft handling.
    (b) Radio Aids and instruments.
    (c) Airport model content and cues.
    (d) Motion cues.
    (e) Sound cues.
    (9) One Engine Inoperative Go-around.
    (a) Aircraft handling.
    (b) Radio Aids and instruments.
    (c) Airport model content and cues.
    (d) Motion cues.
    (e) Sound cues.
    (10) CAT I Approach and Landing with raw-data ILS.
    (a) Aircraft handling.
    (b) Radio Aids and instruments.
    (c) Airport model content and cues.
    (d) Motion cues.
    (e) Sound cues.
    (11) CAT I Approach and Landing with Limiting Crosswind.
    (a) Aircraft handling.
    (b) Radio Aids and instruments.
    (c) Airport model content and cues.
    (d) Motion cues.
    (e) Sound cues.
    (12) CAT I Approach with Windshear. Check the following:
    (a) Controllable during windshear encounter.
    (b) Performance adequate when using correct techniques.
    (c) Windshear indications/warnings.
    (d) Motion cues (particularly turbulence).
    (13) CAT II Approach and Automatic Go-Around.
    (14) CAT III Approach and Landing--System Malfunctions.
    (15) CAT III Approach and Landing--1 Engine Inoperative.
    (16) GPWS evaluation.
    o. Visual Scene--In-Flight Assessment.
    Select three (3) different visual models and perform the following 
checks with ``day,'' ``dusk,'' and ``night'' (as appropriate) selected. 
Reposition the aircraft at or below 2000 feet within 10 nm of the 
airfield. Fly the aircraft around the airport environment and assess 
control of the visual system and evaluate the Airport model content as 
described below:
    (1) Visual Controls.
    (a) Daylight, Dusk, Night Scene Controls.
    (b) Environment Light Controls.
    (c) Runway Light Controls.
    (d) Taxiway Light Controls.
    (e) Approach Light Controls.
    (2) Airport model Content.
    (a) Airport environment for correct terrain and significant 
features.
    (b) Runways for correct markings, runway slope, directionality of 
runway lights.
    (c) Visual scene for quantization (aliasing), color, and occulting.
    Reposition the aircraft to a long, final approach for an ``ILS 
runway.'' Select flight freeze when the aircraft is 5-statute miles 
(sm)/8-kilometers (km) out and on the glide slope. Check the following:
    (3) Airport model content.
    (a) Airfield features.
    (b) Approach lights.
    (c) Runway definition.
    (d) Runway definition.
    (e) Runway edge lights and VASI lights.
    (f) Strobe lights.
    Release flight freeze. Continue flying the approach with NP engaged. 
Select flight freeze when aircraft is 3 sm/5 km out and on the glide 
slope. Check the following:
    (4) Airport model Content.
    (a) Runway centerline light.
    (b) Taxiway definition and lights.
    Release flight freeze and continue flying the approach with A/P 
engaged. Select flight freeze when aircraft is 2 sm/3 km out and on the 
glide slope. Check the following:
    (5) Airport model content.
    (a) Runway threshold lights.
    (b) Touchdown zone lights.
    At 200 ft radio altitude and still on glide slope, select Flight 
Freeze. Check the following:
    (6) Airport model content.
    (a) Runway markings.
    Set the weather to Category I conditions and check the following:
    (7) Airport model content.
    (a) Visual ground segment.
    Set the weather to Category II conditions, release Flight Freeze, 
re-select Flight Freeze at 100 feet radio altitude, and check the 
following:
    (8) Airport model content.
    (a) Visual ground segment.
    Select night/dusk (twilight) conditions and check the following:
    (9) Airport model content.
    (a) Runway markings visible within landing light lobes.
    Set the weather to Category III conditions, release Flight Freeze, 
re-select Flight Freeze at 50 feet radio altitude and check the 
following:
    (10) Airport model content.
    (a) Visual ground segment.
    Set WX to a typical ``missed approach? weather condition, release 
Flight Freeze, re-select Flight Freeze at 15 feet radio altitude, and 
check the following:
    (11) Airport model content.
    (a) Visual ground segment.
    When on the ground, stop the aircraft. Set 0 feet RVR, ensure 
strobe/beacon tights are switched on and check the following:
    (12) Airport model content.
    (a) Visual effect of strobe and beacon.
    Reposition to final approach, set weather to ``Clear,'' continue 
approach for an automatic landing, and check the following:
    (13) Airport model content.
    (a) Visual cues during flare to assess sink rate.

[[Page 144]]

    (b) Visual cues during flare to assess Depth perception.
    (c) Flight deck height above ground.
    After Landing Operations.
    (1) After Landing Checks.
    (2) Taxi back to gate. Check the following:
    (a) Visual model satisfactory.
    (b) Parking brake operation satisfactory.
    (3) Shutdown Checks.
    q. Crash Function.
    (1) Gear-up Crash.
    (2) Excessive rate of descent Crash.
    (3) Excessive bank angle Crash.
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Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60--Figure A4D--Sample Qualification 
                          Test Guide Cover Page

                               INFORMATION

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 Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60--Figure A4E--Sample Statement of 
                       Qualification--Certificate

                               INFORMATION
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      Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60--Figure A4H [Reserved]



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     Attachment 5 to Appendix A to Part 60--Simulator Qualification 
             Requirements for Windshear Training Program Use

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                            1. Applicability

    This attachment applies to all simulators, regardless of 
qualification level, that are used to satisfy the training requirements 
of an FAA-approved low-altitude windshear flight training program, or 
any FAA-approved training program that addresses windshear encounters.

             2. Statement of Compliance and Capability (SOC)

    a. The sponsor must submit an SOC confirming that the aerodynamic 
model is based on flight test data supplied by the airplane manufacturer 
or other approved data provider. The SOC must also confirm that any 
change to environmental wind parameters, including variances in those 
parameters for windshear conditions, once inserted for computation, 
result in the correct simulated performance. This statement must also 
include examples of environmental wind parameters currently evaluated in 
the simulator (such as crosswind takeoffs, crosswind approaches, and 
crosswind landings).
    b. For simulators without windshear warning, caution, or guidance 
hardware in the original equipment, the SOC must also state that the 
simulation of the added hardware and/or software, including associated 
flight deck displays and annunciations, replicates the system(s) 
installed in the airplane. The statement must be accompanied by a block 
diagram depicting the input and output signal flow, and comparing the 
signal flow to the equipment installed in the airplane.

                                3. Models

    The windshear models installed in the simulator software used for 
the qualification evaluation must do the following:
    a. Provide cues necessary for recognizing windshear onset and 
potential performance degradation requiring a pilot to initiate recovery 
procedures. The cues must include all of the following, as appropriate 
for the portion of the flight envelope:
    (1) Rapid airspeed change of at least 15 knots 
(kts).
    (2) Stagnation of airspeed during the takeoff roll.
    (3) Rapid vertical speed change of at least 500 feet per minute (fpm).
    (4) Rapid pitch change of at least 5[deg].
    b. Be adjustable in intensity (or other parameter to achieve an 
intensity effect) to at

[[Page 157]]

least two (2) levels so that upon encountering the windshear the pilot 
may identify its presence and apply the recommended procedures for 
escape from such a windshear.
    (1) If the intensity is lesser, the performance capability of the 
simulated airplane in the windshear permits the pilot to maintain a 
satisfactory flightpath; and
    (2) If the intensity is greater, the performance capability of the 
simulated airplane in the windshear does not permit the pilot to 
maintain a satisfactory flightpath (crash). Note: The means used to 
accomplish the ``nonsurvivable'' scenario of paragraph 3.b.(2) of this 
attachment, that involve operational elements of the simulated airplane, 
must reflect the dispatch limitations of the airplane.
    c. Be available for use in the FAA-approved windshear flight 
training program.

                            4. Demonstrations

    a. The sponsor must identify one survivable takeoff windshear 
training model and one survivable approach windshear training model. The 
wind components of the survivable models must be presented in graphical 
format so that all components of the windshear are shown, including 
initiation point, variance in magnitude, and time or distance 
correlations. The simulator must be operated at the same gross weight, 
airplane configuration, and initial airspeed during the takeoff 
demonstration (through calm air and through the first selected 
survivable windshear), and at the same gross weight, airplane 
configuration, and initial airspeed during the approach demonstration 
(through calm air and through the second selected survivable windshear).
    b. In each of these four situations, at an ``initiation point'' 
(i.e., where windshear onset is or should be recognized), the 
recommended procedures for windshear recovery are applied and the 
results are recorded as specified in paragraph 5 of this attachment.
    c. These recordings are made without inserting programmed random 
turbulence. Turbulence that results from the windshear model is to be 
expected, and no attempt may be made to neutralize turbulence from this 
source.
    d. The definition of the models and the results of the 
demonstrations of all four?(4) cases described in paragraph 4.a of this 
attachment, must be made a part of the MQTG.

                         5. Recording Parameters

    a. In each of the four MQTG cases, an electronic recording (time 
history) must be made of the following parameters:
    (1) Indicated or calibrated airspeed.
    (2) Indicated vertical speed.
    (3) Pitch attitude.
    (4) Indicated or radio altitude.
    (5) Angle of attack.
    (6) Elevator position.
    (7) Engine data (thrust, N1, or throttle position).
    (8) Wind magnitudes (simple windshear model assumed).
    b. These recordings must be initiated at least 10 seconds prior to 
the initiation point, and continued until recovery is complete or ground 
contact is made.

                 6. Equipment Installation and Operation

    All windshear warning, caution, or guidance hardware installed in 
the simulator must operate as it operates in the airplane. For example, 
if a rapidly changing wind speed and/or direction would have caused a 
windshear warning in the airplane, the simulator must respond 
equivalently without instructor/evaluator intervention.

                       7. Qualification Test Guide

    a. All QTG material must be forwarded to the responsible Flight 
Standards office.
    b. A simulator windshear evaluation will be scheduled in accordance 
with normal procedures. Continuing qualification evaluation schedules 
will be used to the maximum extent possible.
    c. During the on-site evaluation, the evaluator will ask the 
operator to run the performance tests and record the results. The 
results of these on-site tests will be compared to those results 
previously approved and placed in the QTG or MQTG, as appropriate.
    d. QTGs for new (or MQTGs for upgraded) simulators must contain or 
reference the information described in paragraphs 2, 3, 4, and 5 of this 
attachment.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                        8. Subjective Evaluation

    The responsible Flight Standards office will fly the simulator in at 
least two of the available windshear scenarios to subjectively evaluate 
simulator performance as it encounters the programmed windshear 
conditions.
    a. One scenario will include parameters that enable the pilot to 
maintain a satisfactory flightpath.
    b. One scenario will include parameters that will not enable the 
pilot to maintain a satisfactory flightpath (crash).
    c. Other scenarios may be examined at the responsible Flight 
Standards office's discretion.

[[Page 158]]

                         9. Qualification Basis

    The addition of windshear programming to a simulator in order to 
comply with the qualification for required windshear training does not 
change the original qualification basis of the simulator.

                     10. Demonstration Repeatability

    For the purposes of demonstration repeatability, it is recommended 
that the simulator be flown by means of the simulator's autodrive 
function (for those simulators that have autodrive capability) during 
the demonstrations.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  Attachment 6 to Appendix A to Part 60--FSTD Directives Applicable to 
                       Airplane Flight Simulators

           Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD) Directive

    FSTD Directive 1. Applicable to all Full Flight Simulators (FFS), 
regardless of the original qualification basis and qualification date 
(original or upgrade), having Class II or Class III airport models 
available.
    Agency: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
    Action: This is a retroactive requirement to have all Class II or 
Class III airport models meet current requirements.
________________________________________________________________________
    Summary: Notwithstanding the authorization listed in paragraph 13b 
in Appendices A and C of this part, this FSTD Directive requires each 
certificate holder to ensure that by May 30, 2009, except for the 
airport model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the designated level, 
each airport model used by the certificate holder's instructors or 
evaluators for training, checking, or testing under this chapter in an 
FFS, meets the definition of a Class II or Class III airport model as 
defined in 14CFR part 60. The completion of this requirement will not 
require a report, and the method used for keeping instructors and 
evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class 
III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the 
certificate holder whose employees are using the FFS, but the method 
used must be available for review by the TPAA for that certificate 
holder.
    Dates: FSTD Directive 1 becomes effective on May 30, 2008.

                         Specific Requirements:

    1. Part 60 requires that each FSTD be:
    a. Sponsored by a person holding or applying for an FAA operating 
certificate under Part 119, Part 141, or Part 142, or holding or 
applying for an FAA-approved training program under Part 63, Appendix C, 
for flight engineers, and
    b. Evaluated and issued an SOQ for a specific FSTD level.
    2. FFSs also require the installation of a visual system that is 
capable of providing an out-of-the-flight-deck view of airport models. 
However, historically these airport models were not routinely evaluated 
or required to meet any standardized criteria. This has led to qualified 
simulators containing airport models being used to meet FAA-approved 
training, testing, or checking requirements with potentially incorrect 
or inappropriate visual references.
    3. To prevent this from occurring in the future, by May 30, 2009, 
except for the airport model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the 
designated level, each certificate holder must assure that each airport 
model used for training, testing, or checking under this chapter in a 
qualified FFS meets the definition of a Class II or Class III airport 
model as defined in Appendix F of this part.
    4. These references describe the requirements for visual scene 
management and the minimum distances from which runway or landing area 
features must be visible for all levels of simulator. The airport model 
must provide, for each ``in-use runway'' or ``in-use landing area,'' 
runway or landing area surface and markings, runway or landing area 
lighting, taxiway surface and markings, and taxiway lighting. Additional 
requirements include correlation of the v airport models with other 
aspects of the airport environment, correlation of the aircraft and 
associated equipment, scene quality assessment features, and the control 
of these models the instructor must be able to exercise.
    5. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply 
to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of 
intended landing.
    6. The details in these models must be developed using airport 
pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or 
developed in accordance with published regulatory material. However, 
this FSTD DIRECTIVE 1 does not require that airport models contain 
details that are beyond the initially designed capability of the visual 
system, as currently qualified. The recognized limitations to visual 
systems are as follows:
    a. Visual systems not required to have runway numbers as a part of 
the specific runway marking requirements are:
    (1) Link NVS and DNVS.
    (2) Novoview 2500 and 6000.
    (3) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and including, VITAL III, but 
not beyond.
    (4) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2.
    b. Visual systems required to display runway numbers only for LOFT 
scenes are:
    (1) FlightSafety VITAL IV.
    (2) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T.
    (3) Link-Miles Image II.

[[Page 159]]

    c. Visual systems not required to have accurate taxiway edge 
lighting are:
    (1) Redifusion SP1.
    (2) FlightSafety Vital IV.
    (3) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT
    (4) XKD displays (even though the XKD image generator is capable of 
generating blue colored lights, the display cannot accommodate that 
color).
    7. A copy of this Directive must be filed in the MQTG in the 
designated FSTD Directive Section, and its inclusion must be annotated 
on the Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart. See Attachment 4, 
Appendices A through D for a sample MQTG Index of Effective FSTD 
Directives chart.

           Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD) Directive

    FSTD Directive 2. Applicable to all airplane Full Flight Simulators 
(FFS), regardless of the original qualification basis and qualification 
date (original or upgrade), used to conduct full stall training, upset 
recovery training, airborne icing training, and other flight training 
tasks as described in this Directive.
    Agency: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
    Action: This is a retroactive requirement for any FSTD being used to 
obtain training, testing, or checking credit in an FAA approved flight 
training program for the specific training maneuvers as defined in this 
Directive.
    Summary: Notwithstanding the authorization listed in paragraph 13b 
in Appendix A of this Part, this FSTD Directive requires that each FSTD 
sponsor conduct additional subjective and objective testing, conduct 
required modifications, and apply for additional FSTD qualification 
under Sec. 60.16 to support continued qualification of the following 
flight training tasks where training, testing, or checking credit is 
being sought in a selected FSTD being used in an FAA approved flight 
training program:

a. Recognition of and Recovery from a Full Stall
b. Upset Prevention and Recovery
c. Engine and Airframe Icing
d. Takeoff and Landing with Gusting Crosswinds
e. Recovery from a Bounced Landing

The FSTD sponsor may elect to apply for additional qualification for 
any, all, or none of the above defined training tasks for a particular 
FSTD. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD used to conduct the above training 
tasks must be evaluated and issued additional qualification by the 
responsible Flight Standards office as defined in this Directive.
    Dates: FSTD Directive No. 2 becomes effective on May 31, 2016.

                          Specific Requirements

    1. Part 60 requires that each FSTD be:

    a. Sponsored by a person holding or applying for an FAA operating 
certificate under Part 119, Part 141, or Part 142, or holding or 
applying for an FAA-approved training program under Part 63, Appendix C, 
for flight engineers, and
    b. Evaluated and issued a Statement of Qualification (SOQ) for a 
specific FSTD level.
    2. The evaluation criteria contained in this Directive is intended 
to address specific training tasks that require additional evaluation to 
ensure adequate FSTD fidelity.
    3. The requirements described in this Directive define additional 
qualification criteria for specific training tasks that are applicable 
only to those FSTDs that will be utilized to obtain training, testing, 
or checking credit in an FAA approved flight training program. In order 
to obtain additional qualification for the tasks described in this 
Directive, FSTD sponsors must request additional qualification in 
accordance with Sec. 60.16 and the requirements of this Directive. 
FSTDs that are found to meet the requirements of this Directive will 
have their Statement of Qualification (SOQ) amended to reflect the 
additional training tasks that the FSTD has been qualified to conduct. 
The additional qualification requirements as defined in this Directive 
are divided into the following training tasks:

a. Section I--Additional Qualification Requirements for Full Stall 
Training Tasks
b. Section II--Additional Qualification Requirements for Upset 
Prevention and Recovery Training Tasks
c. Section III--Additional Qualification Requirements for Engine and 
Airframe Icing Training Tasks
d. Section IV--Additional Qualification Requirements for Takeoff and 
Landing in Gusting Crosswinds
e. Section V--Additional Qualification Requirements for Bounced Landing 
Recovery Training Tasks

    4. A copy of this Directive (along with all required Statements of 
Compliance and objective test results) must be filed in the MQTG in the 
designated FSTD Directive Section, and its inclusion must be annotated 
on the Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart. See Attachment 4, 
Appendix A for a sample MQTG Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart.

    Section I--Evaluation Requirements for Full Stall Training Tasks

    1. This section applies to previously qualified Level C and Level D 
FSTDs being used to obtain credit for stall training maneuvers beyond 
the first indication of a stall (such as

[[Page 160]]

stall warning system activation, stick shaker, etc.) in an FAA approved 
training program.
    2. The evaluation requirements in this Directive are intended to 
validate FSTD fidelity at angles of attack sufficient to identify the 
stall, to demonstrate aircraft performance degradation in the stall, and 
to demonstrate recovery techniques from a fully stalled flight 
condition.
    3. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD being used to obtain credit for 
full stall training maneuvers in an FAA approved training program must 
be evaluated and issued additional qualification in accordance with this 
Directive and the following sections of Appendix A of this Part:

a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 2.m. (High Angle of Attack 
Modeling)
b. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 3.f. (Stick Pusher System) 
[where applicable]
c. Table A2A, Objective Testing Requirements, Test 2.a.10 (Stick Pusher 
Force Calibration) [where applicable]
d. Table A2A, Objective Testing Requirements, Test 2.c.8.a (Stall 
Characteristics)
e. Table A2A, Objective Testing Requirements, Test 3.f.5 (Characteristic 
Motion Vibrations--Stall Buffet) [See paragraph 4 of this section for 
applicability on previously qualified FSTDs]
f. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Testing Requirements, Test 
5.b.1.b. (High Angle of Attack Maneuvers)
g. Attachment 7, Additional Simulator Qualification Requirements for 
Stall, Upset Prevention and Recovery, and Engine and Airframe Icing 
Training Tasks (High Angle of Attack Model Evaluation)

    4. For FSTDs initially qualified before May 31, 2016, including 
FSTDs that are initially qualified under the grace period conditions as 
defined in Sec. 60.15(c):

a. Objective testing for stall characteristics (Table A2A, test 
2.c.8.a.) will only be required for the (wings level) second segment 
climb and approach or landing flight conditions. In lieu of objective 
testing for the high altitude cruise and turning flight stall 
conditions, these maneuvers may be subjectively evaluated by a qualified 
subject matter expert (SME) pilot and addressed in the required 
statement of compliance.
b. Where existing flight test validation data in the FSTD's Master 
Qualification Test Guide (MQTG) is missing required parameters or is 
otherwise unsuitable to fully meet the objective testing requirements of 
this Directive, the FAA may accept alternate sources of validation, 
including subjective validation by an SME pilot with direct experience 
in the stall characteristics of the aircraft.
c. Objective testing for characteristic motion vibrations (Stall 
buffet--Table A2A, test 3.f.5) is not required where the FSTD's stall 
buffets have been subjectively evaluated by an SME pilot. For previously 
qualified Level D FSTDs that currently have objective stall buffet tests 
in their approved MQTG, the results of these existing tests must be 
provided to the FAA with the updated stall and stall buffet models in 
place.
d. As described in Attachment 7 of this Appendix, the FAA may accept a 
statement of compliance from the data provider which confirms the stall 
characteristics have been subjectively evaluated by an SME pilot on an 
engineering simulator or development simulator that is acceptable to the 
FAA. Where this evaluation takes place on an engineering or development 
simulator, additional objective ``proof-of-match'' testing for all 
flight conditions as described in tests 2.c.8.a. and 3.f.5.will be 
required to verify the implementation of the stall model and stall 
buffets on the training FSTD.

    5. Where qualification is being sought to conduct full stall 
training tasks in accordance with this Directive, the FSTD Sponsor must 
conduct the required evaluations and modifications as prescribed in this 
Directive and report compliance to the responsible Flight Standards 
office in accordance with Sec. 60.23 using the standardized FSTD 
Sponsor Notification Form. At a minimum, this form must be accompanied 
with the following information:

a. A description of any modifications to the FSTD (in accordance with 
Sec. 60.23) necessary to meet the requirements of this Directive.
b. Statements of Compliance (High Angle of Attack Modeling/Stick Pusher 
System)--See Table A1A, Section 2.m., 3.f., and Attachment 7
c. Statement of Compliance (SME Pilot Evaluation)--See Table A1A, 
Section 2.m. and Attachment 7
d. Copies of the required objective test results as described above in 
sections 3.c., 3.d., and 3.e.

    6. The responsible Flight Standards office will review each 
submission to determine if the requirements of this Directive have been 
met and respond to the FSTD Sponsor as described in Sec. 60.23(c). 
Additional responsible Flight Standards office conducted FSTD 
evaluations may be required before the modified FSTD is placed into 
service. This response, along with any noted restrictions, will serve as 
interim qualification for full stall training tasks until such time that 
a permanent change is made to the Statement of Qualification (SOQ) at 
the FSTD's next scheduled evaluation.

[[Page 161]]

 Section II--Evaluation Requirements for Upset Prevention and Recovery 
                             Training Tasks

    1. This section applies to previously qualified FSTDs being used to 
obtain training, testing, or checking credits for upset prevention and 
recovery training tasks (UPRT) as defined in Appendix A, Table A1A, 
Section 2.n. of this part. Additionally, FSTDs being used for unusual 
attitude training maneuvers that are intended to exceed the parameters 
of an aircraft upset must also be evaluated and qualified for UPRT under 
this section. These parameters include pitch attitudes greater than 25 
degrees nose up; pitch attitudes greater than 10 degrees nose down, and 
bank angles greater than 45 degrees.
    2. The requirements contained in this section are intended to define 
minimum standards for evaluating an FSTD for use in upset prevention and 
recovery training maneuvers that may exceed an aircraft's normal flight 
envelope. These standards include the evaluation of qualified training 
maneuvers against the FSTD's validation envelope and providing the 
instructor with minimum feedback tools for the purpose of determining if 
a training maneuver is conducted within FSTD validation limits and the 
aircraft's operating limits.
    3. This Directive contains additional subjective testing that 
exceeds the evaluation requirements of previously qualified FSTDs. Where 
aerodynamic modeling data or validation data is not available or 
insufficient to meet the requirements of this Directive, the responsible 
Flight Standards office may limit additional qualification to certain 
upset prevention and recovery maneuvers where adequate data exists.
    4. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD being used to obtain training, 
testing, or checking credit for upset prevention and recovery training 
tasks in an FAA approved flight training program must be evaluated and 
issued additional qualification in accordance with this Directive and 
the following sections of Appendix A of this part:

a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 2.n. (Upset Prevention and 
Recovery)
b. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Testing, Test 5.b.3. (Upset 
Prevention and Recovery Maneuvers)
c. Attachment 7, Additional Simulator Qualification Requirements for 
Stall, Upset Prevention and Recovery, and Engine and Airframe Icing 
Training Tasks (Upset Prevention and Recovery Training Maneuver 
Evaluation)
    5. Where qualification is being sought to conduct upset prevention 
and recovery training tasks in accordance with this Directive, the FSTD 
Sponsor must conduct the required evaluations and modifications as 
prescribed in this Directive and report compliance to the responsible 
Flight Standards office in accordance with Sec. 60.23 using the 
standardized FSTD Sponsor Notification Form. At a minimum, this form 
must be accompanied with the following information:

a. A description of any modifications to the FSTD (in accordance with 
Sec. 60.23) necessary to meet the requirements of this Directive.
b. Statement of Compliance (FSTD Validation Envelope)--See Table A1A, 
Section 2.n. and Attachment 7
c. A confirmation statement that the modified FSTD has been subjectively 
evaluated by a qualified pilot as described in Sec. 60.16(a)(1)(iii).

    6. The responsible Flight Standards office will review each 
submission to determine if the requirements of this Directive have been 
met and respond to the FSTD Sponsor as described in Sec. 60.23(c). 
Additional responsible Flight Standards office conducted FSTD 
evaluations may be required before the modified FSTD is placed into 
service. This response, along with any noted restrictions, will serve as 
an interim qualification for upset prevention and recovery training 
tasks until such time that a permanent change is made to the Statement 
of Qualification (SOQ) at the FSTD's next scheduled evaluation.

   Section III--Evaluation Requirements for Engine and Airframe Icing 
                             Training Tasks

    1. This section applies to previously qualified Level C and Level D 
FSTDs being used to obtain training, testing, or checking credits in 
maneuvers that demonstrate the effects of engine and airframe ice 
accretion.
    2. The requirements in this section are intended to supersede and 
improve upon existing Level C and Level D FSTD evaluation requirements 
on the effects of engine and airframe icing. The requirements define a 
minimum level of fidelity required to adequately simulate the aircraft 
specific aerodynamic characteristics of an in-flight encounter with 
engine and airframe ice accretion as necessary to accomplish training 
objectives.
    3. This Directive contains additional subjective testing that 
exceeds the evaluation requirements of previously qualified FSTDs. Where 
aerodynamic modeling data is not available or insufficient to meet the 
requirements of this Directive, the responsible Flight Standards office 
may limit qualified engine and airframe icing maneuvers where sufficient 
aerodynamic modeling data exists.
    4. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD being used to conduct training 
tasks that demonstrate the effects of engine and airframe icing must be 
evaluated and issued additional qualification in accordance with this 
Directive and the following sections of Appendix A of this part:

a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 2.j. (Engine and Airframe 
Icing)

[[Page 162]]

b. Attachment 7, Additional Simulator Qualification Requirements for 
Stall, Upset Prevention and Recovery, and Engine and Airframe Icing 
Training Tasks (Engine and Airframe Icing Evaluation; Paragraphs 1, 2, 
and 3). Objective demonstration tests of engine and airframe icing 
effects (Attachment 2, Table A2A, test 2.i. of this Appendix) are not 
required for previously qualified FSTDs.

    5. Where continued qualification is being sought to conduct engine 
and airframe icing training tasks in accordance with this Directive, the 
FSTD Sponsor must conduct the required evaluations and modifications as 
prescribed in this Directive and report compliance to the responsible 
Flight Standards office in accordance with Sec. 60.23 using the 
standardized FSTD Sponsor Notification Form. At a minimum, this form 
must be accompanied with the following information:

a. A description of any modifications to the FSTD (in accordance with 
Sec. 60.23) necessary to meet the requirements of this Directive;
b. Statement of Compliance (Ice Accretion Model)--See Table A1A, Section 
2.j., and Attachment 7; and
c. A confirmation statement that the modified FSTD has been subjectively 
evaluated by a qualified pilot as described in Sec. 60.16(a)(1)(iii).

    6. The responsible Flight Standards office will review each 
submission to determine if the requirements of this Directive have been 
met and respond to the FSTD Sponsor as described in Sec. 60.23(c). 
Additional responsible Flight Standards office conducted FSTD 
evaluations may be required before the modified FSTD is placed into 
service. This response, along with any noted restrictions, will serve as 
an interim update to the FSTD's Statement of Qualification (SOQ) until 
such time that a permanent change is made to the SOQ at the FSTD's next 
scheduled evaluation.

 Section IV--Evaluation Requirements for Takeoff and Landing in Gusting 
                                Crosswind

    1. This section applies to previously qualified FSTDs that will be 
used to obtain training, testing, or checking credits in takeoff and 
landing tasks in gusting crosswinds as part of an FAA approved training 
program. The requirements of this Directive are applicable only to those 
Level B and higher FSTDs that are qualified to conduct takeoff and 
landing training tasks.
    2. The requirements in this section introduce new minimum simulator 
requirements for gusting crosswinds during takeoff and landing training 
tasks as well as additional subjective testing that exceeds the 
evaluation requirements of previously qualified FSTDs.
    3. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD that is used to conduct gusting 
crosswind takeoff and landing training tasks must be evaluated and 
issued additional qualification in accordance with this Directive and 
the following sections of Appendix A of this part:

a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 2.d.3. (Ground Handling 
Characteristics);
b. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Testing Requirements, test 3.a.3 
(Takeoff, Crosswind--Maximum Demonstrated and Gusting Crosswind); and
c. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Testing Requirements, test 8.d. 
(Approach and landing with crosswind--Maximum Demonstrated and Gusting 
Crosswind).

    4. Where qualification is being sought to conduct gusting crosswind 
training tasks in accordance with this Directive, the FSTD Sponsor must 
conduct the required evaluations and modifications as prescribed in this 
Directive and report compliance to the responsible Flight Standards 
office in accordance with Sec. 60.23 using the standardized FSTD 
Sponsor Notification Form. At a minimum, this form must be accompanied 
with the following information:

a. A description of any modifications to the FSTD (in accordance with 
Sec. 60.23) necessary to meet the requirements of this Directive.
b. Statement of Compliance (Gusting Crosswind Profiles)--See Table A1A, 
Section 2.d.3.
c. A confirmation statement that the modified FSTD has been subjectively 
evaluated by a qualified pilot as described in Sec. 60.16(a)(1)(iii).

    5. The responsible Flight Standards office will review each 
submission to determine if the requirements of this Directive have been 
met and respond to the FSTD Sponsor as described in Sec. 60.23(c). 
Additional responsible Flight Standards office conducted FSTD 
evaluations may be required before the modified FSTD is placed into 
service. This response, along with any noted restrictions, will serve as 
an interim qualification for gusting crosswind training tasks until such 
time that a permanent change is made to the Statement of Qualification 
(SOQ) at the FSTD's next scheduled evaluation.

Section V--Evaluation Requirements for Bounced Landing Recovery Training 
                                  Tasks

    1. This section applies to previously qualified FSTDs that will be 
used to obtain training, testing, or checking credits in bounced landing 
recovery as part of an FAA approved training program. The requirements 
of this Directive are applicable only to those Level B and higher FSTDs 
that are qualified to conduct takeoff and landing training tasks.
    2. The evaluation requirements in this section are intended to 
introduce new evaluation requirements for bounced landing recovery 
training tasks and contains additional

[[Page 163]]

subjective testing that exceeds the evaluation requirements of 
previously qualified FSTDs.
    3. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD that is used to conduct bounced 
landing training tasks must be evaluated and issued additional 
qualification in accordance with this Directive and the following 
sections of Appendix A of this Part:

a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 2.d.2. (Ground Reaction 
Characteristics)
b. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Testing Requirements, test 9.e. 
(Missed Approach--Bounced Landing)

    4. Where qualification is being sought to conduct bounced landing 
training tasks in accordance with this Directive, the FSTD Sponsor must 
conduct the required evaluations and modifications as prescribed in this 
Directive and report compliance to the responsible Flight Standards 
office in accordance with Sec. 60.23 using the standardized FSTD 
Sponsor Notification Form. At a minimum, this form must be accompanied 
with the following information:

a. A description of any modifications to the FSTD (in accordance with 
Sec. 60.23) necessary to meet the requirements of this Directive; and
b. A confirmation statement that the modified FSTD has been subjectively 
evaluated by a qualified pilot as described in Sec. 60.16(a)(1)(iii).

    5. The responsible Flight Standards office will review each 
submission to determine if the requirements of this Directive have been 
met and respond to the FSTD Sponsor as described in Sec. 60.23(c). 
Additional responsible Flight Standards office conducted FSTD 
evaluations may be required before the modified FSTD is placed into 
service. This response, along with any noted restrictions, will serve as 
an interim qualification for bounced landing recovery training tasks 
until such time that a permanent change is made to the Statement of 
Qualification (SOQ) at the FSTD's next scheduled evaluation.

      Attachment 7 to Appendix A to Part 60--Additional Simulator 
Qualification Requirements for Stall, Upset Prevention and Recovery, and 
                Engine and Airframe Icing Training Tasks

                         Begin QPS Requirements

   A. High Angle of Attack Model Evaluation (Table A1A, Section 2.m.)

    1. Applicability: This attachment applies to all simulators that are 
used to satisfy training requirements for stall maneuvers that are 
conducted at angles of attack beyond the activation of the stall warning 
system. This attachment is not applicable for those FSTDs that are only 
qualified for approach to stall maneuvers where recovery is initiated at 
the first indication of the stall. The material in this section is 
intended to supplement the general requirements, objective testing 
requirements, and subjective testing requirements contained within 
Tables A1A, A2A, and A3A, respectively.
    2. General Requirements: The requirements for high angle of attack 
modeling are intended to evaluate the recognition cues and performance 
and handling qualities of a developing stall through the stall 
identification angle-of-attack and recovery. Strict time-history-based 
evaluations against flight test data may not adequately validate the 
aerodynamic model in an unsteady and potentially unstable flight regime, 
such as stalled flight. As a result, the objective testing requirements 
defined in Table A2A do not prescribe strict tolerances on any parameter 
at angles of attack beyond the stall identification angle of attack. In 
lieu of mandating such objective tolerances, a Statement of Compliance 
(SOC) will be required to define the source data and methods used to 
develop the stall aerodynamic model.
    3. Fidelity Requirements: The requirements defined for the 
evaluation of full stall training maneuvers are intended to provide the 
following levels of fidelity:

a. Airplane type specific recognition cues of the first indication of 
the stall (such as the stall warning system or aerodynamic stall 
buffet);
b. Airplane type specific recognition cues of an impending aerodynamic 
stall; and
c. Recognition cues and handling qualities from the stall break through 
recovery that are sufficiently exemplar of the airplane being simulated 
to allow successful completion of the stall recovery training tasks.

For the purposes of stall maneuver evaluation, the term ``exemplar'' is 
defined as a level of fidelity that is type specific of the simulated 
airplane to the extent that the training objectives can be 
satisfactorily accomplished.
    4. Statement of Compliance (Aerodynamic Model): At a minimum, the 
following must be addressed in the SOC:
a. Source Data and Modeling Methods: The SOC must identify the sources 
of data used to develop the aerodynamic model. These data sources may be 
from the airplane original equipment manufacturer (OEM), the original 
FSTD manufacturer/data provider, or other data provider acceptable to 
the FAA. Of particular interest is a mapping of test points in the form 
of alpha/beta envelope plot for a minimum of flaps up and flaps down 
aircraft configurations. For the flight test data, a list of the types 
of maneuvers used to define the aerodynamic model for angle of attack 
ranges greater than the first indication of stall must be provided per 
flap setting. In cases

[[Page 164]]

where it is impractical to develop and validate a stall model with 
flight-test data (e.g., due to safety concerns involving the collection 
of flight test data past a certain angle of attack), the data provider 
is expected to make a reasonable attempt to develop a stall model 
through the required angle of attack range using analytical methods and 
empirical data (e.g., wind-tunnel data);
b. Validity Range: The FSTD sponsor must declare the range of angle of 
attack and sideslip where the aerodynamic model remains valid for 
training. For stall recovery training tasks, satisfactory aerodynamic 
model fidelity must be shown through at least 10 degrees beyond the 
stall identification angle of attack. For the purposes of determining 
this validity range, the stall identification angle of attack is defined 
as the angle of attack where the pilot is given a clear and distinctive 
indication to cease any further increase in angle of attack where one or 
more of the following characteristics occur:

i. No further increase in pitch occurs when the pitch control is held at 
the full aft stop for 2 seconds, leading to an inability to arrest 
descent rate;
ii. An uncommanded nose down pitch that cannot be readily arrested, 
which may be accompanied by an uncommanded rolling motion;
iii. Buffeting of a magnitude and severity that is a strong and 
effective deterrent to further increase in angle of attack; and
iv. Activation of a stick pusher.

The model validity range must also be capable of simulating the airplane 
dynamics as a result of a pilot initially resisting the stick pusher in 
training. For aircraft equipped with a stall envelope protection system, 
the model validity range must extend to 10 degrees of angle of attack 
beyond the stall identification angle of attack with the protection 
systems disabled or otherwise degraded (such as a degraded flight 
control mode as a result of a pitot/static system failure).
c. Model Characteristics: Within the declared range of model validity, 
the SOC must address, and the aerodynamic model must incorporate, the 
following stall characteristics where applicable by aircraft type:

i. Degradation in static/dynamic lateral-directional stability;
ii. Degradation in control response (pitch, roll, yaw);
iii. Uncommanded roll acceleration or roll-off requiring significant 
control deflection to counter;
iv. Apparent randomness or non-repeatability;
v. Changes in pitch stability;
vi. Stall hysteresis;
vii. Mach effects;
viii. Stall buffet; and
ix. Angle of attack rate effects.

An overview of the methodology used to address these features must be 
provided.

    5. Statement of Compliance (Subject Matter Expert Pilot Evaluation): 
The sponsor must provide an SOC that confirms the FSTD has been 
subjectively evaluated by a subject matter expert (SME) pilot who is 
knowledgeable of the aircraft's stall characteristics. In order to 
qualify as an acceptable SME to evaluate the FSTD's stall 
characteristics, the SME must meet the following requirements:

a. Has held a type rating/qualification in the aircraft being simulated;
b. Has direct experience in conducting stall maneuvers in an aircraft 
that shares the same type rating as the make, model, and series of the 
simulated aircraft. This stall experience must include hands on 
manipulation of the controls at angles of attack sufficient to identify 
the stall (e.g., deterrent buffet, stick pusher activation, etc.) 
through recovery to stable flight;
c. Where the SME's stall experience is on an airplane of a different 
make, model, and series within the same type rating, differences in 
aircraft specific stall recognition cues and handling characteristics 
must be addressed using available documentation. This documentation may 
include aircraft operating manuals, aircraft manufacturer flight test 
reports, or other documentation that describes the stall characteristics 
of the aircraft; and
d. Must be familiar with the intended stall training maneuvers to be 
conducted in the FSTD (e.g., general aircraft configurations, stall 
entry methods, etc.) and the cues necessary to accomplish the required 
training objectives. The purpose of this requirement is to ensure that 
the stall model has been sufficiently evaluated in those general 
aircraft configurations and stall entry methods that will likely be 
conducted in training.

This SOC will only be required once at the time the FSTD is initially 
qualified for stall training tasks as long as the FSTD's stall model 
remains unmodified from what was originally evaluated and qualified. 
Where an FSTD shares common aerodynamic and flight control models with 
that of an engineering simulator or development simulator that is 
acceptable to the FAA, the FAA will accept an SOC from the data provider 
that confirms the stall characteristics have been subjectively assessed 
by an SME pilot on the engineering or development simulator.
    An FSTD sponsor may submit a request to the Administrator for 
approval of a deviation from the SME pilot experience requirements in 
this paragraph. This request for deviation must include the following 
information:


[[Page 165]]


a. An assessment of pilot availability that demonstrates that a suitably 
qualified pilot meeting the experience requirements of this section 
cannot be practically located; and
b. Alternative methods to subjectively evaluate the FSTD's capability to 
provide the stall recognition cues and handling characteristics needed 
to accomplish the training objectives.

  B. Upset Prevention and Recovery Training (UPRT) Maneuver Evaluation 
                        (Table A1A, Section 2.n.)

    1. Applicability: This attachment applies to all simulators that are 
used to satisfy training requirements for upset prevention and recovery 
training (UPRT) maneuvers. For the purposes of this attachment (as 
defined in the Airplane Upset Recovery Training Aid), an aircraft upset 
is generally defined as an airplane unintentionally exceeding the 
following parameters normally experienced in line operations or 
training:

a. Pitch attitude greater than 25 degrees nose up;
b. Pitch attitude greater than 10 degrees nose down;
c. Bank angles greater than 45 degrees; and
d. Within the above parameters, but flying at airspeeds inappropriate 
for the conditions.

FSTDs that will be used to conduct training maneuvers where the FSTD is 
either repositioned into an aircraft upset condition or an artificial 
stimulus (such as weather phenomena or system failures) is applied that 
is intended to result in a flightcrew entering an aircraft upset 
condition must be evaluated and qualified in accordance with this 
section.
    2. General Requirements: The general requirement for UPRT 
qualification in Table A1A defines three basic elements required for 
qualifying an FSTD for UPRT maneuvers:

a. FSTD Training Envelope: Valid UPRT should be conducted within the 
high and moderate confidence regions of the FSTD validation envelope as 
defined in paragraph 3 below.
b. Instructor Feedback: Provides the instructor/evaluator with a minimum 
set of feedback tools to properly evaluate the trainee's performance in 
accomplishing an upset recovery training task.
c. Upset Scenarios: Where dynamic upset scenarios or aircraft system 
malfunctions are used to stimulate the FSTD into an aircraft upset 
condition, specific guidance must be available to the instructor on the 
IOS that describes how the upset scenario is driven along with any 
malfunction or degradation in FSTD functionality that is required to 
stimulate the upset.

    3. FSTD Validation Envelope: For the purposes of this attachment, 
the term ``flight envelope'' refers to the entire domain in which the 
FSTD is capable of being flown with a degree of confidence that the FSTD 
responds similarly to the airplane. This envelope can be further divided 
into three subdivisions (see Appendix 3-D of the Airplane Upset Recovery 
Training Aid):
a. Flight test validated region: This is the region of the flight 
envelope which has been validated with flight test data, typically by 
comparing the performance of the FSTD against the flight test data 
through tests incorporated in the QTG and other flight test data 
utilized to further extend the model beyond the minimum requirements. 
Within this region, there is high confidence that the simulator responds 
similarly to the aircraft. Note that this region is not strictly limited 
to what has been tested in the QTG; as long as the aerodynamics 
mathematical model has been conformed to the flight test results, that 
portion of the mathematical model can be considered to be within the 
flight test validated region.
b. Wind tunnel and/or analytical region: This is the region of the 
flight envelope for which the FSTD has not been compared to flight test 
data, but for which there has been wind tunnel testing or the use of 
other reliable predictive methods (typically by the aircraft 
manufacturer) to define the aerodynamic model. Any extensions to the 
aerodynamic model that have been evaluated in accordance with the 
definition of an exemplar stall model (as described in the stall 
maneuver evaluation section) must be clearly indicated. Within this 
region, there is moderate confidence that the simulator will respond 
similarly to the aircraft.
c. Extrapolated: This is the region extrapolated beyond the flight test 
validated and wind tunnel/analytical regions. The extrapolation may be a 
linear extrapolation, a holding of the last value before the 
extrapolation began, or some other set of values. Whether this 
extrapolated data is provided by the aircraft or simulator manufacturer, 
it is a ``best guess'' only. Within this region, there is low confidence 
that the simulator will respond similarly to the aircraft. Brief 
excursions into this region may still retain a moderate confidence level 
in FSTD fidelity; however, the instructor should be aware that the 
FSTD's response may deviate from the actual aircraft.

    4. Instructor Feedback Mechanism: For the instructor/evaluator to 
provide feedback to the student during UPRT maneuver training, 
additional information must be accessible that indicates the fidelity of 
the simulation, the magnitude of trainee's flight control inputs, and 
aircraft operational limits that could potentially affect the successful 
completion of the maneuver(s). At a minimum,

[[Page 166]]

the following must be available to the instructor/evaluator:
a. FSTD Validation Envelope: The FSTD must employ a method to display 
the FSTD's expected fidelity with respect to the FSTD validation 
envelope. This may be displayed as an angle of attack vs sideslip 
(alpha/beta) envelope cross-plot on the Instructor Operating System 
(IOS) or other alternate method to clearly convey the FSTD's fidelity 
level during the maneuver. The cross-plot or other alternative method 
must display the relevant validity regions for flaps up and flaps down 
at a minimum. This validation envelope must be derived by the 
aerodynamic data provider or derived using information and data sources 
provided by the original aerodynamic data provider.
b. Flight Control Inputs: The FSTD must employ a method for the 
instructor/evaluator to assess the trainee's flight control inputs 
during the upset recovery maneuver. Additional parameters, such as 
cockpit control forces (forces applied by the pilot to the controls) and 
the flight control law mode for fly-by-wire aircraft, must be portrayed 
in this feedback mechanism as well. For passive sidesticks, whose 
displacement is the flight control input, the force applied by the pilot 
to the controls does not need to be displayed. This tool must include a 
time history or other equivalent method of recording flight control 
positions.
c. Aircraft Operational Limits: The FSTD must employ a method to provide 
the instructor/evaluator with real-time information concerning the 
aircraft operating limits. The simulated aircraft's parameters must be 
displayed dynamically in real-time and also provided in a time history 
or equivalent format. At a minimum, the following parameters must be 
available to the instructor:
i. Airspeed and airspeed limits, including the stall speed and maximum 
operating limit airspeed (Vmo/Mmo);
ii. Load factor and operational load factor limits; and
iii. Angle of attack and the stall identification angle of attack. See 
section A, paragraph 4.b. of this attachment for additional information 
concerning the definition of the stall identification angle of attack. 
This parameter may be displayed in conjunction with the FSTD validation 
envelope.

                          End QPS Requirements

                            Begin Information

    An example FSTD ``alpha/beta'' envelope display and IOS feedback 
mechanism are shown below in Figure 1 and Figure 2. The following 
examples are provided as guidance material on one possible method to 
display the required UPRT feedback parameters on an IOS display. FSTD 
sponsors may develop other methods and feedback mechanisms that provide 
the required parameters and support the training program objectives.

[[Page 167]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR30MR16.116


[[Page 168]]



                             End Information

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    C. Engine and Airframe Icing Evaluation (Table A1A, Section 2.j.)

    1. Applicability: This section applies to all FSTDs that are used to 
satisfy training requirements for engine and airframe icing. New general 
requirements and objective requirements for simulator qualification have 
been developed to define aircraft specific icing models that support 
training objectives for the recognition and recovery from an in-flight 
ice accretion event.
    2. General Requirements: The qualification of engine and airframe 
icing consists of the following elements that must be considered when 
developing ice accretion models for use in training:
    a. Ice accretion models must be developed to account for training 
the specific skills required for recognition of ice accumulation and 
execution of the required response.
    b. Ice accretion models must be developed in a manner to contain 
aircraft specific recognition cues as determined with aircraft OEM 
supplied data or other suitable analytical methods.
    c. At least one qualified ice accretion model must be objectively 
tested to demonstrate that the model has been implemented correctly and 
generates the correct cues as necessary for training.
    3. Statement of Compliance: The SOC as described in Table A1A, 
Section 2.j. must contain the following information to support FSTD 
qualification of aircraft specific ice accretion models:
    a. A description of expected aircraft specific recognition cues and 
degradation effects due to a typical in-flight icing encounter. Typical 
cues may include loss of lift, decrease in stall angle of attack, 
changes in pitching moment, decrease in control effectiveness, and 
changes in control forces in addition to any overall increase in drag. 
This description must be based upon relevant source data, such as 
aircraft OEM supplied data, accident/incident data, or other acceptable 
data sources. Where a particular airframe has demonstrated 
vulnerabilities to a specific type of ice accretion (due to accident/
incident history) which requires specific training (such as supercooled 
large-droplet icing or tailplane icing), ice accretion models must be 
developed that address the training requirements.
    b. A description of the data sources utilized to develop the 
qualified ice accretion models. Acceptable data sources may be, but are 
not limited to, flight test data, aircraft certification data, aircraft 
OEM engineering simulation data, or other analytical methods based upon 
established engineering principles.
    4. Objective Demonstration Testing: The purpose of the objective 
demonstration test is to demonstrate that the ice accretion models as 
described in the Statement of Compliance have been implemented correctly 
and demonstrate the proper cues and effects as defined in the approved 
data sources. At least one ice accretion model must be selected for 
testing and included in the Master Qualification Test Guide (MQTG). Two 
tests are required to demonstrate engine and airframe icing effects. One 
test will demonstrate the FSTDs baseline performance without icing, and 
the second test will demonstrate the aerodynamic effects of ice 
accretion relative to the baseline test.
    a. Recorded Parameters: In each of the two required MQTG cases, a 
time history recording must be made of the following parameters:

i. Altitude;
ii. Airspeed;
iii. Normal Acceleration;
iv. Engine Power/settings;
v. Angle of Attack/Pitch attitude;
vi. Bank Angle;
vii. Flight control inputs;
viii. Stall warning and stall buffet onset; and
ix. Other parameters as necessary to demonstrate the effects of ice 
accretions.

    b. Demonstration maneuver: The FSTD sponsor must select an ice 
accretion model as identified in the SOC for testing. The selected 
maneuver must demonstrate the effects of ice accretion at high angles of 
attack from a trimmed condition through approach to stall and ``full'' 
stall as compared to a baseline (no ice buildup) test. The ice accretion 
models must demonstrate the cues necessary to recognize the onset of ice 
accretion on the airframe, lifting surfaces, and engines and provide 
representative degradation in performance and handling qualities to the 
extent that a recovery can be executed. Typical recognition cues that 
may be present depending upon the simulated aircraft include:

i. Decrease in stall angle of attack;
ii. Increase in stall speed;
iii. Increase in stall buffet threshold of perception speed;
iv. Changes in pitching moment;
v. Changes in stall buffet characteristics;
vi. Changes in control effectiveness or control forces; and
vii. Engine effects (power variation, vibration, etc.);

The demonstration test may be conducted by initializing and maintaining 
a fixed amount of ice accretion throughout the maneuver in order to 
consistently evaluate the aerodynamic effects.

[[Page 169]]

                          End QPS Requirements

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Docket 
FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18218, 18219, 18240, 18283, 18300, and 
18303, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 32016 and 32066, May 20, 2016; Docket FAA-
2018-0119, Amdt. 60-5, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018; Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 
30275, June 27, 2018; Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 
75711, Dec. 9, 2022]



  Sec. Appendix B to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for 
                    Airplane Flight Training Devices

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    This appendix establishes the standards for Airplane FTD evaluation 
and qualification at Level 4, Level 5, Level 6, or Level 7. The Flight 
Standards Service, is responsible for the development, application, and 
implementation of the standards contained within this appendix. The 
procedures and criteria specified in this appendix will be used by the 
responsible Flight Standards office when conducting airplane FTD 
evaluations.

                            Table of Contents

1. Introduction
2. Applicability (Sec. Sec. 60.1 and 60.2).
3. Definitions (Sec. 60.3).
4. Qualification Performance Standards (Sec. 60.4).
5. Quality Management System (Sec. 60.5).
6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.7).
7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (Sec. 60.9).
8. FTD Use (Sec. 60.11).
9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (Sec. 60.13).
10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of 
          the FTD (Sec. 60.14).
11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.15).
12. Additional Qualifications for Currently Qualified FTDs (Sec. 
          60.16).
13. Previously Qualified FTDs (Sec. 60.17).
14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance 
          Requirements (Sec. 60.19).
15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (Sec. 60.20).
16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Airplane Types or Models 
          (Sec. 60.21).
17. Modifications to FTDs (Sec. 60.23).
18. Operations with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components 
          (Sec. 60.25).
19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
          Qualification (Sec. 60.27).
20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
          Qualification (Sec. 60.29).
21. Record Keeping and Reporting (Sec. 60.31).
22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, 
          or Incorrect Statements (Sec. 60.33).
23. [Reserved]
24. Levels of FTD.
25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
          Agreement (BASA) (Sec. 60.37).
Attachment 1 to Appendix B to Part 60--General FTD Requirements.
Attachment 2 to Appendix B to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD) 
          Objective Tests.
Attachment 3 to Appendix B to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD) 
          Subjective Evaluation.
Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60--Sample Documents.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                             1. Introduction

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. This appendix contains background information as well as 
regulatory and informative material as described later in this section. 
To assist the reader in determining what areas are required and what 
areas are permissive, the text in this appendix is divided into two 
sections: ``QPS Requirements'' and ``Information.'' The QPS Requirements 
sections contain details regarding compliance with the part 60 rule 
language. These details are regulatory, but are found only in this 
appendix. The Information sections contain material that is advisory in 
nature, and designed to give the user general information about the 
regulation.
    b. [Reserved]
    c. The responsible Flight Standards office encourages the use of 
electronic media for all communication, including any record, report, 
request, test, or statement required by this appendix. The electronic 
media used must have adequate security provisions and be acceptable to 
the responsible Flight Standards office.
    d. Related Reading References.
    (1) 14 CFR part 60.
    (2) 14 CFR part 61.
    (3) 14 CFR part 63.
    (4) 14 CFR part 119.
    (5) 14 CFR part 121.
    (6) 14 CFR part 125.
    (7) 14 CFR part 135.
    (8) 14 CFR part 141.
    (9) 14 CFR part 142.
    (10) AC 120-28, as amended, Criteria for Approval of Category III 
Landing Weather Minima.

[[Page 170]]

    (11) AC 120-29, as amended, Criteria for Approving Category I and 
Category II Landing Minima for part 121 operators.
    (12) AC 120-35, as amended, Flightcrew Member Line Operational 
Simulations: Line-Oriented Flight Training, Special Purpose Operational 
Training, Line Operational Evaluation.
    (13) AC 120-41, as amended, Criteria for Operational Approval of 
Airborne Wind Shear Alerting and Flight Guidance Systems.
    (14) AC 120-45, as amended, Airplane Flight Training Device 
Qualification.
    (14) AC 120-57, as amended, Surface Movement Guidance and Control 
System (SMGCS).
    (15) AC 150/5300-13, as amended, Airport Design.
    (16) AC 150/5340-1, as amended, Standards for Airport Markings.
    (17) AC 150/5340-4, as amended, Installation Details for Runway 
Centerline Touchdown Zone Lighting Systems.
    (18) AC 150/5340-19, as amended, Taxiway Centerline Lighting System.
    (19) AC 150/5340-24, as amended, Runway and Taxiway Edge Lighting 
System.
    (20) AC 150/5345-28, as amended, Precision Approach Path Indicator 
(PAPI) Systems.
    (21) International Air Transport Association document, ``Flight 
Simulation Training Device Design and Performance Data Requirements,'' 
as amended.
    (22) AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of 
Transport Category Airplanes.
    (23) AC 23-8A, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of 
Part 23 Airplanes.
    (24) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Manual of 
Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulation Training Devices, as 
amended.
    (25) Aeroplane Flight Simulation Training Device Evaluation 
Handbook, Volume I, as amended and Volume II, as amended, The Royal 
Aeronautical Society, London, UK.
    (26) FAA Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards 
for Airline Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and 
Instrument Ratings.
    (27) The FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). An electronic 
version of the AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/atpubs.
    (28) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document number 436, titled 
Guidelines For Electronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended).
    (29) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document 610, Guidance for 
Design and Integration of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simulators (as 
amended).
________________________________________________________________________

                             End Information

               2. Applicability (Sec. Sec. 60.1 and 60.2)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.1, Applicability, or to Sec. 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to 
person who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized 
activities.

                       3. Definitions (Sec. 60.3)

    See appendix F of this part for a list of definitions and 
abbreviations from part 1, part 60, and the QPS appendices of part 60.

           4. Qualification Performance Standards (Sec. 60.4)

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.4, Qualification Performance Standards.

                5. Quality Management System (Sec. 60.5)

    Additional regulatory material and informational material regarding 
Quality Management Systems for FTDs may be found in appendix E of this 
part.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

          6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements. (Sec. 60.7).

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The intent of the language in Sec. 60.7(b) is to have a specific 
FTD, identified by the sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-approved 
flight training program for the airplane simulated during the 12-month 
period described. The identification of the specific FTD may change from 
one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor 
sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least once during the prescribed 
period. There is no minimum number of hours or minimum FTD periods 
required.
    b. The following examples describe acceptable operational practices:
    (1) Example One.
    (a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, specific FTD for its own use, 
in its own facility or elsewhere-- this single FTD forms the basis for 
the sponsorship. The sponsor uses that FTD at least once in each 12-
month period in that sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for 
the airplane simulated. This 12-month period is established according to 
the following schedule:
    (i) If the FTD was qualified prior to May 30, 2008, the 12-month 
period begins on the date of the first continuing qualification 
evaluation conducted in accordance with

[[Page 171]]

Sec. 60.19 after May 30, 2008, and continues for each subsequent 12-
month period;
    (ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, 2008, will be required 
to undergo an initial or upgrade evaluation in accordance with Sec. 
60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation is complete, the first 
continuing qualification evaluation will be conducted within 6 months. 
The 12 month continuing qualification evaluation cycle begins on that 
date and continues for each subsequent 12-month period.
    (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FTD use required.
    (c) The identification of the specific FTD may change from one 12-
month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor 
sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least once during the prescribed 
period.
    (2) Example Two.
    (a) A sponsor sponsors an additional number of FTDs, in its facility 
or elsewhere. Each additionally sponsored FTD must be--
    (i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight 
training program for the airplane simulated (as described in Sec. 
60.7(d)(1)); or
    (ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder in that other 
certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the 
airplane simulated (as described in Sec. 60.7(d)(1)). This 12-month 
period is established in the same manner as in example one; or
    (iii) Provided a statement each year from a qualified pilot, (after 
having flown the airplane, not the subject FTD or another FTD, during 
the preceding 12-month period) stating that the subject FTD's 
performance and handling qualities represent the airplane (as described 
in Sec. 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is provided at least once in each 
12-month period established in the same manner as in example one.
    (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FTD use required.
    (3) Example Three.
    (a) A sponsor in New York (in this example, a Part 142 certificate 
holder) establishes ``satellite'' training centers in Chicago and 
Moscow.
    (b) The satellite function means that the Chicago and Moscow centers 
must operate under the New York center's certificate (in accordance with 
all of the New York center's practices, procedures, and policies; e.g., 
instructor and/or technician training/checking requirements, record 
keeping, QMS program).
    (c) All of the FTDs in the Chicago and Moscow centers could be dry-
leased (i.e., the certificate holder does not have and use FAA-approved 
flight training programs for the FTDs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) 
because--
    (i) Each FTD in the Chicago center and each FTD in the Moscow center 
is used at least once each 12-month period by another FAA certificate 
holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training 
program for the airplane (as described in Sec. 60.7(d)(1)); or
    (ii) A statement is obtained from a qualified pilot (having flown 
the airplane, not the subject FTD or another FTD during the preceding 
12-month period) stating that the performance and handling qualities of 
each FTD in the Chicago and Moscow centers represents the airplane (as 
described in Sec. 60.7(d)(2)).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

       7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (Sec. 60.9)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    The phrase ``as soon as practicable'' in Sec. 60.9(a) means without 
unnecessarily disrupting or delaying beyond a reasonable time the 
training, evaluation, or experience being conducted in the FTD.

                        8. FTD Use (Sec. 60.11)

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.11, FTD use.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________
    9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (Sec. 60.13)
________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. Flight test data used to validate FTD performance and handling 
qualities must have been gathered in accordance with a flight test 
program containing the following:
    (1) A flight test plan consisting of:
    (a) The maneuvers and procedures required for aircraft certification 
and simulation programming and validation.
    (b) For each maneuver or procedure--
    (i) The procedures and control input the flight test pilot and/or 
engineer used.
    (ii) The atmospheric and environmental conditions.
    (iii) The initial flight conditions.
    (iv) The airplane configuration, including weight and center of 
gravity.
    (v) The data to be gathered.
    (vi) All other information necessary to recreate the flight test 
conditions in the FTD.
    (2) Appropriately qualified flight test personnel.
    (3) An understanding of the accuracy of the data to be gathered 
using appropriate alternative data sources, procedures, and 
instrumentation that is traceable to a recognized

[[Page 172]]

standard as described in Attachment 2, Table B2F of this appendix.
    (4) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisition equipment or 
system(s), including appropriate data reduction and analysis methods and 
techniques, acceptable to the FAA's Aircraft Certification Service.
    b. The data, regardless of source, must be presented:
    (1) In a format that supports the FTD validation process;
    (2) In a manner that is clearly readable and annotated correctly and 
completely;
    (3) With resolution sufficient to determine compliance with the 
tolerances set forth in Attachment 2, Table B2A, Appendix B;
    (4) With any necessary guidance information provided; and
    (5) Without alteration, adjustments, or bias. Data may be corrected 
to address known data calibration errors provided that an explanation of 
the methods used to correct the errors appears in the QTG. The corrected 
data may be re-scaled, digitized, or otherwise manipulated to fit the 
desired presentation.
    c. After completion of any additional flight test, a flight test 
report must be submitted in support of the validation data. The report 
must contain sufficient data and rationale to support qualification of 
the FTD at the level requested.
    d. As required by Sec. 60.13(f), the sponsor must notify the 
responsible Flight Standards office when it becomes aware that an 
addition to or a revision of the flight related data or airplane systems 
related data is available if this data is used to program and operate a 
qualified FTD. The data referred to in this sub-section are those data 
that are used to validate the performance, handling qualities, or other 
characteristics of the aircraft, including data related to any relevant 
changes occurring after the type certification is issued. The sponsor 
must--
    (1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards 
office of the existence of this data; and
    (2) Within 45 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards 
office of--
    (i) The schedule to incorporate this data into the FTD; or
    (ii) The reason for not incorporating this data into the FTD.
    e. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a 
``snapshot test'' or a ``series of snapshot test results'' in lieu of a 
time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that 
a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the 
``snapshot.'' The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior 
to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap 
shot.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    f. The FTD sponsor is encouraged to maintain a liaison with the 
manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the 
aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the 
manufacturer is no longer in business), and if appropriate, with the 
person having supplied the aircraft data package for the FTD in order to 
facilitate the notification described in this paragraph.
    g. It is the intent of the responsible Flight Standards office that 
for new aircraft entering service, at a point well in advance of 
preparation of the QTG, the sponsor should submit to the responsible 
Flight Standards office for approval, a descriptive document (see 
Appendix A, Table A2C, Sample Validation Data Roadmap for Airplanes) 
containing the plan for acquiring the validation data, including data 
sources. This document should clearly identify sources of data for all 
required tests, a description of the validity of these data for a 
specific engine type and thrust rating configuration, and the revision 
levels of all avionics affecting the performance or flying qualities of 
the aircraft. Additionally, this document should provide other 
information such as the rationale or explanation for cases where data or 
data parameters are missing, instances where engineering simulation data 
are used, or where flight test methods require further explanations. It 
should also provide a brief narrative describing the cause and effect of 
any deviation from data requirements. The aircraft manufacturer may 
provide this document.
    h. There is no requirement for any flight test data supplier to 
submit a flight test plan or program prior to gathering flight test 
data. However, the responsible Flight Standards office notes that 
inexperienced data gatherers often provide data that is irrelevant, 
improperly marked, or lacking adequate justification for selection. 
Other problems include inadequate information regarding initial 
conditions or test maneuvers. The responsible Flight Standards office 
has been forced to refuse these data submissions as validation data for 
an FTD evaluation. It is for this reason that the responsible Flight 
Standards office recommends that any data supplier not previously 
experienced in this area review the data necessary for programming and 
for validating the performance of the FTD and discuss the flight test 
plan anticipated for acquiring such data with the responsible Flight 
Standards office well in advance of commencing the flight tests.
    i. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider, on a case-
by-case basis, whether to approve supplemental validation data derived 
from flight data recording systems such as a Quick Access Recorder or 
Flight Data Recorder.

[[Page 173]]

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of 
                         the FTD (Sec. 60.14).

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. In the event that the responsible Flight Standards office 
determines that special equipment or specifically qualified persons will 
be required to conduct an evaluation, the responsible Flight Standards 
office will make every attempt to notify the sponsor at least one (1) 
week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in advance of the evaluation. 
Examples of special equipment include flight control measurement 
devices, accelerometers, or oscilloscopes. Examples of specially 
qualified personnel include individuals specifically qualified to 
install or use any special equipment when its use is required.
    b. Examples of a special evaluation include an evaluation conducted 
after: An FTD is moved; at the request of the TPAA; or as a result of 
comments received from users of the FTD that raise questions about the 
continued qualification or use of the FTD.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.15).

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

    a. In order to be qualified at a particular qualification level, the 
FTD must:
    (1) Meet the general requirements listed in Attachment 1 of this 
appendix;
    (2) Meet the objective testing requirements listed in Attachment 2 
of this appendix (Level 4 FTDs do not require objective tests); and
    (3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjective tests listed in 
Attachment 3 of this appendix.
    b. The request described in Sec. 60.15(a) must include all of the 
following:
    (1) A statement that the FTD meets all of the applicable provisions 
of this part and all applicable provisions of the QPS.
    (2) Unless otherwise authorized through prior coordination with the 
responsible Flight Standards office, a confirmation that the sponsor 
will forward to the responsible Flight Standards office the statement 
described in Sec. 60.15(b) in such time as to be received no later than 
5 business days prior to the scheduled evaluation and may be forwarded 
to the responsible Flight Standards office via traditional or electronic 
means.
    (3) Except for a Level 4 FTD, a QTG, acceptable to the responsible 
Flight Standards office, that includes all of the following:
    (a) Objective data obtained from aircraft testing or another 
approved source.
    (b) Correlating objective test results obtained from the performance 
of the FTD as prescribed in the appropriate QPS.
    (c) The result of FTD subjective tests prescribed in the appropriate 
QPS.
    (d) A description of the equipment necessary to perform the 
evaluation for initial qualification and the continuing qualification 
evaluations.
    c. The QTG described in paragraph a(3) of this section, must provide 
the documented proof of compliance with the FTD objective tests in 
Attachment 2, Table B2A of this appendix.
    d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by the sponsor, or the 
sponsor?s agent on behalf of the sponsor, to the responsible Flight 
Standards office for review and approval, and must include, for each 
objective test:
    (1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions;
    (2) Pertinent and complete instructions for conducting automatic and 
manual tests;
    (3) A means of comparing the FTD test results to the objective data;
    (4) Any other information as necessary to assist in the evaluation 
of the test results;
    (5) Other information appropriate to the qualification level of the 
FTD.
    e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, 
must include the following:
    (1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and FAA approval signature blocks 
(see Attachment 4, Figure B4C, of this appendix, for a sample QTG cover 
page).
    (2) [Reserved]
    (3) An FTD information page that provides the information listed in 
this paragraph, if applicable (see Attachment 4, Figure B4B, of this 
appendix, for a sample FTD information page). For convertible FTDs, the 
sponsor must submit a separate page for each configuration of the FTD.
    (a) The sponsor's FTD identification number or code.
    (b) The airplane model and series being simulated.
    (c) The aerodynamic data revision number or reference.
    (d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model and the aerodynamic 
coefficient data used to modify the basic model.
    (e) The engine model(s) and its data revision number or reference.
    (f) The flight control data revision number or reference.
    (g) The flight management system identification and revision level.
    (h) The FTD model and manufacturer.
    (i) The date of FTD manufacture.
    (j) The FTD computer identification.

[[Page 174]]

    (k) The visual system model and manufacturer, including display 
type.
    (l) The motion system type and manufacturer, including degrees of 
freedom.
    (4) A Table of Contents.
    (5) A log of revisions and a list of effective pages.
    (6) List of all relevant data references.
    (7) A glossary of terms and symbols used (including sign conventions 
and units).
    (8) Statements of compliance and capability (SOCs) with certain 
requirements.
    (9) Recording procedures or equipment required to accomplish the 
objective tests.
    (10) The following information for each objective test designated in 
Attachment 2 of this appendix, as applicable to the qualification level 
sought:
    (a) Name of the test.
    (b) Objective of the test.
    (c) Initial conditions.
    (d) Manual test procedures.
    (e) Automatic test procedures (if applicable).
    (f) Method for evaluating FTD objective test results.
    (g) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the 
automatic test(s).
    (h) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the 
manual test(s).
    (i) Tolerances for relevant parameters.
    (j) Source of Validation Data (document and page number).
    (k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located in a separate binder, a 
cross reference for the identification and page number for pertinent 
data location must be provided).
    (l) FTD Objective Test Results as obtained by the sponsor. Each test 
result must reflect the date completed and must be clearly labeled as a 
product of the device being tested.
    f. A convertible FTD is addressed as a separate FTD for each model 
and series airplane to which it will be converted and for the FAA 
qualification level sought. The responsible Flight Standards office will 
conduct an evaluation for each configuration. If a sponsor seeks 
qualification for two or more models of an airplane type using a 
convertible FTD, the sponsor must provide a QTG for each airplane model, 
or a QTG for the first airplane model and a supplement to that QTG for 
each additional airplane model. The responsible Flight Standards office 
will conduct evaluations for each airplane model.
    g. The form and manner of presentation of objective test results in 
the QTG must include the following:
    (1) The sponsor's FTD test results must be recorded in a manner 
acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that allows easy 
comparison of the FTD test results to the validation data (e.g., use of 
a multi-channel recorder, line printer, cross plotting, overlays, 
transparencies).
    (2) FTD results must be labeled using terminology common to airplane 
parameters as opposed to computer software identifications.
    (3) Validation data documents included in a QTG may be 
photographically reduced only if such reduction will not alter the 
graphic scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpretation or 
resolution.
    (4) Scaling on graphical presentations must provide the resolution 
necessary to evaluate the parameters shown in Attachment 2, Table B2A of 
this appendix.
    (5) Tests involving time histories, data sheets (or transparencies 
thereof) and FTD test results must be clearly marked with appropriate 
reference points to ensure an accurate comparison between FTD and 
airplane with respect to time. Time histories recorded via a line 
printer are to be clearly identified for cross-plotting on the airplane 
data. Over-plots may not obscure the reference data.
    h. The sponsor may elect to complete the QTG objective and 
subjective tests at the manufacturer's facility or at the sponsor's 
training facility (or other sponsor designated location where training 
will take place). If the tests are conducted at the manufacturer's 
facility, the sponsor must repeat at least one-third of the tests at the 
sponsor's training facility in order to substantiate FTD performance. 
The QTG must be clearly annotated to indicate when and where each test 
was accomplished. Tests conducted at the manufacturer's facility and at 
the sponsor's designated training facility must be conducted after the 
FTD is assembled with systems and sub-systems functional and operating 
in an interactive manner. The test results must be submitted to the 
responsible Flight Standards office.
    i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the MQTG at the FTD location.
    j. All FTDs for which the initial qualification is conducted after 
May 30, 2014, must have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including all 
objective data obtained from airplane testing, or another approved 
source (reformatted or digitized), together with correlating objective 
test results obtained from the performance of the FTD (reformatted or 
digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The eMQTG must also contain 
the general FTD performance or demonstration results (reformatted or 
digitized) prescribed in this appendix, and a description of the 
equipment necessary to perform the initial qualification evaluation and 
the continuing qualification evaluations. The eMQTG must include the 
original validation data used to validate FTD performance and handling 
qualities in either the original digitized format from the data supplier 
or an electronic scan of the original time-history plots that were 
provided by the data supplier. A copy of the eMQTG must be provided to 
the responsible Flight Standards office.
    k. All other FTDs (not covered in subparagraph ``j'') must have an 
electronic copy of

[[Page 175]]

the MQTG by and after May 30, 2014. An electronic copy of the copy of 
the MQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office. 
This may be provided by an electronic scan presented in a Portable 
Document File (PDF), or similar format acceptable to the responsible 
Flight Standards office.
    l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualification evaluation 
conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must 
also provide a person knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft 
and the operation of the FTD.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    m. Only those FTDs that are sponsored by a certificate holder as 
defined in Appendix F will be evaluated by the responsible Flight 
Standards office. However, other FTD evaluations may be conducted on a 
case-by-case basis as the Administrator deems appropriate, but only in 
accordance with applicable agreements.
    n. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct an 
evaluation for each configuration, and each FTD must be evaluated as 
completely as possible. To ensure a thorough and uniform evaluation, 
each FTD is subjected to the general FTD requirements in Attachment 1 of 
this appendix, the objective tests listed in Attachment 2 of this 
appendix, and the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this 
appendix. The evaluations described herein will include, but not 
necessarily be limited to the following:
    (1) Airplane responses, including longitudinal and lateral-
directional control responses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix);
    (2) Performance in authorized portions of the simulated airplane's 
operating envelope, to include tasks evaluated by the responsible Flight 
Standards office in the areas of surface operations, takeoff, climb, 
cruise, descent, approach and landing, as well as abnormal and emergency 
operations (see Attachment 2 of this appendix);
    (3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this 
appendix);
    (4) Flight deck configuration (see Attachment 1 of this appendix);
    (5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor station functions checks 
(see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix);
    (6) Airplane systems and sub-systems (as appropriate) as compared to 
the airplane simulated (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this 
appendix);
    (7) FTD systems and sub-systems, including force cueing (motion), 
visual, and aural (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attachment 1 and 
Attachment 2 of this appendix); and
    (8) Certain additional requirements, depending upon the 
qualification level sought, including equipment or circumstances that 
may become hazardous to the occupants. The sponsor may be subject to 
Occupational Safety and Health Administration requirements.
    o. The responsible Flight Standards office administers the objective 
and subjective tests, which includes an examination of functions. The 
tests include a qualitative assessment of the FTD by a pilot from the 
responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation team leader may 
assign other qualified personnel to assist in accomplishing the 
functions examination and/or the objective and subjective tests 
performed during an evaluation when required.
    (1) Objective tests provide a basis for measuring and evaluating FTD 
performance and determining compliance with the requirements of this 
part.
    (2) Subjective tests provide a basis for:
    (a) Evaluating the capability of the FTD to perform over a typical 
utilization period;
    (b) Determining that the FTD satisfactorily simulates each required 
task;
    (c) Verifying correct operation of the FTD controls, instruments, 
and systems; and
    (d) Demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this part.
    p. The tolerances for the test parameters listed in Attachment 2 of 
this appendix reflect the range of tolerances acceptable to the 
responsible Flight Standards office for FTD validation and are not to be 
confused with design tolerances specified for FTD manufacture. In making 
decisions regarding tests and test results, the responsible Flight 
Standards office relies on the use of operational and engineering 
judgment in the application of data (including consideration of the way 
in which the flight test was flown and way the data was gathered and 
applied), data presentations, and the applicable tolerances for each 
test.
    q. In addition to the scheduled continuing qualification evaluation, 
each FTD is subject to evaluations conducted by the responsible Flight 
Standards office at any time without prior notification to the sponsor. 
Such evaluations would be accomplished in a normal manner (i.e., 
requiring exclusive use of the FTD for the conduct of objective and 
subjective tests and an examination of functions) if the FTD is not 
being used for flight crewmember training, testing, or checking. 
However, if the FTD were being used, the evaluation would be conducted 
in a non-exclusive manner. This non-exclusive evaluation will be 
conducted by the FTD evaluator accompanying the check airman, 
instructor, Aircrew Program Designee (APD), or FAA inspector aboard the 
FTD along with the student(s) and observing the operation of the FTD 
during the training, testing, or checking activities.

[[Page 176]]

    r. Problems with objective test results are handled as follows:
    (1) If a problem with an objective test result is detected by the 
evaluation team during an evaluation, the test may be repeated or the 
QTG may be amended.
    (2) If it is determined that the results of an objective test do not 
support the qualification level requested but do support a lower level, 
the responsible Flight Standards office may qualify the FTD at a lower 
level. For example, if a Level 6 evaluation is requested, but the FTD 
fails to meet the spiral stability test tolerances, it could be 
qualified at Level 5.
    s. After an FTD is successfully evaluated, the responsible Flight 
Standards office issues an SOQ to the sponsor, the responsible Flight 
Standards office recommends the FTD to the TPAA, who will approve the 
FTD for use in a flight training program. The SOQ will be issued at the 
satisfactory conclusion of the initial or continuing qualification 
evaluation and will list the tasks for which the FTD is qualified, 
referencing the tasks described in Table B1B in Attachment 1 of this 
appendix. However, it is the sponsor's responsibility to obtain TPAA 
approval prior to using the FTD in an FAA-approved flight training 
program.
    t. Under normal circumstances, the responsible Flight Standards 
office establishes a date for the initial or upgrade evaluation within 
ten (10) working days after determining that a complete QTG is 
acceptable. Unusual circumstances may warrant establishing an evaluation 
date before this determination is made. A sponsor may schedule an 
evaluation date as early as 6 months in advance. However, there may be a 
delay of 45 days or more in rescheduling and completing the evaluation 
if the sponsor is unable to meet the scheduled date. See Attachment 4, 
Figure B4A, Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement 
Evaluation, of this appendix.
    u. The numbering system used for objective test results in the QTG 
should closely follow the numbering system set out in Attachment 2, FTD 
Objective Tests, Table B2A, of this appendix.
    v. Contact the responsible Flight Standards office for additional 
information regarding the preferred qualifications of pilots used to 
meet the requirements of Sec. 60.15(d).
    w. Examples of the exclusions for which the FTD might not have been 
subjectively tested by the sponsor or the responsible Flight Standards 
office and for which qualification might not be sought or granted, as 
described in Sec. 60.15(g)(6), include engine out maneuvers or circling 
approaches.

   12. Additional Qualifications for Currently Qualified FTDs (Sec. 
                                 60.16).

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.16, Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FTD.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

              13. Previously Qualified FTDs (Sec. 60.17).

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. In instances where a sponsor plans to remove an FTD from active 
status for a period of less than two years, the following procedures 
apply:
    (1) The responsible Flight Standards office must be notified in 
writing and the notification must include an estimate of the period that 
the FTD will be inactive;
    (2) Continuing Qualification evaluations will not be scheduled 
during the inactive period;
    (3) The responsible Flight Standards office will remove the FTD from 
the list of qualified FTDs on a mutually established date not later than 
the date on which the first missed continuing qualification evaluation 
would have been scheduled;
    (4) Before the FTD is restored to qualified status, it must be 
evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation 
content and the time required to accomplish the evaluation is based on 
the number of continuing qualification evaluations and sponsor-conducted 
quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity.
    (5) The sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office 
of any changes to the original scheduled time out of service;
    b. FTDs qualified prior to May 31, 2016, and replacement FTD 
systems, are not required to meet the general FTD requirements, the 
objective test requirements, and the subjective test requirements of 
Attachments 1, 2, and 3 of this appendix as long as the FTD continues to 
meet the test requirements contained in the MQTG developed under the 
original qualification basis.
    c. [Reserved]
    d. FTDs qualified prior to May 31, 2016, may be updated. If an 
evaluation is deemed appropriate or necessary by the responsible Flight 
Standards office after such an update, the evaluation will not require 
an evaluation to standards beyond those against which the FTD was 
originally qualified.
    e. Other certificate holders or persons desiring to use an FTD may 
contract with FTD sponsors to use FTDs previously qualified at a 
particular level for an airplane type and approved for use within an 
FAA-approved flight training program. Such FTDs are not required to 
undergo an additional qualification process, except as described in 
Sec. 60.16.

[[Page 177]]

    f. Each FTD user must obtain approval from the appropriate TPAA to 
use any FTD in an FAA-approved flight training program.
    g. The intent of the requirement listed in Sec. 60.17(b), for each 
FTD to have an SOQ within 6 years, is to have the availability of that 
statement (including the configuration list and the limitations to 
authorizations) to provide a complete picture of the FTD inventory 
regulated by the FAA. The issuance of the statement will not require any 
additional evaluation or require any adjustment to the evaluation basis 
for the FTD.
    h. Downgrading of an FTD is a permanent change in qualification 
level and will necessitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to reflect the 
revised qualification level, as appropriate. If a temporary restriction 
is placed on an FTD because of a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative 
component or on-going repairs, the restriction is not a permanent change 
in qualification level. Instead, the restriction is temporary and is 
removed when the reason for the restriction has been resolved.
    i. The responsible Flight Standards office will determine the 
evaluation criteria for an FTD that has been removed from active status 
for a prolonged period. The criteria will be based on the number of 
continuing qualification evaluations and quarterly inspections missed 
during the period of inactivity. For example, if the FTD were out of 
service for a 1 year period, it would be necessary to complete the 
entire QTG, since all of the quarterly evaluations would have been 
missed. The responsible Flight Standards office will also consider how 
the FTD was stored, whether parts were removed from the FTD and whether 
the FTD was disassembled.
    j. The FTD will normally be requalified using the FAA-approved MQTG 
and the criteria that was in effect prior to its removal from 
qualification. However, inactive periods of 2 years or more will require 
re-qualification under the standards in effect and current at the time 
of requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification, Evaluation, and Maintenance 
                       Requirements (Sec. 60.19).

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

    a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of four evenly spaced 
inspections throughout the year. The objective test sequence and content 
of each inspection in this sequence must be developed by the sponsor and 
must be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.
    b. The description of the functional preflight check must be 
contained in the sponsor's QMS.
    c. Record ``functional preflight'' in the FTD discrepancy log book 
or other acceptable location, including any item found to be missing, 
malfunctioning, or inoperative.
    d. During the continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the 
responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must also provide a 
person knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the 
operation of the FTD.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    e. The sponsor's test sequence and the content of each quarterly 
inspection required in Sec. 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a 
mix from the objective test requirement areas listed as follows:
    (1) Performance.
    (2) Handling qualities.
    (3) Motion system (where appropriate).
    (4) Visual system (where appropriate).
    (5) Sound system (where appropriate).
    (6) Other FTD systems.
    f. If the evaluator plans to accomplish specific tests during a 
normal continuing qualification evaluation that requires the use of 
special equipment or technicians, the sponsor will be notified as far in 
advance of the evaluation as practical; but not less than 72 hours. 
Examples of such tests include latencies, control sweeps, or motion or 
visual system tests.
    g. The continuing qualification evaluations described in Sec. 
60.19(b) will normally require 4 hours of FTD time. However, flexibility 
is necessary to address abnormal situations or situations involving 
aircraft with additional levels of complexity (e.g., computer controlled 
aircraft). The sponsor should anticipate that some tests may require 
additional time. The continuing qualification evaluations will consist 
of the following:
    (1) Review of the results of the quarterly inspections conducted by 
the sponsor since the last scheduled continuing qualification 
evaluation.
    (2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 objective tests from the 
MQTG that provide an adequate opportunity to evaluate the performance of 
the FTD. The tests chosen will be performed either automatically or 
manually and should be able to be conducted within approximately one-
third (1/3) of the allotted FTD time.
    (3) A subjective evaluation of the FTD to perform a representative 
sampling of the tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appendix. This 
portion of the evaluation should

[[Page 178]]

take approximately two-thirds (2/3) of the allotted FTD time.
    (4) An examination of the functions of the FTD may include the 
motion system, visual system, sound system as applicable, instructor 
operating station, and the normal functions and simulated malfunctions 
of the airplane systems. This examination is normally accomplished 
simultaneously with the subjective evaluation requirements.
    h. The requirement established in Sec. 60.19(b)(4) regarding the 
frequency of responsible Flight Standards office-conducted continuing 
qualification evaluations for each FTD is typically 12 months. However, 
the establishment and satisfactory implementation of an approved QMS for 
a sponsor will provide a basis for adjusting the frequency of 
evaluations to exceed 12-month intervals.

               15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (Sec. 60.20)

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.20. Logging FTD Discrepancies.

   16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Airplane Types or Models 
                              (Sec. 60.21)

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.21, Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Airplane Types or Models.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                 17. Modifications to FTDs (Sec. 60.23)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. The notification described in Sec. 60.23(c)(2) must include a 
complete description of the planned modification, with a description of 
the operational and engineering effect the proposed modification will 
have on the operation of the FTD and the results that are expected with 
the modification incorporated.
    b. Prior to using the modified FTD:
    (1) All the applicable objective tests completed with the 
modification incorporated, including any necessary updates to the MQTG 
(e.g., accomplishment of FSTD Directives) must be acceptable to the 
responsible Flight Standards office; and
    (2) The sponsor must provide the responsible Flight Standards office 
with a statement signed by the MR that the factors listed in Sec. 
60.15(b) are addressed by the appropriate personnel as described in that 
section.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    c. FSTD Directives are considered modification of an FTD. See 
Attachment 4 of this appendix for a sample index of effective FSTD 
Directives.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 18. Operation with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components 
                              (Sec. 60.25)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The sponsor's responsibility with respect to Sec. 60.25(a) is 
satisfied when the sponsor fairly and accurately advises the user of the 
current status of an FTD, including any missing, malfunctioning, or 
inoperative (MMI) component(s).
    b. It is the responsibility of the instructor, check airman, or 
representative of the administrator conducting training, testing, or 
checking to exercise reasonable and prudent judgment to determine if any 
MMI component is necessary for the satisfactory completion of a specific 
maneuver, procedure, or task.
    c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day period described in 
60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend 
the deadline until the next business day.
    d. In accordance with the authorization described in Sec. 60.25(b), 
the sponsor may develop a discrepancy prioritizing system to accomplish 
repairs based on the level of impact on the capability of the FTD. 
Repairs having a larger impact on the FTD's ability to provide the 
required training, evaluation, or flight experience will have a higher 
priority for repair or replacement.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
                       Qualification (Sec. 60.27)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FTD will be maintained 
during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, 
hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic 
fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FTD is to be 
maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight 
Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing that 
required for requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 179]]

  20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
                       Qualification (Sec. 60.29)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FTD will be maintained 
during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, 
hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic 
fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FTD is to be 
maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight 
Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing that 
required for requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

              21. Recordkeeping and Reporting (Sec. 60.31)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. FTD modifications can include hardware or software changes. For 
FTD modifications involving software programming changes, the record 
required by Sec. 60.31(a)(2) must consist of the name of the aircraft 
system software, aerodynamic model, or engine model change, the date of 
the change, a summary of the change, and the reason for the change.
    b. If a coded form for record keeping is used, it must provide for 
the preservation and retrieval of information with appropriate security 
or controls to prevent the inappropriate alteration of such records 
after the fact.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, 
                  or Incorrect Statements (Sec. 60.33)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.33, Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, 
Falsification, or Incorrect Statements.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                             23. [Reserved]

                           24. Levels of FTD.

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The following is a general description of each level of FTD. 
Detailed standards and tests for the various levels of FTDs are fully 
defined in Attachments 1 through 3 of this appendix.
    (1) Level 4. A device that may have an open airplane-specific flight 
deck area, or an enclosed airplane-specific flight deck and at least one 
operating system. Air/ground logic is required (no aerodynamic 
programming required). All displays may be flat/LCD panel 
representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft. 
All controls, switches, and knobs may be touch sensitive activation (not 
capable of manual manipulation of the flight controls) or may physically 
replicate the aircraft in control operation.
    (2) Level 5. A device that may have an open airplane-specific flight 
deck area, or an enclosed airplane-specific flight deck; generic 
aerodynamic programming; at least one operating system; and control 
loading that is representative of the simulated airplane only at an 
approach speed and configuration. All displays may be flat/LCD panel 
representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft. 
Primary and secondary flight controls (e.g., rudder, aileron, elevator, 
flaps, spoilers/speed brakes, engine controls, landing gear, nosewheel 
steering, trim, brakes) must be physical controls. All other controls, 
switches, and knobs may be touch sensitive activation.
    (3) Level 6. A device that has an enclosed airplane-specific flight 
deck; airplane-specific aerodynamic programming; all applicable airplane 
systems operating; control loading that is representative of the 
simulated airplane throughout its ground and flight envelope; and 
significant sound representation. All displays may be flat/LCD panel 
representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft, 
but all controls, switches, and knobs must physically replicate the 
aircraft in control operation.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

    (4) Level 7. A Level 7 device is one that has an enclosed airplane-
specific flight deck and aerodynamic program with all applicable 
airplane systems operating and control loading that is representative of 
the simulated airplane throughout its ground and flight envelope and 
significant sound representation. All displays may be flat/LCD panel 
representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft, 
but all controls, switches, and knobs must physically replicate the 
aircraft in control operation. It also has a visual system that provides 
an out-of-the-flight deck view, providing cross-flight deck viewing (for 
both pilots simultaneously) of a

[[Page 180]]

field-of-view of at least 180[deg] horizontally and 40[deg] vertically.

   25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
                     Agreement (BASA) (Sec. 60.37)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.37, FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
Agreement (BASA).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

     Attachment 1 to Appendix B to Part 60--General FTD REQUIREMENTS

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                             1. Requirements

    a. Certain requirements included in this appendix must be supported 
with an SOC as defined in Appendix F, which may include objective and 
subjective tests. The requirements for SOCs are indicated in the 
``General FTD Requirements'' column in Table B1A of this appendix.
    b. Table B1A describes the requirements for the indicated level of 
FTD. Many devices include operational systems or functions that exceed 
the requirements outlined in this section. In any event, all systems 
will be tested and evaluated in accordance with this appendix to ensure 
proper operation.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              2. Discussion

    a. This attachment describes the general requirements for qualifying 
Level 4 through Level 6 FTDs. The sponsor should also consult the 
objectives tests in Attachment 2 of this appendix and the examination of 
functions and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix 
to determine the complete requirements for a specific level FTD.
    b. The material contained in this attachment is divided into the 
following categories:
    (1) General Flight deck Configuration.
    (2) Programming.
    (3) Equipment Operation.
    (4) Equipment and facilities for instructor/evaluator functions.
    (5) Motion System.
    (6) Visual System.
    (7) Sound System.
    c. Table B1A provides the standards for the General FTD 
Requirements.
    d. Table B1B provides the tasks that the sponsor will examine to 
determine whether the FTD satisfactorily meets the requirements for 
flight crew training, testing, and experience, and provides the tasks 
for which the simulator may be qualified.
    e. Table B1C provides the functions that an instructor/check airman 
must be able to control in the simulator.
    f. It is not required that all of the tasks that appear on the List 
of Qualified Tasks (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the initial 
or continuing qualification evaluation.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

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[[Page 199]]



          Table B1C--Table of FTD System Tasks QPS requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                 QPS Requirements                       Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   Subjective         FTD level
             Requirements In order ---------------
               to be qualified at
             the FTD qualification
              level indicated, the
 Entry No.    FTD must be able to                          Notes
              perform at least the   4    5    6
             tasks associated with
                 that level of
                 qualification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Instructor Operating Station (IOS).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a........  Power switch(es).....   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b........  Airplane conditions..   A    X    X   e.g., GW, CG, Fuel
                                                    loading, Systems,
                                                    Ground Crew.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c........  Airports/Runways.....   X    X    X   e.g., Selection and
                                                    Presets; Surface and
                                                    Lighting controls if
                                                    equipped with a
                                                    visual system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d........  Environmental           X    X    X   e.g., Temp, Wind.
              controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e........  Airplane system         A    X    X
              malfunctions
              (Insertion/deletion).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f........  Locks, Freezes, and     X    X    X
              Repositioning.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.g........  Sound Controls. (On/    X    X    X
              off/adjustment).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.h........  Motion/Control          A    A    A
              Loading System, as
              appropriate. On/off/
              emergency stop.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Observer Seats/Stations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a........  Position/Adjustment/    X    X   X
              Positive restraint
              system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Note 1: An ``A'' in the table indicates that the system, task, or
  procedure, although not required to be present, may be examined if the
  appropriate system is in the FTD and is working properly.

  Attachment 2 to Appendix B to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD) 
                             Objective Tests

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              1. Discussion

    a. For the purposes of this attachment, the flight conditions 
specified in the Flight Conditions Column of Table B2A, are defined as 
follows:
    (1) Ground--on ground, independent of airplane configuration;
    (2) Take-off--gear down with flaps/slats in any certified takeoff 
position;
    (3) First segment climb--gear down with flaps/slats in any certified 
takeoff position (normally not above 50 ft AGL);
    (4) Second segment climb--gear up with flaps/slats in any certified 
takeoff position (normally between 50 ft and 400 ft AGL);
    (5) Clean--flaps/slats retracted and gear up;
    (6) Cruise--clean configuration at cruise altitude and airspeed;
    (7) Approach--gear up or down with flaps/slats at any normal 
approach position as recommended by the airplane manufacturer; and
    (8) Landing--gear down with flaps/slats in any certified landing 
position.
    b. The format for numbering the objective tests in Appendix A, 
Attachment 2, Table A2A, and the objective tests in Appendix B, 
Attachment 2, Table B2A, is identical. However, each test required for 
FFSs is not necessarily required for FTDs. Also, each test required for 
FTDs is not necessarily required for FFSs. Therefore, when a test number 
(or series of numbers) is not required, the term ``Reserved'' is used in 
the table at that location. Following this numbering format provides a 
degree of commonality between the two tables and substantially reduces 
the potential for confusion when referring to objective test numbers for 
either FFSs or FTDs.
    c. The reader is encouraged to review the Airplane Flight Simulator 
Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal 
Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and FAA AC 25-7, as amended, Flight 
Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-
8, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, 
for references and examples regarding flight testing requirements and 
techniques.
    d. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind 
vector should be clearly noted as part of the data presentation, 
expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the runway being 
used for the test.
    e. A Level 4 FTD does not require objective tests and therefore, 
Level 4 is not addressed in the following table.

[[Page 200]]

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                          2. Test Requirements

    a. The ground and flight tests required for qualification are listed 
in Table B2A Objective Tests. Computer generated FTD test results must 
be provided for each test except where an alternate test is specifically 
authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office. If a flight 
condition or operating condition is required for the test but does not 
apply to the airplane being simulated or to the qualification level 
sought, it may be disregarded (e.g., an engine out missed approach for a 
single-engine airplane; a maneuver using reverse thrust for an airplane 
without reverse thrust capability). Each test result is compared against 
the validation data described in Sec. 60.13, and in Appendix B. The 
results must be produced on an appropriate recording device acceptable 
to the responsible Flight Standards office and must include FTD number, 
date, time, conditions, tolerances, and appropriate dependent variables 
portrayed in comparison to the validation data. Time histories are 
required unless otherwise indicated in Table B2A. All results must be 
labeled using the tolerances and units given.
    b. Table B2A in this attachment sets out the test results required, 
including the parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions for FTD 
validation. Tolerances are provided for the listed tests because 
mathematical modeling and acquisition and development of reference data 
are often inexact. All tolerances listed in the following tables are 
applied to FTD performance. When two tolerance values are given for a 
parameter, the less restrictive may be used unless otherwise indicated. 
In those cases where a tolerance is expressed only as a percentage, the 
tolerance percentage applies to the maximum value of that parameter 
within its normal operating range as measured from the neutral or zero 
position unless otherwise indicated.
    c. Certain tests included in this attachment must be supported with 
a SOC. In Table B2A, requirements for SOCs are indicated in the ``Test 
Details'' column.
    d. When operational or engineering judgment is used in making 
assessments for flight test data applications for FTD validity, such 
judgment may not be limited to a single parameter. For example, data 
that exhibit rapid variations of the measured parameters may require 
interpolations or a ``best fit'' data section. All relevant parameters 
related to a given maneuver or flight condition must be provided to 
allow overall interpretation. When it is difficult or impossible to 
match FTD to airplane data throughout a time history, differences must 
be justified by providing a comparison of other related variables for 
the condition being assessed.
    e. It is not acceptable to program the FTD so that the mathematical 
modeling is correct only at the validation test points. Unless otherwise 
noted, FTD tests must represent airplane performance and handling 
qualities at operating weights and centers of gravity (CG) typical of 
normal operation. FTD tests at extreme weight or CG conditions may be 
acceptable where required for concurrent aircraft certification testing. 
Tests of handling qualities must include validation of augmentation 
devices.
    f. When comparing the parameters listed to those of the airplane, 
sufficient data must also be provided to verify the correct flight 
condition and airplane configuration changes. For example, to show that 
control force is within the parameters for a static stability test, data 
to show the correct airspeed, power, thrust or torque, airplane 
configuration, altitude, and other appropriate datum identification 
parameters must also be given. If comparing short period dynamics, 
normal acceleration may be used to establish a match to the airplane, 
but airspeed, altitude, control input, airplane configuration, and other 
appropriate data must also be given. If comparing landing gear change 
dynamics, pitch, airspeed, and altitude may be used to establish a match 
to the airplane, but landing gear position must also be provided. All 
airspeed values must be properly annotated (e.g., indicated versus 
calibrated). In addition, the same variables must be used for comparison 
(e.g., compare inches to inches rather than inches to centimeters).
    g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must clearly describe how the FTD 
will be set up and operated for each test. Each FTD subsystem may be 
tested independently, but overall integrated testing of the FTD must be 
accomplished to assure that the total FTD system meets the prescribed 
standards. A manual test procedure with explicit and detailed steps for 
completing each test must also be provided.
    h. For previously qualified FTDs, the tests and tolerances of this 
attachment may be used in subsequent continuing qualification 
evaluations for any given test if the sponsor has submitted a proposed 
MQTG revision to the responsible Flight Standards office and has 
received responsible Flight Standards office approval.
    i. FTDs are evaluated and qualified with an engine model simulating 
the airplane data supplier's flight test engine. For qualification of 
alternative engine models (either variations of the flight test engines 
or other manufacturer's engines) additional tests with the alternative 
engine models may be required. This attachment contains guidelines for 
alternative engines.

[[Page 201]]

    j. Testing Computer Controlled Aircraft (CCA) simulators, or other 
highly augmented airplane simulators, flight test data is required for 
the Normal (N) and/or Non-normal (NN) control states, as indicated in 
this attachment. Where test results are independent of control state, 
Normal or Non-normal control data may be used. All tests in Table B2A 
require test results in the Normal control state unless specifically 
noted otherwise in the Test Details section following the CCA 
designation. The responsible Flight Standards office will determine what 
tests are appropriate for airplane simulation data. When making this 
determination, the responsible Flight Standards office may require other 
levels of control state degradation for specific airplane tests. Where 
Non-normal control states are required, test data must be provided for 
one or more Non-normal control states, and must include the least 
augmented state. Where applicable, flight test data must record Normal 
and Non-normal states for:
    (1) Pilot controller deflections or electronically generated inputs, 
including location of input; and
    (2) Flight control surface positions unless test results are not 
affected by, or are independent of, surface positions.
    k. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of 
augmentation devices. FTDs for highly augmented airplanes will be 
validated both in the unaugmented configuration (or failure state with 
the maximum permitted degradation in handling qualities) and the 
augmented configuration. Where various levels of handling qualities 
result from failure states, validation of the effect of the failure is 
necessary. Requirements for testing will be mutually agreed to between 
the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office on a case-by-
case basis.
    l. Some tests will not be required for airplanes using airplane 
hardware in the FTD flight deck (e.g., ``side stick controller''). These 
exceptions are noted in Section 2 ``Handling Qualities'' in Table B2A of 
this attachment. However, in these cases, the sponsor must provide a 
statement that the airplane hardware meets the appropriate 
manufacturer's specifications and the sponsor must have supporting 
information to that fact available for responsible Flight Standards 
office review.
    m. For objective test purposes, see Appendix F of this part for the 
definitions of ``Near maximum,'' ``Light,'' and ``Medium'' gross weight.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    n. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a 
``snapshot test'' or a ``series of snapshot test results'' in lieu of a 
time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that 
a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the 
``snapshot.'' The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior 
to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap 
shot.
    o. Refer to AC 120-27, ``Aircraft Weight and Balance'' and FAA-H-
8083-1, ``Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook'' for more information.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

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________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

 3. For additional information on the following topics, please refer to 
   Appendix A, Attachment 2, and the indicated paragraph within that 
                               attachment

     Control Dynamics, paragraph 4.
     Motion System, paragraph 6.
     Sound System, paragraph 7.
     Engineering Simulator Validation Data, paragraph 
9.
     Validation Test Tolerances, paragraph 11.
     Validation Data Road Map, paragraph 12.
     Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Engines 
Data, paragraph 13.
     Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics, 
paragraph 14.
     Transport Delay Testing, paragraph 15.
     Continuing Qualification Evaluation Validation 
Data Presentation, paragraph 16.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

              4. Alternative Objective Data for FTD Level 5

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. This paragraph (including the following tables) is relevant only 
to FTD Level 5. It is provided because this level is required to 
simulate the performance and handling characteristics of a set of 
airplanes with similar characteristics, such as normal airspeed/altitude 
operating envelope and the same number and type of propulsion systems 
(engines).
    b. Tables B2B through B2E reflect FTD performance standards that are 
acceptable to the FAA. A sponsor must demonstrate that a device performs 
within these parameters, as applicable. If a device does not meet the 
established performance parameters for some or for all of the applicable 
tests listed in Tables B2B through B2E, the sponsor may use FAA accepted 
flight test data for comparison purposes for those tests.
    c. Sponsors using the data from Tables B2B through B2E must comply 
with the following:
    (1) Submit a complete QTG, including results from all of the 
objective tests appropriate for the level of qualification sought as set 
out in Table B2A. The QTG must highlight those results that demonstrate 
the performance of the FTD is within the allowable performance ranges 
indicated in Tables B2B through B2E, as appropriate.
    (2) The QTG test results must include all relevant information 
concerning the conditions under which the test was conducted; e.g., 
gross weight, center of gravity, airspeed, power setting, altitude 
(climbing, descending, or level), temperature, configuration, and any 
other parameter that impacts the conduct of the test.
    (3) The test results become the validation data against which the 
initial and all subsequent continuing qualification evaluations are 
compared. These subsequent evaluations will use the tolerances listed in 
Table B2A.
    (4) Subjective testing of the device must be performed to determine 
that the device performs and handles like an airplane within the 
appropriate set of airplanes.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    d. The reader is encouraged to consult the Airplane Flight Simulator 
Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal 
Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and AC 25-7, Flight Test Guide for 
Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-8A, Flight Test 
Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, as amended, for references 
and examples regarding flight testing requirements and techniques.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

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                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

 5. Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation: Level 6 
                                FTD Only

    a. Sponsors are not required to use the alternative data sources, 
procedures, and instrumentation. However, a sponsor may choose to use 
one or more of the alternative sources, procedures, and instrumentation 
described in Table B2F.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    b. It has become standard practice for experienced FTD manufacturers 
to use such techniques as a means of establishing data bases for new FTD 
configurations while awaiting the availability of actual flight test 
data; and then comparing this new data with the newly available flight 
test data. The results of such comparisons have, as reported by some 
recognized and experienced simulation experts, become increasingly 
consistent and indicate that these techniques, applied with appropriate 
experience, are becoming dependably accurate for the development of 
aerodynamic models for use in Level 6 FTDs.
    c. In reviewing this history, the responsible Flight Standards 
office has concluded that, with proper care, those who are experienced 
in the development of aerodynamic models for FTD application can 
successfully use these modeling techniques to acceptably alter the 
method by which flight test data may be acquired and, when applied to 
Level 6 FTDs, does not compromise the quality of that simulation.
    d. The information in the table that follows (Table of Alternative 
Data Sources, Procedures, and Information: Level 6 FTD Only) is 
presented to describe an acceptable alternative to data sources for 
Level 6 FTD modeling and validation, and an acceptable alternative to 
the procedures and instrumentation found in the flight test methods 
traditionally accepted for gathering modeling and validation data.
    (1) Alternative data sources that may be used for part or all of a 
data requirement are the Airplane Maintenance Manual, the Airplane 
Flight Manual (AFM), Airplane Design Data, the Type Inspection Report 
(TIR), Certification Data or acceptable supplemental flight test data.
    (2) The responsible Flight Standards office recommends that use of 
the alternative instrumentation noted in Table B2F be coordinated with 
the responsible Flight Standards office prior to employment in a flight 
test or data gathering effort.
    e. The responsible Flight Standards office position regarding the 
use of these alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation 
is based on three primary preconditions and presumptions regarding the 
objective data and FTD aerodynamic program modeling.
    (1) Data gathered through the alternative means does not require 
angle of attack (AOA) measurements or control surface position 
measurements for any flight test. AOA can be sufficiently derived if the 
flight test program insures the collection of acceptable level, 
unaccelerated, trimmed flight data. Angle of attack may be validated by 
conducting the three basic ``fly-by'' trim tests. The FTD time history 
tests should begin in level, unaccelerated, and trimmed flight, and the 
results should be compared with the flight test pitch angle.
    (2) A simulation controls system model should be rigorously defined 
and fully mature. It should also include accurate gearing and cable 
stretch characteristics (where applicable) that are determined from 
actual aircraft measurements. Such a model does not require control 
surface position measurements in the flight test objective data for 
Level 6 FTD applications.
    f. Table B2F is not applicable to Computer Controlled Aircraft FTDs.
    g. Utilization of these alternate data sources, procedures, and 
instrumentation does not relieve the sponsor from compliance with the 
balance of the information contained in this document relative to Level 
6 FTDs.
    h. The term ``inertial measurement system'' allows the use of a 
functional global positioning system (GPS).

                             End Information



[[Page 245]]

________________________________________________________________________

                Table B2F--Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation Level 6 FTD
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
   QPS Requirements The standards in this table are required if the data gathering           Information
            methods described in paragraph 9 of Appendix B are not used.             ---------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
   Objective test reference number and     Alternative data sources, procedures, and             Notes
                  title                                 instrumentation
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1...................................  Data may be acquired through a              This test is required only
Performance.............................   synchronized video recording of a stop      if RTO is sought.
Takeoff.................................   watch and the calibrated airplane
Ground acceleration time................   airspeed indicator. Hand-record the
                                           flight conditions and airplane
                                           configuration.
rrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrr
1.b.7...................................  Data may be acquired through a              This test is required only
Performance.............................   synchronized video recording of a stop      if RTO is sought.
Takeoff.................................   watch and the calibrated airplane
Rejected takeoff........................   airspeed indicator. Hand-record the
                                           flight conditions and airplane
                                           configuration.
rrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrr
1.c.1...................................  Data may be acquired with a synchronized
Performance.............................   video of calibrated airplane instruments
Climb...................................   and engine power throughout the climb
Normal climb all engines operating......   range.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
1.f.1...................................  Data may be acquired with a synchronized
Performance.............................   video recording of engine instruments and
Engines.................................   throttle position.
Acceleration............................
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
1.f.2...................................  Data may be acquired with a synchronized
Performance.............................   video recording of engine instruments and
Engines.................................   throttle position.
Deceleration............................
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.a.1.a.................................  Surface position data may be acquired from  For airplanes with
 Handling qualities. Static control        flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if    reversible control
 tests. Pitch controller position vs.      no FDR sensor, at selected, significant     systems, surface position
 force and surface position calibration.   column positions (encompassing              data acquisition should
                                           significant column position data points),   be accomplished with
                                           acceptable to the responsible Flight        winds less than 5 kts.
                                           Standards office, using a control surface
                                           protractor on the ground. Force data may
                                           be acquired by using a hand held force
                                           gauge at the same column position data
                                           points..
rrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrr
2.a.2.a.................................  Surface position data may be acquired from  For airplanes with
 Handling qualities. Static control        flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if    reversible control
 tests. Wheel position vs. force and       no FDR sensor, at selected, significant     systems, surface position
 surface position calibration..            wheel positions (encompassing significant   data acquisition should
                                           wheel position data points), acceptable     be accomplished with
                                           to the responsible Flight Standards         winds less than 5 kts.
                                           office, using a control surface
                                           protractor on the ground. Force data may
                                           be acquired by using a hand held force
                                           gauge at the same wheel position data
                                           points..
rrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrr
2.a.3.a.................................  Surface position data may be acquired from  For airplanes with
 Handling qualities. Static control        flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if    reversible control
 tests. Rudder pedal position vs. force    no FDR sensor, at selected, significant     systems, surface position
 and surface position calibration..        rudder pedal positions (encompassing        data acquisition should
                                           significant rudder pedal position data      be accomplished with
                                           points), acceptable to the responsible      winds less than 5 kts.
                                           Flight Standards office, using a control
                                           surface protractor on the ground. Force
                                           data may be acquired by using a hand held
                                           force gauge at the same rudder pedal
                                           position data points..
rrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrr
2.a.4...................................  Breakout data may be acquired with a hand
Handling qualities......................   held force gauge. The remainder of the
Static control tests....................   force to the stops may be calculated if
Nosewheel steering force................   the force gauge and a protractor are used
                                           to measure force after breakout for at
                                           least 25% of the total displacement
                                           capability.
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[[Page 246]]

 
2.a.5...................................  Data may be acquired through the use of
Handling qualities......................   force pads on the rudder pedals and a
Static control tests....................   pedal position measurement device,
Rudder pedal steering calibration.......   together with design data for nosewheel
                                           position.
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2.a.6...................................  Data may be acquired through calculations.
Handling qualities......................
Static control tests....................
Pitch trim indicator vs. surface
 position calibration..
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2.a.8...................................  Data may be acquired through the use of a
Handling qualities......................   temporary throttle quadrant scale to
Static control tests....................   document throttle position. Use a
Alignment of power lever angle vs.         synchronized video to record steady state
 selected engine parameter (e.g., EPR,     instrument readings or hand-record steady
 N1, Torque, Manifold pressure)..          state engine performance readings.
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2.a.9...................................  Use of design or predicted data is
Handling qualities......................   acceptable. Data may be acquired by
Static control tests....................   measuring deflection at ``zero'' and at
Brake pedal position vs. force..........   ``maximum.''
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.c.1...................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial   Power change dynamics test
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized       is acceptable using the
Longitudinal control tests..............   video of the calibrated airplane            same data acquisition
Power change force......................   instruments, throttle position, and the     methodology.
                                           force/position measurements of flight
                                           deck controls.
rrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrr
2.c.2...................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial   Flap/slat change dynamics
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized       test is acceptable using
Longitudinal control tests..............   video of calibrated airplane instruments,   the same data acquisition
Flap/slat change force..................   flap/slat position, and the force/          methodology.
                                           position measurements of flight deck
                                           controls.
rrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrr
2.c.4...................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial   Gear change dynamics test
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized       is acceptable using the
Longitudinal control tests..............   video of the calibrated airplane            same data acquisition
Gear change force.......................   instruments, gear position, and the force/  methodology.
                                           position measurements of flight deck
                                           controls.
rrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrr
2.c.5...................................  Data may be acquired through use of an
Handling qualities......................   inertial measurement system and a
Longitudinal control tests..............   synchronized video of flight deck
Longitudinal trim.......................   controls position (previously calibrated
                                           to show related surface position) and
                                           engine instrument readings.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.c.6...................................  Data may be acquired through the use of an
Handling qualities......................   inertial measurement system and a
Longitudinal control tests..............   synchronized video of the calibrated
Longitudinal maneuvering stability         airplane instruments; a temporary, high
 (stick force/g)..                         resolution bank angle scale affixed to
                                           the attitude indicator; and a wheel and
                                           column force measurement indication.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.c.7...................................  Data may be acquired through the use of a
Handling qualities......................   synchronized video of the airplane flight
Longitudinal control tests..............   instruments and a hand held force gauge.
Longitudinal static stability...........
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[[Page 247]]

 
2.c.8...................................  Data may be acquired through a              Airspeeds may be cross
Handling qualities......................   synchronized video recording of a stop      checked with those in the
Longitudinal control tests..............   watch and the calibrated airplane           TIR and AFM.
Stall Warning (activation of stall         airspeed indicator. Hand-record the
 warning device)..                         flight conditions and airplane
                                           configuration.
rrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrr
2.c.9.a.................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized
Longitudinal control tests..............   video of the calibrated airplane
Phugoid dynamics........................   instruments and the force/position
                                           measurements of flight deck controls.
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2.c.10..................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized
Longitudinal control tests..............   video of the calibrated airplane
Short period dynamics...................   instruments and the force/position
                                           measurements of flight deck controls.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.c.11..................................  May use design data, production flight
Handling qualities......................   test schedule, or maintenance
Longitudinal control tests..............   specification, together with an SOC.
Gear and flap/slat operating times......
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2.d.2...................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized
Lateral directional tests...............   video of the calibrated airplane
Roll response (rate)....................   instruments and the force/position
                                           measurements of flight deck lateral
                                           controls.
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2.d.3...................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized
Lateral directional tests...............   video of the calibrated airplane
(a) Roll overshoot......................   instruments and the force/position
OR......................................   measurements of flight deck lateral
(b) Roll response to flight deck roll      controls.
 controller step input..
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2.d.4...................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized
Lateral directional tests...............   video of the calibrated airplane
Spiral stability........................   instruments; the force/position
                                           measurements of flight deck controls; and
                                           a stop watch.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.d.6.a.................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized
Lateral directional tests...............   video of the calibrated airplane
Rudder response.........................   instruments; the force/position
                                           measurements of rudder pedals.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.d.7...................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized
Lateral directional tests...............   video of the calibrated airplane
Dutch roll, (yaw damper OFF)............   instruments and the force/position
                                           measurements of flight deck controls.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.d.8...................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized
Lateral directional tests...............   video of the calibrated airplane
Steady state sideslip...................   instruments and the force/position
                                           measurements of flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

  Attachment 3 to Appendix B to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD) 
                          Subjective Evaluation

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              1. Discussion

    a. The subjective tests provide a basis for evaluating the 
capability of the FTD to perform over a typical utilization period. The 
items listed in the Table of Functions and Subjective Tests are used to 
determine whether the FTD competently simulates

[[Page 248]]

each required maneuver, procedure, or task; and verifying correct 
operation of the FTD controls, instruments, and systems. The tasks do 
not limit or exceed the authorizations for use of a given level of FTD 
as described on the SOQ or as approved by the TPAA. All items in the 
following paragraphs are subject to examination.
    b. All simulated airplane systems functions will be assessed for 
normal and, where appropriate, alternate operations. Simulated airplane 
systems are listed separately under ``Any Flight Phase'' to ensure 
appropriate attention to systems checks. Operational navigation systems 
(including inertial navigation systems, global positioning systems, or 
other long-range systems) and the associated electronic display systems 
will be evaluated if installed. The pilot will include in his report to 
the TPAA, the effect of the system operation and any system limitation.
    c. At the request of the TPAA, the Pilot may assess the FTD for a 
special aspect of a sponsor's training program during the functions and 
subjective portion of an evaluation. Such an assessment may include a 
portion of a specific operation (e.g., a Line Oriented Flight Training 
(LOFT) scenario) or special emphasis items in the sponsor's training 
program. Unless directly related to a requirement for the qualification 
level, the results of such an evaluation would not affect the 
qualification of the FTD.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

     Table B3A--Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 6 FTD
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
      Entry No.                        Operations tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
  Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the
      airplane system or systems simulated as indicated in the SOQ
 Configuration List as defined in Appendix B, Attachment 2 of this part.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                      Accomplish a functions check of all installed
                       switches, indicators, systems, and equipment at
                       all crewmembers' and instructors' stations, and
                       determine that the flight deck (or flight deck
                       area) design and functions replicate the
                       appropriate airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Surface Operations (pre-takeoff)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.................  Engine start:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1...............  Normal start.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2...............  Alternative procedures start.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3...............  Abnormal procedures start/shut down.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.................  Pushback/Powerback (powerback requires visual
                       system).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Takeoff (requires appropriate visual system as set out in Table B1A,
 item 6; Appendix B, Attachment 1.)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.................  Instrument takeoff:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.1...............  Engine checks (e.g., engine parameter
                       relationships, propeller/mixture controls).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.2...............  Acceleration characteristics.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.3...............  Nosewheel/rudder steering.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.4...............  Landing gear, wing flap, leading edge device
                       operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.................  Rejected takeoff:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.1...............  Deceleration characteristics.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.2...............  Brakes/engine reverser/ground spoiler operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.3...............  Nosewheel/rudder steering.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. In-Flight Operations
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.................  Normal climb.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.................  Cruise:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.1...............  Demonstration of performance characteristics
                       (speed vs. power).
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 249]]

 
4.b.2...............  Normal turns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.3...............  Demonstration of high altitude handling.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.4...............  Demonstration of high airspeed handling/overspeed
                       warning.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.5...............  Demonstration of Mach effects on control and trim.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.6...............  Steep turns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.7...............  In-Flight engine shutdown (procedures only).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.8...............  In-Flight engine restart (procedures only).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.9...............  Specific flight characteristics.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.10..............  Response to loss of flight control power.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.11..............  Response to other flight control system failure
                       modes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.12..............  Operations during icing conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.13..............  Effects of airframe/engine icing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.................  Other flight phase:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1...............  Approach to stalls in the following
                       configurations:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1.a.............  Cruise.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1.b.............  Takeoff or approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1.c.............  Landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2...............  High angle of attack maneuvers in the following
                       configurations:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2.a.............  Cruise.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2.b.............  Takeoff or approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2.c.............  Landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.3...............  Slow flight.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.4...............  Holding.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Approaches
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.                  Non-precision Instrument Approaches:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.1...............  With use of autopilot and autothrottle, as
                       applicable.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.2...............  Without use of autopilot and autothrottle, as
                       applicable.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.3...............  With 10 knot tail wind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.4...............  With 10 knot crosswind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.................  Precision Instrument Approaches:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.1...............  With use of autopilot, autothrottle, and autoland,
                       as applicable.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.2...............  Without use of autopilot, autothrottle, and
                       autoland, as applicable.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.3...............  With 10 knot tail wind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.4...............  With 10 knot crosswind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Missed Approach
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.................  Manually controlled.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 250]]

 
6.b.................  Automatically controlled (if applicable).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Any Flight Phase, as appropriate
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.................  Normal system operation (installed systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.................  Abnormal/Emergency system operation (installed
                       systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c.................  Flap operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d.................  Landing gear operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e.................  Engine Shutdown and Parking.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e.1...............  Systems operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e.2...............  Parking brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate. Functions in this
 section are subject to evaluation only if appropriate for the airplane
 and/or installed on the specific FTD involved
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a.................  Power Switch(es).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.................  Airplane conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.1...............  Gross weight, center of gravity, and fuel loading
                       and allocation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.2...............  Airplane systems status.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.3...............  Ground crew functions (e.g., external power, push
                       back).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.................  Airports.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.1...............  Selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.2...............  Runway selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.3...............  Preset positions (e.g., ramp, over FAF).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d.................  Environmental controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d.1...............  Temperature.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d.2...............  Climate conditions (e.g., ice, rain).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d.3...............  Wind speed and direction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e.................  Airplane system malfunctions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e.1...............  Insertion/deletion.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e.2...............  Problem clear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.................  Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.1...............  Problem (all) freeze/release.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.2...............  Position (geographic) freeze/release.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.3...............  Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.4...............  Ground speed control.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.5...............  Remote IOS, if installed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9. Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10. Control Loading System (as applicable) On/off/emergency stop.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
11. Observer Stations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 251]]

 
11.a................  Position.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.b................  Adjustments.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                          End QPS Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------


     Table B3B--Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 5 FTD
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                       Operations tasks Tasks in this table are subject
                         to evaluation if appropriate for the airplane
      Entry No.         system or systems simulated as indicated in the
                       SOQ Configuration List as defined in Appendix B,
                                  Attachment 2 of this part.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                      Accomplish a functions check of all installed
                       switches, indicators, systems, and equipment at
                       all crewmembers' and instructors' stations, and
                       determine that the flight deck (or flight deck
                       area) design and functions replicate the
                       appropriate airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Surface Operations (pre-takeoff)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.................  Engine start (if installed):
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1...............  Normal start.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2...............  Alternative procedures start.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3...............  Abnormal/Emergency procedures start/shut down.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. In-Flight Operations
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.................  Normal climb.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.................  Cruise:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.1...............  Performance characteristics (speed vs. power).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.2...............  Normal turns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c.................  Normal descent.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Approaches
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.................  Coupled instrument approach maneuvers (as
                       applicable for the systems installed).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Any Flight Phase
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.................  Normal system operation (Installed systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.................  Abnormal/Emergency system operation (Installed
                       systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.................  Flap operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.................  Landing gear operation
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.................  Engine Shutdown and Parking (if installed).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.1...............  Systems operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.2...............  Parking brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Instructor Operating Station (IOS)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.................  Power Switch(es).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.................  Preset positions--ground, air.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c.................  Airplane system malfunctions (Installed systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c.1...............  Insertion/deletion.
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         Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60--Sample Documents

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                            Table of Contents

                             Title of Sample

Figure B4A Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement 
          Evaluation
Figure B4B Attachment: FTD Information Form
Figure B4C Sample Letter of Compliance
Figure B4D Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page
Figure B4E Sample Statement of Qualification--Certificate
Figure B4F Sample Statement of Qualification--Configuration List
Figure B4G Sample Statement of Qualification--List of Qualified Tasks
Figure B4H [Reserved]
Figure B4I Sample MQTG Index of Effective FTD Directives

   Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60--Figure B4A--Sample Letter, 
        Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation

                               Information

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  Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60--Figure B4C--Sample Letter of 
                               Compliance

                               Information

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Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60--Figure B4D--Sample Qualification 
                          Test Guide Cover Page

                               Information

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Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60-- Figure B4E--Sample Statement of 
                       Qualification--Certificate

                               Information

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      Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60--Figure B4H [Reserved]



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[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Docket 
FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18306, 18307, 18327, and 18376, Mar. 
30, 2016; 81 FR 32087, 32110, 32111, and 32165, May 20, 2016; Amdt. 60-
6, 83 FR 30275, June 27, 2018; Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 
87 FR 75771, Dec. 9, 2022]





  Sec. Appendix C to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for 
                    Helicopter Full Flight Simulators

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    This appendix establishes the standards for Helicopter FFS 
evaluation and qualification. The Flight Standards Service is 
responsible for the development, application, and implementation of the 
standards contained within this appendix. The procedures and criteria 
specified in this appendix will be used by the responsible Flight 
Standards office when conducting helicopter FFS evaluations.

                            Table of Contents

1. Introduction.
2. Applicability (Sec. 60.1) and (Sec. 60.2).
3. Definitions (Sec. 60.3).
4. Qualification Performance Standards (Sec. 60.4).
5. Quality Management System (Sec. 60.5).
6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.7).
7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (Sec. 60.9).
8. FFS Use (Sec. 60.11).
9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (Sec. 60.13).
10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of 
          the FFS (Sec. 60.14).
11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.15).
12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS (Sec. 
          60.16).
13. Previously Qualified FFSs (Sec. 60.17).
14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance 
          Requirements (Sec. 60.19).
15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (Sec. 60.20).
16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Helicopter Types or Models 
          (Sec. 60.21).
17. Modifications to FFSs (Sec. 60.23).
18. Operations with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components 
          (Sec. 60.25).
19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
          Qualification (Sec. 60.27).
20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
          Qualification (Sec. 60.29).
21. Record Keeping and Reporting (Sec. 60.31).

[[Page 278]]

22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, 
          or Incorrect Statements (Sec. 60.33).
23. [Reserved]
24. [Reserved]
25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
          Agreement (BASA) (Sec. 60.37).
Attachment 1 to Appendix C to Part 60--General Simulator Requirements.
Attachment 2 to Appendix C to Part 60--FFS Objective Tests.
Attachment 3 to Appendix C to Part 60--Simulator Subjective Evaluation.
Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60--Sample Documents.
Attachment 5 to Appendix C to Part 60--FSTD Directives Applicable to 
          Helicopter FFSs

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                             1. Introduction

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. This appendix contains background information as well as 
regulatory and informative material as described later in this section. 
To assist the reader in determining what areas are required and what 
areas are permissive, the text in this appendix is divided into two 
sections: ``QPS Requirements'' and ``Information.'' The QPS Requirements 
sections contain details regarding compliance with the part 60 rule 
language. These details are regulatory, but are found only in this 
appendix. The Information sections contain material that is advisory in 
nature, and designed to give the user general information about the 
regulation.
    b. [Reserved]
    c. The responsible Flight Standards office encourages the use of 
electronic media for all communication, including any record, report, 
request, test, or statement required by this appendix. The electronic 
media used must have adequate security provisions and be acceptable to 
the responsible Flight Standards office.
    d. Related Reading References.
    (1) 14 CFR part 60.
    (2) 14 CFR part 61.
    (3) 14 CFR part 63.
    (4) 14 CFR part 119.
    (5) 14 CFR part 121.
    (6) 14 CFR part 125.
    (7) 14 CFR part 135.
    (8) 14 CFR part 141.
    (9) 14 CFR part 142.
    (10) AC 120-35, as amended, Flightcrew Member Line Operational 
Simulations: Line-Oriented Flight Training, Special Purpose Operational 
Training, Line Operational Evaluation.
    (11) AC 120-57, as amended, Surface Movement Guidance and Control 
System (SMGCS).
    (12) AC 120-63, as amended, Helicopter Simulator Qualification.
    (13) AC 150/5300-13, as amended, Airport Design.
    (14) AC 150/5340-1, as amended, Standards for Airport Markings.
    (15) AC 150/5340-4, as amended, Installation Details for Runway 
Centerline Touchdown Zone Lighting Systems.
    (16) AC 150/5340-19, as amended, Taxiway Centerline Lighting System.
    (17) AC 150/5340-24, as amended, Runway and Taxiway Edge Lighting 
System.
    (18) AC 150/5345-28, as amended, Precision Approach Path Indicator 
(PAPI) Systems
    (19) AC 150/5390-2, as amended, Heliport Design
    (20) International Air Transport Association document, ``Flight 
Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,'' as amended.
    (21) AC 29-2, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of 
Transport Category Rotorcraft.
    (22) AC 27-1, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of 
Normal Category Rotorcraft.
    (23) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Manual of 
Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators, as amended.
    (24) Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volume I, as 
amended and Volume II, as amended, The Royal Aeronautical Society, 
London, UK.
    (25) FAA Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards 
for Airline Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and 
Instrument Ratings.
    (26) The FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). An electronic 
version of the AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/atpubs.
    (27) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document number 436, titled 
Guidelines For Electronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended).
    (28) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document 610, Guidance for 
Design and Integration of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simulators (as 
amended).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

               2. Applicability (Sec. Sec. 60.1 and 60.2)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.1, Applicability, or to Sec. 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to 
person who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized 
activities.

[[Page 279]]

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                       3. Definitions (Sec. 60.3)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    See Appendix F of this part for a list of definitions and 
abbreviations from part 1 and part 60, including the appropriate 
appendices of part 60.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

           4. Qualification Performance Standards (Sec. 60.4)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.4, Qualification Performance Standards.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                5. Quality Management System (Sec. 60.5)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    See Appendix E of this part for additional regulatory and 
informational material regarding Quality Management Systems.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

           6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.7)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The intent of the language in Sec. 60.7(b) is to have a specific 
FFS, identified by the sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-approved 
flight training program for the helicopter simulated during the 12-month 
period described. The identification of the specific FFS may change from 
one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor 
sponsors and uses at least one FFS at least once during the prescribed 
period. There is no minimum number of hours or minimum FFS periods 
required.
    b. The following examples describe acceptable operational practices:
    (1) Example One.
    (a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, specific FFS for its own use, 
in its own facility or elsewhere--this single FFS forms the basis for 
the sponsorship. The sponsor uses that FFS at least once in each 12-
month period in that sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for 
the helicopter simulated. This 12-month period is established according 
to the following schedule:
    (i) If the FFS was qualified prior to May 30, 2008, the 12-month 
period begins on the date of the first continuing qualification 
evaluation conducted in accordance with Sec. 60.19 after May 30, 2008, 
and continues for each subsequent 12-month period;
    (ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, 2008, will be required 
to undergo an initial or upgrade evaluation in accordance with Sec. 
60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation is complete, the first 
continuing qualification evaluation will be conducted within 6 months. 
The 12 month continuing qualification evaluation cycle begins on that 
date and continues for each subsequent 12-month period.
    (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FFS use required.
    (c) The identification of the specific FFS may change from one 12-
month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor 
sponsors and uses at least one FFS at least once during the prescribed 
period.
    (2) Example Two.
    (a) A sponsor sponsors an additional number of FFSs, in its facility 
or elsewhere. Each additionally sponsored FFS must be--
    (i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight 
training program for the helicopter simulated (as described in Sec. 
60.7(d)(1)); or
    (ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder in that other 
certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the 
helicopter simulated (as described in Sec. 60.7(d)(1)). This 12-month 
period is established in the same manner as in example one; or
    (iii) Provided a statement each year from a qualified pilot, (after 
having flown the helicopter, not the subject FFS or another FFS, during 
the preceding 12-month period) stating that the subject FFS's 
performance and handling qualities represent the helicopter (as 
described in Sec. 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is provided at least once 
in each 12-month period established in the same manner as in example 
one.
    (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FFS use required.
    (3) Example Three.
    (a) A sponsor in New York (in this example, a Part 142 certificate 
holder) establishes ``satellite'' training centers in Chicago and 
Moscow.
    (b) The satellite function means that the Chicago and Moscow centers 
must operate under the New York center's certificate (in accordance with 
all of the New York center's practices, procedures, and policies; e.g., 
instructor and/or technician training/checking requirements, record 
keeping, QMS program).

[[Page 280]]

    (c) All of the FFSs in the Chicago and Moscow centers could be dry-
leased (i.e., the certificate holder does not have and use FAA-approved 
flight training programs for the FFSs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) 
because--
    (i) Each FFS in the Chicago center and each FFS in the Moscow center 
is used at least once each 12-month period by another FAA certificate 
holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training 
program for the helicopter (as described in Sec. 60.7(d)(1)); OR
    (ii) A statement is obtained from a qualified pilot (having flown 
the helicopter, not the subject FFS or another FFS during the preceding 
12-month period) stating that the performance and handling qualities of 
each FFS in the Chicago and Moscow centers represents the helicopter (as 
described in Sec. 60.7(d)(2)).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________
    7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (Sec. 60.9).

                            Begin Information

    The phrase ``as soon as practicable'' in Sec. 60.9(a) means without 
unnecessarily disrupting or delaying beyond a reasonable time the 
training, evaluation, or experience being conducted in the FFS.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                        8. FFS Use (Sec. 60.11)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.11, FFS Use.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

            9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (Sec. 60.13)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. Flight test data used to validate FFS performance and handling 
qualities must have been gathered in accordance with a flight test 
program containing the following:
    (1) A flight test plan consisting of:
    (a) The maneuvers and procedures required for aircraft certification 
and simulation programming and validation
    (b) For each maneuver or procedure--
    (i) The procedures and control input the flight test pilot and/or 
engineer used.
    (ii) The atmospheric and environmental conditions.
    (iii) The initial flight conditions.
    (iv) The helicopter configuration, including weight and center of 
gravity.
    (v) The data to be gathered.
    (vi) All other information necessary to recreate the flight test 
conditions in the FFS.
    (2) Appropriately qualified flight test personnel.
    (3) An understanding of the accuracy of the data to be gathered 
using appropriate alternative data sources, procedures, and 
instrumentation that is traceable to a recognized standard as described 
in Attachment 2, Table C2D of this appendix.
    (4) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisition equipment or 
system(s), including appropriate data reduction and analysis methods and 
techniques, acceptable to the FAA's Aircraft Certification Service.
    b. The data, regardless of source, must be presented:
    (1) In a format that supports the FFS validation process;
    (2) In a manner that is clearly readable and annotated correctly and 
completely;
    (3) With resolution sufficient to determine compliance with the 
tolerances set forth in Attachment 2, Table C2A of this appendix.
    (4) With any necessary instructions or other details provided, such 
as Stability Augmentation System (SAS) or throttle position; and
    (5) Without alteration, adjustments, or bias. Data may be corrected 
to address known data calibration errors provided that an explanation of 
the methods used to correct the errors appears in the QTG. The corrected 
data may be re-scaled, digitized, or otherwise manipulated to fit the 
desired presentation.
    c. After completion of any additional flight test, a flight test 
report must be submitted in support of the validation data. The report 
must contain sufficient data and rationale to support qualification of 
the FFS at the level requested.
    d. As required by Sec. 60.13(f), the sponsor must notify the 
responsible Flight Standards office when it becomes aware that an 
addition to, an amendment to, or a revision of data that may relate to 
FFS performance or handling characteristics is available. The data 
referred to in this paragraph is data used to validate the performance, 
handling qualities, or other characteristics of the aircraft, including 
data related to any relevant changes occurring after the type 
certificate was issued. The sponsor must--
    (1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards 
office of the existence of this data; and
    (2) Within 45 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards 
office of--
    (a) The schedule to incorporate this data into the FFS; or

[[Page 281]]

    (b) The reason for not incorporating this data into the FFS.
    e. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a 
``snapshot test'' or a ``series of snapshot test results'' in lieu of a 
time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that 
a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the 
``snapshot.'' The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior 
to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap 
shot.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    f. The FFS sponsor is encouraged to maintain a liaison with the 
manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the 
aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the 
manufacturer is no longer in business), and, if appropriate, with the 
person who supplied the aircraft data package for the FFS in order to 
facilitate the notification required by Sec. 60.13(f).
    g. It is the intent of the responsible Flight Standards office that 
for new aircraft entering service, at a point well in advance of 
preparation of the QTG, the sponsor should submit to the responsible 
Flight Standards office for approval, a descriptive document (see Table 
C2D, Sample Validation Data Roadmap for Helicopters) containing the plan 
for acquiring the validation data, including data sources. This document 
should clearly identify sources of data for all required tests, a 
description of the validity of these data for a specific engine type and 
thrust rating configuration, and the revision levels of all avionics 
affecting the performance or flying qualities of the aircraft. 
Additionally, this document should provide other information, such as 
the rationale or explanation for cases where data or data parameters are 
missing, instances where engineering simulation data are used or where 
flight test methods require further explanations. It should also provide 
a brief narrative describing the cause and effect of any deviation from 
data requirements. The aircraft manufacturer may provide this document.
    h. There is no requirement for any flight test data supplier to 
submit a flight test plan or program prior to gathering flight test 
data. However, the responsible Flight Standards office notes that 
inexperienced data gatherers often provide data that is irrelevant, 
improperly marked, or lacking adequate justification for selection. 
Other problems include inadequate information regarding initial 
conditions or test maneuvers. The responsible Flight Standards office 
has been forced to refuse these data submissions as validation data for 
an FFS evaluation. It is for this reason that the responsible Flight 
Standards office recommends that any data supplier not previously 
experienced in this area review the data necessary for programming and 
for validating the performance of the FFS, and discuss the flight test 
plan anticipated for acquiring such data with the responsible Flight 
Standards office well in advance of commencing the flight tests.
    i. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider, on a case-
by-case basis, whether to approve supplemental validation data derived 
from flight data recording systems such as a Quick Access Recorder or 
Flight Data Recorder.

                             End Information

 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of 
                          the FFS (Sec. 60.14)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. In the event that the responsible Flight Standards office 
determines that special equipment or specifically qualified persons will 
be required to conduct an evaluation, the responsible Flight Standards 
office will make every attempt to notify the sponsor at least one (1) 
week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in advance of the evaluation. 
Examples of special equipment include spot photometers, flight control 
measurement devices, and sound analyzers. Examples of specially 
qualified personnel include individuals specifically qualified to 
install or use any special equipment when its use is required.
    b. Examples of a special evaluation include an evaluation conducted 
after an FFS is moved, at the request of the TPAA, or as a result of 
comments received from users of the FFS that raise questions about the 
continued qualification or use of the FFS.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.15)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. In order to be qualified at a particular qualification level, the 
FFS must:
    (1) Meet the general requirements listed in Attachment 1 of this 
appendix;
    (2) Meet the objective testing requirements listed in Attachment 2 
of this appendix; and
    (3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjective tests listed in 
Attachment 3 of this appendix.
    b. The request described in Sec. 60.15(a) must include all of the 
following:
    (1) A statement that the FFS meets all of the applicable provisions 
of this part and all applicable provisions of the QPS.

[[Page 282]]

    (2) A confirmation that the sponsor will forward to the responsible 
Flight Standards office the statement described in Sec. 60.15(b) in 
such time as to be received no later than 5 business days prior to the 
scheduled evaluation and may be forwarded to the responsible Flight 
Standards office via traditional or electronic means.
    (3) A QTG, acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, 
that includes all of the following:
    (a) Objective data obtained from aircraft testing or another 
approved source.
    (b) Correlating objective test results obtained from the performance 
of the FFS as prescribed in the appropriate QPS.
    (c) The result of FFS subjective tests prescribed in the appropriate 
QPS.
    (d) A description of the equipment necessary to perform the 
evaluation for initial qualification and the continuing qualification 
evaluations.
    c. The QTG described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, must 
provide the documented proof of compliance with the simulator objective 
tests in Attachment 2, Table C2A of this appendix.
    d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by the sponsor, or the 
sponsor's agent on behalf of the sponsor, to the responsible Flight 
Standards office for review and approval, and must include, for each 
objective test:
    (1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions.
    (2) Pertinent and complete instructions for the conduct of automatic 
and manual tests.
    (3) A means of comparing the FFS test results to the objective data.
    (4) Any other information as necessary, to assist in the evaluation 
of the test results.
    (5) Other information appropriate to the qualification level of the 
FFS.
    e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, 
must include the following:
    (1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and FAA approval signature blocks 
(see Attachment 4, Figure C4C, of this appendix, for a sample QTG cover 
page).
    (2) A continuing qualification evaluation schedule requirements 
page. This page will be used by the responsible Flight Standards office 
to establish and record the frequency with which continuing 
qualification evaluations must be conducted and any subsequent changes 
that may be determined by the responsible Flight Standards office in 
accordance with Sec. 60.19. See Attachment 4 of this appendix, Figure 
C4G, for a sample Continuing Qualification Evaluation Requirements page.
    (3) An FFS information page that provides the information listed in 
this paragraph (see Attachment 4, Figure C4B, of this appendix for a 
sample FFS information page). For convertible FFSs, the sponsor must 
submit a separate page for each configuration of the FFS.
    (a) The sponsor's FFS identification number or code.
    (b) The helicopter model and series being simulated.
    (c) The aerodynamic data revision number or reference.
    (d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model and the aerodynamic 
coefficient data used to modify the basic model.
    (e) The engine model(s) and its data revision number or reference.
    (f) The flight control data revision number or reference.
    (g) The flight management system identification and revision level.
    (h) The FFS model and manufacturer.
    (i) The date of FFS manufacture.
    (j) The FFS computer identification.
    (k) The visual system model and manufacturer, including display 
type.
    (l) The motion system type and manufacturer, including degrees of 
freedom.
    (4) A Table of Contents.
    (5) A log of revisions and a list of effective pages.
    (6) List of all relevant data references.
    (7) A glossary of terms and symbols used (including sign conventions 
and units).
    (8) Statements of compliance and capability (SOCs) with certain 
requirements.
    (9) Recording procedures or equipment required to accomplish the 
objective tests.
    (10) The following information for each objective test designated in 
Attachment 2 of this appendix, Table C2A, as applicable to the 
qualification level sought:
    (a) Name of the test.
    (b) Objective of the test.
    (c) Initial conditions.
    (d) Manual test procedures.
    (e) Automatic test procedures (if applicable).
    (f) Method for evaluating FFS objective test results.
    (g) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the 
automatically conducted test(s).
    (h) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the 
manually conducted test(s).
    (i) Tolerances for relevant parameters.
    (j) Source of Validation Data (document and page number).
    (k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located in a separate binder, a 
cross reference for the identification and page number for pertinent 
data location must be provided).
    (l) Simulator Objective Test Results as obtained by the sponsor. 
Each test result must reflect the date completed and must be clearly 
labeled as a product of the device being tested.
    f. A convertible FFS is addressed as a separate FFS for each model 
and series helicopter to which it will be converted and for

[[Page 283]]

the FAA qualification level sought. If a sponsor seeks qualification for 
two or more models of a helicopter type using a convertible FFS, the 
sponsor must submit a QTG for each helicopter model, or a QTG for the 
first helicopter model and a supplement to that QTG for each additional 
helicopter model. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct 
evaluations for each helicopter model.
    g. Form and manner of presentation of objective test results in the 
QTG:
    (1) The sponsor's FFS test results must be recorded in a manner 
acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that allows easy 
comparison of the FFS test results to the validation data (e.g., use of 
a multi-channel recorder, line printer, cross plotting, overlays, 
transparencies).
    (2) FFS results must be labeled using terminology common to 
helicopter parameters as opposed to computer software identifications.
    (3) Validation data documents included in a QTG may be 
photographically reduced only if such reduction will not alter the 
graphic scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpretation or 
resolution.
    (4) Scaling on graphical presentations must provide the resolution 
necessary to evaluate the parameters shown in Attachment 2, Table C2A of 
this appendix.
    (5) Tests involving time histories, data sheets (or transparencies 
thereof) and FFS test results must be clearly marked with appropriate 
reference points to ensure an accurate comparison between the FFS and 
the helicopter with respect to time. Time histories recorded via a line 
printer are to be clearly identified for cross plotting on the 
helicopter data. Over-plots must not obscure the reference data.
    h. The sponsor may elect to complete the QTG objective and 
subjective tests at the manufacturer's facility or at the sponsor's 
training facility. If the tests are conducted at the manufacturer's 
facility, the sponsor must repeat at least one-third of the tests at the 
sponsor's training facility in order to substantiate FFS performance. 
The QTG must be clearly annotated to indicate when and where each test 
was accomplished. Tests conducted at the manufacturer's facility and at 
the sponsor's training facility must be conducted after the FFS is 
assembled with systems and sub-systems functional and operating in an 
interactive manner. The test results must be submitted to the 
responsible Flight Standards office.
    i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the MQTG at the FFS location.
    j. All FFSs for which the initial qualification is conducted after 
May 30, 2014, must have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including all 
objective data obtained from helicopter testing, or another approved 
source (reformatted or digitized), together with correlating objective 
test results obtained from the performance of the FFS (reformatted or 
digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The eMQTG must also contain 
the general FFS performance or demonstration results (reformatted or 
digitized) prescribed in this appendix, and a description of the 
equipment necessary to perform the initial qualification evaluation and 
the continuing qualification evaluations. The eMQTG must include the 
original validation data used to validate FFS performance and handling 
qualities in either the original digitized format from the data supplier 
or an electronic scan of the original time-history plots that were 
provided by the data supplier. A copy of the eMQTG must be provided to 
the responsible Flight Standards office.
    k. All other FFSs not covered in subparagraph ``j'' must have an 
electronic copy of the MQTG by May 30, 2014. An electronic copy of the 
MQTG must be provided to the NSPM. This may be provided by an electronic 
scan presented in a Portable Document File (PDF), or similar format 
acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.
    l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualification evaluation 
conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must 
also provide a person who is a user of the device (e.g., a qualified 
pilot or instructor pilot with flight time experience in that aircraft) 
and knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the operation 
of the FFS.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    m. Only those FFSs that are sponsored by a certificate holder as 
defined in Appendix F of this part will be evaluated by the responsible 
Flight Standards office. However, other FFS evaluations may be conducted 
on a case-by-case basis as the Administrator deems appropriate, but only 
in accordance with applicable agreements.
    n. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct an 
evaluation for each configuration, and each FFS must be evaluated as 
completely as possible. To ensure a thorough and uniform evaluation, 
each FFS is subjected to the general simulator requirements in 
Attachment 1 of this appendix, the objective tests listed in Attachment 
2 of this appendix, and the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of 
this appendix. The evaluations described herein will include, but not 
necessarily be limited to the following:
    (1) Helicopter responses, including longitudinal and lateral-
directional control responses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix).

[[Page 284]]

    (2) Performance in authorized portions of the simulated helicopter's 
operating envelope, to include tasks evaluated by the responsible Flight 
Standards office in the areas of surface operations, takeoff, climb, 
cruise, descent, approach, and landing as well as abnormal and emergency 
operations (see Attachment 2 of this appendix).
    (3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this 
appendix).
    (4) Flight deck configuration (see Attachment 1 of this appendix).
    (5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor station functions checks 
(see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix).
    (6) Helicopter systems and sub-systems (as appropriate) as compared 
to the helicopter simulated (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this 
appendix).
    (7) FFS systems and sub-systems, including force cueing (motion), 
visual, and aural (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attachment 1 and 
Attachment 2 of this appendix).
    (8) Certain additional requirements, depending upon the 
qualification level sought, including equipment or circumstances that 
may become hazardous to the occupants. The sponsor may be subject to 
Occupational Safety and Health Administration requirements.
    o. The responsible Flight Standards office administers the objective 
and subjective tests, which includes an examination of functions. The 
tests include a qualitative assessment of the FFS by a pilot from the 
responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation team leader may 
assign other qualified personnel to assist in accomplishing the 
functions examination and/or the objective and subjective tests 
performed during an evaluation when required.
    (1) Objective tests provide a basis for measuring and evaluating FFS 
performance and determining compliance with the requirements of this 
part.
    (2) Subjective tests provide a basis for:
    (a) Evaluating the capability of the FFS to perform over a typical 
utilization period;
    (b) Determining that the FFS satisfactorily simulates each required 
task;
    (c) Verifying correct operation of the FFS controls, instruments, 
and systems; and
    (d) Demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this part.
    p. The tolerances for the test parameters listed in Attachment 2 of 
this appendix reflect the range of tolerances acceptable to the 
responsible Flight Standards office for FFS validation and are not to be 
confused with design tolerances specified for FFS manufacture. In making 
decisions regarding tests and test results, the responsible Flight 
Standards office relies on the use of operational and engineering 
judgment in the application of data (including consideration of the way 
in which the flight test was flown and way the data was gathered and 
applied), data presentations, and the applicable tolerances for each 
test.
    q. In addition to the scheduled continuing qualification evaluation, 
each FFS is subject to evaluations conducted by the responsible Flight 
Standards office at any time without prior notification to the sponsor. 
Such evaluations would be accomplished in a normal manner (i.e., 
requiring exclusive use of the FFS for the conduct of objective and 
subjective tests and an examination of functions) if the FFS is not 
being used for flight crewmember training, testing, or checking. 
However, if the FFS were being used, the evaluation would be conducted 
in a non-exclusive manner. This non-exclusive evaluation will be 
conducted by the FFS evaluator accompanying the check airman, 
instructor, Aircrew Program Designee (APD), or FAA inspector aboard the 
FFS along with the student(s) and observing the operation of the FFS 
during the training, testing, or checking activities.
    r. Problems with objective test results are handled as follows:
    (1) If a problem with an objective test result is detected by the 
evaluation team during an evaluation, the test may be repeated or the 
QTG may be amended.
    (2) If it is determined that the results of an objective test do not 
support the level requested but do support a lower level, the 
responsible Flight Standards office may qualify the FFS at that lower 
level. For example, if a Level D evaluation is requested and the FFS 
fails to meet sound test tolerances, it could be qualified at Level C.
    s. After an FFS is successfully evaluated, the responsible Flight 
Standards office issues a certificate of qualification (COQ) to the 
sponsor. The responsible Flight Standards office recommends the FFS to 
the TPAA, who will approve the FFS for use in a flight training program. 
The COQ will be issued at the satisfactory conclusion of the initial or 
continuing qualification evaluation and will list the tasks for which 
the FFS is qualified, referencing the tasks described in Table C1B in 
Attachment 1 of this appendix. However, it is the sponsor's 
responsibility to obtain TPAA approval prior to using the FFS in an FAA-
approved flight training program.
    t. Under normal circumstances, the responsible Flight Standards 
office establishes a date for the initial or upgrade evaluation within 
ten (10) working days after determining that a complete QTG is 
acceptable. Unusual circumstances may warrant establishing an evaluation 
date before this determination is made. A sponsor may schedule an 
evaluation date as early as 6 months in advance. However, there may be a 
delay of 45 days or more in rescheduling and completing the evaluation 
if the sponsor is unable to meet the scheduled date. See Attachment 4,

[[Page 285]]

of this appendix, Figure C4A, Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or 
Reinstatement Evaluation.
    u. The numbering system used for objective test results in the QTG 
should closely follow the numbering system set out in Attachment 2, FFS 
Objective Tests, Table C2A of this appendix.
    v. Contact the responsible Flight Standards office for additional 
information regarding the preferred qualifications of pilots used to 
meet the requirements of Sec. 60.15(d).
    w. Examples of the exclusions for which the FFS might not have been 
subjectively tested by the sponsor or the responsible Flight Standards 
office and for which qualification might not be sought or granted, as 
described in Sec. 60.15(g)(6), include takeoffs and landing from slopes 
and pinnacles.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS (Sec. 
                                 60.16)

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.16, Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS.

               13. Previously Qualified FFSs (Sec. 60.17)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. In instances where a sponsor plans to remove an FFS from active 
status for a period of less than two years, the following procedures 
apply:
    (1) The responsible Flight Standards office must be notified in 
writing and the notification must include an estimate of the period that 
the FFS will be inactive.
    (2) Continuing Qualification evaluations will not be scheduled 
during the inactive period.
    (3) The responsible Flight Standards office will remove the FFS from 
the list of qualified FSTDs on a mutually established date not later 
than the date on which the first missed continuing qualification 
evaluation would have been scheduled.
    (4) Before the FFS is restored to qualified status, it must be 
evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation 
content and the time required to accomplish the evaluation is based on 
the number of continuing qualification evaluations and sponsor-conducted 
quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity.
    (5) The sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office 
of any changes to the original scheduled time out of service.
    b. Simulators qualified prior to May 30, 2008, are not required to 
meet the general simulation requirements, the objective test 
requirements, and the subjective test requirements of attachments 1, 2, 
and 3, of this appendix as long as the simulator continues to meet the 
test requirements contained in the MQTG developed under the original 
qualification basis.
    c. After May 30, 2009, each visual scene or airport model beyond the 
minimum required for the FFS qualification level that is installed in 
and available for use in a qualified FFS must meet the requirements 
described in Attachment 3 of this appendix.
    d. Simulators qualified prior to May 30, 2008, may be updated. If an 
evaluation is deemed appropriate or necessary by the responsible Flight 
Standards office after such an update, the evaluation will not require 
an evaluation to standards beyond those against which the simulator was 
originally qualified.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    e. Other certificate holders or persons desiring to use an FFS may 
contract with FFS sponsors to use FFSs previously qualified at a 
particular level for a helicopter type and approved for use within an 
FAA-approved flight training program. Such FFSs are not required to 
undergo an additional qualification process, except as described in 
Sec. 60.16.
    f. Each FFS user must obtain approval from the appropriate TPAA to 
use any FFS in an FAA-approved flight training program.
    g. The intent of the requirement listed in Sec. 60.17(b), for each 
FFS to have an SOQ within 6 years, is to have the availability of that 
statement (including the configuration list and the limitations to 
authorizations) to provide a complete picture of the FFS inventory 
regulated by the FAA. The issuance of the statement will not require any 
additional evaluation or require any adjustment to the evaluation basis 
for the FFS.
    h. Downgrading of an FFS is a permanent change in qualification 
level and will necessitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to reflect the 
revised qualification level, as appropriate. If a temporary restriction 
is placed on an FFS because of a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative 
component or on-going repairs, the restriction is not a permanent change 
in qualification level. Instead, the restriction is temporary and is 
removed when the reason for the restriction has been resolved.
    i. The responsible Flight Standards office will determine the 
evaluation criteria for an FFS that has been removed from active status. 
The criteria will be based on the number of continuing qualification 
evaluations and quarterly inspections missed during the period of 
inactivity. For example, if the FFS were out of service for a 1 year 
period, it would be necessary to complete the entire QTG, since all of 
the quarterly evaluations

[[Page 286]]

would have been missed. The responsible Flight Standards office will 
also consider how the FFS was stored, whether parts were removed from 
the FFS and whether the FFS was disassembled.
    j. The FFS will normally be requalified using the FAA-approved MQTG 
and the criteria that was in effect prior to its removal from 
qualification. However, inactive periods of 2 years or more will require 
requalification under the standards in effect and current at the time of 
requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance 
                       Requirements (Sec. 60.19)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of four evenly spaced 
inspections throughout the year. The objective test sequence and content 
of each inspection must be developed by the sponsor and must be 
acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.
    b. The description of the functional preflight check must be 
contained in the sponsor's QMS.
    c. Record ``functional preflight'' in the FFS discrepancy log book 
or other acceptable location, including any item found to be missing, 
malfunctioning, or inoperative.
    d. During the continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the 
responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must also provide a 
person knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the 
operation of the FFS.
    e. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct continuing 
qualification evaluations every 12 months unless:
    (1) The responsible Flight Standards office becomes aware of 
discrepancies or performance problems with the device that warrants more 
frequent evaluations; or
    (2) The sponsor implements a QMS that justifies less frequent 
evaluations. However, in no case shall the frequency of a continuing 
qualification evaluation exceed 36 months.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    f. The sponsor's test sequence and the content of each quarterly 
inspection required in Sec. 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a 
mix from the objective test requirement areas listed as follows:
    (1) Performance.
    (2) Handling qualities.
    (3) Motion system (where appropriate).
    (4) Visual system (where appropriate).
    (5) Sound system (where appropriate).
    (6) Other FFS systems.
    g. If the evaluator plans to accomplish specific tests during a 
normal continuing qualification evaluation that requires the use of 
special equipment or technicians, the sponsor will be notified as far in 
advance of the evaluation as practical; but not less than 72 hours. 
Examples of such tests include latencies, control dynamics, sounds and 
vibrations, motion, and/or some visual system tests.
    h. The continuing qualification evaluations, described in Sec. 
60.19(b), will normally require 4 hours of FFS time. However, 
flexibility is necessary to address abnormal situations or situations 
involving aircraft with additional levels of complexity (e.g., computer 
controlled aircraft). The sponsor should anticipate that some tests may 
require additional time. The continuing qualification evaluations will 
consist of the following:
    (1) Review of the results of the quarterly inspections conducted by 
the sponsor since the last scheduled continuing qualification 
evaluation.
    (2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 objective tests from the 
MQTG that provide an adequate opportunity to evaluate the performance of 
the FFS. The tests chosen will be performed either automatically or 
manually and should be able to be conducted within approximately one-
third (1/3) of the allotted FFS time.
    (3) A subjective evaluation of the FFS to perform a representative 
sampling of the tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appendix. This 
portion of the evaluation should take approximately two-thirds (2/3) of 
the allotted FFS time.
    (4) An examination of the functions of the FFS may include the 
motion system, visual system, sound system, instructor operating 
station, and the normal functions and simulated malfunctions of the 
simulated helicopter systems. This examination is normally accomplished 
simultaneously with the subjective evaluation requirements.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

               15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (Sec. 60.20)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.20. Logging FFS Discrepancies.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 287]]

  16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Helicopter Types or Models 
                              (Sec. 60.21)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.21, Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Helicopter Types or Models.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                 17. Modifications to FFSs (Sec. 60.23)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. The notification described in Sec. 60.23(c)(2) must include a 
complete description of the planned modification, with a description of 
the operational and engineering effect the proposed modification will 
have on the operation of the FFS and the results that are expected with 
the modification incorporated.
    b. Prior to using the modified FFS:
    (1) All the applicable objective tests completed with the 
modification incorporated, including any necessary updates to the MQTG 
(e.g., accomplishment of FSTD Directives) must be acceptable to the 
responsible Flight Standards office; and
    (2) The sponsor must provide the responsible Flight Standards office 
with a statement signed by the MR that the factors listed in Sec. 
60.15(b) are addressed by the appropriate personnel as described in that 
section.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    (3) FSTD Directives are considered modifications of an FFS. See 
Attachment 4 of this appendix for a sample index of effective FSTD 
Directives. See Attachment 6 of this appendix for a list of all 
effective FSTD Directives applicable to Helicopter FFSs.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 18. Operation with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components 
                              (Sec. 60.25)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The sponsor's responsibility with respect to Sec. 60.25(a) is 
satisfied when the sponsor fairly and accurately advises the user of the 
current status of an FFS, including any missing, malfunctioning, or 
inoperative (MMI) component(s).
    b. It is the responsibility of the instructor, check airman, or 
representative of the administrator conducting training, testing, or 
checking to exercise reasonable and prudent judgment to determine if any 
MMI component is necessary for the satisfactory completion of a specific 
maneuver, procedure, or task.
    c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day period described in Sec. 
60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend 
the deadline until the next business day.
    d. In accordance with the authorization described in Sec. 60.25(b), 
the sponsor may develop a discrepancy prioritizing system to accomplish 
repairs based on the level of impact on the capability of the FFS. 
Repairs having a larger impact on FFS capability to provide the required 
training, evaluation, or flight experience will have a higher priority 
for repair or replacement.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
                       Qualification (Sec. 60.27)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FFS will be maintained 
during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, 
hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic 
fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FFS is to be 
maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight 
Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing 
required for requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
                       Qualification (Sec. 60.29)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FFS will be maintained 
during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, 
hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic 
fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FFS is to be 
maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight 
Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing 
required for requalification.

[[Page 288]]

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

             21. Record Keeping and Reporting (Sec. 60.31)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. FFS modifications can include hardware or software changes. For 
FFS modifications involving software programming changes, the record 
required by Sec. 60.31(a)(2) must consist of the name of the aircraft 
system software, aerodynamic model, or engine model change, the date of 
the change, a summary of the change, and the reason for the change.
    b. If a coded form for record keeping is used, it must provide for 
the preservation and retrieval of information with appropriate security 
or controls to prevent the inappropriate alteration of such records 
after the fact.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, 
                  or Incorrect Statements (Sec. 60.33)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.33, Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, 
Falsification, or Incorrect Statements.

                             23. [Reserved]

                             24. [Reserved]

   25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
                     Agreement (BASA) (Sec. 60.37)

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.37, FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
Agreement (BASA).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  Attachment 1 to Appendix C to Part 60--GENERAL SIMULATOR REQUIREMENTS

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                             1. Requirements

    a. Certain requirements included in this appendix must be supported 
with an SOC as defined in Appendix F of this part, which may include 
objective and subjective tests. The requirements for SOCs are indicated 
in the ``General Simulator Requirements'' column in Table C1A of this 
appendix.
    b. Table C1A describes the requirements for the indicated level of 
FFS. Many devices include operational systems or functions that exceed 
the requirements outlined in this section. However, all systems will be 
tested and evaluated in accordance with this appendix to ensure proper 
operation.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              2. Discussion

    a. This attachment describes the general simulator requirements for 
qualifying a helicopter FFS. The sponsor should also consult the 
objective tests in Attachment 2 of this appendix and the examination of 
functions and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix 
to determine the complete requirements for a specific level simulator.
    b. The material contained in this attachment is divided into the 
following categories:
    (1) General flight deck configuration.
    (2) Simulator programming.
    (3) Equipment operation.
    (4) Equipment and facilities for instructor/evaluator functions.
    (5) Motion system.
    (6) Visual system.
    (7) Sound system.
    c. Table C1A provides the standards for the General Simulator 
Requirements.
    d. Table C1B provides the tasks that the sponsor will examine to 
determine whether the FFS satisfactorily meets the requirements for 
flight crew training, testing, and experience, and provides the tasks 
for which the simulator may be qualified.
    e. Table C1C provides the functions that an instructor/check airman 
must be able to control in the simulator.
    f. It is not required that all of the tasks that appear on the List 
of Qualified Tasks (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the initial 
or continuing qualification evaluation.
    g. Table C1A addresses only Levels B, C, and D helicopter simulators 
because there are no Level A Helicopter simulators.

                             End Information



[[Page 289]]

________________________________________________________________________

                Table C1A--Minimum Simulator Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                QPS requirements    Simulator levels      Information
              ----------------------------------------------------------
  Entry No.    General simulator
                  requirements      B      C      D          Notes
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1............  General Flight Deck Configuration
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a..........  The simulator         X      X      X   For simulator
                must have a                             purposes, the
                flight deck that                        flight deck
                is a replica of                         consists of all
                the helicopter                          that space
                being simulated.                        forward of a
               The simulator                            cross section of
                must have                               the fuselage at
                controls,                               the most extreme
                equipment,                              aft setting of
                observable                              the pilots'
                flight deck                             seats including
                indicators,                             additional,
                circuit                                 required flight
                breakers, and                           crewmember duty
                bulkheads                               stations and
                properly                                those required
                located,                                bulkheads aft of
                functionally                            the pilot seats.
                accurate and                            For
                replicating the                         clarification,
                helicopter. The                         bulkheads
                direction of                            containing only
                movement of                             items such as
                controls and                            landing gear pin
                switches must be                        storage
                identical to                            compartments,
                that in the                             fire axes and
                helicopter.                             extinguishers,
                Pilot seats must                        spare light
                afford the                              bulbs, and
                capability for                          aircraft
                the occupant to                         documents
                be able to                              pouches are not
                achieve the                             considered
                design ``eye                            essential and
                position''                              may be omitted.
                established for
                the helicopter
                being simulated.
                Equipment for
                the operation of
                the flight deck
                windows must be
                included, but
                the actual
                windows need not
                be operable.
                Fire axes,
                extinguishers,
                and spare light
                bulbs must be
                available in the
                FFS but may be
                relocated to a
                suitable
                location as near
                as practical to
                the original
                position. Fire
                axes, landing
                gear pins, and
                any similar
                purpose
                instruments need
                only be
                represented in
                silhouette.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b..........  Those circuit         X      X      X
                breakers that
                affect
                procedures or
                result in
                observable
                flight deck
                indications must
                be properly
                located and
                functionally
                accurate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2............  Programming
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a..........  A flight dynamics     X      X      X
                model that
                accounts for
                various
                combinations of
                air speed and
                power normally
                encountered in
                flight must
                correspond to
                actual flight
                conditions,
                including the
                effect of change
                in helicopter
                attitude,
                aerodynamic and
                propulsive
                forces and
                moments,
                altitude,
                temperature,
                mass, center of
                gravity
                location, and
                configuration.
               An SOC is
                required.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must have the
                computer
                capacity,
                accuracy,
                resolution, and
                dynamic response
                needed to meet
                the
                qualification
                level sought.
               An SOC is
                required.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c..........  Ground handling
                (where
                appropriate) and
                aerodynamic
                programming must
                include the
                following:.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.1........  Ground effect....     X      X      X   Applicable areas
               Level B does not                         include flare
                require hover                           and touch down
                programming.                            from a running
               An SOC is                                landing as well
                required.                               as for in-ground-
                                                        effect (IGE)
                                                        hover. A
                                                        reasonable
                                                        simulation of
                                                        ground effect
                                                        includes
                                                        modeling of
                                                        lift, drag,
                                                        pitching moment,
                                                        trim, and power
                                                        while in ground
                                                        effect.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.2........  Ground reaction..     X      X      X   Reaction of the
               Level B does not                         helicopter upon
                require hover                           contact with the
                programming.                            landing surface
               An SOC is                                during landing
                required.                               (e.g., strut
                                                        deflection, tire
                                                        or skid
                                                        friction, side
                                                        forces) may
                                                        differ with
                                                        changes in gross
                                                        weight,
                                                        airspeed, rate
                                                        of descent on
                                                        touchdown, and
                                                        slide slip.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 290]]

 
2.d..........  The simulator                X      X   This may include
                must provide for                        an automated
                manual and                              system, which
                automatic                               could be used
                testing of                              for conducting
                simulator                               at least a
                hardware and                            portion of the
                software                                QTG tests.
                programming to                          Automatic
                determine                               ``flagging'' of
                compliance with                         out-of-tolerance
                simulator                               situations is
                objective tests                         encouraged.
                as prescribed in
                Attachment 2 of
                this appendix.
               An SOC is
                required.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e..........  The relative                            The intent is to
                responses of the                        verify that the
                motion system,                          simulator
                visual system,                          provides
                and flight deck                         instrument,
                instruments must                        motion, and
                be measured by                          visual cues that
                latency tests or                        are like the
                transport delay                         helicopter
                tests. Motion                           responses within
                onset must occur                        the stated time
                before the end                          delays. It is
                of the scan of                          preferable
                that video                              motion onset
                field.                                  occur before the
                Instrument                              start of the
                response may not                        visual scene
                occur prior to                          change (the
                motion onset.                           start of the
                Test results                            scan of the
                must be within                          first video
                the following                           field containing
                limits:                                 different
                                                        information).
                                                        For helicopter
                                                        response,
                                                        acceleration in
                                                        the appropriate
                                                        corresponding
                                                        rotational axis
                                                        is preferred.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.1........  Response must be      X
                within 150
                milliseconds of
                the helicopter
                response.
2.e.2........  Response must be             X      X
                within 100
                milliseconds of
                the helicopter
                response.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.f..........  The simulator                X      X   The simulator
                must simulate                           should represent
                brake and tire                          the motion (in
                failure dynamics                        the appropriate
                (including                              axes) and the
                antiskid                                directional
                failure, if                             control
                appropriate).                           characteristics
               An SOC is                                of the
                required..                              helicopter when
                                                        experiencing
                                                        simulated brake
                                                        or tire
                                                        failures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.g..........  The aerodynamic              X      X   See Attachment 2
                modeling in the                         of this appendix
                simulator must                          for further
                include:.                               information on
               (1) Ground                               ground effect.
                effect,.
               (2) Effects of
                airframe and
                rotor icing (if
                applicable),.
               (3) Aerodynamic
                interference
                effects between
                the rotor wake
                and fuselage,.
               (4) Influence of
                the rotor on
                control and
                stabilization
                systems,.
               (5)
                Representations
                of settling with
                power, and.
               (6) Retreating
                blade stall..
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.h..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must provide for
                realistic mass
                properties,
                including gross
                weight, center
                of gravity, and
                moments of
                inertia as a
                function of
                payload and fuel
                loading.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3............  Equipment Operation
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a..........  All relevant          X      X      X
                instrument
                indications
                involved in the
                simulation of
                the helicopter
                must
                automatically
                respond to
                control movement
                or external
                disturbances to
                the simulated
                helicopter;
                e.g., turbulence
                or windshear.
                Numerical values
                must be
                presented in the
                appropriate
                units.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b..........  Communications,       X      X      X   See Attachment 3
                navigation,                             of this appendix
                caution, and                            for further
                warning                                 information
                equipment must                          regarding long-
                be installed and                        range navigation
                operate within                          equipment.
                the tolerances
                applicable for
                the helicopter
                being simulated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c..........  Simulated             X      X      X
                helicopter
                systems must
                operate as the
                helicopter
                systems operate
                under normal,
                abnormal, and
                emergency
                operating
                conditions on
                the ground and
                in flight.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 291]]

 
3.d..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must provide
                pilot controls
                with control
                forces and
                control travel
                that correspond
                to the simulated
                helicopter. The
                simulator must
                also react in
                the same manner
                as the
                helicopter under
                the same flight
                conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e..........  Simulator control            X      X
                feel dynamics
                must replicate
                the helicopter
                simulated. This
                must be
                determined by
                comparing a
                recording of the
                control feel
                dynamics of the
                simulator to
                helicopter
                measurements.
                For initial and
                upgrade
                evaluations, the
                control dynamic
                characteristics
                must be measured
                and recorded
                directly from
                the flight deck
                controls, and
                must be
                accomplished in
                takeoff, cruise,
                and landing
                conditions and
                configurations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4............  Instructor/Evaluator Facilities
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a..........  In addition to        X      X      X   The responsible
                the flight                              Flight Standards
                crewmember                              office will
                stations, the                           consider
                simulator must                          alternatives to
                have at least                           this standard
                two suitable                            for additional
                seats for the                           seats based on
                instructor/check                        unique flight
                airman and FAA                          deck
                inspector. These                        configurations.
                seats must
                provide adequate
                vision to the
                pilot's panel
                and forward
                windows. All
                seats other than
                flight crew
                seats need not
                represent those
                found in the
                helicopter but
                must be
                adequately
                secured to the
                floor and
                equipped with
                similar positive
                restraint
                devices.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must have
                controls that
                enable the
                instructor/
                evaluator to
                control all
                required system
                variables and
                insert all
                abnormal or
                emergency
                conditions into
                the simulated
                helicopter
                systems as
                described in the
                sponsor's FAA-
                approved
                training
                program, or as
                described in the
                relevant
                operating manual
                as appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must have
                instructor
                controls for all
                environmental
                effects expected
                to be available
                at the IOS;
                e.g., clouds,
                visibility,
                icing,
                precipitation,
                temperature,
                storm cells, and
                wind speed and
                direction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d..........  The simulator                X      X   For example,
                must provide the                        another aircraft
                instructor or                           crossing the
                evaluator the                           active runway
                ability to                              and converging
                present ground                          airborne
                and air hazards.                        traffic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e..........  The simulator                X      X   This is a
                must provide the                        selectable
                instructor or                           condition that
                evaluator the                           is not required
                ability to                              for all
                present the                             operations on or
                effect of re-                           near the
                circulating                             surface.
                dust, water
                vapor, or snow
                conditions that
                develop as a
                result of rotor
                downwash.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5............  Motion System
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a..........  The simulator         X      X      X   For example,
                must have motion                        touchdown cues
                (force) cues                            should be a
                perceptible to                          function of the
                the pilot that                          rate of descent
                are                                     (RoD) of the
                representative                          simulated
                of the motion in                        helicopter.
                a helicopter.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b..........  The simulator         X
                must have a
                motion (force
                cueing) system
                with a minimum
                of three degrees
                of freedom (at
                least pitch,
                roll, and heave).
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 292]]

 
5.c..........  The simulator                X      X
                must have a
                motion (force
                cueing) system
                that produces
                cues at least
                equivalent to
                those of a six-
                degrees-of-
                freedom,
                synergistic
                platform motion
                system (i.e.,
                pitch, roll,
                yaw, heave,
                sway, and surge).
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must provide for
                the recording of
                the motion
                system response
                time.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e..........  The simulator
                must provide
                motion effects
                programming to
                include the
                following:.
               (1) Runway            X      X      X
                rumble, oleo
                deflections,
                effects of
                ground speed,
                uneven runway,
                characteristics.
               (2) Buffets due
                to transverse
                flow effects.
               (3) Buffet during
                extension and
                retraction of
                landing gear.
               (4) Buffet due to
                retreating blade
                stall.
               (5) Buffet due to
                vortex ring
                (settling with
                power).
               (6)
                Representative
                cues resulting
                from touchdown.
               (7) High speed
                rotor
                vibrations.
               (8) Tire failure             X      X
                dynamics.
               (9) Engine
                malfunction and
                engine damage
               (10) Airframe
                ground strike
               (11) Motion                         X   For air
                vibrations that                         turbulence,
                result from                             general purpose
                atmospheric                             disturbance
                disturbances.                           models are
                                                        acceptable if,
                                                        when used, they
                                                        produce test
                                                        results that
                                                        approximate
                                                        demonstrable
                                                        flight test
                                                        data.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.f..........  The simulator                       X   The simulator
                must provide                            should be
                characteristic                          programmed and
                motion                                  instrumented in
                vibrations that                         such a manner
                result from                             that the
                operation of the                        characteristic
                helicopter (for                         buffet modes can
                example,                                be measured and
                retreating blade                        compared to
                stall, extended                         helicopter data.
                landing gear,
                settling with
                power) in so far
                as vibration
                marks an event
                or helicopter
                state, which can
                be sensed in the
                flight deck.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6............  Visual System....                       Additional
                                                        horizontal field-
                                                        of-view
                                                        capability may
                                                        be added at the
                                                        sponsor's
                                                        discretion
                                                        provided the
                                                        minimum field-of-
                                                        view is
                                                        retained.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must have a
                visual system
                providing an out-
                of-the-flight
                deck view.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b..........  The simulator         X
                must provide a
                continuous field-
                of-view of at
                least 75[deg]
                horizontally and
                30[deg]
                vertically per
                pilot seat. Both
                pilot seat
                visual systems
                must be operable
                simultaneously.
                The minimum
                horizontal field-
                of-view coverage
                must be plus and
                minus one-half
                (\1/2\) of the
                minimum
                continuous field-
                of-view
                requirement,
                centered on the
                zero degree
                azimuth line
                relative to the
                aircraft
                fuselage. An SOC
                must explain the
                geometry of the
                installation.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 293]]

 
6.c..........  The simulator      .....     X   .....  Optimization of
                must provide a                          the vertical
                continuous                              field-of-view
                visual field-of-                        may be
                view of at least                        considered with
                146[deg]                                respect to the
                horizontally and                        specific
                36[deg]                                 helicopter
                vertically per                          flight deck cut-
                pilot seat. Both                        off angle. The
                pilot seat                              sponsor may
                visual systems                          request the
                must be operable                        responsible
                simultaneously.                         Flight Standards
                Horizontal field-                       office to
                of-view is                              evaluate the FFS
                centered on the                         for specific
                zero degree                             authorization(s)
                azimuth line                            for the
                relative to the                         following:
                aircraft                               (1) Specific
                fuselage. The                           areas within the
                minimum                                 database needing
                horizontal field-                       higher
                of-view coverage                        resolution to
                must be plus and                        support
                minus one-half                          landings, take-
                (\1/2\) of the                          offs and ground
                minimum                                 cushion
                continuous field-                       exercises and
                of-view                                 training away
                requirement,                            from a heliport,
                centered on the                         including
                zero degree                             elevated
                azimuth line                            heliport,
                relative to the                         helidecks and
                aircraft                                confined areas.
                fuselage. An SOC                       (2) For cross-
                must explain the                        country flights,
                geometry of the                         sufficient scene
                installation.                           details to allow
                Capability for a                        for ground to
                field-of-view in                        map navigation
                excess of the                           over a sector
                minimum is not                          length equal to
                required for                            30 minutes at an
                qualification at                        average cruise
                Level C.                                speed.
                However, where                         (3) For offshore
                specific tasks                          airborne radar
                require extended                        approaches
                fields of view                          (ARA),
                beyond the                              harmonized
                146[ordm] by                            visual/radar
                36[ordm] (e.g.,                         representations
                to accommodate                          of
                the use of                              installations.
                ``chin windows''
                where the
                accommodation is
                either integral
                with or separate
                from the primary
                visual system
                display), then
                the extended
                fields of view
                must be
                provided. When
                considering the
                installation and
                use of augmented
                fields of view,
                the sponsor must
                meet with the
                NSPM to
                determine the
                training,
                testing,
                checking, and
                experience tasks
                for which the
                augmented field-
                of-view
                capability may
                be required.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.d..........  The simulator      .....  .....     X   Optimization of
                must provide a                          the vertical
                continuous                              field-of-view
                visual field-of-                        may be
                view of at least                        considered with
                176[deg]                                respect to the
                horizontally and                        specific
                56[deg]                                 helicopter
                vertically per                          flight deck cut-
                pilot seat. Both                        off angle.
                pilot seat                             The sponsor may
                visual systems                          request the
                must be operable                        responsible
                simultaneously.                         Flight Standards
                Horizontal field-                       office to
                of-view is                              evaluate the FFS
                centered on the                         for specific
                zero degree                             authorization(s)
                azimuth line                            for the
                relative to the                         following:
                aircraft                               (1) Specific
                fuselage. The                           areas within the
                minimum                                 database needing
                horizontal field-                       higher
                of-view coverage                        resolution to
                must be plus and                        support
                minus one-half                          landings, take-
                (\1/2\) of the                          offs and ground
                minimum                                 cushion
                continuous field-                       exercises and
                of-view                                 training away
                requirement,                            from a heliport,
                centered on the                         including
                zero degree                             elevated
                azimuth line                            heliport,
                relative to the                         helidecks and
                aircraft                                confined areas.
                fuselage. An SOC                       (2) For cross-
                must explain the                        country flights,
                geometry of the                         sufficient scene
                installation.                           details to allow
                Capability for a                        for ground to
                field-of-view in                        map navigation
                excess of the                           over a sector
                minimum is not                          length equal to
                required for                            30 minutes at an
                qualification at                        average cruise
                Level D.                                speed.
                However, where                         (3) For offshore
                specific tasks                          airborne radar
                require extended                        approaches
                fields of view                          (ARA),
                beyond the                              harmonized
                176[ordm] by                            visual/radar
                56[ordm] (e.g.,                         representations
                to accommodate                          of
                the use of                              installations.
                ``chin windows''
                where the
                accommodation is
                either integral
                with or separate
                from the primary
                visual system
                display), then
                the extended
                fields of view
                must be
                provided. When
                considering the
                installation and
                use of augmented
                fields of view,
                the sponsor must
                meet with the
                responsible
                Flight Standards
                office to
                determine the
                training,
                testing,
                checking, and
                experience tasks
                for which the
                augmented field-
                of-view
                capability may
                be required.
                An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.e..........  The visual system     X      X      X   Nonrealistic cues
                must be free                            might include
                from optical                            image
                discontinuities                         ``swimming'' and
                and artifacts                           image ``roll-
                that create non-                        off,'' that may
                realistic cues.                         lead a pilot to
                                                        make incorrect
                                                        assessments of
                                                        speed,
                                                        acceleration and/
                                                        or situational
                                                        awareness.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 294]]

 
6.f..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must have
                operational
                landing lights
                for night
                scenes.Where
                used, dusk (or
                twilight) scenes
                require
                operational
                landing lights..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.g..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must have
                instructor
                controls for the
                following:
               (1) Visibility in
                statute miles
                (kilometers) and
                runway visual
                range (RVR) in
                ft. (meters)..
               (2) Airport or
                landing area
                selection.
               (3) Airport or
                landing area
                lighting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.h..........  Each airport          X      X      X
                scene displayed
                must include the
                following:
               (1) Airport
                runways and
                taxiways.
               (2) Runway
                definition.
               (a) Runway
                surface and
                markings.
               (b) Lighting for
                the runway in
                use, including
                runway
                threshold, edge,
                centerline,
                touchdown zone,
                VASI (or PAPI),
                and approach
                lighting of
                appropriate
                colors, as
                appropriate.
               (c) Taxiway
                lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.i..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must provide
                visual system
                compatibility
                with dynamic
                response
                programming.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.j..........  The simulator         X      X      X   This will show
                must show that                          the modeling
                the segment of                          accuracy of the
                the ground                              scene with
                visible from the                        respect to a
                simulator flight                        predetermined
                deck is the same                        position from
                as from the                             the end of the
                helicopter                              runway ``in
                flight deck                             use.''
                (within
                established
                tolerances) when
                at the correct
                airspeed and
                altitude above
                the touchdown
                zone.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.k..........  The simulator         X
                must provide
                visual cues
                necessary to
                assess rate of
                change of
                height, height
                AGL, and
                translational
                displacement and
                rates during
                takeoffs and
                landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.l..........  The simulator                X      X
                must provide
                visual cues
                necessary to
                assess rate of
                change of
                height, height
                AGL, as well as
                translational
                displacement and
                rates during
                takeoff, low
                altitude/low
                airspeed
                maneuvering,
                hover, and
                landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.m..........  The simulator         X      X      X   Visual attitude
                must provide for                        vs. simulator
                accurate                                attitude is a
                portrayal of the                        comparison of
                visual                                  pitch and roll
                environment                             of the horizon
                relating to the                         as displayed in
                simulator                               the visual scene
                attitude.                               compared to the
                                                        display on the
                                                        attitude
                                                        indicator.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.n..........  The simulator                X      X
                must provide for
                quick
                confirmation of
                visual system
                color, RVR,
                focus, and
                intensity.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.o..........  The simulator                X      X
                must be capable
                of producing at
                least 10 levels
                of occulting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 295]]

 
6.p..........  Night Visual          X      X      X
                Scenes. The
                simulator must
                provide night
                visual scenes
                with sufficient
                scene content to
                recognize the
                airport, the
                terrain, and
                major landmarks
                around the
                airport. The
                scene content
                must allow a
                pilot to
                successfully
                accomplish a
                visual landing.
                Night scenes, as
                a minimum, must
                provide
                presentations of
                sufficient
                surfaces with
                appropriate
                textural cues
                that include
                self-illuminated
                objects such as
                road networks,
                ramp lighting,
                and airport
                signage, to
                conduct a visual
                approach, a
                landing, and
                airport movement
                (taxi). Scenes
                must include a
                definable
                horizon and
                typical terrain
                characteristics
                such as fields,
                roads and bodies
                of water and
                surfaces
                illuminated by
                helicopter
                landing lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.q..........  Dusk (Twilight)              X      X
                Visual Scenes.
                The simulator
                must provide
                dusk (or
                twilight) visual
                scenes with
                sufficient scene
                content to
                recognize the
                airport, the
                terrain, and
                major landmarks
                around the
                airport. The
                scene content
                must allow a
                pilot to
                successfully
                accomplish a
                visual landing.
                Dusk (or
                twilight)
                scenes, as a
                minimum, must
                provide full
                color
                presentations of
                reduced ambient
                intensity,
                sufficient
                surfaces with
                appropriate
                textural cues
                that include
                self-illuminated
                objects such as
                road networks,
                ramp lighting
                and airport
                signage, to
                conduct a visual
                approach,
                landing and
                airport movement
                (taxi). Scenes
                must include a
                definable
                horizon and
                typical terrain
                characteristics
                such as fields,
                roads and bodies
                of water and
                surfaces
                illuminated by
                representative
                aircraft
                lighting (e.g.,
                landing lights).
                If provided,
                directional
                horizon lighting
                must have
                correct
                orientation and
                be consistent
                with surface
                shading effects.
                Total scene
                content must be
                comparable in
                detail to that
                produced by
                10,000 visible
                textured
                surfaces and
                15,000 visible
                lights with
                sufficient
                system capacity
                to display 16
                simultaneously
                moving objects.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.r..........  Daylight Visual              X      X
                Scenes. The
                simulator must
                have daylight
                visual scenes
                with sufficient
                scene content to
                recognize the
                airport, the
                terrain, and
                major landmarks
                around the
                airport. The
                scene content
                must allow a
                pilot to
                successfully
                accomplish a
                visual landing.
                No ambient
                lighting may
                ``washout'' the
                displayed visual
                scene. Total
                scene content
                must be
                comparable in
                detail to that
                produced by
                10,000 visible
                textured
                surfaces and
                6,000 visible
                lights with
                sufficient
                system capacity
                to display 16
                simultaneously
                moving objects.
                The visual
                display must be
                free of apparent
                and distracting
                quantization and
                other
                distracting
                visual effects
                while the
                simulator is in
                motion.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.s..........  The simulator                X      X   For example:
                must provide                            short runways,
                operational                             landing
                visual scenes                           approaches over
                that portray                            water, uphill or
                physical                                downhill
                relationships                           runways, rising
                known to cause                          terrain on the
                landing                                 approach path,
                illusions to                            unique
                pilots.                                 topographic
                                                        features.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 296]]

 
6.t..........  The simulator                X      X
                must provide
                special weather
                representations
                of light,
                medium, and
                heavy
                precipitation
                near a
                thunderstorm on
                takeoff and
                during approach
                and landing.
                Representations
                need only be
                presented at and
                below an
                altitude of
                2,000 ft. (610
                m) above the
                airport surface
                and within 10
                miles (16 km) of
                the airport.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.u..........  The simulator      .....     X      X   The responsible
                must present                            Flight Standards
                visual scenes of                        office will
                wet and snow-                           consider
                covered runways,                        suitable
                including runway                        alternative
                lighting                                effects.
                reflections for
                wet conditions,
                and partially
                obscured lights
                for snow
                conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.v..........  The simulator                X      X
                must present
                realistic color
                and
                directionality
                of all airport
                lighting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7............  Sound System
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must provide
                flight deck
                sounds that
                result from
                pilot actions
                that correspond
                to those that
                occur in the
                helicopter.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b..........  Volume control,       X      X      X
                if installed,
                must have an
                indication of
                the sound level
                setting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c..........  The simulator                X      X
                must accurately
                simulate the
                sound of
                precipitation,
                windshield
                wipers, and
                other
                significant
                helicopter
                noises
                perceptible to
                the pilot during
                normal and
                abnormal
                operations, and
                include the
                sound of a crash
                (when the
                simulator is
                landed in an
                unusual attitude
                or in excess of
                the structural
                gear
                limitations);
                normal engine
                sounds; and the
                sounds of gear
                extension and
                retraction.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d..........  The simulator                       X
                must provide
                realistic
                amplitude and
                frequency of
                flight deck
                noises and
                sounds.
                Simulator
                performance must
                be recorded,
                compared to
                amplitude and
                frequency of the
                same sounds
                recorded in the
                helicopter, and
                made a part of
                the QTG.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


              Table C1B--Table of Tasks vs. Simulator Level
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   QPS requirements                       Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
               Subjective requirements    Simulator
                The simulator must be       levels
                 able to perform the   ---------------
  Entry No.     tasks associated with                        Notes
                    that level of        B    C    D
                    qualification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a..........  Preflight Inspection      X    X    X
                (Flight deck Only)
                switches, indicators,
                systems, and equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b..........  APU/Engine start and
                run-up.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1........  Normal start procedures   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2........  Alternate start           X    X    X
                procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.3........  Abnormal starts and       X    X    X
                shutdowns (hot start,
                hung start).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c..........  Taxiing--Ground........   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 297]]

 
1.d..........  Taxiing--Hover.........   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e..........  Pre-takeoff Checks.....   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Takeoff and Departure Phase
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a..........  Normal takeoff.........
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1........  From ground............   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2........  From hover.............        X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3........  Running................   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b..........  Instrument.............   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c..........  Powerplant Failure        X    X    X
                During Takeoff.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d..........  Rejected Takeoff.......   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e..........  Instrument Departure...   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Climb
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a..........  Normal.................   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b..........  Obstacle clearance.....   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c..........  Vertical...............   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d..........  One engine inoperative.   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. In-flight Maneuvers
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a..........  Turns (timed, normal,     X    X    X
                steep).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b..........  Powerplant Failure--      X    X    X
                Multiengine
                Helicopters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c..........  Powerplant Failure--      X    X    X
                Single-Engine
                Helicopters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d..........  Recovery From Unusual     X    X    X
                Attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e..........  Settling with Power....   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f..........  Specific Flight           A    A    A
                Characteristics
                incorporated into the
                user's FAA approved
                flight training
                program.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Instrument Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a..........  Instrument Arrival.....   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b..........  Holding................   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c..........  Precision Instrument
                Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.1........  Normal--All engines       X    X    X
                operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.2........  Manually controlled--     X    X    X
                One or more engines
                inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d..........  Non-precision             X    X    X
                Instrument Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e..........  Missed Approach........
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.1........  All engines operating..   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.2........  One or more engines       X    X    X
                inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.3........  Stability augmentation    X    X    X
                system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 298]]

 
6. Landings and Approaches to Landings
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a..........  Visual Approaches         X    X    X
                (normal, steep,
                shallow).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b..........  Landings...............
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1........  Normal/crosswind.......
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.a......  Running................   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.b......  From Hover.............        X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.2........  One or more engines       X    X    X
                inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.3........  Rejected Landing.......   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Normal and Abnormal Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a..........  Powerplant.............   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b..........  Fuel System............   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c..........  Electrical System......   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d..........  Hydraulic System.......   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e..........  Environmental System(s)   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.f..........  Fire Detection and        X    X    X
                Extinguisher Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.g..........  Navigation and Aviation   X    X    X
                Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.h..........  Automatic Flight          X    X    X
                Control System,
                Electronic Flight
                Instrument System, and
                Related Subsystems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.i..........  Flight Control Systems.   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.j..........  Anti-ice and Deice        X    X    X
                Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.k..........  Aircraft and Personal     X    X    X
                Emergency Equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.l..........  Special Missions tasks    A    A    X
                (e.g., Night Vision
                goggles, Forward
                Looking Infrared
                System, External Loads
                and as listed on the
                SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. Emergency procedures (as applicable)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a..........  Emergency Descent......   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b..........  Inflight Fire and Smoke   X    X    X
                Removal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c..........  Emergency Evacuation...   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d..........  Ditching...............   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e..........  Autorotative Landing...   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f..........  Retreating blade stall    X    X    X
                recovery.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g..........  Mast bumping...........   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.h..........  Loss of tail rotor        X    X    X
                effectiveness.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.i..........  Vortex recovery........   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9. Postflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.a..........  After-Landing             X    X    X
                Procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 299]]

 
9.b..........  Parking and Securing...
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b.1........  Rotor brake operation..   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b.2........  Abnormal/emergency        X    X    X
                procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Note: An ``A'' in the table indicates that the system, task, or
  procedure may be examined if the appropriate aircraft system or
  control is simulated in the FFS and is working properly


              Table C1C--Table of Tasks vs. Simulator Level
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   QPS requirements                       Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
               Subjective requirements    Simulator
                The simulator must be       levels
                 able to perform the   ---------------
  Entry No.     tasks associated with                        Notes
                    that level of        B    C    D
                    qualification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1............  Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a..........  Power switch(es).......   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b..........  Helicopter conditions..   X    X    X   e.g., GW, CG,
                                                        Fuel loading,
                                                        Systems, Ground
                                                        Crew.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c..........  Airports/Heliports/       X    X    X   e.g., Selection,
                Helicopter Landing                      Surface,
                Areas.                                  Presets,
                                                        Lighting
                                                        controls
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d..........  Environmental controls.   X    X    X   e.g., Clouds,
                                                        Visibility, RVR,
                                                        Temp, Wind, Ice,
                                                        Snow, Rain, and
                                                        Windshear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e..........  Helicopter system         X    X    X
                malfunctions
                (Insertion/deletion).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f..........  Locks, Freezes, and       X    X    X
                Repositioning.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2............  Sound Controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a..........  On/off/adjustment......   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3............  Motion/Control Loading System
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a..........  On/off/emergency stop..   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4............  Observer Seats/Stations
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a..........  Position/Adjustment/      X    X    X
                Positive restraint
                system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

       Attachment 2 to Appendix C to Part 60--FFS Objective Tests

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                            Table of Contents
------------------------------------------------------------------------
         Paragraph No.                            Title
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.............................  Introduction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.............................  Test Requirements.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                Table C2A, Objective Tests.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.............................  General.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.............................  Control Dynamics.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.............................  [Reserved]
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.............................  Motion System.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.............................  Sound System.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.............................  Additional Information About Flight
                                 Simulator Qualification for New or
                                 Derivative Helicopters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 300]]

 
9.............................  Engineering Simulator--Validation Data.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10............................  [Reserved]
------------------------------------------------------------------------
11............................  Validation Test Tolerances.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
12............................  Validation Data Roadmap.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
13............................  Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative
                                 Engines Data.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
14............................  Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative
                                 Avionics (Flight-Related Computers and
                                 Controllers).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
15............................  Transport Delay Testing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
16............................  Continuing Qualification Evaluations--
                                 Validation Test Data Presentation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
17............................  Alternative Data Sources, Procedures,
                                 and Instrumentation: Level A and Level
                                 B Simulators Only.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

                             1. Introduction

    a. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind 
vector (magnitude and direction) should be clearly noted as part of the 
data presentation, expressed in conventional terminology, and related to 
the runway being used for the test.
    b. The responsible Flight Standards office will not evaluate any 
simulator unless the required SOC indicates that the motion system is 
designed and manufactured to safely operate within the simulator's 
maximum excursion, acceleration, and velocity capabilities (see Motion 
System in the following table).
    c. Table C2A addresses helicopter simulators at Levels B, C, and D 
because there are no Level A Helicopter simulators.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                          2. Test Requirements

    a. The ground and flight tests required for qualification are listed 
in Table of C2A, FFS Objective Tests. Computer-generated simulator test 
results must be provided for each test except where an alternative test 
is specifically authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office. 
If a flight condition or operating condition is required for the test 
but does not apply to the helicopter being simulated or to the 
qualification level sought, it may be disregarded (e.g., an engine out 
missed approach for a single-engine helicopter, or a hover test for a 
Level B simulator). Each test result is compared against the validation 
data described in Sec. 60.13 and in this appendix. Although use of a 
driver program designed to automatically accomplish the tests is 
encouraged for all simulators and required for Level C and Level D 
simulators, each test must be able to be accomplished manually while 
recording all appropriate parameters. The results must be produced on an 
appropriate recording device acceptable to the responsible Flight 
Standards office and must include simulator number, date, time, 
conditions, tolerances, and appropriate dependent variables portrayed in 
comparison to the validation data. Time histories are required unless 
otherwise indicated in Table C2A. All results must be labeled using the 
tolerances and units given.
    b. Table C2A sets out the test results required, including the 
parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions for simulator validation. 
Tolerances are provided for the listed tests because mathematical 
modeling and acquisition/development of reference data are often 
inexact. All tolerances listed in the following tables are applied to 
simulator performance. When two tolerance values are given for a 
parameter, the less restrictive value may be used unless otherwise 
indicated. In those cases where a tolerance is expressed only as a 
percentage, the tolerance percentage applies to the maximum value of 
that parameter within its normal operating range as measured from the 
neutral or zero position unless otherwise indicated.
    c. Certain tests included in this attachment must be supported with 
an SOC. In Table C2A, requirements for SOCs are indicated in the ``Test 
Details'' column.
    d. When operational or engineering judgment is used in making 
assessments for flight test data applications for simulator validity, 
such judgment may not be limited to a single parameter. For example, 
data that exhibit rapid variations of the measured parameters may 
require interpolations or a ``best fit'' data selection. All relevant 
parameters related to a given maneuver or flight condition must be 
provided to allow overall interpretation. When it is difficult or 
impossible to match simulator to helicopter data throughout a time 
history, differences must be justified by providing a comparison of 
other related variables for the condition being assessed.
    e. The FFS may not be programmed so that the mathematical modeling 
is correct only at the validation test points. Unless noted otherwise, 
simulator tests must represent helicopter performance and handling 
qualities at operating weights and centers of gravity (CG) typical of 
normal operation. If a test is supported by helicopter data at one 
extreme weight or CG, another test supported by helicopter data at mid-
conditions or as close as possible to the other extreme

[[Page 301]]

must be included. Certain tests that are relevant only at one extreme CG 
or weight condition need not be repeated at the other extreme. Tests of 
handling qualities must include validation of augmentation devices.
    f. When comparing the parameters listed to those of the helicopter, 
sufficient data must also be provided to verify the correct flight 
condition and helicopter configuration changes. For example, to show 
that control force is within 0.5 pound (0.22 daN) 
in a static stability test, data to show the correct airspeed, power, 
thrust or torque, helicopter configuration, altitude, and other 
appropriate datum identification parameters must also be given. If 
comparing short period dynamics, normal acceleration may be used to 
establish a match to the helicopter, but airspeed, altitude, control 
input, helicopter configuration, and other appropriate data must also be 
given. All airspeed values must be properly annotated (e.g., indicated 
versus calibrated). In addition, the same variables must be used for 
comparison (e.g., compare inches to inches rather than inches to 
centimeters).
    g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must clearly describe how the 
simulator will be set up and operated for each test. Each simulator 
subsystem may be tested independently, but overall integrated testing of 
the simulator must be accomplished to assure that the total simulator 
system meets the prescribed standards. A manual test procedure with 
explicit and detailed steps for completing each test must also be 
provided.
    h. For previously qualified simulators, the tests and tolerances of 
this attachment may be used in subsequent continuing qualification 
evaluations for any given test if the sponsor has submitted a proposed 
MQTG revision to the responsible Flight Standards office and has 
received responsible Flight Standards office approval.
    i. Motion System Tests:
    (a) The minimum excursions, accelerations, and velocities for pitch, 
roll, and yaw must be measurable about a single, common reference point 
and must be achieved by driving one degree of freedom at a time.
    (b) The minimum excursions, accelerations, and velocities for heave, 
sway, and surge may be measured about different, identifiable reference 
points and must be achieved by driving one degree of freedom at a time.
    j. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of 
augmentation devices. FFSs for highly augmented helicopters will be 
validated both in the unaugmented configuration (or failure state with 
the maximum permitted degradation in handling qualities) and the 
augmented configuration. Where various levels of handling qualities 
result from failure states, validation of the effect of the failure is 
necessary. For those performance and static handling qualities tests 
where the primary concern is control position in the unaugmented 
configuration, unaugmented data are not required if the design of the 
system precludes any affect on control position. In those instances 
where the unaugmented helicopter response is divergent and non-
repeatable, it may not be feasible to meet the specified tolerances. 
Alternative requirements for testing will be mutually agreed upon by the 
sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office on a case-by-case 
basis.
    k. Some tests will not be required for helicopters using helicopter 
hardware in the simulator flight deck (e.g., ``helicopter modular 
controller''). These exceptions are noted in Table C2A of this 
attachment. However, in these cases, the sponsor must provide a 
statement that the helicopter hardware meets the appropriate 
manufacturer's specifications and the sponsor must have supporting 
information to that fact available for responsible Flight Standards 
office review.
    l. In cases where light-class helicopters are being simulated, prior 
coordination with the responsible Flight Standards office on acceptable 
weight ranges is required. The terms ``light'', ``medium'', and ``near 
maximum'', as defined in Appendix F of this part, may not be appropriate 
for the simulation of light-class helicopters.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    m. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a 
``snapshot test'' or a ``series of snapshot test results'' in lieu of a 
time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that 
a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the 
``snapshot''. The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior 
to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap 
shot.
    n. For references on basic operating weight, see AC 120-27, Aircraft 
Weight and Balance; and FAA-H-8083-1, Aircraft Weight and Balance 
Handbook.

                             End Information



[[Page 302]]

________________________________________________________________________

                             Table C2A--Full Flight Simulator (FFS) Objective Tests
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                        QPS requirements                                           Information
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
             Test                                                                   Simulator
------------------------------                       Flight                           level
                                 Tolerance(s)      condition       Test details  ---------------      Notes
 Entry No.         Title                                                           B    C    D
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Performance
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a........  Engine Assessment
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1......  Start Operations
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1.a....  Engine start and  Light Off Time-- Ground with the  Record each       X    X    X
              acceleration      10% or    Used and Not     from the
                                1 sec.,   applicable.      the start
                                Torque--5%, Gas
                                Turbine Temp.--
                                30
                                [deg]C.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1.b....  Steady State      Torque--2%,
                                Turbine Gas
                                Temp.--10% of                     response to
                                total change                      trim system
                                of power                          actuation in
                                turbine speed,                    both
                                or 3 ft.                      used, brake
                                (0.9m) or 20%                     pedal position
                                of helicopter                     and brake
                                turn radius.                      system
                                                                  pressure must
                                                                  be matched to
                                                                  the helicopter
                                                                  flight test
                                                                  value.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 303]]

 
1.b.2......  Rate of Turn vs.  10% or                     used, brake
              Deflection,       2[deg]/                    and brake
              Application, or   sec. Turn                         system
              Nosewheel         Rate.                             pressure must
              Angle, as                                           be matched to
              applicable.                                         the helicopter
                                                                  flight test
                                                                  value.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.3......  Taxi............  Pitch Angle--    Ground.........  Record results    X    X    X
                                1.5[deg                    position and
                                ], Torque--                       pitch attitude
                                3%,                        taxi for a
                                Longitudinal                      specific
                                Control                           ground speed,
                                Position--5%, Lateral                    density
                                Control                           altitude.
                                Position--5%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--5%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.4......  Brake             10% of
                                time and
                                distance.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c........  Takeoff
             When the speed range for the following tests is less than 40 knots, the applicable airspeed
              tolerance may be applied to either airspeed or ground speed, as appropriate.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.1......  All Engines.....  Airspeed--20 ft                          model
                                (6.1m),                           simulated
                                Torque--100 fpm                        only to those
                                (0.50m/sec) or                    segments at
                                10%, Pitch                        airspeeds
                                Attitude--1.5[deg],                      translational
                                Bank Attitude--                   lift. Results
                                2[deg],                    recorded from
                                Heading--10%,
                                Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.2......  One Engine        Airspeed--20 ft                          simulated.                      the specific
                                (6.1m),                           Results must                    type of
                                Torque--100 fpm
                                (0.50m/sec) or
                                10%, Pitch
                                Attitude--1.5[deg],
                                Bank Attitude--
                                2[deg],
                                Heading--10% Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 304]]

 
1.c.3......  One Engine        Airspeed--20 ft                          conditions
                                (6.1m),                           near limiting
                                Torque--1.5[deg],
                                Roll angle--
                                1.5[deg
                                ], Heading--
                                2[deg],
                                Longitudinal
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Distance--7.5% or
                                30m
                                (100ft).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d........  Hover
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
             Performance.....  Torque--1.5[deg],                      snapshot
                                Bank Attitude--                   tests.
                                1.5[deg
                                ],
                                Longitudinal
                                Control
                                Position--5%, Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--5%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e........  Vertical Climb
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
             Performance.....  Vertical         From OGE Hover.  Record results         X    X
                                Velocity--100 fpm                        weights. May
                                (0.50 m/sec)                      be a series of
                                or 5%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--5%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f........  Level Flight
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 305]]

 
             Performance and   Torque--1.5[deg],                      trim speeds                     endurance
                                Sideslip                          throughout the                  airspeed.
                                Angle--5%, Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--5%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.g........  Climb
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
             Performance and   Vertical         All engines      Record results    X    X    X
              Trimmed Flight    Velocity--100 fpm       inoperative;     combinations.
                                (6.1m/sec) or    Augmentation     The data
                                10%,      and Off.         be for normal
                                Pitch                             climb power
                                Attitude--1.5[deg],                      series of
                                Sideslip                          snapshot
                                Angle--5%, Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--5%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.h........  Descent
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.h.1......  Descent           Torque--1.5[deg],     approach         May be a
                                Sideslip         speed.           series of
                                Angle--5%, Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--5%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.h.2......  Autorotation      Pitch Attitude-- Steady           Record results    X    X    X
              Performance and   1.5[deg   Augmentation     weight
              Control           ], Sideslip      System(s) On     conditions.
              Positions.        Angle--5%, Lateral                    if collective
                                Control                           control
                                Position--5%,                            Data must be
                                Directional                       recorded for
                                Control                           speeds from 50
                                Position--5%,                            q5 kts,
                                Collective                        through at
                                Control                           least maximum
                                Position--5%,                            maximum
                                Vertical                          allowable
                                Velocity--100 fpm or                     whichever is
                                10%, Rotor                        slower. May be
                                Speed--3%,                        throttle
                                Pitch                             reduction to
                                Attitude--2[deg],                        condition is
                                Roll Attitude--                   selected,
                                3[deg],                    must be made
                                Yaw Attitude--                    for the
                                5[deg],                    airspeed. If
                                Airspeed--5 kts.,                        selected,
                                Vertical                          comparison
                                Velocity--200 fpm                        maximum rate
                                (1.00 m/sec)                      of climb
                                or 10%.                           airspeed at or
                                                                  near maximum
                                                                  continuous
                                                                  power.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.j........  Landing
             When the speed range for tests 1.j.1., 1.j.2., or 1.j.3. is less than 40 knots, the applicable
              airspeed tolerance may be applied to either airspeed or ground speed, as appropriate.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.j.1......  All Engines.....  Airspeed--20 ft.                         appropriate to
                                (6.1m),                           the helicopter
                                Torque--1.5[deg],                      D). For Level
                                Bank Attitude--                   B, the
                                1.5[deg                    only to those
                                ], Heading--                      segments at
                                2[deg],                    above
                                Longitudinal                      effective
                                Control                           translational
                                Position--10%,
                                Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.j.2......  One Engine        Airspeed--20 ft.                         landing as
                                (6.1m),                           appropriate to
                                Torque--1.5[deg],                      above
                                Bank Attitude--                   effective
                                1.5[deg                    lift.
                                ], Heading--
                                2[deg],
                                Longitudinal
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 307]]

 
1.j.3......  Balked Landing..  Airspeed--20 ft.                         approach at
                                (6.1m),                           the landing
                                Torque--1.5[deg],
                                Bank Attitude--
                                1.5[deg
                                ], Heading--
                                2[deg],
                                Longitudinal
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.j.4......  Autorotational    Torque--100 fpm                        descent, to                     personnel and
                                (0.50m/sec) or                    touch down.                     the data
                                10%, Pitch                       If flight test                   recording,
                                Attitude--2[ordm],                       required                        facilities to
                                Bank Attitude--                   parameters for                  be used, are:
                                2[ordm]                    power-off                       simulated
                                , Heading--                       landing is not                  autorotational
                                5[ordm]                    the aircraft                    reduction of
                                , Longitudinal                    manufacturer                    rate of
                                Control                           for this test                   descent (ROD)
                                Position--10%,                           flight test                     on termination
                                Lateral                           personnel are                   following an
                                Control                           not available                   autorotational
                                Position--10%,                           sponsor may
                                Directional                       coordinate
                                Control                           with the
                                Position--10%,                           Standards
                                Collective                        office to
                                Control                           determine if
                                Position--10%.                           accept
                                                                  alternative
                                                                  testing means.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Handling Qualities...........................................................................................
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a........  Control System Mechanical Characteristics
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
             For simulators requiring Static or Dynamic tests at the controls                    Contact the
              (i.e., cyclic, collective, and pedal), special test fixtures will                   responsible
              not be required during initial or upgrade evaluations if the                        Flight
              sponsor's QTG/MQTG shows both test fixture results and the results                  Standards
              of an alternative approach, such as computer plots produced                         office for
              concurrently showing satisfactory agreement. Repeat of the                          clarification
              alternative method during the initial or upgrade evaluation                         of any issue
              satisfies this test requirement. For initial and upgrade                            regarding
              evaluations, the control dynamic characteristics must be measured                   helicopters
              at and recorded directly from the flight deck controls, and must                    with
              be accomplished in hover, climb, cruise, and autorotation                           reversible
                                                                                                  controls or
                                                                                                  where the
                                                                                                  required
                                                                                                  validation
                                                                                                  data is not
                                                                                                  attainable.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 308]]

 
2.a.1......  Cyclic..........  Breakout--1.0 lb.   pressurized;     does not apply                  turning. The
                                (0.224 daN) or   supplemental     if aircraft                     phrase ``if
                                10%.             hydraulic        hardware                        applicable''
                                                 pressurization   modular                         regarding
                                                 system may be    controllers                     stability
                                                 used. Trim On    are used.)                      augmentation
                                                 and Off.                                         systems means
                                                 Friction Off                                     if an
                                                 Augmentation                                     augmentation
                                                 (if                                              system is
                                                 applicable) On                                   available and
                                                 and Off.                                         if this system
                                                                                                  may be
                                                                                                  operational on
                                                                                                  the ground
                                                                                                  under static
                                                                                                  conditions as
                                                                                                  described
                                                                                                  here.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2......  Collective/       Breakout--1.0 lb.   pressurized;                                     turning. The
                                (0.224 daN) or   supplemental                                     phrase ``if
                                10%.             hydraulic                                        applicable''
                                                 pressurization                                   regarding
                                                 system may be                                    stability
                                                 used. Trim On                                    augmentation
                                                 and Off.                                         system means
                                                 Friction Off.                                    if a stability
                                                 Augmentation                                     augmentation
                                                 (if                                              system is
                                                 applicable) On                                   available and
                                                 and Off.                                         if this system
                                                                                                  may be
                                                                                                  operational on
                                                                                                  the ground
                                                                                                  under static
                                                                                                  conditions as
                                                                                                  described
                                                                                                  here.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3......  Brake Pedal       5 lbs.    conditions.
              Position.         (2.224 daN) or
                                10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.4......  Trim System Rate  Rate--10% of    Trim On,         recorded for a                  control
                                time for first   Friction Off.    normal control                  displacement
                                zero crossing                     displacement                    of 25% to 50%
                                and 10% of                                                     control
                                amplitude of                                                      systems may be
                                first                                                             evaluated in a
                                overshoot, 20%                                                    ground/static
                                of amplitude                                                      condition.
                                of 2nd and                                                        Additional
                                subsequent                                                        information on
                                overshoots                                                        control
                                greater than                                                      dynamics is
                                5% of initial                                                     found later in
                                displacement,                                                     this
                                1                                                          ``N'' is the
                                overshoot.                                                        sequential
                                                                                                  period of a
                                                                                                  full cycle of
                                                                                                  oscillation.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.6......  Control System    0.10      conditions;      compare                         Data for this
                                inches (1.5[deg],     flight.          translational
                                Bank Attitude--  Augmentation     airspeed
                                2[deg],                    45 kts.
                                Longitudinal                      forward
                                Control                           airspeed. May
                                Position--5%. Lateral                    tests.
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--5%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.2......  Critical Azimuth  Torque--1.5[deg],                      most critical
                                Bank Attitude--                   case) in the
                                2[deg],                    quadrant. May
                                Longitudinal                      be a series of
                                Control                           snapshot
                                Position--5%, Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--5%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3......  Control Response
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3.a....  Longitudinal....  Pitch Rate--     Hover            Record results         X    X   This is a
                                10% or    On and Off.      control input.                  test conducted
                                2[deg]/                    response must                   ground effect,
                                sec., Pitch                       show correct                    without
                                Attitude                          trend for                       entering
                                Change--10% or    On and Off.      control input.                  test conducted
                                3[deg]/                    response must                   ground effect,
                                sec., Roll                        show correct                    without
                                Attitude                          trend for                       entering
                                Change--0.1 g.                     The Off-axis
                                                                  response must
                                                                  show correct
                                                                  trend for
                                                                  unaugmented
                                                                  cases.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c........  Longitudinal Handling Qualities
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.1......  Control Response  Pitch Rate--     Cruise           Results must be   X    X    X
                                10% or    On and Off.      two cruise
                                2[deg]/                    include
                                sec., Pitch                       minimum power
                                Attitude                          required
                                Change--10% of    On and Off.      of the trim
                                change from                       speed. May be
                                trim or 10% of    Augmentation     responses,                      may be
                                calculated       On and Off.      record results                  unrepeatable
                                period, 0.02 of                    determine time                  show at least
                                damping                           to \1/2\ or                     that a
                                ratio.For non-                    double                          divergence is
                                periodic                          amplitude,                      identifiable.
                                responses, the                    whichever is                    For example:
                                time history                      less.                           Displacing the
                                must be                          The test may be                  cyclic for a
                                matched within                    terminated                      given time
                                3[deg]                     sec. if the                     excites this
                                pitch; and                        test pilot                      test or until
                                5 kts                      that the                        attitude is
                                airspeed over                     results are                     achieved and
                                a 20 sec                          becoming                        then return
                                period                            uncontrollably                  the cyclic to
                                following                         divergent..                     the original
                                release of the                                                    position. For
                                controls.                                                         non-periodic
                                                                                                  responses,
                                                                                                  results should
                                                                                                  show the same
                                                                                                  convergent or
                                                                                                  divergent
                                                                                                  character as
                                                                                                  the flight
                                                                                                  test data.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.3.b....  Short-Term        1.5[deg   Climb.           for at least                    doublet
                                ] Pitch or       Augmentation     two airspeeds.                  inserted at
                                2[deg]/                                                    frequency of
                                sec. Pitch                                                        the aircraft
                                Rate. 10% of                         45[deg] roll
                                change from                       angle. The
                                trim or 10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d........  Lateral and Directional Handling Qualities
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.1......  Control Response
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 312]]

 
2.d.1.a....  Lateral.........  Roll Rate--      Cruise           Record results    X    X    X
                                10% or    On and Off.      two airspeeds,
                                3[deg]/                    speed at or
                                sec., Roll                        near the
                                Attitude                          minimum power
                                Change--10% of        instead of       angles on                       at a fixed
                                change from      Climb if         either side of                  collective
                                trim or 0.5 lb.                    systems. May
                                (0.223 daN) or                    be a series of
                                10%, Roll                         snapshot
                                Attitude--1.5,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--10% of
                                change from
                                trim or 1 lb.
                                (0.448 daN) or
                                10%,
                                Longitudinal
                                Control
                                Position--10% of
                                change from
                                trim or 100 fpm
                                (0.50m/sec) or
                                10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 313]]

 
2.d.3......  Dynamic Lateral and Directional Stability
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3.a....  Lateral-          0.5       Climb.           for at least
              Oscillations.     sec. or 0.02 of                    after input
                                damping ratio,                    completed) or
                                20% or                     sufficient to
                                1 sec                      to \1/2\ or
                                of time                           double
                                difference                        amplitude,
                                between peaks                     whichever is
                                of bank and                       less. The test
                                sideslip. For                     may be
                                non-periodic                      terminated
                                responses, the                    prior to 20
                                time history                      sec if the
                                must be                           test pilot
                                matched within                    determines
                                10                         results are
                                knots                             becoming
                                Airspeed;                         uncontrollably
                                5[deg]/
                                s Roll Rate or
                                5[deg]
                                Roll Attitude;
                                4[deg]/
                                s Yaw Rate or
                                4[deg]
                                Yaw Angle over
                                a 20 sec
                                period roll
                                angle
                                following
                                release of the
                                controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3.b....  Spiral            2[deg]    Climb.           results of a
                                or 2[deg]    Augmentation     initial entry
                                transient        On and Off.      into cyclic
                                sideslip                          only turns,
                                angle.                            using only a
                                                                  moderate rate
                                                                  for cyclic
                                                                  input. Results
                                                                  must be
                                                                  recorded for
                                                                  turns in both
                                                                  directions.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Motion System................................................................................................
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a........  Frequency response
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                               Based on         N/A............  Required as       X    X    X
                                Simulator                         part of the
                                Capability.                       MQTG. The test
                                                                  must
                                                                  demonstrate
                                                                  frequency
                                                                  response of
                                                                  the motion
                                                                  system as
                                                                  specified by
                                                                  the applicant
                                                                  for flight
                                                                  simulator
                                                                  qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 314]]

 
3.b........  Leg Balance
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
             Leg Balance.....  Based on         N/A............  Required as       X    X    X
                                Simulator                         part of the
                                Capability.                       MQTG. The test
                                                                  must
                                                                  demonstrate
                                                                  motion system
                                                                  leg balance as
                                                                  specified by
                                                                  the applicant
                                                                  for flight
                                                                  simulator
                                                                  qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c........  Turn Around
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
             Turn Around.....  Based on         N/A............  Required as       X    X    X
                                Simulator                         part of the
                                Capability.                       MQTG. The test
                                                                  must
                                                                  demonstrate a
                                                                  smooth turn-
                                                                  around (shift
                                                                  to opposite
                                                                  direction of
                                                                  movement) of
                                                                  the motion
                                                                  system as
                                                                  specified by
                                                                  the applicant
                                                                  for flight
                                                                  simulator
                                                                  qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d........  Motion system repeatability
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                               With the same    Accomplished in  Required as       X    X    X   See Paragraph
                                input signal,    both the         part of the                     6.c. in this
                                the test         ``ground''       MQTG. The test                  attachment for
                                results must     mode and in      is                              additional
                                be repeatable    the ``flight''   accomplished                    information.
                                to within        mode of the      by injecting a                  Note: if there
                                0.05g     operation.       to generate                     difference in
                                actual                            movement of                     the model for
                                platform                          the platform.                   ``ground'' and
                                linear                            The input must                  ``flight''
                                acceleration                      be such that                    operation of
                                in each axis.                     the rotational                  the motion
                                                                  accelerations,                  system, this
                                                                  rotational                      should be
                                                                  rates, and                      described in
                                                                  linear                          an SOC and
                                                                  accelerations                   will not
                                                                  are inserted                    require tests
                                                                  before the                      in both modes.
                                                                  transfer from
                                                                  helicopter
                                                                  center of
                                                                  gravity to the
                                                                  pilot
                                                                  reference
                                                                  point with a
                                                                  minimum
                                                                  amplitude of
                                                                  5[deg]/sec/
                                                                  sec, 10[deg]/
                                                                  sec and 0.3g,
                                                                  respectively.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e........  Motion cueing performance signature
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 315]]

 
                                                                 Required as                     See paragraph
                                                                  part of MQTG.                   6.d., of this
                                                                  These tests                     attachment,
                                                                  must be run                     Motion cueing
                                                                  with the                        performance
                                                                  motion buffet                   signature.
                                                                  mode disabled.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.1......  Takeoff (all      As specified by  Ground.........  Pitch attitude    X    X    X   Associated to
              engines).         the sponsor                       due to initial                  test number
                                for flight                        climb must                      1.c.1.
                                simulator                         dominate over
                                qualification.                    cab tilt due
                                                                  to
                                                                  longitudinal
                                                                  acceleration.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.2......  Hover             As specified by  Ground.........                         X    X   Associated to
              performance       the sponsor                                                       test number
              (IGE and OGE).    for flight                                                        1.d.
                                simulator
                                qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.3......  Autorotation      As specified by  Flight.........                         X    X   Associated to
              (entry).          the sponsor                                                       test number
                                for flight                                                        1.i.
                                simulator
                                qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.4......  Landing (all      As specified by  Flight.........                    X    X    X   Associated to
              engines).         the sponsor                                                       test number
                                for flight                                                        1.j.1.
                                simulator
                                qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.5......  Autorotation      As specified by  Flight.........                         X    X   Associated to
              (landing).        the sponsor                                                       test number
                                for flight                                                        1.j.4.
                                simulator
                                qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.6......  Control Response
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.6.a....  Longitudinal....  As specified by  Flight.........                    X    X    X   Associated to
                                the sponsor                                                       test number
                                for flight                                                        2.c.1.
                                simulator
                                qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.6.b....  Lateral.........  As specified by  Ground.........                    X    X    X   Associated to
                                the sponsor                                                       test number
                                for flight                                                        2.d.1.a.
                                simulator
                                qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.6.c....  Directional.....  As specified by                                     X    X    X   Associated to
                                the sponsor                                                       test number
                                for flight                                                        2.d.1.c.
                                simulator
                                qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.f........  Characteristic Motion (Vibration) Cues--For all of the following     ...  ...  ...  Characteristic
              tests, the simulator test results must exhibit the overall                          motion cues
              appearance and trends of the helicopter data, with at least three                   may be
              (3) of the predominant frequency ``spikes'' being present within                    separate from
              2 Hz.                                                         the ``main''
                                                                                                  motion system.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 316]]

 
3.f.1......  Vibrations--to     + 3db to -6db   (a) On ground    Characteristic              X   Correct trend
              include 1/Rev     or 5 dB                       condition
                                per \1/3\                         prior to
                                octave band.                      engine start.
                                                                  The APU must
                                                                  be on if
                                                                  appropriate.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.2......  All engines at    5 dB                       condition
              turning (if       per \1/3\                         prior to lift-
              applicable) and   octave band.                      off.
              rotor turning.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.3......  Hover...........  5 dB
                                per \1/3\
                                octave band.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.4......  Climb...........  5 dB
                                per \1/3\
                                octave band.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.5......  Cruise..........  5 dB                       configuration.
                                per \1/3\
                                octave band.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.6......  Final approach..  5 dB                       airspeed, gear
                                per \1/3\                         down.
                                octave band.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b........  Special cases
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                               5 dB                                                       cases are
                                per \1/3\                                                         identified as
                                octave band.                                                      particularly
                                                                                                  significant
                                                                                                  during
                                                                                                  critical
                                                                                                  phases of
                                                                                                  flight and
                                                                                                  ground
                                                                                                  operations for
                                                                                                  a specific
                                                                                                  helicopter
                                                                                                  type or model.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c........  Background noise
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                               3 dB                       background                      sound will be
                                per \1/3\                         noise at                        evaluated to
                                octave band.                      initial                         ensure that
                                                                  qualification                   the background
                                                                  must be                         noise does not
                                                                  included in                     interfere with
                                                                  the MQTG.                       training,
                                                                  Measurements                    testing, or
                                                                  must be made                    checking.
                                                                  with the
                                                                  simulation
                                                                  running, the
                                                                  sound muted,
                                                                  and a ``dead''
                                                                  flight deck.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d........  Frequency response
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 325]]

 
                               5 dB on                    to Continuing                   are compared
                                three (3)                         Qualification                   to those taken
                                consecutive                       Evaluations.                    during initial
                                bands when                        If frequency                    qualification
                                compared to                       response plots                  evaluation.
                                initial                           are provided
                                evaluation;                       for each
                                and d) on Figure C2A is 5 percent of the 
initial displacement amplitude Ad from the steady state value 
of the oscillation. Only oscillations outside the residual band are 
considered significant. When comparing FFS data to helicopter data, the 
process should begin by overlaying or aligning the FFS and helicopter 
steady state values and then comparing amplitudes of oscillation peaks, 
the time of the first zero crossing, and individual periods of 
oscillation. The FFS should show the same number of significant 
overshoots to within one when compared against the helicopter data. The 
procedure for evaluating the response is illustrated in Figure C2A.
    (b) Critically damped and Overdamped Response. Due to the nature of 
critically damped and overdamped responses (no overshoots), the time to 
reach 90 percent of the steady state (neutral point) value should be the 
same as the helicopter within 10 percent. The 
simulator response must be critically damped also. Figure C2B 
illustrates the procedure.
    (c) Special considerations. Control systems that exhibit 
characteristics other than classical overdamped or underdamped responses 
should meet specified tolerances. In addition, special consideration 
should be given to ensure that significant trends are maintained.
    (2) Tolerances.
    (a) The following summarizes the tolerances, ``T'' for underdamped 
systems, and ``n'' is the sequential period of a full cycle of 
oscillation. See Figure C2A of this attachment for an illustration of 
the referenced measurements.

T(P0).....................................  10% of
                                             P0
T(P1).....................................  20% of
                                             P1
T(P2).....................................  30% of
                                             P2
T(Pn).....................................  10(n +
                                             1)% of Pn
T(An).....................................  10% of
                                             A1, 20% of Subsequent Peaks
T(Ad).....................................  5% of
                                             Ad = residual band
 

    Significant overshoots. First overshoot and 1 
subsequent overshoots
    (b) The following tolerance applies to critically damped and 
overdamped systems only. See Figure C2B for an illustration of the 
reference measurements:

T(P0).....................................  10% of
                                             P0
 

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

    c. Alternative method for control dynamics evaluation.
    (1) An alternative means for validating control dynamics for 
aircraft with hydraulically powered flight controls and artificial feel 
systems is by the measurement of control force and rate of movement. For 
each axis of pitch, roll, and yaw, the control must be forced to its 
maximum extreme position for the following distinct rates. These tests 
are conducted under normal flight and ground conditions.
    (a) Static test--Slowly move the control so that a full sweep is 
achieved within 95-105 seconds. A full sweep is defined as movement of 
the controller from neutral to the stop, usually aft or right stop, then 
to the opposite stop, then to the neutral position.
    (b) Slow dynamic test--Achieve a full sweep within 8-12 seconds.
    (c) Fast dynamic test--Achieve a full sweep in within 3-5 seconds.

    Note: Dynamic sweeps may be limited to forces not exceeding 100 lbs. 
(44.5 daN).

    (d) Tolerances
    (i) Static test--see Table C2A, FFS Objective Tests, Entries 2.a.1., 
2.a.2., and 2.a.3.
    (ii) Dynamic test--2 lbs (0.9 daN) or 10% on dynamic increment above static test.

                           End QPS Requirement

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    d. The FAA is open to alternative means that are justified and 
appropriate to the application. For example, the method described here 
may not apply to all manufacturers systems and certainly not to aircraft 
with reversible control systems. Each case is considered on its own 
merit on an ad hoc basis. If the FAA finds that alternative methods do 
not result in satisfactory performance, more conventionally accepted 
methods will have to be used.

[[Page 328]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.034

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                              5. [Reserved]

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                            6. Motion System.

    a. General.
    (1) Pilots use continuous information signals to regulate the state 
of the helicopter. In concert with the instruments and outside-world 
visual information, whole-body motion feedback is essential in assisting 
the pilot to

[[Page 329]]

control the helicopter dynamics, particularly in the presence of 
external disturbances. The motion system should meet basic objective 
performance criteria, and be subjectively tuned at the pilot's seat 
position to represent the linear and angular accelerations of the 
helicopter during a prescribed minimum set of maneuvers and conditions. 
The response of the motion cueing system should be repeatable.
    (2) The Motion System tests in Section 3 of Table C2A are intended 
to qualify the FFS motion cueing system from a mechanical performance 
standpoint. Additionally, the list of motion effects provides a 
representative sample of dynamic conditions that should be present in 
the flight simulator. An additional list of representative, training-
critical maneuvers, selected from Section 1, (Performance tests) and 
Section 2, (Handling Qualities tests) in Table C2A, that should be 
recorded during initial qualification (but without tolerance) to 
indicate the flight simulator motion cueing performance signature have 
been identified (reference Section 3.e). These tests are intended to 
help improve the overall standard of FFS motion cueing.
    b. Motion System Checks. The intent of test 3a, Frequency Response, 
test 3b, Leg Balance, and test 3c, Turn-Around Check, as described in 
the Table of Objective Tests, is to demonstrate the performance of the 
motion system hardware, and to check the integrity of the motion set-up 
with regard to calibration and wear. These tests are independent of the 
motion cueing software and should be considered robotic tests.
    c. Motion System Repeatability. The intent of this test is to ensure 
that the motion system software and motion system hardware have not 
degraded or changed over time. This diagnostic test should be completed 
during continuing qualification checks in lieu of the robotic tests. 
This will allow an improved ability to determine changes in the software 
or determine degradation in the hardware. The following information 
delineates the methodology that should be used for this test.
    (1) Input: The inputs should be such that rotational accelerations, 
rotational rates, and linear accelerations are inserted before the 
transfer from helicopter center of gravity to pilot reference point with 
a minimum amplitude of 5 deg/sec/sec, 10 deg/sec and 0.3 g, 
respectively, to provide adequate analysis of the output.
    (2) Recommended output:
    (a) Actual platform linear accelerations; the output will comprise 
accelerations due to both the linear and rotational motion acceleration;
    (b) Motion actuators position.
    d. Motion Cueing Performance Signature.
    (1) Background. The intent of this test is to provide quantitative 
time history records of motion system response to a selected set of 
automated QTG maneuvers during initial qualification. It is not intended 
to be a comparison of the motion platform accelerations against the 
flight test recorded accelerations (i.e., not to be compared against 
helicopter cueing). If there is a modification to the initially 
qualified motion software or motion hardware (e.g., motion washout 
filter, simulator payload change greater than 10%) then a new baseline 
may need to be established.
    (2) Test Selection. The conditions identified in Section 3.e. in 
Table C2A are those maneuvers where motion cueing is the most 
discernible. They are general tests applicable to all types of 
helicopters and should be completed for motion cueing performance 
signature at any time acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards 
office prior to or during the initial qualification evaluation, and the 
results included in the MQTG.
    (3) Priority. Motion system should be designed with the intent of 
placing greater importance on those maneuvers that directly influence 
pilot perception and control of the helicopter motions. For the 
maneuvers identified in section 3.e. in Table C2A, the flight simulator 
motion cueing system should have a high tilt co-ordination gain, high 
rotational gain, and high correlation with respect to the helicopter 
simulation model.
    (4) Data Recording. The minimum list of parameters provided should 
allow for the determination of the flight simulator's motion cueing 
performance signature for the initial qualification evaluation. The 
following parameters are recommended as being acceptable to perform such 
a function:
    (a) Flight model acceleration and rotational rate commands at the 
pilot reference point;
    (b) Motion actuators position;
    (c) Actual platform position;
    (d) Actual platform acceleration at pilot reference point.
    e. Motion Vibrations.
    (1) Presentation of results. The characteristic motion vibrations 
may be used to verify that the flight simulator can reproduce the 
frequency content of the helicopter when flown in specific conditions. 
The test results should be presented as a Power Spectral Density (PSD) 
plot with frequencies on the horizontal axis and amplitude on the 
vertical axis. The helicopter data and flight simulator data should be 
presented in the same format with the same scaling. The algorithms used 
for generating the flight simulator data should be the same as those 
used for the helicopter data. If they are not the same then the 
algorithms used for the flight simulator data should be proven to be 
sufficiently comparable. As a minimum the results along the dominant 
axes should be presented and a rationale for not presenting the other 
axes should be provided.
    (2) Interpretation of results. The overall trend of the PSD plot 
should be considered

[[Page 330]]

while focusing on the dominant frequencies. Less emphasis should be 
placed on the differences at the high frequency and low amplitude 
portions of the PSD plot. During the analysis, certain structural 
components of the flight simulator have resonant frequencies that are 
filtered and may not appear in the PSD plot. If filtering is required, 
the notch filter bandwidth should be limited to 1 Hz to ensure that the 
buffet feel is not adversely affected. In addition, a rationale should 
be provided to explain that the characteristic motion vibration is not 
being adversely affected by the filtering. The amplitude should match 
helicopter data as described below. However, if the PSD plot was altered 
for subjective reasons, a rationale should be provided to justify the 
change. If the plot is on a logarithmic scale it may be difficult to 
interpret the amplitude of the buffet in terms of acceleration. For 
example, a 1 x 10-3 g-rms\2\/Hz would describe a heavy buffet 
and may be seen in the deep stall regime. Alternatively, a 1 x 
10-6 g-rms\2\/Hz buffet is almost imperceptable, but may 
represent a flap buffet at low speed. The previous two examples differ 
in magnitude by 1000. On a PSD plot this represents three decades (one 
decade is a change in order of magnitude of 10, and two decades is a 
change in order of magnitude of 100).

    Note: In the example, ``g-rms\2\'' is the mathematical expression 
for ``g's root mean squared.''

    f. Table C2B, Motion System Recommendations for Level C and Level D 
Helicopter Simulators, contains a description of the parameters that 
should be present in simulator motion systems to provide adequate onset 
motion cues to helicopter pilots. The information provided covers the 
six axes of motion (pitch, roll, yaw, vertical, lateral, and 
longitudinal) and addresses displacement, velocity, and acceleration. 
Also included is information about the parameters for initial rotational 
and linear acceleration. The parameters listed in this table apply only 
to Level C and Level D simulators, and are presented here as recommended 
targets for motion system capability. They are not requirements.

    Table C2B--Motion System Recommendations for Level C and Level D
                          Helicopter Simulators
------------------------------------------------------------------------
 
------------------------------------------------------------------------
a..........                     Motion System Envelope
a.1........  Pitch
a.1.a......  Displacement....  25[deg]
a.1.b......  Velocity........  20[deg]/sec
a.1.c......  Acceleration....  100[deg]/sec\2\
a.2........  Roll
a.2.a......  Displacement....  25[deg]
a.2.b......  Velocity........  20[deg]/sec
a.2.c......  Acceleration....  100[deg]/sec\2\
a.3........  Yaw
a.3.a......  Displacement....  25[deg]
a.3.b......  Velocity--......  20[deg]/sec
a.3.c......  Acceleration....  100[deg]/sec\2\
a.4........  Vertical
a.4.a......  Displacement....  34 in.
a.4.b......  Velocity........  24 in.
a.4.c......  Acceleration....  0.8 g.
a.5........  Lateral
a.5.a......  Displacement....  45 in.
a.5.b......  Velocity........  28 in/sec.
a.5.c......  Acceleration....  0.6 g.
a.6........  Longitudinal
a.6.a......  Displacement....  34 in.
a.6.b......  Velocity........  28 in/sec.
a.6.c......  Acceleration....  0.6 g.
a.7........  Initial Rotational Acceleration Ratio.
                               All axes 300[deg]/ sec\2\/sec
a.8........  Initial Linear Acceleration Ratio.
a.8.a......  Vertical........  6g/sec
a.8.b......  Lateral.........  3g/sec
a.8.c......  Longitudinal....  3g/sec
------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 331]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.035

                             7. Sound System

    a. General. The total sound environment in the helicopter is very 
complex, and changes with atmospheric conditions, helicopter 
configuration, airspeed, altitude, and power settings. Flight deck 
sounds are an important component of the flight deck operational 
environment and provide valuable information

[[Page 332]]

to the flight crew. These aural cues can either assist the crew (as an 
indication of an abnormal situation), or hinder the crew (as a 
distraction or nuisance). For effective training, the flight simulator 
should provide flight deck sounds that are perceptible to the pilot 
during normal and abnormal operations, and that are comparable to those 
of the helicopter. The flight simulator operator should carefully 
evaluate background noises in the location where the device will be 
installed. To demonstrate compliance with the sound requirements, the 
objective or validation tests in this attachment were selected to 
provide a representative sample of normal static conditions typically 
experienced by a pilot.
    b. Alternate propulsion. For FFS with multiple propulsion 
configurations, any condition listed in Table C2A in this attachment 
should be presented for evaluation as part of the QTG if identified by 
the helicopter manufacturer or other data supplier as significantly 
different due to a change in propulsion system (engine or propeller).
    c. Data and Data Collection System.
    (1) Information provided to the flight simulator manufacturer should 
comply be presented in the format suggested by the ``International Air 
Transport Association (IATA) Flight Simulator Design and Performance 
Data Requirements,'' as amended. This information should contain 
calibration and frequency response data.
    (2) The system used to perform the tests listed in Table C2A should 
comply with the following standards:
    (a) The specifications for octave, half octave, and third octave 
band filter sets may be found in American National Standards Institute 
(ANSI) S1.11-1986.
    (b) Measurement microphones should be type WS2 or better, as 
described in International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) 1094-4-
1995.
    (3) Headsets. If headsets are used during normal operation of the 
helicopter they should also be used during the flight simulator 
evaluation.
    (4) Playback equipment. Playback equipment and recordings of the QTG 
conditions should be provided during initial evaluations.
    (5) Background noise.
    (a) Background noise is the noise in the flight simulator that is 
not associated with the helicopter, but is caused by the flight 
simulator's cooling and hydraulic systems and extraneous noise from 
other locations in the building. Background noise can seriously impact 
the correct simulation of helicopter sounds, and should be kept below 
the helicopter sounds. In some cases, the sound level of the simulation 
can be increased to compensate for the background noise. However, this 
approach is limited by the specified tolerances and by the subjective 
acceptability of the sound environment to the evaluation pilot.
    (b) The acceptability of the background noise levels is dependent 
upon the normal sound levels in the helicopter being represented. 
Background noise levels that fall below the lines defined by the 
following points, may be acceptable:
    (i) 70 dB @ 50 Hz;
    (ii) 55 dB @ 1000 Hz;
    (iii) 30 dB @ 16 kHz.
    (Note: These limits are for unweighted \1/3\ octave band sound 
levels. Meeting these limits for background noise does not ensure an 
acceptable flight simulator. Helicopter sounds that fall below this 
limit require careful review and may require lower limits on background 
noise.)
    (6) Validation testing. Deficiencies in helicopter recordings should 
be considered when applying the specified tolerances to ensure that the 
simulation is representative of the helicopter. Examples of typical 
deficiencies are:
    (a) Variation of data between tail numbers.
    (b) Frequency response of microphones.
    (c) Repeatability of the measurements.

 Table C2C--Example of Continuing Qualification Frequency Response Test
                                Tolerance
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                Continuing
                                   Initial    qualification    Absolute
     Band center  frequency        results       results      difference
                                   (dBSPL)       (dBSPL)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
50.............................         75.0           73.8          1.2
63.............................         75.9           75.6          0.3
80.............................         77.1           76.5          0.6
100............................         78.0           78.3          0.3
125............................         81.9           81.3          0.6
160............................         79.8           80.1          0.3
200............................         83.1           84.9          1.8
250............................         78.6           78.9          0.3
315............................         79.5           78.3          1.2
400............................         80.1           79.5          0.9
500............................         80.7           79.8          0.9
630............................         81.9           80.4          1.5
800............................         73.2           74.1          0.9
1000...........................         79.2           80.1          0.9
1250...........................         80.7           82.8          2.1
1600...........................         81.6           78.6          3.0
2000...........................         76.2           74.4          1.8
2500...........................         79.5           80.7          1.2
3150...........................         80.1           77.1          3.0
4000...........................         78.9           78.6          0.3
5000...........................         80.1           77.1          3.0
6300...........................         80.7           80.4          0.3
8000...........................         84.3           85.5          1.2
10000..........................         81.3           79.8          1.5
12500..........................         80.7           80.1          0.6
16000..........................         71.1           71.1          0.0
                                ----------------------------------------
                                           Average                   1.1
------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 333]]

 8. Additional Information About Flight Simulator Qualification for New 
                        or Derivative Helicopters

    a. Typically, a helicopter manufacturer's approved final data for 
performance, handling qualities, systems or avionics is not available 
until well after a new or derivative helicopter has entered service. 
However, flight crew training and certification often begins several 
months prior to the entry of the first helicopter into service. 
Consequently, it may be necessary to use preliminary data provided by 
the helicopter manufacturer for interim qualification of flight 
simulators.
    b. In these cases, the responsible Flight Standards office may 
accept certain partially validated preliminary helicopter and systems 
data, and early release (``red label'') avionics data in order to permit 
the necessary program schedule for training, certification, and service 
introduction.
    c. Simulator sponsors seeking qualification based on preliminary 
data should consult the responsible Flight Standards office to make 
special arrangements for using preliminary data for flight simulator 
qualification. The sponsor should also consult the helicopter and flight 
simulator manufacturers to develop a data plan and flight simulator 
qualification plan.
    d. The procedure to be followed to gain the responsible Flight 
Standards office acceptance of preliminary data will vary from case to 
case and between helicopter manufacturers. Each helicopter 
manufacturer's new helicopter development and test program is designed 
to suit the needs of the particular project and may not contain the same 
events or sequence of events as another manufacturer's program or even 
the same manufacturer's program for a different helicopter. Therefore, 
there cannot be a prescribed invariable procedure for acceptance of 
preliminary data; instead there should be a statement describing the 
final sequence of events, data sources, and validation procedures agreed 
by the simulator sponsor, the helicopter manufacturer, the flight 
simulator manufacturer, and the responsible Flight Standards office.

    Note: A description of helicopter manufacturer-provided data needed 
for flight simulator modeling and validation is to be found in the 
``Royal Aeronautical Society Data Package Requirements for Design and 
Performance Evaluation of Rotary Wing Synthetic Training Devices.''

    e. The preliminary data should be the manufacturer's best 
representation of the helicopter, with assurance that the final data 
will not deviate significantly from the preliminary estimates. Data 
derived from these predictive or preliminary techniques should be 
validated by available sources including, at least, the following:
    (1) Manufacturer's engineering report. The report should explain the 
predictive method used and illustrate past success of the method on 
similar projects. For example, the manufacturer could show the 
application of the method to an earlier helicopter model or predict the 
characteristics of an earlier model and compare the results to final 
data for that model.
    (2) Early flight test results. This data is often derived from 
helicopter certification tests and should be used to maximum advantage 
for early flight simulator validation. Certain critical tests that would 
normally be done early in the helicopter certification program should be 
included to validate essential pilot training and certification 
maneuvers. These tests include cases where a pilot is expected to cope 
with a helicopter failure mode or an engine failure. The early data 
available will depend on the helicopter manufacturer's flight test 
program design and may not be the same in each case. The flight test 
program of the helicopter manufacturer should include provisions for 
generation of very early flight tests results for flight simulator 
validation.
    f. The use of preliminary data is not indefinite. The helicopter 
manufacturer's final data should be available within 12 months after the 
helicopter first entry into service or as agreed by the responsible 
Flight Standards office, the simulator sponsor, and the helicopter 
manufacturer. When applying for interim qualification using preliminary 
data, the simulator sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office 
should agree on the update program. This includes specifying that the 
final data update will be installed in the flight simulator within a 
period of 12 months following the final data release, unless special 
conditions exist and a different schedule is acceptable. The flight 
simulator performance and handling validation would then be based on 
data derived from flight tests. Initial helicopter systems data should 
be updated after engineering tests. Final helicopter systems data should 
also be used for flight simulator programming and validation.
    g. Flight simulator avionics should stay essentially in step with 
helicopter avionics (hardware and software) updates. The permitted time 
lapse between helicopter and flight simulator updates should be minimal. 
It may depend on the magnitude of the update and whether the QTG and 
pilot training and certification are affected. Differences in helicopter 
and flight simulator avionics versions and the resulting effects on 
flight simulator qualification should be agreed between the simulator 
sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office. Consultation with 
the flight simulator manufacturer is desirable throughout the 
qualification process.
    h. The following describes an example of the design data and sources 
that might be

[[Page 334]]

used in the development of an interim qualification plan.
    (1) The plan should consist of the development of a QTG based upon a 
mix of flight test and engineering simulation data. For data collected 
from specific helicopter flight tests or other flights the required 
design model or data changes necessary to support an acceptable Proof of 
Match (POM) should be generated by the helicopter manufacturer.
    (2) For proper validation of the two sets of data, the helicopter 
manufacturer should compare their simulation model responses against the 
flight test data, when driven by the same control inputs and subjected 
to the same atmospheric conditions as recorded in the flight test. The 
model responses should result from a simulation where the following 
systems are run in an integrated fashion and are consistent with the 
design data released to the flight simulator manufacturer:
    (a) Propulsion.
    (b) Aerodynamics.
    (c) Mass properties.
    (d) Flight controls.
    (e) Stability augmentation.
    (f) Brakes/landing gear.
    i. A qualified test pilot should be used to assess handling 
qualities and performance evaluations for the qualification of flight 
simulators of new helicopter types.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

                9. Engineering Simulator--Validation Data

    a. When a fully validated simulation (i.e., validated with flight 
test results) is modified due to changes to the simulated helicopter 
configuration, the helicopter manufacturer or other acceptable data 
supplier must coordinate with the responsible Flight Standards office to 
supply validation data from an ``audited'' engineering simulator/
simulation to selectively supplement flight test data. The responsible 
Flight Standards office must be provided an opportunity to audit the use 
of the engineering simulation or the engineering simulator during the 
acquisition of the data that will be used as validation data. Audited 
data may be used for changes that are incremental in nature. 
Manufacturers or other data suppliers must be able to demonstrate that 
the predicted changes in helicopter performance are based on acceptable 
aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid outcomes. 
This must include comparisons of predicted and flight test validated 
data.
    b. Helicopter manufacturers or other acceptable data suppliers 
seeking to use an engineering simulator for simulation validation data 
as an alternative to flight-test derived validation data, must contact 
the responsible Flight Standards office and provide the following:
    (1) A description of the proposed aircraft changes, a description of 
the proposed simulation model changes, and the use of an integral 
configuration management process, including an audit of the actual 
simulation model modifications that includes a step-by-step description 
leading from the original model(s) to the current model(s).
    (2) A schedule for review by the responsible Flight Standards office 
of the proposed plan and the subsequent validation data to establish 
acceptability of the proposal.
    (3) Validation data from an audited engineering simulator/simulation 
to supplement specific segments of the flight test data.
    c. To be qualified to supply engineering simulator validation data, 
for aerodynamic, engine, flight control, or ground handling models, a 
helicopter manufacturer or other acceptable data supplier must:
    (1) Be able to verify their ability to:
    (a) Develop and implement high fidelity simulation models; and
    (b) Predict the handling and performance characteristics of a 
helicopter with sufficient accuracy to avoid additional flight test 
activities for those handling and performance characteristics.
    (2) Have an engineering simulator that:
    (a) Is a physical entity, complete with a flight deck representative 
of the simulated class of helicopter;
    (b) Has controls sufficient for manual flight;
    (c) Has models that run in an integrated manner;
    (d) Had fully flight-test validated simulation models as the 
original or baseline simulation models;
    (e) Has an out-of-the-flight deck visual system;
    (f) Has actual avionics boxes interchangeable with the equivalent 
software simulations to support validation of released software;
    (g) Uses the same models as released to the training community 
(which are also used to produce stand-alone proof-of-match and checkout 
documents);
    (h) Is used to support helicopter development and certification; and
    (i) Has been found to be a high fidelity representation of the 
helicopter by the manufacturer's pilots (or other acceptable data 
supplier), certificate holders, and the responsible Flight Standards 
office.
    (3) Use the engineering simulator to produce a representative set of 
integrated proof-of-match cases.
    (4) Use a configuration control system covering hardware and 
software for the operating components of the engineering simulator.
    (5) Demonstrate that the predicted effects of the change(s) are 
within the provisions of

[[Page 335]]

sub-paragraph ``a'' of this section, and confirm that additional flight 
test data are not required.
    d. Additional Requirements for Validation Data
    (1) When used to provide validation data, an engineering simulator 
must meet the simulator standards currently applicable to training 
simulators except for the data package.
    (2) The data package used must be:
    (a) Comprised of the engineering predictions derived from the 
helicopter design, development, or certification process;
    (b) Based on acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success 
history and valid outcomes for aerodynamics, engine operations, avionics 
operations, flight control applications, or ground handling;
    (c) Verified with existing flight-test data; and
    (d) Applicable to the configuration of a production helicopter, as 
opposed to a flight-test helicopter.
    (3) Where engineering simulator data are used as part of a QTG, an 
essential match must exist between the training simulator and the 
validation data.
    (4) Training flight simulator(s) using these baseline and modified 
simulation models must be qualified to at least internationally 
recognized standards, such as contained in the ICAO Document 9625, the 
``Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators.''

                           End QPS Requirement

________________________________________________________________________

                             10. [Reserved]

                     11. Validation Test Tolerances

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. Non-Flight-Test Tolerances. If engineering simulator data or 
other non-flight-test data are used as an allowable form of reference 
validation data for the objective tests listed in Table C2A of this 
attachment, the data provider must supply a well-documented mathematical 
model and testing procedure that enables a replication of the 
engineering simulation results within 20% of the corresponding flight 
test tolerances.
    b. Background
    (1) The tolerances listed in Table C2A of this attachment are 
designed to measure the quality of the match using flight-test data as a 
reference.
    (2) Good engineering judgment should be applied to all tolerances in 
any test. A test is failed when the results fall outside of the 
prescribed tolerance(s).
    (3) Engineering simulator data are acceptable because the same 
simulation models used to produce the reference data are also used to 
test the flight training simulator (i.e., the two sets of results should 
be ``essentially'' similar).
    (4) The results from the two sources may differ for the following 
reasons:
    (a) Hardware (avionics units and flight controls);
    (b) Iteration rates;
    (c) Execution order;
    (d) Integration methods;
    (e) Processor architecture;
    (f) Digital drift, including:
    (i) Interpolation methods;
    (ii) Data handling differences;
    (iii) Auto-test trim tolerances.
    (5) The tolerance limit between the reference data and the flight 
simulator results is generally 20% of the corresponding ``flight-test'' 
tolerances. However, there may be cases where the simulator models used 
are of higher fidelity, or the manner in which they are cascaded in the 
integrated testing loop have the effect of a higher fidelity, than those 
supplied by the data provider. Under these circumstances, it is possible 
that an error greater than 20% may be generated. An error greater than 
20% may be acceptable if the simulator sponsor can provide an adequate 
explanation.
    (6) Guidelines are needed for the application of tolerances to 
engineering-simulator-generated validation data because:
    (a) Flight-test data are often not available due to sound technical 
reasons;
    (b) Alternative technical solutions are being advanced; and
    (c) The costs are high.

                       12. Validation Data Roadmap

    a. Helicopter manufacturers or other data suppliers should supply a 
validation data roadmap (VDR) document as part of the data package. A 
VDR document contains guidance material from the helicopter validation 
data supplier recommending the best possible sources of data to be used 
as validation data in the QTG. A VDR is of special value when requesting 
interim qualification, qualification of simulators for helicopters 
certificated prior to 1992, and qualification of alternate engine or 
avionics fits. A sponsor seeking to have a device qualified in 
accordance with the standards contained in this QPS appendix should 
submit a VDR to the responsible Flight Standards office as early as 
possible in the planning stages. The NSPM is the final authority to 
approve the data to be used as validation material for the QTG. The 
responsible Flight Standards office and the Joint Aviation Authorities' 
Synthetic Training Devices Advisory Board have committed to maintain a 
list of agreed VDRs.
    b. The VDR should identify (in matrix format) sources of data for 
all required tests. It should also provide guidance regarding the 
validity of these data for a specific engine

[[Page 336]]

type, thrust rating configuration, and the revision levels of all 
avionics affecting helicopter handling qualities and performance. The 
VDR should include rationale or explanation in cases where data or 
parameters are missing, engineering simulation data are to be used, 
flight test methods require explanation, or where there is any deviation 
from data requirements. Additionally, the document should refer to other 
appropriate sources of validation data (e.g., sound and vibration data 
documents).
    c. The Sample Validation Data Roadmap (VDR) for helicopters, shown 
in Table C2D, depicts a generic roadmap matrix identifying sources of 
validation data for an abbreviated list of tests. This sample document 
uses fixed wing parameters instead of helicopter values. It is merely a 
sample and does not provide actual data. A complete matrix should 
address all test conditions for helicopter application and provide 
actual data and data sources.
    d. Two examples of rationale pages are presented in Appendix F of 
IATA Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements document. 
These illustrate the type of helicopter and avionics configuration 
information and descriptive engineering rationale used to describe data 
anomalies or provide an acceptable basis for using alternative data for 
QTG validation requirements.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 337]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.036


[[Page 338]]



                            Begin Information

________________________________________________________________________

                             13. [Reserved]

   14. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics (Flight-Related 
                       Computers and Controllers)

                              a. Background

    (1) For a new helicopter type, the majority of flight validation 
data are collected on the first helicopter configuration with a 
``baseline'' flight-related avionics ship-set; (see subparagraph b.(2) 
of this section). These data are then used to validate all flight 
simulators representing that helicopter type.
    (2) Additional validation data may be needed for flight simulators 
representing a helicopter with avionics of a different hardware design 
than the baseline, or a different software revision than that of 
previously validated configurations.
    (3) When a flight simulator with additional or alternate avionics 
configurations is to be qualified, the QTG should contain tests against 
validation data for selected cases where avionics differences are 
expected to be significant.

        b. Approval Guidelines For Validating Alternate Avionics

    (1) The following guidelines apply to flight simulators representing 
helicopters with a revised avionics configuration, or more than one 
avionics configuration.
    (2) The baseline validation data should be based on flight test 
data, except where other data are specifically allowed (e.g., 
engineering flight simulator data).
    (3) The helicopter avionics can be segmented into two groups, 
systems or components whose functional behavior contributes to the 
aircraft response presented in the QTG results, and systems that do not. 
The following avionics are examples of contributory systems for which 
hardware design changes or software revisions may lead to significant 
differences in the aircraft response relative to the baseline avionics 
configuration: Flight control computers and controllers for engines, 
autopilot, braking system, and nosewheel steering system, if applicable. 
Related avionics such as augmentation systems should also be considered.
    (4) The acceptability of validation data used in the QTG for an 
alternative avionics fit should be determined as follows:
    (a) For changes to an avionics system or component that do not 
affect QTG validation test response, the QTG test can be based on 
validation data from the previously validated avionics configuration.
    (b) For an avionics change to a contributory system, where a 
specific test is not affected by the change (e.g., the avionics change 
is a Built In Test Equipment (BITE) update or a modification in a 
different flight phase), the QTG test can be based on validation data 
from the previously-validated avionics configuration. The QTG should 
include authoritative justification (e.g., from the helicopter 
manufacturer or system supplier) that this avionics change does not 
affect the test.
    (c) For an avionics change to a contributory system, the QTG may be 
based on validation data from the previously-validated avionics 
configuration if no new functionality is added and the impact of the 
avionics change on the helicopter response is based on acceptable 
aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid outcomes. 
This should be supplemented with avionics-specific validation data from 
the helicopter manufacturer's engineering simulation, generated with the 
revised avionics configuration. The QTG should include an explanation of 
the nature of the change and its effect on the helicopter response.
    (d) For an avionics change to a contributory system that 
significantly affects some tests in the QTG, or where new functionality 
is added, the QTG should be based on validation data from the previously 
validated avionics configuration and supplemental avionics-specific 
flight test data sufficient to validate the alternate avionics revision. 
Additional flight test validation data may not be needed if the avionics 
changes were certified without the need for testing with a comprehensive 
flight instrumentation package. The helicopter manufacturer should 
coordinate flight simulator data requirements in advance with the 
responsible Flight Standards office.
    (5) A matrix or ``roadmap'' should be provided with the QTG 
indicating the appropriate validation data source for each test. The 
roadmap should include identification of the revision state of those 
contributory avionics systems that could affect specific test responses.

                       15. Transport Delay Testing

    a. This paragraph describes how to determine the introduced 
transport delay through the flight simulator system so that it does not 
exceed a specific time delay. The transport delay should be measured 
from control inputs through the interface, through each of the host 
computer modules and back through the interface to motion, flight 
instrument, and visual systems. The transport delay should not exceed 
the maximum allowable interval.
    b. Four specific examples of transport delay are:
    (1) Simulation of classic non-computer controlled aircraft;
    (2) Simulation of Computer Controlled Aircraft using real helicopter 
black boxes;

[[Page 339]]

    (3) Simulation of Computer Controlled Aircraft using software 
emulation of helicopter boxes;
    (4) Simulation using software avionics or rehosted instruments.
    c. Figure C2C illustrates the total transport delay for a non-
computer-controlled helicopter or the classic transport delay test. 
Since there are no helicopter-induced delays for this case, the total 
transport delay is equivalent to the introduced delay.
    d. Figure C2D illustrates the transport delay testing method using 
the real helicopter controller system.
    e. To obtain the induced transport delay for the motion, instrument 
and visual signal, the delay induced by the helicopter controller should 
be subtracted from the total transport delay. This difference represents 
the introduced delay and should not exceed the standards prescribed in 
Table C1A.
    f. Introduced transport delay is measured from the flight deck 
control input to the reaction of the instruments and motion and visual 
systems (See Figure C2C).
    g. The control input may also be introduced after the helicopter 
controller system input and the introduced transport delay may be 
measured directly from the control input to the reaction of the 
instruments, and simulator motion and visual systems (See Figure C2D).
    h. Figure C2E illustrates the transport delay testing method used on 
a flight simulator that uses a software emulated helicopter controller 
system.
    i. It is not possible to measure the introduced transport delay 
using the simulated helicopter controller system architecture for the 
pitch, roll and yaw axes. Therefore, the signal should be measured 
directly from the pilot controller. The flight simulator manufacturer 
should measure the total transport delay and subtract the inherent delay 
of the actual helicopter components because the real helicopter 
controller system has an inherent delay provided by the helicopter 
manufacturer. The flight simulator manufacturer should ensure that the 
introduced delay does not exceed the standards prescribed in Table C1A.
    j. Special measurements for instrument signals for flight simulators 
using a real helicopter instrument display system instead of a simulated 
or re-hosted display. For flight instrument systems, the total transport 
delay should be measured and the inherent delay of the actual helicopter 
components subtracted to ensure that the introduced delay does not 
exceed the standards prescribed in Table C1A.
    (1) Figure C2FA illustrates the transport delay procedure without 
helicopter display simulation. The introduced delay consists of the 
delay between the control movement and the instrument change on the data 
bus.
    (2) Figure C2FB illustrates the modified testing method required to 
measure introduced delay due to software avionics or re-hosted 
instruments. The total simulated instrument transport delay is measured 
and the helicopter delay should be subtracted from this total. This 
difference represents the introduced delay and should not exceed the 
standards prescribed in Table C1A. The inherent delay of the helicopter 
between the data bus and the displays is indicated in figure C2FA. The 
display manufacturer should provide this delay time.
    k. Recorded signals. The signals recorded to conduct the transport 
delay calculations should be explained on a schematic block diagram. The 
flight simulator manufacturer should also provide an explanation of why 
each signal was selected and how they relate to the above descriptions.
    l. Interpretation of results. Flight simulator results vary over 
time from test to test due to ``sampling uncertainty.'' All flight 
simulators run at a specific rate where all modules are executed 
sequentially in the host computer. The flight controls input can occur 
at any time in the iteration, but these data will not be processed 
before the start of the new iteration. For example, a flight simulator 
running at 60 Hz may have a difference of as much as 16.67 msec between 
results. This does not mean that the test has failed. Instead, the 
difference is attributed to variation in input processing. In some 
conditions, the host simulator and the visual system do not run at the 
same iteration rate, so the output of the host computer to the visual 
system will not always be synchronized.
    m. The transport delay test should account for both daylight and 
night modes of operation of the visual system. In both cases, the 
tolerances prescribed in Table C1A should be met and the motion response 
should occur before the end of the first video scan containing new 
information.

[[Page 340]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.037


[[Page 341]]


[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.038

     16. Continuing Qualification Evaluations--Validation Test Data 
                              Presentation

                              a. Background

    (1) The MQTG is created during the initial evaluation of a flight 
simulator. This is the master document, as amended, to which flight 
simulator continuing qualification evaluation test results are compared.
    (2) The currently accepted method of presenting continuing 
qualification evaluation test results is to provide flight simulator 
results over-plotted with reference data. Test results are carefully 
reviewed to determine if the test is within the specified tolerances. 
This can be a time consuming process, particularly when reference data 
exhibits rapid variations or an apparent anomaly requiring engineering 
judgment in the application of

[[Page 342]]

the tolerances. In these cases, the solution is to compare the results 
to the MQTG. The continuing qualification results are compared to the 
results in the MQTG for acceptance. The flight simulator operator and 
the responsible Flight Standards office should look for any change in 
the flight simulator performance since initial qualification.

    b. Continuing Qualification Evaluation Test Results Presentation

    (1) Flight simulator operators are encouraged to over-plot 
continuing qualification validation test results with MQTG flight 
simulator results recorded during the initial evaluation and as amended. 
Any change in a validation test will be readily apparent. In addition to 
plotting continuing qualification validation test and MQTG results, 
operators may elect to plot reference data.
    (2) There are no suggested tolerances between flight simulator 
continuing qualification and MQTG validation test results. Investigation 
of any discrepancy between the MQTG and continuing qualification flight 
simulator performance is left to the discretion of the flight simulator 
operator and the responsible Flight Standards office.
    (3) Differences between the two sets of results, other than 
variations attributable to repeatability issues that cannot be explained 
should be investigated.
    (4) The flight simulator should retain the ability to over-plot both 
automatic and manual validation test results with reference data.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

 17. Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation: Level B 
                             Simulators Only

    a. Sponsors are not required to use the alternative data sources, 
procedures, and instrumentation. However, any sponsor choosing to use 
alternative sources must comply with the requirements in Table C2E.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    b. It has become standard practice for experienced simulator 
manufacturers to use such techniques as a means of establishing data 
bases for new simulator configurations while awaiting the availability 
of actual flight test data. The data generated from the aerodynamic 
modeling techniques is then compared to the flight test data when it 
becomes available. The results of such comparisons have become 
increasingly consistent, indicating that these techniques, applied with 
appropriate experience, are dependable and accurate for the development 
of aerodynamic models for use in Level B simulators.
    c. Based on this history of successful comparisons, the responsible 
Flight Standards office has concluded that those who are experienced in 
the development of aerodynamic models for simulator application can 
successfully use these modeling techniques to alter the method for 
acquiring flight test data for Level B simulators.
    d. The information in Table C2E (Alternative Data Sources, 
Procedures, and Information) is presented to describe an acceptable 
alternative to data sources for simulator modeling and validation and an 
acceptable alternative to the procedures and instrumentation 
traditionally used to gather such modeling and validation data.
    (1) Alternative data sources that may be used for part or all of a 
data requirement are the Helicopter Maintenance Manual, the Rotorcraft 
Flight Manual (RFM), Helicopter Design Data, the Type Inspection Report 
(TIR), Certification Data or acceptable supplemental flight test data.
    (2) The sponsor should coordinate with the responsible Flight 
Standards office prior to using alternative data sources in a flight 
test or data gathering effort.
    e. The responsible Flight Standards office position on the use of 
these alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation is based 
on the use of a rigorously defined and fully mature simulation controls 
system model that includes accurate gearing and cable stretch 
characteristics (where applicable), determined from actual aircraft 
measurements. The model does not require control surface position 
measurements in the flight test objective data in these limited 
applications.
    f. Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and 
a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments, including 
the inclinometer; the force/position measurements of flight deck 
controls; and a clear visual directional reference for a known magnetic 
bearing (e.g., a runway centerline). Ground track and wind corrected 
heading may be used for sideslip angle.
    g. The sponsor is urged to contact the responsible Flight Standards 
office for clarification of any issue regarding helicopters with 
reversible control systems. This table is not applicable to Computer 
Controlled Aircraft flight simulators.
    h. Use of these alternate data sources, procedures, and 
instrumentation does not relieve the sponsor from compliance with the 
balance of the information contained in this document relative to Level 
B FFSs.
    i. The term ``inertial measurement system'' is used in table C2E 
includes the use of a functional global positioning system (GPS).

[[Page 343]]

    j. Synchronized video for the use of alternative data sources, 
procedures, and instrumentation should have:
    (1) sufficient resolution to allow magnification of the display to 
make appropriate measurement and comparisons; and
    (2) sufficient size and incremental marking to allow similar 
measurement and comparison. The detail provided by the video should 
provide sufficient clarity and accuracy to measure the necessary 
parameter(s) to at least \1/2\ of the tolerance authorized for the 
specific test being conducted and allow an integration of the 
parameter(s) in question to obtain a rate of change.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                      Table C2E--Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation
 [The standards in this table are required if the data gathering methods described in paragraph 9 of Appendix C
                                                  are not used]
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                   QPS requirements                                           Information
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Table of objective tests          Level
---------------------------------------   By    Alternative data sources, procedures,            Notes
      Test entry number and title        only            and instrumentation
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1.a. Performance. Engine Start and      X   Data may be acquired using a
 Accelerations.                                  synchronized video recording of all
                                                 engine instruments, start buttons,
                                                 means for fuel introduction and
                                                 means for moving from ``idle'' to
                                                 ``flight.'' A stopwatch is necessary.
1.a.1.b. Performance. Steady State          X   Data may be acquired using a
 Idle and Operating RPM Conditions.              synchronized video recording of all
                                                 engine instruments, and include the
                                                 status of the means for moving from
                                                 ``idle'' to ``flight.''.
1.a.2. Performance. Power Turbine           X   Data may be acquired using a
 Speed Trim.                                     synchronized video recording of all
                                                 engine instruments. Speed trim
                                                 actuator position may be hand
                                                 recorded.
1.a.3. Performance. Engine and Rotor        X   Data may be acquired by using a
 Speed Governing.                                synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls.
1.b.1. Performance. On Surface Taxi.        X   TIR, AFM, or Design data may be used.
 Minimum Radius Turn.
1.b.2. Performance. On Surface Taxi         X   Data may be acquired by using a        A single procedure may
 Rate of Turn vs. Nosewheel Steering             constant tiller position (measured     not be adequate for all
 Angle.                                          with a protractor), or full pedal      rotorcraft steering
                                                 application for steady state turn,     systems. Appropriate
                                                 and synchronized video of heading      measurement procedures
                                                 indicator. If less than full pedal     must be devised and
                                                 is used, pedal position must be        proposed for responsible
                                                 recorded..                             Flight Standards office
                                                                                        concurrence.
1.b.3. Performance. Taxi..............      X   Data may be acquired by using a
                                                 synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls.
1.b.4. Performance. Brake.............      X   Data may be acquired using a
                                                 stopwatch and a means for measuring
                                                 distance such as runway distance
                                                 markers conforming with runway
                                                 distance marker standards.
1.c.1. Performance. Running Takeoff...      X   Preliminary certification data may be
                                                 used. Data may be acquired by using
                                                 a synchronized video of the
                                                 calibrated helicopter instruments
                                                 and the force/position measurements
                                                 of flight deck controls. Collective,
                                                 cyclic, and pedal position time
                                                 history must be recorded from the
                                                 start of collective movement through
                                                 to normal climb. Indicated torque
                                                 settings may be hand recorded at the
                                                 moment of lift-off and in a steady
                                                 normal climb.
1.c.2. Performance. One Engine              X   Data may be acquired by using a
 Inoperative (OEI), continued takeoff.           synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls. Collective, cyclic, and
                                                 pedal position time history must be
                                                 recorded from the start of
                                                 collective movement through to
                                                 normal OEI climb. Indicated torque
                                                 settings may be hand recorded at the
                                                 moment of lift-off and in a steady
                                                 normal OEI climb.
1.f. Performance. Level Flight.             X   Data may be acquired by using a
 Trimmed Flight Control Positions.               synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls.
1.g. Performance. Normal Climb.             X   Data may be acquired by using a
 Trimmed Flight Control Positions.               synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls.

[[Page 344]]

 
1.h.1. Descent Performance and Trimmed      X   Data may be acquired by using a
 Flight Control Positions.                       synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls.
1.h.2. Autorotation Performance and         X   Data may be acquired by using a
 Trimmed Flight Control Positions.               synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls.
1.j.1. Performance. Running Landing         X   Data may be acquired by using a
 All Engines.                                    synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls.
1.j.2. Performance. Running Landing         X   Data may be acquired by using a
 One Engine Inoperative.                         synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls.
1.j.3. Performance. Balked Landing....      X   Data may be acquired by using a
                                                 synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls. The synchronized video
                                                 must record the time of the ``balk
                                                 landing'' decision.
2.a.1. Handling Qualities. Static           X   Control positions can be obtained
 Control Checks. Cyclic Controller               using continuous control position
 Position vs. Force.                             recordings. Force data may be
                                                 acquired by using a hand held force
                                                 gauge so that the forces can be
                                                 cross-plotted against control
                                                 position in each of the control axes.
2.a.2. Handling Qualities. Static           X   Control positions can be obtained
 Control Checks. Collective/Pedals vs.           using continuous control position
 Force.                                          recordings. Force data may be
                                                 acquired by using a hand held force
                                                 gauge so that the forces can be
                                                 cross-plotted against control
                                                 position in each of the control axes.
2.a.3. Handling Qualities. Brake Pedal      X   Brake pedal positions can be obtained
 Force vs. Position.                             using continuous position
                                                 recordings. Force data may be
                                                 acquired by using a hand held force
                                                 gauge so that the forces can be
                                                 cross-plotted against brake pedal
                                                 position.
2.a.4. Handling Qualities. Trim System      X   Control positions can be obtained
 Rate (all applicable systems).                  using continuous control position
                                                 recordings plotted against time to
                                                 provide rate in each applicable
                                                 system.
2.a.6. Handling Qualities. Control          X   Data may be acquired by direct
 System Freeplay.                                measurement.
2.c.1. Longitudinal Handling                X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Qualities. Control Response.                    inertial measurement system, a
                                                 synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls.
2.c.2. Longitudinal Handling                X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Qualities. Static Stability.                    inertial measurement system, a
                                                 synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls.
2.c.3.a. Longitudinal Handling              X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Qualities. Dynamic Stability, Long              inertial measurement system, a
 Term Response.                                  synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls.
2.c.3.b. Longitudinal Handling              X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Qualities. Dynamic Stability, Short             inertial measurement system, a
 Term Response.                                  synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls.
2.c.4. Longitudinal Handling                X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Qualities. Maneuvering stability.               inertial measurement system, a
                                                 synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls.
2.d.1.a. Lateral Handling Qualities.        X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Control Response.                               inertial measurement system, a
                                                 synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls.
2.d.1.b Directional Handling                X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Qualities. Control Response..                   inertial measurement system and a
                                                 synchronized video of calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 directional controls.
2.d.2. Handling Qualities. Directional      X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Static Stability.                               inertial measurement system and a
                                                 synchronized video of calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments and force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 directional controls.
2.d.3.a. Handling Qualities. Dynamic        X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Lateral and Directional Stability               inertial measurement system and a
 Lateral-Directional Oscillations.               synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments, the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls, and a stop watch.
2.d.3.b. Handling Qualities. Dynamic        X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Lateral and Directional Stability               inertial measurement system and a
 Spiral Stability.                               synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments, the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls, and a stop watch.

[[Page 345]]

 
2.d.3.c. Handling Qualities. Dynamic        X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Lateral and Directional Stability.              inertial measurement system and a
 Adverse/Proverse Yaw.                           synchronized video of the calibrated
                                                 helicopter instruments, the force/
                                                 position measurements of flight deck
                                                 controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                       18. Visual Display Systems.

    a. Basic principles of a FFS collimated display:
    (1) The essential feature of a collimated display is that light rays 
coming from a given point in a picture are parallel. There are two main 
implications of the parallel rays:
    (a) The viewer's eyes focus at infinity and have zero convergence, 
providing a cue that the object is distant; and
    (b) The angle to any given point in the picture does not change when 
viewed from a different position so the object behaves geometrically as 
though it were located at a significant distance from the viewer. These 
cues are self-consistent, and are appropriate for any object that has 
been modeled as being at a significant distance from the viewer.
    (2) In an ideal situation the rays are perfectly parallel, but most 
implementations provide only an approximation to the ideal. Typically, 
an FFS display provides an image located not closer than about 20-33 ft 
(6-10 m) from the viewer, with the distance varying over the field-of-
view. A schematic representation of a collimated display is provided in 
Figure C2A.
    (3) Collimated displays are well suited to many simulation 
applications as the area of interest is relatively distant from the 
observer so the angles to objects should remain independent of viewing 
position. Consider the view of the runway seen by the flight crew lined 
up on an approach. In the real world, the runway is distant and the 
light rays from the runway to the eyes are parallel. The runway appears 
to be straight ahead to both crew members. This situation is well 
simulated by a collimated display and is presented in Figure C2B. Note 
that the distance to the runway has been shortened for clarity. If drawn 
to scale, the runway would be farther away and the rays from the two 
seats would be closer to being parallel.
    (4) While the horizontal field-of-view of a collimated display can 
be extended to approximately 210[deg]-220[deg], the vertical field-of-
view has been limited to about 40[deg]-45[deg]. These limitations result 
from tradeoffs in optical quality and interference between the display 
components and flight deck structures, but were sufficient to meet FFS 
regulatory approval for Helicopter FFSs. However, recent designs have 
been introduced with vertical fields of view of up to 60[deg] for 
helicopter applications.
    b. Basic principles of a FFS dome (or non-collimated) display:
    (1) The situation in a dome display is shown in Figure C2C. As the 
angles can be correct for only one eye point at a time, the visual 
system in the figure has been aligned for the right seat eye point 
position. The runway appears to be straight ahead of the aircraft for 
this viewer. For the left seat viewer, however, the runway appears to be 
somewhat to the right of the aircraft. As the aircraft is still moving 
towards the runway, the perceived velocity vector will be directed 
towards the runway and this will be interpreted as the aircraft having 
some yaw offset.
    (2) The situation is substantially different for near field objects 
encountered in helicopter operations close to the ground. In those 
cases, objects that should be interpreted as being close to the viewer 
will be misinterpreted as being distant in a collimated display. The 
errors can actually be reduced in a dome display.
    (3) The field-of-view possible with a dome display can be larger 
than that of a collimated display. Depending on the configuration, a 
field-of-view of 240[deg] by 90[deg] is possible and can be exceeded.

                  c. Additional display considerations

    (1) While the situations described above are for discrete viewing 
positions, the same arguments can be extended to moving eye points 
produced by the viewer's head movement. In the real world, the parallax 
effects resulting from head movement provide distance cues. The effect 
is particularly strong for relative movement of flight deck structure in 
the near field and modeled objects in the distance. Collimated displays 
will provide accurate parallax cues for distant objects, but 
increasingly inaccurate cues for

[[Page 346]]

near field objects. The situation is reversed for dome displays.
    (2) Stereopsis cues resulting from the different images presented to 
each eye for objects relatively close to the viewer also provide depth 
cues. Again, the collimated and dome displays provide more or less 
accurate cues depending on the modeled distance of the objects being 
viewed.

                        d. Training implications

    (1) In view of the basic principles described above, it is clear 
that neither display approach provides a completely accurate image for 
all possible object distances. The sponsor should consider the training 
role of the FFS when configuring the display system to make the optimum 
choice. Factors that should be considered include relative importance of 
training tasks at low altitudes, the role of the two crew members in the 
flying tasks, and the field-of-view required for specific training 
tasks.

[[Page 347]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.039

 Attachment 3 to Appendix C to Part 60--Simulator Subjective Evaluation

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                             1. Requirements

    a. Except for special use airport models, all airport models 
required by this part must be representations of real-world, operational 
airports or representations of fictional airports and must meet the 
requirements set out in Tables C3B or C3C of this attachment, as 
appropriate.
    b. If fictional airports are used, the sponsor must ensure that 
navigational aids and all appropriate maps, charts, and other 
navigational reference material for the fictional

[[Page 348]]

airports (and surrounding areas as necessary) are compatible, complete, 
and accurate with respect to the visual presentation and airport model 
of this fictional airport. An SOC must be submitted that addresses 
navigation aid installation and performance and other criteria 
(including obstruction clearance protection) for all instrument 
approaches to the fictional airports that are available in the 
simulator. The SOC must reference and account for information in the 
terminal instrument procedures manual and the construction and 
availability of the required maps, charts, and other navigational 
material. This material must be clearly marked ``for training purposes 
only.''
    c. When the simulator is being used by an instructor or evaluator 
for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter, only 
airport models classified as Class I, Class II, or Class III may be used 
by the instructor or evaluator. Detailed descriptions/definitions of 
these classifications are found in Appendix F of this part.
    d. When a person sponsors an FFS maintained by a person other than a 
U.S. certificate holder, the sponsor is accountable for that FFS 
originally meeting, and continuing to meet, the criteria under which it 
was originally qualified and the appropriate Part 60 criteria, including 
the visual scenes and airport models that may be used by instructors or 
evaluators for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this 
chapter.
    e. Neither Class II nor Class III airport visual models are required 
to appear on the SOQ, and the method used for keeping instructors and 
evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class 
III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the sponsor, 
but the method used must be available for review by the TPAA.
    f. When an airport model represents a real world airport and a 
permanent change is made to that real world airport (e.g., a new runway, 
an extended taxiway, a new lighting system, a runway closure) without a 
written extension grant from the responsible Flight Standards office 
(described in paragraph 1.g., of this section), an update to that 
airport model must be made in accordance with the following time limits:
    (1) For a new airport runway, a runway extension, a new airport 
taxiway, a taxiway extension, or a runway/taxiway closure--within 90 
days of the opening for use of the new airport runway, runway extension, 
new airport taxiway, or taxiway extension; or within 90 days of the 
closure of the runway or taxiway.
    (2) For a new or modified approach light system--within 45 days of 
the activation of the new or modified approach light system.
    (3) For other facility or structural changes on the airport (e.g., 
new terminal, relocation of Air Traffic Control Tower)--within 180 days 
of the opening of the new or changed facility or structure.
    g. If a sponsor desires an extension to the time limit for an update 
to a visual scene or airport model or has an objection to what must be 
updated in the specific airport model requirement, the sponsor must 
provide a written extension request to the responsible Flight Standards 
office stating the reason for the update delay and a proposed completion 
date or provide an explanation for the objection, explaining why the 
identified airport change will not have an impact on flight training, 
testing, or checking. A copy of this request or objection must also be 
sent to the POI/TCPM. The responsible Flight Standards office will send 
the official response to the sponsor and a copy to the POI/TCPM; 
however, if there is an objection, after consultation with the 
appropriate POI/TCPM regarding the training, testing, or checking 
impact, the responsible Flight Standards office will send the official 
response to the sponsor and a copy to the POI/TCPM.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              2. Discussion

    a. The subjective tests provide a basis for evaluating the 
capability of the simulator to perform over a typical utilization 
period; determining that the simulator competently simulates each 
required maneuver, procedure, or task; and verifying correct operation 
of the simulator controls, instruments, and systems. The items listed in 
the following Tables are for simulator evaluation purposes only. They 
may not be used to limit or exceed the authorizations for use of a given 
level of simulator as described on the SOQ or as approved by the TPAA. 
All items in the following paragraphs are subject to an examination.
    b. The tests in Table C3A, Operations Tasks, in this attachment 
address pilot functions, including maneuvers and procedures (called 
flight tasks), and are divided by flight phases. The performance of 
these tasks by the responsible Flight Standards office includes an 
operational examination of the visual system and special effects. There 
are flight tasks included to address some features of advanced 
technology helicopters and innovative training programs.
    c. The tests in Table C3A, Operations Tasks, and Table C3G, 
Instructor Operating Station, in this attachment address the overall 
function and control of the simulator including the various simulated 
environmental conditions; simulated helicopter system operation (normal, 
abnormal, and emergency); visual system displays; and special effects

[[Page 349]]

necessary to meet flight crew training, evaluation, or flight experience 
requirements.
    d. All simulated helicopter systems functions will be assessed for 
normal and, where appropriate, alternate operations. Normal, abnormal, 
and emergency operations associated with a flight phase will be assessed 
during the evaluation of flight tasks or events within that flight 
phase. Simulated helicopter systems are listed separately under ``Any 
Flight Phase'' to ensure appropriate attention to systems checks. 
Operational navigation systems (including inertial navigation systems, 
global positioning systems, or other long-range systems) and the 
associated electronic display systems will be evaluated if installed. 
The pilot will include in his report to the TPAA, the effect of the 
system operation and any system limitation.
    e. Simulators demonstrating a satisfactory circling approach will be 
qualified for the circling approach maneuver and may be approved for 
such use by the TPAA in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training 
program. To be considered satisfactory, the circling approach will be 
flown at maximum gross weight for landing, with minimum visibility for 
the helicopter approach category, and must allow proper alignment with a 
landing runway at least 90[deg] different from the instrument approach 
course while allowing the pilot to keep an identifiable portion of the 
airport in sight throughout the maneuver (reference--14 CFR 91.175(e)).
    f. At the request of the TPAA, the Pilot may assess the simulator 
for a special aspect of a sponsor's training program during the 
functions and subjective portion of an evaluation. Such an assessment 
may include a portion of a Line Oriented Flight Training (LOFT) scenario 
or special emphasis items in the sponsor's training program. Unless 
directly related to a requirement for the qualification level, the 
results of such an evaluation would not affect the qualification of the 
simulator.
    g. This appendix addresses helicopter simulators at Levels B, C, and 
D because there are no Level A Helicopter simulators.
    h. The FAA intends to allow the use of Class III airport models on a 
limited basis when the sponsor provides the TPAA (or other regulatory 
authority) an appropriate analysis of the skills, knowledge, and 
abilities (SKAs) necessary for competent performance of the tasks in 
which this particular media element is used. The analysis should 
describe the ability of the FFS/visual media to provide an adequate 
environment in which the required SKAs are satisfactorily performed and 
learned. The analysis should also include the specific media element, 
such as the visual scene or airport model.
    i. The TPAA may accept Class III airport models without individual 
observation provided the sponsor provides the TPAA with an acceptable 
description of the process for determining the acceptability of a 
specific airport model, outlines the conditions under which such an 
airport model may be used, and adequately describes what restrictions 
will be applied to each resulting airport or landing area model. 
Examples of situations that may warrant Class III model designation by 
the TPAA include the following:
    (a) Training, testing, or checking on very low visibility 
operations, including SMGCS operations.
    (b) Instrument operations training (including instrument takeoff, 
departure, arrival, approach, and missed approach training, testing, or 
checking) using--
    (i) A specific model that has been geographically ``moved'' to a 
different location and aligned with an instrument procedure for another 
airport.
    (ii) A model that does not match changes made at the real-world 
airport (or landing area for helicopters) being modeled.
    (iii) A model generated with an ``off-board'' or an ``on-board'' 
model development tool (by providing proper latitude/longitude 
reference; correct runway or landing area orientation, length, width, 
marking, and lighting information; and appropriate adjacent taxiway 
location) to generate a facsimile of a real world airport or landing 
area.
    j. Previously qualified simulators with certain early generation 
Computer Generated Image (CGI) visual systems, are limited by the 
capability of the Image Generator or the display system used. These 
systems are:
    (1) Early CGI visual systems that are exempt from the necessity of 
including runway numbers as a part of the specific runway marking 
requirements are:
    (a) Link NVS and DNVS.
    (b) Novoview 2500 and 6000.
    (c) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and including, VITAL III, but 
not beyond.
    (d) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2.
    (2) Early CGI visual systems are excepted from the necessity of 
including runway numbers unless the runway is used for LOFT training 
sessions. These LOFT airport models require runway numbers, but only for 
the specific runway end (one direction) used in the LOFT session. The 
systems required to display runway numbers only for LOFT scenes are:
    (a) FlightSafety VITAL IV.
    (b) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T.
    (c) Link-Miles Image II.
    (3) The following list of previously qualified CGI and display 
systems are incapable of generating blue lights. These systems are not 
required to have accurate taxi-way edge lighting are:
    (a) Redifusion SP1 and SP1T.
    (b) FlightSafety Vital IV.
    (c) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT
    (d) XKD displays (even though the XKD image generator is capable of 
generating

[[Page 350]]

blue colored lights, the display cannot accommodate that color).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                                    Table C3A--Functions and Subjective Tests
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                QPS requirements
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                                                     Simulator
                                                                                                       level
               Entry No.                                     Operations tasks                     --------------
                                                                                                    B    C    D
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the helicopter simulated as indicated in the
 SOQ Configuration List or the level of simulator qualification involved. Items not installed or not functional
 on the simulator and, therefore, not appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed as
 exceptions on the SOQ.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preparation for Flight
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a...................................  Flight deck check: Switches, indicators, systems, and       X    X    X
                                         equipment.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. APU/Engine start and run-up
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a...................................  Normal start procedures..................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b...................................  Alternate start procedures...............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c...................................  Abnormal starts and shutdowns (e.g., hot start, hung        X    X    X
                                         start).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d...................................  Rotor engagement.........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e...................................  System checks............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Taxiing--Ground
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a...................................  Power required to taxi...................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b...................................  Brake effectiveness......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c...................................  Ground handling..........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d...................................  Water handling (if applicable)...........................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e...................................  Abnormal/emergency procedures:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.1.................................  Brake system failure.....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.2.................................  Ground resonance.........................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.3.................................  Dynamic rollover.........................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.4.................................  Deployment of emergency floats/water landing.............        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.5.................................  Others listed on the SOQ.................................   A    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Taxiing--Hover
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a...................................  Takeoff to a hover.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b...................................  Instrument response:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.1.................................  Engine instruments.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.2.................................  Flight instruments.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.3.................................  Hovering turns...........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c...................................  Hover power checks:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1.................................  In ground effect (IGE)...................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2.................................  Out of ground effect (OGE)...............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d...................................  Crosswind/tailwind hover.................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e...................................  Translating tendency.....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f...................................  External load operations:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 351]]

 
4.f.1.................................  Hookup...................................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.2.................................  Release..................................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.3.................................  Winch operations.........................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g...................................  Abnormal/emergency procedures:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.1.................................  Engine failure...........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.2.................................  Fuel governing system failure............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.3.................................  Settling with power (OGE)................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.4.................................  Hovering autorotation....................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.5.................................  Stability augmentation system failure....................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.6.................................  Directional control malfunction..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.7.................................  Loss of tail rotor effectiveness (LTE)...................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.8.................................  Others listed on the SOQ.................................   A    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.h...................................  Pre-takeoff checks.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Takeoff/Translational Flight
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a...................................  Forward (up to effective translational lift).............        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b...................................  Sideward (up to limiting airspeed).......................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c...................................  Rearward (up to limiting airspeed).......................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Takeoff and Departure Phase
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a...................................  Normal...................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.1.................................  From ground..............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.2.................................  From hover...............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.2.a...............................  Cat A....................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.2.b...............................  Cat B....................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.3.................................  Running..................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.4.................................  Crosswind/tailwind.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.5.................................  Maximum performance......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.6.................................  Instrument...............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.7.................................  Takeoff from a confined area.............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.8.................................  Takeoff from a pinnacle/platform.........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.9.................................  Takeoff from a slope.....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.10................................  External load operations.................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b...................................  Abnormal/emergency procedures:...........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.................................  Takeoff with engine failure after critical decision point   X    X    X
                                         (CDP).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.a...............................  Cat A....................................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.b...............................  Cat B....................................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 352]]

 
6.c...................................  Rejected takeoff.........................................
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c.1.................................  Land.....................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c.2.................................  Water (if appropriate)...................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.d...................................  Instrument departure.....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.e...................................  Others as listed on the SOQ..............................   A    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Climb
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a...................................  Normal...................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b...................................  Obstacle clearance.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c...................................  Vertical.................................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d...................................  One engine inoperative...................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e...................................  Others as listed on the SOQ..............................   A    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. Cruise
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a...................................  Performance..............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b...................................  Flying qualities.........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c...................................  Turns....................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.1.................................  Timed....................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.2.................................  Normal...................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.3.................................  Steep....................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d...................................  Accelerations and decelerations..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e...................................  High speed vibrations....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f...................................  External Load Operations (see entry 4.f. of this table)..        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g...................................  Abnormal/emergency procedures............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.1.................................  Engine fire..............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.2.................................  Engine failure...........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.3.................................  Inflight engine shutdown and restart.....................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.4.................................  Fuel governing system failures...........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.5.................................  Directional control malfunction..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.6.................................  Hydraulic failure........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.7.................................  Stability system failure.................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.8.................................  Rotor vibrations.........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.9.................................  Recovery from unusual attitudes..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9. Descent
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.a...................................  Normal...................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b...................................  Maximum rate.............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.c...................................  Autorotative.............................................
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 353]]

 
9.c.1.................................  Straight-in..............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.c.2.................................  With turn................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.d...................................  External Load............................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10. Approach
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a..................................  Non-precision............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.1................................  All engines operating....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.2................................  One or more engines inoperative..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.3................................  Approach procedures:                                        X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.3.a..............................  NDB......................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.3.b..............................  VOR, RNAV, TACAN.........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.3.c..............................  ASR......................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.3.d..............................  Circling.................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.3.e..............................  Helicopter only..........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.4................................  Missed approach..........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.4.a..............................  All engines operating....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.4.b..............................  One or more engines inoperative..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b..................................  Precision................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.1................................  All engines operating....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.2................................  Manually controlled--one or more engines inoperative.....   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3................................  Approach procedures:                                        X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.a..............................  PAR......................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.b..............................  MLS......................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.c..............................  ILS......................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.c..............................  (1) Manual (raw data)....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.c..............................  (2) Flight director only.................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.c..............................  (3) Autopilot * only.....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.c..............................  (4) Cat I................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.c..............................  (5) Cat II...............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.4................................  Missed approach:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.4.a..............................  All engines operating....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.4.b..............................  One or more engines inoperative..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.4.c..............................  Stability system failure.................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.c..................................  Others as listed on the SOQ..............................   A    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11. Landings and Approaches to Landings
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.a..................................  Visual Approaches:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 354]]

 
11.a.1................................  Normal...................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.a.2................................  Steep....................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.a.3................................  Shallow..................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.a.4................................  Crosswind................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.a.5................................  Category A profile.......................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.a.6................................  Category B profile.......................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.a.7................................  External Load............................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.b..................................  Abnormal/emergency procedures:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.b.1................................  Directional control failure..............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.b.2................................  Hydraulics failure.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.b.3................................  Fuel governing failure...................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.b.4................................  Autorotation.............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.b.5................................  Stability system failure.................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.b.6................................  Others listed on the SOQ.................................   A    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11c...................................  Landings:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.1................................  Normal:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.1.a..............................  Running..................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.1.b..............................  From Hover...............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.2................................  Pinnacle/platform........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.3................................  Confined area............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.4................................  Slope....................................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.5................................  Crosswind................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.6................................  Tailwind.................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.7................................  Rejected Landing.........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.8................................  Abnormal/emergency procedures:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.8.a..............................  From autorotation........................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.8.b..............................  One or more engines inoperative..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.8.c..............................  Directional control failure..............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.8.d..............................  Hydraulics failure.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.8.e..............................  Stability augmentation system failure....................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.9................................  Other (listed on the SOQ)................................   A    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12. Any Flight Phase
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.1................................  Air conditioning.........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.2................................  Anti-icing/deicing.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.3................................  Auxiliary power-plant....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 355]]

 
12.a.4................................  Communications...........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.5................................  Electrical...............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.6................................  Fire detection and suppression...........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.7................................  Stabilizer...............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.8................................  Flight controls..........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.9................................  Fuel and oil.............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.10...............................  Hydraulic................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.11...............................  Landing gear.............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.12...............................  Oxygen...................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.13...............................  Pneumatic................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.14...............................  Powerplant...............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.15...............................  Flight control computers.................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.16...............................  Stability and control augmentation.......................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b..................................  Flight management and guidance system:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b.1................................  Airborne radar...........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b.2................................  Automatic landing aids...................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b.3................................  Autopilot................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b.4................................  Collision avoidance system...............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b.5................................  Flight data displays.....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b.6................................  Flight management computers..............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b.7................................  Heads-up displays........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b.8................................  Navigation systems.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.c..................................  Airborne procedures:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.c.1................................  Holding..................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.c.2................................  Air hazard avoidance.....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.c.3................................  Retreating blade stall recovery..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.c.4................................  Mast bumping.............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.c.5................................  Loss of directional control..............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.c.6................................  Loss of tail rotor effectiveness.........................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.c.7................................  Other (listed on the SOQ)................................   A    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13. Engine Shutdown and Parking
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13.a..................................  Engine and systems operation.............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13.b..................................  Parking brake operation..................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13.c..................................  Rotor brake operation....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 356]]

 
13.d..................................  Abnormal/emergency procedures............................   X    X   X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
* ``Autopilot'' means attitude retention mode of operation.
Note: An ``A'' in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate
  aircraft system or control is simulated in the FFS and is working properly.


                Table C3B--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                             Simulator
                    Visual requirements for qualification      level
     Entry No.       at the stated level class I airport  --------------
                            or landing area models          B    C    D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
This table specifies the minimum airport visual model content and
 functionality to qualify a simulator at the indicated level. This table
 applies only to the airport scenes required for simulator
 qualification; i.e., two helicopter landing area models for Level B
 simulators; four helicopter landing area models for Level C and Level D
 simulators.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.................  Functional test content requirements
                    The following is the minimum airport/landing area
                     model content requirement to satisfy visual
                     capability tests, and provides suitable visual cues
                     to allow completion of all functions and subjective
                     tests described in this attachment for simulators
                     at Level B.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a...............  A minimum of one (1) representative     X
                     airport and one (1) representative
                     helicopter landing area model. The
                     airport and the helicopter landing
                     area may be contained within the
                     same model. If but if this option is
                     selected, the approach path to the
                     airport runway(s) and the approach
                     path to the helicopter landing area
                     must be different. The model(s) used
                     to meet the following requirements
                     may be demonstrated at either a
                     fictional or a real-world airport or
                     helicopter landing area, but each
                     must be acceptable to the sponsor's
                     TPAA, selectable from the IOS, and
                     listed on the SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b...............  The fidelity of the visual scene must   X
                     be sufficient for the aircrew to
                     visually identify the airport and/or
                     helicopter landing area; determine
                     the position of the simulated
                     helicopter within the visual scene;
                     successfully accomplish take-offs,
                     approaches, and landings; and
                     maneuver around the airport on the
                     ground, or hover taxi, as necessary.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c...............  Runways:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.1.............  Visible runway number................   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.2.............  Runway threshold elevations and         X
                     locations must be modeled to provide
                     sufficient correlation with
                     helicopter systems (e.g., altimeter).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.3.............  Runway surface and markings..........   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.4.............  Lighting for the runway in use          X
                     including runway edge and centerline.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.5.............  Lighting, visual approach aid (VASI     X
                     or PAPI) and approach lighting of
                     appropriate colors.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.6.............  Representative taxiway lights........   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d...............  Other helicopter landing area:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.1.............  Standard heliport designation (``H'')   X
                     marking, properly sized and oriented.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.2.............  Perimeter markings for the Touchdown    X
                     and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) or the
                     Final Approach and Takeoff Area
                     (FATO), as appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.3.............  Perimeter lighting for the TLOF or      X
                     the FATO areas, as appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.4.............  Appropriate markings and lighting to    X
                     allow movement from the runway or
                     helicopter landing area to another
                     part of the landing facility.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.................  Functional test content requirements for Level C and
                     Level D simulators

[[Page 357]]

 
                    The following is the minimum airport/landing area
                     model content requirement to satisfy visual
                     capability tests, and provide suitable visual cues
                     to allow completion of all functions and subjective
                     tests described in this attachment for simulators
                     at Level C and Level D. Not all of the elements
                     described in this section must be found in a single
                     airport/landing area scene. However, all of the
                     elements described in this section must be found
                     throughout a combination of the four (4) airport/
                     landing area models described in entry 2.a. The
                     representations of the hazards (as described in
                     2.d.) must be ``hard objects'' that interact as
                     such if contacted by the simulated helicopter.
                     Additionally, surfaces on which the helicopter
                     lands must be ``hard surfaces.'' The model(s) used
                     to meet the following requirements must be
                     demonstrated at either a fictional or a real-world
                     airport or helicopter landing area, and each must
                     be acceptable to the sponsor's TPAA, selectable
                     from the IOS, and listed on the SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a...............  There must be at least the following airport/
                     helicopter landing areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1.............  At least one (1) representative              X    X
                     airport.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2.............  At least three representative non-airport landing
                     areas, as follows:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2.a...........  At least one (1) representative              X    X
                     helicopter landing area situated on
                     a substantially elevated surface
                     with respect to the surrounding
                     structures or terrain (e.g.,
                     building top, offshore oil rig).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2.b...........  At least one (1) helicopter landing          X    X
                     area that meets the definition of a
                     ``confined landing area''.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2.c...........  At least one (1) helicopter landing          X    X
                     area on a sloped surface where the
                     slope is at least 2\1/2\[deg].
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b...............  For each of the airport/helicopter           X    X
                     landing areas described in 2.a., the
                     simulator must be able to provide at
                     least the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.1.............  A night and twilight (dusk)                  X    X
                     environment..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.2.............  A daylight environment...............             X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c...............  Non-airport helicopter landing areas must have the
                     following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.1.............  Representative buildings, structures,        X    X
                     and lighting within appropriate
                     distances.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.2.............  Representative moving and static             X    X
                     clutter (e.g., other aircraft, power
                     carts, tugs, fuel trucks).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.3.............  Representative depiction of terrain          X    X
                     and obstacles as well as significant
                     and identifiable natural and
                     cultural features, within 25 NM of
                     the reference landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.4.............  Standard heliport designation (``H'')        X    X
                     marking, properly sized and oriented.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.5.............  Perimeter markings for the Touchdown         X    X
                     and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) or the
                     Final Approach and Takeoff Area
                     (FATO), as appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.6.............  Perimeter lighting for the TLOF or           X    X
                     the FATO areas, as appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.7.............  Appropriate markings and lighting to         X    X
                     allow movement from the area to
                     another part of the landing
                     facility, if appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.8.............  Representative markings, lighting,           X    X
                     and signage, including a windsock
                     that gives appropriate wind cues.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.9.............  Appropriate markings, lighting, and          X    X
                     signage necessary for position
                     identification, and to allow
                     movement from the landing area to
                     another part of the landing facility.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.10............  Representative moving and static             X    X
                     ground traffic (e.g., vehicular and
                     aircraft), including the ability to
                     present surface hazards (e.g.,
                     conflicting traffic, vehicular or
                     aircraft, on or approaching the
                     landing area).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.11............  Portrayal of landing surface                 X    X
                     contaminants, including lighting
                     reflections when wet and partially
                     obscured lights when snow is
                     present, or suitable alternative
                     effects.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d...............  All of the following three (3) hazards must be
                     presented in a combination of the three (3) non-
                     airport landing areas (described in entry 2.a.2. of
                     this table) and each of these non-airport landing
                     areas must have at least one of the following
                     hazards:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.1.............  Other airborne traffic...............        X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 358]]

 
2.d.2.............  Buildings, trees, or other vertical          X    X
                     obstructions in the immediate
                     landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3.............  Suspended wires in the immediate             X    X
                     landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e...............  Airport applications. Each airport must have the
                     following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.1.............  At least one runway designated as            X    X
                     ``in-use'', appropriately marked and
                     capable of being lighted fully.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.2.............  Runway threshold elevations and         X    X    X
                     locations must be modeled to provide
                     sufficient correlation with
                     helicopter systems (e.g., HGS, GPS,
                     altimeter). Slopes in runways,
                     taxiways, and ramp areas, if
                     depicted in the visual scene, may
                     not cause distracting or unrealistic
                     effects, including pilot eye-point
                     height variation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.3.............  Appropriate approach lighting systems        X    X
                     and airfield lighting for a VFR
                     circuit and landing, non-precision
                     approaches and landings, and
                     precision approaches and landings,
                     as appropriate..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.4.............  Representative taxiway lights........             X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.................  Airport or landing area model management
                    The following is the minimum visual scene management
                     requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a...............  Runway and helicopter landing area      X    X    X
                     approach lighting must fade into
                     view in accordance with the
                     environmental conditions set in the
                     simulator.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b...............  The direction of strobe lights,         X    X    X
                     approach lights, runway edge lights,
                     visual landing aids, runway
                     centerline lights, threshold lights,
                     touchdown zone lights, and TLOF or
                     FATO lights must be replicated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.................  Visual feature recognition.
                    The following are the minimum distances at which
                     runway features must be visible. Distances are
                     measured from runway threshold or a helicopter
                     landing area to a helicopter aligned with the
                     runway or helicopter landing area on an extended
                     3[deg] glide-slope in simulated meteorological
                     conditions. For circling approaches, all tests
                     apply to the runway used for the initial approach
                     and to the runway of intended landing
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a...............  For runways: Runway definition,         X    X    X
                     strobe lights, approach lights, and
                     runway edge lights from 5 sm (8 km)
                     of the runway threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b...............  For runways: Centerline lights and      X    X    X
                     taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c...............  For runways: Visual Approach Aid        X
                     lights (VASI or PAPI) from 3 sm (5
                     km) of the threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d...............  For runways: Visual Approach Aid             X    X
                     lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8
                     km) of the threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e...............  For runways: Runway threshold lights    X    X    X
                     and touchdown zone lights from 2 sm
                     (3 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f...............  For runways and helicopter landing      X    X    X
                     areas: Markings within range of
                     landing lights for night/twilight
                     scenes and the surface resolution
                     test on daylight scenes, as required.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g...............  For circling approaches, the runway     X    X    X
                     of intended landing and associated
                     lighting must fade into view in a
                     non-distracting manner.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.h...............  For helicopter landing areas: Landing   X    X    X
                     direction lights and raised FATO
                     lights from 1 sm (1.5 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.i...............  For helicopter landing areas: Flush               X
                     mounted FATO lights, TOFL lights,
                     and the lighted windsock from 0.5 sm
                     (750 m).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.j...............  Hover taxiway lighting (yellow/blue/              X
                     yellow cylinders) from TOFL area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.................  Airport or helicopter landing area model content

[[Page 359]]

 
                    The following prescribes the minimum requirements
                     for an airport/helicopter landing area model and
                     identifies other aspects of the environment that
                     must correspond with that model for simulators at
                     Level B, Level C, and Level D. For circling
                     approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for
                     the initial approach and to the runway of intended
                     landing. If all runways or landing areas in a
                     visual model used to meet the requirements of this
                     attachment are not designated as ``in use,'' then
                     the ``in use'' runways/landing areas must be listed
                     on the SOQ (e.g., KORD, Rwys 9R, 14L, 22R). Models
                     of airports or helicopter landing areas with more
                     than one runway or landing area must have all
                     significant runways or landing areas not ``in-use''
                     visually depicted for airport runway/landing area
                     recognition purposes. The use of white or off-white
                     light strings that identify the runway or landing
                     area for twilight and night scenes are acceptable
                     for this requirement; and rectangular surface
                     depictions are acceptable for daylight scenes. A
                     visual system's capabilities must be balanced
                     between providing visual models with an accurate
                     representation of the airport and a realistic
                     representation of the surrounding environment. Each
                     runway or helicopter landing area designated as an
                     ``in-use'' runway or area must include the
                     following detail that is developed using airport
                     pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other
                     similar data, or developed in accordance with
                     published regulatory material; however, this does
                     not require that such models contain details that
                     are beyond the design capability of the currently
                     qualified visual system. Only one ``primary'' taxi
                     route from parking to the runway end or helicopter
                     takeoff/landing area will be required for each ``in-
                     use'' runway or helicopter takeoff/landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a...............  The surface and markings for each ``in-use'' runway
                     or helicopter landing area must include the
                     following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.1.............  For airports: Runway threshold          X    X    X
                     markings, runway numbers, touchdown
                     zone markings, fixed distance
                     markings, runway edge markings, and
                     runway centerline stripes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.2.............  For helicopter landing areas:           X    X    X
                     Markings for standard heliport
                     identification (``H'') and TOFL,
                     FATO, and safety areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b...............  The lighting for each ``in-use'' runway or
                     helicopter landing area must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.1.............  For airports: Runway approach,          X    X    X
                     threshold, edge, end, centerline (if
                     applicable), touchdown zone (if
                     applicable), leadoff, and visual
                     landing aid lights or light systems
                     for that runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.2.............  For helicopter landing areas: landing   X    X    X
                     direction, raised and flush FATO,
                     TOFL, windsock lighting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c...............  The taxiway surface and markings associated with
                     each ``in-use'' runway or helicopter landing area
                     must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.1.............  For airports: Taxiway edge,             X    X    X
                     centerline (if appropriate), runway
                     hold lines, and ILS critical area(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.2.............  For helicopter landing areas:           X    X    X
                     taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d...............  The taxiway lighting associated with each ``in-use''
                     runway or helicopter landing area must include the
                     following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.1.............  For airports: Runway edge, centerline   X    X    X
                     (if appropriate), runway hold lines,
                     ILS critical areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.2.............  For helicopter landing areas:           X    X    X
                     taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3.............  For airports: taxiway lighting of                 X
                     correct color.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e...............  Airport signage associated with each ``in-use''
                     runway or helicopter landing area must include the
                     following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.1.............  For airports: Signs for runway          X    X    X
                     distance remaining, intersecting
                     runway with taxiway, and
                     intersecting taxiway with taxiway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.2.............  For helicopter landing areas: as        X    X    X
                     appropriate for the model used.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.f...............  Required visual model correlation with other aspects
                     of the airport or helicopter landing environment
                     simulation:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.f.1.............  The airport or helicopter landing       X    X    X
                     area model must be properly aligned
                     with the navigational aids that are
                     associated with operations at the
                     ``in-use'' runway or helicopter
                     landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.f.2.............  The simulation of runway or                  X    X
                     helicopter landing area contaminants
                     must be correlated with the
                     displayed runway surface and
                     lighting where applicable.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.................  Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment
                    The following are the minimum correlation
                     comparisons that must be made for simulators at
                     Level B, Level C, and Level D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a...............  Visual system compatibility with        X    X    X
                     aerodynamic programming.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 360]]

 
6.b...............  Visual cues to assess sink rate and     X    X    X
                     depth perception during landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c...............  Accurate portrayal of environment       X    X    X
                     relating to flight simulator
                     attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.d...............  The visual scene must correlate with         X    X
                     integrated helicopter systems (e.g.,
                     terrain, traffic and weather
                     avoidance systems and Head-up
                     Guidance System (HGS)).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.e...............  Representative visual effects for       X    X    X
                     each visible, own-ship, helicopter
                     external light(s)--taxi and landing
                     light lobes (including independent
                     operation, if appropriate).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.f...............  The effect of rain removal devices...        X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.................  Scene quality
                    The following are the minimum scene quality tests
                     that must be conducted for simulators at Level B,
                     Level C, and Level D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a...............  Surfaces and textural cues must be           X    X
                     free from apparent and distracting
                     quantization (aliasing).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b...............  System capable of portraying full            X    X
                     color realistic textural cues.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c...............  The system light points must be free    X    X    X
                     from distracting jitter, smearing or
                     streaking.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d...............  Demonstration of occulting through      X    X    X
                     each channel of the system in an
                     operational scene.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e...............  Demonstration of a minimum of ten            X    X
                     levels of occulting through each
                     channel of the system in an
                     operational scene.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.f...............  System capable of providing focus            X    X
                     effects that simulate rain..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.g...............  System capable of providing focus            X    X
                     effects that simulate light point
                     perspective growth.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.h...............  Runway light controls capable of six    X    X    X
                     discrete light steps (0-5).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.................  Environmental effects.
                    The following are the minimum environmental effects
                     that must be available in simulators at Level B,
                     Level C, and Level D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a...............  The displayed scene corresponding to              X
                     the appropriate surface contaminants
                     and include appropriate lighting
                     reflections for wet, partially
                     obscured lights for snow, or
                     alternative effects.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b...............  Special weather representations which include:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.1.............  The sound, motion and visual effects              X
                     of light, medium and heavy
                     precipitation near a thunderstorm on
                     take-off, approach, and landings at
                     and below an altitude of 2,000 ft
                     (600 m) above the surface and within
                     a radius of 10 sm (16 km) from the
                     airport or helicopter landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.2.............  One airport or helicopter landing                 X
                     area with a snow scene to include
                     terrain snow and snow-covered
                     surfaces.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c...............  In-cloud effects such as variable            X    X
                     cloud density, speed cues and
                     ambient changes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d...............  The effect of multiple cloud layers          X    X
                     representing few, scattered, broken
                     and overcast conditions giving
                     partial or complete obstruction of
                     the ground scene.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e...............  Visibility and RVR measured in terms    X    X    X
                     of distance. Visibility/RVR checked
                     at 2,000 ft (600 m) above the
                     airport or helicopter landing area
                     and at two heights below 2,000 ft
                     with at least 500 ft of separation
                     between the measurements. The
                     measurements must be taken within a
                     radius of 10 sm (16 km) from the
                     airport or helicopter landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f...............  Patchy fog giving the effect of                   X
                     variable RVR.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g...............  Effects of fog on airport lighting           X    X
                     such as halos and defocus.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.h...............  Effect of own-ship lighting in               X    X
                     reduced visibility, such as
                     reflected glare, including landing
                     lights, strobes, and beacons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.i...............  Wind cues to provide the effect of                X
                     blowing snow or sand across a dry
                     runway or taxiway selectable from
                     the instructor station.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 361]]

 
8.j...............  ``White-out'' or ``Brown-out''                    X
                     effects due to rotor downwash
                     beginning at a distance above the
                     ground equal to the rotor diameter.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.................  Instructor control of the following:
                    The following are the minimum instructor controls
                     that must be available in Level B, Level C, and
                     Level D simulators, as indicated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.a...............  Environmental effects, e.g. cloud       X    X    X
                     base, cloud effects, cloud density,
                     visibility in statute miles/
                     kilometers and RVR in feet/meters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b...............  Airport or helicopter landing area      X    X    X
                     selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.c...............  Airport or helicopter landing area      X    X    X
                     lighting, including variable
                     intensity.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.d...............  Dynamic effects including ground and         X    X
                     flight traffic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                           End QPS Requirement
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            Begin Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10................  An example of being able to ``combine two airport
                     models to achieve two ``in-use'' runways: One
                     runway designated as the ``in-use'' runway in the
                     first model of the airport, and the second runway
                     designated as the ``in-use'' runway in the second
                     model of the same airport. For example, the
                     clearance is for the ILS approach to Runway 27,
                     Circle to Land on Runway 18 right. Two airport
                     visual models might be used: the first with Runway
                     27 designated as the ``in use'' runway for the
                     approach to runway 27, and the second with Runway
                     18 Right designated as the ``in use'' runway. When
                     the pilot breaks off the ILS approach to runway 27,
                     the instructor may change to the second airport
                     visual model in which runway 18 Right is designated
                     as the ``in use'' runway, and the pilot would make
                     a visual approach and landing. This process is
                     acceptable to the FAA as long as the temporary
                     interruption due to the visual model change is not
                     distracting to the pilot.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
11................  Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of
                     a runway, but the detail that is provided should be
                     correct within reasonable limits.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                             End Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------


                Table C3C--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                       Visual scene content additional       Simulator
                    airport or landing area models beyond      level
     Entry No.        minimum required for qualification  --------------
                       Class II airport or landing area
                                    models                  B    C    D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
This table specifies the minimum airport or helicopter landing area
 visual model content and functionality necessary to add visual models
 to a simulator's visual model library (i.e., beyond those necessary for
 qualification at the stated level) without the necessity of further
 involvement of the responsible Flight Standards office or TPAA.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.................  Airport or landing area model management
                    The following is the minimum visual scene management
                     requirements for simulators at Levels B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a...............  The installation and direction of the following
                     lights must be replicated for the ``in-use''
                     surface:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1.............  For ``in-use'' runways: Strobe          X    X    X
                     lights, approach lights, runway edge
                     lights, visual landing aids, runway
                     centerline lights, threshold lights,
                     and touchdown zone lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.2.............  For ``in-use'' helicopter landing       X    X    X
                     areas: ground level TLOF perimeter
                     lights, elevated TLOF perimeter
                     lights (if applicable), Optional
                     TLOF lights (if applicable), ground
                     FATO perimeter lights, elevated TLOF
                     lights (if applicable), landing
                     direction lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.................  Visual feature recognition
                    The following are the minimum distances at which
                     runway or landing area features must be visible for
                     simulators at Levels B, C, and D. Distances are
                     measured from runway threshold or a helicopter
                     landing area to an aircraft aligned with the runway
                     or helicopter landing area on a 3[deg] glide-slope
                     from the aircraft to the touchdown point, in
                     simulated meteorological conditions. For circling
                     approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for
                     the initial approach and to the runway of intended
                     landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 362]]

 
2.a...............  For Runways:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1.............  Strobe lights, approach lights, and     X    X    X
                     edge lights from 5 sm (8 km) of the
                     threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2.............  Centerline lights and taxiway           X    X    X
                     definition from 3 sm (5 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3.............  Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or     X
                     PAPI) from 3 sm (5 km) of the
                     threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.4.............  Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or          X    X
                     PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) of the
                     threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.5.............  Threshold lights and touchdown zone     X    X    X
                     lights from 2 sm (3 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.6.............  Markings within range of landing        X    X    X
                     lights for night/twilight (dusk)
                     scenes and as required by the
                     surface resolution test on daylight
                     scenes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.7.............  For circling approaches, the runway     X    X    X
                     of intended landing and associated
                     lighting must fade into view in a
                     non-distracting manner.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b...............  For Helicopter landing areas:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.1.............  Landing direction lights and raised     X    X    X
                     FATO lights from 1 sm (1.5 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.2.............  Flush mounted FATO lights, TOFL              X    X
                     lights, and the lighted windsock
                     from 0.5 sm (750 m).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3.............  Hover taxiway lighting (yellow/blue/         X    X
                     yellow cylinders) from TOFL area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.4.............  Markings within range of landing        X    X    X
                     lights for night/twilight (dusk)
                     scenes and as required by the
                     surface resolution test on daylight
                     scenes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.................  Airport or Helicopter landing area model content
                    The following prescribes the minimum requirements
                     for what must be provided in an airport visual
                     model and identifies other aspects of the airport
                     environment that must correspond with that model
                     for simulators at Level B, C, and D. The detail
                     must be developed using airport pictures,
                     construction drawings and maps, or other similar
                     data, or developed in accordance with published
                     regulatory material; however, this does not require
                     that airport or helicopter landing area models
                     contain details that are beyond the designed
                     capability of the currently qualified visual
                     system. For circling approaches, all requirements
                     of this section apply to the runway used for the
                     initial approach and to the runway of intended
                     landing. Only one ``primary'' taxi route from
                     parking to the runway end or helicopter takeoff/
                     landing area will be required for each ``in-use''
                     runway or helicopter takeoff/landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a...............  The surface and markings for each ``in-use'' runway
                     or helicopter landing area must include the
                     following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.1.............  For airports: Runway threshold          X    X    X
                     markings, runway numbers, touchdown
                     zone markings, fixed distance
                     markings, runway edge markings, and
                     runway centerline stripes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.2.............  For helicopter landing areas:           X    X    X
                     Standard heliport marking (``H''),
                     TOFL, FATO, and safety areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b...............  The lighting for each ``in-use'' runway or
                     helicopter landing area must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.1.............  For airports: Runway approach,          X    X    X
                     threshold, edge, end, centerline (if
                     applicable), touchdown zone (if
                     applicable), leadoff, and visual
                     landing aid lights or light systems
                     for that runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.2.............  For helicopter landing areas: Landing   X    X    X
                     direction, raised and flush FATO,
                     TOFL, windsock lighting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c...............  The taxiway surface and markings associated with
                     each ``in-use'' runway or helicopter landing area
                     must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c.1.............  For airports: Taxiway edge,             X    X    X
                     centerline (if appropriate), runway
                     hold lines, and ILS critical area(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c.2.............  For helicopter landing areas:           X    X    X
                     Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d...............  The taxiway lighting associated with each ``in-use''
                     runway or helicopter landing area must include the
                     following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d.1.............  For airports: Runway edge, centerline   X    X    X
                     (if appropriate), runway hold lines,
                     ILS critical areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d.2.............  For helicopter landing areas:           X    X    X
                     Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d.3.............  For airports: Taxiway lighting of                 X
                     correct color.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.................  Required visual model correlation with other aspects
                     of the airport environment simulation

[[Page 363]]

 
                    The following are the minimum visual model
                     correlation tests that must be conducted for Level
                     B, Level C, and Level D simulators, as indicated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a...............  The airport model must be properly      X    X    X
                     aligned with the navigational aids
                     that are associated with operations
                     at the ``in-use'' runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b...............  Slopes in runways, taxiways, and ramp   X    X    X
                     areas, if depicted in the visual
                     scene, must not cause distracting or
                     unrealistic effects.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.................  Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment
                    The following are the minimum correlation
                     comparisons that must be made for simulators at
                     Level B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a...............  Visual system compatibility with        X    X    X
                     aerodynamic programming.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b...............  Accurate portrayal of environment       X    X    X
                     relating to flight simulator
                     attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c...............  Visual cues to assess sink rate and     X    X    X
                     depth perception during landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.................  Scene quality
                    The following are the minimum scene quality tests
                     that must be conducted for simulators at Level B,
                     C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a...............  Light points free from distracting      X    X    X
                     jitter, smearing or streaking.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b...............  Surfaces and textural cues free from         X    X
                     apparent and distracting
                     quantization (aliasing).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c...............  Correct color and realistic textural              X
                     cues.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.................  Instructor controls of the following:
                    The following are the minimum instructor controls
                     that must be available in Level B, Level C, and
                     Level D simulators, as indicated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a...............  Environmental effects, e.g., cloud      X    X    X
                     base (if used), cloud effects, cloud
                     density, visibility in statute miles/
                     kilometers and RVR in feet/meters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b...............  Airport/Heliport selection...........   X    X    X
7.c...............  Airport lighting including variable     X    X    X
                     intensity.
7.d...............  Dynamic effects including ground and         X    X
                     flight traffic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                          End QPS Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            Begin Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.................  Sponsors are not required to provide    X    X    X
                     every detail of a runway or
                     helicopter landing area, but the
                     detail that is provided must be
                     correct within the capabilities of
                     the system.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
                             End Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------


                                    Table C3D--Functions and Subjective Tests
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                  QPS requirements                                           Information
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                  Simulator level
       Entry No.               Motion system (and special      ---------------------            Notes
                               aerodynamic model) effects         B      C      D
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
This table specifies motion effects that are required to indicate the threshold at which a flight crewmember
 must be able to recognize an event or situation. Where applicable, flight simulator pitch, side loading and
 directional control characteristics must be representative of the helicopter.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 364]]

 
1......................  Runway rumble, oleo deflection,           X      X      X   If time permits, different
                          ground speed, uneven runway, runway                         gross weights can also be
                          and taxiway centerline light                                selected as this may also
                          characteristics:                                            affect the associated
                         Procedure: After the helicopter has                          vibrations depending on
                          been pre-set to the takeoff position                        helicopter type. The
                          and then released, taxi at various                          associated motion effects
                          speeds with a smooth runway and note                        for the above tests should
                          the general characteristics of the                          also include an assessment
                          simulated runway rumble effects of                          of the effects of rolling
                          oleo deflections. Repeat the                                over centerline lights,
                          maneuver with a runway roughness of                         surface discontinuities of
                          50%, then with maximum roughness.                           uneven runways, and
                          Note the associated motion                                  various taxiway
                          vibrations affected by ground speed                         characteristics.
                          and runway roughness
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2......................  Friction Drag from Skid-type Landing             X      X
                          Gear:
                         Procedure: Perform a running takeoff
                          or a running landing and note an
                          increase in a fuselage vibration (as
                          opposed to rotor vibration) due to
                          the friction of dragging the skid
                          along the surface. This vibration
                          will lessen as the ground speed
                          decreases
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3......................  Rotor Out-of-Track and/or Out-of-         X      X      X   Does not require becoming
                          Balance condition:                                          airborne. The abnormal
                         Procedure: Select the malfunction or                         vibration for Out-of-Track
                          condition from the IOS. Start the                           and Out-of-Balance
                          engine(s) normally and check for an                         conditions should be
                          abnormal vibration for an Out-of-                           recognized in the
                          Track condition and check for an                            frequency range of the
                          abnormal vibration for an Out-of-                           inverse of the period for
                          Balance condition                                           each; i.e., 1/P for
                                                                                      vertical vibration, and 1/
                                                                                      P for lateral vibration.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4......................  Bumps associated with the landing         X      X      X   When the landing gear is
                          gear:                                                       extended or retracted,
                         Procedure: Perform a normal take-off                         motion bumps can be felt
                          paying special attention to the                             when the gear locks into
                          bumps that could be perceptible due                         position.
                          to maximum oleo extension after lift-
                          off
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5......................  Buffet during extension and               X      X      X
                          retraction of landing gear:
                         Procedure: Operate the landing gear.
                          Check that the motion cues of the
                          buffet experienced represent the
                          actual helicopter
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6......................  Failure of Dynamic Vibration Absorber     X      X      X
                          or similar system as appropriate for
                          the helicopter (e.g., droop stop or
                          static stop):
                         Procedure: May be accomplished any
                          time the rotor is engaged. Select
                          the appropriate failure at the IOS,
                          note an appropriate increase in
                          vibration and check that the
                          vibration intensity and frequency
                          increases with an increase in RPM
                          and an increase in collective
                          application
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7......................  Tail Rotor Drive Failure:                 X      X      X   The tail rotor operates in
                         Procedure: With the engine(s) running                        the medium frequency
                          and the rotor engaged--select the                           range, normally estimated
                          malfunction and note the immediate                          by multiplying the tail
                          increase of medium frequency                                rotor gear box ratio by
                          vibration                                                   the main rotor RPM. The
                                                                                      failure can be recognized
                                                                                      by an increase in the
                                                                                      vibrations in this
                                                                                      frequency range.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8......................  Touchdown cues for main and nose          X      X      X
                          gear:
                         Procedure: Conduct several normal
                          approaches with various rates of
                          descent. Check that the motion cues
                          for the touchdown bumps for each
                          descent rate are representative of
                          the actual helicopter
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 365]]

 
9......................  Tire failure dynamics:                           X      X   The pilot may notice some
                         Procedure: Simulate a single tire                            yawing with a multiple
                          failure and a multiple tire failure                         tire failure selected on
                                                                                      the same side. This should
                                                                                      require the use of the
                                                                                      pedal to maintain control
                                                                                      of the helicopter.
                                                                                      Dependent on helicopter
                                                                                      type, a single tire
                                                                                      failure may not be noticed
                                                                                      by the pilot and may not
                                                                                      cause any special motion
                                                                                      effect. Sound or vibration
                                                                                      may be associated with the
                                                                                      actual tire losing
                                                                                      pressure.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.....................  Engine malfunction and engine damage:     X      X      X
                         Procedure: The characteristics of an
                          engine malfunction as prescribed in
                          the malfunction definition document
                          for the particular flight simulator
                          must describe the special motion
                          effects felt by the pilot. Note the
                          associated engine instruments
                          varying according to the nature of
                          the malfunction and note the
                          replication of the effects of the
                          airframe vibration
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.....................  Tail boom strikes:                        X      X      X   The motion effect should be
                         Procedure: Tail-strikes can be                               felt as a noticeable nose
                          checked by over-rotation of the                             down pitching moment.
                          helicopter at a quick stop or
                          autorotation to the ground
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.....................  Vortex Ring State (Settling with                 X      X   When the aircraft begins to
                          Power):                                                     shudder, the application
                         Procedure: Specific procedures may                           of additional up
                          differ between helicopters and may                          collective increases the
                          be prescribed by the Helicopter                             vibration and sink rate.
                          Manufacturer or other subject matter                        One recovery method is to
                          expert. However, the following                              decrease collective to
                          information is provided for                                 enter vertical
                          illustrative purposes * * * To enter                        autorotation and/or use
                          the maneuver, reduce power below                            cyclic inputs to gain
                          hover power. Hold altitude with aft                         horizontal airspeed and
                          cyclic until the airspeed approaches                        exit from vortex ring
                          20 knots. Then allow the sink rate                          state.
                          to increase to 300 feet per minute
                          or more as the attitude is adjusted
                          to obtain an airspeed of less than
                          10 knots
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13.....................  Retreating Blade Stall:                          X      X   Correct recovery from
                         Procedure: Specific procedures may                           retreating blade stall
                          differ between helicopters and may                          requires the collective to
                          be prescribed by the Helicopter                             be lowered first, which
                          Manufacturer or other subject matter                        reduces blade angles and
                          expert. However, the following                              the angle of attack. Aft
                          information is provided for                                 cyclic can then be used to
                          illustrative purposes: To enter the                         slow the helicopter.
                          maneuver, increase forward airspeed;
                          the effect will be recognized
                          through the development of a low
                          frequency vibration, pitching up of
                          the nose, and a roll in the
                          direction of the retreating blade.
                          High weight, low rotor RPM, high
                          density altitude, turbulence or
                          steep, abrupt turns are all
                          conducive to retreating blade stall
                          at high forward airspeeds
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 366]]

 
14.....................  Translational Lift Effects:               X      X      X   ...........................
                         Procedure: From a stabilized in-
                          ground-effect (IGE) Hover begin a
                          forward acceleration. When passing
                          through the effective translational
                          lift range, the noticeable effect
                          will be a possible nose pitch-up in
                          some helicopters, an increase in the
                          rate of climb, and a temporary
                          increase in vibration level (in some
                          cases this vibration may be
                          pronounced). This effect is
                          experienced again upon deceleration
                          through the appropriate speed range.
                          During deceleration, the pitch and
                          rate of climb will have the reverse
                          effect, but there will be a similar,
                          temporary increase in vibration
                          level
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


                Table C3E--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS Requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                       Simulator level
    Entry number               Sound system         --------------------
                                                       B      C      D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
The following checks are performed during a normal flight profile,
 motion system ON.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1...................  Precipitation................            X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2...................  Rain removal equipment.......            X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3...................  Helicopter noises used by the            X      X
                       pilot for normal helicopter
                       operation..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4...................  Abnormal operations for which            X      X
                       there are associated sound
                       cues, including engine
                       malfunctions, landing gear
                       or tire malfunctions, tail
                       boom.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5...................  Sound of a crash when the                X      X
                       flight simulator is landed
                       in excess of limitations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


                Table C3F--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS Requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                       Simulator level
    Entry number             Special effects        --------------------
                                                       B      C      D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
This table specifies the minimum special effects necessary for the
 specified simulator level.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1...................  Braking Dynamics:............            X      X
                      Representations of the
                       dynamics of brake failure
                       (flight simulator pitch,
                       side-loading, and
                       directional control
                       characteristics
                       representative of the
                       helicopter), including
                       antiskid and decreased brake
                       efficiency due to high brake
                       temperatures (based on
                       helicopter related data),
                       sufficient to enable pilot
                       identification of the
                       problem and implementation
                       of appropriate procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2...................  Effects of Airframe and                  X      X
                       Engine Icing: Required only
                       for those helicopters
                       authorized for operations in
                       known icing conditions.
                      Procedure: With the simulator
                       airborne, in a clean
                       configuration, nominal
                       altitude and cruise
                       airspeed, autopilot on and
                       auto-throttles off, engine
                       and airfoil anti-ice/de-ice
                       systems deactivated;
                       activate icing conditions at
                       a rate that allows
                       monitoring of simulator and
                       systems response.
                      Icing recognition will
                       include an increase in gross
                       weight, airspeed decay,
                       change in simulator pitch
                       attitude, change in engine
                       performance indications
                       (other than due to airspeed
                       changes), and change in data
                       from pitot/static system, or
                       rotor out-of-track/balance.
                       Activate heating, anti-ice,
                       or de-ice systems
                       independently. Recognition
                       will include proper effects
                       of these systems, eventually
                       returning the simulated
                       helicopter to normal flight.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 367]]


                Table C3G--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS Requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                       Simulator level
    Entry number       Instructor Operating Station --------------------
                                  (IOS)                B      C      D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Functions in this table are subject to evaluation only if appropriate
 for the helicopter or the system is installed on the specific
 simulator.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1...................  Simulator Power Switch(es)...     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2...................  Helicopter conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.................  Gross weight, center of           X      X      X
                       gravity, fuel loading and
                       allocation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.................  Helicopter systems status....     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.................  Ground crew functions........     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3...................  Airports/Heliports.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.................  Number and selection.........     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.................  Runway or landing area            X      X      X
                       selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c.................  Landing surface conditions        X      X      X
                       (rough, smooth, icy, wet,
                       dry, snow).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d.................  Preset positions.............     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.................  Lighting controls............     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4...................  Environmental controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.................  Visibility (statute miles/        X      X      X
                       kilometers).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.................  Runway visual range (in feet/     X      X      X
                       meters).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.................  Temperature..................     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d.................  Climate conditions...........     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.................  Wind speed and direction.....     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5...................  Helicopter system                 X      X      X
                       malfunctions (Insertion/
                       deletion)..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6...................  Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.................  Problem (all) freeze/release.     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.................  Position (geographic) freeze/     X      X      X
                       release.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c.................  Repositioning (locations,         X      X      X
                       freezes, and releases).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.d.................  Ground speed control.........     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7...................  Remote IOS...................     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8...................  Sound Controls. On/off/           X      X      X
                       adjustment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9...................  Motion/Control Loading System.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.a.................  On/off/emergency stop........     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10..................  Observer Seats/Stations.          X      X      X
                       Position/Adjustment/Positive
                       restraint system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 368]]

         Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60--SAMPLE DOCUMENTS

                            Table of Contents

                             Title of Sample

Figure C4A Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement 
Evaluation.
Figure C4B Attachment: FFS Information Form
Figure A4C Sample Letter of Compliance
Figure C4D Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page
Figure C4E Sample Statement of Qualification--Certificate
Figure C4F Sample Statement of Qualification--Configuration List
Figure C4G Sample Statement of Qualification--List of Qualified Tasks
Figure C4H [Reserved]
Figure C4I Sample MQTG Index of Effective FFS Directives

   Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60--Figure C4A--Sample Letter, 
        Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation

                               Information
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  Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60--Figure C4C--Sample Letter of 
                               Compliance

                               Information

[[Page 372]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.114

Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60--Figure C4D--Sample Qualification 
                          Test Guide Cover Page

                               Information

[[Page 373]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.115

 Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60--Figure C4E--Sample Statement of 
                       Qualification--Certificate

                               Information

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      Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60--Figure C4H [Reserved]



[[Page 379]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.052

  Attachment 5 to Appendix C to Part 60--FSTD DIRECTIVES APPLICABLE TO 
                             HELICOPTER FFSs

           Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD) Directive

    FSTD Directive 1. Applicable to all FFSs, regardless of the original 
qualification basis and qualification date (original or upgrade), having 
Class II or Class III airport models available.
    Agency: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT
    Action: This is a retroactive requirement to have all Class II or 
Class III airport models meet current requirements.
________________________________________________________________________
    Summary: Notwithstanding the authorization listed in paragraph 13b 
in Appendices A and C of this part, this FSTD Directive requires each 
certificate holder to ensure that by May 30, 2009, except for the 
airport model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the designated level, 
each airport model used by the certificate holder's instructors or 
evaluators for training, checking, or testing under this chapter in an 
FFS, meets the definition of a Class II or Class III airport model as 
defined in 14CFR part 60. The completion of this requirement will not 
require a report, and the method used for keeping instructors and 
evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class 
III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the 
certificate holder whose employees are using the FFS, but the method 
used must be available for review by the TPAA for that certificate 
holder.
    Dates: FSTD Directive 1 becomes effective on May 30, 2008.

                         Specific Requirements:

    1. Part 60 requires that each FSTD be:
    a. Sponsored by a person holding or applying for an FAA operating 
certificate under Part 119, Part 141, or Part 142, or holding or 
applying for an FAA-approved training program under Part 63, Appendix C, 
for flight engineers, and
    b. Evaluated and issued an SOQ for a specific FSTD level.
    2. FFSs also require the installation of a visual system that is 
capable of providing an out-of-the-flight-deck view of airport models. 
However, historically these airport models were not routinely evaluated 
or required to meet any standardized criteria. This has led to qualified 
simulators containing airport models being used to meet FAA-approved 
training, testing, or checking requirements with potentially incorrect 
or inappropriate visual references.
    3. To prevent this from occurring in the future, by May 30, 2009, 
except for the airport model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the 
designated level, each certificate holder must assure that each airport 
model used for training, testing, or checking under this

[[Page 380]]

chapter in a qualified FFS meets the definition of a Class II or Class 
III airport model as defined in Appendix F of this part.
    4. These references describe the requirements for visual scene 
management and the minimum distances from which runway or landing area 
features must be visible for all levels of simulator. The visual scene 
or airport model must provide, for each ``in-use runway'' or ``in-use 
landing area,'' runway or landing area surface and markings, runway or 
landing area lighting, taxiway surface and markings, and taxiway 
lighting. Additional requirements include correlation of the visual 
scenes or airport models with other aspects of the airport environment, 
correlation of the aircraft and associated equipment, scene quality 
assessment features, and the extent to which the instructor is able to 
exercise control of these scenes or models.
    5. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply 
to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of 
intended landing.
    6. The details in these scenes or models must be developed using 
airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, 
or be developed in accordance with published regulatory material. 
However, FSTD Directive 1 does not require that airport models contain 
details that are beyond the initially designed capability of the visual 
system, as currently qualified. The recognized limitations to visual 
systems are as follows:
    a. Visual systems not required to have runway numbers as a part of 
the specific runway marking requirements are:
    (1) Link NVS and DNVS.
    (2) Novoview 2500 and 6000.
    (3) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and including, VITAL III, but 
not beyond.
    (4) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2.
    b. Visual systems required to display runway numbers only for LOFT 
scenes are:
    (1) FlightSafety VITAL IV.
    (2) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T.
    (3) Link-Miles Image II.
    c. Visual systems not required to have accurate taxiway edge 
lighting are:
    (1) Redifusion SP1.
    (2) FlightSafety Vital IV.
    (3) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT
    (4) XKD displays (even though the XKD image generator is capable of 
generating blue colored lights, the display cannot accommodate that 
color).
    7. A copy of this Directive must be filed in the MQTG in the 
designated FSTD Directive Section, and its inclusion must be annotated 
on the Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart. See Attachment 4, 
Appendices A through D of this part for a sample MQTG Index of Effective 
FSTD Directives chart.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Docket 
FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 60-5, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018; Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 
30275, June 27, 2018]

    Editorial Note: At 87 FR 75822, Dec. 9, 2022, appendix C to part 60 
was amended in the introductory ``Begin Information'' text, by removing 
the word ``NSPM'' and adding in its place the words ``Flight Standards 
Service'' in the first sentence; however this amendment could not be 
incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.



  Sec. Appendix D to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for 
                   Helicopter Flight Training Devices

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    This appendix establishes the standards for Helicopter Flight 
Training Device (FTD) evaluation and qualification at Level 4, Level 5, 
Level 6, or Level 7. The Flight Standards Service is responsible for the 
development, application, and implementation of the standards contained 
within this appendix. The procedures and criteria specified in this 
appendix will be used by the responsible Flight Standards office when 
conducting helicopter FTD evaluations.

                            Table of Contents

    1. Introduction.
    2. Applicability (Sec. Sec. 60.1, 60.2).
    3. Definitions (Sec. 60.3).
    4. Qualification Performance Standards (Sec. 60.4).
    5. Quality Management System (Sec. 60.5).
    6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.7).
    7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (Sec. 60.9).
    8. FTD Use (Sec. 60.11).
    9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (Sec. 60.13).
    10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification 
of the FTD (Sec. 60.14).
    11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.15).
    12. Additional Qualifications for Currently Qualified FTDs (Sec. 
60.16).
    13. Previously Qualified FTDs (Sec. 60.17).
    14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance 
Requirements (Sec. 60.19).
    15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (Sec. 60.20).
    16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Helicopter Types or Models 
(Sec. 60.21).
    17. Modifications to FTDs (Sec. 60.23).
    18. Operations with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative 
Components (Sec. 60.25).

[[Page 381]]

    19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration 
of Qualification (Sec. 60.27).
    20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
Qualification (Sec. 60.29).
    21. Recordkeeping and Reporting (Sec. 60.31).
    22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, 
Falsification, or Incorrect Statements (Sec. 60.33).
    23. [Reserved]
    24. Levels of FTD.
    25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
Agreement (BASA) (Sec. 60.37).
    Attachment 1 to Appendix D to Part 60--General FTD Requirements.
    Attachment 2 to Appendix D to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD) 
Objective Tests.
    Attachment 3 to Appendix D to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD) 
Subjective Evaluation.
    Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60--Sample Documents.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                             1. Introduction

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. This appendix contains background information as well as 
regulatory and informative material as described later in this section. 
To assist the reader in determining what areas are required and what 
areas are permissive, the text in this appendix is divided into two 
sections: ``QPS Requirements'' and ``Information.'' The QPS Requirements 
sections contain details regarding compliance with the part 60 rule 
language. These details are regulatory, but are found only in this 
appendix. The Information sections contain material that is advisory in 
nature, and designed to give the user general information about the 
regulation.
    b. [Reserved]
    c. The responsible Flight Standards office encourages the use of 
electronic media for all communication, including any record, report, 
request, test, or statement required by this appendix. The electronic 
media used must have adequate security provisions and be acceptable to 
the responsible Flight Standards office.
    d. Related Reading References.
    (1) 14 CFR part 60.
    (2) 14 CFR part 61.
    (3) 14 CFR part 63.
    (4) 14 CFR part 119.
    (5) 14 CFR part 121.
    (6) 14 CFR part 125.
    (7) 14 CFR part 135.
    (8) 14 CFR part 141.
    (9) 14 CFR part 142.
    (10) AC 120-28, as amended, Criteria for Approval of Category III 
Landing Weather Minima.
    (11) AC 120-29, as amended, Criteria for Approving Category I and 
Category II Landing Minima for part 121 operators.
    (12) AC 120-35, as amended, Flightcrew Member Line Operational 
Simulations: Line-Oriented Flight Training, Special Purpose Operational 
Training, Line Operational Evaluation.
    (13) AC 120-41, as amended, Criteria for Operational Approval of 
Airborne Wind Shear Alerting and Flight Guidance Systems.
    (14) AC 120-57, as amended, Surface Movement Guidance and Control 
System (SMGCS).
    (15) AC 120-63, as amended, Helicopter Simulator Qualification.
    (16) AC 150/5300-13, as amended, Airport Design.
    (17) AC 150/5340-1, as amended, Standards for Airport Markings.
    (18) AC 150/5340-4, as amended, Installation Details for Runway 
Centerline Touchdown Zone Lighting Systems.
    (19) AC 150/5390-2, as amended, Heliport Design.
    (20) AC 150/5340-19, as amended, Taxiway Centerline Lighting System.
    (21) AC 150/5340-24, as amended, Runway and Taxiway Edge Lighting 
System.
    (22) AC 150/5345-28, as amended, Precision Approach Path Indicator 
(PAPI) Systems.
    (23) International Air Transport Association document, ``Flight 
Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,'' as amended.
    (24) AC 29-2, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of 
Transport Category Rotorcraft.
    (25) AC 27-1, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of 
Normal Category Rotorcraft.
    (26) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Manual of 
Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators, as amended.
    (27) Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volume I, as 
amended and Volume II, as amended, The Royal Aeronautical Society, 
London, UK.
    (28) FAA Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards 
for Airline Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and 
Instrument Ratings.
    (29) The FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). An electronic 
version of the AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/atpubs.
    (30) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document number 436, 
Guidelines For Electronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended).

[[Page 382]]

    (31) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document 610, Guidance for 
Design and Integration of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simulators (as 
amended).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                 2. Applicability (Sec. 60.1 and 60.2)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.1, Applicability, or to Sec. 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to 
person who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized 
activities.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                       3. Definitions (Sec. 60.3)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    See Appendix F of this part for a list of definitions and 
abbreviations from part 1, part 60, and the QPS appendices of part 60.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

           4. Qualification Performance Standards (Sec. 60.4)

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.4, Qualification Performance Standards.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                5. Quality Management System (Sec. 60.5)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    Additional regulatory material and informational material regarding 
Quality Management Systems for FTDs may be found in Appendix E of this 
part.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

           6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.7)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The intent of the language in Sec. 60.7(b) is to have a specific 
FTD, identified by the sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-approved 
flight training program for the helicopter simulated during the 12-month 
period described. The identification of the specific FTD may change from 
one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor 
sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least once during the prescribed 
period. There is no minimum number of hours or minimum FTD periods 
required.
    b. The following examples describe acceptable operational practices:
    (1) Example One.
    (a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, specific FTD for its own use, 
in its own facility or elsewhere--this single FTD forms the basis for 
the sponsorship. The sponsor uses that FTD at least once in each 12-
month period in that sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for 
the helicopter simulated. This 12-month period is established according 
to the following schedule:
    (i) If the FTD was qualified prior to May 30, 2008, the 12-month 
period begins on the date of the first continuing qualification 
evaluation conducted in accordance with Sec. 60.19 after May 30, 2008, 
and continues for each subsequent 12-month period;
    (ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, 2008, will be required 
to undergo an initial or upgrade evaluation in accordance with Sec. 
60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation is complete, the first 
continuing qualification evaluation will be conducted within 6 months. 
The 12 month continuing qualification evaluation cycle begins on that 
date and continues for each subsequent 12-month period.
    (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FTD use required.
    (c) The identification of the specific FTD may change from one 12-
month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor 
sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least once during the prescribed 
period.
    (2) Example Two.
    (a) A sponsor sponsors an additional number of FTDs, in its facility 
or elsewhere. Each additionally sponsored FTD must be--
    (i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight 
training program for the helicopter simulated (as described in Sec. 
60.7(d)(1)); or
    (ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder in that other 
certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the 
helicopter simulated (as described in Sec. 60.7(d)(1)). This 12-month 
period is established in the same manner as in example one; or
    (iii) Provided a statement each year from a qualified pilot, (after 
having flown the helicopter not the subject FTD or another FTD, during 
the preceding 12-month period) stating that the subject FTD's 
performance and handling qualities represent the helicopter (as 
described in Sec. 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is provided at least once 
in each 12-month period established in the same manner as in example 
one.

[[Page 383]]

    (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FTD use required.
    (3) Example Three.
    (a) A sponsor in New York (in this example, a Part 142 certificate 
holder) establishes ``satellite'' training centers in Chicago and 
Moscow.
    (b) The satellite function means that the Chicago and Moscow centers 
must operate under the New York center's certificate (in accordance with 
all of the New York center's practices, procedures, and policies; e.g., 
instructor and/or technician training/checking requirements, record 
keeping, QMS program).
    (c) All of the FTDs in the Chicago and Moscow centers could be dry-
leased (i.e., the certificate holder does not have and use FAA-approved 
flight training programs for the FTDs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) 
because--
    (i) Each FTD in the Chicago center and each FTD in the Moscow center 
is used at least once each 12-month period by another FAA certificate 
holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training 
program for the helicopter (as described in Sec. 60.7(d)(1)); or
    (ii) A statement is obtained from a qualified pilot (having flown 
the helicopter, not the subject FTD or another FTD during the preceding 
12-month period) stating that the performance and handling qualities of 
each FTD in the Chicago and Moscow centers represents the helicopter (as 
described in Sec. 60.7(d)(2)).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

       7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (Sec. 60.9)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    The phrase ``as soon as practicable'' in Sec. 60.9(a) means without 
unnecessarily disrupting or delaying beyond a reasonable time the 
training, evaluation, or experience being conducted in the FTD.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                        8. FTD Use (Sec. 60.11).

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.11, FTD Use.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

            9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (Sec. 60.13)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. Flight test data used to validate FTD performance and handling 
qualities must have been gathered in accordance with a flight test 
program containing the following:
    (1) A flight test plan consisting of:
    (a) The maneuvers and procedures required for aircraft certification 
and simulation programming and validation.
    (b) For each maneuver or procedure--
    (i) The procedures and control input the flight test pilot and/or 
engineer used.
    (ii) The atmospheric and environmental conditions.
    (iii) The initial flight conditions.
    (iv) The helicopter configuration, including weight and center of 
gravity.
    (v) The data to be gathered.
    (vi) All other information necessary to recreate the flight test 
conditions in the FTD.
    (2) Appropriately qualified flight test personnel.
    (3) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisition equipment or 
system(s), including appropriate data reduction and analysis methods and 
techniques, acceptable to the FAA's Aircraft Certification Service.
    b. The data, regardless of source, must be presented:
    (1) In a format that supports the FTD validation process;
    (2) In a manner that is clearly readable and annotated correctly and 
completely;
    (3) With resolution sufficient to determine compliance with the 
tolerances set forth in Attachment 2, Table D2A Appendix D;
    (4) With any necessary guidance information provided; and
    (5) Without alteration, adjustments, or bias. Data may be corrected 
to address known data calibration errors provided that an explanation of 
the methods used to correct the errors appears in the QTG. The corrected 
data may be re-scaled, digitized, or otherwise manipulated to fit the 
desired presentation
    c. After completion of any additional flight test, a flight test 
report must be submitted in support of the validation data. The report 
must contain sufficient data and rationale to support qualification of 
the FTD at the level requested.
    d. As required by Sec. 60.13(f), the sponsor must notify the 
responsible Flight Standards office when it becomes aware that an 
addition to or a revision of the flight related data or helicopter 
systems related data is available if this data is used to program and 
operate a qualified FTD. The data referred to in this sub-section is 
data used to validate the performance, handling qualities, or other

[[Page 384]]

characteristics of the aircraft, including data related to any relevant 
changes occurring after the type certification is issued. The sponsor 
must--
    (1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards 
office of the existence of this data; and
    (a) Within 45 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards 
office of--
    (b) The schedule to incorporate this data into the FTD; or
    (c) The reason for not incorporating this data into the FTD.
    e. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a 
``snapshot test'' or a ``series of snapshot tests'' results in lieu of a 
time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that 
a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the 
``snapshot.'' The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior 
to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap 
shot.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    f. The FTD sponsor is encouraged to maintain a liaison with the 
manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the 
aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the 
manufacturer is no longer in business), and if appropriate, with the 
person having supplied the aircraft data package for the FTD in order to 
facilitate the notification described in this paragraph.
    g. It is the intent of the responsible Flight Standards office that 
for new aircraft entering service, at a point well in advance of 
preparation of the QTG, the sponsor should submit to the responsible 
Flight Standards office for approval, a descriptive document (see 
Appendix C of this part, Table C2D, Sample Validation Data Roadmap for 
Helicopters) containing the plan for acquiring the validation data, 
including data sources. This document should clearly identify sources of 
data for all required tests, a description of the validity of these data 
for a specific engine type and thrust rating configuration, and the 
revision levels of all avionics affecting the performance or flying 
qualities of the aircraft. Additionally, this document should provide 
other information such as the rationale or explanation for cases where 
data or data parameters are missing, instances where engineering 
simulation data are used, or where flight test methods require further 
explanations. It should also provide a brief narrative describing the 
cause and effect of any deviation from data requirements. The aircraft 
manufacturer may provide this document.
    h. There is no requirement for any flight test data supplier to 
submit a flight test plan or program prior to gathering flight test 
data. However, the responsible Flight Standards office notes that 
inexperienced data gatherers often provide data that is irrelevant, 
improperly marked, or lacking adequate justification for selection. 
Other problems include inadequate information regarding initial 
conditions or test maneuvers. The responsible Flight Standards office 
has been forced to refuse these data submissions as validation data for 
an FTD evaluation. For this reason the responsible Flight Standards 
office recommends that any data supplier not previously experienced in 
this area review the data necessary for programming and for validating 
the performance of the FTD and discuss the flight test plan anticipated 
for acquiring such data with the responsible Flight Standards office 
well in advance of commencing the flight tests.
    i. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider, on a case-
by-case basis, whether to approve supplemental validation data derived 
from flight data recording systems such as a Quick Access Recorder or 
Flight Data Recorder.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of 
                         the FTD (Sec. 60.14).

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. In the event that the responsible Flight Standards office 
determines that special equipment or specifically qualified persons will 
be required to conduct an evaluation, the responsible Flight Standards 
office will make every attempt to notify the sponsor at least one (1) 
week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in advance of the evaluation. 
Examples of special equipment include flight control measurement 
devices, accelerometers, or oscilloscopes. Examples of specially 
qualified personnel include individuals specifically qualified to 
install or use any special equipment when its use is required.
    b. Examples of a special evaluation include an evaluation conducted 
after an FTD is moved; at the request of the TPAA; or as a result of 
comments received from users of the FTD that raise questions about the 
continued qualification or use of the FTD.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.15).

________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 385]]

                          Begin QPS Requirement

    a. In order to be qualified at a particular qualification level, the 
FTD must:
    (1) Meet the general requirements listed in Attachment 1 of this 
appendix.
    (2) Meet the objective testing requirements listed in Attachment 2 
of this appendix (Level 4 FTDs do not require objective tests).
    (3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjective tests listed in 
Attachment 3 of this appendix.
    b. The request described in Sec. 60.15(a) must include all of the 
following:
    (1) A statement that the FTD meets all of the applicable provisions 
of this part and all applicable provisions of the QPS.
    (2) A confirmation that the sponsor will forward to the responsible 
Flight Standards office the statement described in Sec. 60.15(b) in 
such time as to be received no later than 5 business days prior to the 
scheduled evaluation and may be forwarded to the responsible Flight 
Standards office via traditional or electronic means.
    (3) Except for a Level 4 FTD, a QTG, acceptable to the responsible 
Flight Standards office, that includes all of the following:
    (a) Objective data obtained from aircraft testing or another 
approved source.
    (b) Correlating objective test results obtained from the performance 
of the FTD as prescribed in the appropriate QPS.
    (c) The result of FTD subjective tests prescribed in the appropriate 
QPS.
    (d) A description of the equipment necessary to perform the 
evaluation for initial qualification and the continuing qualification 
evaluations.
    c. The QTG described in paragraph a(3) of this section must provide 
the documented proof of compliance with the FTD objective tests in 
Attachment 2, Table D2A of this appendix.
    d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by the sponsor, or the 
sponsor's agent on behalf of the sponsor, to the responsible Flight 
Standards office for review and approval, and must include, for each 
objective test:
    (1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions.
    (2) Pertinent and complete instructions for conducting automatic and 
manual tests.
    (3) A means of comparing the FTD test results to the objective data.
    (4) Any other information as necessary to assist in the evaluation 
of the test results.
    (5) Other information appropriate to the qualification level of the 
FTD.
    e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, 
must include the following:
    (1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and FAA approval signature blocks 
(see Attachment 4, Figure D4C, of this appendix, for a sample QTG cover 
page).
    (2) A continuing qualification evaluation requirements page. This 
page will be used by the responsible Flight Standards office to 
establish and record the frequency with which continuing qualification 
evaluations must be conducted and any subsequent changes that may be 
determined by the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with 
Sec. 60.19. See Attachment 4, Figure D4G, of this appendix for a sample 
Continuing Qualification Evaluation Requirements page.
    (3) An FTD information page that provides the information listed in 
this paragraph, if applicable (see Attachment 4, Figure D4B, of this 
appendix, for a sample FTD information page). For convertible FTDs, the 
sponsor must submit a separate page for each configuration of the FTD.
    (a) The sponsor's FTD identification number or code.
    (b) The helicopter model and series being simulated.
    (c) The aerodynamic data revision number or reference.
    (d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model and the aerodynamic 
coefficient data used to modify the basic model.
    (e) The engine model(s) and its data revision number or reference.
    (f) The flight control data revision number or reference.
    (g) The flight management system identification and revision level.
    (h) The FTD model and manufacturer.
    (i) The date of FTD manufacture.
    (j) The FTD computer identification.
    (k) The visual system model and manufacturer, including display 
type.
    (l) The motion system type and manufacturer, including degrees of 
freedom.
    (4) A Table of Contents.
    (5) A log of revisions and a list of effective pages.
    (6) List of all relevant data references.
    (7) A glossary of terms and symbols used (including sign conventions 
and units).
    (8) Statements of Compliance and Capability (SOC) with certain 
requirements.
    (9) Recording procedures or equipment required to accomplish the 
objective tests.
    (10) The following information for each objective test designated in 
Attachment 2 of this appendix, as applicable to the qualification level 
sought:
    (a) Name of the test.
    (b) Objective of the test.
    (c) Initial conditions.
    (d) Manual test procedures.
    (e) Automatic test procedures (if applicable).
    (f) Method for evaluating FTD objective test results.
    (g) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the 
automatic test(s).
    (h) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the 
manual test(s).
    (i) Tolerances for relevant parameters.

[[Page 386]]

    (j) Source of Validation Data (document and page number).
    (k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located in a separate binder, a 
cross reference for the identification and page number for pertinent 
data location must be provided).
    (l) FTD Objective Test Results as obtained by the sponsor. Each test 
result must reflect the date completed and must be clearly labeled as a 
product of the device being tested.
    f. A convertible FTD is addressed as a separate FTD for each model 
and series helicopter to which it will be converted and for the FAA 
qualification level sought. The responsible Flight Standards office will 
conduct an evaluation for each configuration. If a sponsor seeks 
qualification for two or more models of a helicopter type using a 
convertible FTD, the sponsor must provide a QTG for each helicopter 
model, or a QTG for the first helicopter model and a supplement to that 
QTG for each additional helicopter model. The responsible Flight 
Standards office will conduct evaluations for each helicopter model.
    g. The form and manner of presentation of objective test results in 
the QTG must include the following:
    (1) The sponsor's FTD test results must be recorded in a manner 
acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that allows easy 
comparison of the FTD test results to the validation data (e.g., use of 
a multi-channel recorder, line printer, cross plotting, overlays, 
transparencies).
    (2) FTD results must be labeled using terminology common to 
helicopter parameters as opposed to computer software identifications.
    (3) Validation data documents included in a QTG may be 
photographically reduced only if such reduction will not alter the 
graphic scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpretation or 
resolution.
    (4) Scaling on graphical presentations must provide the resolution 
necessary to evaluate the parameters shown in Attachment 2, Table D2A of 
this appendix.
    (5) Tests involving time histories, data sheets (or transparencies 
thereof) and FTD test results must be clearly marked with appropriate 
reference points to ensure an accurate comparison between FTD and 
helicopter with respect to time. Time histories recorded via a line 
printer are to be clearly identified for cross-plotting on the 
helicopter data. Over-plots may not obscure the reference data.
    h. The sponsor may elect to complete the QTG objective and 
subjective tests at the manufacturer's facility or at the sponsor's 
training facility. If the tests are conducted at the manufacturer's 
facility, the sponsor must repeat at least one-third of the tests at the 
sponsor's training facility in order to substantiate FTD performance. 
The QTG must be clearly annotated to indicate when and where each test 
was accomplished. Tests conducted at the manufacturer's facility and at 
the sponsor's training facility must be conducted after the FTD is 
assembled with systems and sub-systems functional and operating in an 
interactive manner. The test results must be submitted to the 
responsible Flight Standards office.
    i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the MQTG at the FTD location.
    j. All FTDs for which the initial qualification is conducted after 
May 30, 2014, must have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including all 
objective data obtained from helicopter testing, or another approved 
source (reformatted or digitized), together with correlating objective 
test results obtained from the performance of the FTD (reformatted or 
digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The eMQTG must also contain 
the general FTD performance or demonstration results (reformatted or 
digitized) prescribed in this appendix, and a description of the 
equipment necessary to perform the initial qualification evaluation and 
the continuing qualification evaluations. The eMQTG must include the 
original validation data used to validate FTD performance and handling 
qualities in either the original digitized format from the data supplier 
or an electronic scan of the original time-history plots that were 
provided by the data supplier. A copy of the eMQTG must be provided to 
the responsible Flight Standards office.
    k. All other FTDs (not covered in subparagraph ``j'') must have an 
electronic copy of the MQTG by and after May 30, 2014. An electronic 
copy of the MQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards 
office. This may be provided by an electronic scan presented in a 
Portable Document File (PDF), or similar format acceptable to the 
responsible Flight Standards office.
    l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualification evaluation 
conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must 
also provide a person knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft 
and the operation of the FTD.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    m. Only those FTDs that are sponsored by a certificate holder as 
defined in Appendix F of this part will be evaluated by the responsible 
Flight Standards office. However, other FTD evaluations may be conducted 
on a case-by-case basis as the Administrator deems appropriate, but only 
in accordance with applicable agreements.
    n. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct an 
evaluation for each configuration, and each FTD must be evaluated as 
completely as possible. To ensure a thorough

[[Page 387]]

and uniform evaluation, each FTD is subjected to the general FTD 
requirements in Attachment 1 of this appendix, the objective tests 
listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix, and the subjective tests listed 
in Attachment 3 of this appendix. The evaluations described herein will 
include, but not necessarily be limited to the following:
    (1) Helicopter responses, including longitudinal and lateral-
directional control responses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix).
    (2) Performance in authorized portions of the simulated helicopter's 
operating envelope, to include tasks evaluated by the responsible Flight 
Standards office in the areas of surface operations, takeoff, climb, 
cruise, descent, approach and landing, as well as abnormal and emergency 
operations (see Attachment 2 of this appendix).
    (3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this 
appendix).
    (4) Flight deck configuration (see Attachment 1 of this appendix).
    (5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor station functions checks 
(see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix).
    (6) Helicopter systems and sub-systems (as appropriate) as compared 
to the helicopter simulated (see attachment 1 and attachment 3 of this 
appendix).
    (7) FTD systems and sub-systems, including force cueing (motion), 
visual, and aural (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attachment 1 and 
Attachment 2 of this appendix).
    (8) Certain additional requirements, depending upon the 
qualification level sought, including equipment or circumstances that 
may become hazardous to the occupants. The sponsor may be subject to 
Occupational Safety and Health Administration requirements.
    o. The responsible Flight Standards office administers the objective 
and subjective tests, which include an examination of functions. The 
tests include a qualitative assessment of the FTD by a pilot from the 
responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation team leader may 
assign other qualified personnel to assist in accomplishing the 
functions examination and/or the objective and subjective tests 
performed during an evaluation when required.
    (1) Objective tests provide a basis for measuring and evaluating FTD 
performance and determining compliance with the requirements of this 
part.
    (2) Subjective tests provide a basis for:
    (a) Evaluating the capability of the FTD to perform over a typical 
utilization period;
    (b) Determining that the FTD satisfactorily simulates each required 
task;
    (c) Verifying correct operation of the FTD controls, instruments, 
and systems; and
    (d) Demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this part.
    p. The tolerances for the test parameters listed in Attachment 2 of 
this appendix reflect the range of tolerances acceptable to the 
responsible Flight Standards office for FTD validation and are not to be 
confused with design tolerances specified for FTD manufacture. In making 
decisions regarding tests and test results, the responsible Flight 
Standards office relies on the use of operational and engineering 
judgment in the application of data (including consideration of the way 
in which the flight test was flown and way the data was gathered and 
applied), data presentations, and the applicable tolerances for each 
test.
    q. In addition to the scheduled continuing qualification evaluation, 
each FTD is subject to evaluations conducted by the responsible Flight 
Standards office at any time without prior notification to the sponsor. 
Such evaluations would be accomplished in a normal manner (i.e., 
requiring exclusive use of the FTD for the conduct of objective and 
subjective tests and an examination of functions) if the FTD is not 
being used for flight crewmember training, testing, or checking. 
However, if the FTD were being used, the evaluation would be conducted 
in a non-exclusive manner. This non-exclusive evaluation will be 
conducted by the FTD evaluator accompanying the check airman, 
instructor, Aircrew Program Designee (APD), or FAA inspector aboard the 
FTD along with the student(s) and observing the operation of the FTD 
during the training, testing, or checking activities.
    r. Problems with objective test results are handled as follows:
    (1) If a problem with an objective test result is detected by the 
evaluation team during an evaluation, the test may be repeated or the 
QTG may be amended.
    (2) If it is determined that the results of an objective test do not 
support the qualification level requested but do support a lower level, 
the responsible Flight Standards office may qualify the FTD at a lower 
level.
    s. After an FTD is successfully evaluated, the responsible Flight 
Standards office issues an SOQ to the sponsor. The responsible Flight 
Standards office recommends the FTD to the TPAA, who will approve the 
FTD for use in a flight training program. The SOQ will be issued at the 
satisfactory conclusion of the initial or continuing qualification 
evaluation and will list the tasks for which the FTD is qualified, 
referencing the tasks described in Table D1B in Attachment 1 of this 
appendix. However, it is the sponsor's responsibility to obtain TPAA 
approval prior to using the FTD in an FAA-approved flight training 
program.
    t. Under normal circumstances, the responsible Flight Standards 
office establishes a date for the initial or upgrade evaluation within 
ten (10) working days after determining that a complete QTG is 
acceptable.

[[Page 388]]

Unusual circumstances may warrant establishing an evaluation date before 
this determination is made. A sponsor may schedule an evaluation date as 
early as 6 months in advance. However, there may be a delay of 45 days 
or more in rescheduling and completing the evaluation if the sponsor is 
unable to meet the scheduled date. See Attachment 4, of this appendix, 
Figure D4A, Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement 
Evaluation.
    u. The numbering system used for objective test results in the QTG 
should closely follow the numbering system set out in Attachment 2, FTD 
Objective Tests, Table D2A of this appendix.
    v. Contact the responsible Flight Standards office for additional 
information regarding the preferred qualifications of pilots used to 
meet the requirements of Sec. 60.15(d).
    w. Examples of the exclusions for which the FTD might not have been 
subjectively tested by the sponsor or the responsible Flight Standards 
office and for which qualification might not be sought or granted, as 
described in Sec. 60.15(g)(6), include approaches to and departures 
from slopes and pinnacles.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

12. Additional Qualifications for Currently Qualified FTDs (Sec. 60.16)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.16, Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FTD.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

               13. Previously Qualified FTDs (Sec. 60.17)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. In instances where a sponsor plans to remove an FTD from active 
status for a period of less than two years, the following procedures 
apply:
    (1) The responsible Flight Standards office must be notified in 
writing and the notification must include an estimate of the period that 
the FTD will be inactive.
    (2) Continuing Qualification evaluations will not be scheduled 
during the inactive period.
    (3) The responsible Flight Standards office will remove the FTD from 
the list of qualified FTDs on a mutually established date not later than 
the date on which the first missed continuing qualification evaluation 
would have been scheduled.
    (4) Before the FTD is restored to qualified status, it must be 
evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation 
content and the time required to accomplish the evaluation is based on 
the number of continuing qualification evaluations and sponsor-conducted 
quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity.
    (5) The sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office 
of any changes to the original scheduled time out of service.
    b. FTDs and replacement FTD systems qualified prior to May 30, 2008, 
are not required to meet the general FTD requirements, the objective 
test requirements, and the subjective test requirements of Attachments 
1, 2, and 3, respectively, of this appendix as long as the FTD continues 
to meet the test requirements contained in the MQTG developed under the 
original qualification basis.
    c. After (1 year after date of publication of the final rule in the 
Federal Register) each visual scene and airport model installed in and 
available for use in a qualified FTD must meet the requirements 
described in Attachment 3 of this appendix.
    d. Simulators qualified prior to May 30, 2008, may be updated. If an 
evaluation is deemed appropriate or necessary by the responsible Flight 
Standards office after such an update, the evaluation will not require 
an evaluation to standards beyond those against which the simulator was 
originally qualified.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    e. Other certificate holders or persons desiring to use an FTD may 
contract with FTD sponsors to use FTDs previously qualified at a 
particular level for a helicopter type and approved for use within an 
FAA-approved flight training program. Such FTDs are not required to 
undergo an additional qualification process, except as described in 
Sec. 60.16.
    f. Each FTD user must obtain approval from the appropriate TPAA to 
use any FTD in an FAA-approved flight training program.
    g. The intent of the requirement listed in Sec. 60.17(b), for each 
FTD to have an SOQ within 6 years, is to have the availability of that 
statement (including the configuration list and the limitations to 
authorizations) to provide a complete picture of the FTD inventory 
regulated by the FAA. The issuance of the statement will not require any 
additional evaluation or require any adjustment to the evaluation basis 
for the FTD.
    h. Downgrading of an FTD is a permanent change in qualification 
level and will necessitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to reflect the 
revised qualification level, as appropriate. If a temporary restriction 
is

[[Page 389]]

placed on an FTD because of a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative 
component or on-going repairs, the restriction is not a permanent change 
in qualification level. Instead, the restriction is temporary and is 
removed when the reason for the restriction has been resolved.
    i. It is not the intent of the responsible Flight Standards office 
to discourage the improvement of existing simulation (e.g., the 
``updating'' of a control loading system, or the replacement of the IOS 
with a more capable unit) by requiring the ``updated'' device to meet 
the qualification standards current at the time of the update. Depending 
on the extent of the update, the responsible Flight Standards office may 
require that the updated device be evaluated and may require that an 
evaluation include all or a portion of the elements of an initial 
evaluation. However, the standards against which the device would be 
evaluated are those that are found in the MQTG for that device.
    j. The responsible Flight Standards office will determine the 
evaluation criteria for an FTD that has been removed from active status 
for a prolonged period. The criteria will be based on the number of 
continuing qualification evaluations and quarterly inspections missed 
during the period of inactivity. For example, if the FTD were out of 
service for a 1 year period, it would be necessary to complete the 
entire QTG, since all of the quarterly evaluations would have been 
missed. The responsible Flight Standards office will also consider how 
the FTD was stored, whether parts were removed from the FTD and whether 
the FTD was disassembled.
    k. The FTD will normally be requalified using the FAA-approved MQTG 
and the criteria that was in effect prior to its removal from 
qualification. However, inactive periods of 2 years or more will require 
re-qualification under the standards in effect and current at the time 
of requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification, Evaluation, and Maintenance 
                       Requirements (Sec. 60.19)

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

    a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of four evenly spaced 
inspections throughout the year. The objective test sequence and content 
of each inspection in this sequence must be developed by the sponsor and 
must be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.
    b. The description of the functional preflight check must be 
contained in the sponsor's QMS.
    c. Record ``functional preflight'' in the FTD discrepancy log book 
or other acceptable location, including any item found to be missing, 
malfunctioning, or inoperative.
    d. During the continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the 
responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must also provide a 
person knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the 
operation of the FTD.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    e. The sponsor's test sequence and the content of each quarterly 
inspection required in Sec. 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a 
mix from the objective test requirement areas listed as follows:
    (1) Performance.
    (2) Handling qualities.
    (3) Motion system (where appropriate).
    (4) Visual system (where appropriate).
    (5) Sound system (where appropriate).
    (6) Other FTD systems.
    f. If the evaluator plans to accomplish specific tests during a 
normal continuing qualification evaluation that requires the use of 
special equipment or technicians, the sponsor will be notified as far in 
advance of the evaluation as practical; but not less than 72 hours. 
Examples of such tests include latencies and control sweeps.
    g. The continuing qualification evaluations described in Sec. 
60.19(b) will normally require 4 hours of FTD time. However, flexibility 
is necessary to address abnormal situations or situations involving 
aircraft with additional levels of complexity (e.g., computer controlled 
aircraft). The sponsor should anticipate that some tests may require 
additional time. The continuing qualification evaluations will consist 
of the following:
    (1) Review of the results of the quarterly inspections conducted by 
the sponsor since the last scheduled continuing qualification 
evaluation.
    (2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 objective tests from the 
MQTG that provide an adequate opportunity to evaluate the performance of 
the FTD. The tests chosen will be performed either automatically or 
manually and should be able to be conducted within approximately one-
third (1/3) of the allotted FTD time.
    (3) A subjective evaluation of the FTD to perform a representative 
sampling of the tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appendix. This 
portion of the evaluation should take approximately two-thirds (2/3) of 
the allotted FTD time.
    (4) An examination of the functions of the FTD may include the 
motion system, visual

[[Page 390]]

system, sound system as applicable, instructor operating station, and 
the normal functions and simulated malfunctions of the simulated 
helicopter systems. This examination is normally accomplished 
simultaneously with the subjective evaluation requirements.
    h. The requirement established in Sec. 60.19(b)(4) regarding the 
frequency of responsible Flight Standards office-conducted continuing 
qualification evaluations for each FTD is typically 12 months. However, 
the establishment and satisfactory implementation of an approved QMS for 
a sponsor will provide a basis for adjusting the frequency of 
evaluations to exceed 12-month intervals.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

               15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (Sec. 60.20)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.20. Logging FTD Discrepancies.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Helicopter Types or Models 
                              (Sec. 60.21)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.21, Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Helicopter Types or Models.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                 17. Modifications to FTDs (Sec. 60.23)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. The notification described in Sec. 60.23(c)(2) must include a 
complete description of the planned modification, with a description of 
the operational and engineering effect the proposed modification will 
have on the operation of the FTD and the results that are expected with 
the modification incorporated.
    b. Prior to using the modified FTD:
    (1) All the applicable objective tests completed with the 
modification incorporated, including any necessary updates to the MQTG 
(e.g., accomplishment of FSTD Directives) must be acceptable to the 
responsible Flight Standards office; and
    (2) The sponsor must provide the responsible Flight Standards office 
with a statement signed by the MR that the factors listed in Sec. 
60.15(b) are addressed by the appropriate personnel as described in that 
section.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    c. FSTD Directives are considered modification of an FTD. See 
Attachment 4 of this appendix, Figure D4I for a sample index of 
effective FSTD Directives. See Attachment 6 of this appendix for a list 
of all effective FSTD Directives applicable to Helicopter FTDs.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 18. Operation with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components 
                              (Sec. 60.25)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The sponsor's responsibility with respect to Sec. 60.25(a) is 
satisfied when the sponsor fairly and accurately advises the user of the 
current status of an FTD, including any missing, malfunctioning, or 
inoperative (MMI) component(s).
    b. It is the responsibility of the instructor, check airman, or 
representative of the administrator conducting training, testing, or 
checking to exercise reasonable and prudent judgment to determine if any 
MMI component is necessary for the satisfactory completion of a specific 
maneuver, procedure, or task.
    c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day period described in Sec. 
60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend 
the deadline until the next business day.
    d. In accordance with the authorization described in Sec. 60.25(b), 
the sponsor may develop a discrepancy prioritizing system to accomplish 
repairs based on the level of impact on the capability of the FTD. 
Repairs having a larger impact on the FTD's ability to provide the 
required training, evaluation, or flight experience will have a higher 
priority for repair or replacement.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
                       Qualification (Sec. 60.27)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FTD will be maintained 
during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, 
hydraulic, and electrical systems;

[[Page 391]]

routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; control of the environmental 
factors in which the FTD is to be maintained) there is a greater 
likelihood that the responsible Flight Standards office will be able to 
determine the amount of testing that is required for requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
                       Qualification (Sec. 60.29)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FTD will be maintained 
during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, 
hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic 
fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FTD is to be 
maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight 
Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing that is 
required for requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

             21. Record Keeping and Reporting (Sec. 60.31)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. FTD modifications can include hardware or software changes. For 
FTD modifications involving software programming changes, the record 
required by Sec. 60.31(a)(2) must consist of the name of the aircraft 
system software, aerodynamic model, or engine model change, the date of 
the change, a summary of the change, and the reason for the change.
    b. If a coded form for record keeping is used, it must provide for 
the preservation and retrieval of information with appropriate security 
or controls to prevent the inappropriate alteration of such records 
after the fact.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, 
                  or Incorrect Statements (Sec. 60.33)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.33, Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, 
Falsification, or Incorrect Statements

                             23. [Reserved]

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                            24. Levels of FTD

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The following is a general description of each level of FTD. 
Detailed standards and tests for the various levels of FTDs are fully 
defined in Attachments 1 through 3 of this appendix.
    (1) Level 4. A Level 4 device is one that may have an open 
helicopter-specific flight deck area, or an enclosed helicopter-specific 
flight deck and at least one operating system. Air/ground logic is 
required (no aerodynamic programming required). All displays may be 
flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in 
the aircraft. All controls, switches, and knobs may be touch sensitive 
activation (not capable of manual manipulation of the flight controls) 
or may physically replicate the aircraft in control operation.
    (2) Level 5. A Level 5 device is one that may have an open 
helicopter-specific flight deck area, or an enclosed helicopter-specific 
flight deck and a generic aerodynamic program with at least one 
operating system and control loading representative of the simulated 
helicopter. The control loading need only represent the helicopter at an 
approach speed and configuration. All displays may be flat/LCD panel 
representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft. 
Primary and secondary flight controls (e.g., rudder, aileron, elevator, 
flaps, spoilers/speed brakes, engine controls, landing gear, nosewheel 
steering, trim, brakes) must be physical controls. All other controls, 
switches, and knobs may be touch sensitive activation.
    (3) Level 6. A Level 6 device is one that has an enclosed 
helicopter-specific flight deck and aerodynamic program with all 
applicable helicopter systems operating and control loading that is 
representative of the simulated helicopter throughout its ground and 
flight envelope and significant sound representation. All displays may 
be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays 
in the aircraft, but all controls, switches, and knobs must physically 
replicate the aircraft in control operation.
    (4) Level 7. A Level 7 device is one that has an enclosed 
helicopter-specific flight deck and aerodynamic program with all 
applicable helicopter systems operating and control loading that is 
representative of the simulated helicopter throughout its ground and 
flight envelope and significant sound representation. All displays may 
be flat/LCD

[[Page 392]]

panel representations or actual representations of displays in the 
aircraft, but all controls, switches, and knobs must physically 
replicate the aircraft in control operation. It also has a visual system 
that provides an out-of-the-flight deck view, providing cross-flight 
deck viewing (for both pilots simultaneously) of a field-of-view of at 
least 146[deg] horizontally and 36[deg] vertically as well as a 
vibration cueing system for characteristic helicopter vibrations noted 
at the pilot station(s).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
                     Agreement (BASA) (Sec. 60.37)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.37, FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
Agreement (BASA).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

     Attachment 1 to Appendix D to Part 60--GENERAL FTD REQUIREMENTS

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                             1. Requirements

    a. Certain requirements included in this appendix must be supported 
with an SOC as defined in Appendix F, which may include objective and 
subjective tests. The requirements for SOCs are indicated in the 
``General FTD Requirements'' column in Table D1A of this appendix.
    b. Table D1A describes the requirements for the indicated level of 
FTD. Many devices include operational systems or functions that exceed 
the requirements outlined in this section. In any event, all systems 
will be tested and evaluated in accordance with this appendix to ensure 
proper operation.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              2. Discussion

    a. This attachment describes the general requirements for qualifying 
Level 4 through Level 7 FTDs. The sponsor should also consult the 
objectives tests in Attachment 2 of this appendix and the examination of 
functions and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix 
to determine the complete requirements for a specific level FTD.
    b. The material contained in this attachment is divided into the 
following categories:
    (1) General Flight Deck Configuration.
    (2) Programming.
    (3) Equipment Operation.
    (4) Equipment and Facilities for Instructor/Evaluator Functions.
    (5) Motion System.
    (6) Visual System.
    (7) Sound System.
    c. Table D1A provides the standards for the General FTD 
Requirements.
    d. Table D1B provides the tasks that the sponsor will examine to 
determine whether the FTD satisfactorily meets the requirements for 
flight crew training, testing, and experience.
    e. Table D1C provides the functions that an instructor/check airman 
must be able to control in the simulator.
    f. It is not required that all of the tasks that appear on the List 
of Qualified Tasks (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the initial 
or continuing qualification evaluation.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                                       Table D1A--Minimum FTD Requirements
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                               QPS requirements                                            Information
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                 FTD level
       Entry No.              General FTD requirements     --------------------               Notes
                                                             4    5    6    7
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. General Flight Deck Configuration.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 393]]

 
1.a....................  The FTD must have a flight deck    ...  ...   X    X   For FTD purposes, the flight
                          that is a replica of the                               deck consists of all that space
                          helicopter, or set of                                  forward of a cross section of
                          helicopters simulated with                             the flight deck at the most
                          controls, equipment, observable                        extreme aft setting of the
                          flight deck indicators, circuit                        pilots' seats including
                          breakers, and bulkheads properly                       additional, required crewmember
                          located, functionally accurate                         duty stations and those
                          and replicating the helicopter                         required bulkheads aft of the
                          or set of helicopters. The                             pilot seats. Bulkheads
                          direction of movement of                               containing only items such as
                          controls and switches must be                          landing gear pin storage
                          identical to that in the                               compartments, fire axes and
                          helicopter or set of                                   extinguishers, spare light
                          helicopters. Crewmember seats                          bulbs, and aircraft documents
                          must afford the capability for                         pouches are not considered
                          the occupant to be able to                             essential and may be omitted.
                          achieve the design ``eye                               If omitted, these items, or the
                          position.'' Equipment for the                          silhouettes of these items, may
                          operation of the flight deck                           be placed on the wall of the
                          windows must be included, but                          simulator, or in any other
                          the actual windows need not be                         location as near as practical
                          operable. Those circuit breakers                       to the original position of
                          that affect procedures or result                       these items.
                          in observable flight deck
                          indications must be properly
                          located and functionally
                          accurate. Fire axes,
                          extinguishers, landing gear
                          pins, and spare light bulbs must
                          be available, and may be
                          represented in silhouette, in
                          the flight simulator. This
                          equipment must be present as
                          near as practical to the
                          original position
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b....................  The FTD must have equipment         X    X
                          (i.e., instruments, panels,
                          systems, circuit breakers, and
                          controls) simulated sufficiently
                          for the authorized training/
                          checking events to be
                          accomplished. The installed
                          equipment, must be located in a
                          spatially correct configuration,
                          and may be in a flight deck or
                          an open flight deck area. Those
                          circuit breakers that affect
                          procedures or result in
                          observable flight deck
                          indications must be properly
                          located and functionally
                          accurate. Additional equipment
                          required for the authorized
                          training and checking events
                          must be available in the FTD but
                          may be located in a suitable
                          location as near as practical to
                          the spatially correct position.
                          Actuation of this equipment must
                          replicate the appropriate
                          function in the helicopter. Fire
                          axes, landing gear pins, and any
                          similar purpose instruments need
                          only be represented in
                          silhouette
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Programming.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a....................  The FTD must provide the proper    ...   X    X    X
                          effect of aerodynamic changes
                          for the combinations of drag and
                          thrust normally encountered in
                          flight. This must include the
                          effect of change in helicopter
                          attitude, thrust, drag,
                          altitude, temperature, and
                          configuration. Levels 6 and 7
                          additionally require the effects
                          of changes in gross weight and
                          center of gravity.Level 5
                          requires only generic
                          aerodynamic programming.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b....................  The FTD must have the computer      X    X    X    X
                          (analog or digital) capability
                          (i.e., capacity, accuracy,
                          resolution, and dynamic
                          response) needed to meet the
                          qualification level sought.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 394]]

 
2.c....................  Relative responses of the flight   ...   X    X    X   The intent is to verify that the
                          deck instruments must be                               FTD provides instrument cues
                          measured by latency tests or                           that are, within the stated
                          transport delay tests, and may                         time delays, like the
                          not exceed 150 milliseconds. The                       helicopter responses. For
                          instruments must respond to                            helicopter response,
                          abrupt input at the pilot's                            acceleration in the
                          position within the allotted                           appropriate, corresponding
                          time, but not before the time                          rotational axis is preferred.
                          that the helicopter or set of
                          helicopters respond under the
                          same conditions
                          Latency: The
                          FTD instrument and, if
                          applicable, the motion system
                          and the visual system response
                          must not be prior to that time
                          when the helicopter responds and
                          may respond up to 150
                          milliseconds after that time
                          under the same conditions.
                          Transport
                          Delay: As an alternative to the
                          Latency requirement, a transport
                          delay objective test may be used
                          to demonstrate that the FTD
                          system does not exceed the
                          specified limit. The sponsor
                          must measure all the delay
                          encountered by a step signal
                          migrating from the pilot's
                          control through all the
                          simulation software modules in
                          the correct order, using a
                          handshaking protocol, finally
                          through the normal output
                          interfaces to the instrument
                          display and, if applicable, the
                          motion system, and the visual
                          system.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Equipment Operation.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a....................  All relevant instrument             A    X    X    X
                          indications involved in the
                          simulation of the helicopter
                          must automatically respond to
                          control movement or external
                          disturbances to the simulated
                          helicopter or set of
                          helicopters; e.g., turbulence or
                          winds
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b....................  Navigation equipment must be        A    X    X    X
                          installed and operate within the
                          tolerances applicable for the
                          helicopter or set of
                          helicopters. Levels 6 and 7 must
                          also include communication
                          equipment (inter-phone and air/
                          ground) like that in the
                          helicopter. Level 5 only needs
                          that navigation equipment
                          necessary to fly an instrument
                          approach
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c....................  Installed systems must simulate     A    X    X    X
                          the applicable helicopter system
                          operation both on the ground and
                          in flight. At least one
                          helicopter system must be
                          represented. Systems must be
                          operative to the extent that
                          applicable normal, abnormal, and
                          emergency operating procedures
                          included in the sponsor's
                          training programs can be
                          accomplished. Levels 6 and 7
                          must simulate all applicable
                          helicopter flight, navigation,
                          and systems operation. Level 5
                          must have functional flight and
                          navigational controls, displays,
                          and instrumentation
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d....................  The lighting environment for        X    X    X    X   Back-lighted panels and
                          panels and instruments must be                         instruments may be installed
                          sufficient for the operation                           but are not required.
                          being conducted
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 395]]

 
3.e....................  The FTD must provide control       ...  ...   X    X
                          forces and control travel that
                          correspond to the replicated
                          helicopter or set of
                          helicopters. Control forces must
                          react in the same manner as in
                          the helicopter or set of
                          helicopters under the same
                          flight conditions
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.f....................  The FTD must provide control       ...   X
                          forces and control travel of
                          sufficient precision to manually
                          fly an instrument approach. The
                          control forces must react in the
                          same manner as in the helicopter
                          or set of helicopters under the
                          same flight conditions
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Instructor or Evaluator Facilities.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a....................  In addition to the flight           X    X    X    X   These seats need not be a
                          crewmember stations, suitable                          replica of an aircraft seat and
                          seating arrangements for an                            may be as simple as an office
                          instructor/check airman and FAA                        chair placed in an appropriate
                          Inspector must be available.                           position.
                          These seats must provide
                          adequate view of crewmember's
                          panel(s)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b....................  The FTD must have instructor        X    X    X    X
                          controls that permit activation
                          of normal, abnormal, and
                          emergency conditions, as
                          appropriate. Once activated,
                          proper system operation must
                          result from system management by
                          the crew and not require input
                          from the instructor controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Motion System
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a....................  A motion system may be installed    X    X    X    X
                          in an FTD. If installed, the
                          motion system operation must not
                          be distracting. If a motion
                          system is installed and
                          additional training, testing, or
                          checking credits are being
                          sought, sensory cues must also
                          be integrated. The motion system
                          must respond to abrupt input at
                          the pilot's position within the
                          allotted time, but not before
                          the time when the helicopter
                          responds under the same
                          conditions. The motion system
                          must be measured by latency
                          tests or transport delay tests
                          and may not exceed 150
                          milliseconds. Instrument
                          response must not occur prior to
                          motion onset
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b....................  The FTD must have at least a       ...  ...  ...   X   May be accomplished by a ``seat
                          vibration cueing system for                            shaker'' or a bass speaker
                          characteristic helicopter                              sufficient to provide the
                          vibrations noted at the pilot                          necessary cueing.
                          station(s)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Visual System
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a....................  The FTD may have a visual system,
                          if desired, although it is not
                          required. If a visual system is
                          installed, it must meet the
                          following criteria:
6.a.1..................  The visual system must respond to   X    X    X
                          abrupt input at the pilot's
                          position.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.2..................  The visual system must be at        X    X    X
                          least a single channel, non-
                          collimated display.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 396]]

 
6.a.3..................  The visual system must provide at   X    X    X
                          least a field-of-view of 18[deg]
                          vertical/24[deg] horizontal for
                          the pilot flying.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.4..................  The visual system must provide      X    X    X
                          for a maximum parallax of
                          10[deg] per pilot.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.5..................  The visual scene content may not    X    X    X
                          be distracting.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.6..................  The minimum distance from the       X    X    X
                          pilot's eye position to the
                          surface of a direct view display
                          may not be less than the
                          distance to any front panel
                          instrument.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.7..................  The visual system must provide      X    X    X
                          for a minimum resolution of 5
                          arc-minutes for both computed
                          and displayed pixel size.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b....................  If a visual system is installed     X    X    X
                          and additional training,
                          testing, or checking credits are
                          being sought on the basis of
                          having a visual system, a visual
                          system meeting the standards set
                          out for at least a Level A FFS
                          (see Appendix A of this part)
                          will be required. A ``direct-
                          view,'' non-collimated visual
                          system (with the other
                          requirements for a Level A
                          visual system met) may be
                          considered satisfactory for
                          those installations where the
                          visual system design ``eye
                          point'' is appropriately
                          adjusted for each pilot's
                          position such that the parallax
                          error is at or less than 10[deg]
                          simultaneously for each pilot.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c....................  The FTD must provide a continuous                  X   Optimization of the vertical
                          visual field-of-view of at least                       field-of-view may be considered
                          146[deg] horizontally and                              with respect to the specific
                          36[deg] vertically for both                            helicopter flight deck cut-off
                          pilot seats, simultaneously. The                       angle. When considering the
                          minimum horizontal field-of-view                       installation/use of augmented
                          coverage must be plus and minus                        fields of view, as described
                          one-half (\1/2\) of the minimum                        here, it will be the
                          continuous field-of-view                               responsibility of the sponsor
                          requirement, centered on the                           to meet with the responsible
                          zero degree azimuth line                               Flight Standards office to
                          relative to the aircraft                               determine the training,
                          fuselage. Additional horizontal                        testing, checking, or
                          field-of-view capability may be                        experience tasks for which the
                          added at the sponsor's                                 augmented field-of-view
                          discretion provided the minimum                        capability may be critical to
                          field-of-view is retained.                             that approval.
                          Capability for a field-of-view
                          in excess of these minima is not
                          required for qualification at
                          Level 7. However, where specific
                          tasks require extended fields of
                          view beyond the 146[deg] by
                          36[deg] (e.g., to accommodate
                          the use of ``chin windows''
                          where the accommodation is
                          either integral with or separate
                          from the primary visual system
                          display), then such extended
                          fields of view must be provided
                         An SOC is required and must
                          explain the geometry of the
                          installation.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Sound System
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 397]]

 
7.a....................  The FTD must simulate significant  ...  ...   X    X
                          flight deck sounds resulting
                          from pilot actions that
                          correspond to those heard in the
                          helicopter
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Note: An ``A'' in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate
  helicopter system or control is simulated in the FTD and is working properly.


    EDITORIAL NOTE: At 87 FR 75832, December 9, 2022, appendix D to part 
60 was amended in attachment 1, in table D1A, by revising entry for 
6.c.; however, the amendment could not be incorporated because the 
revised entry was photographed.

                   Table D1B--Minimum FTD Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   QPS requirements                       Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   Subjective           FTD level
                requirements The  --------------------
                FTD must be able
                 to perform the
  Entry No.     tasks associated                             Notes
                with the level of   4    5    6    7
                  qualification
                     sought.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a..........  Preflight            A    A    X    X
                Inspection
                (Flight Deck
                Only) switches,
                indicators,
                systems, and
                equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b..........  APU/Engine start
                and run-up.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1........  Normal start         A    A    X    X
                procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2........  Alternate start      A    A    X    X
                procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.3........  Abnormal starts      A    A    X    X
                and shutdowns
                (hot start, hung
                start).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c..........  Taxiing--Ground...  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d..........  Taxiing--Hover....  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e..........  Pre-takeoff Checks   A    A    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Takeoff and Departure Phase
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a..........  Normal takeoff....
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1........  From ground.......  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2........  From hover........  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3........  Running...........  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b..........  Instrument........  ...  ...   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c..........  Powerplant Failure  ...  ...   X    X
                During Takeoff.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d..........  Rejected Takeoff..  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e..........  Instrument          ...  ...   X    X
                Departure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Climb
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a..........  Normal............  ...  ...   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b..........  Obstacle clearance  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c..........  Vertical..........  ...  ...   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d..........  One engine          ...  ...   X    X
                inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 398]]

 
4. In-flight Maneuvers
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a..........  Turns (timed,       ...   X    X    X
                normal, steep).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b..........  Powerplant          ...  ...   X    X
                Failure--Multieng
                ine Helicopters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c..........  Powerplant          ...  ...   X    X
                Failure--Single-
                Engine
                Helicopters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d..........  Recovery From       ...  ...  ...   X
                Unusual Attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e..........  Settling with       ...  ...  ...   X
                Power.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Instrument Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a..........  Instrument Arrival  ...  ...   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b..........  Holding...........  ...  ...   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c..........  Precision
                Instrument
                Approach
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.1........  Normal--All         ...   X    X    X
                engines operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.2........  Manually            ...  ...   X    X
                controlled--One
                or more engines
                inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d..........  Non-precision       ...   X    X    X
                Instrument
                Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e..........  Missed Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.1........  All engines         ...  ...   X    X
                operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.2........  One or more         ...  ...   X    X
                engines
                inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.3........  Stability           ...  ...   X    X
                augmentation
                system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Landings and Approaches to Landings
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a..........  Visual Approaches   ...   X    X    X
                (normal, steep,
                shallow).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b..........  Landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1........  Normal/crosswind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.a......  Running...........  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.b......  From Hover........  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.2........  One or more         ...  ...  ...   X
                engines
                inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.3........  Rejected Landing..  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Normal and Abnormal Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a..........  Powerplant........   A    A    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b..........  Fuel System.......   A    A    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c..........  Electrical System.   A    A    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d..........  Hydraulic System..   A    A    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e..........  Environmental        A    A    X    X
                System(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.f..........  Fire Detection and   A    A    X    X
                Extinguisher
                Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.g..........  Navigation and       A    A    X    X
                Aviation Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 399]]

 
7.h..........  Automatic Flight     A    A    X    X
                Control System,
                Electronic Flight
                Instrument
                System, and
                Related
                Subsystems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.i..........  Flight Control       A    A    X    X
                Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.j..........  Anti-ice and Deice   A    A    X    X
                Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.k..........  Aircraft and         A    A    X    X
                Personal
                Emergency
                Equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.l..........  Special Missions    ...  ...  ...   X
                tasks (e.g.,
                Night Vision
                goggles, Forward
                Looking Infrared
                System, External
                Loads and as
                listed on the
                SOQ.).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. Emergency procedures (as applicable)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a..........  Emergency Descent.  ...  ...   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b..........  Inflight Fire and   ...  ...   X    X
                Smoke Removal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c..........  Emergency           ...  ...   X    X
                Evacuation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d..........  Ditching..........  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e..........  Autorotative        ...  ...  ...   X
                Landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f..........  Retreating blade    ...  ...  ...   X
                stall recovery.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g..........  Mast bumping......  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.h..........  Loss of tail rotor  ...  ...   X    X
                effectiveness.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9. Postflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.a..........  After-Landing        A    A    X    X
                Procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b..........  Parking and
                Securing
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b.1........  Rotor brake          A    A    X    X
                operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b.2........  Abnormal/emergency   A    A    X    X
                procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Note: An ``A'' in the table indicates that the system, task, or
  procedure may be examined if the appropriate aircraft system or
  control is simulated in the FTD and is working properly.


                  Table D1C--Table of FTD System Tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   QPS requirements                        Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   Subjective            FTD level
             requirements In order --------------------
               to be qualified at
             the FTD qualification
              level indicated, the
 Entry No.    FTD must be able to                             Notes
              perform at least the   4    5    6    7
              tasks associate with
                 that level of
                 qualification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Instructor Operating Station (IOS)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a........  Power switch(es).....   A    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b........  Helicopter conditions   A    A    X    X   e.g., GW, CG,
                                                         Fuel loading,
                                                         Systems,
                                                         Ground. Crew.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c........  Airports/Heliports/     A    X    X    X   e.g., Selection,
              Helicopter Landing                         Surface,
              Areas.                                     Presets,
                                                         Lighting
                                                         controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d........  Environmental           A    X    X    X   e.g., Temp and
              controls.                                  Wind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e........  Helicopter system       A    A    X    X
              malfunctions
              (Insertion/deletion).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f........  Locks, Freezes, and     A    X    X    X
              Repositioning (as
              appropriate).
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 400]]

 
1.g........  Sound Controls. (On/   ...   X    X    X
              off/adjustment).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.h........  Motion/Control         ...   A    X    X
              Loading System, as
              appropriate. On/off/
              emergency stop.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Observer Seats/Stations
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a........  Position/Adjustment/    A    X    X    X
              Positive restraint
              system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Note: An ``A'' in the table indicates that the system, task, or
  procedure may be examined if the appropriate simulator system or
  control is in the FTD and is working properly.

  Attachment 2 to Appendix D to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD) 
                             Objective Tests

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              1. Discussion

    a. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind 
vector (magnitude and direction) should be noted as part of the data 
presentation, expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the 
runway being used for the test.
    b. The format for numbering the objective tests in Appendix C of 
this part, Attachment 2, Table C2A, and the objective tests in Appendix 
D of this part, Attachment 2, Table D2A, is identical. However, each 
test required for FFSs is not necessarily required for FTDs, and each 
test required for FTDs is not necessarily required for FFSs. When a test 
number (or series of numbers) is not required, the term ``Reserved'' is 
used in the table at that location. Following this numbering format 
provides a degree of commonality between the two tables and 
substantially reduces the potential for confusion when referring to 
objective test numbers for either FFSs or FTDs.
    c. A Level 4 FTD does not require objective tests and is not 
addressed in the following table.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                          2. Test Requirements

    a. The ground and flight tests required for qualification are listed 
in Table D2A Objective Evaluation Tests. Computer generated FTD test 
results must be provided for each test except where an alternate test is 
specifically authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office. If a 
flight condition or operating condition is required for the test but 
does not apply to the helicopter being simulated or to the qualification 
level sought, it may be disregarded (e.g., engine out climb capability 
for a single-engine helicopter). Each test result is compared against 
the validation data described in Sec. 60.13, and in Appendix B of this 
part. The results must be produced on an appropriate recording device 
acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office and must include 
FTD number, date, time, conditions, tolerances, and appropriate 
dependent variables portrayed in comparison to the validation data. Time 
histories are required unless otherwise indicated in Table D2A. All 
results must be labeled using the tolerances and units given.
    b. Table D2A in this attachment sets out the test results required, 
including the parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions for FTD 
validation. Tolerances are provided for the listed tests because 
mathematical modeling and acquisition and development of reference data 
are often inexact. All tolerances listed in the following tables are 
applied to FTD performance. When two tolerance values are given for a 
parameter, the less restrictive may be used unless otherwise indicated. 
In those cases where a tolerance is expressed only as a percentage, the 
tolerance percentage applies to the maximum value of that parameter 
within its normal operating range as measured from the neutral or zero 
position unless otherwise indicated.
    c. Certain tests included in this attachment must be supported with 
an SOC. In Table D2A, requirements for SOCs are indicated in the ``Test 
Details'' column.
    d. When operational or engineering judgment is used in making 
assessments for flight test data applications for FTD validity, such 
judgment must not be limited to a single parameter. For example, data 
that exhibit rapid variations of the measured parameters may require 
interpolations or a ``best fit'' data section. All relevant parameters 
related to a given maneuver or flight condition must be provided to 
allow overall interpretation. When it is difficult or impossible to 
match FTD to helicopter data throughout a time history, differences must 
be justified by providing a comparison of

[[Page 401]]

other related variables for the condition being assessed.
    e. The FTD may not be programmed so that the mathematical modeling 
is correct only at the validation test points. Unless noted otherwise, 
tests must represent helicopter performance and handling qualities at 
operating weights and centers of gravity (CG) typical of normal 
operation. If a test is supported by aircraft data at one extreme weight 
or CG, another test supported by aircraft data at mid-conditions or as 
close as possible to the other extreme is necessary. Certain tests that 
are relevant only at one extreme CG or weight condition need not be 
repeated at the other extreme. The results of the tests for Level 6 are 
expected to be indicative of the device's performance and handling 
qualities throughout all of the following:
    (1) The helicopter weight and CG envelope.
    (2) The operational envelope.
    (3) Varying atmospheric ambient and environmental conditions--
including the extremes authorized for the respective helicopter or set 
of helicopters.
    f. When comparing the parameters listed to those of the helicopter, 
sufficient data must also be provided to verify the correct flight 
condition and helicopter configuration changes. For example, to show 
that control force is within the parameters for a static stability test, 
data to show the correct airspeed, power, thrust or torque, helicopter 
configuration, altitude, and other appropriate datum identification 
parameters must also be given. If comparing short period dynamics, 
normal acceleration may be used to establish a match to the helicopter, 
but airspeed, altitude, control input, helicopter configuration, and 
other appropriate data must also be given. If comparing landing gear 
change dynamics, pitch, airspeed, and altitude may be used to establish 
a match to the helicopter, but landing gear position must also be 
provided. All airspeed values must be properly annotated (e.g., 
indicated versus calibrated). In addition, the same variables must be 
used for comparison (e.g., compare inches to inches rather than inches 
to centimeters).
    g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must clearly describe how the FTD 
will be set up and operated for each test. Each FTD subsystem may be 
tested independently, but overall integrated testing of the FTD must be 
accomplished to assure that the total FTD system meets the prescribed 
standards. A manual test procedure with explicit and detailed steps for 
completing each test must also be provided.
    h. For previously qualified FTDs, the tests and tolerances of this 
attachment may be used in subsequent continuing qualification 
evaluations for any given test if the sponsor has submitted a proposed 
MQTG revision to the responsible Flight Standards office and has 
received responsible Flight Standards officeapproval.
    i. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of 
augmentation devices. FTDs for highly augmented helicopters will be 
validated both in the unaugmented configuration (or failure state with 
the maximum permitted degradation in handling qualities) and the 
augmented configuration. Where various levels of handling qualities 
result from failure states, validation of the effect of the failure is 
necessary. For those performance and static handling qualities tests 
where the primary concern is control position in the unaugmented 
configuration, unaugmented data are not required if the design of the 
system precludes any affect on control position. In those instances 
where the unaugmented helicopter response is divergent and non-
repeatable, it may not be feasible to meet the specified tolerances. 
Alternative requirements for testing will be mutually agreed upon by the 
sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office on a case-by-case 
basis.
    j. Some tests will not be required for helicopters using helicopter 
hardware in the FTD flight deck (e.g., ``helicopter modular 
controller''). These exceptions are noted in Section 2 ``Handling 
Qualities'' in Table D2A of this attachment. However, in these cases, 
the sponsor must provide a statement that the helicopter hardware meets 
the appropriate manufacturer's specifications and the sponsor must have 
supporting information to that fact available for responsible Flight 
Standards office review.
    k. In cases where light-class helicopters are being simulated, prior 
coordination with the responsible Flight Standards office on acceptable 
weight ranges is required. The terms ``light,'' ``medium,'' and ``near 
maximum,'' may not be appropriate for the simulation of light-class 
helicopters.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    l. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a 
``snapshot test'' or a ``series of snapshot test'' results in lieu of a 
time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that 
a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the 
``snapshot.'' The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior 
to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap 
shot.
    m. Refer to AC 120-27, Aircraft Weight and Balance; and FAA-H-8083-
1, Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook, for more information.

                             End Information



[[Page 402]]

________________________________________________________________________

                                                 Table D2A--Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                         QPS requirements                                                                Information
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                     Test                                                                                              FTD level
----------------------------------------------       Tolerances         Flight conditions         Test details      ---------------         Notes
       Entry No.                Title                                                                                 5    6    7
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.                      Performance
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a...................  Engine Assessment.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1.................  Start Operations.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1.a...............  Engine start and       Light Off Time--10%    Brake Used and Not     start from the
                         (transient).           or 1 Sec. start sequence to
                                                Torque--5%                            from steady state
                                                Rotor Speed--3%
                                                Fuel Flow--10%
                                                Gas Generator Speed--
                                                5% Power Turbine
                                                Speed--5%
                                                Gas Turbine Temp--
                                                30 [deg]C.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1.b...............  Steady State Idle and  Torque--3%                            state idle and
                         conditions.            Rotor Speed--1.5%                          conditions. May be a
                                                Fuel Flow--5%                            tests.
                                                Gas Generator Speed--
                                                2% Power Turbine
                                                Speed--2%
                                                Turbine Gas Temp--
                                                20 [deg]C.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.2.................  Power Turbine Speed    10% of total                               to trim system
                                                change of power                               actuation in both
                                                turbine speed; or                             directions.
                                                0.5% change of
                                                rotor speed.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.3.................  Engine and Rotor       Torque--5%                            step input to the
                                                Rotor Speed--1.5%.                         conducted
                                                                                              concurrently with
                                                                                              climb and descent
                                                                                              performance tests.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b...................  Reserved.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c...................  Takeoff.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 403]]

 
1.c.1.................  All Engines..........  Airspeed--3      Initial Segment of     takeoff flight path
                                                kt, Altitude--20                            takeoff from a
                                                ft (6.1 m) Torque--                           hover). The criteria
                                                3%, Rotor Speed--                          segments at airspeeds
                                                1.5%, Vertical                             translational lift.
                                                Velocity--100                           recorded from the
                                                fpm (0.50 m/sec) or                           initiation of the
                                                10%, Pitch Attitude--                         takeoff to at least
                                                1.5[deg], Bank
                                                Attitude--2[de
                                                g], Heading--2[de
                                                g], Longitudinal
                                                Control Position--
                                                10%, Lateral
                                                Control Position--
                                                10%, Directional
                                                Control Position--
                                                10%, Collective
                                                Control Position--
                                                10%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.2. through 1.c.3..  Reserved.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d...................  Hover.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                        Performance..........  Torque--3%,    (IGE); and Out of      light and heavy gross
                                                Pitch Attitude--       Ground Effect (OGE).   weights. May be a
                                                1.5[deg], Bank                             tests.
                                                Attitude--1.5[
                                                deg], Longitudinal
                                                Control Position--
                                                5%, Lateral
                                                Control Position--
                                                5%, Directional
                                                Control Position--
                                                5%, Collective
                                                Control Position--
                                                5%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e...................  Vertical Climb.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                        Performance..........  Vertical Velocity--    From OGE Hover.......  Record results for      ...  ...   X
                                                100 fpm (0.50 m/                           weights. May be a
                                                sec) or 10%,                          tests.
                                                Directional Control
                                                Position--5%,
                                                Collective Control
                                                Position--5%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f...................  Level Flight.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                        Performance and        Torque--3%     On and Off).           gross weight and CG                    performance at
                         Control Positions.     Pitch Attitude--                              combinations with                      speeds above
                                                1.5[deg] Sideslip                          throughout the                         airspeed.
                                                Angle--2[de                          May be a series of
                                                g] Longitudinal                               snapshot tests.
                                                Control Position--
                                                5% Lateral
                                                Control position--
                                                5% Directional
                                                Control Position--
                                                5% Collective
                                                Control Position--
                                                5%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.g...................  Climb.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 404]]

 
                        Performance and        Vertical Velocity--    All engines operating  Record results for two   X    X    X
                         Trimmed Flight         100 fpm (61 m/      inoperative.           combinations. The
                                                sec) or 10%    System(s) On and Off.  be for normal climb
                                                Pitch Attitude--                              power conditions. May
                                                1.5[deg] Sideslip                          snapshot tests.
                                                Angle--2[de
                                                g] Longitudinal
                                                Control Position--
                                                5% Lateral
                                                Control Position--
                                                5% Directional
                                                Control Position--
                                                5% Collective
                                                Control Position--
                                                5%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.h...................  Descent.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.h.1.................  Descent Performance    Torque--3%     (5 m/sec) rate of      gross weight and CG
                         Control Positions.     Pitch Attitude--       descent (RoD) at       combinations. May be
                                                1.5[deg] Sideslip   speed.                 tests.
                                                Angle--2[de   System(s) On and Off.
                                                g] Longitudinal
                                                Control Position--
                                                5% Lateral
                                                Control Position--
                                                5% Directional
                                                Control Position--
                                                5% Collective
                                                Control Position--
                                                5%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.h.2.................  Autorotation           Pitch Attitude--1.5[   Augmentation           gross weight
                         Trimmed Flight         deg] Sideslip Angle--  System(s) On and Off.  conditions. Data must
                         Control Positions.     2[deg]                                     normal operating RPM.
                                                Longitudinal Control                          (Rotor speed
                                                Position--5%                            only if collective
                                                Lateral Control                               control position is
                                                Position--5%                            be recorded for
                                                Directional Control                           speeds from 50 kts,
                                                Position--5%                            eq>5 kts through at
                                                Collective Control                            least maximum glide
                                                Position--5%.                           May be a series of
                                                                                              snapshot tests.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.i...................  Autorotation.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                        Entry................  Rotor Speed--3%                            rapid throttle
                                                Pitch Attitude 2[de                          accomplished in
                                                g] Roll Attitude--                            cruise, results must
                                                3[deg] Yaw                                 range airspeed. If
                                                Attitude--5[de                          climb, results must
                                                g] Airspeed--5                             rate of climb
                                                kts. Vertical                                 airspeed at or near
                                                Velocity--200                           power.
                                                fpm (1.00 m/sec) or
                                                10%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.j...................  Landing.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 405]]

 
1.j.1.................  All Engines..........  Airspeed--3                             approach and landing
                                                kts, Altitude--20                            landing or approach
                                                ft (6.1 m) Torque--                           to a hover). The
                                                3%, Rotor Speed--                          to those segments at
                                                1.5%, Pitch                                effective
                                                Attitude--1.5[                          Record the results
                                                deg], Bank Attitude--                         from 200 ft AGL (61
                                                1.5[deg],                                  to where the hover is
                                                Heading--2[de                          landing.
                                                g], Longitudinal
                                                Control Position--
                                                10%, Lateral
                                                Control Position--
                                                10%, Directional
                                                Control Position--
                                                10%, Collective
                                                Control Position--
                                                10%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.j.2. through 1.j.3..  Reserved.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.j.4.................  Autorotational         Torque--3%,                           an autorotational                      containing all
                                                Rotor Speed--3%,                           landing from a                         for a complete
                                                Vertical Velocity--                           stabilized                             power-off landing
                                                100 fpm (0.50 m/                           descent, to touch                      from the aircraft
                                                sec) or 10%, Pitch                            down..                                 manufacturer for
                                                Attitude--2[de                                                                 other qualified
                                                g], Bank Attitude--                                                                  flight test
                                                2[deg], Heading--                                                                 available to
                                                5[deg],                                                                           the sponsor must
                                                Longitudinal Control                                                                 coordinate with the
                                                Position--10%,                                                                 Standards office to
                                                Lateral Control                                                                      determine if it
                                                Position--10%,                                                                 appropriate to
                                                Directional Control                                                                  accept alternative
                                                Position--10%,                                                                 Alternative
                                                Collective Control                                                                   approaches to this
                                                Position--10%.                                                                 that may be
                                                                                                                                     acceptable are: (1)
                                                                                                                                     a simulated
                                                                                                                                     autorotational
                                                                                                                                     flare and reduction
                                                                                                                                     of rate of descent
                                                                                                                                     (ROD) at altitude;
                                                                                                                                     or (2) a power-on
                                                                                                                                     termination
                                                                                                                                     following an
                                                                                                                                     autorotational
                                                                                                                                     approach and flare.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.                      Handling Qualities
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 406]]

 
2.a...................  Control System         Contact the NSPM for
                         Mechanical             clarification of any
                         Characteristics.       issue regarding
                                                helicopters with
                                                reversible controls.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a...................  Control System         Contact the
                         Mechanical             responsible Flight
                         Characteristics..      Standards office for
                                                clarification of any
                                                issue regarding
                                                helicopters with
                                                reversible controls..
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1.................  Cyclic...............  Breakout--0.25   conditions. Trim On    uninterrupted control
                                                lbs (0.112 daN) or     and Off. Friction      sweep to the stops.
                                                25%. Force--1.0    and Off.               apply if aircraft
                                                lb (0.224 daN) or                             hardware modular
                                                10%.                                          controllers are
                                                                                              used.).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2.................  Collective and Pedals  Breakout--0.5    conditions. Trim On    uninterrupted control
                                                lb (0.224 daN) or      and Off. Friction      sweep to the stops.
                                                25%. Force--1.0    and Off.
                                                lb (0.224 daN) or
                                                10%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3.................  Brake Pedal Force vs.  5 lbs (2.224 daN)   conditions.
                                                or 10%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.4.................  Trim System Rate (all  Rate--10%.            conditions. Trim On.   to the recorded value
                                                                       Friction Off.          of the trim rate.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.5.................  Control Dynamics (all  10% of time for     Friction Off.          recorded for a normal                  irreversible
                                                first zero crossing                           control displacement                   control systems may
                                                and 10 (N + 1)%                            each axis, using 25%                   ground/static
                                                of period                                     to 50% of full throw.                  condition. Refer to
                                                thereafter. 10%                                                                  attachment for
                                                of amplitude of                                                                      additional
                                                first overshoot.                                                                     information. ``N''
                                                20% of amplitude                                                                  period of a full
                                                of 2nd and                                                                           cycle of
                                                subsequent                                                                           oscillation.
                                                overshoots greater
                                                than 5% of initial
                                                displacement. 1
                                                overshoot.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 407]]

 
2.a.6.................  Freeplay.............  0.10 in. (2.5                           controls.
                                                mm).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b...................  Low Airspeed Handling Qualities.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.1.................  Trimmed Flight         Torque 3% Pitch        IGE--Sideward,         several airspeed
                                                Attitude 1.5[   forward flight.        translational
                                                deg] Bank Attitude     Augmentation On and    airspeed limits and
                                                2[deg]                                     airspeed. May be a
                                                Longitudinal Control                          series of snapshot
                                                Position 5%
                                                Lateral Control
                                                Position 5%
                                                Directional Control
                                                Position 5%
                                                Collective Control
                                                Position 5%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.2.................  Critical Azimuth.....  Torque 3% Pitch        Augmentation On and    three relative wind
                                                Attitude 1.5[                          the most critical
                                                deg], Bank Attitude                           case) in the critical
                                                2[deg],                                    series of snapshot
                                                Longitudinal Control                          tests.
                                                Position 5%,
                                                Lateral Control
                                                Position 5%,
                                                Directional Control
                                                Position 5%,
                                                Collective Control
                                                Position 5%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3.................  Control Response.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3.a...............  Longitudinal.........  Pitch Rate--10%    On and Off.            step control input.                    time'' test.
                                                or 2[deg]/Sec. must show correct
                                                Pitch Attitude                                trend for unaugmented
                                                Change--10%                           be conducted in a
                                                or 1.5[deg].                                  hover, in ground
                                                                                              effect, without
                                                                                              entering
                                                                                              translational flight.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3.b...............  Lateral..............  Roll Rate--10%    and Off.               step control input.                    time'' test
                                                or 3[deg]/Sec. must show correct                      hover, in ground
                                                Roll Attitude                                 trend for unaugmented                  effect, without
                                                Change--10%                                                                  translational
                                                or 3[deg].                                                                       better visual
                                                                                                                                     reference.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3.c...............  Directional..........  Yaw Rate--10%    and Off.               step control input.                    time'' test.
                                                or 2[deg]/Sec. must show correct
                                                Heading Change--                              trend for unaugmented
                                                10% or 2[de                          hover, in ground
                                                g].                                           effect, without
                                                                                              entering
                                                                                              translational flight.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3.d...............  Vertical.............  Normal Acceleration    Hover Augmentation On  Record results for a    ...  ...   X
                                                0.1g.                                      The Off-axis response
                                                                                              must show correct
                                                                                              trend for unaugmented
                                                                                              cases.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 408]]

 
2.c...................  Longitudinal Handling Qualities.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.1.................  Control Response.....  Pitch Rate--10%    On and Off.            recorded for two
                                                or 2[deg]/Sec. include minimum power
                                                Pitch Attitude                                required speed.
                                                Change--10%                           step control input.
                                                or 1.5[deg].                              must show correct
                                                                                              trend for unaugmented
                                                                                              cases.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.2.................  Static Stability.....  Longitudinal Control   Cruise or Climb.       Record results for a     X    X    X
                                                Position: 10%    Augmentation On and    on each side of the
                                                of change from trim    Off.                   trim speed. May be a
                                                or 0.25 in. (6.3                          tests.
                                                mm) or Longitudinal
                                                Control Force: 0.5
                                                lb. (0.223 daN) or
                                                10%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.3.................  Dynamic Stability.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.3.a...............  Long Term Response...  10% of calculated   On and Off.            three full cycles (6                   certain helicopters
                                                period. 10%                           input completed) or                    throughout the
                                                of time to \1/2\ or                           that sufficient to                     stated time. In
                                                double amplitude, or                          determine time to \1/                  these cases, the
                                                0.02 of damping                            amplitude, whichever                   least that a
                                                ratio. For non-                               is less. For non-                      divergence is
                                                periodic responses,                           periodic responses,                    identifiable. For
                                                the time history                              the test may be                        example: Displacing
                                                must be matched                               terminated prior to                    the cyclic for a
                                                within 3[de                          pilot determines that                  excites this test
                                                g] pitch; and 5                             becoming                               pitch attitude is
                                                kts airspeed over a                           uncontrollably                         achieved and then
                                                20 sec period                                 divergent. Displace                    return the cyclic
                                                following release of                          the cyclic for one                     to the original
                                                the controls.                                 second or less to                      position. For non-
                                                                                              excite the test. The                   periodic responses,
                                                                                              result will be either                  results should show
                                                                                              convergent or                          the same convergent
                                                                                              divergent and must be                  or divergent
                                                                                              recorded. If this                      character as the
                                                                                              method fails to                        flight test data.
                                                                                              excite the test,
                                                                                              displace the cyclic
                                                                                              to the predetermined
                                                                                              maximum desired pitch
                                                                                              attitude and return
                                                                                              to the original
                                                                                              position. If this
                                                                                              method is used,
                                                                                              record the results.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 409]]

 
2.c.3.b...............  Short Term Response..  1.5[deg] Pitch or   Augmentation On and    least two airspeeds.                   inserted at the
                                                2[deg]/sec. Pitch                                                                 of the aircraft
                                                Rate. 0.1 g Normal                                                                  this test. However,
                                                Acceleration.                                                                        while input
                                                                                                                                     doublets are
                                                                                                                                     preferred over
                                                                                                                                     pulse inputs for
                                                                                                                                     Augmentation-Off
                                                                                                                                     tests, for
                                                                                                                                     Augmentation-On
                                                                                                                                     cases, when the
                                                                                                                                     short term response
                                                                                                                                     exhibits 1st-order
                                                                                                                                     or deadbeat
                                                                                                                                     characteristics,
                                                                                                                                     longitudinal pulse
                                                                                                                                     inputs may produce
                                                                                                                                     a more coherent
                                                                                                                                     response.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.4.................  Maneuvering Stability  Longitudinal Control   Cruise or Climb.       Record results for at   ...   X    X
                                                Position--10%    Off.                   at 30[deg]-45[deg]
                                                of change from trim                           bank angle. The force
                                                or 0.25 in. (6.3                          cross plot for
                                                mm) or Longitudinal                           irreversible systems.
                                                Control Forces--                              May be a series of
                                                0.5 lb. (0.223
                                                daN) or 10%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d...................  Lateral and Directional Handling Qualities.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.1.................  Control Response.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.1.a...............  Lateral..............  Roll Rate--10%    On and Offd.           least two airspeeds,
                                                or 3[deg]/Sec. at or near the
                                                Roll Attitude                                 minimum power
                                                Change--10%                           Record results for a
                                                or 3[deg].                                The Off-axis response
                                                                                              must show correct
                                                                                              trend for unaugmented
                                                                                              cases.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.1.b...............  Directional..........  Yaw Rate--10%    On and Off.            least two Airspeeds,
                                                or 2[deg]/Sec. at or near the
                                                Yaw Attitude Change--                         minimum power
                                                10% or 2[de                          step control input.
                                                g].                                           The Off-axis response
                                                                                              must show correct
                                                                                              trend for unaugmented
                                                                                              cases.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 410]]

 
2.d.2.................  Directional Static     Lateral Control        Cruise; or Climb (may  Record results for at    X    X    X   This is a steady
                         Stability.             Position--10%    of Climb if desired)   angles on either side                  test at a fixed
                                                of change from trim    Augmentation On and    of the trim point.                     collective
                                                or 0.25 in. (6.3                          shown as a cross plot
                                                mm) or Lateral                                for irreversible
                                                Control Force--0.5                           series of snapshot
                                                lb. (0.223 daN) or                            tests.
                                                10%. Roll Attitude--
                                                1.5 Directional
                                                Control Position--
                                                10% of change
                                                from trim or 0.25
                                                in. (6.3 mm) or
                                                Directional Control
                                                Force--1
                                                lb. (0.448 daN) or
                                                10%. Longitudinal
                                                Control Position--
                                                10% of change
                                                from trim or 0.25
                                                in. (6.3 mm).
                                                Vertical Velocity--
                                                100 fpm (0.50m/
                                                sec) or 10%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3.................  Dynamic Lateral and Directional Stability.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3.a...............  Lateral-Directional    0.5 sec. or 10%    Off.                   The test must be
                                                of period. 10%                           cyclic or a pedal
                                                of time to \1/2\ or                           doublet input. Record
                                                double amplitude or                           results for six full
                                                0.02 of damping                            after input
                                                ratio. 20%                           sufficient to
                                                or 1 sec of time                          2\ or double
                                                difference between                            amplitude, whichever
                                                peaks of bank and                             is less. The test may
                                                sideslip. For non-                            be terminated prior
                                                periodic responses,                           to 20 sec if the test
                                                the time history                              pilot determines that
                                                must be matched                               the results are
                                                within 10                            uncontrollably
                                                knots Airspeed;                               divergent.
                                                5[deg]/s Roll
                                                Rate or 5[de
                                                g] Roll Attitude;
                                                4[deg]/s Yaw Rate
                                                or 4[deg] Yaw
                                                Angle over a 20 sec
                                                period roll angle
                                                following release of
                                                the controls.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 411]]

 
2.d.3.b...............  Spiral Stability.....  2[deg] or 10%    Off.                   only or cyclic only
                                                roll angle.                                   turns for 20 sec.
                                                                                              Results must be
                                                                                              recorded from turns
                                                                                              in both directions.
                                                                                              Terminate check at
                                                                                              zero roll angle or
                                                                                              when the test pilot
                                                                                              determines that the
                                                                                              attitude is becoming
                                                                                              uncontrollably
                                                                                              divergent.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3.c...............  Adverse/Proverse Yaw.  Correct Trend, 2[de   Augmentation On and    history of initial
                                                g] transient           Off.                   entry into cyclic
                                                sideslip angle.                               only turns, using
                                                                                              only a moderate rate
                                                                                              for cyclic input.
                                                                                              Results must be
                                                                                              recorded for turns in
                                                                                              both directions.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.                      Reserved
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.                      Visual System
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a...................  Visual System Response Time: (Choose either test 4.a.1. or 4.a.2. to satisfy test 4.a., Visual    ...  ...
                         System Response Time Test. This test is also sufficient for flight deck instrument response
                         timing.)
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.1.................  Latency.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                               150 ms (or less)       Takeoff, climb, and    One test is required    ...  ...   X
                                                after helicopter       descent.               in each axis (pitch,
                                                response.                                     roll and yaw) for
                                                                                              each of the three
                                                                                              conditions (take-off,
                                                                                              cruise, and approach
                                                                                              or landing).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.2.................  Transport Delay.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                               150 ms (or less)       N/A..................  A separate test is      ...  ...   X
                                                after controller                              required in each axis
                                                movement.                                     (pitch, roll, and
                                                                                              yaw).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b...................  Field-of-view.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.1.................  Reserved.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.2.................  Continuous visual      Minimum continuous     N/A..................  An SOC is required and  ...  ...   X   Horizontal field-of-
                         field-of-view.         field-of-view                                 must explain the                       view is centered on
                                                providing 146[deg]                            geometry of the                        the zero degree
                                                horizontal and                                installation.                          azimuth line
                                                36[deg] vertical                              Horizontal field-of-                   relative to the
                                                field-of-view for                             view must not be less                  aircraft fuselage.
                                                each pilot                                    than a total of
                                                simultaneously and                            146[deg] (including
                                                any geometric error                           not less than 73[deg]
                                                between the Image                             measured either side
                                                Generator eye point                           of the center of the
                                                and the pilot eye                             design eye point).
                                                point is 8[deg] or                            Additional horizontal
                                                less.                                         field-of-view
                                                                                              capability may be
                                                                                              added at the
                                                                                              sponsor's discretion
                                                                                              provided the minimum
                                                                                              field-of-view is
                                                                                              retained. Vertical
                                                                                              field-of-view: Not
                                                                                              less than a total of
                                                                                              36[deg] measured from
                                                                                              the pilot's and co-
                                                                                              pilot's eye point.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.3.................  Reserved.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 412]]

 
4.c...................  Surface contrast       Not less than 5:1....  N/A..................  The ratio is            ...  ...   X   Measurements may be
                         ratio.                                                               calculated by                          made using a 1[deg]
                                                                                              dividing the                           spot photometer and
                                                                                              brightness level of                    a raster drawn test
                                                                                              the center, bright                     pattern filling the
                                                                                              square (providing at                   entire visual scene
                                                                                              least 2 foot-lamberts                  (all channels) with
                                                                                              or 7 cd/m\2\) by the                   a test pattern of
                                                                                              brightness level of                    black and white
                                                                                              any adjacent dark                      squares, 5 per
                                                                                              square.                                square, with a
                                                                                                                                     white square in the
                                                                                                                                     center of each
                                                                                                                                     channel. During
                                                                                                                                     contrast ratio
                                                                                                                                     testing, simulator
                                                                                                                                     aft-cab and flight
                                                                                                                                     deck ambient light
                                                                                                                                     levels should be
                                                                                                                                     zero.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d...................  Highlight brightness.  Not less than three    N/A..................  Measure the brightness  ...  ...   X   Measurements may be
                                                (3) foot-lamberts                             of the center white                    made using a 1[deg]
                                                (10 cd/m\2\).                                 square while                           spot photometer and
                                                                                              superimposing a                        a raster drawn test
                                                                                              highlight on that                      pattern filling the
                                                                                              white square. The use                  entire visual scene
                                                                                              of calligraphic                        (all channels) with
                                                                                              capabilities to                        a test pattern of
                                                                                              enhance the raster                     black and white
                                                                                              brightness is                          squares, 5 per
                                                                                              acceptable, but                        square, with a
                                                                                              measuring light                        white square in the
                                                                                              points is not                          center of each
                                                                                              acceptable.                            channel.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 413]]

 
4.e...................  Surface resolution...  Not greater than two   N/A..................  An SOC is required and  ...  ...   X   When the eye is
                                                (2) arc minutes.                              must include the                       positioned on a
                                                                                              relevant calculations.                 3[deg] glide slope
                                                                                                                                     at the slant range
                                                                                                                                     distances indicated
                                                                                                                                     with white runway
                                                                                                                                     markings on a black
                                                                                                                                     runway surface, the
                                                                                                                                     eye will subtend
                                                                                                                                     two (2) arc
                                                                                                                                     minutes: (1) A
                                                                                                                                     slant range of
                                                                                                                                     6,876 ft with
                                                                                                                                     stripes 150 ft long
                                                                                                                                     and 16 ft wide,
                                                                                                                                     spaced 4 ft apart.
                                                                                                                                     (2) For
                                                                                                                                     Configuration A; a
                                                                                                                                     slant range of
                                                                                                                                     5,157 feet with
                                                                                                                                     stripes 150 ft long
                                                                                                                                     and 12 ft wide,
                                                                                                                                     spaced 3 ft apart.
                                                                                                                                     (3) For
                                                                                                                                     Configuration B; a
                                                                                                                                     slant range of
                                                                                                                                     9,884 feet, with
                                                                                                                                     stripes 150 ft long
                                                                                                                                     and 5.75 ft wide,
                                                                                                                                     spaced 5.75 ft
                                                                                                                                     apart.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f...................  Light point size.....  Not greater than five  N/A..................  An SOC is required and  ...  ...   X   Light point size may
                                                (5) arc-minutes.                              must include the                       be measured using a
                                                                                              relevant calculations.                 test pattern
                                                                                                                                     consisting of a
                                                                                                                                     centrally located
                                                                                                                                     single row of light
                                                                                                                                     points reduced in
                                                                                                                                     length until
                                                                                                                                     modulation is just
                                                                                                                                     discernible in each
                                                                                                                                     visual channel. A
                                                                                                                                     row of 48 lights
                                                                                                                                     will form a 4[deg]
                                                                                                                                     angle or less.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 414]]

 
4.g...................  Light point contrast   .....................  .....................  ......................  ...  ...  ...  A 1[deg] spot
                         ratio.                                                                                                      photometer may be
                                                                                                                                     used to measure a
                                                                                                                                     square of at least
                                                                                                                                     1[deg] filled with
                                                                                                                                     light points (where
                                                                                                                                     light point
                                                                                                                                     modulation is just
                                                                                                                                     discernible) and
                                                                                                                                     compare the results
                                                                                                                                     to the measured
                                                                                                                                     adjacent
                                                                                                                                     background. During
                                                                                                                                     contrast ratio
                                                                                                                                     testing, simulator
                                                                                                                                     aft-cab and flight
                                                                                                                                     deck ambient light
                                                                                                                                     levels should be
                                                                                                                                     zero.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.1.................  Reserved.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.2.................  .....................  Not less than 25:1...  N/A..................  An SOC is required and  ...  ...   X
                                                                                              must include the
                                                                                              relevant calculations.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.h...................  Visual ground segment.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 415]]

 
                                               The visible segment    Landing                The QTG must contain    ...  ...   X   Pre-position for
                                                in the simulator       configuration,         relevant calculations                  this test is
                                                must be within 20%     trimmed for            and a drawing showing                  encouraged, but may
                                                of the segment         appropriate            the data used to                       be achieved via
                                                computed to be         airspeed, at 100 ft    establish the                          manual or autopilot
                                                visible from the       (30m) above the        helicopter location                    control to the
                                                helicopter flight      touchdown zone, on     and the segment of                     desired position.
                                                deck. The              glide slope with an    the ground that is
                                                tolerance(s) may be    RVR value set at       visible considering
                                                applied at either      1,200 ft (350m).       design eyepoint,
                                                end or at both ends                           helicopter attitude,
                                                of the displayed                              flight deck cut-off
                                                segment. However,                             angle, and a
                                                lights and ground                             visibility of 1200 ft
                                                objects computed to                           (350 m) RVR.
                                                be visible from the                           Simulator performance
                                                helicopter flight                             must be measured
                                                deck at the near end                          against the QTG
                                                of the visible                                calculations. The
                                                segment must be                               data submitted must
                                                visible in the                                include at least the
                                                simulator.                                    following: (1) Static
                                                                                              helicopter dimensions
                                                                                              as follows: (i)
                                                                                              Horizontal and
                                                                                              vertical distance
                                                                                              from main landing
                                                                                              gear (MLG) to
                                                                                              glideslope reception
                                                                                              antenna. (ii)
                                                                                              Horizontal and
                                                                                              vertical distance
                                                                                              from MLG to pilot's
                                                                                              eyepoint. (iii)
                                                                                              Static flight deck
                                                                                              cutoff angle. (2)
                                                                                              Approach data as
                                                                                              follows: (i)
                                                                                              Identification of
                                                                                              runway. (ii)
                                                                                              Horizontal distance
                                                                                              from runway threshold
                                                                                              to glideslope
                                                                                              intercept with
                                                                                              runway. (iii)
                                                                                              Glideslope angle.
                                                                                              (iv) Helicopter pitch
                                                                                              angle on approach.
                                                                                              (3) Helicopter data
                                                                                              for manual testing:
                                                                                              (i) Gross weight.
                                                                                              (ii) Helicopter
                                                                                              configuration. (iii)
                                                                                              Approach airspeed. If
                                                                                              non-homogenous fog is
                                                                                              used to obscure
                                                                                              visibility, the
                                                                                              vertical variation in
                                                                                              horizontal visibility
                                                                                              must be described and
                                                                                              be included in the
                                                                                              slant range
                                                                                              visibility
                                                                                              calculation used in
                                                                                              the computations.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.                      Reserved
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 416]]

________________________________________________________________________

    EDITORIAL NOTE: At 87 FR 75832, December 9, 2022, appendix D to part 
60 was amended in attachment 2, in table D2A, by revising entries for 
1.j.4. and 2.a.; however, the amendment could not be incorporated 
because the revised entry was photographed.

                            Begin Information

                           3. Control Dynamics

    a. The characteristics of a helicopter flight control system have a 
major effect on the handling qualities. A significant consideration in 
pilot acceptability of a helicopter is the ``feel'' provided through the 
flight deck controls. Considerable effort is expended on helicopter feel 
system design in order to deliver a system with which pilots will be 
comfortable and consider the helicopter desirable to fly. In order for 
an FTD to be representative, it too must present the pilot with the 
proper feel; that of the respective helicopter. Compliance with this 
requirement is determined by comparing a recording of the control feel 
dynamics of the FFS to actual helicopter measurements in the hover and 
cruise configurations.
    (1) Recordings such as free response to an impulse or step function 
are classically used to estimate the dynamic properties of 
electromechanical systems. It is only possible to estimate the dynamic 
properties as a result of only being able to estimate true inputs and 
responses. Therefore, it is imperative that the best possible data be 
collected since close matching of the FTD control loading system to the 
helicopter systems is essential. Control feel dynamic tests are 
described in the Table of Objective Tests in this appendix. Where 
accomplished, the free response is measured after a step or pulse input 
is used to excite the system.
    (2) For initial and upgrade evaluations, it is required that control 
dynamic characteristics be measured at and recorded directly from the 
flight deck controls. This procedure is usually accomplished by 
measuring the free response of the controls using a step or pulse input 
to excite the system. The procedure must be accomplished in hover, 
climb, cruise, and autorotation. For helicopters with irreversible 
control systems, measurements may be obtained on the ground. The 
procedure should be accomplished in the hover and cruise flight 
conditions and configurations. Proper pitot-static inputs (if 
appropriate) must be provided to represent airspeeds typical of those 
encountered in flight.
    (3) It may be shown that for some helicopters, climb, cruise, and 
autorotation have like effects. Thus, some tests for one may suffice for 
some tests for another. If either or both considerations apply, 
engineering validation or helicopter manufacturer rationale must be 
submitted as justification for ground tests or for eliminating a 
configuration. For FTDs requiring static and dynamic tests at the 
controls, special test fixtures will not be required during initial and 
upgrade evaluations if the sponsor's QTG shows both test fixture results 
and the results of an alternative approach, such as computer plots which 
were produced concurrently and show satisfactory agreement. Repeat of 
the alternative method during the initial evaluation satisfies this test 
requirement.
    b. Control Dynamics Evaluations. The dynamic properties of control 
systems are often stated in terms of frequency, damping, and a number of 
other classical measurements which can be found in texts on control 
systems. In order to establish a consistent means of validating test 
results for FTD control loading, criteria are needed that will clearly 
define the interpretation of the measurements and the tolerances to be 
applied. Criteria are needed for both the underdamped system and the 
overdamped system, including the critically damped case. In the case of 
an underdamped system with very light damping, the system may be 
quantified in terms of frequency and damping. In critically damped or 
overdamped systems, the frequency and damping is not readily measured 
from a response time history. Therefore, some other measurement must be 
used.
    (1) Tests to verify that control feel dynamics represent the 
helicopter must show that the dynamic damping cycles (free response of 
the control) match that of the helicopter within specified tolerances. 
The method of evaluating the response and the tolerance to be applied 
are described below for the underdamped and critically damped cases.
    (a) Underdamped Response. Two measurements are required for the 
period, the time to first zero crossing (in case a rate limit is 
present) and the subsequent frequency of oscillation. It is necessary to 
measure cycles on an individual basis in case there are nonuniform 
periods in the response. Each period will be independently compared to 
the respective period of the helicopter control system and, 
consequently, will enjoy the full tolerance specified for that period.
    (b) The damping tolerance will be applied to overshoots on an 
individual basis. Care must be taken when applying the tolerance to 
small overshoots since the significance of such overshoots becomes 
questionable. Only those overshoots larger than 5 percent of the total 
initial displacement will be considered significant. The residual band, 
labeled T(Ad) on Figure 1 of this attachment is 5 percent of the initial displacement amplitude, 
Ad, from the steady state value of the oscillation. 
Oscillations within the residual band are considered insignificant. When 
comparing simulator data to helicopter data, the process would begin by 
overlaying or aligning the simulator and helicopter steady state

[[Page 417]]

values and then comparing amplitudes of oscillation peaks, the time of 
the first zero crossing, and individual periods of oscillation. To be 
satisfactory, the simulator must show the same number of significant 
overshoots to within one when compared against the helicopter data. The 
procedure for evaluating the response is illustrated in Figure 1 of this 
attachment.
    (c) Critically Damped and Overdamped Response. Due to the nature of 
critically damped responses (no overshoots), the time to reach 90 
percent of the steady state (neutral point) value must be the same as 
the helicopter within 10 percent. The simulator 
response must be critically damped also. Figure 2 of this attachment 
illustrates the procedure.
    (d) Special considerations. Control systems that exhibit 
characteristics other than classical overdamped or underdamped responses 
should meet specified tolerances. In addition, special consideration 
should be given to ensure that significant trends are maintained.
    (2) Tolerances.
    (a) The following summarizes the tolerances, ``T'' for underdamped 
systems, and ``n'' is the sequential period of a full cycle of 
oscillation. See Figure D2A of this attachment for an illustration of 
the referenced measurements.

T(P0) 10% of P0
T(P1) 20% of P1
T(P2) 30% of P2
T(Pn) 10(n + 1)% of Pn
T(An) 10% of A1
T(Ad) 5% of Ad = residual 
          band
Significant overshoots First overshoot and 1 
          subsequent overshoots

    (b) The following tolerance applies to critically damped and 
overdamped systems only. See Figure D2B for an illustration of the 
reference measurements:

T(P0) 10% of P0

[[Page 418]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.053

    c. Alternative method for control dynamics evaluation.
    (1) An alternative means for validating control dynamics for 
aircraft with hydraulically powered flight controls and artificial feel 
systems is by the measurement of control force and rate of movement. For 
each axis of pitch, roll, and yaw, the control must be forced to its 
maximum extreme position for the following distinct rates. These tests 
are conducted under normal flight and ground conditions.

[[Page 419]]

    (a) Static test--Slowly move the control so that a full sweep is 
achieved within 95-105 seconds. A full sweep is defined as movement of 
the controller from neutral to the stop, usually aft or right stop, then 
to the opposite stop, then to the neutral position.
    (b) Slow dynamic test--Achieve a full sweep within 8-12 seconds.
    (c) Fast dynamic test--Achieve a full sweep within 3-5 seconds.

    Note: Dynamic sweeps may be limited to forces not exceeding 100 lbs. 
(44.5 daN).

    (d) Tolerances.
    (i) Static test; see Table D2A, Flight Training Device (FTD) 
Objective Tests, Entries 2.a.1., 2.a.2., and 2.a.3.
    (ii) Dynamic test--2 lbs (0.9 daN) or 10% on dynamic increment above static test.

                           End QPS Requirement

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    d. The FAA is open to alternative means that are justified and 
appropriate to the application. For example, the method described here 
may not apply to all manufacturers' systems and certainly not to 
aircraft with reversible control systems. Each case is considered on its 
own merit on an ad hoc basis. If the FAA finds that alternative methods 
do not result in satisfactory performance, more conventionally accepted 
methods will have to be used.

 4. For Additional Information on the Following Topics, Please Refer to 
   Appendix C of This Part, Attachment 2, and the Indicated Paragraph 
                         Within That Attachment

     Additional Information About Flight Simulator 
Qualification for New or Derivative Helicopters, paragraph 8.
     Engineering Simulator Validation Data, paragraph 
9.
     Validation Test Tolerances, paragraph 11.
     Validation Data Road Map, paragraph 12.
     Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics, 
paragraph 13.
     Transport Delay Testing, paragraph 15.
     Continuing Qualification Evaluation Validation 
Data Presentation, paragraph 16.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  Attachment 3 to Appendix D to Part 60--FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICE (FTD) 
                          SUBJECTIVE EVALUATION

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                             1. Requirements

    a. Except for special use airport models, all airport models 
required by this part must be representations of real-world, operational 
airports or representations of fictional airports and must meet the 
requirements set out in Tables D3B or D3C of this attachment, as 
appropriate.
    b. If fictional airports are used, the sponsor must ensure that 
navigational aids and all appropriate maps, charts, and other 
navigational reference material for the fictional airports (and 
surrounding areas as necessary) are compatible, complete, and accurate 
with respect to the visual presentation and the airport model of this 
fictional airport. An SOC must be submitted that addresses navigation 
aid installation and performance and other criteria (including 
obstruction clearance protection) for all instrument approaches to the 
fictional airports that are available in the simulator. The SOC must 
reference and account for information in the terminal instrument 
procedures manual and the construction and availability of the required 
maps, charts, and other navigational material. This material must be 
clearly marked ``for training purposes only.''
    c. When the simulator is being used by an instructor or evaluator 
for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter, only 
airport models classified as Class I, Class II, or Class III may be used 
by the instructor or evaluator. Detailed descriptions/definitions of 
these classifications are found in Appendix F of this part.
    d. When a person sponsors an FTD maintained by a person other than a 
U.S. certificate holder, the sponsor is accountable for that FTD 
originally meeting, and continuing to meet, the criteria under which it 
was originally qualified and the appropriate Part 60 criteria, including 
the visual scenes and airport models that may be used by instructors or 
evaluators for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this 
chapter.
    e. Neither Class II nor Class III airport visual models are required 
to appear on the SOQ, and the method used for keeping instructors and 
evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class 
III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the sponsor, 
but the method used must be available for review by the TPAA.
    f. When an airport model represents a real world airport and a 
permanent change is made to that real world airport (e.g., a new runway, 
an extended taxiway, a new lighting system, a runway closure) without a 
written extension grant from the responsible Flight Standards office 
(described in paragraph 1.g., of this section), an update to that 
airport

[[Page 420]]

model must be made in accordance with the following time limits:
    (1) For a new airport runway, a runway extension, a new airport 
taxiway, a taxiway extension, or a runway/taxiway closure--within 90 
days of the opening for use of the new airport runway, runway extension, 
new airport taxiway, or taxiway extension; or within 90 days of the 
closure of the runway or taxiway.
    (2) For a new or modified approach light system--within 45 days of 
the activation of the new or modified approach light system.
    (3) For other facility or structural changes on the airport (e.g., 
new terminal, relocation of Air Traffic Control Tower)--within 180 days 
of the opening of the new or changed facility or structure.
    g. If a sponsor desires an extension to the time limit for an update 
to a visual scene or airport model or has an objection to what must be 
updated in the specific airport model requirement, the sponsor must 
provide a written extension request to the responsible Flight Standards 
office stating the reason for the update delay and a proposed completion 
date or provide an explanation for the objection, explaining why the 
identified airport change will not have an impact on flight training, 
testing, or checking. A copy of this request or objection must also be 
sent to the POI/TCPM.
    h. Examples of situations that may warrant Class_III model 
designation by the TPAA include the following:
    (a) Training, testing, or checking on very low visibility 
operations, including SMGCS operations.
    (b) Instrument operations training (including instrument takeoff, 
departure, arrival, approach, and missed approach training, testing, or 
checking) using--
    (i) A specific model that has been geographically ``moved'' to a 
different location and aligned with an instrument procedure for another 
airport.
    (ii) A model that does not match changes made at the real-world 
airport (or landing area for helicopters) being modeled.
    (iii) A model generated with an ``off-board'' or an ``on-board'' 
model development tool (by providing proper latitude/longitude 
reference; correct runway or landing area orientation, length, width, 
marking, and lighting information; and appropriate adjacent taxiway 
location) to generate a facsimile of a real world airport or landing 
area.
    These airport models may be accepted by the TPAA without individual 
observation provided the sponsor provides the TPAA with an acceptable 
description of the process for determining the acceptability of a 
specific airport model, outlines the conditions under which such an 
airport model may be used, and adequately describes what restrictions 
will be applied to each resulting airport or landing area model.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              2. Discussion

    a. The subjective tests and the examination of functions provide a 
basis for evaluating the capability of the FTD to perform over a typical 
utilization period; determining that the FTD satisfactorily meets the 
appropriate training/testing/checking objectives and competently 
simulates each required maneuver, procedure, or task; and verifying 
correct operation of the FTD controls, instruments, and systems. The 
items in the list of operations tasks are for FTD evaluation purposes 
only. They must not be used to limit or exceed the authorizations for 
use of a given level of FTD as found in the Practical Test Standards or 
as approved by the TPAA. All items in the following paragraphs are 
subject to an examination of function.
    b. The List of Operations Tasks in Table D3A addressing pilot 
functions and maneuvers is divided by flight phases. All simulated 
helicopter systems functions will be assessed for normal and, where 
appropriate, alternate operations. Normal, abnormal, and emergency 
operations associated with a flight phase will be assessed during the 
evaluation of maneuvers or events within that flight phase.
    c. Systems to be evaluated are listed separately under ``Any Flight 
Phase'' to ensure appropriate attention to systems checks. Operational 
navigation systems (including inertial navigation systems, global 
positioning systems, or other long-range systems) and the associated 
electronic display systems will be evaluated if installed. The pilot 
will include in his report to the TPAA, the effect of the system 
operation and any system limitation.
    d. At the request of the TPAA, the Pilot may assess the FTD for a 
special aspect of a sponsor's training program during the functions and 
subjective portion of an evaluation. Such an assessment may include a 
portion of a specific operation (e.g., a Line Oriented Flight Training 
(LOFT) scenario) or special emphasis items in the sponsor's training 
program. Unless directly related to a requirement for the qualification 
level, the results of such an evaluation would not necessarily affect 
the qualification of the FTD.
    e. The FAA intends to allow the use of Class III airport models on a 
limited basis when the sponsor provides the TPAA (or other regulatory 
authority) an appropriate analysis of the skills, knowledge, and 
abilities (SKAs) necessary for competent performance of the tasks in 
which this particular media element is used. The analysis should 
describe the ability of the FTD/visual

[[Page 421]]

media to provide an adequate environment in which the required SKAs are 
satisfactorily performed and learned. The analysis should also include 
the specific media element, such as the visual scene or airport model. 
Additional sources of information on the conduct of task and capability 
analysis may be found on the FAA's Advanced Qualification Program (AQP) 
Web site at: http://www.faa.gov/education_research/training/aqp.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

     Table D3A--Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 7 FTD
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Entry No.                         Operations tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the
 helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or a
 Level 7 FTD. Items not installed, not functional on the FTD, and not
 appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed
 as exceptions on the SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a....................  Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only)
                          switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b....................  APU/Engine start and run-up.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1..................  Normal start procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2..................  Alternate start procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.3..................  Abnormal starts and shutdowns (hot start, hung
                          start).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.4..................  Rotor engagement.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.5..................  System checks.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c....................  Taxiing--Ground.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.1..................  Power required to taxi.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.2..................  Brake effectiveness.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.3..................  Ground handling.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.4..................  Abnormal/emergency procedures, for example:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.4.a................  Brake system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.4.b................  Ground resonance.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.4.c................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d....................  Taxiing--Hover.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.1..................  Takeoff to a hover.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.2..................  Instrument response.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.2.a................  Engine instruments.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.2.a................  Flight instruments.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.3..................  Hovering turns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.4..................  Hover power checks.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.4.a................  In ground effect (IGE).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.4.b................  Out of ground effect (OGE).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.5..................  Crosswind/tailwind hover.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.6..................  Abnormal/emergency procedures:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.6.a................  Engine failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.6.b................  Fuel governing system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 422]]

 
1.d.6.c................  Settling with power (OGE).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.6.d................  Stability augmentation system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.6.e................  Directional control malfunction (including Loss
                          of Tail Rotor Effectiveness, LTE).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.6.f................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e....................  Pre-takeoff Checks.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Takeoff and Departure Phase
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a....................  Normal and Crosswind Takeoff.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1..................  From ground.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2..................  From hover.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3..................  Running.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.4..................  Crosswind/tailwind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.5..................  Maximum performance.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b....................  Instrument.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c....................  Powerplant Failure During Takeoff.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.1..................  Takeoff with engine failure after critical
                          decision point (CDP).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d....................  Rejected Takeoff.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e....................  Instrument Departure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.f....................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Climb
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a....................  Normal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b....................  Obstacle clearance.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c....................  Vertical.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d....................  One engine inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e....................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Inflight Maneuvers
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a....................  Performance.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b....................  Flying qualities.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c....................  Turns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1..................  Timed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2..................  Normal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.3..................  Steep.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d....................  Accelerations and decelerations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e....................  High-speed vibrations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f....................  Abnormal/emergency procedures, for example:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.1..................  Engine fire.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.2..................  Engine failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 423]]

 
4.f.2.a................  Powerplant Failure--Multiengine Helicopters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.2.b................  Powerplant Failure--Single-Engine Helicopters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.3..................  Inflight engine shutdown (and restart, if
                          applicable).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.4..................  Fuel governing system failures (e.g., FADEC
                          malfunction).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.5..................  Directional control malfunction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.6..................  Hydraulic failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.7..................  Stability augmentation system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.8..................  Rotor vibrations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.9..................  Recovery From Unusual Attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.10.................  Settling with Power.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g....................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Instrument Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a....................  Instrument Arrival.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b....................  Holding.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c....................  Precision Instrument Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.1..................  Normal--All engines operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.2..................  Manually controlled--One or more engines
                          inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3..................  Approach procedures:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3.a................  PAR.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3.b................  GPS.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3.c................  ILS.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3.c.1..............  Manual (raw data).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3.c.2..............  Autopilot * only.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3.c.3..............  Flight director only.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3.c.4..............  Autopilot * and flight director (if
                          appropriate) coupled.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3.d................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d....................  Non-precision Instrument Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.1..................  Normal--All engines operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.2..................  One or more engines inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3..................  Approach procedures:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3.a................  NDB.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3.b................  VOR, RNAV, TACAN, GPS.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3.c................  ASR.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3.d................  Circling.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3.e................  Helicopter only.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3.f................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 424]]

 
5.e....................  Missed Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.1..................  All engines operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.2..................  One or more engines inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.3..................  Stability augmentation system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.4..................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Landings and Approaches to Landings
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a....................  Visual Approaches.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.1..................  Normal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.2..................  Steep.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.3..................  Shallow.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.4..................  Crosswind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b....................  Landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1..................  Normal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.a................  Running.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.b................  From Hover.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.2..................  Crosswind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.3..................  Tailwind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.4..................  One or more engines inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.5..................  Rejected Landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.6..................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a....................  Helicopter and powerplant systems operation (as
                          applicable).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.1..................  Anti-icing/deicing systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.2..................  Auxiliary powerplant.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.3..................  Communications.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.4..................  Electrical system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.5..................  Environmental system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.6..................  Fire detection and suppression.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.7..................  Flight control system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.8..................  Fuel system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.9..................  Engine oil system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.10.................  Hydraulic system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.11.................  Landing gear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.12.................  Oxygen.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.13.................  Pneumatic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.14.................  Powerplant.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 425]]

 
7.a.15.................  Flight control computers.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.16.................  Fly-by-wire controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.17.................  Stabilizer.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.18.................  Stability augmentation and control augmentation
                          system(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.19.................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b....................  Flight management and guidance system (as
                          applicable).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.1..................  Airborne radar.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.2..................  Automatic landing aids.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.3..................  Autopilot.*
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.4..................  Collision avoidance system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.5..................  Flight data displays.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.6..................  Flight management computers.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.7..................  Head-up displays.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.8..................  Navigation systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.9..................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. Emergency Procedures (as applicable)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a....................  Autorotative Landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b....................  Air hazard avoidance.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c....................  Ditching.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d....................  Emergency evacuation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e....................  Inflight fire and smoke removal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f....................  Retreating blade stall recovery.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g....................  Mast bumping.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.h....................  Loss of tail rotor effectiveness.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.i....................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9. Postflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.a....................  After-Landing Procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b....................  Parking and Securing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b.1..................  Engine and systems operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b.2..................  Parking brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b.3..................  Rotor brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b.4..................  Abnormal/emergency procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a...................  Power Switch(es).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b...................  Helicopter conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.1.................  Gross weight, center of gravity, fuel loading
                          and allocation, etc.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 426]]

 
10.b.2.................  Helicopter systems status.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.................  Ground crew functions (e.g., ext. power).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.c...................  Airports.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.c.1.................  Selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.c.2.................  Runway selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.c.3.................  Preset positions (e.g., ramp, over final
                          approach fix).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.d...................  Environmental controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.d.1.................  Temperature.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.d.2.................  Climate conditions (e.g., ice, rain).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.d.3.................  Wind speed and direction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.e...................  Helicopter system malfunctions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.e.1.................  Insertion/deletion.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.e.2.................  Problem clear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.f...................  Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.f.1.................  Problem (all) freeze/release.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.f.2.................  Position (geographic) freeze/release.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.f.3.................  Repositioning (locations, freezes, and
                          releases).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.f.4.................  Ground speed control.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.g...................  Sound Controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.g.1.................  On/off/adjustment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.h...................  Control Loading System (as applicable).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.h.1.................  On/off/emergency stop.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.i...................  Observer Stations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.i.1.................  Position.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.i.2.................  Adjustments.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
* ``Autopilot'' means attitude retention mode of operation.


  Table D3B--Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Airport or Landing
       Area Content Requirements for Qualification at Level 7 FTD
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
   Entry No.                         Operations tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
This table specifies the minimum airport visual model content and
 functionality to qualify an FTD at the indicated level. This table
 applies only to the airport/helicopter landing area scenes required for
 FTD qualification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1..............  Functional test content requirements for Level 7 FTDs.
                  The following is the minimum airport/landing area
                  model content requirement to satisfy visual capability
                  tests, and provides suitable visual cues to allow
                  completion of all functions and subjective tests
                  described in this attachment for Level 7 FTDs.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 427]]

 
1.a............  A minimum of one (1) representative airport and one (1)
                  representative helicopter landing area model. The
                  airport and the helicopter landing area may be
                  contained within the same visual model. If this option
                  is selected, the approach path to the airport
                  runway(s) and the approach path to the helicopter
                  landing area must be different. The model(s) used to
                  meet the following requirements may be demonstrated at
                  either a fictional or a real-world airport or
                  helicopter landing area, but each must be acceptable
                  to the sponsor's TPAA, selectable from the IOS, and
                  listed on the SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b............  Fidelity of the Visual Scene. The fidelity of the
                  visual scene must be sufficient for the aircrew to
                  visually identify the airport and/or helicopter
                  landing area; determine the position of the simulated
                  helicopter within the visual scene; successfully
                  accomplish take-offs, approaches, and landings; and
                  maneuver around the airport and/or helicopter landing
                  area on the ground, or hover taxi, as necessary.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1..........  For each of the airport/helicopter landing areas
                  described in 1.a., the FTD visual system must be able
                  to provide at least the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1.a........  A night and twilight (dusk) environment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1.b........  A daylight environment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c............  Runways:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.1..........  Visible runway number.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.2..........  Runway threshold elevations and locations must be
                  modeled to provide sufficient correlation with
                  helicopter systems (e.g., altimeter).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.3..........  Runway surface and markings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.4..........  Lighting for the runway in use including runway edge
                  and centerline.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.5..........  Lighting, visual approach aid (VASI or PAPI) and
                  approach lighting of appropriate colors.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.6..........  Taxiway lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d............  Helicopter landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.1..........  Standard heliport designation (``H'') marking, properly
                  sized and oriented.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.2..........  Perimeter markings for the Touchdown and Lift-Off Area
                  (TLOF) or the Final Approach and Takeoff Area (FATO),
                  as appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.3..........  Perimeter lighting for the TLOF or the FATO areas, as
                  appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.4..........  Appropriate markings and lighting to allow movement
                  from the runway or helicopter landing area to another
                  part of the landing facility.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2..............  Visual scene management.
                 The following is the minimum visual scene management
                  requirements for a Level 7 FTD.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a............  Runway and helicopter landing area approach lighting
                  must fade into view appropriately in accordance with
                  the environmental conditions set in the FTD.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b............  The direction of strobe lights, approach lights, runway
                  edge lights, visual landing aids, runway centerline
                  lights, threshold lights, touchdown zone lights, and
                  TLOF or FATO lights must be replicated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3..............  Visual feature recognition.
                 The following are the minimum distances at which runway
                  features must be visible. Distances are measured from
                  runway threshold or a helicopter landing area to a
                  helicopter aligned with the runway or helicopter
                  landing area on an extended 3[deg] glide-slope in
                  simulated meteorological conditions. For circling
                  approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the
                  initial approach and to the runway of intended
                  landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a............  For runways: Runway definition, strobe lights, approach
                  lights, and edge lights from 5 sm (8 km) of the
                  threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b............  For runways: Centerline lights and taxiway definition
                  from 3 sm (5 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c............  For runways: Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI)
                  from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d............  For runways: Runway threshold lights and touchdown zone
                  from 2 sm (3 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 428]]

 
3.e............  For runways and helicopter landing areas: Markings
                  within range of landing lights for night/twilight
                  scenes and the surface resolution test on daylight
                  scenes, as required.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.f............  For circling approaches: The runway of intended landing
                  and associated lighting must fade into view in a non-
                  distracting manner.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.g............  For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction lights
                  and raised FATO lights from 1 sm (1.5 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.h............  For helicopter landing areas: Flush mounted FATO
                  lights, TLOF lights, and the lighted windsock from 0.5
                  sm (750 m).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4..............  Airport or Helicopter Landing Area Model Content.
                 The following prescribes the minimum requirements for
                  an airport/helicopter landing area visual model and
                  identifies other aspects of the environment that must
                  correspond with that model for a Level 7 FTD. For
                  circling approaches, all tests apply to the runway
                  used for the initial approach and to the runway of
                  intended landing. If all runways or landing areas in a
                  visual model used to meet the requirements of this
                  attachment are not designated as ``in use,'' then the
                  ``in use'' runways/landing areas must be listed on the
                  SOQ (e.g., KORD, Rwys 9R, 14L, 22R). Models of
                  airports or helicopter landing areas with more than
                  one runway or landing area must have all significant
                  runways or landing areas not ``in-use'' visually
                  depicted for airport/runway/landing area recognition
                  purposes. The use of white or off white light strings
                  that identify the runway or landing area for twilight
                  and night scenes are acceptable for this requirement;
                  and rectangular surface depictions are acceptable for
                  daylight scenes. A visual system's capabilities must
                  be balanced between providing visual models with an
                  accurate representation of the airport and a realistic
                  representation of the surrounding environment. Each
                  runway or helicopter landing area designated as an
                  ``in-use'' runway or area must include the following
                  detail that is developed using airport pictures,
                  construction drawings and maps, or other similar data,
                  or developed in accordance with published regulatory
                  material; however, this does not require that such
                  models contain details that are beyond the design
                  capability of the currently qualified visual system.
                  Only one ``primary'' taxi route from parking to the
                  runway end or helicopter takeoff/landing area will be
                  required for each ``in-use'' runway or helicopter
                  takeoff/landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a............  The surface and markings for each ``in-use'' runway or
                  helicopter landing area must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.1..........  For airports: Runway threshold markings, runway
                  numbers, touchdown zone markings, fixed distance
                  markings, runway edge markings, and runway centerline
                  stripes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.2..........  For helicopter landing areas: Markings for standard
                  heliport identification (``H'') and TLOF, FATO, and
                  safety areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b............  The lighting for each ``in-use'' runway or helicopter
                  landing area must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.1..........  For airports: Runway approach, threshold, edge, end,
                  centerline (if applicable), touchdown zone (if
                  applicable), leadoff, and visual landing aid lights or
                  light systems for that runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.2..........  For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction, raised
                  and flush FATO, TLOF, windsock lighting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c............  The taxiway surface and markings associated with each
                  ``in-use'' runway or helicopter landing area must
                  include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1..........  For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if
                  appropriate), runway hold lines, and ILS critical
                  area(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2..........  For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes,
                  and aprons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d............  The taxiway lighting associated with each ``in-use''
                  runway or helicopter landing area must include the
                  following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d.1..........  For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if
                  appropriate), runway hold lines, ILS critical areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d.2..........  For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes,
                  and aprons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d.3..........  For airports: Taxiway lighting of correct color.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e............  Airport signage associated with each ``in-use'' runway
                  or helicopter landing area must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.1..........  For airports: Signs for runway distance remaining,
                  intersecting runway with taxiway, and intersecting
                  taxiway with taxiway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.2..........  For helicopter landing areas: As appropriate for the
                  model used.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f............  Required visual model correlation with other aspects of
                  the airport or helicopter landing environment
                  simulation:
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 429]]

 
4.f.1..........  The airport or helicopter landing area model must be
                  properly aligned with the navigational aids that are
                  associated with operations at the ``in-use'' runway or
                  helicopter landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.2..........  The simulation of runway or helicopter landing area
                  contaminants must be correlated with the displayed
                  runway surface and lighting, if applicable.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5..............  Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment.
                 The following are the minimum correlation comparisons
                  that must be made for a Level 7 FTD.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a............  Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic
                  programming.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b............  Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception
                  during landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c............  Accurate portrayal of environment relating to FTD
                  attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d............  The visual scene must correlate with integrated
                  helicopter systems, where installed (e.g., terrain,
                  traffic and weather avoidance systems and Head-up
                  Guidance System (HGS)).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e............  Representative visual effects for each visible, own-
                  ship, helicopter external light(s)--taxi and landing
                  light lobes (including independent operation, if
                  appropriate).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.f............  The effect of rain removal devices.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6..............  Scene quality.
                 The following are the minimum scene quality tests that
                  must be conducted for a Level 7 FTD.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a............  System light points must be free from distracting
                  jitter, smearing and streaking.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b............  Demonstration of occulting through each channel of the
                  system in an operational scene.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c............  Six discrete light step controls (0-5).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7..............  Special weather representations, which include
                  visibility and RVR, measured in terms of distance.
                 Visibility/RVR checked at 2,000 ft (600 m) above the
                  airport or helicopter landing area and at two heights
                  below 2,000 ft with at least 500 ft of separation
                  between the measurements. The measurements must be
                  taken within a radius of 10 sm (16 km) from the
                  airport or helicopter landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a............  Effects of fog on airport lighting such as halos and
                  defocus.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b............  Effect of own-ship lighting in reduced visibility, such
                  as reflected glare, including landing lights, strobes,
                  and beacons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8..............  Instructor control of the following:
                 The following are the minimum instructor controls that
                  must be available in a Level 7 FTD.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a............  Environmental effects: E.g., cloud base, cloud effects,
                  cloud density, visibility in statute miles/kilometers
                  and RVR in feet/meters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b............  Airport or helicopter landing area selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c............  Airport or helicopter landing area lighting, including
                  variable intensity.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d............  Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                           End QPS Requirement
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            Begin Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9..............  An example of being able to combine two airport models
                  to achieve two ``in-use'' runways: One runway
                  designated as the ``in-use'' runway in the first model
                  of the airport, and the second runway designated as
                  the ``in-use'' runway in the second model of the same
                  airport. For example, the clearance is for the ILS
                  approach to Runway 27, Circle to Land on Runway 18
                  right. Two airport visual models might be used: The
                  first with Runway 27 designated as the ``in use''
                  runway for the approach to runway 27, and the second
                  with Runway 18 Right designated as the ``in use''
                  runway. When the pilot breaks off the ILS approach to
                  runway 27, the instructor may change to the second
                  airport visual model in which runway 18 Right is
                  designated as the ``in use'' runway, and the pilot
                  would make a visual approach and landing. This process
                  is acceptable to the FAA as long as the temporary
                  interruption due to the visual model change is not
                  distracting to the pilot.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 430]]

 
10.............  Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a
                  runway, but the detail that is provided should be
                  correct within reasonable limits.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                             End Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------


  Table D3C--Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 7 FTD Visual
    Requirements Additional Visual Models Beyond Minimum Required for
    Qualification Class II Airport or Helicopter Landing Area Models
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
   Entry No.                         Operations tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
This table specifies the minimum airport or helicopter landing area
 visual model content and functionality necessary to add visual models
 to an FTD's visual model library (i.e., beyond those necessary for
 qualification at the stated level) without the necessity of further
 involvement of the responsible Flight Standards office or TPAA.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1..............  Visual scene management.
                 The following is the minimum visual scene management
                  requirements.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a............  The installation and direction of the following lights
                  must be replicated for the ``in-use'' surface:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1..........  For ``in-use'' runways: Strobe lights, approach lights,
                  runway edge lights, visual landing aids, runway
                  centerline lights, threshold lights, and touchdown
                  zone lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.2..........  For ``in-use'' helicopter landing areas: Ground level
                  TLOF perimeter lights, elevated TLOF perimeter lights
                  (if applicable), Optional TLOF lights (if applicable),
                  ground FATO perimeter lights, elevated TLOF lights (if
                  applicable), landing direction lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2..............  Visual feature recognition.
                 The following are the minimum distances at which runway
                  or landing area features must be visible. Distances
                  are measured from runway threshold or a helicopter
                  landing area to an aircraft aligned with the runway or
                  helicopter landing area on a 3[deg] glide-slope from
                  the aircraft to the touchdown point, in simulated
                  meteorological conditions. For circling approaches,
                  all tests apply to the runway used for the initial
                  approach and to the runway of intended landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a............  For Runways.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1..........  Strobe lights, approach lights, and edge lights from 5
                  sm (8 km) of the threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2..........  Centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3 sm (5
                  km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3..........  Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8
                  km) of the threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.4..........  Threshold lights and touchdown zone lights from 2 sm (3
                  km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.5..........  Markings within range of landing lights for night/
                  twilight (dusk) scenes and as required by the surface
                  resolution test on daylight scenes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.6..........  For circling approaches, the runway of intended landing
                  and associated lighting must fade into view in a non-
                  distracting manner.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b............  For Helicopter landing areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.1..........  Landing direction lights and raised FATO lights from 2
                  sm (3 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.2..........  Flush mounted FATO lights, TOFL lights, and the lighted
                  windsock from 1 sm (1500 m).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3..........  Hover taxiway lighting (yellow/blue/yellow cylinders)
                  from TOFL area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.4..........  Markings within range of landing lights for night/
                  twilight (dusk) scenes and as required by the surface
                  resolution test on daylight scenes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 431]]

 
3..............  Airport or Helicopter Landing Area Model Content.
                 The following prescribes the minimum requirements for
                  what must be provided in an airport visual model and
                  identifies other aspects of the airport environment
                  that must correspond with that model. The detail must
                  be developed using airport pictures, construction
                  drawings and maps, or other similar data, or developed
                  in accordance with published regulatory material;
                  however, this does not require that airport or
                  helicopter landing area models contain details that
                  are beyond the designed capability of the currently
                  qualified visual system. For circling approaches, all
                  requirements of this section apply to the runway used
                  for the initial approach and to the runway of intended
                  landing. Only one ``primary'' taxi route from parking
                  to the runway end or helicopter takeoff/landing area
                  will be required for each ``in-use'' runway or
                  helicopter takeoff/landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a............  The surface and markings for each ``in-use'' runway or
                  helicopter landing area must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.1..........  For airports: Runway threshold markings, runway
                  numbers, touchdown zone markings, fixed distance
                  markings, runway edge markings, and runway centerline
                  stripes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.2..........  For helicopter landing areas: Standard heliport marking
                  (``H''), TOFL, FATO, and safety areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b............  The lighting for each ``in-use'' runway or helicopter
                  landing area must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.1..........  For airports: Runway approach, threshold, edge, end,
                  centerline (if applicable), touchdown zone (if
                  applicable), leadoff, and visual landing aid lights or
                  light systems for that runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.2..........  For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction, raised
                  and flush FATO, TOFL, windsock lighting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c............  The taxiway surface and markings associated with each
                  ``in-use'' runway or helicopter landing area must
                  include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c.1..........  For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if
                  appropriate), runway hold lines, and ILS critical
                  area(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c.2..........  For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes,
                  and aprons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d............  The taxiway lighting associated with each ``in-use''
                  runway or helicopter landing area must include the
                  following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d.1..........  For airports: Runway edge, centerline (if appropriate),
                  runway hold lines, ILS critical areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d.2..........  For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes,
                  and aprons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4..............  Required visual model correlation with other aspects of
                  the airport environment simulation.
                 The following are the minimum visual model correlation
                  tests that must be conducted for Level 7 FTD.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a............  The airport model must be properly aligned with the
                  navigational aids that are associated with operations
                  at the ``in-use'' runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b............  Slopes in runways, taxiways, and ramp areas, if
                  depicted in the visual scene, must not cause
                  distracting or unrealistic effects.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5..............  Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment.
                 The following are the minimum correlation comparisons
                  that must be made.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a............  Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic
                  programming.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b............  Accurate portrayal of environment relating to flight
                  simulator attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c............  Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception
                  during landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6..............  Scene quality.
                 The following are the minimum scene quality tests that
                  must be conducted.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a............  Light points free from distracting jitter, smearing or
                  streaking.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b............  Surfaces and textural cues free from apparent and
                  distracting quantization (aliasing).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7..............  Instructor controls of the following.
                 The following are the minimum instructor controls that
                  must be available.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a............  Environmental effects, e.g., cloud base (if used),
                  cloud effects, cloud density, visibility in statute
                  miles/kilometers and RVR in feet/meters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 432]]

 
7.b............  Airport/Heliport selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c............  Airport/Heliport lighting including variable intensity.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d............  Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                          End QPS Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            Begin Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8..............  Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a
                  runway or helicopter landing area, but the detail that
                  is provided must be correct within the capabilities of
                  the system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                             End Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------


     Table D3D--Table of Functions And Subjective Tests Level 6 FTD
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Entry No.                         Operations tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the
 helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or for
 a Level 6 FTD. Items not installed or not functional on the FTD and not
 appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed
 as exceptions on the SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a....................  Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only)
                          switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b....................  APU/Engine start and run-up.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1..................  Normal start procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2..................  Alternate start procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.3..................  Abnormal starts and shutdowns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.4..................  Rotor engagement.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.5..................  System checks.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Takeoff and Departure Phase
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a....................  Instrument.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b....................  Takeoff with engine failure after critical
                          decision point (CDP).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Climb
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a....................  Normal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b....................  One engine inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Inflight Maneuvers
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a....................  Performance.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b....................  Flying qualities.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c....................  Turns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1..................  Timed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2..................  Normal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.3..................  Steep.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d....................  Accelerations and decelerations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 433]]

 
4.e....................  Abnormal/emergency procedures:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.1..................  Engine fire.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.2..................  Engine failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.3..................  In-flight engine shutdown (and restart, if
                          applicable).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.4..................  Fuel governing system failures (e.g., FADEC
                          malfunction).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.5..................  Directional control malfunction (restricted to
                          the extent that the maneuver may not terminate
                          in a landing).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.6..................  Hydraulic failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.7..................  Stability augmentation system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Instrument Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a....................  Holding.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b....................  Precision Instrument Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.1..................  All engines operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.2..................  One or more engines inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.3..................  Approach procedures:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.4..................  PAR.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.5..................  ILS.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.6..................  Manual (raw data).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.7..................  Flight director only.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.8..................  Autopilot* and flight director (if appropriate)
                          coupled.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c....................  Non-precision Instrument Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c....................  Normal--All engines operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c....................  One or more engines inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c....................  Approach procedures:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.1..................  NDB.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.2..................  VOR, RNAV, TACAN, GPS.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3..................  ASR.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.4..................  Helicopter only.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d....................  Missed Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.1..................  All engines operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.2..................  One or more engines inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3..................  Stability augmentation system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a....................  Helicopter and powerplant systems operation (as
                          applicable).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.1..................  Anti-icing/deicing systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.2..................  Auxiliary power-plant.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.3..................  Communications.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 434]]

 
6.a.4..................  Electrical system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.5..................  Environmental system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.6..................  Fire detection and suppression.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.7..................  Flight control system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.8..................  Fuel system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.9..................  Engine oil system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.10.................  Hydraulic system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.11.................  Landing gear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.12.................  Oxygen.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.13.................  Pneumatic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.14.................  Powerplant.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.15.................  Flight control computers.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.16.................  Stability augmentation and control augmentation
                          system(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b....................  Flight management and guidance system (as
                          applicable).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1..................  Airborne radar.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.2..................  Automatic landing aids.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.3..................  Autopilot.*
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.4..................  Collision avoidance system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.5..................  Flight data displays.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.6..................  Flight management computers.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.7..................  Navigation systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Postflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a....................  Parking and Securing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b....................  Engine and systems operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c....................  Parking brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d....................  Rotor brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e....................  Abnormal/emergency procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a....................  Power Switch(es).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.1..................  Helicopter conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.2..................  Gross weight, center of gravity, fuel loading
                          and allocation, etc.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.3..................  Helicopter systems status.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.4..................  Ground crew functions (e.g., ext. power).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c....................  Airports and landing areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.1..................  Number and selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.2..................  Runway or landing area selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 435]]

 
8.c.3..................  Preset positions (e.g., ramp, over FAF).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.4..................  Lighting controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d....................  Environmental controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d.1..................  Temperature.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d.2..................  Climate conditions (e.g., ice, rain).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d.3..................  Wind speed and direction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e....................  Helicopter system malfunctions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e.1..................  Insertion/deletion.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e.2..................  Problem clear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f....................  Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.1..................  Problem (all) freeze/release.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.2..................  Position (geographic) freeze/release.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.3..................  Repositioning (locations, freezes, and
                          releases).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.4..................  Ground speed control.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g....................  Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.h....................  Control Loading System (as applicable) On/off/
                          emergency stop.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.i....................  Observer Stations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.i.1..................  Position.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.i.2..................  Adjustments.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
* ``Autopilot'' means attitude retention mode of operation.


     Table D3E--Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 5 FTD
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Entry No.                         Operations tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the
 helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or for
 a Level 5 FTD. Items not installed or not functional on the FTD and not
 appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed
 as exceptions on the SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a....................  Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only)
                          switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b....................  APU/Engine start and run-up.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1..................  Normal start procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2..................  Alternate start procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.3..................  Abnormal starts and shutdowns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Climb
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a....................  Normal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Inflight Maneuvers
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a....................  Performance.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b....................  Turns, Normal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 436]]

 
4. Instrument Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a....................  Coupled instrument approach maneuvers (as
                          applicable for the systems installed).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a....................  Normal system operation (installed systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b....................  Abnormal/Emergency system operation (installed
                          systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Postflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a....................  Parking and Securing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b....................  Engine and systems operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c....................  Parking brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.d....................  Rotor brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.e....................  Abnormal/emergency procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a....................  Power Switch(es).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b....................  Preset positions (ground; air)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c....................  Helicopter system malfunctions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c.1..................  Insertion/deletion.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c.2..................  Problem clear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d....................  Control Loading System (as applicable) On/off/
                          emergency stop.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e....................  Observer Stations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e.1..................  Position.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e.2..................  Adjustments.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------


     Table D3F--Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 4 FTD
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Entry No.                         Operations tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the
 helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or for
 a Level 4 FTD. Items not installed or not functional on the FTD and not
 appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed
 as exceptions on the SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a....................  Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only)
                          switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b....................  APU/Engine start and run-up.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1..................  Normal start procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2..................  Alternate start procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.3..................  Abnormal starts and shutdowns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a....................  Normal system operation (installed systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b....................  Abnormal/Emergency system operation (installed
                          systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 437]]

 
3. Postflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a....................  Parking and Securing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b....................  Engine and systems operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c....................  Parking brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a....................  Power Switch(es).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b....................  Preset positions (ground; air)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c....................  Helicopter system malfunctions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1..................  Insertion/deletion.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2..................  Problem clear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

         Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60--Sample Documents

                            Table of Contents

Figure D4A Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement 
          Evaluation
Figure D4B Attachment: FTD Information Form
Figure D4C Sample Letter of Compliance
Figure D4D Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page
Figure D4E Sample Statement of Qualification--Certificate
Figure D4F Sample Statement of Qualification--Configuration List
Figure D4G Sample Statement of Qualification--List of Qualified Tasks
Figure D4H [Reserved]
Figure D4I Sample MQTG Index of Effective FTD Directives

   Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60--Figure D4A--Sample Letter, 
        Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation

                               Information
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.121


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[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.057

  Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60--Figure D4C--Sample Letter of 
                               Compliance

                               Information

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[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.123

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.124

Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60--Figure D4D--Sample Qualification 
                          Test Guide Cover Page

                               Information

[[Page 443]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.125

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.126

 Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60--Figure D4E--Sample Statement of 
                       Qualification--Certificate

                               Information

[[Page 444]]

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[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.064

      Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60--Figure D4H [Reserved]



[[Page 449]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.066


[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 
60-6, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018; Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 
60-7, 87 FR 75833, Dec. 9, 2022]





  Sec. Appendix E to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for 
    Quality Management Systems for Flight Simulation Training Devices

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. Not later than May 30, 2010, each current sponsor of an FSTD must 
submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a proposed Quality 
Management System (QMS) program as described in this appendix. The 
responsible Flight Standards office will notify the sponsor of the 
acceptability of the program, including any required adjustments. Within 
6 months of the notification of acceptability, the sponsor must 
implement the program, conduct internal audits, make required program 
adjustments as a result of any internal audit, and schedule the 
responsible Flight Standards office initial audit.
    b. First-time FSTD sponsors must submit to the responsible Flight 
Standards office the proposed QMS program no later than 120 days before 
the initial FSTD evaluation. The responsible Flight Standards office 
will notify the sponsor of the acceptability of the program, including 
any required adjustments. Within 6 months of the notification of 
acceptability, the sponsor must implement the program, conduct internal 
audits, make required program adjustments as a result of any internal 
audit, and schedule the responsible Flight Standards office initial 
audit.
    c. The Director of Operations for a Part 119 certificate holder, the 
Chief Instructor for a Part 141 certificate holder, or the equivalent 
for a Part 142 or Flight Engineer School sponsor must designate a 
Management Representative (MR) who has the authority to establish and 
modify the sponsor's policies, practices, and procedures regarding the 
QMS program for the recurring qualification and the daily use of each 
FSTD.
    d. The minimum content required for an acceptable QMS is found in 
Table E1. The policies, processes, or procedures described in this table 
must be maintained in a Quality Manual and will serve as the basis for 
the following:
    (1) The sponsor-conducted initial and recurring periodic 
assessments;

[[Page 450]]

    (2) The responsible Flight Standards office-conducted initial and 
recurring periodic assessments; and
    (3) The continuing surveillance and analysis by the responsible 
Flight Standards office of the sponsor's performance and effectiveness 
in providing a satisfactory FSTD for use on a regular basis.
    e. The sponsor must conduct assessments of its QMS program in 
segments. The segments will be established by the responsible Flight 
Standards office at the initial assessment, and the interval for the 
segment assessments will be every 6 months. The intervals for the 
segment assessments may be extended beyond 6 months as the QMS program 
matures, but will not be extended beyond 12 months. The entire QMS 
program must be assessed every 24 months.
    f. The periodic assessments conducted by the responsible Flight 
Standards office will be conducted at intervals not less than once every 
24 months, and include a comprehensive review of the QMS program. These 
reviews will be conducted more frequently if warranted.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    g. An example of a segment assessment--At the initial QMS 
assessment, the responsible Flight Standards office will divide the QMS 
program into segments (e.g., 6 separate segments). There must be an 
assessment of a certain number of segments every 6 months (i.e., 
segments 1 and 2 at the end of the first 6 month period; segments 3 and 
4 at the end of the second 6 month period (or one year); and segments 5 
and 6 at the end of the third 6 month period (or 18 months). As the 
program matures, the interval between assessments may be extended to 12 
months (e.g., segments 1, 2, and 3 at the end of the first year; and 
segments 4, 5, and 6 at the end of the second year). In both cases, the 
entire QMS program is assessed at least every 24 months.
    h. The following materials are presented to assist sponsors in 
preparing for an responsible Flight Standards office evaluation of the 
QMS program. The sample documents include:
    (1) The desk assessment tool for initial evaluation of the required 
elements of a QMS program.
    (2) The on-site assessment tool for initial and continuing 
evaluation of the required elements of a QMS program.
    (3) An Element Assessment Table that describes the circumstances 
that exist to warrant a finding of ``non-compliance,'' or ``non-
conformity''; ``partial compliance,'' or ``partial conformity''; and 
``acceptable compliance,'' or ``acceptable conformity.''
    (4) A sample Continuation Sheet for additional comments that may be 
added by the sponsor or the responsible Flight Standards office during a 
QMS evaluation.
    (5) A sample Sponsor Checklist to assist the sponsor in verifying 
the elements that comprise the required QMS program.
    (6) A table showing the essential functions, processes, and 
procedures that relate to the required QMS components and a cross-
reference to each represented task.
    i. Additional Information.
    (1) In addition to specifically designated QMS evaluations, the 
responsible Flight Standards office will evaluate the sponsor's QMS 
program as part of regularly scheduled FSTD continuing qualification 
evaluations and no-notice FSTD evaluations, focusing in part on the 
effectiveness and viability of the QMS program and its contribution to 
the overall capability of the FSTD to meet the requirements of this 
part.
    (2) The sponsor or MR may delegate duties associated with 
maintaining the qualification of the FSTD (e.g., corrective and 
preventive maintenance, scheduling and conducting tests or inspections, 
functional preflight checks) but retain the responsibility and authority 
for the day-to-day qualification of the FSTD. One person may serve as 
the sponsor or MR for more than one FSTD, but one FSTD may not have more 
than one sponsor or MR.
    (3) A QMS program may be applicable to more than one certificate 
holder (e.g., part 119 and part 142 or two part 119 certificate holders) 
and an MR may work for more than one certificate holder (e.g., part 119 
and part 142 or two part 119 certificate holders) as long as the 
sponsor's QMS program requirements and the MR requirements are met for 
each certificate holder.
    j. The FAA does not mandate a specific QMS program format, but an 
acceptable QMS program should contain the following:
    (1) A Quality Policy. This is a formal written Quality Policy 
Statement that is a commitment by the sponsor outlining what the Quality 
System will achieve.
    (2) A MR who has overall authority for monitoring the on-going 
qualification of assigned FSTDs to ensure that all FSTD qualification 
issues are resolved as required by this part. The MR should ensure that 
the QMS program is properly implemented and maintained, and should:
    (a) Brief the sponsor's management on the qualification processes;
    (b) Serve as the primary contact point for all matters between the 
sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office regarding the 
qualification of the assigned FSTDs; and
    (c) Oversee the day-to-day quality control.
    (3) The system and processes outlined in the QMS should enable the 
sponsor to monitor compliance with all applicable regulations and ensure 
correct maintenance and

[[Page 451]]

performance of the FSTD in accordance with part 60.
    (4) A QMS program and a statement acknowledging completion of a 
periodic review by the MR should include the following:
    (a) A maintenance facility that provides suitable FSTD hardware and 
software tests and maintenance capability.
    (b) A recording system in the form of a technical log in which 
defects, deferred defects, and development projects are listed, assigned 
and reviewed within a specified time period.
    (c) Routine maintenance of the FSTD and performance of the QTG tests 
with adequate staffing to cover FSTD operating periods.
    (d) A planned internal assessment schedule and a periodic review 
should be used to verify that corrective action was complete and 
effective. The assessor should have adequate knowledge of FSTDs and 
should be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.
    (5) The MR should receive Quality System training and brief other 
personnel on the procedures.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                                    Table E1--FSTD Quality Management System
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                                               Information
              Entry No.                                 QPS Requirement                        (Reference)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.1.................................  A QMS manual that prescribes the policies,        Sec. 60.5(a).
                                        processes, or procedures outlined in this table.
E1.2.................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.5(b).
                                        the sponsor will identify deficiencies in the
                                        QMS.
E1.3.................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.5(b).
                                        the sponsor will document how the QMS program
                                        will be changed to address deficiencies.
E1.4.................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.5(c).
                                        the sponsor will address proposed program
                                        changes (for programs that do not meet the
                                        minimum requirements as notified by the
                                        responsible Flight Standards office) to the
                                        responsible Flight Standards office and receive
                                        approval prior to their implementation.
E1.5.................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60. 7(b)(5).
                                        the sponsor will document that at least one
                                        FSTD is used within the sponsor's FAA-approved
                                        flight training program for the aircraft or set
                                        of aircraft at least once within the 12-month
                                        period following the initial or upgrade
                                        evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight
                                        Standards office and at least once within each
                                        subsequent 12-month period thereafter.
E1.6.................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.7(b)(6).
                                        the sponsor will document that at least one
                                        FSTD is used within the sponsor's FAA-approved
                                        flight training program for the aircraft or set
                                        of aircraft at least once within the 12-month
                                        period following the first continuing
                                        qualification evaluation conducted by the
                                        responsible Flight Standards office and at
                                        least once within each subsequent 12-month
                                        period thereafter.
E1.7.................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.5(b)(7) and
                                        the sponsor will obtain an annual written         Sec. 60.7(d)(2).
                                        statement from a qualified pilot (who has flown
                                        the subject aircraft or set of aircraft during
                                        the preceding 12-month period) that the
                                        performance and handling qualities of the
                                        subject FSTD represents the subject aircraft or
                                        set of aircraft (within the normal operating
                                        envelope). Required only if the subject FSTD is
                                        not used in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight
                                        training program for the aircraft or set of
                                        aircraft at least once within the preceding 12-
                                        month period.
E1.8.................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.9(b)(1).
                                        independent feedback (from persons recently
                                        completing training, evaluation, or obtaining
                                        flight experience; instructors and check airmen
                                        using the FSTD for training, evaluation or
                                        flight experience sessions; and FSTD
                                        technicians and maintenance personnel) will be
                                        received and addressed by the sponsor regarding
                                        the FSTD and its operation.
E1.9.................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.9(b)(2).
                                        and where the FSTD SOQ will be posted, or
                                        accessed by an appropriate terminal or display,
                                        in or adjacent to the FSTD.
E1.10................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.9(c) and
                                        the sponsor's management representative (MR) is   Appendix E,
                                        selected and identified by name to the            paragraph(d).
                                        responsible Flight Standards office.
E1.11................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying the    Sec. 60.9(c)(2), (3),
                                        MR authority and responsibility for the           and (4).
                                        following:
E1.11.a..............................  Monitoring the on-going qualification of
                                        assigned FSTDs to ensure all matters regarding
                                        FSTD qualification are completed as required by
                                        this part.
E1.11.b..............................  Ensuring that the QMS is properly maintained by
                                        overseeing the QMS policies, practices, or
                                        procedures and modifying as necessary.
E1.11.c..............................  Regularly briefing sponsor's management on the
                                        status of the on-going FSTD qualification
                                        program and the effectiveness and efficiency of
                                        the QMS.

[[Page 452]]

 
E1.11.d..............................  Serving as the primary contact point for all
                                        matters between the sponsor and the responsible
                                        Flight Standards office regarding the
                                        qualification of assigned FSTDs.
E1.11.e..............................  Delegating the MR assigned duties to an
                                        individual at each of the sponsor's locations,
                                        as appropriate.
E1.12................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.13; QPS
                                        the sponsor will:.                                Appendices A, B, C,
                                                                                          and D.
E1.12.a..............................  Ensure that the data made available to the
                                        responsible Flight Standards office (the
                                        validation data package) includes the aircraft
                                        manufacturer's flight test data (or other data
                                        approved by the responsible Flight Standards
                                        office) and all relevant data developed after
                                        the type certificate was issued (e.g., data
                                        developed in response to an airworthiness
                                        directive) if the data results from a change in
                                        performance, handling qualities, functions, or
                                        other characteristics of the aircraft that must
                                        be considered for flight crewmember training,
                                        evaluation, or experience requirements.
E1.12.b..............................  Notify the responsible Flight Standards office
                                        within 10 working days of becoming aware that
                                        an addition to or a revision of the flight
                                        related data or airplane systems related data
                                        is available if this data is used to program or
                                        operate a qualified FSTD.
E1.12.c..............................  Maintain a liaison with the manufacturer of the
                                        aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of
                                        the aircraft type certificate for the aircraft
                                        being simulated if the manufacturer is no
                                        longer in business), and if appropriate, with
                                        the person who supplied the aircraft data
                                        package for the FFS for the purposes of
                                        receiving notification of data package changes.
E1.13................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.14.
                                        the sponsor will make available all special
                                        equipment and qualified personnel needed to
                                        conduct tests during initial, continuing
                                        qualification, or special evaluations.
E1.14................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.15(a)-(d);
                                        the sponsor will submit to the responsible        Sec. 60.15(b); Sec.
                                        Flight Standards office a request to evaluate      60.15(b)(i); Sec.
                                        the FSTD for initial qualification at a           60.15(b)(ii); Sec.
                                        specific level and simultaneously request the     60.15(b)(iii).
                                        TPAA forward a concurring letter to the
                                        responsible Flight Standards office; including
                                        how the MR will use qualified personnel to
                                        confirm the following:.
E1.14.a..............................  That the performance and handling qualities of
                                        the FSTD represent those of the aircraft or set
                                        of aircraft within the normal operating
                                        envelope.
E1.14.b..............................  The FSTD systems and sub-systems (including the
                                        simulated aircraft systems) functionally
                                        represent those in the aircraft or set of
                                        aircraft.
E1.14.c..............................  The flight deck represents the configuration of
                                        the specific type or aircraft make, model, and
                                        series aircraft being simulated, as appropriate.
E1.15................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.15(e).
                                        the subjective and objective tests are
                                        completed at the sponsor's training facility
                                        for an initial evaluation.
E1.16................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.15(h).
                                        the sponsor will update the QTG with the
                                        results of the FAA-witnessed tests and
                                        demonstrations together with the results of the
                                        objective tests and demonstrations after the
                                        responsible Flight Standards office completes
                                        the evaluation for initial qualification.
E1.17................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.15(i).
                                        the sponsor will make the MQTG available to the
                                        responsible Flight Standards office upon
                                        request.
E1.18................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.16(a);
                                        the sponsor will apply to the responsible        Sec. 60.16(a)(1)(i);
                                        Flight Standards office for additional            and
                                        qualification(s) to the SOQ.                     Sec. 60.16(a)(1)(ii).
E1.19................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.19(a)(1)
                                        the sponsor completes all required Attachment 2  QPS Appendices A, B, C,
                                        objective tests each year in a minimum of four    or D.
                                        evenly spaced inspections as specified in the
                                        appropriate QPS.
E1.20................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.19(a)(2) QPS
                                        the sponsor completes and records a functional    Appendices A, B, C, or
                                        preflight check of the FSTD within the            D.
                                        preceding 24 hours of FSTD use, including a
                                        description of the functional preflight.
E1.21................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.19(b)(2).
                                        the sponsor schedules continuing qualification
                                        evaluations with the responsible Flight
                                        Standards office.
E1.22................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.19(b)(5)-(6).
                                        the sponsor ensures that the FSTD has received
                                        a continuing qualification evaluation at the
                                        interval described in the MQTG.
E1.23................................  A policy, process, or procedure describing how    Sec. 60.19(c);
                                        discrepancies are recorded in the FSTD           Sec. 60.19(c)(2)(i);
                                        discrepancy log, including.                      Sec. 60.19(c)(2)(ii).
E1.23.a..............................  A description of how the discrepancies are
                                        entered and maintained in the log until
                                        corrected.
E1.23.b..............................  A description of the corrective action taken for
                                        each discrepancy, the identity of the
                                        individual taking the action, and the date that
                                        action is taken.

[[Page 453]]

 
E1.24................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec.
                                        the discrepancy log is kept in a form and         60.19(c)(2)(iii).
                                        manner acceptable to the Administrator and kept
                                        in or adjacent to the FSTD. (An electronic log
                                        that may be accessed by an appropriate terminal
                                        or display in or adjacent to the FSTD is
                                        satisfactory.).
E1.25................................  A policy, process, or procedure that requires     Sec. 60.20.
                                        each instructor, check airman, or
                                        representative of the Administrator conducting
                                        training, evaluation, or flight experience, and
                                        each person conducting the preflight
                                        inspection, who discovers a discrepancy,
                                        including any missing, malfunctioning, or
                                        inoperative components in the FSTD, to write or
                                        cause to be written a description of that
                                        discrepancy into the discrepancy log at the end
                                        of the FSTD preflight or FSTD use session.
E1.26................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.21(c).
                                        the sponsor will apply for initial
                                        qualification based on the final aircraft data
                                        package approved by the aircraft manufacturer
                                        if operating an FSTD based on an interim
                                        qualification.
E1.27................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.23(a)(1)-(2).
                                        the sponsor determines whether an FSTD change
                                        qualifies as a modification as defined in Sec.
                                         60.23.
E1.28................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.23(b).
                                        the sponsor will ensure the FSTD is modified in
                                        accordance with any FSTD Directive regardless
                                        of the original qualification basis.
E1.29................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec.
                                        the sponsor will notify the responsible Flight    60.23(c)(1)(i),(ii),
                                        Standards office and TPAA of their intent to      and (iv).
                                        use a modified FSTD and to ensure that the
                                        modified FSTD will not be used prior to:.
E1.29.a..............................  Twenty-one days since the sponsor notified the
                                        responsible Flight Standards office and the
                                        TPAA of the proposed modification and the
                                        sponsor has not received any response from
                                        either the responsible Flight Standards office
                                        or the TPAA; or.
E1.29.b..............................  Twenty-one days since the sponsor notified the
                                        responsible Flight Standards office and the
                                        TPAA of the proposed modification and one has
                                        approved the proposed modification and the
                                        other has not responded; or.
E1.29.c..............................  The FSTD successfully completing any evaluation
                                        the responsible Flight Standards office may
                                        require in accordance with the standards for an
                                        evaluation for initial qualification or any
                                        part thereof before the modified FSTD is placed
                                        in service.
E1.30................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how,   Sec. 60.23(d)-(e).
                                        after an FSTD modification is approved by the
                                        responsible Flight Standards office, the
                                        sponsor will:
E1.30.a..............................  Post an addendum to the SOQ until as the
                                        responsible Flight Standards office issues a
                                        permanent, updated SOQ.
E1.30.b..............................  Update the MQTG with current objective test
                                        results and appropriate objective data for each
                                        affected objective test or other MQTG section
                                        affected by the modification.
E1.30.c..............................  File in the MQTG the requirement from the
                                        responsible Flight Standards office to make the
                                        modification and the record of the modification
                                        completion.
E1.31................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.25(b)-(c),
                                        the sponsor will track the length of time a       and
                                        component has been missing, malfunctioning, or   QPS Appendices
                                        inoperative (MMI), including:.                   A, B, C, or D.
E1.31.a..............................  How the sponsor will post a list of MMI
                                        components in or adjacent to the FSTD.
E1.31.b..............................  How the sponsor will notify the responsible
                                        Flight Standards office if the MMI has not been
                                        repaired or replaced within 30 days.*.
E1.32................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.27(a)(3).
                                        the sponsor will notify the responsible Flight
                                        Standards office and how the sponsor will seek
                                        requalification of the FSTD if the FSTD is
                                        moved and reinstalled in a different location.
E1.33................................  A policy, process, or procedure specifying how    Sec. 60.31.
                                        the sponsor will maintain control of the
                                        following: (The sponsor must specify how these
                                        records are maintained in plain language form
                                        or in coded form; but if the coded form is
                                        used, the sponsor must specify how the
                                        preservation and retrieval of information will
                                        be conducted.).
E1.33.a..............................  The MQTG and each amendment.....................
E1.33.b..............................  A record of all FSTD modifications required by
                                        this part since the issuance of the original
                                        SOQ.
E1.33.c..............................  Results of the qualification evaluations
                                        (initial and each upgrade) since the issuance
                                        of the original SOQ.
E1.33.d..............................  Results of the objective tests conducted in
                                        accordance with this part for a period of 2
                                        years.
E1.33.e..............................  Results of the previous three continuing
                                        qualification evaluations, or the continuing
                                        qualification evaluations from the previous 2
                                        years, whichever covers a longer period..
E1.33.f..............................  Comments obtained in accordance with Sec.
                                        60.9(b);.

[[Page 454]]

 
E1.33.g..............................  A record of all discrepancies entered in the
                                        discrepancy log over the previous 2 years,
                                        including the following:
E1.33.g.1............................  A list of the components or equipment that were
                                        or are missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative.
E1.33.g.2............................  The action taken to correct the discrepancy.....
E1.33.g.3............................  The date the corrective action was taken........
E1.33.g.4............................  The identity of the person determining that the
                                        discrepancy has been corrected..
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
* Note: If the sponsor has an approved discrepancy prioritization system, this item is satisfied by describing
  how discrepancies are prioritized, what actions are taken, and how the sponsor will notify the responsible
  Flight Standards office if the MMI has not been repaired or replaced within the specified timeframe.


[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Docket 
No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 75842, Dec. 9, 2022]





  Sec. Appendix F to Part 60--Definitions and Abbreviations for Flight 
                       Simulation Training Devices

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    1. Some of the definitions presented below are repeated from the 
    definitions found in 14 CFR part 1, as indicated parenthetically

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                             2. Definitions

    1st Segment--the portion of the takeoff profile from liftoff to gear 
retraction.
    2nd Segment--the portion of the takeoff profile from after gear 
retraction to initial flap/slat retraction.
    3rd Segment--the portion of the takeoff profile after flap/slat 
retraction is complete.
    Aircraft Data Package--a combination of the various types of data 
used to design, program, manufacture, modify, and test the FSTD.
    Airspeed--calibrated airspeed unless otherwise specified and 
expressed in terms of nautical miles per hour (knots).
    Airport Model--
    Class I. Whether modeling real world or fictional airports (or 
landing areas for helicopters), these airport models (or landing areas 
for helicopters) are those that meet the requirements of Table A3B or 
C3B, found in attachment 2 of Appendix A or C, as appropriate, are 
evaluated by the NSPM, and are listed on the SOQ.
    Class II. Whether modeling real world or fictional airports (or 
landing areas for helicopters), these airport models (or landing areas 
for helicopters) are those models that are in excess of those used for 
simulator qualification at a specified level. The FSTD sponsor is 
responsible for determining that these models meet the requirements set 
out in Table A3C or C3C, found in attachment 2 of Appendix A or C, as 
appropriate.
    Class III. This is a special class of airport model (or landing area 
for helicopters), used for specific purposes, and includes models that 
may be incomplete or inaccurate when viewed without restriction, but 
when appropriate limits are applied (e.g., ``valid for use only in 
visibility conditions less than \1/2\ statute mile or RVR2400 feet,'' 
``valid for use only for approaches to Runway 22L and 22R''), those 
features that may be incomplete or inaccurate may not be able to be 
recognized as such by the crewmember being trained, tested, or checked. 
Class III airport models used for training, testing, or checking 
activities under this Chapter requires the certificate holder to submit 
to the TPAA an appropriate analysis of the skills, knowledge, and 
abilities necessary for competent performance of the task(s) in which 
this particular model is to be used, and requires TPAA acceptance of 
each Class III model.
    Altitude--pressure altitude (meters or feet) unless specified 
otherwise.
    Angle of Attack--the angle between the airplane longitudinal axis 
and the relative wind vector projected onto the airplane plane of 
symmetry.
    Automatic Testing--FSTD testing where all stimuli are under computer 
control.
    Bank--the airplane attitude with respect to or around the 
longitudinal axis, or roll angle (degrees).
    Breakout--the force required at the pilot's primary controls to 
achieve initial movement of the control position.
    Certificate Holder--a person issued a certificate under parts 119, 
141, or 142 of this chapter or a person holding an approved course of

[[Page 455]]

training for flight engineers in accordance with part 63 of this 
chapter.
    Closed Loop Testing--a test method where the input stimuli are 
generated by controllers that drive the FSTD to follow a pre-defined 
target response.
    Computer Controlled Aircraft--an aircraft where all pilot inputs to 
the control surfaces are transferred and augmented by computers.
    Confined Area (helicopter operations)--an area where the flight of 
the helicopter is limited in some direction by terrain or the presence 
of natural or man-made obstructions (e.g., a clearing in the woods, a 
city street, or a road bordered by trees or power lines are regarded as 
confined areas).
    Control Sweep--movement of the appropriate pilot controller from 
neutral to an extreme limit in one direction (Forward, Aft, Right, or 
Left), a continuous movement back through neutral to the opposite 
extreme position, and then a return to the neutral position.
    Convertible FSTD--an FSTD in which hardware and software can be 
changed so that the FSTD becomes a replica of a different model, usually 
of the same type aircraft. The same FSTD platform, flight deck shell, 
motion system, visual system, computers, and peripheral equipment can be 
used in more than one simulation.
    Critical Engine Parameter--the parameter that is the most accurate 
measure of propulsive force.
    Deadband--the amount of movement of the input for a system for which 
there is no reaction in the output or state of the system observed.
    Distance--the length of space between two points, expressed in terms 
of nautical miles unless otherwise specified.
    Discrepancy--as used in this part, an aspect of the FSTD that is not 
correct with respect to the aircraft being simulated. This includes 
missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative components that are required to 
be present and operate correctly for training, evaluation, and 
experience functions to be creditable. It also includes errors in the 
documentation used to support the FSTD (e.g., MQTG errors, information 
missing from the MQTG, or required statements from appropriately 
qualified personnel).
    Downgrade--a permanent change in the qualification level of an FSTD 
to a lower level.
    Driven--a test method where the input stimulus or variable is 
positioned by automatic means, usually a computer input.
    Electronic Copy of the MQTG--an electronic copy of the MQTG provided 
by an electronic scan presented in a format, acceptable to the 
responsible Flight Standards office.
    Electronic Master Qualification Test Guide--an electronic version of 
the MQTG (eMQTG), where all objective data obtained from airplane 
testing, or another approved source, together with correlating objective 
test results obtained from the performance of the FSTD and a description 
of the equipment necessary to perform the evaluation for the initial and 
the continuing qualification evaluations is stored, archived, or 
presented in either reformatted or digitized electronic format.
    Engine--as used in this part, the appliance or structure that 
supplies propulsive force for movement of the aircraft: i.e., The 
turbine engine for turbine powered aircraft; the turbine engine and 
propeller assembly for turbo-propeller powered aircraft; and the 
reciprocating engine and propeller assembly for reciprocating engine 
powered aircraft. For purposes of this part, engine failure is the 
failure of either the engine or propeller assembly to provide thrust 
higher than idle power thrust due to a failure of either the engine or 
the propeller assembly.
    Evaluation--with respect to an individual, the checking, testing, or 
review associated with flight crewmember qualification, training, and 
certification under parts 61, 63, 121, or 135 of this chapter. With 
respect to an FSTD, the qualification activities for the device (e.g., 
the objective and subjective tests, the inspections, or the continuing 
qualification evaluations) associated with the requirements of this 
part.
    Fictional Airport--a visual model of an airport that is a collection 
of ``non-real world'' terrain, instrument approach procedures, 
navigation aids, maps, and visual modeling detail sufficient to enable 
completion of an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate or Type Rating.
    Flight Experience--recency of flight experience for landing credit 
purposes.
    Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD)--a full flight simulator 
(FFS) or a flight training device (FTD). (Part 1)
    Flight Test Data--(a subset of objective data) aircraft data 
collected by the aircraft manufacturer or other acceptable data supplier 
during an aircraft flight test program.
    Flight Training Device (FTD)--a replica of aircraft instruments, 
equipment, panels, and controls in an open flight deck area or an 
enclosed aircraft flight deck replica. It includes the equipment and 
computer programs necessary to represent aircraft (or set of aircraft) 
operations in ground and flight conditions having the full range of 
capabilities of the systems installed in the device as described in part 
60 of this chapter and the qualification performance standard (QPS) for 
a specific FTD qualification level. (Part 1)
    Free Response--the response of the FSTD after completion of a 
control input or disturbance.
    Frozen--a test condition where one or more variables are held 
constant with time.

[[Page 456]]

    FSTD Approval--the extent to which an FSTD may be used by a 
certificate holder as authorized by the FAA.
    FSTD Directive--a document issued by the FAA to an FSTD sponsor 
requiring a modification to the FSTD due to a safety-of-flight issue and 
amending the qualification basis for the FSTD.
    FSTD Latency--the additional time for the FSTD to respond to input 
that is beyond the response time of the aircraft.
    FSTD Performance--the overall performance of the FSTD, including 
aircraft performance (e.g., thrust/drag relationships, climb, range) and 
flight and ground handling.
    Full Flight Simulator (FFS)--a replica of a specific type, make, 
model, or series aircraft. It includes the equipment and computer 
programs necessary to represent aircraft operations in ground and flight 
conditions, a visual system providing an out-of-the-flight deck view, a 
system that provides cues at least equivalent to those of a three-
degree-of-freedom motion system, and has the full range of capabilities 
of the systems installed in the device as described in part 60 of this 
chapter and the QPS for a specific FFS qualification level. (Part 1)
    Gate Clutter--the static and moving ground traffic (e.g., other 
airplanes; tugs; power or baggage carts; fueling, catering, or cargo 
trucks; pedestrians) presented to pose a potential conflict with the 
simulated aircraft during ground operations around the point where the 
simulated airplane is to be parked between flights
    Generic Airport Model--a Class III visual model that combines 
correct navigation aids for a real world airport with a visual model 
that does not depict that same airport.
    Grandfathering--as used in this part, the practice of assigning a 
qualification basis for an FSTD based on the period of time during which 
a published set of standards governed the requirements for the initial 
and continuing qualification of FSTDs. Each FSTD manufactured during 
this specified period of time is ``grandfathered'' or held to the 
standards that were in effect during that time period. The grandfathered 
standards remain applicable to each FSTD manufactured during the stated 
time period regardless of any subsequent modification to those standards 
and regardless of the sponsor, as long as the FSTD remains qualified or 
is maintained in a non-qualified status in accordance with the specific 
requirements and time periods prescribed in this part.
    Gross Weight--For objective test purposes:
    Basic Operating Weight (BOW)--the empty weight of the aircraft plus 
the weight of the following: Normal oil quantity; lavatory servicing 
fluid; potable water; required crewmembers and their baggage; and 
emergency equipment.
    Light Gross Weight--a weight chosen by the sponsor or data provider 
that is not more than 120% of the BOW of the aircraft being simulated or 
the minimum practical operating weight of the test aircraft.
    Medium Gross Weight--a weight chosen by the sponsor or data provider 
that is within 10% of the average of the numerical values of the BOW and 
the maximum certificated gross weight.
    Near Maximum Gross Weight--a weight chosen by the sponsor or data 
provider that is not less than the BOW of the aircraft being simulated 
plus 80% of the difference between the maximum certificated gross weight 
(either takeoff weight or landing weight, as appropriate for the test) 
and the BOW.
    Ground Effect--the change in aerodynamic characteristics due to of 
the change in the airflow past the aircraft caused by the proximity of 
the earth's surface to the airplane.
    Hands Off--a test maneuver conducted without pilot control inputs.
    Hands On--a test maneuver conducted with pilot control inputs as 
required.
    Heave--FSTD movement with respect to or along the vertical axis.
    Height--the height above ground level (or AGL) expressed in meters 
or feet.
    ``In Use'' Runway--as used in this part, the runway that is 
currently selected, able to be used for takeoffs and landings, and has 
the surface lighting and markings required by this part. Also known as 
the ``active'' runway.
    Integrated Testing--testing of the FSTD so that all aircraft system 
models are active and contribute appropriately to the results. With 
integrated testing, none of the models used are substituted with models 
or other algorithms intended for testing only.
    Irreversible Control System--a control system where movement of the 
control surface will not backdrive the pilot's control on the flight 
deck.
    Locked--a test condition where one or more variables are held 
constant with time.
    Manual Testing--FSTD testing conducted without computer inputs 
except for initial setup, and all modules of the simulation are active.
    Master Qualification Test Guide (MQTG)--the FAA-approved 
Qualification Test Guide with the addition of the FAA-witnessed test 
results, applicable to each individual FSTD.
    Medium--the normal operational weight for a given flight segment.
    Near Limiting Performance--the performance level the operating 
engine must be required to achieve to have sufficient power to land a 
helicopter after experiencing a single engine failure during takeoff of 
a multiengine helicopter. The operating engine must be required to 
operate within at least 5 percent of the maximum RPM or temperature 
limits of the gas turbine or power turbine, or

[[Page 457]]

operate within at least 5 percent of the maximum drive train torque 
limits. Near limiting performance is based on the existing combination 
of density altitude, temperature, and helicopter gross weight.
    Nominal--the normal operating configuration, atmospheric conditions, 
and flight parameters for the specified flight segment.
    Non-Normal Control--a term used in reference to Computer Controlled 
Aircraft. It is the state where one or more of the intended control, 
augmentation, or protection functions are not fully working. Note: 
Specific terms such as ALTERNATE, DIRECT, SECONDARY, or BACKUP may be 
used to define an actual level of degradation.
    Normal Control--a term used in reference to Computer Controlled 
Aircraft. It is the state where the intended control, augmentation, and 
protection functions are fully working.
    Objective Data--quantitative data, acceptable to the NSPM, used to 
evaluate the FSTD.
    Objective Test--a quantitative measurement and evaluation of FSTD 
performance.
    Pitch--the airplane attitude with respect to, or around, the lateral 
axis expressed in degrees.
    Power Lever Angle (PLA)--the angle of the pilot's primary engine 
control lever(s) on the flight deck. This may also be referred to as 
THROTTLE or POWER LEVER.
    Predicted Data--estimations or extrapolations of existing flight 
test data or data from other simulation models using engineering 
analyses, engineering simulations, design data, or wind tunnel data.
    Protection Functions--systems functions designed to protect an 
airplane from exceeding its flight maneuver limitations.
    Pulse Input--a step input to a control followed by an immediate 
return to the initial position.
    Qualification Level--the categorization of an FSTD established by 
the NSPM based on the FSTDs demonstrated technical and operational 
capabilities as prescribed in this part.
    Qualification Performance Standard (QPS)--the collection of 
procedures and criteria used when conducting objective and subjective 
tests, to establish FSTD qualification levels. The QPS are published in 
the appendices to this part, as follows: Appendix A, for Airplane 
Simulators; Appendix B, for Airplane Flight Training Devices; Appendix 
C, for Helicopter Simulators; Appendix D, for Helicopter Flight Training 
Devices; Appendix E, for Quality Management Systems for Flight 
Simulation Training Devices; and Appendix F, for Definitions and 
Abbreviations for Flight Simulation Training Devices.
    Qualification Test Guide (QTG)--the primary reference document used 
for evaluating an aircraft FSTD. It contains test results, statements of 
compliance and capability, the configuration of the aircraft simulated, 
and other information for the evaluator to assess the FSTD against the 
applicable regulatory criteria.
    Quality Management System (QMS)--a flight simulation quality-systems 
that can be used for external quality-assurance purposes. It is designed 
to identify the processes needed, determine the sequence and interaction 
of the processes, determine criteria and methods required to ensure the 
effective operation and control of the processes, ensure the 
availability of information necessary to support the operation and 
monitoring of the processes, measure, monitor, and analyze the 
processes, and implement the actions necessary to achieve planned 
results.
    Real-World Airport--as used in this part in reference to airport 
visual models, a computer generated visual depiction of an existing 
airport.
    Representative--when used as an adjective in this part, typical, 
demonstrative, or characteristic of, the feature being described. For 
example, ``representative sampling of tests'' means a sub-set of the 
complete set of all tests such that the sample includes one or more of 
the tests in each of the major categories, the results of which provide 
the evaluator with an overall understanding of the performance and 
handling characteristics of the FSTD.
    Reversible Control System--a control system in which movement of the 
control surface will backdrive the pilot's control on the flight deck.
    Roll--the airplane attitude with respect to, or around, the 
longitudinal axis expressed in degrees.
    Set of Aircraft--aircraft that share similar handling and operating 
characteristics, similar operating envelopes, and have the same number 
and type of engines or powerplants.
    Sideslip Angle--the angle between the relative wind vector and the 
airplane plane of symmetry. (Note: this definition replaces the current 
definition of ``sideslip.'')
    Simulation Quality Management System (SQMS)--the elements of a 
quality management system for FSTD continuing qualification.
    Snapshot--a presentation of one or more variables at a given instant 
of time.
    Special Evaluation--an evaluation of the FSTD for purposes other 
than initial, upgrade, or continuing qualification. Circumstances that 
may require a special evaluation include movement of the FSTD to a 
different location, or an update to FSTD software or hardware that might 
affect performance or flying qualities.
    Sponsor--a certificate holder who seeks or maintains FSTD 
qualification and is responsible for the prescribed actions as 
prescribed in this part and the QPS for the appropriate FSTD and 
qualification level.

[[Page 458]]

    Statement of Compliance and Capability (SOC)--a declaration that a 
specific requirement has been met and explaining how the requirement was 
met (e.g., gear modeling approach, coefficient of friction sources). The 
SOC must also describe the capability of the FSTD to meet the 
requirement, including references to sources of information for showing 
compliance, rationale to explain how the referenced material is used, 
mathematical equations and parameter values used, and conclusions 
reached.
    Step Input--an abrupt control input held at a constant value.
    Subjective Test--a qualitative assessment of the performance and 
operation of the FSTD.
    Surge--FSTD movement with respect to or along the longitudinal axis.
    Sway--FSTD movement with respect to or along the lateral axis.
    Tf--Total time of the flare maneuver.
    Ti--Total time from initial throttle movement until a 10% 
response of a critical engine parameter.
    Tt--Total time from initial throttle movement to an 
increase of 90% of go around power or a decrease of 90% from maximum 
take-off power.
    Time History--a presentation of the change of a variable with 
respect to time.
    Training Program Approval Authority (TPAA)--a person authorized by 
the Administrator to approve the aircraft flight training program in 
which the FSTD will be used.
    Training Restriction--a temporary condition where an FSTD with 
missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI) components may continue to 
be used at the qualification level indicated on its SOQ, but restricted 
from completing the tasks for which the correct function of the MMI 
component is required.
    Transport Delay or ``Throughput''--the total FSTD system processing 
time required for an input signal from a pilot primary flight control 
until motion system, visual system, or instrument response. It is the 
overall time delay incurred from signal input to output response. It 
does not include the characteristic delay of the airplane simulated.
    Update--an improvement to or modernization of the quality or the 
accuracy of the FSTD without affecting the qualification level of the 
FSTD.
    Upgrade--the improvement or enhancement of an FSTD for the purpose 
of achieving a higher qualification level.
    Validation Data--objective data used to determine if the FSTD 
performance is within the tolerances prescribed in the QPS.
    Validation Test--an objective test where FSTD parameters are 
compared to the relevant validation data to ensure that the FSTD 
performance is within the tolerances prescribed in the QPS.
    Visual Data Base--a display that may include one or more airport 
models.
    Visual System Response Time--the interval from a control input to 
the completion of the visual display scan of the first video field 
containing the resulting different information.
    Yaw--the airplane attitude with respect to, or around, the vertical 
axis expressed in degrees.
    3. Abbreviations
AFM Airplane Flight Manual.
AGL Above Ground Level (meters or feet).
AOA Angle of Attack (degrees).
APD Aircrew Program Designee.
CCA Computer Controlled Aircraft.
cd/m2 candela/meter\2\, 3.4263 candela/m\2\ = 1 ft-Lambert.
CFR Code of Federal Regulations.
cm(s) centimeter, centimeters.
daN decaNewtons, one (1) decaNewton = 2.27 pounds.
deg(s) degree, degrees.
DOF Degrees-of-freedom.
eMQTG Electronic Master Qualification Test Guide.
EPR Engine Pressure Ratio.
FAA Federal Aviation Administration (U.S.).
FATO Final Approach and Take Off area
fpm feet per minute.
ft foot/feet, 1 foot = 0.304801 meters.
ft-Lambert foot-Lambert, 1 ft-Lambert = 3.4263 candela/m\2\.
g Acceleration due to Gravity (meters or feet/sec\2\); 1g = 9.81 m/
sec\2\ or 32.2 feet/sec\2\.
G/S Glideslope.
IATA International Airline Transport Association.
ICAO International Civil Aviation Organization.
IGE In ground effect.
ILS Instrument Landing System.
IOS Instructor Operating Station.
IQTG International Qualification Test Guide.
km Kilometers; 1 km = 0.62137 Statute Miles.
kPa KiloPascal (Kilo Newton/Meters2). 1 psi = 6.89476 kPa.
kts Knots calibrated airspeed unless otherwise specified, 1 knot = 
0.5148 m/sec or 1.689 ft/sec.
lb(s) pound(s), one (1) pound = 0.44 decaNewton.
LDP Landing decision point.
MQTG Master Qualification Test Guide
M,m Meters, 1 Meter = 3.28083 feet.
Min(s) Minute, minutes.
MLG Main Landing Gear.
Mpa MegaPascals (1 psi = 6894.76 pascals).
ms millisecond(s).
N NORMAL CONTROL Used in reference to Computer Controlled Aircraft.
nm Nautical Mile(s) 1 Nautical Mile = 6,080 feet.
NN NON-NORMAL CONTROL Used in reference to Computer Controlled Aircraft.

[[Page 459]]

N1 Low Pressure Rotor revolutions per minute, expressed in percent of 
maximum.
N2 High Pressure Rotor revolutions per minute, expressed in percent of 
maximum.
N3 High Pressure Rotor revolutions per minute, expressed in percent of 
maximum.
NWA Nosewheel Angle (degrees).
OGE Out of ground effect.
PAPI Precision Approach Path Indicator System.
Pf Impact or Feel Pressure, often expressed as ``q.''
PLA Power Lever Angle.
PLF Power for Level Flight.
psi pounds per square inch.
QPS Qualification Performance Standard.
QTG Qualification Test Guide.
RAE Royal Aerospace Establishment.
R/C Rate of Climb (meters/sec or feet/min).
R/D Rate of Descent (meters/sec or feet/min).
REIL Runway End Identifier Lights.
RVR Runway Visual Range (meters or feet).
s second(s).
sec(s) second, seconds.
sm Statute Mile(s) 1 Statute Mile = 5,280 feet.
SMGCS Surface Movement Guidance and Control System.
SOC Statement of Compliance and Capability.
SOQ Statement of Qualification.
TIR Type Inspection Report.
TLOF Touchdown and Loft Off area.
T/O Takeoff.
VASI Visual Approach Slope Indicator System.
VGS Visual Ground Segment.
V1 Decision speed.
V2 Takeoff safety speed.
Vmc Minimum Control Speed.
Vmca Minimum Control Speed in the air.
Vmcg Minimum Control Speed on the ground.
Vmcl Minimum Control Speed--Landing.
Vmu The speed at which the last main landing gear leaves the ground.
VR Rotate Speed.
VS Stall Speed or minimum speed in the stall.
WAT Weight, Altitude, Temperature.

                          End QPS Requirements

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Docket 
No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 60-7, 87 FR 75845, Dec. 9, 2022]



PART 61_CERTIFICATION: PILOTS, FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS, AND 
GROUND INSTRUCTORS--Table of Contents



Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 73
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100-2

                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
61.1 Applicability and definitions.
61.2 Exercise of Privilege.
61.3 Requirement for certificates, ratings, and authorizations.
61.4 Qualification and approval of flight simulators and flight training 
          devices.
61.5 Certificates and ratings issued under this part.
61.7 Obsolete certificates and ratings.
61.8 Inapplicability of unmanned aircraft operations.
61.9 [Reserved]
61.11 Expired pilot certificates and reissuance.
61.13 Issuance of airman certificates, ratings, and authorizations.
61.14 [Reserved]
61.15 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.
61.16 Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results.
61.17 Temporary certificate.
61.18 [Reserved]
61.19 Duration of pilot and instructor certificates and privileges.
61.21 Duration of a Category II and a Category III pilot authorization 
          (for other than part 121 and part 135 use).
61.23 Medical certificates: Requirement and duration.
61.25 Change of name.
61.27 Voluntary surrender or exchange of certificate.
61.29 Replacement of a lost or destroyed airman or medical certificate 
          or knowledge test report.
61.31 Type rating requirements, additional training, and authorization 
          requirements.
61.33 Tests: General procedure.
61.35 Knowledge test: Prerequisites and passing grades.
61.37 Knowledge tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.
61.39 Prerequisites for practical tests.
61.41 Flight training received from flight instructors not certificated 
          by the FAA.
61.43 Practical tests: General procedures.
61.45 Practical tests: Required aircraft and equipment.
61.47 Status of an examiner who is authorized by the Administrator to 
          conduct practical tests.
61.49 Retesting after failure.
61.51 Pilot logbooks.
61.52 Use of aeronautical experience obtained in ultralight vehicles.
61.53 Prohibition on operations during medical deficiency.
61.55 Second-in-command qualifications.
61.56 Flight review.

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61.57 Recent flight experience: Pilot in command.
61.58 Pilot-in-command proficiency check: Operation of an aircraft that 
          requires more than one pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-
          powered.
61.59 Falsification, reproduction, or alteration of applications, 
          certificates, logbooks, reports, or records.
61.60 Change of address.

           Subpart B_Aircraft Ratings and Pilot Authorizations

61.61 Applicability.
61.63 Additional aircraft ratings (other than for ratings at the airline 
          transport pilot certification level).
61.64 Use of a flight simulator and flight training device.
61.65 Instrument rating requirements.
61.66 Enhanced Flight Vision System Pilot Requirements.
61.67 Category II pilot authorization requirements.
61.68 Category III pilot authorization requirements.
61.69 Glider and unpowered ultralight vehicle towing: Experience and 
          training requirements.
61.71 Graduates of an approved training program other than under this 
          part: Special rules.
61.73 Military pilots or former military pilots: Special rules.
61.75 Private pilot certificate issued on the basis of a foreign pilot 
          license.
61.77 Special purpose pilot authorization: Operation of a civil aircraft 
          of the United States and leased by a non-U.S. citizen.

                        Subpart C_Student Pilots

61.81 Applicability.
61.83 Eligibility requirements for student pilots.
61.85 Application.
61.87 Solo requirements for student pilots.
61.89 General limitations.
61.91 [Reserved]
61.93 Solo cross-country flight requirements.
61.94 Student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate or a recreational 
          pilot certificate: Operations at airports within, and in 
          airspace located within, Class B, C, and D airspace, or at 
          airports with an operational control tower in other airspace.
61.95 Operations in Class B airspace and at airports located within 
          Class B airspace.

                      Subpart D_Recreational Pilots

61.96 Applicability and eligibility requirements: General.
61.97 Aeronautical knowledge.
61.98 Flight proficiency.
61.99 Aeronautical experience.
61.100 Pilots based on small islands.
61.101 Recreational pilot privileges and limitations.

                        Subpart E_Private Pilots

61.102 Applicability.
61.103 Eligibility requirements: General.
61.105 Aeronautical knowledge.
61.107 Flight proficiency.
61.109 Aeronautical experience.
61.110 Night flying exceptions.
61.111 Cross-country flights: Pilots based on small islands.
61.113 Private pilot privileges and limitations: Pilot in command.
61.115 Balloon rating: Limitations.
61.117 Private pilot privileges and limitations: Second in command of 
          aircraft requiring more than one pilot.
61.118-61.120 [Reserved]

                       Subpart F_Commercial Pilots

61.121 Applicability.
61.123 Eligibility requirements: General.
61.125 Aeronautical knowledge.
61.127 Flight proficiency.
61.129 Aeronautical experience.
61.131 Exceptions to the night flying requirements.
61.133 Commercial pilot privileges and limitations.
61.135-61.141 [Reserved]

                   Subpart G_Airline Transport Pilots

61.151 Applicability.
61.153 Eligibility requirements: General.
61.155 Aeronautical knowledge.
61.156 Training requirements: Airplane category--multiengine class or 
          multiengine airplane type rating concurrently with an airline 
          transport pilot certificate.
61.157 Flight proficiency.
61.158 [Reserved]
61.159 Aeronautical experience: Airplane category rating.
61.160 Aeronautical experience--airplane category restricted privileges.
61.161 Aeronautical experience: Rotorcraft category and helicopter class 
          rating.
61.163 Aeronautical experience: Powered-lift category rating.
61.165 Additional aircraft category and class ratings.
61.167 Airline transport pilot privileges and limitations.
61.169 Letters of authorization for institutions of higher education.
61.170-61.171 [Reserved]

Subpart H_Flight Instructors Other Than Flight Instructors With a Sport 
                              Pilot Rating

61.181 Applicability.

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61.183 Eligibility requirements.
61.185 Aeronautical knowledge.
61.187 Flight proficiency.
61.189 Flight instructor records.
61.191 Additional flight instructor ratings.
61.193 Flight instructor privileges.
61.195 Flight instructor limitations and qualifications.
61.197 Renewal requirements for flight instructor certification.
61.199 Reinstatement requirements of an expired flight instructor 
          certificate.
61.201 [Reserved]

                      Subpart I_Ground Instructors

61.211 Applicability.
61.213 Eligibility requirements.
61.215 Ground instructor privileges.
61.217 Recent experience requirements.

                         Subpart J_Sport Pilots

61.301 What is the purpose of this subpart and to whom does it apply?
61.303 If I want to operate a light-sport aircraft, what operating 
          limits and endorsement requirements in this subpart must I 
          comply with?
61.305 What are the age and language requirements for a sport pilot 
          certificate?
61.307 What tests do I have to take to obtain a sport pilot certificate?
61.309 What aeronautical knowledge must I have to apply for a sport 
          pilot certificate?
61.311 What flight proficiency requirements must I meet to apply for a 
          sport pilot certificate?
61.313 What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for a sport 
          pilot certificate?
61.315 What are the privileges and limits of my sport pilot certificate?
61.317 Is my sport pilot certificate issued with aircraft category and 
          class ratings?
61.319 [Reserved]
61.321 How do I obtain privileges to operate an additional category or 
          class of light-sport aircraft?
61.323 [Reserved]
61.325 How do I obtain privileges to operate a light-sport aircraft at 
          an airport within, or in airspace within, Class B, C, and D 
          airspace, or in other airspace with an airport having an 
          operational control tower?
61.327 Are there specific endorsement requirements to operate a light-
          sport aircraft based on VH?

         Subpart K_Flight Instructors With a Sport Pilot Rating

61.401 What is the purpose of this subpart?
61.403 What are the age, language, and pilot certificate requirements 
          for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?
61.405 What tests do I have to take to obtain a flight instructor 
          certificate with a sport pilot rating?
61.407 What aeronautical knowledge must I have to apply for a flight 
          instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?
61.409 What flight proficiency requirements must I meet to apply for a 
          flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?
61.411 What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for a flight 
          instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?
61.412 Do I need additional training to provide instruction on control 
          and maneuvering an airplane solely by reference to the 
          instruments in a light-sport aircraft based on VH?
61.413 What are the privileges of my flight instructor certificate with 
          a sport pilot rating?
61.415 What are the limits of a flight instructor certificate with a 
          sport pilot rating?
61.417 Will my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating 
          list aircraft category and class ratings?
61.419 How do I obtain privileges to provide training in an additional 
          category or class of light-sport aircraft?
61.421 May I give myself an endorsement?
61.423 What are the recordkeeping requirements for a flight instructor 
          with a sport pilot rating?
61.425 How do I renew my flight instructor certificate?
61.427 What must I do if my flight instructor certificate with a sport 
          pilot rating expires?
61.429 May I exercise the privileges of a flight instructor certificate 
          with a sport pilot rating if I hold a flight instructor 
          certificate with another rating?

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 
44709-44711, 44729, 44903, 45102-45103, 45301-45302.

    Source: Docket No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, unless 
otherwise noted.



  Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 73--Robinson R-22/R-44 
              Special Training and Experience Requirements

                                Sections

    1. Applicability.
    2. Required training, aeronautical experience, endorsements, and 
flight review.
    3. Expiration date.
    1. Applicability. Under the procedures prescribed herein, this SFAR 
applies to all persons who seek to manipulate the controls or act as 
pilot in command of a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter. The 
requirements

[[Page 462]]

stated in this SFAR are in addition to the current requirements of part 
61.
    2. Required training, aeronautical experience, endorsements, and 
flight review.
    (a) Awareness Training:
    (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, no 
person may manipulate the controls of a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 
helicopter after March 27, 1995, for the purpose of flight unless the 
awareness training specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section is 
completed and the person's logbook has been endorsed by a certified 
flight instructor authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
    (2) A person who holds a rotorcraft category and helicopter class 
rating on that person's pilot certificate and meets the experience 
requirements of paragraph (b)(1) or paragraph (b)(2) of this section may 
not manipulate the controls of a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter 
for the purpose of flight after April 26, 1995, unless the awareness 
training specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section is completed and 
the person's logbook has been endorsed by a certified flight instructor 
authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
    (3) Awareness training must be conducted by a certified flight 
instructor who has been endorsed under paragraph (b)(5) of this section 
and consists of instruction in the following general subject areas:
    (i) Energy management;
    (ii) Mast bumping;
    (iii) Low rotor RPM (blade stall);
    (iv) Low G hazards; and
    (v) Rotor RPM decay.
    (4) A person who can show satisfactory completion of the 
manufacturer's safety course after January 1, 1994, may obtain an 
endorsement from an FAA aviation safety inspector in lieu of completing 
the awareness training required in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this 
section.
    (b) Aeronautical Experience:
    (1) No person may act as pilot in command of a Robinson model R-22 
unless that person:
    (i) Has had at least 200 flight hours in helicopters, at least 50 
flight hours of which were in the Robinson R-22; or
    (ii) Has had at least 10 hours dual instruction in the Robinson R-22 
and has received an endorsement from a certified flight instructor 
authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this section that the individual 
has been given the training required by this paragraph and is proficient 
to act as pilot in command of an R-22. Beginning 12 calendar months 
after the date of the endorsement, the individual may not act as pilot 
in command unless the individual has completed a flight review in an R-
22 within the preceding 12 calendar months and obtained an endorsement 
for that flight review. The dual instruction must include at least the 
following abnormal and emergency procedures flight training:
    (A) Enhanced training in autorotation procedures,
    (B) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor,
    (C) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery, and
    (D) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper recovery procedures.
    (2) No person may act as pilot in command of a Robinson R-44 unless 
that person--
    (i) Has had at least 200 flight hours in helicopters, at least 50 
flight hours of which were in the Robinson R-44. The pilot in command 
may credit up to 25 flight hours in the Robinson R-22 toward the 50 hour 
requirement in the Robinson R-44; or
    (ii) Has had at least 10 hours dual instruction in a Robinson 
helicopter, at least 5 hours of which must have been accomplished in the 
Robinson R-44 helicopter and has received an endorsement from a 
certified flight instructor authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this 
section that the individual has been given the training required by this 
paragraph and is proficient to act as pilot in command of an R-44. 
Beginning 12 calendar months after the date of the endorsement, the 
individual may not act as pilot in command unless the individual has 
completed a flight review in a Robinson R-44 within the preceding 12 
calendar months and obtained an endorsement for that flight review. The 
dual instruction must include at least the following abnormal and 
emergency procedures flight training--
    (A) Enhanced training in autorotation procedures;
    (B) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor;
    (C) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery; and
    (D) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper recovery procedures.
    (3) A person who does not hold a rotorcraft category and helicopter 
class rating must have had at least 20 hours of dual instruction in a 
Robinson R-22 helicopter prior to operating it in solo flight. In 
addition, the person must obtain an endorsement from a certified flight 
instructor authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this section that 
instruction has been given in those maneuvers and procedures, and the 
instructor has found the applicant proficient to solo a Robinson R-22. 
This endorsement is valid for a period of 90 days. The dual instruction 
must include at least the following abnormal and emergency procedures 
flight training:
    (i) Enhanced training in autorotation procedures,
    (ii) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor,
    (iii) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery, and

[[Page 463]]

    (iv) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper recovery procedures.
    (4) A person who does not hold a rotorcraft category and helicopter 
class rating must have had at least 20 hours of dual instruction in a 
Robinson R-44 helicopter prior to operating it in solo flight. In 
addition, the person must obtain an endorsement from a certified flight 
instructor authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this section that 
instruction has been given in those maneuvers and procedures, and the 
instructor has found the applicant proficient to solo a Robinson R-44. 
This endorsement is valid for a period of 90 days. The dual instruction 
must include at least the following abnormal and emergency procedures 
flight training:
    (i) Enhanced training in autorotation procedures,
    (ii) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor,
    (iii) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery, and
    (iv) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper recovery procedures.
    (5) No certificated flight instructor may provide instruction or 
conduct a flight review in a Robinson R-22 or R-44 unless that 
instructor--
    (i) Completes the awareness training in paragraph 2(a) of this SFAR.
    (ii) For the Robinson R-22, has had at least 200 flight hours in 
helicopters, at least 50 flight hours of which were in the Robinson R-
22, or for the Robinson R-44, has had at least 200 flight hours in 
helicopters, 50 flight hours of which were in Robinson helicopters. Up 
to 25 flight hours of Robinson R-22 flight time may be credited toward 
the 50 hour requirement.
    (iii) Has completed flight training in a Robinson R-22, R-44, or 
both, on the following abnormal and emergency procedures--
    (A) Enhanced training in autorotation procedures;
    (B) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor;
    (C) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery; and
    (D) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper recovery procedures.
    (iv) Has been authorized by endorsement from an FAA aviation safety 
inspector or authorized designated examiner that the instructor has 
completed the appropriate training, meets the experience requirements 
and has satisfactorily demonstrated an ability to provide instruction on 
the general subject areas of paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR, and the 
flight training identified in paragraph 2(b)(5)(iii) of this SFAR.
    (c) Flight Review:
    (1) No flight review completed to satisfy Sec. 61.56 by an 
individual after becoming eligible to function as pilot in command in a 
Robinson R-22 helicopter shall be valid for the operation of R-22 
helicopter unless that flight review was taken in an R-22.
    (2) No flight review completed to satisfy Sec. 61.56 by individual 
after becoming eligible to function as pilot in command in a Robinson R-
44 helicopter shall be valid for the operation of R-44 helicopter unless 
that flight review was taken in the R-44.
    (3) The flight review will include a review of the awareness 
training subject areas of paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR and the flight 
training identified in paragraph 2(b) of this SFAR.
    (d) Currency Requirements: No person may act as pilot in command of 
a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter carrying passengers unless the 
pilot in command has met the recency of flight experience requirements 
of Sec. 61.57 in an R-22 or R-44, as appropriate.
    3. Expiration date. This SFAR No. 73 shall remain in effect until it 
is revised or rescinded.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by SFAR 73-1, 63 
FR 666, Jan. 7, 1998; 68 FR 43, Jan. 2, 2003; Amdt. 61-120, 73 FR 17246, 
Apr. 1, 2008; Amdt. SFAR 73-2, 74 FR 25650, May 29, 2009]



  Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100-2--Relief for U.S. 
  Military and Civilian Personnel Who are Assigned Outside the United 
            States in Support of U.S. Armed Forces Operations

    1. Applicability. Flight Standards offices are authorized to accept 
from an eligible person, as described in paragraph 2 of this SFAR, the 
following:
    (a) An expired flight instructor certificate to show eligibility for 
renewal of a flight instructor certificate under Sec. 61.197, or an 
expired written test report to show eligibility under part 61 to take a 
practical test;
    (b) An expired written test report to show eligibility under 
Sec. Sec. 63.33 and 63.57 to take a practical test; and
    (c) An expired written test report to show eligibility to take a 
practical test required under part 65 or an expired inspection 
authorization to show eligibility for renewal under Sec. 65.93.
    2. Eligibility. A person is eligible for the relief described in 
paragraph 1 of this SFAR if:
    (a) The person served in a U.S. military or civilian capacity 
outside the United States in support of the U.S. Armed Forces' operation 
during some period of time from September 11, 2001, to termination of 
SFAR 100-2;
    (b) The person's flight instructor certificate, airman written test 
report, or inspection authorization expired some time between September 
11, 2001, and 6 calendar months after returning to the United States

[[Page 464]]

or termination of SFAR 100-2, whichever is earlier; and
    (c) The person complies with Sec. 61.197 or Sec. 65.93 of this 
chapter, as appropriate, or completes the appropriate practical test 
within 6 calendar months after returning to the United States, or upon 
termination of SFAR 100-2, whichever is earlier.
    3. Required documents. The person must send the Airman Certificate 
and/or Rating Application (FAA Form 8710-1) to the appropriate Flight 
Standards office. The person must include with the application one of 
the following documents, which must show the date of assignment outside 
the United States and the date of return to the United States:
    (a) An official U.S. Government notification of personnel action, or 
equivalent document, showing the person was a civilian on official duty 
for the U.S. Government outside the United States and was assigned to a 
U.S. Armed Forces' operation some time between September 11, 2001, to 
termination of SFAR 100-2;
    (b) Military orders showing the person was assigned to duty outside 
the United States and was assigned to a U.S. Armed Forces' operation 
some time between September 11, 2001, to termination of SFAR 100-2 ; or
    (c) A letter from the person's military commander or civilian 
supervisor providing the dates during which the person served outside 
the United States and was assigned to a U.S. Armed Forces' operation 
some time between September 11, 2001, to termination of SFAR 100-2.
    4. Expiration date. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 
100-2 is effective until further notice.

[Doc. No. FAA-2009-0923, 75 FR 9766, Mar. 4, 2010, as amended by Docket 
FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 61-141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018]



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 61.1  Applicability and definitions.

    (a) Except as provided in part 107 of this chapter, this part 
prescribes:
    (1) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and 
ground instructor certificates and ratings; the conditions under which 
those certificates and ratings are necessary; and the privileges and 
limitations of those certificates and ratings.
    (2) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and 
ground instructor authorizations; the conditions under which those 
authorizations are necessary; and the privileges and limitations of 
those authorizations.
    (3) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and 
ground instructor certificates and ratings for persons who have taken 
courses approved by the Administrator under other parts of this chapter.
    (b) For the purpose of this part:
    Accredited has the same meaning as defined by the Department of 
Education in 34 CFR 600.2.
    Aeronautical experience means pilot time obtained in an aircraft, 
flight simulator, or flight training device for meeting the appropriate 
training and flight time requirements for an airman certificate, rating, 
flight review, or recency of flight experience requirements of this 
part.
    Authorized instructor means--
    (i) A person who holds a ground instructor certificate issued under 
part 61 of this chapter and is in compliance with Sec. 61.217, when 
conducting ground training in accordance with the privileges and 
limitations of his or her ground instructor certificate;
    (ii) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate issued under 
part 61 of this chapter and is in compliance with Sec. 61.197, when 
conducting ground training or flight training in accordance with the 
privileges and limitations of his or her flight instructor certificate; 
or
    (iii) A person authorized by the Administrator to provide ground 
training or flight training under part 61, 121, 135, or 142 of this 
chapter when conducting ground training or flight training in accordance 
with that authority.
    Aviation training device means a training device, other than a full 
flight simulator or flight training device, that has been evaluated, 
qualified, and approved by the Administrator.
    Complex airplane means an airplane that has a retractable landing 
gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller, including airplanes 
equipped with an engine control system consisting of a digital computer 
and associated accessories for controlling the engine and propeller, 
such as a full authority digital engine control; or, in the case of a 
seaplane, flaps and a controllable pitch propeller, including seaplanes 
equipped with an engine control system consisting of a digital computer 
and associated accessories for controlling the engine and propeller, 
such as a full authority digital engine control.

[[Page 465]]

    Cross-country time means--
    (i) Except as provided in paragraphs (ii) through (vi) of this 
definition, time acquired during flight--
    (A) Conducted by a person who holds a pilot certificate;
    (B) Conducted in an aircraft;
    (C) That includes a landing at a point other than the point of 
departure; and
    (D) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic 
navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems to navigate to 
the landing point.
    (ii) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience 
requirements (except for a rotorcraft category rating), for a private 
pilot certificate (except for a powered parachute category rating), a 
commercial pilot certificate, or an instrument rating, or for the 
purpose of exercising recreational pilot privileges (except in a 
rotorcraft) under Sec. 61.101 (c), time acquired during a flight--
    (A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft;
    (B) That includes a point of landing that was at least a straight-
line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of 
departure; and
    (C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic 
navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems to navigate to 
the landing point.
    (iii) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience 
requirements for a sport pilot certificate (except for powered parachute 
privileges), time acquired during a flight conducted in an appropriate 
aircraft that--
    (A) Includes a point of landing at least a straight line distance of 
more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (B) Involves, as applicable, the use of dead reckoning; pilotage; 
electronic navigation aids; radio aids; or other navigation systems to 
navigate to the landing point.
    (iv) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience 
requirements for a sport pilot certificate with powered parachute 
privileges or a private pilot certificate with a powered parachute 
category rating, time acquired during a flight conducted in an 
appropriate aircraft that--
    (A) Includes a point of landing at least a straight line distance of 
more than 15 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (B) Involves, as applicable, the use of dead reckoning; pilotage; 
electronic navigation aids; radio aids; or other navigation systems to 
navigate to the landing point.
    (v) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience 
requirements for any pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category rating 
or an instrument-helicopter rating, or for the purpose of exercising 
recreational pilot privileges, in a rotorcraft, under Sec. 61.101(c), 
time acquired during a flight--
    (A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft;
    (B) That includes a point of landing that was at least a straight-
line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of 
departure; and
    (C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic 
navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems to navigate to 
the landing point.
    (vi) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience 
requirements for an airline transport pilot certificate (except with a 
rotorcraft category rating), time acquired during a flight--
    (A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft;
    (B) That is at least a straight-line distance of more than 50 
nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic 
navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems.
    (vii) For a military pilot who qualifies for a commercial pilot 
certificate (except with a rotorcraft category rating) under Sec. 61.73 
of this part, time acquired during a flight--
    (A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft;
    (B) That is at least a straight-line distance of more than 50 
nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

[[Page 466]]

    (C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic 
navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems.
    Examiner means any person who is authorized by the Administrator to 
conduct a pilot proficiency test or a practical test for an airman 
certificate or rating issued under this part, or a person who is 
authorized to conduct a knowledge test under this part.
    Flight training means that training, other than ground training, 
received from an authorized instructor in flight in an aircraft.
    Ground training means that training, other than flight training, 
received from an authorized instructor.
    Institution of higher education has the same meaning as defined by 
the Department of Education in 34 CFR 600.4.
    Instrument approach means an approach procedure defined in part 97 
of this chapter.
    Instrument training means that time in which instrument training is 
received from an authorized instructor under actual or simulated 
instrument conditions.
    Knowledge test means a test on the aeronautical knowledge areas 
required for an airman certificate or rating that can be administered in 
written form or by a computer.
    Nationally recognized accrediting agency has the same meaning as 
defined by the Department of Education in 34 CFR 600.2.
    Night vision goggles means an appliance worn by a pilot that 
enhances the pilot's ability to maintain visual surface reference at 
night.
    Night vision goggle operation means the portion of a flight that 
occurs during the time period from 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before 
sunrise where the pilot maintains visual surface reference using night 
vision goggles in an aircraft that is approved for such an operation.
    Pilot time means that time in which a person--
    (i) Serves as a required pilot flight crewmember;
    (ii) Receives training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, 
full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training 
device;
    (iii) Gives training as an authorized instructor in an aircraft, 
full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training 
device; or
    (iv) Serves as second in command in operations conducted in 
accordance with Sec. 135.99(c) of this chapter when a second pilot is 
not required under the type certification of the aircraft or the 
regulations under which the flight is being conducted, provided the 
requirements in Sec. 61.159(c) are satisfied.
    Practical test means a test on the areas of operations for an airman 
certificate, rating, or authorization that is conducted by having the 
applicant respond to questions and demonstrate maneuvers in flight, in a 
flight simulator, or in a flight training device.
    Set of aircraft means aircraft that share similar performance 
characteristics, such as similar airspeed and altitude operating 
envelopes, similar handling characteristics, and the same number and 
type of propulsion systems.
    Student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate means a person who 
has received an endorsement--
    (i) To exercise student pilot privileges from a certificated flight 
instructor with a sport pilot rating; or
    (ii) That includes a limitation for the operation of a light-sport 
aircraft specified in Sec. 61.89(c) issued by a certificated flight 
instructor with other than a sport pilot rating.
    Technically advanced airplane (TAA) means an airplane equipped with 
an electronically advanced avionics system.
    Training time means training received--
    (i) In flight from an authorized instructor;
    (ii) On the ground from an authorized instructor; or
    (iii) In a flight simulator or flight training device from an 
authorized instructor.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40893, 
July 30, 1997 as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004; 
Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42546, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54105, 
Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42372, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-137, 
81 FR 42208, June 28, 2016; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018]

[[Page 467]]



Sec. 61.2  Exercise of Privilege.

    (a) Validity. No person may:
    (1) Exercise privileges of a certificate, rating, endorsement, or 
authorization issued under this part if the certificate, rating or 
authorization is surrendered, suspended, revoked or expired.
    (2) Exercise privileges of a flight instructor certificate if that 
flight instructor certificate is surrendered, suspended, revoked or 
expired.
    (3) Exercise privileges of a foreign pilot certificate to operate an 
aircraft of foreign registry under Sec. 61.3(b) if the certificate is 
surrendered, suspended, revoked or expired.
    (4) Exercise privileges of a pilot certificate issued under Sec. 
61.75, or an authorization issued under Sec. 61.77, if the foreign 
pilot certificate relied upon for the issuance of the U.S. pilot 
certificate or authorization is surrendered, suspended, revoked or 
expired.
    (5) Exercise privileges of a medical certificate issued under part 
67 to meet any requirements of part 61 if the medical certificate is 
surrendered, suspended, revoked or expired according to the duration 
standards set forth in Sec. 61.23(d).
    (6) Use an official government issued driver's license to meet any 
requirements of part 61 related to holding that driver's license, if the 
driver's license is surrendered, suspended, revoked or expired.
    (b) Currency. No person may:
    (1) Exercise privileges of an airman certificate, rating, 
endorsement, or authorization issued under this part unless that person 
meets the appropriate airman and medical recency requirements of this 
part, specific to the operation or activity.
    (2) Exercise privileges of a foreign pilot license within the United 
States to conduct an operation described in Sec. 61.3(b), unless that 
person meets the appropriate airman and medical recency requirements of 
the country that issued the license, specific to the operation.

[Doc. No. FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42546, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.3  Requirement for certificates, ratings, and authorizations.

    (a) Required pilot certificate for operating a civil aircraft of the 
United States. No person may serve as a required pilot flight crewmember 
of a civil aircraft of the United States, unless that person:
    (1) Has in the person's physical possession or readily accessible in 
the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate or 
authorization--
    (i) A pilot certificate issued under this part and in accordance 
with Sec. 61.19;
    (ii) A special purpose pilot authorization issued under Sec. 61.77;
    (iii) A temporary certificate issued under Sec. 61.17;
    (iv) A document conveying temporary authority to exercise 
certificate privileges issued by the Airmen Certification Branch under 
Sec. 61.29(e);
    (v) When engaged in a flight operation within the United States for 
a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under 
part 121 or 135 of this chapter, a temporary document provided by that 
certificate holder under an approved certificate verification plan;
    (vi) When engaged in a flight operation within the United States for 
a fractional ownership program manager authorized to conduct operations 
under part 91, subpart K, of this chapter, a temporary document provided 
by that program manager under an approved certificate verification plan; 
or
    (vii) When operating an aircraft within a foreign country, a pilot 
license issued by that country may be used.
    (2) Has a photo identification that is in that person's physical 
possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the 
privileges of that pilot certificate or authorization. The photo 
identification must be a:
    (i) Driver's license issued by a State, the District of Columbia, or 
territory or possession of the United States;
    (ii) Government identification card issued by the Federal 
government, a State, the District of Columbia, or a territory or 
possession of the United States;
    (iii) U.S. Armed Forces' identification card;
    (iv) Official passport;

[[Page 468]]

    (v) Credential that authorizes unescorted access to a security 
identification display area at an airport regulated under 49 CFR part 
1542; or
    (vi) Other form of identification that the Administrator finds 
acceptable.
    (b) Required pilot certificate for operating a foreign-registered 
aircraft within the United States. No person may serve as a required 
pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft of foreign registry within 
the United States, unless--
    (1) That person's pilot certificate or document issued under Sec. 
61.29(e) is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible 
in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot 
certificate; and
    (2) Has been issued in accordance with this part, or has been issued 
or validated by the country in which the aircraft is registered.
    (c) Medical certificate. (1) A person may serve as a required pilot 
flight crewmember of an aircraft only if that person holds the 
appropriate medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter, or 
other documentation acceptable to the FAA, that is in that person's 
physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft. Paragraph 
(c)(2) of this section provides certain exceptions to the requirement to 
hold a medical certificate.
    (2) A person is not required to meet the requirements of paragraph 
(c)(1) of this section if that person--
    (i) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate 
while seeking a pilot certificate with a glider category rating, a 
balloon class rating, or glider or balloon privileges;
    (ii) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate 
while seeking a sport pilot certificate with other than glider or 
balloon privileges and holds a U.S. driver's license;
    (iii) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate 
while seeking a pilot certificate with a weight-shift-control aircraft 
category rating or a powered parachute category rating and holds a U.S. 
driver's license;
    (iv) Is exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate with 
glider or balloon privileges;
    (v) Is exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate with 
other than glider or balloon privileges and holds a U.S. driver's 
license. A person who has applied for or held a medical certificate may 
exercise the privileges of a sport pilot certificate using a U.S. 
driver's license only if that person--
    (A) Has been found eligible for the issuance of at least a third-
class airman medical certificate at the time of his or her most recent 
application; and
    (B) Has not had his or her most recently issued medical certificate 
suspended or revoked or most recent Authorization for a Special Issuance 
of a Medical Certificate withdrawn.
    (vi) Is holding a pilot certificate with a balloon class rating and 
is piloting or providing training in a balloon as appropriate;
    (vii) Is holding a pilot certificate or a flight instructor 
certificate with a glider category rating, and is piloting or providing 
training in a glider, as appropriate;
    (viii) Is exercising the privileges of a flight instructor 
certificate, provided the person is not acting as pilot in command or as 
a required pilot flight crewmember;
    (ix) Is exercising the privileges of a ground instructor 
certificate;
    (x) Is operating an aircraft within a foreign country using a pilot 
license issued by that country and possesses evidence of current medical 
qualification for that license;
    (xi) Is operating an aircraft with a U.S. pilot certificate, issued 
on the basis of a foreign pilot license, issued under Sec. 61.75, and 
holds a medical certificate issued by the foreign country that issued 
the foreign pilot license, which is in that person's physical possession 
or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of 
that airman certificate;
    (xii) Is a pilot of the U.S. Armed Forces, has an up-to-date U.S. 
military medical examination, and holds military pilot flight status;
    (xiii) Is exercising the privileges of a student, recreational or 
private pilot certificate for operations conducted under the conditions 
and limitations set forth in Sec. 61.113(i) and holds a U.S. driver's 
license;
    (xiv) Is exercising the privileges of a flight instructor 
certificate and acting as pilot in command or a required

[[Page 469]]

flightcrew member for operations conducted under the conditions and 
limitations set forth in Sec. 61.113(i) and holds a U.S. driver's 
license; or
    (xv) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate or 
higher while acting as pilot in command on a special medical flight test 
authorized under part 67 of this chapter.
    (d) Flight instructor certificate. (1) A person who holds a flight 
instructor certificate issued under this part must have that 
certificate, or other documentation acceptable to the Administrator, in 
that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft 
when exercising the privileges of that flight instructor certificate.
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, no 
person other than the holder of a flight instructor certificate issued 
under this part with the appropriate rating on that certificate may--
    (i) Give training required to qualify a person for solo flight and 
solo cross-country flight;
    (ii) Endorse an applicant for a--
    (A) Pilot certificate or rating issued under this part;
    (B) Flight instructor certificate or rating issued under this part; 
or
    (C) Ground instructor certificate or rating issued under this part;
    (iii) Endorse a pilot logbook to show training given; or
    (iv) Endorse a logbook for solo operating privileges.
    (3) A flight instructor certificate issued under this part is not 
necessary--
    (i) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is given 
by the holder of a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air 
rating, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges 
of the certificate in a lighter-than-air aircraft;
    (ii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is 
given by the holder of an airline transport pilot certificate with a 
rating appropriate to the aircraft in which the training is given, 
provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the 
certificate and conducted in accordance with an approved air carrier 
training program approved under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter;
    (iii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is 
given by a person who is qualified in accordance with subpart C of part 
142 of this chapter, provided the training is conducted in accordance 
with an approved part 142 training program;
    (iv) Under paragraphs (d)(2)(i), (d)(2)(ii)(C), and (d)(2)(iii) of 
this section, if the training is given by the holder of a ground 
instructor certificate in accordance with the privileges of the 
certificate; or
    (v) Under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, if the training is 
given by an authorized flight instructor under Sec. 61.41 of this part.
    (e) Instrument rating. No person may act as pilot in command of a 
civil aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums 
prescribed for VFR flight unless that person holds:
    (1) The appropriate aircraft category, class, type (if required), 
and instrument rating on that person's pilot certificate for any 
airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift being flown;
    (2) An airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate 
aircraft category, class, and type rating (if required) for the aircraft 
being flown;
    (3) For a glider, a pilot certificate with a glider category rating 
and an airplane instrument rating; or
    (4) For an airship, a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-
than-air category rating and airship class rating.
    (f) Category II pilot authorization. Except for a pilot conducting 
Category II operations under part 121 or part 135, a person may not:
    (1) Act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft during Category II 
operations unless that person--
    (i) Holds a Category II pilot authorization for that category or 
class of aircraft, and the type of aircraft, if applicable; or
    (ii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is 
authorized by the country of registry to act as pilot in command of that 
aircraft in Category II operations.
    (2) Act as second in command of a civil aircraft during Category II 
operations unless that person--

[[Page 470]]

    (i) Holds a pilot certificate with category and class ratings for 
that aircraft and an instrument rating for that category aircraft;
    (ii) Holds an airline transport pilot certificate with category and 
class ratings for that aircraft; or
    (iii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is 
authorized by the country of registry to act as second in command of 
that aircraft during Category II operations.
    (g) Category III pilot authorization. Except for a pilot conducting 
Category III operations under part 121 or part 135, a person may not:
    (1) Act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft during Category III 
operations unless that person--
    (i) Holds a Category III pilot authorization for that category or 
class of aircraft, and the type of aircraft, if applicable; or
    (ii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is 
authorized by the country of registry to act as pilot in command of that 
aircraft in Category III operations.
    (2) Act as second in command of a civil aircraft during Category III 
operations unless that person--
    (i) Holds a pilot certificate with category and class ratings for 
that aircraft and an instrument rating for that category aircraft;
    (ii) Holds an airline transport pilot certificate with category and 
class ratings for that aircraft; or
    (iii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is 
authorized by the country of registry to act as second in command of 
that aircraft during Category III operations.
    (h) Category A aircraft pilot authorization. The Administrator may 
issue a certificate of authorization for a Category II or Category III 
operation to the pilot of a small aircraft that is a Category A 
aircraft, as identified in Sec. 97.3(b)(1) of this chapter if:
    (1) The Administrator determines that the Category II or Category 
III operation can be performed safely by that pilot under the terms of 
the certificate of authorization; and
    (2) The Category II or Category III operation does not involve the 
carriage of persons or property for compensation or hire.
    (i) Ground instructor certificate. (1) Each person who holds a 
ground instructor certificate issued under this part must have that 
certificate or a temporary document issued under Sec. 61.29(e) in that 
person's physical possession or immediately accessible when exercising 
the privileges of that certificate.
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(3) of this section, no 
person other than the holder of a ground instructor certificate, issued 
under this part or part 143, with the appropriate rating on that 
certificate may--
    (i) Give ground training required to qualify a person for solo 
flight and solo cross-country flight;
    (ii) Endorse an applicant for a knowledge test required for a pilot, 
flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating issued 
under this part; or
    (iii) Endorse a pilot logbook to show ground training given.
    (3) A ground instructor certificate issued under this part is not 
necessary--
    (i) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given 
by the holder of a flight instructor certificate issued under this part 
in accordance with the privileges of that certificate;
    (ii) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is 
given by the holder of a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-
than-air rating, provided the training is given in accordance with the 
privileges of the certificate in a lighter-than-air aircraft;
    (iii) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is 
given by the holder of an airline transport pilot certificate with a 
rating appropriate to the aircraft in which the training is given, 
provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the 
certificate and conducted in accordance with an approved air carrier 
training program approved under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter;
    (iv) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is 
given by a person who is qualified in accordance with subpart C of part 
142 of this chapter, provided the training is conducted in accordance 
with an approved part 142 training program; or
    (v) Under paragraph (i)(2)(iii) of this section, if the training is 
given by an

[[Page 471]]

authorized flight instructor under Sec. 61.41 of this part.
    (j) Age limitation for certain operations. (1) Age limitation. No 
person who holds a pilot certificate issued under this part may serve as 
a pilot on a civil airplane of U.S. registry in the following operations 
if the person has reached his or her 60th birthday or, in the case of 
operations with more than one pilot, his or her 65th birthday:
    (i) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in 
turbojet-powered airplanes;
    (ii) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in 
airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than nine 
passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat;
    (iii) Nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation 
or hire in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than 
30 passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat; or
    (iv) Scheduled international air services, or nonscheduled 
international air transportation for compensation or hire, in airplanes 
having a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds.
    (2) Definitions. (i) ``International air service,'' as used in this 
paragraph (j), means scheduled air service performed in airplanes for 
the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the service 
passes through the airspace over the territory of more than one country.
    (ii) ``International air transportation,'' as used in this paragraph 
(j), means air transportation performed in airplanes for the public 
transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the service passes 
through the airspace over the territory of more than one country.
    (k) Special purpose pilot authorization. Any person that is required 
to hold a special purpose pilot authorization, issued in accordance with 
Sec. 61.77 of this part, must have that authorization and the person's 
foreign pilot license in that person's physical possession or have it 
readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of 
that authorization.
    (l) Inspection of certificate. Each person who holds an airman 
certificate, temporary document in accordance with paragraph (a)(1)(v) 
or (vi) of this section, medical certificate, documents establishing 
alternative medical qualification under part 68 of this chapter, 
authorization, or license required by this part must present it and 
their photo identification as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this 
section for inspection upon a request from:
    (1) The Administrator;
    (2) An authorized representative of the National Transportation 
Safety Board;
    (3) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer; or
    (4) An authorized representative of the Transportation Security 
Administration.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40894, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-111, 67 FR 65861, Oct. 28, 2002; Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-123, 74 FR 34234, July 15, 2009; 
Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42546, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 53644, 
Oct. 20, 2009; Amdt. 61-131, 78 FR 56828, Sept. 16, 2013; Amdt. 61-134, 
80 FR 33400, June 12, 2015; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 
1306, Jan. 12, 2016; Doc. No. FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 61-140, 82 FR 3164, 
Jan. 11, 2017; Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018; Docket No. FAA-
2021-1040, Amdt. Nos. 61-152, 87 FR 71236, Nov. 22, 2022]

    Effective Date Note: By Docket No. FAA-2021-1040; Amdt. Nos. 61-152 
and 68-2, 87 FR 71236, Nov. 22, 2022 was amended by revising paragraph 
(c)(2)(vi), effective May 22, 2023. For the convenience of the user, the 
revised text is set forth as follows:



Sec. 61.3  Requirement for certificates, ratings, and authorizations.

                                * * * * *

    (c) * * *
    (2) * * *
    (vi) Is holding a pilot certificate with a balloon class rating and 
that person--
    (A) Is exercising the privileges of a private pilot certificate in a 
balloon; or
    (B) Is providing flight training in a balloon in accordance with 
Sec. 61.133(a)(2)(ii);

                                * * * * *



Sec. 61.4  Qualification and approval of flight simulators and flight training devices.

    (a) Except as specified in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, 
each flight simulator and flight training device

[[Page 472]]

used for training, and for which an airman is to receive credit to 
satisfy any training, testing, or checking requirement under this 
chapter, must be qualified and approved by the Administrator for--
    (1) The training, testing, and checking for which it is used;
    (2) Each particular maneuver, procedure, or crewmember function 
performed; and
    (3) The representation of the specific category and class of 
aircraft, type of aircraft, particular variation within the type of 
aircraft, or set of aircraft for certain flight training devices.
    (b) Any device used for flight training, testing, or checking that 
has been determined to be acceptable to or approved by the Administrator 
prior to August 1, 1996, which can be shown to function as originally 
designed, is considered to be a flight training device, provided it is 
used for the same purposes for which it was originally accepted or 
approved and only to the extent of such acceptance or approval.
    (c) The Administrator may approve a device other than a flight 
simulator or flight training device for specific purposes.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40895, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.5  Certificates and ratings issued under this part.

    (a) The following certificates are issued under this part to an 
applicant who satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification 
requirements for the certificate sought:
    (1) Pilot certificates--
    (i) Student pilot.
    (ii) Sport pilot.
    (iii) Recreational pilot.
    (iv) Private pilot.
    (v) Commercial pilot.
    (vi) Airline transport pilot.
    (2) Flight instructor certificates.
    (3) Ground instructor certificates.
    (b) The following ratings are placed on a pilot certificate (other 
than student pilot) when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the 
training and certification requirements for the rating sought:
    (1) Aircraft category ratings--
    (i) Airplane.
    (ii) Rotorcraft.
    (iii) Glider.
    (iv) Lighter-than-air.
    (v) Powered-lift.
    (vi) Powered parachute.
    (vii) Weight-shift-control aircraft.
    (2) Airplane class ratings--
    (i) Single-engine land.
    (ii) Multiengine land.
    (iii) Single-engine sea.
    (iv) Multiengine sea.
    (3) Rotorcraft class ratings--
    (i) Helicopter.
    (ii) Gyroplane.
    (4) Lighter-than-air class ratings--
    (i) Airship.
    (ii) Balloon.
    (5) Weight-shift-control aircraft class ratings--
    (i) Weight-shift-control aircraft land.
    (ii) Weight-shift-control aircraft sea.
    (6) Powered parachute class ratings--
    (i) Powered parachute land.
    (ii) Powered parachute sea.
    (7) Aircraft type ratings--
    (i) Large aircraft other than lighter-than-air.
    (ii) Turbojet-powered airplanes.
    (iii) Other aircraft type ratings specified by the Administrator 
through the aircraft type certification procedures.
    (iv) Second-in-command pilot type rating for aircraft that is 
certificated for operations with a minimum crew of at least two pilots.
    (8) Instrument ratings (on private and commercial pilot certificates 
only)--
    (i) Instrument--Airplane.
    (ii) Instrument--Helicopter.
    (iii) Instrument--Powered-lift.
    (c) The following ratings are placed on a flight instructor 
certificate when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the training 
and certification requirements for the rating sought:
    (1) Aircraft category ratings--
    (i) Airplane.
    (ii) Rotorcraft.
    (iii) Glider.
    (iv) Powered-lift.
    (2) Airplane class ratings--
    (i) Single-engine.
    (ii) Multiengine.
    (3) Rotorcraft class ratings--
    (i) Helicopter.
    (ii) Gyroplane.
    (4) Instrument ratings--
    (i) Instrument--Airplane.
    (ii) Instrument--Helicopter.

[[Page 473]]

    (iii) Instrument--Powered-lift.
    (5) Sport pilot rating.
    (d) The following ratings are placed on a ground instructor 
certificate when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the training 
and certification requirements for the rating sought:
    (1) Basic.
    (2) Advanced.
    (3) Instrument.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-113, 70 FR 45271, Aug. 4, 2005]



Sec. 61.7  Obsolete certificates and ratings.

    (a) The holder of a free-balloon pilot certificate issued before 
November 1, 1973, may not exercise the privileges of that certificate.
    (b) The holder of a pilot certificate that bears any of the 
following category ratings without an associated class rating may not 
exercise the privileges of that category rating:
    (1) Rotorcraft.
    (2) Lighter-than-air.
    (3) Helicopter.
    (4) Autogyro.



Sec. 61.8  Inapplicability of unmanned aircraft operations.

    Any action conducted pursuant to part 107 of this chapter cannot be 
used to meet the requirements of this part.

[FAA-2020-1067, Amdt. Nos. 61-148, 85 FR 79825, Dec. 11, 2020]



Sec. 61.9  [Reserved]



Sec. 61.11  Expired pilot certificates and re-issuance.

    (a) No person who holds an expired pilot certificate or rating may 
act as pilot in command or as a required pilot flight crewmember of an 
aircraft of the same category or class that is listed on that expired 
pilot certificate or rating.
    (b) The following pilot certificates and ratings have expired and 
will not be reissued:
    (1) An airline transport pilot certificate issued before May 1, 
1949, or an airline transport pilot certificate that contains a 
horsepower limitation.
    (2) A private or commercial pilot certificate issued before July 1, 
1945.
    (3) A pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air or free-balloon 
rating issued before July 1, 1945.
    (c) An airline transport pilot certificate that was issued after 
April 30, 1949, and that bears an expiration date but does not contain a 
horsepower limitation, may have that airline transport pilot certificate 
re-issued without an expiration date.
    (d) A private or commercial pilot certificate that was issued after 
June 30, 1945, and that bears an expiration date, may have that pilot 
certificate reissued without an expiration date.
    (e) A pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air or free-balloon 
rating that was issued after June 30, 1945, and that bears an expiration 
date, may have that pilot certificate reissued without an expiration 
date.

[Doc. No. FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42547, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.13  Issuance of airman certificates, ratings, and authorizations.

    (a) Application. (1) An applicant for an airman certificate, rating, 
or authorization under this part must make that application on a form 
and in a manner acceptable to the Administrator.
    (2) An applicant must show evidence that the appropriate fee 
prescribed in appendix A to part 187 of this chapter has been paid when 
that person applies for airmen certification services administered 
outside the United States.
    (3) An applicant who is neither a citizen of the United States nor a 
resident alien of the United States may be refused issuance of any U.S. 
airman certificate, rating or authorization by the Administrator.
    (4) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, an 
applicant who satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification 
requirements for the certificate, rating, or authorization sought is 
entitled to receive that airman certificate, rating, or authorization.
    (b) Limitations. (1) An applicant who cannot comply with certain 
areas of operation required on the practical test because of physical 
limitations may be issued an airman certificate, rating, or 
authorization with the appropriate

[[Page 474]]

limitation placed on the applicant's airman certificate provided the--
    (i) Applicant is able to meet all other certification requirements 
for the airman certificate, rating, or authorization sought;
    (ii) Physical limitation has been recorded with the FAA on the 
applicant's medical records; and
    (iii) Administrator determines that the applicant's inability to 
perform the particular area of operation will not adversely affect 
safety.
    (2) A limitation placed on a person's airman certificate may be 
removed, provided that person demonstrates for an examiner satisfactory 
proficiency in the area of operation appropriate to the airman 
certificate, rating, or authorization sought.
    (c) Additional requirements for Category II and Category III pilot 
authorizations. (1) A Category II or Category III pilot authorization is 
issued by a letter of authorization as part of an applicant's instrument 
rating or airline transport pilot certificate.
    (2) Upon original issue, the authorization contains the following 
limitations:
    (i) For Category II operations, the limitation is 1,600 feet RVR and 
a 150-foot decision height; and
    (ii) For Category III operations, each initial limitation is 
specified in the authorization document.
    (3) The limitations on a Category II or Category III pilot 
authorization may be removed as follows:
    (i) In the case of Category II limitations, a limitation is removed 
when the holder shows that, since the beginning of the sixth preceding 
month, the holder has made three Category II ILS approaches with a 150-
foot decision height to a landing under actual or simulated instrument 
conditions.
    (ii) In the case of Category III limitations, a limitation is 
removed as specified in the authorization.
    (4) To meet the experience requirements of paragraph (c)(3) of this 
section, and for the practical test required by this part for a Category 
II or a Category III pilot authorization, a flight simulator or flight 
training device may be used if it is approved by the Administrator for 
such use.
    (d) Application during suspension or revocation. (1) Unless 
otherwise authorized by the Administrator, a person whose pilot, flight 
instructor, or ground instructor certificate has been suspended may not 
apply for any certificate, rating, or authorization during the period of 
suspension.
    (2) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, a person whose 
pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate has been 
revoked may not apply for any certificate, rating, or authorization for 
1 year after the date of revocation.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40895, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-116, 
72 FR 18558, Apr. 12, 2007; Amdt. 61-132, 78 FR 77572, Dec. 24, 2013]



Sec. 61.14  [Reserved]



Sec. 61.15  Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.

    (a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or State statute 
relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, 
possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, 
or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for:
    (1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after 
the date of final conviction; or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part.
    (b) Committing an act prohibited by Sec. 91.17(a) or Sec. 91.19(a) 
of this chapter is grounds for:
    (1) Denial of an application for a certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after 
the date of that act; or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part.
    (c) For the purposes of paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this 
section, a motor vehicle action means:
    (1) A conviction after November 29, 1990, for the violation of any 
Federal or State statute relating to the operation of a motor vehicle 
while intoxicated by

[[Page 475]]

alcohol or a drug, while impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under 
the influence of alcohol or a drug;
    (2) The cancellation, suspension, or revocation of a license to 
operate a motor vehicle after November 29, 1990, for a cause related to 
the operation of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, 
while impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under the influence of 
alcohol or a drug; or
    (3) The denial after November 29, 1990, of an application for a 
license to operate a motor vehicle for a cause related to the operation 
of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, while 
impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under the influence of alcohol 
or a drug.
    (d) Except for a motor vehicle action that results from the same 
incident or arises out of the same factual circumstances, a motor 
vehicle action occurring within 3 years of a previous motor vehicle 
action is grounds for:
    (1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after 
the date of the last motor vehicle action; or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part.
    (e) Each person holding a certificate issued under this part shall 
provide a written report of each motor vehicle action to the FAA, Civil 
Aviation Security Division (AMC-700), P.O. Box 25810, Oklahoma City, OK 
73125, not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. The report 
must include:
    (1) The person's name, address, date of birth, and airman 
certificate number;
    (2) The type of violation that resulted in the conviction or the 
administrative action;
    (3) The date of the conviction or administrative action;
    (4) The State that holds the record of conviction or administrative 
action; and
    (5) A statement of whether the motor vehicle action resulted from 
the same incident or arose out of the same factual circumstances related 
to a previously reported motor vehicle action.
    (f) Failure to comply with paragraph (e) of this section is grounds 
for:
    (1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after 
the date of the motor vehicle action; or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part.



Sec. 61.16  Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results.

    A refusal to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight 
of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer in 
accordance with Sec. 91.17(c) of this chapter, or a refusal to furnish 
or authorize the release of the test results requested by the 
Administrator in accordance with Sec. 91.17(c) or (d) of this chapter, 
is grounds for:
    (a) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after 
the date of that refusal; or
    (b) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part.



Sec. 61.17  Temporary certificate.

    (a) A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor 
certificate or rating is issued for up to 120 days, at which time a 
permanent certificate will be issued to a person whom the Administrator 
finds qualified under this part.
    (b) A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor 
certificate or rating expires:
    (1) On the expiration date shown on the certificate;
    (2) Upon receipt of the permanent certificate; or
    (3) Upon receipt of a notice that the certificate or rating sought 
is denied or revoked.



Sec. 61.18  [Reserved]



Sec. 61.19  Duration of pilot and instructor certificates and privileges.

    (a) General. (1) The holder of a certificate with an expiration date 
may not, after that date, exercise the privileges of that certificate.

[[Page 476]]

    (2) Except for a certificate issued with an expiration date, a pilot 
certificate is valid unless it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.
    (b) Paper student pilot certificate. A student pilot certificate 
issued under this part prior to April 1, 2016 expires:
    (1) For student pilots who have not reached their 40th birthday, 60 
calendar months after the month of the date of examination shown on the 
medical certificate.
    (2) For student pilots who have reached their 40th birthday, 24 
calendar months after the month of the date of examination shown on the 
medical certificate.
    (3) For student pilots seeking a glider rating, balloon rating, or a 
sport pilot certificate, 60 calendar months after the month of the date 
issued, regardless of the person's age.
    (c) Pilot certificates. (1) A pilot certificate (including a student 
pilot certificate issued after April 1, 2016 issued under this part is 
issued without a specific expiration date.
    (2) The holder of a pilot certificate issued on the basis of a 
foreign pilot license may exercise the privileges of that certificate 
only while that person's foreign pilot license is effective.
    (d) Flight instructor certificate. Except as specified in Sec. 
61.197(b), a flight instructor certificate expires 24 calendar months 
from the month in which it was issued, renewed, or reinstated, as 
appropriate.
    (e) Ground instructor certificate. A ground instructor certificate 
is issued without a specific expiration date.
    (f) Return of certificates. The holder of any airman certificate 
that is issued under this part, and that has been suspended or revoked, 
must return that certificate to the FAA when requested to do so by the 
Administrator.
    (g) Duration of pilot certificates. Except for a temporary 
certificate issued under Sec. 61.17 or a student pilot certificate 
issued under paragraph (b) of this section, the holder of a paper pilot 
certificate issued under this part may not exercise the privileges of 
that certificate after March 31, 2010.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-118, 
73 FR 10668, Feb. 28, 2008; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42547, Aug. 21, 2009; 
Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 53644, Oct. 20, 2009; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 
61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016]



Sec. 61.21  Duration of a Category II and a Category III pilot authorization (for other than part 121 and part 135 use).

    (a) A Category II pilot authorization or a Category III pilot 
authorization expires at the end of the sixth calendar month after the 
month in which it was issued or renewed.
    (b) Upon passing a practical test for a Category II or Category III 
pilot authorization, the authorization may be renewed for each type of 
aircraft for which the authorization is held.
    (c) A Category II or Category III pilot authorization for a specific 
type aircraft for which an authorization is held will not be renewed 
beyond 12 calendar months from the month the practical test was 
accomplished in that type aircraft.
    (d) If the holder of a Category II or Category III pilot 
authorization passes the practical test for a renewal in the month 
before the authorization expires, the holder is considered to have 
passed it during the month the authorization expired.



Sec. 61.23  Medical certificates: Requirement and duration.

    (a) Operations requiring a medical certificate. Except as provided 
in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a person--
    (1) Must hold a first-class medical certificate:
    (i) When exercising the pilot-in-command privileges of an airline 
transport pilot certificate;
    (ii) When exercising the second-in-command privileges of an airline 
transport pilot certificate in a flag or supplemental operation in part 
121 of this chapter that requires three or more pilots; or
    (iii) When serving as a required pilot flightcrew member in an 
operation conducted under part 121 of this chapter if the pilot has 
reached his or her 60th birthday.

[[Page 477]]

    (2) Must hold at least a second class medical certificate when 
exercising:
    (i) Second-in-command privileges of an airline transport pilot 
certificate in part 121 of this chapter (other than operations specified 
in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section); or
    (ii) Privileges of a commercial pilot certificate; or
    (3) Must hold at least a third-class medical certificate--
    (i) When exercising the privileges of a private pilot certificate, 
recreational pilot certificate, or student pilot certificate, except 
when operating under the conditions and limitations set forth in Sec. 
61.113(i);
    (ii) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor 
certificate and acting as the pilot in command or as a required 
flightcrew member, except when operating under the conditions and 
limitations set forth in Sec. 61.113(i);
    (iii) When taking a practical test in an aircraft for a recreational 
pilot, private pilot, commercial pilot, or airline transport pilot 
certificate, or for a flight instructor certificate, except when 
operating under the conditions and limitations set forth in Sec. 
61.113(i); or
    (iv) When performing the duties as an Examiner in an aircraft when 
administering a practical test or proficiency check for an airman 
certificate, rating, or authorization.
    (b) Operations not requiring a medical certificate. A person is not 
required to hold a medical certificate--
    (1) When exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate 
while seeking--
    (i) A sport pilot certificate with glider or balloon privileges; or
    (ii) A pilot certificate with a glider category rating or balloon 
class rating;
    (2) When exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate with 
privileges in a glider or balloon;
    (3) When exercising the privileges of a pilot certificate with a 
glider category rating or balloon class rating in a glider or a balloon, 
as appropriate;
    (4) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor 
certificate with--
    (i) A sport pilot rating in a glider or balloon; or
    (ii) A glider category rating;
    (5) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor 
certificate if the person is not acting as pilot in command or serving 
as a required pilot flight crewmember;
    (6) When exercising the privileges of a ground instructor 
certificate;
    (7) When serving as an Examiner or check airman and administering a 
practical test or proficiency check for an airman certificate, rating, 
or authorization conducted in a glider, balloon, flight simulator, or 
flight training device;
    (8) When taking a practical test or a proficiency check for a 
certificate, rating, authorization or operating privilege conducted in a 
glider, balloon, flight simulator, or flight training device;
    (9) When a military pilot of the U.S. Armed Forces can show evidence 
of an up-to-date medical examination authorizing pilot flight status 
issued by the U.S. Armed Forces and--
    (i) The flight does not require higher than a third-class medical 
certificate; and
    (ii) The flight conducted is a domestic flight operation within U.S. 
airspace; or
    (10) When exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate 
or higher while acting as pilot in command on a special medical flight 
test authorized under part 67 of this chapter.
    (c) Operations requiring either a medical certificate or U.S. 
driver's license. (1) A person must hold and possess either a medical 
certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter or a U.S. driver's 
license when--
    (i) Exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while 
seeking sport pilot privileges in a light-sport aircraft other than a 
glider or balloon;
    (ii) Exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate in a 
light-sport aircraft other than a glider or balloon;
    (iii) Exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate 
with a sport pilot rating while acting as pilot in command or serving as 
a required flight crewmember of a light-sport aircraft other than a 
glider or balloon;
    (iv) Serving as an Examiner and administering a practical test for 
the issuance of a sport pilot certificate in a

[[Page 478]]

light-sport aircraft other than a glider or balloon;
    (v) Exercising the privileges of a student, recreational or private 
pilot certificate if the flight is conducted under the conditions and 
limitations set forth in Sec. 61.113(i); or
    (vi) Exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate 
and acting as the pilot in command or as a required flight crewmember if 
the flight is conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth 
in Sec. 61.113(i).
    (2) A person using a U.S. driver's license to meet the requirements 
of paragraph (c) while exercising sport pilot privileges must--
    (i) Comply with each restriction and limitation imposed by that 
person's U.S. driver's license and any judicial or administrative order 
applying to the operation of a motor vehicle;
    (ii) Have been found eligible for the issuance of at least a third-
class airman medical certificate at the time of his or her most recent 
application (if the person has applied for a medical certificate);
    (iii) Not have had his or her most recently issued medical 
certificate (if the person has held a medical certificate) suspended or 
revoked or most recent Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical 
Certificate withdrawn; and
    (iv) Not know or have reason to know of any medical condition that 
would make that person unable to operate a light-sport aircraft in a 
safe manner.
    (3) A person using a U.S. driver's license to meet the requirements 
of paragraph (c) while operating under the conditions and limitations of 
Sec. 61.113(i) must meet the following requirements--
    (i) The person must--
    (A) Comply with all medical requirements or restrictions associated 
with his or her U.S. driver's license;
    (B) At any point after July 14, 2006, have held a medical 
certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter;
    (C) Complete the medical education course set forth in Sec. 68.3 of 
this chapter during the 24 calendar months before acting as pilot in 
command or serving as a required flightcrew member in an operation 
conducted under Sec. 61.113(i) and retain a certification of course 
completion in accordance with Sec. 68.3(b)(1) of this chapter;
    (D) Receive a comprehensive medical examination from a State-
licensed physician during the 48 months before acting as pilot in 
command or serving as a required flightcrew member of an operation 
conducted under Sec. 61.113(i) and that medical examination is 
conducted in accordance with the requirements in part 68 of this 
chapter; and
    (E) If the individual has been diagnosed with any medical condition 
that may impact the ability of the individual to fly, be under the care 
and treatment of a State-licensed physician when acting as pilot in 
command or serving as a required flightcrew member of an operation 
conducted under Sec. 61.113(i).
    (ii) The most recently issued medical certificate--
    (A) May include an authorization for special issuance;
    (B) May be expired; and
    (C) Cannot have been suspended or revoked.
    (iii) The most recently issued Authorization for a Special Issuance 
of a Medical Certificate cannot have been withdrawn; and
    (iv) The most recent application for an airman medical certificate 
submitted to the FAA cannot have been completed and denied.
    (d) Duration of a medical certificate. Use the following table to 
determine duration for each class of medical certificate:

[[Page 479]]



----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                                           Then your medical
                                      And on the date of                                certificate expires, for
            If you hold              examination for your   And you are conducting an    that operation, at the
                                     most recent medical       operation requiring       end of the last day of
                                     certificate you were                                         the
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(1) A first-class medical           (i) Under age 40.....  an airline transport pilot  12th month after the
 certificate.                                               certificate for pilot-in-   month of the date of
                                                            command privileges, or      examination shown on the
                                                            for second-in-command       medical certificate.
                                                            privileges in a flag or
                                                            supplemental operation in
                                                            part 121 requiring three
                                                            or more pilots.
                                    (ii) Age 40 or older.  an airline transport pilot  6th month after the month
                                                            certificate for pilot-in-   of the date of
                                                            command privileges, for     examination shown on the
                                                            second-in-command           medical certificate.
                                                            privileges in a flag or
                                                            supplemental operation in
                                                            part 121 requiring three
                                                            or more pilots, or for a
                                                            pilot flightcrew member
                                                            in part 121 operations
                                                            who has reached his or
                                                            her 60th birthday..
                                    (iii) Any age........  a commercial pilot          12th month after the
                                                            certificate or an air       month of the date of
                                                            traffic control tower       examination shown on the
                                                            operator certificate.       medical certificate.
                                    (iv) Under age 40....  a recreational pilot        60th month after the
                                                            certificate, a private      month of the date of
                                                            pilot certificate, a        examination shown on the
                                                            flight instructor           medical certificate.
                                                            certificate (when acting
                                                            as pilot in command or a
                                                            required pilot flight
                                                            crewmember in operations
                                                            other than glider or
                                                            balloon), a student pilot
                                                            certificate, or a sport
                                                            pilot certificate (when
                                                            not using a U.S. driver's
                                                            license as medical
                                                            qualification).
                                    (v) Age 40 or older..  a recreational pilot        24th month after the
                                                            certificate, a private      month of the date of
                                                            pilot certificate, a        examination shown on the
                                                            flight instructor           medical certificate.
                                                            certificate (when acting
                                                            as pilot in command or a
                                                            required pilot flight
                                                            crewmember in operations
                                                            other than glider or
                                                            balloon), a student pilot
                                                            certificate, or a sport
                                                            pilot certificate (when
                                                            not using a U.S. driver's
                                                            license as medical
                                                            qualification).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(2) A second-class medical          (i) Any age..........  an airline transport pilot  12th month after the
 certificate.                                               certificate for second-in-  month of the date of
                                                            command privileges (other   examination shown on the
                                                            than the operations         medical certificate.
                                                            specified in paragraph
                                                            (d)(1) of this section),
                                                            a commercial pilot
                                                            certificate, or an air
                                                            traffic control tower
                                                            operator certificate.
                                    (ii) Under age 40....  a recreational pilot        60th month after the
                                                            certificate, a private      month of the date of
                                                            pilot certificate, a        examination shown on the
                                                            flight instructor           medical certificate.
                                                            certificate (when acting
                                                            as pilot in command or a
                                                            required pilot flight
                                                            crewmember in operations
                                                            other than glider or
                                                            balloon), a student pilot
                                                            certificate, or a sport
                                                            pilot certificate (when
                                                            not using a U.S. driver's
                                                            license as medical
                                                            qualification).
                                    (iii) Age 40 or older  a recreational pilot        24th month after the
                                                            certificate, a private      month of the date of
                                                            pilot certificate, a        examination shown on the
                                                            flight instructor           medical certificate.
                                                            certificate (when acting
                                                            as pilot in command or a
                                                            required pilot flight
                                                            crewmember in operations
                                                            other than glider or
                                                            balloon), a student pilot
                                                            certificate, or a sport
                                                            pilot certificate (when
                                                            not using a U.S. driver's
                                                            license as medical
                                                            qualification).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(3) A third-class medical           (i) Under age 40.....  a recreational pilot        60th month after the
 certificate.                                               certificate, a private      month of the date of
                                                            pilot certificate, a        examination shown on the
                                                            flight instructor           medical certificate.
                                                            certificate (when acting
                                                            as pilot in command or a
                                                            required pilot flight
                                                            crewmember in operations
                                                            other than glider or
                                                            balloon), a student pilot
                                                            certificate, or a sport
                                                            pilot certificate (when
                                                            not using a U.S. driver's
                                                            license as medical
                                                            qualification).

[[Page 480]]

 
                                    (ii) Age 40 or older.  a recreational pilot        24th month after the
                                                            certificate, a private      month of the date of
                                                            pilot certificate, a        examination shown on the
                                                            flight instructor           medical certificate.
                                                            certificate (when acting
                                                            as pilot in command or a
                                                            required pilot flight
                                                            crewmember in operations
                                                            other than glider or
                                                            balloon), a student pilot
                                                            certificate, or a sport
                                                            pilot certificate (when
                                                            not using a U.S. driver's
                                                            license as medical
                                                            qualification).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40895, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-121, 73 FR 43064, July 24, 2008; Amdt. 61-121, 73 FR 48125, 
Aug. 18, 2008; Amdt. 61-123, 74 FR 34234, July 15, 2009; Amdt. 61-124, 
74 FR 42547, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-129, 76 FR 78143, Dec. 16, 2011; 
Amdt. 61-129A, 77 FR 61721, Oct. 11, 2012; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42372, 
July 15, 2013; Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 61-140, 82 FR 3164, Jan. 11, 
2017; Docket No. FAA-2021-1040, Amdt. Nos. 61-152, 87 FR 71236, Nov. 22, 
2022]

    Effective Date Note: By Docket No. FAA-2021-1040; Amdt. Nos. 61-152 
and 68-2, 87 FR 71236, Nov. 22, 2022, Sec. 61.23 was amended by 
revising paragraphs (a)(2)(i), (ii), (b)(3), (d)(1)(iii), and (2)(i); 
redesignating paragraphs (b)(4) through (10) as (b)(6) through (12); and 
adding (a)(2)(iii), new (b)(4), and new (5), effective May 22, 2023. For 
the convenience of the user, the added and revised text is set forth as 
follows:



Sec. 61.23  Medical certificates: Requirement and duration.

    (a) * * *
    (2) * * *
    (i) Second-in-command privileges of an airline transport pilot 
certificate in part 121 of this chapter (other than operations specified 
in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section);
    (ii) Privileges of a commercial pilot certificate in an aircraft 
other than a balloon or glider; or
    (iii) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, 
privileges of a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon class rating 
for compensation or hire; or
    (b) * * *
    (3) When exercising the privileges of a pilot certificate with a 
glider category rating in a glider;
    (4) When exercising the privileges of a private pilot certificate 
with a balloon class rating in a balloon;
    (5) When exercising the privileges of a commercial pilot certificate 
with a balloon class rating in a balloon if the person is providing 
flight training in accordance with Sec. 61.133(a)(2)(ii);

                                * * * * *

    (d) * * *

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                                             Then your medical
                                       And on the date of                                  certificate expires,
            If you hold               examination for your    And you are conducting an   for that operation, at
                                       most recent medical       operation requiring        the end of the last
                                      certificate you were                                      day of the
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(1) * * *
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                     (iii) Any age.........  a commercial pilot           12th month after the
                                                              certificate (other than a    month of the date of
                                                              commercial pilot             examination shown on
                                                              certificate with a balloon   the medical
                                                              rating when conducting       certificate.
                                                              flight training), a flight
                                                              engineer certificate, or
                                                              an air traffic control
                                                              tower operator certificate.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
 
                                                  * * * * * * *
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(2) * * *
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 481]]

 
                                     (i) Any age...........  an airline transport pilot   12th month after the
                                                              certificate for second-in-   month of the date of
                                                              command privileges (other    examination shown on
                                                              than the operations          the medical
                                                              specified in paragraph       certificate.
                                                              (d)(1) of this section), a
                                                              commercial pilot
                                                              certificate (other than a
                                                              commercial pilot
                                                              certificate with a balloon
                                                              rating when conducting
                                                              flight training), a flight
                                                              engineer certificate, or
                                                              an air traffic control
                                                              tower operator certificate.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
 
                                                  * * * * * * *
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------



Sec. 61.25  Change of name.

    (a) An application to change the name on a certificate issued under 
this part must be accompanied by the applicant's:
    (1) Airman certificate; and
    (2) A copy of the marriage license, court order, or other document 
verifying the name change.
    (b) The documents in paragraph (a) of this section will be returned 
to the applicant after inspection.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 
74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.27  Voluntary surrender or exchange of certificate.

    (a) The holder of a certificate issued under this part may 
voluntarily surrender it for:
    (1) Cancellation;
    (2) Issuance of a lower grade certificate; or
    (3) Another certificate with specific ratings deleted.
    (b) Any request made under paragraph (a) of this section must 
include the following signed statement or its equivalent: ``This request 
is made for my own reasons, with full knowledge that my (insert name of 
certificate or rating, as appropriate) may not be reissued to me unless 
I again pass the tests prescribed for its issuance.''



Sec. 61.29  Replacement of a lost or destroyed airman or medical certificate or knowledge test report.

    (a) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed airman 
certificate issued under this part must be made:
    (1) By letter to the Department of Transportation, FAA, Airmen 
Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, and must 
be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate fee payable 
to the FAA; or
    (2) In any other manner and form approved by the Administrator 
including a request online to Airmen Services at http://www.faa.gov, and 
must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate 
fee.
    (b) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed medical 
certificate must be made:
    (1) By letter to the Department of Transportation, FAA, Aerospace 
Medical Certification Division, P.O. Box 26200, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, 
and must be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate 
fee payable to the FAA; or
    (2) In any other manner and form approved by the Administrator and 
must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate 
fee.
    (c) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed knowledge 
test report must be made:
    (1) By letter to the Department of Transportation, FAA, Airmen 
Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, and must 
be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate fee payable 
to the FAA; or
    (2) In any other manner and form approved by the Administrator and 
must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate 
fee.
    (d) The letter requesting replacement of a lost or destroyed airman 
certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report must state:
    (1) The name of the person;

[[Page 482]]

    (2) The permanent mailing address (including ZIP code), or if the 
permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, then the 
person's current residential address;
    (3) The certificate holder's date and place of birth; and
    (4) Any information regarding the--
    (i) Grade, number, and date of issuance of the airman certificate 
and ratings, if appropriate;
    (ii) Class of medical certificate, the place and date of the medical 
exam, name of the Airman Medical Examiner (AME), and the circumstances 
concerning the loss of the original medical certificate, as appropriate; 
and
    (iii) Date the knowledge test was taken, if appropriate.
    (e) A person who has lost an airman certificate, medical 
certificate, or knowledge test report may obtain, in a form or manner 
approved by the Administrator, a document conveying temporary authority 
to exercise certificate privileges from the FAA Aeromedical 
Certification Branch or the Airman Certification Branch, as appropriate, 
and the:
    (1) Document may be carried as an airman certificate, medical 
certificate, or knowledge test report, as appropriate, for up to 60 days 
pending the person's receipt of a duplicate under paragraph (a), (b), or 
(c) of this section, unless the person has been notified that the 
certificate has been suspended or revoked.
    (2) Request for such a document must include the date on which a 
duplicate certificate or knowledge test report was previously requested.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40896, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-121, 73 FR 43065, July 24, 2008; Amdt. 61-124, 
74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-131, 78 FR 56828, Sept. 16, 2013]



Sec. 61.31  Type rating requirements, additional training, and authorization requirements.

    (a) Type ratings required. A person who acts as a pilot in command 
of any of the following aircraft must hold a type rating for that 
aircraft:
    (1) Large aircraft (except lighter-than-air).
    (2) Turbojet-powered airplanes.
    (3) Other aircraft specified by the Administrator through aircraft 
type certificate procedures.
    (b) Authorization in lieu of a type rating. A person may be 
authorized to operate without a type rating for up to 60 days an 
aircraft requiring a type rating, provided--
    (1) The Administrator has authorized the flight or series of 
flights;
    (2) The Administrator has determined that an equivalent level of 
safety can be achieved through the operating limitations on the 
authorization;
    (3) The person shows that compliance with paragraph (a) of this 
section is impracticable for the flight or series of flights; and
    (4) The flight--
    (i) Involves only a ferry flight, training flight, test flight, or 
practical test for a pilot certificate or rating;
    (ii) Is within the United States;
    (iii) Does not involve operations for compensation or hire unless 
the compensation or hire involves payment for the use of the aircraft 
for training or taking a practical test; and
    (iv) Involves only the carriage of flight crewmembers considered 
essential for the flight.
    (5) If the flight or series of flights cannot be accomplished within 
the time limit of the authorization, the Administrator may authorize an 
additional period of up to 60 days to accomplish the flight or series of 
flights.
    (c) Aircraft category, class, and type ratings: Limitations on the 
carriage of persons, or operating for compensation or hire. Unless a 
person holds a category, class, and type rating (if a class and type 
rating is required) that applies to the aircraft, that person may not 
act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying another person, 
or is operated for compensation or hire. That person also may not act as 
pilot in command of that aircraft for compensation or hire.
    (d) Aircraft category, class, and type ratings: Limitations on 
operating an aircraft as the pilot in command. To serve as the pilot in 
command of an aircraft, a person must--
    (1) Hold the appropriate category, class, and type rating (if a 
class or type rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown; or

[[Page 483]]

    (2) Have received training required by this part that is appropriate 
to the pilot certification level, aircraft category, class, and type 
rating (if a class or type rating is required) for the aircraft to be 
flown, and have received an endorsement for solo flight in that aircraft 
from an authorized instructor.
    (e) Additional training required for operating complex airplanes. 
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, no person 
may act as pilot in command of a complex airplane, unless the person 
has--
    (i) Received and logged ground and flight training from an 
authorized instructor in a complex airplane, or in a full flight 
simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex 
airplane, and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of 
the airplane; and
    (ii) Received a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an 
authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate 
a complex airplane.
    (2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (e)(1) of 
this section is not required if--
    (i) The person has logged flight time as pilot in command of a 
complex airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training 
device that is representative of a complex airplane prior to August 4, 
1997; or
    (ii) The person has received ground and flight training under an 
approved training program and has satisfactorily completed a competency 
check under Sec. 135.293 of this chapter in a complex airplane, or in a 
full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative 
of a complex airplane which must be documented in the pilot's logbook or 
training record.
    (f) Additional training required for operating high-performance 
airplanes. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, 
no person may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane (an 
airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower), unless the person 
has--
    (i) Received and logged ground and flight training from an 
authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane, or in a full 
flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a 
high-performance airplane, and has been found proficient in the 
operation and systems of the airplane; and
    (ii) Received a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an 
authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate 
a high-performance airplane.
    (2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (f)(1) of 
this section is not required if--
    (i) The person has logged flight time as pilot in command of a high-
performance airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training 
device that is representative of a high-performance airplane prior to 
August 4, 1997; or
    (ii) The person has received ground and flight training under an 
approved training program and has satisfactorily completed a competency 
check under Sec. 135.293 of this chapter in a high performance 
airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that 
is representative of a high performance airplane which must be 
documented in the pilot's logbook or training record.
    (g) Additional training required for operating pressurized aircraft 
capable of operating at high altitudes. (1) Except as provided in 
paragraph (g)(3) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command 
of a pressurized aircraft (an aircraft that has a service ceiling or 
maximum operating altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000 feet MSL), 
unless that person has received and logged ground training from an 
authorized instructor and obtained an endorsement in the person's 
logbook or training record from an authorized instructor who certifies 
the person has satisfactorily accomplished the ground training. The 
ground training must include at least the following subjects:
    (i) High-altitude aerodynamics and meteorology;
    (ii) Respiration;
    (iii) Effects, symptoms, and causes of hypoxia and any other high-
altitude sickness;
    (iv) Duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen;
    (v) Effects of prolonged usage of supplemental oxygen;
    (vi) Causes and effects of gas expansion and gas bubble formation;

[[Page 484]]

    (vii) Preventive measures for eliminating gas expansion, gas bubble 
formation, and high-altitude sickness;
    (viii) Physical phenomena and incidents of decompression; and
    (ix) Any other physiological aspects of high-altitude flight.
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3) of this section, no 
person may act as pilot in command of a pressurized aircraft unless that 
person has received and logged training from an authorized instructor in 
a pressurized aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training 
device that is representative of a pressurized aircraft, and obtained an 
endorsement in the person's logbook or training record from an 
authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the operation 
of a pressurized aircraft. The flight training must include at least the 
following subjects:
    (i) Normal cruise flight operations while operating above 25,000 
feet MSL;
    (ii) Proper emergency procedures for simulated rapid decompression 
without actually depressurizing the aircraft; and
    (iii) Emergency descent procedures.
    (3) The training and endorsement required by paragraphs (g)(1) and 
(g)(2) of this section are not required if that person can document 
satisfactory accomplishment of any of the following in a pressurized 
aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that 
is representative of a pressurized aircraft:
    (i) Serving as pilot in command before April 15, 1991;
    (ii) Completing a pilot proficiency check for a pilot certificate or 
rating before April 15, 1991;
    (iii) Completing an official pilot-in-command check conducted by the 
military services of the United States; or
    (iv) Completing a pilot-in-command proficiency check under part 121, 
125, or 135 of this chapter conducted by the Administrator or by an 
approved pilot check airman.
    (h) Additional aircraft type-specific training. No person may serve 
as pilot in command of an aircraft that the Administrator has determined 
requires aircraft type-specific training unless that person has--
    (1) Received and logged type-specific training in the aircraft, or 
in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is 
representative of that type of aircraft; and
    (2) Received a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who 
has found the person proficient in the operation of the aircraft and its 
systems.
    (i) Additional training required for operating tailwheel airplanes. 
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, no person 
may act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane unless that person 
has received and logged flight training from an authorized instructor in 
a tailwheel airplane and received an endorsement in the person's logbook 
from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the 
operation of a tailwheel airplane. The flight training must include at 
least the following maneuvers and procedures:
    (i) Normal and crosswind takeoffs and landings;
    (ii) Wheel landings (unless the manufacturer has recommended against 
such landings); and
    (iii) Go-around procedures.
    (2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (i)(1) of 
this section is not required if the person logged pilot-in-command time 
in a tailwheel airplane before April 15, 1991.
    (j) Additional training required for operating a glider. (1) No 
person may act as pilot in command of a glider--
    (i) Using ground-tow procedures, unless that person has 
satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training on ground-tow 
procedures and operations, and has received an endorsement from an 
authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the 
pilot has been found proficient in ground-tow procedures and operations;
    (ii) Using aerotow procedures, unless that person has satisfactorily 
accomplished ground and flight training on aerotow procedures and 
operations, and has received an endorsement from an authorized 
instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the pilot has been 
found proficient in aerotow procedures and operations; or
    (iii) Using self-launch procedures, unless that person has 
satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training

[[Page 485]]

on self-launch procedures and operations, and has received an 
endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's 
logbook that the pilot has been found proficient in self-launch 
procedures and operations.
    (2) The holder of a glider rating issued prior to August 4, 1997, is 
considered to be in compliance with the training and logbook endorsement 
requirements of this paragraph for the specific operating privilege for 
which the holder is already qualified.
    (k) Additional training required for night vision goggle operations. 
(1) Except as provided under paragraph (k)(3) of this section, a person 
may act as pilot in command of an aircraft using night vision goggles 
only if that person receives and logs ground training from an authorized 
instructor and obtains a logbook or training record endorsement from an 
authorized instructor who certifies the person completed the ground 
training. The ground training must include the following subjects:
    (i) Applicable portions of this chapter that relate to night vision 
goggle limitations and flight operations;
    (ii) Aeromedical factors related to the use of night vision goggles, 
including how to protect night vision, how the eyes adapt to night, 
self-imposed stresses that affect night vision, effects of lighting on 
night vision, cues used to estimate distance and depth perception at 
night, and visual illusions;
    (iii) Normal, abnormal, and emergency operations of night vision 
goggle equipment;
    (iv) Night vision goggle performance and scene interpretation; and
    (v) Night vision goggle operation flight planning, including night 
terrain interpretation and factors affecting terrain interpretation.
    (2) Except as provided under paragraph (k)(3) of this section, a 
person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft using night vision 
goggles only if that person receives and logs flight training from an 
authorized instructor and obtains a logbook or training record 
endorsement from an authorized instructor who found the person 
proficient in the use of night vision goggles. The flight training must 
include the following tasks:
    (i) Preflight and use of internal and external aircraft lighting 
systems for night vision goggle operations;
    (ii) Preflight preparation of night vision goggles for night vision 
goggle operations;
    (iii) Proper piloting techniques when using night vision goggles 
during the takeoff, climb, enroute, descent, and landing phases of 
flight; and
    (iv) Normal, abnormal, and emergency flight operations using night 
vision goggles.
    (3) The requirements under paragraphs (k)(1) and (2) of this section 
do not apply if a person can document satisfactory completion of any of 
the following pilot proficiency checks using night vision goggles in an 
aircraft:
    (i) A pilot proficiency check on night vision goggle operations 
conducted by the U.S. Armed Forces.
    (ii) A pilot proficiency check on night vision goggle operations 
under part 135 of this chapter conducted by an Examiner or Check Airman.
    (iii) A pilot proficiency check on night vision goggle operations 
conducted by a night vision goggle manufacturer or authorized 
instructor, when the pilot--
    (A) Is employed by a Federal, State, county, or municipal law 
enforcement agency; and
    (B) Has logged at least 20 hours as pilot in command in night vision 
goggle operations.
    (l) Exceptions. (1) This section does not require a category and 
class rating for aircraft not type-certificated as airplanes, 
rotorcraft, gliders, lighter-than-air aircraft, powered-lifts, powered 
parachutes, or weight-shift-control aircraft.
    (2) The rating limitations of this section do not apply to--
    (i) An applicant when taking a practical test given by an examiner;
    (ii) The holder of a student pilot certificate;
    (iii) The holder of a pilot certificate when operating an aircraft 
under the authority of--
    (A) A provisional type certificate; or
    (B) An experimental certificate, unless the operation involves 
carrying a passenger;

[[Page 486]]

    (iv) The holder of a pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air 
category rating when operating a balloon;
    (v) The holder of a recreational pilot certificate operating under 
the provisions of Sec. 61.101(h); or
    (vi) The holder of a sport pilot certificate when operating a light-
sport aircraft.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40896, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 
63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004; 
Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54105, 
Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018]



Sec. 61.33  Tests: General procedure.

    Tests prescribed by or under this part are given at times and 
places, and by persons designated by the Administrator.



Sec. 61.35  Knowledge test: Prerequisites and passing grades.

    (a) An applicant for a knowledge test must have:
    (1) Received an endorsement, if required by this part, from an 
authorized instructor certifying that the applicant accomplished the 
appropriate ground-training or a home-study course required by this part 
for the certificate or rating sought and is prepared for the knowledge 
test;
    (2) For the knowledge test for an airline transport pilot 
certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating, a 
graduation certificate for the airline transport pilot certification 
training program specified in Sec. 61.156; and
    (3) Proper identification at the time of application that contains 
the applicant's--
    (i) Photograph;
    (ii) Signature;
    (iii) Date of birth, which shows:
    (A) For issuance of certificates other than the ATP certificate with 
an airplane category multiengine class rating, the applicant meets or 
will meet the age requirements of this part for the certificate sought 
before the expiration date of the airman knowledge test report; and
    (B) For issuance of an ATP certificate with an airplane category 
multiengine class rating obtained under the aeronautical experience 
requirements of Sec. 61.159 or Sec. 61.160, the applicant is at least 
18 years of age at the time of the knowledge test;
    (iv) If the permanent mailing address is a post office box number, 
then the applicant must provide a current residential address.
    (b) The Administrator shall specify the minimum passing grade for 
the knowledge test.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 
63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009; 
Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42373, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-130B, 78 FR 77573, 
Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021]



Sec. 61.37  Knowledge tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.

    (a) An applicant for a knowledge test may not:
    (1) Copy or intentionally remove any knowledge test;
    (2) Give to another applicant or receive from another applicant any 
part or copy of a knowledge test;
    (3) Give assistance on, or receive assistance on, a knowledge test 
during the period that test is being given;
    (4) Take any part of a knowledge test on behalf of another person;
    (5) Be represented by, or represent, another person for a knowledge 
test;
    (6) Use any material or aid during the period that the test is being 
given, unless specifically authorized to do so by the Administrator; and
    (7) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act 
prohibited by this paragraph.
    (b) An applicant who the Administrator finds has committed an act 
prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section is prohibited, for 1 year 
after the date of committing that act, from:
    (1) Applying for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued 
under this chapter; and
    (2) Applying for and taking any test under this chapter.
    (c) Any certificate or rating held by an applicant may be suspended 
or revoked if the Administrator finds that person has committed an act 
prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section.

[[Page 487]]



Sec. 61.39  Prerequisites for practical tests.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (e) of this 
section, to be eligible for a practical test for a certificate or rating 
issued under this part, an applicant must:
    (1) Pass the required knowledge test:
    (i) Within the 24-calendar-month period preceding the month the 
applicant completes the practical test, if a knowledge test is required; 
or
    (ii) Within the 60-calendar month period preceding the month the 
applicant completes the practical test for those applicants who complete 
the airline transport pilot certification training program in Sec. 
61.156 and pass the knowledge test for an airline transport pilot 
certificate with a multiengine class rating after July 31, 2014;
    (2) Present the knowledge test report at the time of application for 
the practical test, if a knowledge test is required;
    (3) Have satisfactorily accomplished the required training and 
obtained the aeronautical experience prescribed by this part for the 
certificate or rating sought, and if applying for the practical test 
with flight time accomplished under Sec. 61.159(c), present a copy of 
the records required by Sec. 135.63(a)(4)(vi) and (x) of this chapter;
    (4) Hold at least a third-class medical certificate, if a medical 
certificate is required;
    (5) Meet the prescribed age requirement of this part for the 
issuance of the certificate or rating sought;
    (6) Have an endorsement, if required by this part, in the 
applicant's logbook or training record that has been signed by an 
authorized instructor who certifies that the applicant--
    (i) Has received and logged training time within 2 calendar months 
preceding the month of application in preparation for the practical 
test;
    (ii) Is prepared for the required practical test; and
    (iii) Has demonstrated satisfactory knowledge of the subject areas 
in which the applicant was deficient on the airman knowledge test; and
    (7) Have a completed and signed application form.
    (b) An applicant for an airline transport pilot certificate with an 
airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot 
certificate obtained concurrently with a multiengine airplane type 
rating may take the practical test with an expired knowledge test only 
if the applicant passed the knowledge test after July 31, 2014, and is 
employed:
    (1) As a flightcrew member by a part 119 certificate holder 
conducting operations under parts 125 or 135 of this chapter at the time 
of the practical test and has satisfactorily accomplished that 
operator's approved pilot-in-command training or checking program; or
    (2) As a flightcrew member by a part 119 certificate holder 
conducting operations under part 121 of this chapter at the time of the 
practical test and has satisfactorily accomplished that operator's 
approved initial training program; or
    (3) By the U.S. Armed Forces as a flight crewmember in U.S. military 
air transport operations at the time of the practical test and has 
completed the pilot in command aircraft qualification training program 
that is appropriate to the pilot certificate and rating sought.
    (c) An applicant for an airline transport pilot certificate with a 
rating other than those ratings set forth in paragraph (b) of this 
section may take the practical test for that certificate or rating with 
an expired knowledge test report, provided that the applicant is 
employed:
    (1) As a flightcrew member by a part 119 certificate holder 
conducting operations under parts 125 or 135 of this chapter at the time 
of the practical test and has satisfactorily accomplished that 
operator's approved pilot-in-command training or checking program; or
    (2) By the U.S. Armed Forces as a flight crewmember in U.S. military 
air transport operations at the time of the practical test and has 
completed the pilot in command aircraft qualification training program 
that is appropriate to the pilot certificate and rating sought.
    (d) In addition to the requirements in paragraph (a) of this 
section, to be eligible for a practical test for an airline

[[Page 488]]

transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class 
rating or airline transport pilot certificate obtained concurrently with 
a multiengine airplane type rating, an applicant must:
    (1) If the applicant passed the knowledge test after July 31, 2014, 
present the graduation certificate for the airline transport pilot 
certification training program in Sec. 61.156, at the time of 
application for the practical test;
    (2) If applying for the practical test under the aeronautical 
experience requirements of Sec. 61.160(a), the applicant must present 
the documents required by that section to substantiate eligibility; and
    (3) If applying for the practical test under the aeronautical 
experience requirements of Sec. 61.160(b), (c), or (d), the applicant 
must present an official transcript and certifying document from an 
institution of higher education that holds a letter of authorization 
from the Administrator under Sec. 61.169.
    (e) A person is not required to comply with the provisions of 
paragraph (a)(6) of this section if that person:
    (1) Holds a foreign pilot license issued by a contracting State to 
the Convention on International Civil Aviation that authorizes at least 
the privileges of the pilot certificate sought;
    (2) Is only applying for a type rating; or
    (3) Is applying for an airline transport pilot certificate or an 
additional rating to an airline transport pilot certificate in an 
aircraft that does not require an aircraft type rating practical test.
    (f) If all increments of the practical test for a certificate or 
rating are not completed on the same date, then all the remaining 
increments of the test must be completed within 2 calendar months after 
the month the applicant began the test.
    (g) If all increments of the practical test for a certificate or 
rating are not completed within 2 calendar months after the month the 
applicant began the test, the applicant must retake the entire practical 
test.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, 
July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; 
Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42373, 
July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-130B, 78 FR 77573, Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 61-142, 
83 FR 30726, June 27, 2018; Amdt. 61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021]



Sec. 61.41  Flight training received from flight instructors not
certificated by the FAA.

    (a) A person may credit flight training toward the requirements of a 
pilot certificate or rating issued under this part, if that person 
received the training from:
    (1) A flight instructor of an Armed Force in a program for training 
military pilots of either--
    (i) The United States; or
    (ii) A foreign contracting State to the Convention on International 
Civil Aviation.
    (2) A flight instructor who is authorized to give such training by 
the licensing authority of a foreign contracting State to the Convention 
on International Civil Aviation, and the flight training is given 
outside the United States.
    (b) A flight instructor described in paragraph (a) of this section 
is only authorized to give endorsements to show training given.



Sec. 61.43  Practical tests: General procedures.

    (a) Completion of the practical test for a certificate or rating 
consists of--
    (1) Performing the tasks specified in the areas of operation for the 
airman certificate or rating sought;
    (2) Demonstrating mastery of the aircraft by performing each task 
successfully;
    (3) Demonstrating proficiency and competency within the approved 
standards; and
    (4) Demonstrating sound judgment.
    (b) The pilot flight crew complement required during the practical 
test is based on one of the following requirements that applies to the 
aircraft being used on the practical test:
    (1) If the aircraft's FAA-approved flight manual requires the pilot 
flight crew complement be a single pilot,

[[Page 489]]

then the applicant must demonstrate single pilot proficiency on the 
practical test.
    (2) If the aircraft's type certification data sheet requires the 
pilot flight crew complement be a single pilot, then the applicant must 
demonstrate single pilot proficiency on the practical test.
    (3) If the FAA Flight Standardization Board report, FAA-approved 
aircraft flight manual, or aircraft type certification data sheet allows 
the pilot flight crew complement to be either a single pilot, or a pilot 
and a copilot, then the applicant may demonstrate single pilot 
proficiency or have a copilot on the practical test. If the applicant 
performs the practical test with a copilot, the limitation of ``Second 
in Command Required'' will be placed on the applicant's pilot 
certificate. The limitation may be removed if the applicant passes the 
practical test by demonstrating single-pilot proficiency in the aircraft 
in which single-pilot privileges are sought.
    (c) If an applicant fails any area of operation, that applicant 
fails the practical test.
    (d) An applicant is not eligible for a certificate or rating sought 
until all the areas of operation are passed.
    (e) The examiner or the applicant may discontinue a practical test 
at any time:
    (1) When the applicant fails one or more of the areas of operation; 
or
    (2) Due to inclement weather conditions, aircraft airworthiness, or 
any other safety-of-flight concern.
    (f) If a practical test is discontinued, the applicant is entitled 
credit for those areas of operation that were passed, but only if the 
applicant:
    (1) Passes the remainder of the practical test within the 60-day 
period after the date the practical test was discontinued;
    (2) Presents to the examiner for the retest the original notice of 
disapproval form or the letter of discontinuance form, as appropriate;
    (3) Satisfactorily accomplishes any additional training needed and 
obtains the appropriate instructor endorsements, if additional training 
is required; and
    (4) Presents to the examiner for the retest a properly completed and 
signed application.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 
74 FR 42549, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018]



Sec. 61.45  Practical tests: Required aircraft and equipment.

    (a) General. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section 
or when permitted to accomplish the entire flight increment of the 
practical test in a flight simulator or a flight training device, an 
applicant for a certificate or rating issued under this part must 
furnish:
    (1) An aircraft of U.S. registry for each required test that--
    (i) Is of the category, class, and type, if applicable, for which 
the applicant is applying for a certificate or rating; and
    (ii) Has a standard airworthiness certificate or special 
airworthiness certificate in the limited, primary, or light-sport 
category.
    (2) At the discretion of the examiner who administers the practical 
test, the applicant may furnish--
    (i) An aircraft that has an airworthiness certificate other than a 
standard airworthiness certificate or special airworthiness certificate 
in the limited, primary, or light-sport category, but that otherwise 
meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
    (ii) An aircraft of the same category, class, and type, if 
applicable, of foreign registry that is properly certificated by the 
country of registry; or
    (iii) A military aircraft of the same category, class, and type, if 
aircraft class and type are appropriate, for which the applicant is 
applying for a certificate or rating, and provided--
    (A) The aircraft is under the direct operational control of the U.S. 
Armed Forces;
    (B) The aircraft is airworthy under the maintenance standards of the 
U.S. Armed Forces; and
    (C) The applicant has a letter from his or her commanding officer 
authorizing the use of the aircraft for the practical test.

[[Page 490]]

    (b) Required equipment (other than controls). (1) Except as provided 
in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, an aircraft used for a practical 
test must have--
    (i) The equipment for each area of operation required for the 
practical test;
    (ii) No prescribed operating limitations that prohibit its use in 
any of the areas of operation required for the practical test;
    (iii) Except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, 
at least two pilot stations with adequate visibility for each person to 
operate the aircraft safely; and
    (iv) Cockpit and outside visibility adequate to evaluate the 
performance of the applicant when an additional jump seat is provided 
for the examiner.
    (2) An applicant for a certificate or rating may use an aircraft 
with operating characteristics that preclude the applicant from 
performing all of the tasks required for the practical test. However, 
the applicant's certificate or rating, as appropriate, will be issued 
with an appropriate limitation.
    (c) Required controls. Except for lighter-than-air aircraft, and a 
glider without an engine, an aircraft used for a practical test must 
have engine power controls and flight controls that are easily reached 
and operable in a conventional manner by both pilots, unless the 
Examiner determines that the practical test can be conducted safely in 
the aircraft without the controls easily reached by the Examiner.
    (d) Simulated instrument flight equipment. An applicant for a 
practical test that involves maneuvering an aircraft solely by reference 
to instruments must furnish:
    (1) Equipment on board the aircraft that permits the applicant to 
pass the areas of operation that apply to the rating sought; and
    (2) A device that prevents the applicant from having visual 
reference outside the aircraft, but does not prevent the examiner from 
having visual reference outside the aircraft, and is otherwise 
acceptable to the Administrator.
    (e) Aircraft with single controls. A practical test may be conducted 
in an aircraft having a single set of controls, provided the:
    (1) Examiner agrees to conduct the test;
    (2) Test does not involve a demonstration of instrument skills; and
    (3) Proficiency of the applicant can be observed by an examiner who 
is in a position to observe the applicant.
    (f) Light-sport aircraft with a single seat. A practical test for a 
sport pilot certificate may be conducted in a light-sport aircraft 
having a single seat provided that the--
    (1) Examiner agrees to conduct the test;
    (2) Examiner is in a position to observe the operation of the 
aircraft and evaluate the proficiency of the applicant; and
    (3) Pilot certificate of an applicant successfully passing the test 
is issued a pilot certificate with a limitation ``No passenger carriage 
and flight in a single-seat light-sport aircraft only.''

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42549, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.47  Status of an examiner who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct practical tests.

    (a) An examiner represents the Administrator for the purpose of 
conducting practical tests for certificates and ratings issued under 
this part and to observe an applicant's ability to perform the areas of 
operation on the practical test.
    (b) The examiner is not the pilot in command of the aircraft during 
the practical test unless the examiner agrees to act in that capacity 
for the flight or for a portion of the flight by prior arrangement with:
    (1) The applicant; or
    (2) A person who would otherwise act as pilot in command of the 
flight or for a portion of the flight.
    (c) Notwithstanding the type of aircraft used during the practical 
test, the applicant and the examiner (and any other occupants authorized 
to be on board by the examiner) are not subject to the requirements or 
limitations for the carriage of passengers that are specified in this 
chapter.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, 
July 30, 1997]

[[Page 491]]



Sec. 61.49  Retesting after failure.

    (a) An applicant for a knowledge or practical test who fails that 
test may reapply for the test only after the applicant has received:
    (1) The necessary training from an authorized instructor who has 
determined that the applicant is proficient to pass the test; and
    (2) An endorsement from an authorized instructor who gave the 
applicant the additional training.
    (b) An applicant for a flight instructor certificate with an 
airplane category rating or, for a flight instructor certificate with a 
glider category rating, who has failed the practical test due to 
deficiencies in instructional proficiency on stall awareness, spin 
entry, spins, or spin recovery must:
    (1) Comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section 
before being retested;
    (2) Bring an aircraft to the retest that is of the appropriate 
aircraft category for the rating sought and is certificated for spins; 
and
    (3) Demonstrate satisfactory instructional proficiency on stall 
awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery to an examiner during 
the retest.



Sec. 61.51  Pilot logbooks.

    (a) Training time and aeronautical experience. Each person must 
document and record the following time in a manner acceptable to the 
Administrator:
    (1) Training and aeronautical experience used to meet the 
requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review of this part.
    (2) The aeronautical experience required for meeting the recent 
flight experience requirements of this part.
    (b) Logbook entries. For the purposes of meeting the requirements of 
paragraph (a) of this section, each person must enter the following 
information for each flight or lesson logged:
    (1) General--
    (i) Date.
    (ii) Total flight time or lesson time.
    (iii) Location where the aircraft departed and arrived, or for 
lessons in a full flight simulator or flight training device, the 
location where the lesson occurred.
    (iv) Type and identification of aircraft, full flight simulator, 
flight training device, or aviation training device, as appropriate.
    (v) The name of a safety pilot, if required by Sec. 91.109 of this 
chapter.
    (2) Type of pilot experience or training--
    (i) Solo.
    (ii) Pilot in command.
    (iii) Second in command.
    (iv) Flight and ground training received from an authorized 
instructor.
    (v) Training received in a full flight simulator, flight training 
device, or aviation training device from an authorized instructor.
    (3) Conditions of flight--
    (i) Day or night.
    (ii) Actual instrument.
    (iii) Simulated instrument conditions in flight, a full flight 
simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device.
    (iv) Use of night vision goggles in an aircraft in flight, in a full 
flight simulator, or in a flight training device.
    (c) Logging of pilot time. The pilot time described in this section 
may be used to:
    (1) Apply for a certificate or rating issued under this part or a 
privilege authorized under this part; or
    (2) Satisfy the recent flight experience requirements of this part.
    (d) Logging of solo flight time. Except for a student pilot 
performing the duties of pilot in command of an airship requiring more 
than one pilot flight crewmember, a pilot may log as solo flight time 
only that flight time when the pilot is the sole occupant of the 
aircraft.
    (e) Logging pilot-in-command flight time. (1) A sport, recreational, 
private, commercial, or airline transport pilot may log pilot in command 
flight time for flights-
    (i) Except when logging flight time under Sec. 61.159(c), when the 
pilot is the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft for which 
the pilot is rated, or has sport pilot privileges for that category and 
class of aircraft, if the aircraft class rating is appropriate;
    (ii) When the pilot is the sole occupant in the aircraft;
    (iii) When the pilot, except for a holder of a sport or recreational 
pilot

[[Page 492]]

certificate, acts as pilot in command of an aircraft for which more than 
one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or 
the regulations under which the flight is conducted; or
    (iv) When the pilot performs the duties of pilot in command while 
under the supervision of a qualified pilot in command provided--
    (A) The pilot performing the duties of pilot in command holds a 
commercial or airline transport pilot certificate and aircraft rating 
that is appropriate to the category and class of aircraft being flown, 
if a class rating is appropriate;
    (B) The pilot performing the duties of pilot in command is 
undergoing an approved pilot in command training program that includes 
ground and flight training on the following areas of operation--
    (1) Preflight preparation;
    (2) Preflight procedures;
    (3) Takeoff and departure;
    (4) In-flight maneuvers;
    (5) Instrument procedures;
    (6) Landings and approaches to landings;
    (7) Normal and abnormal procedures;
    (8) Emergency procedures; and
    (9) Postflight procedures;
    (C) The supervising pilot in command holds--
    (1) A commercial pilot certificate and flight instructor 
certificate, and aircraft rating that is appropriate to the category, 
class, and type of aircraft being flown, if a class or type rating is 
required; or
    (2) An airline transport pilot certificate and aircraft rating that 
is appropriate to the category, class, and type of aircraft being flown, 
if a class or type rating is required; and
    (D) The supervising pilot in command logs the pilot in command 
training in the pilot's logbook, certifies the pilot in command training 
in the pilot's logbook and attests to that certification with his or her 
signature, and flight instructor certificate number.
    (2) If rated to act as pilot in command of the aircraft, an airline 
transport pilot may log all flight time while acting as pilot in command 
of an operation requiring an airline transport pilot certificate.
    (3) A certificated flight instructor may log pilot in command flight 
time for all flight time while serving as the authorized instructor in 
an operation if the instructor is rated to act as pilot in command of 
that aircraft.
    (4) A student pilot may log pilot-in-command time only when the 
student pilot--
    (i) Is the sole occupant of the aircraft or is performing the duties 
of pilot of command of an airship requiring more than one pilot flight 
crewmember;
    (ii) Has a solo flight endorsement as required under Sec. 61.87 of 
this part; and
    (iii) Is undergoing training for a pilot certificate or rating.
    (5) A commercial pilot or airline transport pilot may log all flight 
time while acting as pilot in command of an operation in accordance with 
Sec. 135.99(c) of this chapter if the flight is conducted in accordance 
with an approved second-in-command professional development program that 
meets the requirements of Sec. 135.99(c) of this chapter.
    (f) Logging second-in-command flight time. A person may log second-
in-command time only for that flight time during which that person:
    (1) Is qualified in accordance with the second-in-command 
requirements of Sec. 61.55, and occupies a crewmember station in an 
aircraft that requires more than one pilot by the aircraft's type 
certificate;
    (2) Holds the appropriate category, class, and instrument rating (if 
an instrument rating is required for the flight) for the aircraft being 
flown, and more than one pilot is required under the type certification 
of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is being 
conducted; or
    (3) Serves as second in command in operations conducted in 
accordance with Sec. 135.99(c) of this chapter when a second pilot is 
not required under the type certification of the aircraft or the 
regulations under which the flight is being conducted, provided the 
requirements in Sec. 61.159(c) are satisfied.
    (g) Logging instrument time. (1) A person may log instrument time 
only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely 
by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight 
conditions.

[[Page 493]]

    (2) An authorized instructor may log instrument time when conducting 
instrument flight instruction in actual instrument flight conditions.
    (3) For the purposes of logging instrument time to meet the recent 
instrument experience requirements of Sec. 61.57(c) of this part, the 
following information must be recorded in the person's logbook--
    (i) The location and type of each instrument approach accomplished; 
and
    (ii) The name of the safety pilot, if required.
    (4) A person may use time in a full flight simulator, flight 
training device, or aviation training device for acquiring instrument 
aeronautical experience for a pilot certificate or rating provided an 
authorized instructor is present to observe that time and signs the 
person's logbook or training record to verify the time and the content 
of the training session.
    (5) A person may use time in a full flight simulator, flight 
training device, or aviation training device for satisfying instrument 
recency experience requirements provided a logbook or training record is 
maintained to specify the training device, time, and the content.
    (h) Logging training time. (1) A person may log training time when 
that person receives training from an authorized instructor in an 
aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation 
training device.
    (2) The training time must be logged in a logbook and must:
    (i) Be endorsed in a legible manner by the authorized instructor; 
and
    (ii) Include a description of the training given, the length of the 
training lesson, and the authorized instructor's signature, certificate 
number, and certificate expiration date.
    (i) Presentation of required documents. (1) Persons must present 
their pilot certificate, medical certificate, logbook, or any other 
record required by this part for inspection upon a reasonable request 
by--
    (i) The Administrator;
    (ii) An authorized representative from the National Transportation 
Safety Board; or
    (iii) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.
    (2) A student pilot must carry the following items in the aircraft 
on all solo cross-country flights as evidence of the required authorized 
instructor clearances and endorsements--
    (i) Pilot logbook;
    (ii) Student pilot certificate; and
    (iii) Any other record required by this section.
    (3) A sport pilot must carry his or her logbook or other evidence of 
required authorized instructor endorsements on all flights.
    (4) A recreational pilot must carry his or her logbook with the 
required authorized instructor endorsements on all solo flights--
    (i) That exceed 50 nautical miles from the airport at which training 
was received;
    (ii) Within airspace that requires communication with air traffic 
control;
    (iii) Conducted between sunset and sunrise; or
    (iv) In an aircraft for which the pilot does not hold an appropriate 
category or class rating.
    (5) A flight instructor with a sport pilot rating must carry his or 
her logbook or other evidence of required authorized instructor 
endorsements on all flights when providing flight training.
    (j) Aircraft requirements for logging flight time. For a person to 
log flight time, the time must be acquired in an aircraft that is 
identified as an aircraft under Sec. 61.5(b), and is--
    (1) An aircraft of U.S. registry with either a standard or special 
airworthiness certificate;
    (2) An aircraft of foreign registry with an airworthiness 
certificate that is approved by the aviation authority of a foreign 
country that is a Member State to the Convention on International Civil 
Aviation Organization;
    (3) A military aircraft under the direct operational control of the 
U.S. Armed Forces; or
    (4) A public aircraft under the direct operational control of a 
Federal, State, county, or municipal law enforcement agency, if the 
flight time was acquired by the pilot while engaged on an official law 
enforcement flight for a Federal, State, County, or Municipal law 
enforcement agency.

[[Page 494]]

    (k) Logging night vision goggle time. (1) A person may log night 
vision goggle time only for the time the person uses night vision 
goggles as the primary visual reference of the surface and operates:
    (i) An aircraft during a night vision goggle operation; or
    (ii) A full flight simulator or flight training device with the 
lighting system adjusted to represent the period beginning 1 hour after 
sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise.
    (2) An authorized instructor may log night vision goggle time when 
that person conducts training using night vision goggles as the primary 
visual reference of the surface and operates:
    (i) An aircraft during a night goggle operation; or
    (ii) A full flight simulator or flight training device with the 
lighting system adjusted to represent the period beginning 1 hour after 
sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise.
    (3) To log night vision goggle time to meet the recent night vision 
goggle experience requirements under Sec. 61.57(f), a person must log 
the information required under Sec. 61.51(b).

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42549, Aug. 21, 2009; 
Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54105, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30277, 
June 27, 2018]



Sec. 61.52  Use of aeronautical experience obtained in ultralight vehicles.

    (a) Before January 31, 2012, a person may use aeronautical 
experience obtained in an ultralight vehicle to meet the requirements 
for the following certificates and ratings issued under this part:
    (1) A sport pilot certificate.
    (2) A flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating;
    (3) A private pilot certificate with a weight-shift-control or 
powered parachute category rating.
    (b) Before January 31, 2012, a person may use aeronautical 
experience obtained in an ultralight vehicle to meet the provisions of 
Sec. 61.69.
    (c) A person using aeronautical experience obtained in an ultralight 
vehicle to meet the requirements for a certificate or rating specified 
in paragraph (a) of this section or the requirements of paragraph (b) of 
this section must--
    (1) Have been a registered ultralight pilot with an FAA-recognized 
ultralight organization when that aeronautical experience was obtained;
    (2) Document and log that aeronautical experience in accordance with 
the provisions for logging aeronautical experience specified by an FAA-
recognized ultralight organization and in accordance with the provisions 
for logging pilot time in aircraft as specified in Sec. 61.51;
    (3) Obtain the aeronautical experience in a category and class of 
vehicle corresponding to the rating or privilege sought; and
    (4) Provide the FAA with a certified copy of his or her ultralight 
pilot records from an FAA-recognized ultralight organization, that --
    (i) Document that he or she is a registered ultralight pilot with 
that FAA-recognized ultralight organization; and
    (ii) Indicate that he or she is recognized to operate the category 
and class of aircraft for which sport pilot privileges are sought.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010]



Sec. 61.53  Prohibition on operations during medical deficiency.

    (a) Operations that require a medical certificate. Except as 
provided for in paragraph (b) of this section, no person who holds a 
medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter may act as 
pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight 
crewmember, while that person:
    (1) Knows or has reason to know of any medical condition that would 
make the person unable to meet the requirements for the medical 
certificate necessary for the pilot operation; or
    (2) Is taking medication or receiving other treatment for a medical 
condition that results in the person being unable to meet the 
requirements for the medical certificate necessary for the pilot 
operation.
    (b) Operations that do not require a medical certificate. For 
operations provided for in Sec. 61.23(b) of this part, a person shall 
not act as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required

[[Page 495]]

pilot flight crewmember, while that person knows or has reason to know 
of any medical condition that would make the person unable to operate 
the aircraft in a safe manner.
    (c) Operations requiring a medical certificate or a U.S. driver's 
license. For operations provided for in Sec. 61.23(c), a person must 
meet the provisions of--
    (1) Paragraph (a) of this section if that person holds a medical 
certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter and does not hold a 
U.S. driver's license.
    (2) Paragraph (b) of this section if that person holds a U.S. 
driver's license.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44866, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42550, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.55  Second-in-command qualifications.

    (a) A person may serve as a second-in-command of an aircraft type 
certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or in 
operations requiring a second-in-command pilot flight crewmember only if 
that person holds:
    (1) At least a private pilot certificate with the appropriate 
category and class rating; and
    (2) An instrument rating or privilege that applies to the aircraft 
being flown if the flight is under IFR; and
    (3) At least a pilot type rating for the aircraft being flown unless 
the flight will be conducted as domestic flight operations within the 
United States airspace.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person 
may serve as a second-in-command of an aircraft type certificated for 
more than one required pilot flight crewmember or in operations 
requiring a second-in-command unless that person has within the previous 
12 calendar months:
    (1) Become familiar with the following information for the specific 
type aircraft for which second-in-command privileges are requested--
    (i) Operational procedures applicable to the powerplant, equipment, 
and systems.
    (ii) Performance specifications and limitations.
    (iii) Normal, abnormal, and emergency operating procedures.
    (iv) Flight manual.
    (v) Placards and markings.
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, performed 
and logged pilot time in the type of aircraft or in a flight simulator 
that represents the type of aircraft for which second-in-command 
privileges are requested, which includes--
    (i) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop as the sole 
manipulator of the flight controls;
    (ii) Engine-out procedures and maneuvering with an engine out while 
executing the duties of pilot in command; and
    (iii) Crew resource management training.
    (c) If a person complies with the requirements in paragraph (b) of 
this section in the calendar month before or the calendar month after 
the month in which compliance with this section is required, then that 
person is considered to have accomplished the training and practice in 
the month it is due.
    (d) A person may receive a second-in-command pilot type rating for 
an aircraft after satisfactorily completing the second-in-command 
familiarization training requirements under paragraph (b) of this 
section in that type of aircraft provided the training was completed 
within the 12 calendar months before the month of application for the 
SIC pilot type rating. The person must comply with the following 
application and pilot certification procedures:
    (1) The person who provided the training must sign the applicant's 
logbook or training record after each lesson in accordance with Sec. 
61.51(h)(2) of this part. In lieu of the trainer, it is permissible for 
a qualified management official within the organization to sign the 
applicant's training records or logbook and make the required 
endorsement. The qualified management official must hold the position of 
Chief Pilot, Director of Training, Director of Operations, or another 
comparable management position within the organization that provided the 
training and must be in a position to verify the applicant's training 
records and that the training was given.

[[Page 496]]

    (2) The trainer or qualified management official must make an 
endorsement in the applicant's logbook that states ``[Applicant's Name 
and Pilot Certificate Number] has demonstrated the skill and knowledge 
required for the safe operation of the [Type of Aircraft], relevant to 
the duties and responsibilities of a second in command.''
    (3) If the applicant's flight experience and/or training records are 
in an electronic form, the applicant must present a paper copy of those 
records containing the signature of the trainer or qualified management 
official to a Flight Standards office or Examiner.
    (4) The applicant must complete and sign an Airman Certificate and/
or Rating Application, FAA Form 8710-1, and present the application to a 
Flight Standards office or to an Examiner.
    (5) The person who provided the ground and flight training to the 
applicant must sign the ``Instructor's Recommendation'' section of the 
Airman Certificate and/or Rating Application, FAA Form 8710-1. In lieu 
of the trainer, it is permissible for a qualified management official 
within the organization to sign the applicant's FAA Form 8710-1.
    (6) The applicant must appear in person at a Flight Standards office 
or to an Examiner with his or her logbook/training records and with the 
completed and signed FAA Form 8710-1.
    (7) There is no practical test required for the issuance of the 
``SIC Privileges Only'' pilot type rating.
    (e) A person may receive a second-in-command pilot type rating for 
the type of aircraft after satisfactorily completing an approved second-
in-command training program, proficiency check, or competency check 
under subpart K of part 91, part 125, or part 135, as appropriate, in 
that type of aircraft provided the training was completed within the 12 
calendar months before the month of application for the SIC pilot type 
rating. The person must comply with the following application and pilot 
certification procedures:
    (1) The person who provided the training must sign the applicant's 
logbook or training record after each lesson in accordance with Sec. 
61.51(h)(2) of this part. In lieu of the trainer, it is permissible for 
a qualified management official within the organization to sign the 
applicant's training records or logbook and make the required 
endorsement. The qualified management official must hold the position of 
Chief Pilot, Director of Training, Director of Operations, or another 
comparable management position within the organization that provided the 
training and must be in a position to verify the applicant's training 
records and that the training was given.
    (2) The trainer or qualified management official must make an 
endorsement in the applicant's logbook that states ``[Applicant's Name 
and Pilot Certificate Number] has demonstrated the skill and knowledge 
required for the safe operation of the [Type of Aircraft], relevant to 
the duties and responsibilities of a second in command.''
    (3) If the applicant's flight experience and/or training records are 
in an electronic form, the applicant must provide a paper copy of those 
records containing the signature of the trainer or qualified management 
official to a Flight Standards office, an Examiner, or an Aircrew 
Program Designee.
    (4) The applicant must complete and sign an Airman Certificate and/
or Rating Application, FAA Form 8710-1, and present the application to a 
Flight Standards office or to an Examiner or to an authorized Aircrew 
Program Designee.
    (5) The person who provided the ground and flight training to the 
applicant must sign the ``Instructor's Recommendation'' section of the 
Airman Certificate and/or Rating Application, FAA Form 8710-1. In lieu 
of the trainer, it is permissible for a qualified management official 
within the organization to sign the applicant's FAA Form 8710-1.
    (6) The applicant must appear in person at a Flight Standards office 
or to an Examiner or to an authorized Aircrew Program Designee with his 
or her logbook/training records and with the completed and signed FAA 
Form 8710-1.
    (7) There is no practical test required for the issuance of the 
``SIC Privileges Only'' pilot type rating.

[[Page 497]]

    (f) The familiarization training requirements of paragraph (b) of 
this section do not apply to a person who is:
    (1) Designated and qualified as pilot in command under subpart K of 
part 91, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter in that specific type of 
aircraft;
    (2) Designated as the second in command under subpart K of part 91, 
part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter in that specific type of aircraft;
    (3) Designated as the second in command in that specific type of 
aircraft for the purpose of receiving flight training required by this 
section, and no passengers or cargo are carried on the aircraft; or
    (4) Designated as a safety pilot for purposes required by Sec. 
91.109 of this chapter.
    (g) The holder of a commercial or airline transport pilot 
certificate with the appropriate category and class rating is not 
required to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, 
provided the pilot:
    (1) Is conducting a ferry flight, aircraft flight test, or 
evaluation flight of an aircraft's equipment; and
    (2) Is not carrying any person or property on board the aircraft, 
other than necessary for conduct of the flight.
    (h) For the purpose of meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of 
this section, a person may serve as second in command in that specific 
type aircraft, provided:
    (1) The flight is conducted under day VFR or day IFR; and
    (2) No person or property is carried on board the aircraft, other 
than necessary for conduct of the flight.
    (i) The training under paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section and 
the training, proficiency check, and competency check under paragraph 
(e) of this section may be accomplished in a flight simulator that is 
used in accordance with an approved training course conducted by a 
training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter or under 
subpart K of part 91, part 121 or part 135 of this chapter.
    (j) When an applicant for an initial second-in-command qualification 
for a particular type of aircraft receives all the training in a flight 
simulator, that applicant must satisfactorily complete one takeoff and 
one landing in an aircraft of the same type for which the qualification 
is sought. This requirement does not apply to an applicant who completes 
a proficiency check under part 121 or competency check under subpart K, 
part 91, part 125, or part 135 for the particular type of aircraft.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40898, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-109, 68 FR 54559, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 61-113, 
70 FR 45271, Aug. 4, 2005; Amdt. 61-109, 70 FR 61890, Oct. 27, 2005; 
Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42550, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54105, 
Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42374, July 15, 2013; Docket FAA-
2018-0119, Amdt. 61-141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 61.56  Flight review.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section, a 
flight review consists of a minimum of 1 hour of flight training and 1 
hour of ground training. The review must include:
    (1) A review of the current general operating and flight rules of 
part 91 of this chapter; and
    (2) A review of those maneuvers and procedures that, at the 
discretion of the person giving the review, are necessary for the pilot 
to demonstrate the safe exercise of the privileges of the pilot 
certificate.
    (b) Glider pilots may substitute a minimum of three instructional 
flights in a glider, each of which includes a flight to traffic pattern 
altitude, in lieu of the 1 hour of flight training required in paragraph 
(a) of this section.
    (c) Except as provided in paragraphs (d), (e), and (g) of this 
section, no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft unless, 
since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which 
that pilot acts as pilot in command, that person has--
    (1) Accomplished a flight review given in an aircraft for which that 
pilot is rated by an authorized instructor and
    (2) A logbook endorsed from an authorized instructor who gave the 
review certifying that the person has satisfactorily completed the 
review.
    (d) A person who has, within the period specified in paragraph (c) 
of this section, passed any of the following need not accomplish the 
flight review required by this section:

[[Page 498]]

    (1) A pilot proficiency check or practical test conducted by an 
examiner, an approved pilot check airman, or a U.S. Armed Force, for a 
pilot certificate, rating, or operating privilege.
    (2) A practical test conducted by an examiner for the issuance of a 
flight instructor certificate, an additional rating on a flight 
instructor certificate, renewal of a flight instructor certificate, or 
reinstatement of a flight instructor certificate.
    (e) A person who has, within the period specified in paragraph (c) 
of this section, satisfactorily accomplished one or more phases of an 
FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency award program need not accomplish the 
flight review required by this section.
    (f) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate and who has, 
within the period specified in paragraph (c) of this section, 
satisfactorily completed a renewal of a flight instructor certificate 
under the provisions in Sec. 61.197 need not accomplish the one hour of 
ground training specified in paragraph (a) of this section.
    (g) A student pilot need not accomplish the flight review required 
by this section provided the student pilot is undergoing training for a 
certificate and has a current solo flight endorsement as required under 
Sec. 61.87 of this part.
    (h) The requirements of this section may be accomplished in 
combination with the requirements of Sec. 61.57 and other applicable 
recent experience requirements at the discretion of the authorized 
instructor conducting the flight review.
    (i) A flight simulator or flight training device may be used to meet 
the flight review requirements of this section subject to the following 
conditions:
    (1) The flight simulator or flight training device must be used in 
accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center 
certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (2) Unless the flight review is undertaken in a flight simulator 
that is approved for landings, the applicant must meet the takeoff and 
landing requirements of Sec. 61.57(a) or Sec. 61.57(b) of this part.
    (3) The flight simulator or flight training device used must 
represent an aircraft or set of aircraft for which the pilot is rated.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40898, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-124, 
74 FR 42550, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-131, 78 FR 56828, Sept. 16, 2013]



Sec. 61.57  Recent flight experience: Pilot in command.

    (a) General experience. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of 
this section, no person may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft 
carrying passengers or of an aircraft certificated for more than one 
pilot flight crewmember unless that person has made at least three 
takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days, and--
    (i) The person acted as the sole manipulator of the flight controls; 
and
    (ii) The required takeoffs and landings were performed in an 
aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is 
required), and, if the aircraft to be flown is an airplane with a 
tailwheel, the takeoffs and landings must have been made to a full stop 
in an airplane with a tailwheel.
    (2) For the purpose of meeting the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) 
of this section, a person may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft 
under day VFR or day IFR, provided no persons or property are carried on 
board the aircraft, other than those necessary for the conduct of the 
flight.
    (3) The takeoffs and landings required by paragraph (a)(1) of this 
section may be accomplished in a full flight simulator or flight 
training device that is--
    (i) Approved by the Administrator for landings; and
    (ii) Used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a 
training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (b) Night takeoff and landing experience. (1) Except as provided in 
paragraph (e) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of 
an aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning 1 hour after 
sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, unless within the preceding 90 
days that person has made at least three takeoffs and three

[[Page 499]]

landings to a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset 
and ending 1 hour before sunrise, and--
    (i) That person acted as sole manipulator of the flight controls; 
and
    (ii) The required takeoffs and landings were performed in an 
aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is 
required).
    (2) The takeoffs and landings required by paragraph (b)(1) of this 
section may be accomplished in a full flight simulator that is--
    (i) Approved by the Administrator for takeoffs and landings, if the 
visual system is adjusted to represent the period described in paragraph 
(b)(1) of this section; and
    (ii) Used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a 
training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (c) Instrument experience. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of 
this section, a person may act as pilot in command under IFR or weather 
conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR only if:
    (1) Use of an airplane, powered-lift, helicopter, or airship for 
maintaining instrument experience. Within the 6 calendar months 
preceding the month of the flight, that person performed and logged at 
least the following tasks and iterations in an airplane, powered-lift, 
helicopter, or airship, as appropriate, for the instrument rating 
privileges to be maintained in actual weather conditions, or under 
simulated conditions using a view-limiting device that involves having 
performed the following--
    (i) Six instrument approaches.
    (ii) Holding procedures and tasks.
    (iii) Intercepting and tracking courses through the use of 
navigational electronic systems.
    (2) Use of a full flight simulator, flight training device, or 
aviation training device for maintaining instrument experience. A pilot 
may accomplish the requirements in paragraph (c)(1) of this section in a 
full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training 
device provided the device represents the category of aircraft for the 
instrument rating privileges to be maintained and the pilot performs the 
tasks and iterations in simulated instrument conditions. A person may 
complete the instrument experience in any combination of an aircraft, 
full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training 
device.
    (3) Maintaining instrument recent experience in a glider.
    (i) Within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, 
that person must have performed and logged at least the following 
instrument currency tasks, iterations, and flight time, and the 
instrument currency must have been performed in actual weather 
conditions or under simulated weather conditions--
    (A) One hour of instrument flight time in a glider or in a single 
engine airplane using a view-limiting device while performing 
interception and tracking courses through the use of navigation 
electronic systems.
    (B) Two hours of instrument flight time in a glider or a single 
engine airplane with the use of a view-limiting device while performing 
straight glides, turns to specific headings, steep turns, flight at 
various airspeeds, navigation, and slow flight and stalls.
    (ii) Before a pilot is allowed to carry a passenger in a glider 
under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for 
VFR, that pilot must--
    (A) Have logged and performed 2 hours of instrument flight time in a 
glider within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight.
    (B) Use a view-limiting-device while practicing performance 
maneuvers, performance airspeeds, navigation, slow flight, and stalls.
    (d) Instrument proficiency check. (1) Except as provided in 
paragraph (e) of this section, a person who has failed to meet the 
instrument experience requirements of paragraph (c) of this section for 
more than six calendar months may reestablish instrument currency only 
by completing an instrument proficiency check. The instrument 
proficiency check must consist of at least the following areas of 
operation:
    (i) Air traffic control clearances and procedures;
    (ii) Flight by reference to instruments;
    (iii) Navigation systems;
    (iv) Instrument approach procedures;

[[Page 500]]

    (v) Emergency operations; and
    (vi) Postflight procedures.
    (2) The instrument proficiency check must be--
    (i) In an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category;
    (ii) For other than a glider, in a full flight simulator or flight 
training device that is representative of the aircraft category; or
    (iii) For a glider, in a single-engine airplane or a glider.
    (3) The instrument proficiency check must be given by--
    (i) An examiner;
    (ii) A person authorized by the U.S. Armed Forces to conduct 
instrument flight tests, provided the person being tested is a member of 
the U.S. Armed Forces;
    (iii) A company check pilot who is authorized to conduct instrument 
flight tests under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter or subpart K of 
part 91 of this chapter, and provided that both the check pilot and the 
pilot being tested are employees of that operator or fractional 
ownership program manager, as applicable;
    (iv) An authorized instructor; or
    (v) A person approved by the Administrator to conduct instrument 
practical tests.
    (e) Exceptions. (1) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not 
apply to a pilot in command who is employed by a part 119 certificate 
holder authorized to conduct operations under part 125 when the pilot is 
engaged in a flight operation for that certificate holder if the pilot 
in command is in compliance with Sec. Sec. 125.281 and 125.285 of this 
chapter.
    (2) This section does not apply to a pilot in command who is 
employed by a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct 
operations under part 121 when the pilot is engaged in a flight 
operation under part 91 or 121 for that certificate holder if the pilot 
in command complies with Sec. Sec. 121.436 and 121.439 of this chapter.
    (3) This section does not apply to a pilot in command who is 
employed by a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct 
operations under part 135 when the pilot is engaged in a flight 
operation under parts 91 or 135 for that certificate holder if the pilot 
in command is in compliance with Sec. Sec. 135.243 and 135.247 of this 
chapter.
    (4) Paragraph (b) of this section does not apply to a pilot in 
command of a turbine-powered airplane that is type certificated for more 
than one pilot crewmember, provided that pilot has complied with the 
requirements of paragraph (e)(4)(i) or (ii) of this section:
    (i) The pilot in command must hold at least a commercial pilot 
certificate with the appropriate category, class, and type rating for 
each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot 
crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, and:
    (A) That pilot must have logged at least 1,500 hours of aeronautical 
experience as a pilot;
    (B) In each airplane that is type certificated for more than one 
pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, 
that pilot must have accomplished and logged the daytime takeoff and 
landing recent flight experience of paragraph (a) of this section, as 
the sole manipulator of the flight controls;
    (C) Within the preceding 90 days prior to the operation of that 
airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, 
the pilot must have accomplished and logged at least 15 hours of flight 
time in the type of airplane that the pilot seeks to operate under this 
alternative; and
    (D) That pilot has accomplished and logged at least 3 takeoffs and 3 
landings to a full stop, as the sole manipulator of the flight controls, 
in a turbine-powered airplane that requires more than one pilot 
crewmember. The pilot must have performed the takeoffs and landings 
during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before 
sunrise within the preceding 6 months prior to the month of the flight.
    (ii) The pilot in command must hold at least a commercial pilot 
certificate with the appropriate category, class, and type rating for 
each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot 
crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, and:
    (A) That pilot must have logged at least 1,500 hours of aeronautical 
experience as a pilot;

[[Page 501]]

    (B) In each airplane that is type certificated for more than one 
pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, 
that pilot must have accomplished and logged the daytime takeoff and 
landing recent flight experience of paragraph (a) of this section, as 
the sole manipulator of the flight controls;
    (C) Within the preceding 90 days prior to the operation of that 
airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, 
the pilot must have accomplished and logged at least 15 hours of flight 
time in the type of airplane that the pilot seeks to operate under this 
alternative; and
    (D) Within the preceding 12 months prior to the month of the flight, 
the pilot must have completed a training program that is approved under 
part 142 of this chapter. The approved training program must have 
required and the pilot must have performed, at least 6 takeoffs and 6 
landings to a full stop as the sole manipulator of the controls in a 
full flight simulator that is representative of a turbine-powered 
airplane that requires more than one pilot crewmember. The full flight 
simulator's visual system must have been adjusted to represent the 
period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise.
    (f) Night vision goggle operating experience. (1) A person may act 
as pilot in command in a night vision goggle operation with passengers 
on board only if, within 2 calendar months preceding the month of the 
flight, that person performs and logs the following tasks as the sole 
manipulator of the controls on a flight during a night vision goggle 
operation--
    (i) Three takeoffs and three landings, with each takeoff and landing 
including a climbout, cruise, descent, and approach phase of flight 
(only required if the pilot wants to use night vision goggles during the 
takeoff and landing phases of the flight).
    (ii) Three hovering tasks (only required if the pilot wants to use 
night vision goggles when operating helicopters or powered-lifts during 
the hovering phase of flight).
    (iii) Three area departure and area arrival tasks.
    (iv) Three tasks of transitioning from aided night flight (aided 
night flight means that the pilot uses night vision goggles to maintain 
visual surface reference) to unaided night flight (unaided night flight 
means that the pilot does not use night vision goggles) and back to 
aided night flight.
    (v) Three night vision goggle operations, or when operating 
helicopters or powered-lifts, six night vision goggle operations.
    (2) A person may act as pilot in command using night vision goggles 
only if, within the 4 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, 
that person performs and logs the tasks listed in paragraph (f)(1)(i) 
through (v) of this section as the sole manipulator of the controls 
during a night vision goggle operation.
    (g) Night vision goggle proficiency check. A person must either meet 
the night vision goggle experience requirements of paragraphs (f)(1) or 
(f)(2) of this section or pass a night vision goggle proficiency check 
to act as pilot in command using night vision goggles. The proficiency 
check must be performed in the category of aircraft that is appropriate 
to the night vision goggle operation for which the person is seeking the 
night vision goggle privilege or in a full flight simulator or flight 
training device that is representative of that category of aircraft. The 
check must consist of the tasks listed in Sec. 61.31(k), and the check 
must be performed by:
    (1) An Examiner who is qualified to perform night vision goggle 
operations in that same aircraft category and class;
    (2) A person who is authorized by the U.S. Armed Forces to perform 
night vision goggle proficiency checks, provided the person being 
administered the check is also a member of the U.S. Armed Forces;
    (3) A company check pilot who is authorized to perform night vision 
goggle proficiency checks under parts 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter, 
provided that both the check pilot and the pilot being tested are 
employees of that operator;
    (4) An authorized flight instructor who is qualified to perform 
night vision

[[Page 502]]

goggle operations in that same aircraft category and class;
    (5) A person who is qualified as pilot in command for night vision 
goggle operations in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section; or
    (6) A person approved by the FAA to perform night vision goggle 
proficiency checks.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40898, 
July 30, 1997]

    Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting Sec. 
61.57, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the 
Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.



Sec. 61.58  Pilot-in-command proficiency check: Operation of an
aircraft that requires more than one pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered.

    (a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, to serve as pilot 
in command of an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one 
required pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered, a person must--
    (1) Within the preceding 12 calendar months, complete a pilot-in-
command proficiency check in an aircraft that is type certificated for 
more than one required pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered; 
and
    (2) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, complete a pilot-in-
command proficiency check in the particular type of aircraft in which 
that person will serve as pilot in command, that is type certificated 
for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-
powered.
    (b) This section does not apply to persons conducting operations 
under subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, 133, 135, or 137 of this 
chapter, or persons maintaining continuing qualification under an 
Advanced Qualification program approved under subpart Y of part 121 of 
this chapter.
    (c) The pilot-in-command proficiency check given in accordance with 
the provisions of subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, or 135 of this 
chapter may be used to satisfy the requirements of this section.
    (d) The pilot-in-command proficiency check required by paragraph (a) 
of this section may be accomplished by satisfactory completion of one of 
the following:
    (1) A pilot-in-command proficiency check conducted by a person 
authorized by the Administrator, consisting of the aeronautical 
knowledge areas, areas of operations, and tasks required for a type 
rating, in an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one pilot 
flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered;
    (2) The practical test required for a type rating, in an aircraft 
that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight 
crewmember or is turbojet-powered;
    (3) The initial or periodic practical test required for the issuance 
of a pilot examiner or check airman designation, in an aircraft that is 
type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or 
is turbojet-powered;
    (4) A pilot proficiency check administered by a U.S. Armed Force 
that qualifies the military pilot for pilot-in-command designation with 
instrument privileges, and was performed in a military aircraft that the 
military requires to be operated by more than one pilot flight 
crewmember or is turbojet-powered;
    (5) For a pilot authorized by the Administrator to operate an 
experimental turbojet-powered aircraft that possesses, by original 
design or through modification, more than a single seat, the required 
proficiency check for all of the experimental turbojet-powered aircraft 
for which the pilot holds an authorization may be accomplished by 
completing any one of the following:
    (i) A single proficiency check, conducted by an examiner authorized 
by the Administrator, in any one of the experimental turbojet-powered 
aircraft for which the airman holds an authorization to operate if 
conducted within the prior 12 months;
    (ii) A single proficiency check, conducted by an examiner authorized 
by the Administrator, in any experimental turbojet-powered aircraft 
(e.g., if a pilot acquires a new authorization to operate an additional 
experimental turbojet-powered aircraft, the check for that new 
authorization will meet the intent), if conducted within the prior 12 
months;

[[Page 503]]

    (iii) Current qualification under an Advanced Qualification Program 
(AQP) under subpart Y of part 121 of this chapter;
    (iv) Any proficiency check conducted under subpart K of part 91, 
part 121, or part 135 of this chapter within the prior 12 months if 
conducted in a turbojet-powered aircraft; or
    (v) Any other Sec. 61.58 proficiency check conducted within the 
prior 12 months if conducted in a turbojet-powered aircraft.
    (e) The pilot of a multi-seat experimental turbojet-powered aircraft 
who has not received a proficiency check within the prior 12 months in 
accordance with this section may continue to operate such aircraft in 
accordance with the pilot's authorizations. However, the pilot is 
prohibited from carriage of any persons in any experimental turbojet-
powered aircraft with the exception of those individuals authorized by 
the Administrator to conduct training, conduct flight checks, or perform 
pilot certification functions in such aircraft, and only during flights 
specifically related to training, flight checks, or certification in 
such aircraft.
    (f) This section will not apply to a pilot authorized by the 
Administrator to serve as pilot in command in experimental turbojet-
powered aircraft that possesses, by original design, a single seat, when 
operating such single-seat aircraft.
    (g) A check or test described in paragraphs (d)(1) through (5) of 
this section may be accomplished in a flight simulator under part 142 of 
this chapter, subject to the following:
    (1) Except as provided for in paragraphs (g)(2) and (3) of this 
section, if an otherwise qualified and approved flight simulator used 
for a pilot-in-command proficiency check is not qualified and approved 
for a specific required maneuver--
    (i) The training center must annotate, in the applicant's training 
record, the maneuver or maneuvers omitted; and
    (ii) Prior to acting as pilot in command, the pilot must demonstrate 
proficiency in each omitted maneuver in an aircraft or flight simulator 
qualified and approved for each omitted maneuver.
    (2) If the flight simulator used pursuant to paragraph (g) of this 
section is not qualified and approved for circling approaches--
    (i) The applicant's record must include the statement, ``Proficiency 
in circling approaches not demonstrated''; and
    (ii) The applicant may not perform circling approaches as pilot in 
command when weather conditions are less than the basic VFR conditions 
described in Sec. 91.155 of this chapter, until proficiency in circling 
approaches has been successfully demonstrated in a flight simulator 
qualified and approved for circling approaches or in an aircraft to a 
person authorized by the Administrator to conduct the check required by 
this section.
    (3) If the flight simulator used pursuant to paragraph (g) of this 
section is not qualified and approved for landings, the applicant must--
    (i) Hold a type rating in the airplane represented by the simulator; 
and
    (ii) Have completed within the preceding 90 days at least three 
takeoffs and three landings (one to a full stop) as the sole manipulator 
of the flight controls in the type airplane for which the pilot-in-
command proficiency check is sought.
    (h) For the purpose of meeting the pilot-in-command proficiency 
check requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a person may act as 
pilot in command of a flight under day VFR conditions or day IFR 
conditions if no person or property is carried, other than as necessary 
to demonstrate compliance with this part.
    (i) If a pilot takes the pilot-in-command proficiency check required 
by this section in the calendar month before or the calendar month after 
the month in which it is due, the pilot is considered to have taken it 
in the

[[Page 504]]

month in which it was due for the purpose of computing when the next 
pilot-in-command proficiency check is due.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40899, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-109, 
68 FR 54559, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 61-112, 70 FR 54814, Sept. 16, 2005; 
Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54106, Aug. 31, 2011; 76 FR 63184, Oct. 12, 2011; 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 61-151, 87 FR 75845, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 61.59  Falsification, reproduction, or alteration of applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, or records.

    (a) No person may make or cause to be made:
    (1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement on any 
application for a certificate, rating, authorization, or duplicate 
thereof, issued under this part;
    (2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, 
record, or report that is required to be kept, made, or used to show 
compliance with any requirement for the issuance or exercise of the 
privileges of any certificate, rating, or authorization under this part;
    (3) Any reproduction for fraudulent purpose of any certificate, 
rating, or authorization, under this part; or
    (4) Any alteration of any certificate, rating, or authorization 
under this part.
    (b) The commission of an act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this 
section is a basis for suspending or revoking any airman certificate, 
rating, or authorization held by that person.



Sec. 61.60  Change of address.

    The holder of a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor 
certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, 
after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of the certificate 
unless the holder has notified in writing the FAA, Airman Certification 
Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, of the new permanent 
mailing address, or if the permanent mailing address includes a post 
office box number, then the holder's current residential address.



           Subpart B_Aircraft Ratings and Pilot Authorizations



Sec. 61.61  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of 
additional aircraft ratings after a pilot certificate is issued, 
issuance of a type rating concurrently with a pilot certificate, and the 
requirements for and limitations of pilot authorizations issued by the 
Administrator.

[Doc. No. FAA-2006-26661, 76 FR 78143, Dec. 16, 2011]



Sec. 61.63  Additional aircraft ratings (other than for ratings at the airline transport pilot certification level).

    (a) General. For an additional aircraft rating on a pilot 
certificate, other than for an airline transport pilot certificate, a 
person must meet the requirements of this section appropriate to the 
additional aircraft rating sought.
    (b) Additional aircraft category rating. A person who applies to add 
a category rating to a pilot certificate:
    (1) Must complete the training and have the applicable aeronautical 
experience.
    (2) Must have a logbook or training record endorsement from an 
authorized instructor attesting that the person was found competent in 
the appropriate aeronautical knowledge areas and proficient in the 
appropriate areas of operation.
    (3) Must pass the practical test.
    (4) Need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the 
applicant holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, weight-shift-
control aircraft, powered parachute, or airship rating at that pilot 
certificate level.
    (c) Additional aircraft class rating. A person who applies for an 
additional class rating on a pilot certificate:
    (1) Must have a logbook or training record endorsement from an 
authorized instructor attesting that the person was found competent in 
the appropriate aeronautical knowledge areas and proficient in the 
appropriate areas of operation.
    (2) Must pass the practical test.
    (3) Need not meet the specified training time requirements 
prescribed by

[[Page 505]]

this part that apply to the pilot certificate for the aircraft class 
rating sought; unless, the person only holds a lighter-than-air category 
rating with a balloon class rating and is seeking an airship class 
rating, then that person must receive the specified training time 
requirements and possess the appropriate aeronautical experience.
    (4) Need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the 
applicant holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, weight-shift-
control aircraft, powered parachute, or airship rating at that pilot 
certificate level.
    (d) Additional aircraft type rating. Except as provided under 
paragraph (d)(6) of this section, a person who applies for an aircraft 
type rating or an aircraft type rating to be completed concurrently with 
an aircraft category or class rating--
    (1) Must hold or concurrently obtain an appropriate instrument 
rating, except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section.
    (2) Must have a logbook or training record endorsement from an 
authorized instructor attesting that the person is competent in the 
appropriate aeronautical knowledge areas and proficient in the 
appropriate areas of operation at the airline transport pilot 
certification level.
    (3) Must pass the practical test at the airline transport pilot 
certification level.
    (4) Must perform the practical test in actual or simulated 
instrument conditions, except as provided in paragraph (e) of this 
section.
    (5) Need not take an additional knowledge test if the applicant 
holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating on the 
pilot certificate.
    (6) In the case of a pilot employee of a part 121 or part 135 
certificate holder or of a fractional ownership program manager under 
subpart K of part 91 of this chapter, the pilot must--
    (i) Meet the appropriate requirements under paragraphs (d)(1), 
(d)(3), and (d)(4) of this section; and
    (ii) Receive a flight training record endorsement from the 
certificate holder attesting that the person completed the certificate 
holder's approved ground and flight training program.
    (e) Aircraft not capable of instrument maneuvers and procedures. (1) 
An applicant for a type rating or a type rating in addition to an 
aircraft category and/or class rating who provides an aircraft that is 
not capable of the instrument maneuvers and procedures required on the 
practical test:
    (i) May apply for the type rating, but the rating will be limited to 
``VFR only.''
    (ii) May have the ``VFR only'' limitation removed for that aircraft 
type after the applicant:
    (A) Passes a practical test in that type of aircraft in actual or 
simulated instrument conditions;
    (B) Passes a practical test in that type of aircraft on the 
appropriate instrument maneuvers and procedures in Sec. 61.157; or
    (C) Becomes qualified under Sec. 61.73(d) for that type of 
aircraft.
    (2) When an instrument rating is issued to a person who holds one or 
more type ratings, the amended pilot certificate must bear the ``VFR 
only'' limitation for each aircraft type rating that the person did not 
demonstrate instrument competency.
    (f) Multiengine airplane with a single-pilot station. An applicant 
for a type rating, at other than the ATP certification level, in a 
multiengine airplane with a single-pilot station must perform the 
practical test in the multi-seat version of that airplane, or the 
practical test may be performed in the single-seat version of that 
airplane if the Examiner is in a position to observe the applicant 
during the practical test and there is no multi-seat version of that 
multiengine airplane.
    (g) Single engine airplane with a single-pilot station. An applicant 
for a type rating, at other than the ATP certification level, in a 
single engine airplane with a single-pilot station must perform the 
practical test in the multi-seat version of that single engine airplane, 
or the practical test may be performed in the single-seat version of 
that airplane if the Examiner is in a position to observe the applicant 
during the practical test and there is no multi-seat version of that 
single engine airplane.

[[Page 506]]

    (h) Aircraft category and class rating for the operation of aircraft 
with an experimental certificate. A person holding a recreational, 
private, or commercial pilot certificate may apply for a category and 
class rating limited to a specific make and model of experimental 
aircraft, provided--
    (1) The person logged 5 hours flight time while acting as pilot in 
command in the same category, class, make, and model of aircraft.
    (2) The person received a logbook endorsement from an authorized 
instructor who determined the pilot's proficiency to act as pilot in 
command of the same category, class, make, and model of aircraft.
    (3) The flight time specified under paragraph (h)(1) of this section 
was logged between September 1, 2004 and August 31, 2005.
    (i) Waiver authority. An Examiner who conducts a practical test may 
waive any task for which the FAA has provided waiver authority.

[Doc. No. FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42552, Aug. 21, 2009, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010]



Sec. 61.64  Use of a flight simulator and flight training device.

    (a) Use of a flight simulator or flight training device. If an 
applicant for a certificate or rating uses a flight simulator or flight 
training device for training or any portion of the practical test, the 
flight simulator and flight training device--
    (1) Must represent the category, class, and type (if a type rating 
is applicable) for the rating sought; and
    (2) Must be qualified and approved by the Administrator and used in 
accordance with an approved course of training under part 141 or part 
142 of this chapter; or under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter, 
provided the applicant is a pilot employee of that air carrier operator.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, if an 
airplane is not used during the practical test for a type rating for a 
turbojet airplane (except for preflight inspection), an applicant must 
accomplish the entire practical test in a Level C or higher flight 
simulator and the applicant must--
    (1) Hold a type rating in a turbojet airplane of the same class of 
airplane for which the type rating is sought, and that type rating may 
not contain a supervised operating experience limitation;
    (2) Have 1,000 hours of flight time in two different turbojet 
airplanes of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is 
sought;
    (3) Have been appointed by the U.S. Armed Forces as pilot in command 
in a turbojet airplane of the same class of airplane for which the type 
rating is sought;
    (4) Have 500 hours of flight time in the same type of airplane for 
which the type rating is sought; or
    (5) Have logged at least 2,000 hours of flight time, of which 500 
hours were in turbine-powered airplanes of the same class of airplane 
for which the type rating is sought.
    (c) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, if an 
airplane is not used during the practical test for a type rating for a 
turbo-propeller airplane (except for preflight inspection), an applicant 
must accomplish the entire practical test in a Level C or higher flight 
simulator and the applicant must--
    (1) Hold a type rating in a turbo-propeller airplane of the same 
class of airplane for which the type rating is sought, and that type 
rating may not contain a supervised operating experience limitation;
    (2) Have 1,000 hours of flight time in two different turbo-propeller 
airplanes of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is 
sought;
    (3) Have been appointed by the U.S. Armed Forces as pilot in command 
in a turbo-propeller airplane of the same class of airplane for which 
the type rating is sought;
    (4) Have 500 hours of flight time in the same type of airplane for 
which the type rating is sought; or
    (5) Have logged at least 2,000 hours of flight time, of which 500 
hours were in turbine-powered airplanes of the same class of airplane 
for which the type rating is sought.
    (d) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, if a 
helicopter is not used during the practical test for a type rating in a 
helicopter (except for

[[Page 507]]

preflight inspection), an applicant must accomplish the entire practical 
test in a Level C or higher flight simulator and the applicant must meet 
one of the following requirements--
    (1) Hold a type rating in a helicopter and that type rating may not 
contain the supervised operating experience limitation;
    (2) Have been appointed by the U.S. Armed Forces as pilot in command 
of a helicopter;
    (3) Have 500 hours of flight time in the type of helicopter; or
    (4) Have 1,000 hours of flight time in two different types of 
helicopters.
    (e) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, if a 
powered-lift is not used during the practical test for a type rating in 
a powered-lift (except for preflight inspection), an applicant must 
accomplish the entire practical test in a Level C or higher flight 
simulator and the applicant must meet one of the following 
requirements--
    (1) Hold a type rating in a powered-lift without a supervised 
operating experience limitation;
    (2) Have been appointed by the U.S. Armed Forces as pilot in command 
of a powered-lift;
    (3) Have 500 hours of flight time in the type of powered-lift for 
which the rating is sought; or
    (4) Have 1,000 hours of flight time in two different types of 
powered-lifts.
    (f) If the applicant does not meet one of the experience 
requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) through (5), (c)(1) through (5), 
(d)(1) through (4) or (e)(1) through (4) of this section, as appropriate 
to the type rating sought, then--
    (1) The applicant must complete the following tasks on the practical 
test in an aircraft appropriate to category, class, and type for the 
rating sought: Preflight inspection, normal takeoff, normal instrument 
landing system approach, missed approach, and normal landing; or
    (2) The applicant's pilot certificate will be issued with a 
limitation that states: ``The [name of the additional type rating] is 
subject to pilot in command limitations,'' and the applicant is 
restricted from serving as pilot in command in an aircraft of that type.
    (g) The limitation described under paragraph (f)(2) of this section 
may be removed from the pilot certificate if the applicant complies with 
the following--
    (1) Performs 25 hours of flight time in an aircraft of the category, 
class, and type for which the limitation applies under the direct 
observation of the pilot in command who holds a category, class, and 
type rating, without limitations, for the aircraft;
    (2) Logs each flight and the pilot in command who observed the 
flight attests in writing to each flight;
    (3) Obtains the flight time while performing the duties of pilot in 
command; and
    (4) Presents evidence of the supervised operating experience to any 
Examiner or Flight Standards office to have the limitation removed.

[Doc. No. FAA-2006-26661, 76 FR 78143, Dec. 16, 2011, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 61-141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 61.65  Instrument rating requirements.

    (a) General. A person who applies for an instrument rating must:
    (1) Hold at least a current private pilot certificate, or be 
concurrently applying for a private pilot certificate, with an airplane, 
helicopter, or powered-lift rating appropriate to the instrument rating 
sought;
    (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet any of these requirements 
due to a medical condition, the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on the applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for 
the safe operation of the aircraft;
    (3) Receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor or 
accomplish a home-study course of training on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the instrument 
rating sought;
    (4) Receive a logbook or training record endorsement from an 
authorized instructor certifying that the person is prepared to take the 
required knowledge test;
    (5) Receive and log training on the areas of operation of paragraph 
(c) of

[[Page 508]]

this section from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, full flight 
simulator, or flight training device that represents an airplane, 
helicopter, or powered-lift appropriate to the instrument rating sought;
    (6) Receive a logbook or training record endorsement from an 
authorized instructor certifying that the person is prepared to take the 
required practical test;
    (7) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas of paragraph (b) of this section; however, an applicant is not 
required to take another knowledge test when that person already holds 
an instrument rating; and
    (8) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation in 
paragraph (c) of this section in--
    (i) An airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift appropriate to the 
rating sought; or
    (ii) A full flight simulator or a flight training device appropriate 
to the rating sought and for the specific maneuver or instrument 
approach procedure performed. If an approved flight training device is 
used for the practical test, the instrument approach procedures 
conducted in that flight training device are limited to one precision 
and one nonprecision approach, provided the flight training device is 
approved for the procedure performed.
    (b) Aeronautical knowledge. A person who applies for an instrument 
rating must have received and logged ground training from an authorized 
instructor or accomplished a home-study course on the following 
aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to the instrument rating sought:
    (1) Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that apply to 
flight operations under IFR;
    (2) Appropriate information that applies to flight operations under 
IFR in the ``Aeronautical Information Manual;''
    (3) Air traffic control system and procedures for instrument flight 
operations;
    (4) IFR navigation and approaches by use of navigation systems;
    (5) Use of IFR en route and instrument approach procedure charts;
    (6) Procurement and use of aviation weather reports and forecasts 
and the elements of forecasting weather trends based on that information 
and personal observation of weather conditions;
    (7) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft under instrument flight 
rules and conditions;
    (8) Recognition of critical weather situations and windshear 
avoidance;
    (9) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and
    (10) Crew resource management, including crew communication and 
coordination.
    (c) Flight proficiency. A person who applies for an instrument 
rating must receive and log training from an authorized instructor in an 
aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device, in 
accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, that includes the 
following areas of operation:
    (1) Preflight preparation;
    (2) Preflight procedures;
    (3) Air traffic control clearances and procedures;
    (4) Flight by reference to instruments;
    (5) Navigation systems;
    (6) Instrument approach procedures;
    (7) Emergency operations; and
    (8) Postflight procedures.
    (d) Aeronautical experience for the instrument-airplane rating. A 
person who applies for an instrument-airplane rating must have logged:
    (1) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, 50 hours of 
cross-country flight time as pilot in command, of which 10 hours must 
have been in an airplane; and
    (2) Forty hours of actual or simulated instrument time in the areas 
of operation listed in paragraph (c) of this section, of which 15 hours 
must have been received from an authorized instructor who holds an 
instrument-airplane rating, and the instrument time includes:
    (i) Three hours of instrument flight training from an authorized 
instructor in an airplane that is appropriate to the instrument-airplane 
rating within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test; 
and

[[Page 509]]

    (ii) Instrument flight training on cross country flight procedures, 
including one cross country flight in an airplane with an authorized 
instructor, that is performed under instrument flight rules, when a 
flight plan has been filed with an air traffic control facility, and 
that involves--
    (A) A flight of 250 nautical miles along airways or by directed 
routing from an air traffic control facility;
    (B) An instrument approach at each airport; and
    (C) Three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation 
systems.
    (e) Aeronautical experience for the instrument-helicopter rating. A 
person who applies for an instrument-helicopter rating must have logged:
    (1) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, 50 hours of 
cross-country flight time as pilot in command, of which 10 hours must 
have been in a helicopter; and
    (2) Forty hours of actual or simulated instrument time in the areas 
of operation listed under paragraph (c) of this section, of which 15 
hours must have been with an authorized instructor who holds an 
instrument-helicopter rating, and the instrument time includes:
    (i) Three hours of instrument flight training from an authorized 
instructor in a helicopter that is appropriate to the instrument-
helicopter rating within 2 calendar months before the date of the 
practical test; and
    (ii) Instrument flight training on cross country flight procedures, 
including one cross country flight in a helicopter with an authorized 
instructor that is performed under instrument flight rules and a flight 
plan has been filed with an air traffic control facility, and involves--
    (A) A flight of 100 nautical miles along airways or by directed 
routing from an air traffic control facility;
    (B) An instrument approach at each airport; and
    (C) Three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation 
systems.
    (f) Aeronautical experience for the instrument-powered-lift rating. 
A person who applies for an instrument-powered-lift rating must have 
logged:
    (1) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, 50 hours of 
cross-country flight time as pilot in command, of which 10 hours must 
have been in a powered-lift; and
    (2) Forty hours of actual or simulated instrument time in the areas 
of operation listed under paragraph (c) of this section, of which 15 
hours must have been received from an authorized instructor who holds an 
instrument-powered-lift rating, and the instrument time includes:
    (i) Three hours of instrument flight training from an authorized 
instructor in a powered-lift that is appropriate to the instrument-
powered-lift rating within 2 calendar months before the date of the 
practical test; and
    (ii) Instrument flight training on cross country flight procedures, 
including one cross country flight in a powered-lift with an authorized 
instructor that is performed under instrument flight rules, when a 
flight plan has been filed with an air traffic control facility, that 
involves--
    (A) A flight of 250 nautical miles along airways or by directed 
routing from an air traffic control facility;
    (B) An instrument approach at each airport; and
    (C) Three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation 
systems.
    (g) An applicant for a combined private pilot certificate with an 
instrument rating may satisfy the cross-country flight time requirements 
of this section by crediting:
    (1) For an instrument-airplane rating or an instrument-powered-lift 
rating, up to 45 hours of cross-country flight time performing the 
duties of pilot in command with an authorized instructor; or
    (2) For an instrument-helicopter rating, up to 47 hours of cross-
country flight time performing the duties of pilot in command with an 
authorized instructor.
    (h) Use of full flight simulators or flight training devices. If the 
instrument time was provided by an authorized instructor in a full 
flight simulator or flight training device--
    (1) A maximum of 30 hours may be performed in that full flight 
simulator

[[Page 510]]

or flight training device if the instrument time was completed in 
accordance with part 142 of this chapter; or
    (2) A maximum of 20 hours may be performed in that full flight 
simulator or flight training device if the instrument time was not 
completed in accordance with part 142 of this chapter.
    (i) Use of an aviation training device. A maximum of 10 hours of 
instrument time received in a basic aviation training device or a 
maximum of 20 hours of instrument time received in an advanced aviation 
training device may be credited for the instrument time requirements of 
this section if--
    (1) The device is approved and authorized by the FAA;
    (2) An authorized instructor provides the instrument time in the 
device; and
    (3) The FAA approved the instrument training and instrument tasks 
performed in the device.
    (j) Except as provided in paragraph (h)(1) of this section, a person 
may not credit more than 20 total hours of instrument time in a full 
flight simulator, flight training device, aviation training device, or a 
combination towards the instrument time requirements of this section.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42554, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-127, 
76 FR 19267, Apr. 7, 2011; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54106, Aug. 31, 2011; 
Docket FAA-2015-1846, Amdt. 61-136, 81 FR 21460, Apr. 12, 2016]



Sec. 61.66  Enhanced Flight Vision System Pilot Requirements.

    (a) Ground training. (1) Except as provided under paragraphs (f) and 
(h) of this section, no person may manipulate the controls of an 
aircraft or act as pilot in command of an aircraft during an EFVS 
operation conducted under Sec. 91.176(a) or (b) of this chapter, or 
serve as a required pilot flightcrew member during an EFVS operation 
conducted under Sec. 91.176(a) of this chapter, unless that person--
    (i) Receives and logs ground training under a training program 
approved by the Administrator; and
    (ii) Obtains a logbook or training record endorsement from an 
authorized training provider certifying the person satisfactorily 
completed the ground training appropriate to the category of aircraft 
for which the person is seeking the EFVS privilege.
    (2) The ground training must include the following subjects:
    (i) Those portions of this chapter that relate to EFVS flight 
operations and limitations, including the Airplane Flight Manual or 
Rotorcraft Flight Manual limitations;
    (ii) EFVS sensor imagery, required aircraft flight information, and 
flight symbology;
    (iii) EFVS display, controls, modes, features, symbology, 
annunciations, and associated systems and components;
    (iv) EFVS sensor performance, sensor limitations, scene 
interpretation, visual anomalies, and other visual effects;
    (v) Preflight planning and operational considerations associated 
with using EFVS during taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent and landing 
phases of flight, including the use of EFVS for instrument approaches, 
operating below DA/DH or MDA, executing missed approaches, landing, 
rollout, and balked landings;
    (vi) Weather associated with low visibility conditions and its 
effect on EFVS performance;
    (vii) Normal, abnormal, emergency, and crew coordination procedures 
when using EFVS; and
    (viii) Interpretation of approach and runway lighting systems and 
their display characteristics when using an EFVS.
    (b) Flight training. (1) Except as provided under paragraph (h) of 
this section, no person may manipulate the controls of an aircraft or 
act as pilot in command of an aircraft during an EFVS operation under 
Sec. 91.176(a) or (b) of this chapter unless that person--
    (i) Receives and logs flight training for the EFVS operation under a 
training program approved by the Administrator; and
    (ii) Obtains a logbook or training record endorsement from an 
authorized training provider certifying the person is proficient in the 
use of EFVS in the category of aircraft in which the training was 
provided for the EFVS operation to be conducted.
    (2) Flight training must include the following tasks:

[[Page 511]]

    (i) Preflight and inflight preparation of EFVS equipment for EFVS 
operations, including EFVS setup and use of display, controls, modes and 
associated systems, and adjustments for brightness and contrast under 
day and night conditions;
    (ii) Proper piloting techniques associated with using EFVS during 
taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, landing, and rollout, including 
missed approaches and balked landings;
    (iii) Proper piloting techniques for the use of EFVS during 
instrument approaches, to include operations below DA/DH or MDA as 
applicable to the EFVS operations to be conducted, under both day and 
night conditions;
    (iv) Determining enhanced flight visibility;
    (v) Identifying required visual references appropriate to EFVS 
operations;
    (vi) Transitioning from EFVS sensor imagery to natural vision 
acquisition of required visual references and the runway environment;
    (vii) Using EFVS sensor imagery, required aircraft flight 
information, and flight symbology to touchdown and rollout, if the 
person receiving training will conduct EFVS operations under Sec. 
91.176(a) of this chapter; and
    (viii) Normal, abnormal, emergency, and crew coordination procedures 
when using an EFVS.
    (c) Supplementary EFVS training. A person qualified to conduct an 
EFVS operation under Sec. 91.176(a) or (b) of this chapter who seeks to 
conduct an additional EFVS operation for which that person has not 
received training must--
    (1) Receive and log the ground and flight training required by 
paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, under a training program 
approved by the Administrator, appropriate to the additional EFVS 
operation to be conducted; and
    (2) Obtain a logbook or training record endorsement from the 
authorized training provider certifying the person is proficient in the 
use of EFVS in the category of aircraft in which the training was 
provided for the EFVS operation to be conducted.
    (d) Recent flight experience: EFVS. Except as provided in paragraphs 
(f) and (h) of this section, no person may manipulate the controls of an 
aircraft during an EFVS operation or act as pilot in command of an 
aircraft during an EFVS operation unless, within 6 calendar months 
preceding the month of the flight, that person performs and logs six 
instrument approaches as the sole manipulator of the controls using an 
EFVS under any weather conditions in the category of aircraft for which 
the person seeks the EFVS privilege. The instrument approaches may be 
performed in day or night conditions; and
    (1) One approach must terminate in a full stop landing; and
    (2) For persons authorized to exercise the privileges of Sec. 
91.176(a), the full stop landing must be conducted using the EFVS.
    (e) EFVS refresher training. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (h) 
of this section, a person who has failed to meet the recent flight 
experience requirements of paragraph (d) of this section for more than 
six calendar months may reestablish EFVS currency only by satisfactorily 
completing an approved EFVS refresher course in the category of aircraft 
for which the person seeks the EFVS privilege. The EFVS refresher course 
must consist of the subjects and tasks listed in paragraphs (a)(2) and 
(b)(2) of this section applicable to the EFVS operations to be 
conducted.
    (2) The EFVS refresher course must be conducted by an authorized 
training provider whose instructor meets the training requirements of 
this section and, if conducting EFVS operations in an aircraft, the 
recent flight experience requirements of this section.
    (f) Military pilots and former military pilots in the U.S. Armed 
Forces. (1) The training requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this 
section applicable to EFVS operations conducted under Sec. 91.176(a) of 
this chapter do not apply to a military pilot or former military pilot 
in the U.S. Armed Forces if that person documents satisfactory 
completion of ground and flight training in EFVS operations to touchdown 
and rollout by the U.S. Armed Forces.
    (2) The training requirements in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this 
section

[[Page 512]]

applicable to EFVS operations conducted under Sec. 91.176(b) of this 
chapter do not apply to a military pilot or former military pilot in the 
U.S. Armed Forces if that person documents satisfactory completion of 
ground and flight training in EFVS operations to 100 feet above the 
touchdown zone elevation by the U.S. Armed Forces.
    (3) A military pilot or former military pilot in the U.S. Armed 
Forces may satisfy the recent flight experience requirements of 
paragraph (d) of this section if he or she documents satisfactory 
completion of an EFVS proficiency check in the U.S. Armed Forces within 
6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, the check was 
conducted by a person authorized by the U.S. Armed Forces to administer 
the check, and the person receiving the check was a member of the U.S. 
Armed Forces at the time the check was administered.
    (g) Use of full flight simulators. A level C or higher full flight 
simulator (FFS) equipped with an EFVS may be used to meet the flight 
training, recent flight experience, and refresher training requirements 
of this section. The FFS must be evaluated and qualified for EFVS 
operations by the Administrator, and must be:
    (1) Qualified and maintained in accordance with part 60 of this 
chapter, or a previously qualified device, as permitted in accordance 
with Sec. 60.17 of this chapter;
    (2) Approved by the Administrator for the tasks and maneuvers to be 
conducted; and
    (3) Equipped with a daylight visual display if being used to meet 
the flight training requirements of this section.
    (h) Exceptions. (1) A person may manipulate the controls of an 
aircraft during an EFVS operation without meeting the requirements of 
this section in the following circumstances:
    (i) When receiving flight training to meet the requirements of this 
section under an approved training program, provided the instructor 
meets the requirements in this section to perform the EFVS operation in 
the category of aircraft for which the training is being conducted.
    (ii) During an EFVS operation performed in the course of satisfying 
the recent flight experience requirements of paragraph (d) of this 
section, provided another individual is serving as pilot in command of 
the aircraft during the EFVS operation and that individual meets the 
requirements in this section to perform the EFVS operation in the 
category of aircraft in which the flight is being conducted.
    (iii) During an EFVS operation performed in the course of completing 
EFVS refresher training in accordance with paragraph (e) of this 
section, provided the instructor providing the refresher training meets 
the requirements in this section to perform the EFVS operation in the 
category of aircraft for which the training is being conducted.
    (2) The requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do 
not apply if a person is conducting a flight or series of flights in an 
aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under Sec. 
21.191 of this chapter for the purpose of research and development or 
showing compliance with regulations, provided the person has knowledge 
of the subjects specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and has 
experience with the tasks specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section 
applicable to the EFVS operations to be conducted.
    (3) The requirements specified in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this 
section do not apply to a pilot who:
    (i) Is employed by a part 119 certificate holder authorized to 
conduct operations under part 121, 125, or 135 when the pilot is 
conducting an EFVS operation for that certificate holder under part 91, 
121, 125, or 135, as applicable, provided the pilot conducts the 
operation in accordance with the certificate holder's operations 
specifications for EFVS operations;
    (ii) Is employed by a person who holds a letter of deviation 
authority issued under Sec. 125.3 of this chapter when the pilot is 
conducting an EFVS operation for that person under part 125, provided 
the pilot is conducting the operation in accordance with that person's 
letter of authorization for EFVS operations; or
    (iii) Is employed by a fractional ownership program manager to 
conduct operations under part 91 subpart K when

[[Page 513]]

the pilot is conducting an EFVS operation for that program manager under 
part 91, provided the pilot is conducting the operation in accordance 
with the program manager's management specifications for EFVS 
operations.
    (4) The requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do 
not apply if a person is conducting EFVS operations under Sec. 
91.176(b) of this chapter and that person documents that prior to March 
13, 2018, that person satisfactorily completed ground and flight 
training on EFVS operations to 100 feet above the touchdown zone 
elevation.

[Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 61-139, 81 FR 90170, Dec. 13, 2016, as 
amended by Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 61-139, 81 FR 90172, Dec. 13, 
2016]



Sec. 61.67  Category II pilot authorization requirements.

    (a) General. A person who applies for a Category II pilot 
authorization must hold:
    (1) At least a private or commercial pilot certificate with an 
instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate;
    (2) A type rating for the aircraft for which the authorization is 
sought if that aircraft requires a type rating; and
    (3) A category and class rating for the aircraft for which the 
authorization is sought.
    (b) Experience requirements. An applicant for a Category II pilot 
authorization must have at least--
    (1) 50 hours of night flight time as pilot in command.
    (2) 75 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated instrument 
conditions that may include not more than--
    (i) A combination of 25 hours of simulated instrument flight time in 
a flight simulator or flight training device; or
    (ii) 40 hours of simulated instrument flight time if accomplished in 
an approved course conducted by an appropriately rated training center 
certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (3) 250 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command.
    (c) Practical test requirements. (1) A practical test must be passed 
by a person who applies for--
    (i) Issuance or renewal of a Category II pilot authorization; and
    (ii) The addition of another type aircraft to the applicant's 
Category II pilot authorization.
    (2) To be eligible for the practical test for an authorization under 
this section, an applicant must--
    (i) Meet the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; 
and
    (ii) If the applicant has not passed a practical test for this 
authorization during the 12 calendar months preceding the month of the 
test, then that person must--
    (A) Meet the requirements of Sec. 61.57(c); and
    (B) Have performed at least six ILS approaches during the 6 calendar 
months preceding the month of the test, of which at least three of the 
approaches must have been conducted without the use of an approach 
coupler.
    (3) The approaches specified in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this 
section--
    (i) Must be conducted under actual or simulated instrument flight 
conditions;
    (ii) Must be conducted to the decision height for the ILS approach 
in the type aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted;
    (iii) Need not be conducted to the decision height authorized for 
Category II operations;
    (iv) Must be conducted to the decision height authorized for 
Category II operations only if conducted in a flight simulator or flight 
training device; and
    (v) Must be accomplished in an aircraft of the same category and 
class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the practical 
test is to be conducted or in a flight simulator that--
    (A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, 
as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; and
    (B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a 
training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (4) The flight time acquired in meeting the requirements of 
paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section may be used to meet the 
requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.

[[Page 514]]

    (d) Practical test procedures. The practical test consists of an 
oral increment and a flight increment.
    (1) Oral increment. In the oral increment of the practical test an 
applicant must demonstrate knowledge of the following:
    (i) Required landing distance;
    (ii) Recognition of the decision height;
    (iii) Missed approach procedures and techniques using computed or 
fixed attitude guidance displays;
    (iv) Use and limitations of RVR;
    (v) Use of visual clues, their availability or limitations, and 
altitude at which they are normally discernible at reduced RVR readings;
    (vi) Procedures and techniques related to transition from nonvisual 
to visual flight during a final approach under reduced RVR;
    (vii) Effects of vertical and horizontal windshear;
    (viii) Characteristics and limitations of the ILS and runway 
lighting system;
    (ix) Characteristics and limitations of the flight director system, 
auto approach coupler (including split axis type if equipped), auto 
throttle system (if equipped), and other required Category II equipment;
    (x) Assigned duties of the second in command during Category II 
approaches, unless the aircraft for which authorization is sought does 
not require a second in command; and
    (xi) Instrument and equipment failure warning systems.
    (2) Flight increment. The following requirements apply to the flight 
increment of the practical test:
    (i) The flight increment must be conducted in an aircraft of the 
same category, class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which 
the authorization is sought or in a flight simulator that--
    (A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, 
as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; and
    (B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a 
training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (ii) The flight increment must consist of at least two ILS 
approaches to 100 feet AGL including at least one landing and one missed 
approach.
    (iii) All approaches performed during the flight increment must be 
made with the use of an approved flight control guidance system, except 
if an approved auto approach coupler is installed, at least one approach 
must be hand flown using flight director commands.
    (iv) If a multiengine airplane with the performance capability to 
execute a missed approach with one engine inoperative is used for the 
practical test, the flight increment must include the performance of one 
missed approach with an engine, which shall be the most critical engine, 
if applicable, set at idle or zero thrust before reaching the middle 
marker.
    (v) If a multiengine flight simulator or multiengine flight training 
device is used for the practical test, the applicant must execute a 
missed approach with the most critical engine, if applicable, failed.
    (vi) For an authorization for an aircraft that requires a type 
rating, the practical test must be performed in coordination with a 
second in command who holds a type rating in the aircraft in which the 
authorization is sought.
    (vii) Oral questioning may be conducted at any time during a 
practical test.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.68  Category III pilot authorization requirements.

    (a) General. A person who applies for a Category III pilot 
authorization must hold:
    (1) At least a private pilot certificate or commercial pilot 
certificate with an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot 
certificate;
    (2) A type rating for the aircraft for which the authorization is 
sought if that aircraft requires a type rating; and
    (3) A category and class rating for the aircraft for which the 
authorization is sought.
    (b) Experience requirements. An applicant for a Category III pilot 
authorization must have at least--
    (1) 50 hours of night flight time as pilot in command.

[[Page 515]]

    (2) 75 hours of instrument flight time during actual or simulated 
instrument conditions that may include not more than--
    (i) A combination of 25 hours of simulated instrument flight time in 
a flight simulator or flight training device; or
    (ii) 40 hours of simulated instrument flight time if accomplished in 
an approved course conducted by an appropriately rated training center 
certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (3) 250 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command.
    (c) Practical test requirements. (1) A practical test must be passed 
by a person who applies for--
    (i) Issuance or renewal of a Category III pilot authorization; and
    (ii) The addition of another type of aircraft to the applicant's 
Category III pilot authorization.
    (2) To be eligible for the practical test for an authorization under 
this section, an applicant must--
    (i) Meet the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; 
and
    (ii) If the applicant has not passed a practical test for this 
authorization during the 12 calendar months preceding the month of the 
test, then that person must--
    (A) Meet the requirements of Sec. 61.57(c); and
    (B) Have performed at least six ILS approaches during the 6 calendar 
months preceding the month of the test, of which at least three of the 
approaches must have been conducted without the use of an approach 
coupler.
    (3) The approaches specified in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this 
section--
    (i) Must be conducted under actual or simulated instrument flight 
conditions;
    (ii) Must be conducted to the alert height or decision height for 
the ILS approach in the type aircraft in which the practical test is to 
be conducted;
    (iii) Need not be conducted to the decision height authorized for 
Category III operations;
    (iv) Must be conducted to the alert height or decision height, as 
applicable, authorized for Category III operations only if conducted in 
a flight simulator or flight training device; and
    (v) Must be accomplished in an aircraft of the same category and 
class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the practical 
test is to be conducted or in a flight simulator that--
    (A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, 
as applicable, as the aircraft for which the authorization is sought; 
and
    (B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a 
training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (4) The flight time acquired in meeting the requirements of 
paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section may be used to meet the 
requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.
    (d) Practical test procedures. The practical test consists of an 
oral increment and a flight increment.
    (1) Oral increment. In the oral increment of the practical test an 
applicant must demonstrate knowledge of the following:
    (i) Required landing distance;
    (ii) Determination and recognition of the alert height or decision 
height, as applicable, including use of a radar altimeter;
    (iii) Recognition of and proper reaction to significant failures 
encountered prior to and after reaching the alert height or decision 
height, as applicable;
    (iv) Missed approach procedures and techniques using computed or 
fixed attitude guidance displays and expected height loss as they relate 
to manual go-around or automatic go-around, and initiation altitude, as 
applicable;
    (v) Use and limitations of RVR, including determination of 
controlling RVR and required transmissometers;
    (vi) Use, availability, or limitations of visual cues and the 
altitude at which they are normally discernible at reduced RVR readings 
including--
    (A) Unexpected deterioration of conditions to less than minimum RVR 
during approach, flare, and rollout;
    (B) Demonstration of expected visual references with weather at 
minimum conditions;
    (C) The expected sequence of visual cues during an approach in which 
visibility is at or above landing minima; and
    (D) Procedures and techniques for making a transition from 
instrument

[[Page 516]]

reference flight to visual flight during a final approach under reduced 
RVR.
    (vii) Effects of vertical and horizontal windshear;
    (viii) Characteristics and limitations of the ILS and runway 
lighting system;
    (ix) Characteristics and limitations of the flight director system 
auto approach coupler (including split axis type if equipped), auto 
throttle system (if equipped), and other Category III equipment;
    (x) Assigned duties of the second in command during Category III 
operations, unless the aircraft for which authorization is sought does 
not require a second in command;
    (xi) Recognition of the limits of acceptable aircraft position and 
flight path tracking during approach, flare, and, if applicable, 
rollout; and
    (xii) Recognition of, and reaction to, airborne or ground system 
faults or abnormalities, particularly after passing alert height or 
decision height, as applicable.
    (2) Flight increment. The following requirements apply to the flight 
increment of the practical test--
    (i) The flight increment may be conducted in an aircraft of the same 
category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft for which 
the authorization is sought, or in a flight simulator that--
    (A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, 
as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; and
    (B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a 
training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (ii) The flight increment must consist of at least two ILS 
approaches to 100 feet AGL, including one landing and one missed 
approach initiated from a very low altitude that may result in a 
touchdown during the go-around maneuver;
    (iii) All approaches performed during the flight increment must be 
made with the approved automatic landing system or an equivalent landing 
system approved by the Administrator;
    (iv) If a multiengine aircraft with the performance capability to 
execute a missed approach with one engine inoperative is used for the 
practical test, the flight increment must include the performance of one 
missed approach with the most critical engine, if applicable, set at 
idle or zero thrust before reaching the middle or outer marker;
    (v) If a multiengine flight simulator or multiengine flight training 
device is used, a missed approach must be executed with an engine, which 
shall be the most critical engine, if applicable, failed;
    (vi) For an authorization for an aircraft that requires a type 
rating, the practical test must be performed in coordination with a 
second in command who holds a type rating in the aircraft in which the 
authorization is sought;
    (vii) Oral questioning may be conducted at any time during the 
practical test;
    (viii) Subject to the limitations of this paragraph, for Category 
IIIb operations predicated on the use of a fail-passive rollout control 
system, at least one manual rollout using visual reference or a 
combination of visual and instrument references must be executed. The 
maneuver required by this paragraph shall be initiated by a fail-passive 
disconnect of the rollout control system--
    (A) After main gear touchdown;
    (B) Prior to nose gear touchdown;
    (C) In conditions representative of the most adverse lateral 
touchdown displacement allowing a safe landing on the runway; and
    (D) In weather conditions anticipated in Category IIIb operations.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.69  Glider and unpowered ultralight vehicle towing: Experience and training requirements.

    (a) No person may act as pilot in command for towing a glider or 
unpowered ultralight vehicle unless that person--
    (1) Holds a private, commercial or airline transport pilot 
certificate with a category rating for powered aircraft;
    (2) Has logged at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the 
aircraft category, class and type, if required, that the pilot is using 
to tow a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle;
    (3) Has a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who 
certifies

[[Page 517]]

that the person has received ground and flight training in gliders or 
unpowered ultralight vehicles and is proficient in--
    (i) The techniques and procedures essential to the safe towing of 
gliders or unpowered ultralight vehicles, including airspeed 
limitations;
    (ii) Emergency procedures;
    (iii) Signals used; and
    (iv) Maximum angles of bank.
    (4) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, has logged 
at least three flights as the sole manipulator of the controls of an 
aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle, or has 
simulated towing flight procedures in an aircraft while accompanied by a 
pilot who meets the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this 
section.
    (5) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, has 
received a logbook endorsement from the pilot, described in paragraph 
(a)(4) of this section, certifying that the person has accomplished at 
least 3 flights in an aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered 
ultralight vehicle, or while simulating towing flight procedures; and
    (6) Within 24 calendar months before the flight has--
    (i) Made at least three actual or simulated tows of a glider or 
unpowered ultralight vehicle while accompanied by a qualified pilot who 
meets the requirements of this section; or
    (ii) Made at least three flights as pilot in command of a glider or 
unpowered ultralight vehicle towed by an aircraft.
    (b) Any person who, before May 17, 1967, has made and logged 10 or 
more flights as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider or 
unpowered ultralight vehicle in accordance with a certificate of waiver 
need not comply with paragraphs (a)(4) and (a)(5) of this section.
    (c) The pilot, described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, who 
endorses the logbook of a person seeking towing privileges must have--
    (1) Met the requirements of this section prior to endorsing the 
logbook of the person seeking towing privileges; and
    (2) Logged at least 10 flights as pilot in command of an aircraft 
while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle.
    (d) If the pilot described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section holds 
only a private pilot certificate, then that pilot must have--
    (1) Logged at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in airplanes, 
or 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in a combination of powered and 
other-than-powered aircraft; and
    (2) Performed and logged at least three flights within the 12 
calendar months preceding the month that pilot accompanies or endorses 
the logbook of a person seeking towing privileges--
    (i) In an aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight 
vehicle accompanied by another pilot who meets the requirements of this 
section; or
    (ii) As pilot in command of a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle 
being towed by another aircraft.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44866, July 27, 2004, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42555, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.71  Graduates of an approved training program other than under this part: Special rules.

    (a) A person who graduates from an approved training program under 
part 141 or part 142 of this chapter is considered to have met the 
applicable aeronautical experience, aeronautical knowledge, and areas of 
operation requirements of this part if that person presents the 
graduation certificate and passes the required practical test within the 
60-day period after the date of graduation.
    (b) A person may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate, 
type rating, or both under this part, and will be considered to have met 
the applicable requirements under Sec. 61.157, except for the airline 
transport pilot certification training program required by Sec. 61.156, 
for that certificate and rating, if that person has:
    (1) Satisfactorily accomplished an approved training curriculum and 
a proficiency check for that airplane type that includes all the tasks 
and maneuvers required by Sec. Sec. 121.424 and 121.441 of this chapter 
to serve as pilot

[[Page 518]]

in command in operations conducted under part 121 of this chapter; and
    (2) Applied for an airline transport pilot certificate, type rating, 
or both within the 60-day period from the date the person satisfactorily 
accomplished the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) for that airplane 
type.
    (c) A person who holds a foreign pilot license and is applying for 
an equivalent U.S. pilot certificate on the basis of a Bilateral 
Aviation Safety Agreement and associated Implementation Procedures for 
Licensing may be considered to have met the applicable aeronautical 
experience, aeronautical knowledge, and areas of operation requirements 
of this part.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40901, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54107, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-130, 
78 FR 42374, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-144, 85 FR 10920, Feb. 25, 2020]



Sec. 61.73  Military pilots or former military pilots: Special rules.

    (a) General. Except for a person who has been removed from flying 
status for lack of proficiency or because of a disciplinary action 
involving aircraft operations, a U.S. military pilot or former military 
pilot who meets the requirements of this section may apply, on the basis 
of his or her military pilot qualifications, for:
    (1) A commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate aircraft 
category and class rating.
    (2) An instrument rating with the appropriate aircraft rating.
    (3) A type rating.
    (b) Military pilots and former military pilots in the U.S. Armed 
Forces. A person who qualifies as a military pilot or former military 
pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces may apply for a pilot certificate and 
ratings under paragraph (a) of this section if that person--
    (1) Presents evidentiary documents described under paragraphs 
(h)(1), (2), and (3) of this section that show the person's status in 
the U.S. Armed Forces.
    (2) Has passed the military competency aeronautical knowledge test 
on the appropriate parts of this chapter for commercial pilot privileges 
and limitations, air traffic and general operating rules, and accident 
reporting rules.
    (3) Presents official U.S. military records that show compliance 
with one of the following requirements--
    (i) Before the date of the application, passing an official U.S. 
military pilot and instrument proficiency check in a military aircraft 
of the kind of aircraft category, class, and type, if class or type of 
aircraft is applicable, for the ratings sought; or
    (ii) Before the date of application, logging 10 hours of pilot time 
as a military pilot in a U.S. military aircraft in the kind of aircraft 
category, class, and type, if a class rating or type rating is 
applicable, for the aircraft rating sought.
    (c) A military pilot in the Armed Forces of a foreign contracting 
State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation. A person who is 
a military pilot in the Armed Forces of a foreign contracting State to 
the Convention on International Civil Aviation and is assigned to pilot 
duties in the U.S. Armed Forces, for purposes other than receiving 
flight training, may apply for a commercial pilot certificate and 
ratings under paragraph (a) of this section, provided that person--
    (1) Presents evidentiary documents described under paragraph (h)(4) 
of this section that show the person is a military pilot in the Armed 
Forces of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International 
Civil Aviation, and is assigned to pilot duties in the U.S. Armed 
Forces, for purposes other than receiving flight training.
    (2) Has passed the military competency aeronautical knowledge test 
on the appropriate parts of this chapter for commercial pilot privileges 
and limitations, air traffic and general operating rules, and accident 
reporting rules.
    (3) Presents official U.S. military records that show compliance 
with one of the following requirements:
    (i) Before the date of the application, passed an official U.S. 
military pilot and instrument proficiency check in a military aircraft 
of the kind of aircraft category, class, or type, if class or type of 
aircraft is applicable, for the ratings; or

[[Page 519]]

    (ii) Before the date of the application, logged 10 hours of pilot 
time as a military pilot in a U.S. military aircraft of the kind of 
category, class, and type of aircraft, if a class rating or type rating 
is applicable, for the aircraft rating.
    (d) Instrument rating. A person who is qualified as a U.S. military 
pilot or former military pilot may apply for an instrument rating to be 
added to a pilot certificate if that person--
    (1) Has passed an instrument proficiency check in the U.S. Armed 
Forces in the aircraft category for the instrument rating sought; and
    (2) Has an official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person 
is instrument pilot qualified by the U.S. Armed Forces to conduct 
instrument flying on Federal airways in that aircraft category and class 
for the instrument rating sought.
    (e) Aircraft type rating. An aircraft type rating may only be issued 
for a type of aircraft that has a comparable civilian type designation 
by the Administrator.
    (f) Aircraft type rating placed on an airline transport pilot 
certificate. A person who is a military pilot or former military pilot 
of the U.S. Armed Forces and requests an aircraft type rating to be 
placed on an existing U.S. airline transport pilot certificate may be 
issued the rating at the airline transport pilot certification level, 
provided that person:
    (1) Holds a category and class rating for that type of aircraft at 
the airline transport pilot certification level; and
    (2) Has passed an official U.S. military pilot check and instrument 
proficiency check in that type of aircraft.
    (g) Flight instructor certificate and ratings. A person who can show 
official U.S. military documentation of being a U.S. military instructor 
pilot or U.S. military pilot examiner, or a former instructor pilot or 
pilot examiner may apply for and be issued a flight instructor 
certificate with the appropriate ratings if that person:
    (1) Holds a commercial or airline transport pilot certificate with 
the appropriate aircraft category and class rating, if a class rating is 
appropriate, for the flight instructor rating sought;
    (2) Holds an instrument rating, or has instrument privileges, on the 
pilot certificate that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating 
sought; and
    (3) Presents the following documents:
    (i) A knowledge test report that shows the person passed a knowledge 
test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed under Sec. 61.185(a) 
appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought and the knowledge 
test was passed within the preceding 24 calendar months prior to the 
month of application. If the U.S. military instructor pilot or pilot 
examiner already holds a flight instructor certificate, holding of a 
flight instructor certificate suffices for the knowledge test report.
    (ii) An official U.S. Armed Forces record or order that shows the 
person is or was qualified as a U.S. Armed Forces military instructor 
pilot or pilot examiner for the flight instructor rating sought.
    (iii) An official U.S. Armed Forces record or order that shows the 
person completed a U.S. Armed Forces' instructor pilot or pilot examiner 
training course and received an aircraft rating qualification as a 
military instructor pilot or pilot examiner that is appropriate to the 
flight instructor rating sought.
    (iv) An official U.S. Armed Forces record or order that shows the 
person passed a U.S. Armed Forces instructor pilot or pilot examiner 
proficiency check in an aircraft as a military instructor pilot or pilot 
examiner that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought.
    (h) Documents for qualifying for a pilot certificate and rating. The 
following documents are required for a person to apply for a pilot 
certificate and rating:
    (1) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person is or 
was a military pilot.
    (2) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person 
graduated from a U.S. Armed Forces undergraduate pilot training school 
and received a rating qualification as a military pilot.
    (3) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the pilot passed 
a pilot proficiency check and instrument proficiency check in an 
aircraft as a military pilot.

[[Page 520]]

    (4) If a person is a military pilot in the Armed Forces from a 
foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil 
Aviation and is applying for a pilot certificate and rating, that person 
must present the following:
    (i) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person is a 
military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces;
    (ii) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person is 
assigned as a military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces for purposes other 
than receiving flight training;
    (iii) An official record that shows the person graduated from a 
military undergraduate pilot training school from the Armed Forces from 
a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil 
Aviation or from the U.S. Armed Forces, and received a qualification as 
a military pilot; and
    (iv) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows that the person 
passed a pilot proficiency check and instrument proficiency check in an 
aircraft as a military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces.

[Doc. No. FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42555, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.75  Private pilot certificate issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license.

    (a) General. A person who holds a foreign pilot license at the 
private pilot level or higher that was issued by a contracting State to 
the Convention on International Civil Aviation may apply for and be 
issued a U.S. private pilot certificate with the appropriate ratings if 
the foreign pilot license meets the requirements of this section.
    (b) Certificate issued. A U.S. private pilot certificate issued 
under this section must specify the person's foreign license number and 
country of issuance. A person who holds a foreign pilot license issued 
by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation 
may be issued a U.S. private pilot certificate based on the foreign 
pilot license without any further showing of proficiency, provided the 
applicant:
    (1) Meets the requirements of this section;
    (2) Holds a foreign pilot license, at the private pilot license 
level or higher, that does not contain a limitation stating that the 
applicant has not met all of the standards of ICAO for that license;
    (3) Does not hold a U.S. pilot certificate other than a U.S. student 
pilot certificate;
    (4) Holds a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter 
or a medical license issued by the country that issued the person's 
foreign pilot license; and
    (5) Is able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for 
the safe operation of the aircraft.
    (c) Aircraft ratings issued. Aircraft ratings listed on a person's 
foreign pilot license, in addition to any issued after testing under the 
provisions of this part, may be placed on that person's U.S. pilot 
certificate for private pilot privileges only.
    (d) Instrument ratings issued. A person who holds an instrument 
rating on the foreign pilot license issued by a contracting State to the 
Convention on International Civil Aviation may be issued an instrument 
rating on a U.S. pilot certificate provided:
    (1) The person's foreign pilot license authorizes instrument 
privileges;
    (2) Within 24 months preceding the month in which the person applies 
for the instrument rating, the person passes the appropriate knowledge 
test; and
    (3) The person is able to read, speak, write, and understand the 
English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these 
requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place 
such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are 
necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft.
    (e) Operating privileges and limitations. A person who receives a 
U.S. private pilot certificate that has been issued under the provisions 
of this section:
    (1) May act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft of the United 
States in

[[Page 521]]

accordance with the pilot privileges authorized by this part and the 
limitations placed on that U.S. pilot certificate;
    (2) Is limited to the privileges placed on the certificate by the 
Administrator;
    (3) Is subject to the limitations and restrictions on the person's 
U.S. certificate and foreign pilot license when exercising the 
privileges of that U.S. pilot certificate in an aircraft of U.S. 
registry operating within or outside the United States; and
    (f) Limitation on licenses used as the basis for a U.S. certificate. 
A person may use only one foreign pilot license as a basis for the 
issuance of a U.S. pilot certificate. The foreign pilot license and 
medical certification used as a basis for issuing a U.S. pilot 
certificate under this section must be written in English or accompanied 
by an English transcription that has been signed by an official or 
representative of the foreign aviation authority that issued the foreign 
pilot license.
    (g) Limitation placed on a U.S. pilot certificate. A U.S. pilot 
certificate issued under this section can only be exercised when the 
pilot has the foreign pilot license, upon which the issuance of the U.S. 
pilot certificate was based, in the holder's possession or readily 
accessible in the aircraft.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 
74 FR 42556, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.77  Special purpose pilot authorization: Operation of a
civil aircraft of the United States and leased by a non-U.S. citizen.

    (a) General. The holder of a foreign pilot license issued by a 
contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation who 
meets the requirements of this section may be issued a special purpose 
pilot authorization by the Administrator for the purpose of performing 
pilot duties--
    (1) On a civil aircraft of U.S. registry that is leased to a person 
who is not a citizen of the United States, and
    (2) For carrying persons or property for compensation or hire for 
operations in--
    (i) Scheduled international air services in turbojet-powered 
airplanes of U.S. registry;
    (ii) Scheduled international air services in airplanes of U.S. 
registry having a configuration of more than nine passenger seats, 
excluding crewmember seats;
    (iii) Nonscheduled international air transportation in airplanes of 
U.S. registry having a configuration of more than 30 passenger seats, 
excluding crewmember seats; or
    (iv) Scheduled international air services, or nonscheduled 
international air transportation, in airplanes of U.S. registry having a 
payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds.
    (b) Eligibility. To be eligible for the issuance or renewal of a 
special purpose pilot authorization, an applicant must present the 
following to a Flight Standards office:
    (1) A foreign pilot license issued by the aeronautical authority of 
a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation 
that contains the appropriate aircraft category, class, type rating, if 
appropriate, and instrument rating for the aircraft to be flown;
    (2) A certification by the lessee of the aircraft--
    (i) Stating that the applicant is employed by the lessee;
    (ii) Specifying the aircraft type on which the applicant will 
perform pilot duties; and
    (iii) Stating that the applicant has received ground and flight 
instruction that qualifies the applicant to perform the duties to be 
assigned on the aircraft.
    (3) Documentation showing when the applicant will reach the age of 
65 years (an official copy of the applicant's birth certificate or other 
official documentation);
    (4) Documentation the applicant meets the medical standards for the 
issuance of the foreign pilot license from the aeronautical authority of 
that contracting State to the Convention on International Civil 
Aviation; and
    (5) A statement that the applicant does not already hold a special 
purpose pilot authorization; however, if the applicant already holds a 
special purpose

[[Page 522]]

pilot authorization, then that special purpose pilot authorization must 
be surrendered to either the Flight Standards office that issued it, or 
the Flight Standards office processing the application for the 
authorization, prior to being issued another special purpose pilot 
authorization.
    (c) Privileges. A person issued a special purpose pilot 
authorization under this section--
    (1) May exercise the privileges prescribed on the special purpose 
pilot authorization; and
    (2) Must comply with the limitations specified in this section and 
any additional limitations specified on the special purpose pilot 
authorization.
    (d) General limitations. A special purpose pilot authorization may 
be used only--
    (1) For flights between foreign countries or for flights in foreign 
air commerce within the time period allotted on the authorization.
    (2) If the foreign pilot license required by paragraph (b)(1) of 
this section, the medical documentation required by paragraph (b)(4) of 
this section, and the special purpose pilot authorization issued under 
this section are in the holder's physical possession or immediately 
accessible in the aircraft.
    (3) While the holder is employed by the person to whom the aircraft 
described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this 
section is leased.
    (4) While the holder is performing pilot duties on the U.S.-
registered aircraft described in the certification required by paragraph 
(b)(2) of this section.
    (5) If the holder has only one special purpose pilot authorization 
as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
    (e) Age limitation. No person who holds a special purpose pilot 
authorization issued under this part may serve as a pilot on a civil 
airplane of U.S. registry in the following operations if the person has 
reached his or her 60th birthday or, in the case of operations with more 
than one pilot, his or her 65th birthday:
    (1) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in 
turbojet-powered airplanes;
    (2) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in 
airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than nine 
passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat;
    (3) Nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation 
or hire in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than 
30 passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat; or
    (4) Scheduled international air services, or nonscheduled 
international air transportation for compensation or hire, in airplanes 
having a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds.
    (f) Definitions. (1) International air service, as used in paragraph 
(e) of this section, means scheduled air service performed in airplanes 
for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the 
service passes through the air space over the territory of more than one 
country.
    (2) International air transportation, as used in paragraph (e) of 
this section, means air transportation performed in airplanes for the 
public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which service passes 
through the air space over the territory of more than one country.
    (g) Expiration date. Each special purpose pilot authorization issued 
under this section expires--
    (1) 60 calendar months from the month it was issued, unless sooner 
suspended or revoked;
    (2) When the lease agreement for the aircraft expires or the lessee 
terminates the employment of the person who holds the special purpose 
pilot authorization;
    (3) Whenever the person's foreign pilot license has been suspended, 
revoked, or is no longer valid; or
    (4) When the person no longer meets the medical standards for the 
issuance of the foreign pilot license.
    (h) Renewal. A person exercising the privileges of a special purpose 
pilot authorization may apply for a 60-calendar-month extension of that 
authorization, provided the person--
    (1) Continues to meet the requirements of this section; and
    (2) Surrenders the expired special purpose pilot authorization upon 
receipt of the new authorization.

[[Page 523]]

    (i) Surrender. The holder of a special purpose pilot authorization 
must surrender the authorization to the Administrator within 7 days 
after the date the authorization terminates.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40901, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-123, 
74 FR 34234, July 15, 2009; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42557, Aug. 21, 2009; 
Amdt. 61-134, 80 FR 33401, June 12, 2015; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 
61-141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018]



                        Subpart C_Student Pilots



Sec. 61.81  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of student 
pilot certificates, the conditions under which those certificates are 
necessary, and the general operating rules and limitations for the 
holders of those certificates.



Sec. 61.83  Eligibility requirements for student pilots.

    To be eligible for a student pilot certificate, an applicant must:
    (a) Be at least 16 years of age for other than the operation of a 
glider or balloon.
    (b) Be at least 14 years of age for the operation of a glider or 
balloon.
    (c) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for 
the safe operation of the aircraft.



Sec. 61.85  Application.

    An applicant for a student pilot certificate:
    (a) Must make that application in a form acceptable to the 
Administrator; and
    (b) Must submit the application to a Flight Standards office, a 
designated pilot examiner, an airman certification representative 
associated with a pilot school, a flight instructor, or other person 
authorized by the Administrator.

[Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016, as 
amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 61-141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 61.87  Solo requirements for student pilots.

    (a) General. A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo 
flight unless that student has met the requirements of this section. The 
term ``solo flight'' as used in this subpart means that flight time 
during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft or 
that flight time during which the student performs the duties of a pilot 
in command of a gas balloon or an airship requiring more than one pilot 
flight crewmember.
    (b) Aeronautical knowledge. A student pilot must demonstrate 
satisfactory aeronautical knowledge on a knowledge test that meets the 
requirements of this paragraph:
    (1) The test must address the student pilot's knowledge of--
    (i) Applicable sections of parts 61 and 91 of this chapter;
    (ii) Airspace rules and procedures for the airport where the solo 
flight will be performed; and
    (iii) Flight characteristics and operational limitations for the 
make and model of aircraft to be flown.
    (2) The student's authorized instructor must--
    (i) Administer the test; and
    (ii) At the conclusion of the test, review all incorrect answers 
with the student before authorizing that student to conduct a solo 
flight.
    (c) Pre-solo flight training. Prior to conducting a solo flight, a 
student pilot must have:
    (1) Received and logged flight training for the maneuvers and 
procedures of this section that are appropriate to the make and model of 
aircraft to be flown; and
    (2) Demonstrated satisfactory proficiency and safety, as judged by 
an authorized instructor, on the maneuvers and procedures required by 
this section in the make and model of aircraft or similar make and model 
of aircraft to be flown.
    (d) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
single-engine airplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for a 
single-engine airplane rating or privileges must receive and log flight 
training for the following maneuvers and procedures:

[[Page 524]]

    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;
    (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;
    (5) Climbs and climbing turns;
    (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure 
procedures;
    (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance;
    (8) Descents, with and without turns, using high and low drag 
configurations;
    (9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight;
    (10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power 
combinations with recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, 
and recovery from a full stall;
    (11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;
    (12) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (13) Approaches to a landing area with simulated engine 
malfunctions;
    (14) Slips to a landing; and
    (15) Go-arounds.
    (e) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
multiengine airplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for a 
multiengine airplane rating must receive and log flight training for the 
following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;
    (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;
    (5) Climbs and climbing turns;
    (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure 
procedures;
    (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance;
    (8) Descents, with and without turns, using high and low drag 
configurations;
    (9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight;
    (10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power 
combinations with recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, 
and recovery from a full stall;
    (11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;
    (12) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (13) Approaches to a landing area with simulated engine 
malfunctions; and
    (14) Go-arounds.
    (f) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
helicopter. A student pilot who is receiving training for a helicopter 
rating must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers 
and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;
    (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;
    (5) Climbs and climbing turns;
    (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure 
procedures;
    (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance;
    (8) Descents with and without turns;
    (9) Flight at various airspeeds;
    (10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;
    (11) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (12) Approaches to the landing area;
    (13) Hovering and hovering turns;
    (14) Go-arounds;
    (15) Simulated emergency procedures, including autorotational 
descents with a power recovery and power recovery to a hover;
    (16) Rapid decelerations; and
    (17) Simulated one-engine-inoperative approaches and landings for 
multiengine helicopters.
    (g) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
gyroplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for a gyroplane 
rating or privileges must receive and log flight training for the 
following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and

[[Page 525]]

preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;
    (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;
    (5) Climbs and climbing turns;
    (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure 
procedures;
    (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance;
    (8) Descents with and without turns;
    (9) Flight at various airspeeds;
    (10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;
    (11) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (12) Approaches to the landing area;
    (13) High rates of descent with power on and with simulated power 
off, and recovery from those flight configurations;
    (14) Go-arounds; and
    (15) Simulated emergency procedures, including simulated power-off 
landings and simulated power failure during departures.
    (h) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
powered-lift. A student pilot who is receiving training for a powered-
lift rating must receive and log flight training in the following 
maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;
    (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;
    (5) Climbs and climbing turns;
    (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure 
procedures;
    (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance;
    (8) Descents with and without turns;
    (9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight;
    (10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power 
combinations with recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, 
and recovery from a full stall;
    (11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;
    (12) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (13) Approaches to a landing with simulated engine malfunctions;
    (14) Go-arounds;
    (15) Approaches to the landing area;
    (16) Hovering and hovering turns; and
    (17) For multiengine powered-lifts, simulated one-engine-inoperative 
approaches and landings.
    (i) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
glider. A student pilot who is receiving training for a glider rating or 
privileges must receive and log flight training for the following 
maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning, preparation, aircraft systems, and, if appropriate, powerplant 
operations;
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups, if applicable;
    (3) Launches, including normal and crosswind;
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions, if 
applicable;
    (5) Airport traffic patterns, including entry procedures;
    (6) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance;
    (7) Descents with and without turns using high and low drag 
configurations;
    (8) Flight at various airspeeds;
    (9) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;
    (10) Ground reference maneuvers, if applicable;
    (11) Inspection of towline rigging and review of signals and release 
procedures, if applicable;
    (12) Aerotow, ground tow, or self-launch procedures;
    (13) Procedures for disassembly and assembly of the glider;
    (14) Stall entry, stall, and stall recovery;
    (15) Straight glides, turns, and spirals;
    (16) Landings, including normal and crosswind;
    (17) Slips to a landing;
    (18) Procedures and techniques for thermalling; and
    (19) Emergency operations, including towline break procedures.

[[Page 526]]

    (j) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in an 
airship. A student pilot who is receiving training for an airship rating 
or privileges must receive and log flight training for the following 
maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;
    (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;
    (5) Climbs and climbing turns;
    (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure 
procedures;
    (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance;
    (8) Descents with and without turns;
    (9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight;
    (10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;
    (11) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (12) Rigging, ballasting, and controlling pressure in the ballonets, 
and superheating; and
    (13) Landings with positive and with negative static trim.
    (k) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
balloon. A student pilot who is receiving training in a balloon must 
receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and 
procedures:
    (1) Layout and assembly procedures;
    (2) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, and aircraft systems;
    (3) Ascents and descents;
    (4) Landing and recovery procedures;
    (5) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;
    (6) Operation of hot air or gas source, ballast, valves, vents, and 
rip panels, as appropriate;
    (7) Use of deflation valves or rip panels for simulating an 
emergency;
    (8) The effects of wind on climb and approach angles; and
    (9) Obstruction detection and avoidance techniques.
    (l) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
powered parachute. A student pilot who is receiving training for a 
powered parachute rating or privileges must receive and log flight 
training for the following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, preflight assembly and rigging, aircraft 
systems, and powerplant operations.
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including run-ups.
    (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind.
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions.
    (5) Climbs, and climbing turns in both directions.
    (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure 
procedures.
    (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance.
    (8) Descents, and descending turns in both directions.
    (9) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions.
    (10) Ground reference maneuvers.
    (11) Straight glides, and gliding turns in both directions.
    (12) Go-arounds.
    (13) Approaches to landing areas with a simulated engine 
malfunction.
    (14) Procedures for canopy packing and aircraft disassembly.
    (m) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
weight-shift-control aircraft. A student pilot who is receiving training 
for a weight-shift-control aircraft rating or privileges must receive 
and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, preflight assembly and rigging, aircraft 
systems, and powerplant operations.
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including run-ups.
    (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind.
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions.
    (5) Climbs, and climbing turns in both directions.
    (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure 
procedures.
    (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance.

[[Page 527]]

    (8) Descents, and descending turns in both directions.
    (9) Flight at various airspeeds from maximum cruise to slow flight.
    (10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions.
    (11) Ground reference maneuvers.
    (12) Stall entry, stall, and stall recovery.
    (13) Straight glides, and gliding turns in both directions.
    (14) Go-arounds.
    (15) Approaches to landing areas with a simulated engine 
malfunction.
    (16) Procedures for disassembly.
    (n) Limitations on student pilots operating an aircraft in solo 
flight. A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight 
unless that student pilot has received an endorsement in the student's 
logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown by an 
authorized instructor who gave the training within the 90 days preceding 
the date of the flight.
    (o) Limitations on student pilots operating an aircraft in solo 
flight at night. A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo 
flight at night unless that student pilot has received:
    (1) Flight training at night on night flying procedures that 
includes takeoffs, approaches, landings, and go-arounds at night at the 
airport where the solo flight will be conducted;
    (2) Navigation training at night in the vicinity of the airport 
where the solo flight will be conducted; and
    (3) An endorsement in the student's logbook for the specific make 
and model aircraft to be flown for night solo flight by an authorized 
instructor who gave the training within the 90-day period preceding the 
date of the flight.
    (p) Limitations on flight instructors authorizing solo flight. No 
instructor may authorize a student pilot to perform a solo flight unless 
that instructor has--
    (1) Given that student pilot training in the make and model of 
aircraft or a similar make and model of aircraft in which the solo 
flight is to be flown;
    (2) Determined the student pilot is proficient in the maneuvers and 
procedures prescribed in this section;
    (3) Determined the student pilot is proficient in the make and model 
of aircraft to be flown; and
    (4) Endorsed the student pilot's logbook for the specific make and 
model aircraft to be flown, and that endorsement remains current for 
solo flight privileges, provided an authorized instructor updates the 
student's logbook every 90 days thereafter.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44866, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42557, Aug. 21, 2009; 
Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016]



Sec. 61.89  General limitations.

    (a) A student pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft:
    (1) That is carrying a passenger;
    (2) That is carrying property for compensation or hire;
    (3) For compensation or hire;
    (4) In furtherance of a business;
    (5) On an international flight, except that a student pilot may make 
solo training flights from Haines, Gustavus, or Juneau, Alaska, to White 
Horse, Yukon, Canada, and return over the province of British Columbia;
    (6) With a flight or surface visibility of less than 3 statute miles 
during daylight hours or 5 statute miles at night;
    (7) When the flight cannot be made with visual reference to the 
surface; or
    (8) In a manner contrary to any limitations placed in the pilot's 
logbook by an authorized instructor.
    (b) A student pilot may not act as a required pilot flight 
crewmember on any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by 
the type certificate of the aircraft or regulations under which the 
flight is conducted, except when receiving flight training from an 
authorized instructor on board an airship, and no person other than a 
required flight crewmember is carried on the aircraft.
    (c) A student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate must comply 
with the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and may 
not act as pilot in command--
    (1) Of an aircraft other than a light-sport aircraft;
    (2) At night;
    (3) At an altitude of more than 10,000 feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL, 
whichever is higher;

[[Page 528]]

    (4) In Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, 
C, or D airspace, and to, from, through, or on an airport having an 
operational control tower without having received the ground and flight 
training specified in Sec. 61.94 and an endorsement from an authorized 
instructor;
    (5) Of a light-sport aircraft without having received the applicable 
ground training, flight training, and instructor endorsements specified 
in Sec. 61.327 (a) and (b).
    (d) The holder of a student pilot certificate may act as pilot in 
command of an aircraft without holding a medical certificate issued 
under part 67 of this chapter provided the student pilot holds a valid 
U.S. driver's license, meets the requirements of Sec. 61.23(c)(3), and 
the operation is conducted consistent with the requirements of 
paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the conditions of Sec. 
61.113(i). Where the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this 
section conflict with Sec. 61.113(i), a student pilot must comply with 
paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44867, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; 
Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 61-140, 82 FR 3165, Jan. 11, 2017]



Sec. 61.91  [Reserved]



Sec. 61.93  Solo cross-country flight requirements.

    (a) General. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this 
section, a student pilot must meet the requirements of this section 
before--
    (i) Conducting a solo cross-country flight, or any flight greater 
than 25 nautical miles from the airport from where the flight 
originated.
    (ii) Making a solo flight and landing at any location other than the 
airport of origination.
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a student 
pilot who seeks solo cross-country flight privileges must:
    (i) Have received flight training from an instructor authorized to 
provide flight training on the maneuvers and procedures of this section 
that are appropriate to the make and model of aircraft for which solo 
cross-country privileges are sought;
    (ii) Have demonstrated cross-country proficiency on the appropriate 
maneuvers and procedures of this section to an authorized instructor;
    (iii) Have satisfactorily accomplished the pre-solo flight maneuvers 
and procedures required by Sec. 61.87 of this part in the make and 
model of aircraft or similar make and model of aircraft for which solo 
cross-country privileges are sought; and
    (iv) Comply with any limitations included in the authorized 
instructor's endorsement that are required by paragraph (c) of this 
section.
    (3) A student pilot who seeks solo cross-country flight privileges 
must have received ground and flight training from an authorized 
instructor on the cross-country maneuvers and procedures listed in this 
section that are appropriate to the aircraft to be flown.
    (b) Authorization to perform certain solo flights and cross-country 
flights. A student pilot must obtain an endorsement from an authorized 
instructor to make solo flights from the airport where the student pilot 
normally receives training to another location. A student pilot who 
receives this endorsement must comply with the requirements of this 
paragraph.
    (1) Solo flights may be made to another airport that is within 25 
nautical miles from the airport where the student pilot normally 
receives training, provided--
    (i) An authorized instructor has given the student pilot flight 
training at the other airport, and that training includes flight in both 
directions over the route, entering and exiting the traffic pattern, and 
takeoffs and landings at the other airport;
    (ii) The authorized instructor who gave the training endorses the 
student pilot's logbook authorizing the flight;
    (iii) The student pilot has a solo flight endorsement in accordance 
with Sec. 61.87 of this part;
    (iv) The authorized instructor has determined that the student pilot 
is proficient to make the flight; and
    (v) The purpose of the flight is to practice takeoffs and landings 
at that other airport.

[[Page 529]]

    (2) Repeated specific solo cross-country flights may be made to 
another airport that is within 50 nautical miles of the airport from 
which the flight originated, provided--
    (i) The authorized instructor has given the student flight training 
in both directions over the route, including entering and exiting the 
traffic patterns, takeoffs, and landings at the airports to be used;
    (ii) The authorized instructor who gave the training has endorsed 
the student's logbook certifying that the student is proficient to make 
such flights;
    (iii) The student has a solo flight endorsement in accordance with 
Sec. 61.87 of this part; and
    (iv) The student has a solo cross country flight endorsement in 
accordance with paragraph (c) of this section; however, for repeated 
solo cross country flights to another airport within 50 nautical miles 
from which the flight originated, separate endorsements are not required 
to be made for each flight.
    (c) Endorsements for solo cross-country flights. Except as specified 
in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a student pilot must have the 
endorsements prescribed in this paragraph for each cross-country flight:
    (1) A student pilot must have a solo cross-country endorsement from 
the authorized instructor who conducted the training that is placed in 
that person's logbook for the specific category of aircraft to be flown.
    (2) A student pilot must have a solo cross-country endorsement from 
an authorized instructor that is placed in that person's logbook for the 
specific make and model of aircraft to be flown.
    (3) For each cross-country flight, the authorized instructor who 
reviews the cross-country planning must make an endorsement in the 
person's logbook after reviewing that person's cross-country planning, 
as specified in paragraph (d) of this section. The endorsement must--
    (i) Specify the make and model of aircraft to be flown;
    (ii) State that the student's preflight planning and preparation is 
correct and that the student is prepared to make the flight safely under 
the known conditions; and
    (iii) State that any limitations required by the student's 
authorized instructor are met.
    (d) Limitations on authorized instructors to permit solo cross-
country flights. An authorized instructor may not permit a student pilot 
to conduct a solo cross-country flight unless that instructor has:
    (1) Determined that the student's cross-country planning is correct 
for the flight;
    (2) Reviewed the current and forecast weather conditions and has 
determined that the flight can be completed under VFR;
    (3) Determined that the student is proficient to conduct the flight 
safely;
    (4) Determined that the student has the appropriate solo cross-
country endorsement for the make and model of aircraft to be flown; and
    (5) Determined that the student's solo flight endorsement is current 
for the make and model aircraft to be flown.
    (e) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a 
single-engine airplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for 
cross-country flight in a single-engine airplane must receive and log 
flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight;
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight;
    (4) Emergency procedures;
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown;

[[Page 530]]

    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications;
    (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communication, 
except that a student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate must only 
receive and log flight training on the use of radios installed in the 
aircraft to be flown;
    (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures, including short-
field, soft-field, and crosswind takeoffs, approaches, and landings;
    (11) Climbs at best angle and best rate; and
    (12) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight 
instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, 
climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives. For student pilots 
seeking a sport pilot certificate, the provisions of this paragraph only 
apply when receiving training for cross-country flight in an airplane 
that has a VH greater than 87 knots CAS.
    (f) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a 
multiengine airplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for 
cross-country flight in a multiengine airplane must receive and log 
flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight;
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight;
    (4) Emergency procedures;
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown;
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications;
    (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications;
    (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures, including short-
field, soft-field, and crosswind takeoffs, approaches, and landings;
    (11) Climbs at best angle and best rate; and
    (12) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight 
instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, 
climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives.
    (g) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a 
helicopter. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country 
flight in a helicopter must receive and log flight training for the 
following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight;
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight;
    (4) Emergency procedures;
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown;
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications;
    (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications; and
    (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures.

[[Page 531]]

    (h) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a 
gyroplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country 
flight in a gyroplane must receive and log flight training in the 
following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight;
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight;
    (4) Emergency procedures;
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown;
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications;
    (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communication, 
except that a student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate must only 
receive and log flight training on the use of radios installed in the 
aircraft to be flown; and
    (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures, including short-
field and soft-field takeoffs, approaches, and landings.
    (i) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a 
powered-lift. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-
country flight training in a powered-lift must receive and log flight 
training in the following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight;
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight;
    (4) Emergency procedures;
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown;
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications;
    (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications;
    (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures that include high-
altitude, steep, and shallow takeoffs, approaches, and landings; and
    (11) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight 
instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, 
climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives.
    (j) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a 
glider. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country 
flight in a glider must receive and log flight training in the following 
maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight;
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight;
    (4) Emergency procedures;
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;

[[Page 532]]

    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown;
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications;
    (9) Landings accomplished without the use of the altimeter from at 
least 2,000 feet above the surface; and
    (10) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions favorable for 
cross-country soaring, ascending and descending flight, and altitude 
control.
    (k) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in an 
airship. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country 
flight in an airship must receive and log flight training for the 
following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight;
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight;
    (4) Emergency procedures;
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown;
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications;
    (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communication, 
except that a student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate must only 
receive and log flight training on the use of radios installed in the 
aircraft to be flown;
    (10) Control of air pressure with regard to ascending and descending 
flight and altitude control;
    (11) Control of the airship solely by reference to flight 
instruments, except for a student pilot seeking a sport pilot 
certificate; and
    (12) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions conducive for 
the direction of cross-country flight.
    (l) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a 
powered parachute. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-
country flight in a powered parachute must receive and log flight 
training in the following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass, as appropriate.
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight.
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognizing critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight.
    (4) Emergency procedures.
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach.
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance.
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown.
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications.
    (9) If equipped for flight with navigation radios, the use of radios 
for VFR navigation.
    (10) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions favorable for 
the cross-country flight.

[[Page 533]]

    (11) Takeoff, approach and landing procedures.
    (m) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a 
weight-shift-control aircraft. A student pilot who is receiving training 
for cross-country flight in a weight-shift-control aircraft must receive 
and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass, as appropriate.
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight.
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognizing critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight.
    (4) Emergency procedures.
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach.
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance.
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown.
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications.
    (9) If equipped for flight using navigation radios, the use of 
radios for VFR navigation.
    (10) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions favorable for 
the cross-country flight.
    (11) Takeoff, approach and landing procedures, including crosswind 
approaches and landings.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44867, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 
74 FR 42557, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; 
Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016]



Sec. 61.94  Student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate or
a recreational pilot certificate: Operations at airports within,
and in airspace located within, 
          Class B, C, and D airspace, or at airports with an operational 
          control tower in other airspace.

    (a) A student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate or a 
recreational pilot certificate who wants to obtain privileges to operate 
in Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D 
airspace, and to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational 
control tower, must receive and log ground and flight training from an 
authorized instructor in the following aeronautical knowledge areas and 
areas of operation:
    (1) The use of radios, communications, navigation systems and 
facilities, and radar services.
    (2) Operations at airports with an operating control tower, to 
include three takeoffs and landings to a full stop, with each landing 
involving a flight in the traffic pattern, at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (3) Applicable flight rules of part 91 of this chapter for 
operations in Class B, C, and D airspace and air traffic control 
clearances.
    (4) Ground and flight training for the specific Class B, C, or D 
airspace for which the solo flight is authorized, if applicable, within 
the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight in that airspace. The 
flight training must be received in the specific airspace area for which 
solo flight is authorized.
    (5) Ground and flight training for the specific airport located in 
Class B, C, or D airspace for which the solo flight is authorized, if 
applicable, within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight at 
that airport. The flight and ground training must be received at the 
specific airport for which solo flight is authorized.
    (b) The authorized instructor who provides the training specified in 
paragraph (a) of this section must provide a logbook endorsement that 
certifies the student has received that training and is proficient to 
conduct solo flight in that specific airspace or at that specific 
airport and in those aeronautical

[[Page 534]]

knowledge areas and areas of operation specified in this section.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44867, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.95  Operations in Class B airspace and at airports located within Class B airspace.

    (a) A student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight in 
Class B airspace unless:
    (1) The student pilot has received both ground and flight training 
from an authorized instructor on that Class B airspace area, and the 
flight training was received in the specific Class B airspace area for 
which solo flight is authorized;
    (2) The logbook of that student pilot has been endorsed by the 
authorized instructor who gave the student pilot flight training, and 
the endorsement is dated within the 90-day period preceding the date of 
the flight in that Class B airspace area; and
    (3) The logbook endorsement specifies that the student pilot has 
received the required ground and flight training, and has been found 
proficient to conduct solo flight in that specific Class B airspace 
area.
    (b) A student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight to, 
from, or at an airport located within Class B airspace pursuant to Sec. 
91.131(b) of this chapter unless:
    (1) The student pilot has received both ground and flight training 
from an instructor authorized to provide training to operate at that 
airport, and the flight and ground training has been received at the 
specific airport for which the solo flight is authorized;
    (2) The logbook of that student pilot has been endorsed by an 
authorized instructor who gave the student pilot flight training, and 
the endorsement is dated within the 90-day period preceding the date of 
the flight at that airport; and
    (3) The logbook endorsement specifies that the student pilot has 
received the required ground and flight training, and has been found 
proficient to conduct solo flight operations at that specific airport.
    (c) This section does not apply to a student pilot seeking a sport 
pilot certificate or a recreational pilot certificate.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004]



                      Subpart D_Recreational Pilots



Sec. 61.96  Applicability and eligibility requirements: General.

    (a) This subpart prescribes the requirement for the issuance of 
recreational pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which 
those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating 
rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings.
    (b) To be eligible for a recreational pilot certificate, a person 
who applies for that certificate must:
    (1) Be at least 17 years of age;
    (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for 
the safe operation of the aircraft;
    (3) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor 
who--
    (i) Conducted the training or reviewed the applicant's home study on 
the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in Sec. 61.97(b) of this part 
that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and
    (ii) Certified that the applicant is prepared for the required 
knowledge test.
    (4) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas listed in Sec. 61.97(b) of this part;
    (5) Receive flight training and a logbook endorsement from an 
authorized instructor who--
    (i) Conducted the training on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.98(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class 
rating sought; and
    (ii) Certified that the applicant is prepared for the required 
practical test.
    (6) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of Sec. 61.99 of 
this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought 
before applying for the practical test;

[[Page 535]]

    (7) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation listed in 
Sec. 61.98(b) that apply to the aircraft category and class rating;
    (8) Comply with the sections of this part that apply to the aircraft 
category and class rating; and
    (9) Hold either a student pilot certificate or sport pilot 
certificate.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.97  Aeronautical knowledge.

    (a) General. A person who applies for a recreational pilot 
certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized 
instructor or complete a home-study course on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the aircraft 
category and class rating sought.
    (b) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation 
Regulations of this chapter that relate to recreational pilot 
privileges, limitations, and flight operations;
    (2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation 
Safety Board;
    (3) Use of the applicable portions of the ``Aeronautical Information 
Manual'' and FAA advisory circulars;
    (4) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage 
with the aid of a magnetic compass;
    (5) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and 
in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of 
aeronautical weather reports and forecasts;
    (6) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision 
avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence;
    (7) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance;
    (8) Weight and balance computations;
    (9) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems;
    (10) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery 
techniques, if applying for an airplane single-engine rating;
    (11) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and
    (12) Preflight action that includes--
    (i) How to obtain information on runway lengths at airports of 
intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and 
forecasts, and fuel requirements; and
    (ii) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be 
completed or delays are encountered.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.98  Flight proficiency.

    (a) General. A person who applies for a recreational pilot 
certificate must receive and log ground and flight training from an 
authorized instructor on the areas of operation of this section that 
apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.
    (b) Areas of operation. (1) For a single-engine airplane rating: (i) 
Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Slow flight and stalls;
    (ix) Emergency operations; and
    (x) Postflight procedures.
    (2) For a helicopter rating: (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and heliport operations;
    (iv) Hovering maneuvers;
    (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (vi) Performance maneuvers;
    (vii) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (viii) Navigation;
    (ix) Emergency operations; and
    (x) Postflight procedures.
    (3) For a gyroplane rating: (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Flight at slow airspeeds;
    (ix) Emergency operations; and
    (x) Postflight procedures.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, 
July 30, 1997]

[[Page 536]]



Sec. 61.99  Aeronautical experience.

    (a) A person who applies for a recreational pilot certificate must 
receive and log at least 30 hours of flight time that includes at 
least--
    (1) 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor on the 
areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.98 that consists of at least:
    (i) Except as provided in Sec. 61.100, 2 hours of flight training 
en route to an airport that is located more than 25 nautical miles from 
the airport where the applicant normally trains, which includes at least 
three takeoffs and three landings at the airport located more than 25 
nautical miles from the airport where the applicant normally trains; and
    (ii) Three hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in 
the aircraft for the rating sought in preparation for the practical test 
within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.
    (2) Three hours of solo flying in the aircraft for the rating 
sought, on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.98 that apply to 
the aircraft category and class rating sought.
    (b) The holder of a sport pilot certificate may credit flight 
training received from a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating 
toward the aeronautical experience requirements of this section if the 
following conditions are met:
    (1) The flight training was accomplished in the same category and 
class of aircraft for which the rating is sought;
    (2) The flight instructor with a sport pilot rating was authorized 
to provide the flight training; and
    (3) The flight training included training on areas of operation that 
are required for both a sport pilot certificate and a recreational pilot 
certificate.

[Docket FAA-2016-6142, Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30277, June 27, 2018



Sec. 61.100  Pilots based on small islands.

    (a) An applicant located on an island from which the flight training 
required in Sec. 61.99(a)(1) of this part cannot be accomplished 
without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the 
nearest shoreline need not comply with the requirements of that section. 
However, if other airports that permit civil operations are available to 
which a flight may be made without flying over water for more than 10 
nautical miles from the nearest shoreline, the applicant must show 
completion of a dual flight between two airports, which must include 
three landings at the other airport.
    (b) An applicant who complies with paragraph (a) of this section and 
meets all requirements for the issuance of a recreational pilot 
certificate, except the requirements of Sec. 61.99(a)(1) of this part, 
will be issued a pilot certificate with an endorsement containing the 
following limitation, ``Passenger carrying prohibited on flights more 
than 10 nautical miles from (the appropriate island).'' The limitation 
may be subsequently amended to include another island if the applicant 
complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section for 
another island.
    (c) Upon meeting the requirements of Sec. 61.99(a)(1) of this part, 
the applicant may have the limitation(s) in paragraph (b) of this 
section removed.



Sec. 61.101  Recreational pilot privileges and limitations.

    (a) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may:
    (1) Carry no more than one passenger; and
    (2) Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses 
of a flight with a passenger, provided the expenses involve only fuel, 
oil, airport expenses, or aircraft rental fees.
    (b) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may act as 
pilot in command of an aircraft on a flight within 50 nautical miles 
from the departure airport, provided that person has--
    (1) Received ground and flight training for takeoff, departure, 
arrival, and landing procedures at the departure airport;
    (2) Received ground and flight training for the area, terrain, and 
aids to navigation that are in the vicinity of the departure airport;
    (3) Been found proficient to operate the aircraft at the departure 
airport and the area within 50 nautical miles from that airport; and

[[Page 537]]

    (4) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, 
which is carried in the person's possession in the aircraft, that 
permits flight within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport.
    (c) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may act as 
pilot in command of an aircraft on a flight that exceeds 50 nautical 
miles from the departure airport, provided that person has--
    (1) Received ground and flight training from an authorized 
instructor on the cross-country training requirements of subpart E of 
this part that apply to the aircraft rating held;
    (2) Been found proficient in cross-country flying; and
    (3) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, 
which is carried on the person's possession in the aircraft, that 
certifies the person has received and been found proficient in the 
cross-country training requirements of subpart E of this part that apply 
to the aircraft rating held.
    (d) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may act as 
pilot in command of an aircraft in Class B, C, and D airspace, at an 
airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, and to, from, through, or 
at an airport having an operational control tower, provided that person 
has--
    (1) Received and logged ground and flight training from an 
authorized instructor on the following aeronautical knowledge areas and 
areas of operation, as appropriate to the aircraft rating held:
    (i) The use of radios, communications, navigation system and 
facilities, and radar services.
    (ii) Operations at airports with an operating control tower to 
include three takeoffs and landings to a full stop, with each landing 
involving a flight in the traffic pattern at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (iii) Applicable flight rules of part 91 of this chapter for 
operations in Class B, C, and D airspace and air traffic control 
clearances;
    (2) Been found proficient in those aeronautical knowledge areas and 
areas of operation specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; and
    (3) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, 
which is carried on the person's possession or readily accessible in the 
aircraft, that certifies the person has received and been found 
proficient in those aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation 
specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
    (e) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (i) of this section, a 
recreational pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft--
    (1) That is certificated--
    (i) For more than four occupants;
    (ii) With more than one powerplant;
    (iii) With a powerplant of more than 180 horsepower, except aircraft 
certificated in the rotorcraft category; or
    (iv) With retractable landing gear;
    (2) That is classified as a multiengine airplane, powered-lift, 
glider, airship, balloon, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control 
aircraft;
    (3) That is carrying a passenger or property for compensation or 
hire;
    (4) For compensation or hire;
    (5) In furtherance of a business;
    (6) Between sunset and sunrise;
    (7) In Class A, B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class 
B, C, or D airspace, or to, from, through, or at an airport having an 
operational control tower;
    (8) At an altitude of more than 10,000 feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL, 
whichever is higher;
    (9) When the flight or surface visibility is less than 3 statute 
miles;
    (10) Without visual reference to the surface;
    (11) On a flight outside the United States, unless authorized by the 
country in which the flight is conducted;
    (12) To demonstrate that aircraft in flight as an aircraft 
salesperson to a prospective buyer;
    (13) That is used in a passenger-carrying airlift and sponsored by a 
charitable organization; and
    (14) That is towing any object.
    (f) A recreational pilot may not act as a pilot flight crewmember on 
any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by the type 
certificate of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is 
conducted, except when:

[[Page 538]]

    (1) Receiving flight training from a person authorized to provide 
flight training on board an airship; and
    (2) No person other than a required flight crewmember is carried on 
the aircraft.
    (g) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate, has logged 
fewer than 400 flight hours, and has not logged pilot-in-command time in 
an aircraft within the 180 days preceding the flight shall not act as 
pilot in command of an aircraft until the pilot receives flight training 
and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor, and the 
instructor certifies that the person is proficient to act as pilot in 
command of the aircraft. This requirement can be met in combination with 
the requirements of Sec. Sec. 61.56 and 61.57 of this part, at the 
discretion of the authorized instructor.
    (h) A recreational pilot certificate issued under this subpart 
carries the notation, ``Holder does not meet ICAO requirements.''
    (i) For the purpose of obtaining additional certificates or ratings 
while under the supervision of an authorized instructor, a recreational 
pilot may fly as the sole occupant of an aircraft:
    (1) For which the pilot does not hold an appropriate category or 
class rating;
    (2) Within airspace that requires communication with air traffic 
control; or
    (3) Between sunset and sunrise, provided the flight or surface 
visibility is at least 5 statute miles.
    (j) In order to fly solo as provided in paragraph (i) of this 
section, the recreational pilot must meet the appropriate aeronautical 
knowledge and flight training requirements of Sec. 61.87 for that 
aircraft. When operating an aircraft under the conditions specified in 
paragraph (i) of this section, the recreational pilot shall carry the 
logbook that has been endorsed for each flight by an authorized 
instructor who:
    (1) Has given the recreational pilot training in the make and model 
of aircraft in which the solo flight is to be made;
    (2) Has found that the recreational pilot has met the applicable 
requirements of Sec. 61.87; and
    (3) Has found that the recreational pilot is competent to make solo 
flights in accordance with the logbook endorsement.
    (k) A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft 
without holding a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this 
chapter provided the pilot holds a valid U.S. driver's license, meets 
the requirements of Sec. 61.23(c)(3), and the operation is conducted 
consistent with this section and the conditions of Sec. 61.113(i). 
Where the requirements of this section conflict with Sec. 61.113(i), a 
recreational pilot must comply with this section.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009; 
Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 61-140, 82 FR 3165, Jan. 11, 2017]



                        Subpart E_Private Pilots



Sec. 61.102  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of private 
pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those 
certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating rules 
for persons who hold those certificates and ratings.



Sec. 61.103  Eligibility requirements: General.

    To be eligible for a private pilot certificate, a person must:
    (a) Be at least 17 years of age for a rating in other than a glider 
or balloon.
    (b) Be at least 16 years of age for a rating in a glider or balloon.
    (c) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for 
the safe operation of the aircraft.
    (d) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who:
    (1) Conducted the training or reviewed the person's home study on 
the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in Sec. 61.105(b) of this part 
that apply to the aircraft rating sought; and

[[Page 539]]

    (2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required knowledge 
test.
    (e) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas listed in Sec. 61.105(b) of this part.
    (f) Receive flight training and a logbook endorsement from an 
authorized instructor who:
    (1) Conducted the training in the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.107(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought; and
    (2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required practical 
test.
    (g) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this part that 
apply to the aircraft rating sought before applying for the practical 
test.
    (h) Pass a practical test on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.107(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought.
    (i) Comply with the appropriate sections of this part that apply to 
the aircraft category and class rating sought.
    (j) Hold a U.S. student pilot certificate, sport pilot certificate, 
or recreational pilot certificate.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 
74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.105  Aeronautical knowledge.

    (a) General. A person who is applying for a private pilot 
certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized 
instructor or complete a home-study course on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the aircraft 
category and class rating sought.
    (b) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation 
Regulations of this chapter that relate to private pilot privileges, 
limitations, and flight operations;
    (2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation 
Safety Board;
    (3) Use of the applicable portions of the ``Aeronautical Information 
Manual'' and FAA advisory circulars;
    (4) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage, 
dead reckoning, and navigation systems;
    (5) Radio communication procedures;
    (6) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and 
in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of 
aeronautical weather reports and forecasts;
    (7) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision 
avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence;
    (8) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance;
    (9) Weight and balance computations;
    (10) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems;
    (11) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery 
techniques for the airplane and glider category ratings;
    (12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and
    (13) Preflight action that includes--
    (i) How to obtain information on runway lengths at airports of 
intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and 
forecasts, and fuel requirements; and
    (ii) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be 
completed or delays are encountered.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.107  Flight proficiency.

    (a) General. A person who applies for a private pilot certificate 
must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized 
instructor on the areas of operation of this section that apply to the 
aircraft category and class rating sought.
    (b) Areas of operation. (1) For an airplane category rating with a 
single-engine class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Slow flight and stalls;
    (ix) Basic instrument maneuvers;
    (x) Emergency operations;
    (xi) Night operations, except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this 
part; and
    (xii) Postflight procedures.
    (2) For an airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;

[[Page 540]]

    (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Slow flight and stalls;
    (ix) Basic instrument maneuvers;
    (x) Emergency operations;
    (xi) Multiengine operations;
    (xii) Night operations, except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this 
part; and
    (xiii) Postflight procedures.
    (3) For a rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and heliport operations;
    (iv) Hovering maneuvers;
    (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (vi) Performance maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Emergency operations;
    (ix) Night operations, except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this 
part; and
    (x) Postflight procedures.
    (4) For a rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Flight at slow airspeeds;
    (ix) Emergency operations;
    (x) Night operations, except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this 
part; and
    (xi) Postflight procedures.
    (5) For a powered-lift category rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and heliport operations;
    (iv) Hovering maneuvers;
    (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (vi) Performance maneuvers;
    (vii) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (viii) Navigation;
    (ix) Slow flight and stalls;
    (x) Basic instrument maneuvers;
    (xi) Emergency operations;
    (xii) Night operations, except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this 
part; and
    (xiii) Postflight procedures.
    (6) For a glider category rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and gliderport operations;
    (iv) Launches and landings;
    (v) Performance speeds;
    (vi) Soaring techniques;
    (vii) Performance maneuvers;
    (viii) Navigation;
    (ix) Slow flight and stalls;
    (x) Emergency operations; and
    (xi) Postflight procedures.
    (7) For a lighter-than-air category rating with an airship class 
rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Emergency operations; and
    (ix) Postflight procedures.
    (8) For a lighter-than-air category rating with a balloon class 
rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport operations;
    (iv) Launches and landings;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Navigation;
    (vii) Emergency operations; and
    (viii) Postflight procedures.
    (9) For a powered parachute category rating--
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations, as applicable;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Night operations, except as provided in Sec. 61.110;
    (ix) Emergency operations; and
    (x) Post-flight procedures.
    (10) For a weight-shift-control aircraft category rating--
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations, as applicable;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

[[Page 541]]

    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Slow flight and stalls;
    (ix) Night operations, except as provided in Sec. 61.110;
    (x) Emergency operations; and
    (xi) Post-flight procedures.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.109  Aeronautical experience.

    (a) For an airplane single-engine rating. Except as provided in 
paragraph (k) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot 
certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class rating 
must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 
hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of 
solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.107(b)(1) of this part, and the training must include at least--
    (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a single-engine 
airplane;
    (2) Except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of 
night flight training in a single-engine airplane that includes--
    (i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total 
distance; and
    (ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing 
involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.
    (3) 3 hours of flight training in a single-engine airplane on the 
control and maneuvering of an airplane solely by reference to 
instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed 
climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight 
attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/
facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight;
    (4) 3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a 
single-engine airplane in preparation for the practical test, which must 
have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the 
month of the test; and
    (5) 10 hours of solo flight time in a single-engine airplane, 
consisting of at least--
    (i) 5 hours of solo cross-country time;
    (ii) One solo cross country flight of 150 nautical miles total 
distance, with full-stop landings at three points, and one segment of 
the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of more than 50 
nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and
    (iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each 
landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (b) For an airplane multiengine rating. Except as provided in 
paragraph (k) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot 
certificate with an airplane category and multiengine class rating must 
log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of 
flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo 
flight training in the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(2) 
of this part, and the training must include at least--
    (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a multiengine 
airplane;
    (2) Except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of 
night flight training in a multiengine airplane that includes--
    (i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total 
distance; and
    (ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing 
involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.
    (3) 3 hours of flight training in a multiengine airplane on the 
control and maneuvering of an airplane solely by reference to 
instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed 
climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight 
attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/
facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight;
    (4) 3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a 
multiengine airplane in preparation for the practical test, which must 
have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the 
month of the test; and
    (5) 10 hours of solo flight time in an airplane consisting of at 
least--
    (i) 5 hours of solo cross-country time;
    (ii) One solo cross country flight of 150 nautical miles total 
distance, with

[[Page 542]]

full-stop landings at three points, and one segment of the flight 
consisting of a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles 
between the takeoff and landing locations; and
    (iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each 
landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (c) For a helicopter rating. Except as provided in paragraph (k) of 
this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with 
rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must log at least 40 
hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training 
from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in 
the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(3) of this part, and 
the training must include at least--
    (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a helicopter;
    (2) Except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of 
night flight training in a helicopter that includes--
    (i) One cross-country flight of over 50 nautical miles total 
distance; and
    (ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing 
involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.
    (3) 3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a 
helicopter in preparation for the practical test, which must have been 
performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the 
test; and
    (4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a helicopter, consisting of at 
least--
    (i) 3 hours cross-country time;
    (ii) One solo cross country flight of 100 nautical miles total 
distance, with landings at three points, and one segment of the flight 
being a straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles between 
the takeoff and landing locations; and
    (iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each 
landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (d) For a gyroplane rating. Except as provided in paragraph (k) of 
this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with 
rotorcraft category and gyroplane class rating must log at least 40 
hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training 
from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in 
the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(4) of this part, and 
the training must include at least--
    (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a gyroplane;
    (2) Except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of 
night flight training in a gyroplane that includes--
    (i) One cross-country flight of over 50 nautical miles total 
distance; and
    (ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing 
involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.
    (3) 3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a 
gyroplane in preparation for the practical test, which must have been 
performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the 
test; and
    (4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a gyroplane, consisting of at 
least--
    (i) 3 hours of cross-country time;
    (ii) One solo cross country flight of 100 nautical miles total 
distance, with landings at three points, and one segment of the flight 
being a straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles between 
the takeoff and landing locations; and
    (iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each 
landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (e) For a powered-lift rating. Except as provided in paragraph (k) 
of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate 
with a powered-lift category rating must log at least 40 hours of flight 
time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an 
authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas 
of operation listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(5) of this part, and the training 
must include at least--
    (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a powered-lift;
    (2) Except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of 
night flight training in a powered-lift that includes--
    (i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total 
distance; and

[[Page 543]]

    (ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing 
involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.
    (3) 3 hours of flight training in a powered-lift on the control and 
maneuvering of a powered-lift solely by reference to instruments, 
including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and 
descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, 
radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and 
radar services appropriate to instrument flight;
    (4) 3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a 
powered-lift in preparation for the practical test, which must have been 
performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the 
test; and
    (5) 10 hours of solo flight time in an airplane or powered-lift 
consisting of at least--
    (i) 5 hours cross-country time;
    (ii) One solo cross country flight of 150 nautical miles total 
distance, with full-stop landings at three points, and one segment of 
the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of more than 50 
nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and
    (iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each 
landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (f) For a glider category rating. (1) If the applicant for a private 
pilot certificate with a glider category rating has not logged at least 
40 hours of flight time as a pilot in a heavier-than-air aircraft, the 
applicant must log at least 10 hours of flight time in a glider in the 
areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(6) of this part, and that 
flight time must include at least--
    (i) 20 flights in a glider in the areas of operations listed in 
Sec. 61.107(b)(6) of this part, including at least 3 training flights 
with an authorized instructor in a glider in preparation for the 
practical test that must have been performed within the preceding 2 
calendar months from the month of the test; and
    (ii) 2 hours of solo flight time in a glider in the areas of 
operation listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(6) of this part, with not less than 
10 launches and landings being performed.
    (2) If the applicant has logged at least 40 hours of flight time in 
a heavier-than-air aircraft, the applicant must log at least 3 hours of 
flight time in a glider in the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.107(b)(6) of this part, and that flight time must include at least--
    (i) 10 solo flights in a glider in the areas of operation listed in 
Sec. 61.107(b)(6) of this part; and
    (ii) 3 training flights with an authorized instructor in a glider in 
preparation for the practical test that must have been performed within 
the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.
    (g) For an airship rating. A person who applies for a private pilot 
certificate with a lighter-than-air category and airship class rating 
must log at least:
    (1) 25 hours of flight training in airships on the areas of 
operation listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(7) of this part, which consists of 
at least:
    (i) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in an airship;
    (ii) Except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of 
night flight training in an airship that includes:
    (A) A cross-country flight of over 25 nautical miles total distance; 
and
    (B) Five takeoffs and five landings to a full stop (with each 
landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.
    (2) 3 hours of flight training in an airship on the control and 
maneuvering of an airship solely by reference to instruments, including 
straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns 
to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio 
communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar 
services appropriate to instrument flight;
    (3) Three hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in 
an airship in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 
calendar months from the month of the test; and
    (4) 5 hours performing the duties of pilot in command in an airship 
with an authorized instructor.
    (h) For a balloon rating. A person who applies for a private pilot 
certificate

[[Page 544]]

with a lighter-than-air category and balloon class rating must log at 
least 10 hours of flight training that includes at least six training 
flights with an authorized instructor in the areas of operation listed 
in Sec. 61.107(b)(8) of this part, that includes--
    (1) Gas balloon. If the training is being performed in a gas 
balloon, at least two flights of 2 hours each that consists of--
    (i) At least one training flight with an authorized instructor in a 
gas balloon in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 
calendar months from the month of the test;
    (ii) At least one flight performing the duties of pilot in command 
in a gas balloon with an authorized instructor; and
    (iii) At least one flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 
feet above the launch site.
    (2) Balloon with an airborne heater. If the training is being 
performed in a balloon with an airborne heater, at least--
    (i) At least two training flights of 1 hour each with an authorized 
instructor in a balloon with an airborne heater in preparation for the 
practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of 
the test;
    (ii) One solo flight in a balloon with an airborne heater; and
    (iii) At least one flight involving a controlled ascent to 2,000 
feet above the launch site.
    (i) For a powered parachute rating. A person who applies for a 
private pilot certificate with a powered parachute category rating must 
log at least 25 hours of flight time in a powered parachute that 
includes at least 10 hours of flight training with an authorized 
instructor, including 30 takeoffs and landings, and 10 hours of solo 
flight training in the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.107 (b)(9) 
and the training must include at least--
    (1) One hour of cross-country flight training in a powered parachute 
that includes a 1-hour cross-country flight with a landing at an airport 
at least 25 nautical miles from the airport of departure;
    (2) Except as provided in Sec. 61.110, 3 hours of night flight 
training in a powered parachute that includes 10 takeoffs and landings 
(with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an 
airport;
    (3) Three hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in 
a powered parachute in preparation for the practical test, which must 
have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the 
month of the test;
    (4) Three hours of solo flight time in a powered parachute, 
consisting of at least--
    (i) One solo cross-country flight with a landing at an airport at 
least 25 nautical miles from the departure airport; and
    (ii) Twenty solo takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each 
landing involving a flight in a traffic pattern) at an airport; and
    (5) Three takeoffs and landings (with each landing involving a 
flight in the traffic pattern) in an aircraft at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (j) For a weight-shift-control aircraft rating. A person who applies 
for a private pilot certificate with a weight-shift-control rating must 
log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of 
flight training with an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo 
flight training in the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(10) 
and the training must include at least--
    (1) Three hours of cross-country flight training in a weight-shift-
control aircraft;
    (2) Except as provided in Sec. 61.110, 3 hours of night flight 
training in a weight-shift-control aircraft that includes--
    (i) One cross-country flight of over 75 nautical miles total 
distance that includes a point of landing that is a straight-line 
distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of 
departure; and
    (ii) Ten takeoffs and landings (with each landing involving a flight 
in the traffic pattern) at an airport;
    (3) Three hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in 
a weight-shift-control aircraft in preparation for the practical test, 
which must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months 
from the month of the test;

[[Page 545]]

    (4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a weight-shift-control 
aircraft, consisting of at least--
    (i) Five hours of solo cross-country time; and
    (ii) One solo cross-country flight over 100 nautical miles total 
distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of 
the flight being a straight line distance of at least 50 nautical miles 
between takeoff and landing locations; and
    (5) Three takeoffs and landings (with each landing involving a 
flight in the traffic pattern) in an aircraft at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (k) Permitted credit for use of a full flight simulator or flight 
training device. (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (k)(2) of this 
section, a maximum of 2.5 hours of training in a full flight simulator 
or flight training device representing the category, class, and type, if 
applicable, of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought, may be 
credited toward the flight training time required by this section, if 
received from an authorized instructor.
    (2) A maximum of 5 hours of training in a flight simulator or flight 
training device representing the category, class, and type, if 
applicable, of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought, may be 
credited toward the flight training time required by this section if the 
training is accomplished in a course conducted by a training center 
certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (3) Except when fewer hours are approved by the Administrator, an 
applicant for a private pilot certificate with an airplane, rotorcraft, 
or powered-lift rating, who has satisfactorily completed an approved 
private pilot course conducted by a training center certificated under 
part 142 of this chapter, need only have a total of 35 hours of 
aeronautical experience to meet the requirements of this section.
    (l) Permitted credit for flight training received from a flight 
instructor with a sport pilot rating. The holder of a sport pilot 
certificate may credit flight training received from a flight instructor 
with a sport pilot rating toward the aeronautical experience 
requirements of this section if the following conditions are met:
    (1) The flight training was accomplished in the same category and 
class of aircraft for which the rating is sought;
    (2) The flight instructor with a sport pilot rating was authorized 
to provide the flight training; and
    (3) The flight training included either--
    (i) Training on areas of operation that are required for both a 
sport pilot certificate and a private pilot certificate; or
    (ii) For airplanes with a VH greater than 87 knots CAS, 
training on the control and maneuvering of an airplane solely by 
reference to the flight instruments, including straight and level 
flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives, 
provided the training was received from a flight instructor with a sport 
pilot rating who holds an endorsement required by Sec. 61.412(c).

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 
63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004; 
Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 53645, 
Oct. 20, 2009; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-142, 83 
FR 30278, June 27, 2018]



Sec. 61.110  Night flying exceptions.

    (a) Subject to the limitations of paragraph (b) of this section, a 
person is not required to comply with the night flight training 
requirements of this subpart if the person receives flight training in 
and resides in the State of Alaska.
    (b) A person who receives flight training in and resides in the 
State of Alaska but does not meet the night flight training requirements 
of this section:
    (1) May be issued a pilot certificate with a limitation ``Night 
flying prohibited''; and
    (2) Must comply with the appropriate night flight training 
requirements of this subpart within the 12-calendar-month period after 
the issuance of the pilot certificate. At the end of that period, the 
certificate will become invalid for use until the person complies with 
the appropriate night training requirements of this subpart. The person

[[Page 546]]

may have the ``Night flying prohibited'' limitation removed if the 
person--
    (i) Accomplishes the appropriate night flight training requirements 
of this subpart; and
    (ii) Presents to an examiner a logbook or training record 
endorsement from an authorized instructor that verifies accomplishment 
of the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart.
    (c) A person who does not meet the night flying requirements in 
Sec. 61.109(d)(2), (i)(2), or (j)(2) may be issued a private pilot 
certificate with the limitation ``Night flying prohibited.'' This 
limitation may be removed by an examiner if the holder complies with the 
requirements of Sec. 61.109(d)(2), (i)(2), or (j)(2), as appropriate.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.111  Cross-country flights: Pilots based on small islands.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an 
applicant located on an island from which the cross-country flight 
training required in Sec. 61.109 of this part cannot be accomplished 
without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the 
nearest shoreline need not comply with the requirements of that section.
    (b) If other airports that permit civil operations are available to 
which a flight may be made without flying over water for more than 10 
nautical miles from the nearest shoreline, the applicant must show 
completion of two round-trip solo flights between those two airports 
that are farthest apart, including a landing at each airport on both 
flights.
    (c) An applicant who complies with paragraph (a) or paragraph (b) of 
this section, and meets all requirements for the issuance of a private 
pilot certificate, except the cross-country training requirements of 
Sec. 61.109 of this part, will be issued a pilot certificate with an 
endorsement containing the following limitation, ``Passenger carrying 
prohibited on flights more than 10 nautical miles from (the appropriate 
island).'' The limitation may be subsequently amended to include another 
island if the applicant complies with the requirements of paragraph (b) 
of this section for another island.
    (d) Upon meeting the cross-country training requirements of Sec. 
61.109 of this part, the applicant may have the limitation in paragraph 
(c) of this section removed.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.113  Private pilot privileges and limitations: Pilot in command.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (h) of this 
section, no person who holds a private pilot certificate may act as 
pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying passengers or property 
for compensation or hire; nor may that person, for compensation or hire, 
act as pilot in command of an aircraft.
    (b) A private pilot may, for compensation or hire, act as pilot in 
command of an aircraft in connection with any business or employment if:
    (1) The flight is only incidental to that business or employment; 
and
    (2) The aircraft does not carry passengers or property for 
compensation or hire.
    (c) A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the 
operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses 
involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
    (d) A private pilot may act as pilot in command of a charitable, 
nonprofit, or community event flight described in Sec. 91.146, if the 
sponsor and pilot comply with the requirements of Sec. 91.146.
    (e) A private pilot may be reimbursed for aircraft operating 
expenses that are directly related to search and location operations, 
provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or 
rental fees, and the operation is sanctioned and under the direction and 
control of:
    (1) A local, State, or Federal agency; or
    (2) An organization that conducts search and location operations.
    (f) A private pilot who is an aircraft salesman and who has at least 
200 hours of logged flight time may demonstrate an aircraft in flight to 
a prospective buyer.

[[Page 547]]

    (g) A private pilot who meets the requirements of Sec. 61.69 may 
act as a pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider or unpowered 
ultralight vehicle.
    (h) A private pilot may act as pilot in command for the purpose of 
conducting a production flight test in a light-sport aircraft intended 
for certification in the light-sport category under Sec. 21.190 of this 
chapter, provided that--
    (1) The aircraft is a powered parachute or a weight-shift-control 
aircraft;
    (2) The person has at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in 
the category and class of aircraft flown; and
    (3) The person is familiar with the processes and procedures 
applicable to the conduct of production flight testing, to include 
operations conducted under a special flight permit and any associated 
operating limitations.
    (i) A private pilot may act as pilot in command or serve as a 
required flightcrew member of an aircraft without holding a medical 
certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter provided the pilot 
holds a valid U.S. driver's license, meets the requirements of Sec. 
61.23(c)(3), and complies with this section and all of the following 
conditions and limitations:
    (1) The aircraft is authorized to carry not more than 6 occupants, 
has a maximum takeoff weight of not more than 6,000 pounds, and is 
operated with no more than five passengers on board; and
    (2) The flight, including each portion of the flight, is not carried 
out--
    (i) At an altitude that is more than 18,000 feet above mean sea 
level;
    (ii) Outside the United States unless authorized by the country in 
which the flight is conducted; or
    (iii) At an indicated airspeed exceeding 250 knots; and
    (3) The pilot has available in his or her logbook--
    (i) The completed medical examination checklist required under Sec. 
68.7 of this chapter; and
    (ii) The certificate of course completion required under Sec. 
61.23(c)(3).

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-115, 72 FR 6910, Feb. 13, 2007; 
Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 61-
140, 82 FR 3165, Jan. 11, 2017; Docket No. FAA-2021-1040, Amdt. Nos. 61-
152, 87 FR 71237, Nov. 22, 2022]



Sec. 61.115  Balloon rating: Limitations.

    (a) If a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a 
balloon rating takes a practical test in a balloon with an airborne 
heater:
    (1) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the 
exercise of the privileges of that certificate to a balloon with an 
airborne heater; and
    (2) The limitation may be removed when the person obtains the 
required aeronautical experience in a gas balloon and receives a logbook 
endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's 
accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to 
satisfactorily operate a gas balloon.
    (b) If a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a 
balloon rating takes a practical test in a gas balloon:
    (1) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the 
exercise of the privilege of that certificate to a gas balloon; and
    (2) The limitation may be removed when the person obtains the 
required aeronautical experience in a balloon with an airborne heater 
and receives a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who 
attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical 
experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a balloon with an 
airborne heater.



Sec. 61.117  Private pilot privileges and limitations: 
Second in command of aircraft requiring more than one pilot.

    Except as provided in Sec. 61.113 of this part, no private pilot 
may, for compensation or hire, act as second in command of an aircraft 
that is type certificated for more than one pilot, nor may that pilot 
act as second in command of

[[Page 548]]

such an aircraft that is carrying passengers or property for 
compensation or hire.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. Sec. 61.118-61.120  [Reserved]



                       Subpart F_Commercial Pilots



Sec. 61.121  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of 
commercial pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which 
those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating 
rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings.



Sec. 61.123  Eligibility requirements: General.

    To be eligible for a commercial pilot certificate, a person must:
    (a) Be at least 18 years of age;
    (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for 
the safe operation of the aircraft.
    (c) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who:
    (1) Conducted the required ground training or reviewed the person's 
home study on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in Sec. 61.125 of 
this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; 
and
    (2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required knowledge 
test that applies to the aircraft category and class rating sought.
    (d) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas listed in Sec. 61.125 of this part;
    (e) Receive the required training and a logbook endorsement from an 
authorized instructor who:
    (1) Conducted the training on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.127(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class 
rating sought; and
    (2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required practical 
test.
    (f) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this subpart 
that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought before 
applying for the practical test;
    (g) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation 
listed in Sec. 61.127(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft 
category and class rating sought;
    (h) Hold at least a private pilot certificate issued under this part 
or meet the requirements of Sec. 61.73; and
    (i) Comply with the sections of this part that apply to the aircraft 
category and class rating sought.



Sec. 61.125  Aeronautical knowledge.

    (a) General. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate 
must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor, or 
complete a home-study course, on the aeronautical knowledge areas of 
paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the aircraft category and 
class rating sought.
    (b) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation 
Regulations of this chapter that relate to commercial pilot privileges, 
limitations, and flight operations;
    (2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation 
Safety Board;
    (3) Basic aerodynamics and the principles of flight;
    (4) Meteorology to include recognition of critical weather 
situations, windshear recognition and avoidance, and the use of 
aeronautical weather reports and forecasts;
    (5) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft;
    (6) Weight and balance computations;
    (7) Use of performance charts;
    (8) Significance and effects of exceeding aircraft performance 
limitations;
    (9) Use of aeronautical charts and a magnetic compass for pilotage 
and dead reckoning;
    (10) Use of air navigation facilities;
    (11) Aeronautical decision making and judgment;
    (12) Principles and functions of aircraft systems;
    (13) Maneuvers, procedures, and emergency operations appropriate to 
the aircraft;
    (14) Night and high-altitude operations;

[[Page 549]]

    (15) Procedures for operating within the National Airspace System; 
and
    (16) Procedures for flight and ground training for lighter-than-air 
ratings.



Sec. 61.127  Flight proficiency.

    (a) General. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate 
must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized 
instructor on the areas of operation of this section that apply to the 
aircraft category and class rating sought.
    (b) Areas of operation. (1) For an airplane category rating with a 
single-engine class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Slow flight and stalls;
    (ix) Emergency operations;
    (x) High-altitude operations; and
    (xi) Postflight procedures.
    (2) For an airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Navigation;
    (vii) Slow flight and stalls;
    (viii) Emergency operations;
    (ix) Multiengine operations;
    (x) High-altitude operations; and
    (xi) Postflight procedures.
    (3) For a rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and heliport operations;
    (iv) Hovering maneuvers;
    (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (vi) Performance maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Emergency operations;
    (ix) Special operations; and
    (x) Postflight procedures.
    (4) For a rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Flight at slow airspeeds;
    (ix) Emergency operations; and
    (x) Postflight procedures.
    (5) For a powered-lift category rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and heliport operations;
    (iv) Hovering maneuvers;
    (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (vi) Performance maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Slow flight and stalls;
    (ix) Emergency operations;
    (x) High-altitude operations;
    (xi) Special operations; and
    (xii) Postflight procedures.
    (6) For a glider category rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and gliderport operations;
    (iv) Launches and landings;
    (v) Performance speeds;
    (vi) Soaring techniques;
    (vii) Performance maneuvers;
    (viii) Navigation;
    (ix) Slow flight and stalls;
    (x) Emergency operations; and
    (xi) Postflight procedures.
    (7) For a lighter-than-air category rating with an airship class 
rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subjects;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;
    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Preflight procedures;
    (vi) Airport operations;
    (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (viii) Performance maneuvers;
    (ix) Navigation;
    (x) Emergency operations; and
    (xi) Postflight procedures.
    (8) For a lighter-than-air category rating with a balloon class 
rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subjects;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;

[[Page 550]]

    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Preflight procedures;
    (vi) Airport operations;
    (vii) Launches and landings;
    (viii) Performance maneuvers;
    (ix) Navigation;
    (x) Emergency operations; and
    (xi) Postflight procedures.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 
74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.129  Aeronautical experience.

    (a) For an airplane single-engine rating. Except as provided in 
paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial 
pilot certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class 
rating must log at least 250 hours of flight time as a pilot that 
consists of at least:
    (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in 
airplanes.
    (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at 
least--
    (i) 50 hours in airplanes; and
    (ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of which at least 10 hours 
must be in airplanes.
    (3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.127(b)(1) of this part that includes at least--
    (i) Ten hours of instrument training using a view-limiting device 
including attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery 
from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking 
navigational systems. Five hours of the 10 hours required on instrument 
training must be in a single engine airplane;
    (ii) 10 hours of training in a complex airplane, a turbine-powered 
airplane, or a technically advanced airplane (TAA) that meets the 
requirements of paragraph (j) of this section, or any combination 
thereof. The airplane must be appropriate to land or sea for the rating 
sought;
    (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a single engine airplane in 
daytime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of 
more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure;
    (iv) One 2-hour cross country flight in a single engine airplane in 
nighttime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of 
more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (v) Three hours in a single-engine airplane with an authorized 
instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 
calendar months from the month of the test.
    (4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a single engine airplane or 10 
hours of flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a 
single engine airplane with an authorized instructor on board (either of 
which may be credited towards the flight time requirement under 
paragraph (a)(2) of this section), on the areas of operation listed 
under Sec. 61.127(b)(1) that include--
    (i) One cross-country flight of not less than 300 nautical miles 
total distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, one of which 
is a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles from the 
original departure point. However, if this requirement is being met in 
Hawaii, the longest segment need only have a straight-line distance of 
at least 150 nautical miles; and
    (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 
landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) 
at an airport with an operating control tower.
    (b) For an airplane multiengine rating. Except as provided in 
paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial 
pilot certificate with an airplane category and multiengine class rating 
must log at least 250 hours of flight time as a pilot that consists of 
at least:
    (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in 
airplanes.
    (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at 
least--
    (i) 50 hours in airplanes; and
    (ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of which at least 10 hours 
must be in airplanes.
    (3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.127(b)(2) of this part that includes at least--
    (i) Ten hours of instrument training using a view-limiting device 
including attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery 
from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking 
navigational systems. Five

[[Page 551]]

hours of the 10 hours required on instrument training must be in a 
multiengine airplane;
    (ii) 10 hours of training in a multiengine complex or turbine-
powered airplane; or for an applicant seeking a multiengine seaplane 
rating, 10 hours of training in a multiengine seaplane that has flaps 
and a controllable pitch propeller, including seaplanes equipped with an 
engine control system consisting of a digital computer and associated 
accessories for controlling the engine and propeller, such as a full 
authority digital engine control;
    (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a multiengine airplane in 
daytime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of 
more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure;
    (iv) One 2-hour cross country flight in a multiengine airplane in 
nighttime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of 
more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (v) Three hours in a multiengine airplane with an authorized 
instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 
calendar months from the month of the test.
    (4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a multiengine airplane or 10 
hours of flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a 
multiengine airplane with an authorized instructor (either of which may 
be credited towards the flight time requirement in paragraph (b)(2) of 
this section), on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.127(b)(2) of 
this part that includes at least--
    (i) One cross-country flight of not less than 300 nautical miles 
total distance with landings at a minimum of three points, one of which 
is a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles from the 
original departure point. However, if this requirement is being met in 
Hawaii, the longest segment need only have a straight-line distance of 
at least 150 nautical miles; and
    (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 
landings (with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern) 
at an airport with an operating control tower.
    (c) For a helicopter rating. Except as provided in paragraph (i) of 
this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate 
with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must log at least 
150 hours of flight time as a pilot that consists of at least:
    (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in 
helicopters.
    (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at 
least--
    (i) 35 hours in helicopters; and
    (ii) 10 hours in cross-country flight in helicopters.
    (3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.127(b)(3) of this part that includes at least--
    (i) Five hours on the control and maneuvering of a helicopter solely 
by reference to instruments using a view-limiting device including 
attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual 
flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. 
This aeronautical experience may be performed in an aircraft, full 
flight simulator, flight training device, or an aviation training 
device;
    (ii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a helicopter in daytime 
conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 
50 nautical miles from the original point of departure;
    (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a helicopter in nighttime 
conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 
50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (iv) Three hours in a helicopter with an authorized instructor in 
preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar 
months from the month of the test.
    (4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a helicopter or 10 hours of 
flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a helicopter 
with an authorized instructor on board (either of which may be credited 
towards the flight time requirement under paragraph (c)(2) of this 
section), on the areas of operation listed under Sec. 61.127(b)(3) that 
includes--
    (i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three 
points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at 
least 50

[[Page 552]]

nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 
landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern).
    (d) For a gyroplane rating. A person who applies for a commercial 
pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category and gyroplane class rating 
must log at least 150 hours of flight time as a pilot (of which 5 hours 
may have been accomplished in a full flight simulator or flight training 
device that is representative of a gyroplane) that consists of at least:
    (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 25 hours must be in 
gyroplanes.
    (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at 
least--
    (i) 10 hours in gyroplanes; and
    (ii) 3 hours in cross-country flight in gyroplanes.
    (3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.127(b)(4) of this part that includes at least--
    (i) 2.5 hours on the control and maneuvering of a gyroplane solely 
by reference to instruments using a view-limiting device including 
attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual 
flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. 
This aeronautical experience may be performed in an aircraft, full 
flight simulator, flight training device, or an aviation training 
device;
    (ii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a gyroplane in daytime 
conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 
50 nautical miles from the original point of departure;
    (iii) Two hours of flight training during nighttime conditions in a 
gyroplane at an airport, that includes 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a 
full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern); 
and
    (iv) Three hours in a gyroplane with an authorized instructor in 
preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar 
months from the month of the test.
    (4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a gyroplane or 10 hours of 
flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a gyroplane 
with an authorized instructor on board (either of which may be credited 
towards the flight time requirement under paragraph (d)(2) of this 
section), on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.127(b)(4) that 
includes--
    (i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three 
points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at 
least 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 
landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern).
    (e) For a powered-lift rating. Except as provided in paragraph (i) 
of this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate 
with a powered-lift category rating must log at least 250 hours of 
flight time as a pilot that consists of at least:
    (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in a 
powered-lift.
    (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at 
least--
    (i) 50 hours in a powered-lift; and
    (ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of which 10 hours must be in a 
powered-lift.
    (3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.127(b)(5) of this part that includes at least--
    (i) Ten hours of instrument training using a view-limiting device 
including attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery 
from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking 
navigational systems. Five hours of the 10 hours required on instrument 
training must be in a powered-lift;
    (ii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a powered-lift in daytime 
conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 
100 nautical miles from the original point of departure;
    (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a powered-lift in nighttime 
conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 
100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (iv) 3 hours in a powered-lift with an authorized instructor in 
preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar 
months from the month of the test.

[[Page 553]]

    (4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a powered-lift or 10 hours of 
flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a powered-lift 
with an authorized instructor on board (either of which may be credited 
towards the flight time requirement under paragraph (e)(2) of this 
section, on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.127(b)(5) that 
includes--
    (i) One cross-country flight of not less than 300 nautical miles 
total distance with landings at a minimum of three points, one of which 
is a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles from the 
original departure point. However, if this requirement is being met in 
Hawaii the longest segment need only have a straight-line distance of at 
least 150 nautical miles; and
    (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 
landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) 
at an airport with an operating control tower.
    (f) For a glider rating. A person who applies for a commercial pilot 
certificate with a glider category rating must log at least--
    (1) 25 hours of flight time as a pilot in a glider and that flight 
time must include at least 100 flights in a glider as pilot in command, 
including at least--
    (i) Three hours of flight training in a glider with an authorized 
instructor or 10 training flights in a glider with an authorized 
instructor on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.127(b)(6) of 
this part, including at least 3 training flights in a glider with an 
authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the 
preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and
    (ii) 2 hours of solo flight that include not less than 10 solo 
flights in a glider on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.127(b)(6) of this part; or
    (2) 200 hours of flight time as a pilot in heavier-than-air aircraft 
and at least 20 flights in a glider as pilot in command, including at 
least--
    (i) Three hours of flight training in a glider or 10 training 
flights in a glider with an authorized instructor on the areas of 
operation listed in Sec. 61.127(b)(6) of this part including at least 3 
training flights in a glider with an authorized instructor in 
preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar 
months from the month of the test; and
    (ii) 5 solo flights in a glider on the areas of operation listed in 
Sec. 61.127(b)(6) of this part.
    (g) For an airship rating. A person who applies for a commercial 
pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and airship class 
rating must log at least 200 hours of flight time as a pilot, which 
includes at least the following hours:
    (1) 50 hours in airships.
    (2) Thirty hours of pilot in command flight time in airships or 
performing the duties of pilot in command in an airship with an 
authorized instructor aboard, which consists of--
    (i) 10 hours of cross-country flight time in airships; and
    (ii) 10 hours of night flight time in airships.
    (3) Forty hours of instrument time to include--
    (i) Instrument training using a view-limiting device for attitude 
instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight 
attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems; and
    (ii) Twenty hours of instrument flight time, of which 10 hours must 
be in flight in airships.
    (4) 20 hours of flight training in airships on the areas of 
operation listed in Sec. 61.127(b)(7) of this part, which includes at 
least--
    (i) Three hours in an airship with an authorized instructor in 
preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar 
months from the month of the test;
    (ii) One hour cross country flight in an airship in daytime 
conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 
25 nautical miles from the point of departure; and
    (iii) One hour cross country flight in an airship in nighttime 
conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 
25 nautical miles from the point of departure.
    (5) 10 hours of flight training performing the duties of pilot in 
command with an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed 
in Sec. 61.127(b)(7) of this part, which includes at least--

[[Page 554]]

    (i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three 
points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at 
least 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 
landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern).
    (h) For a balloon rating. A person who applies for a commercial 
pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and a balloon class 
rating must log at least 35 hours of flight time as a pilot, which 
includes at least the following requirements:
    (1) 20 hours in balloons;
    (2) 10 flights in balloons;
    (3) Two flights in balloons as the pilot in command; and
    (4) 10 hours of flight training that includes at least 10 training 
flights with an authorized instructor in balloons on the areas of 
operation listed in Sec. 61.127(b)(8) of this part, which consists of 
at least--
    (i) For a gas balloon--
    (A) Two training flights of 2 hours each in a gas balloon with an 
authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the 
preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test;
    (B) 2 flights performing the duties of pilot in command in a gas 
balloon with an authorized instructor on the appropriate areas of 
operation; and
    (C) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 5,000 feet above the 
launch site.
    (ii) For a balloon with an airborne heater--
    (A) Two training flights of 1 hour each in a balloon with an 
airborne heater with an authorized instructor in preparation for the 
practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of 
the test;
    (B) Two solo flights in a balloon with an airborne heater on the 
appropriate areas of operation; and
    (C) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 feet above the 
launch site.
    (i) Permitted credit for use of a flight simulator or flight 
training device. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this 
section, an applicant who has not accomplished the training required by 
this section in a course conducted by a training center certificated 
under part 142 of this chapter may:
    (i) Credit a maximum of 50 hours toward the total aeronautical 
experience requirements for an airplane or powered-lift rating, provided 
the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized instructor 
in a full flight simulator or flight training device that represents 
that class of airplane or powered-lift category and type, if applicable, 
appropriate to the rating sought; and
    (ii) Credit a maximum of 25 hours toward the total aeronautical 
experience requirements of this section for a helicopter rating, 
provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized 
instructor in a full flight simulator or flight training device that 
represents a helicopter and type, if applicable, appropriate to the 
rating sought.
    (2) An applicant who has accomplished the training required by this 
section in a course conducted by a training center certificated under 
part 142 of this chapter may:
    (i) Credit a maximum of 100 hours toward the total aeronautical 
experience requirements of this section for an airplane and powered-lift 
rating, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an 
authorized instructor in a full flight simulator or flight training 
device that represents that class of airplane or powered-lift category 
and type, if applicable, appropriate to the rating sought; and
    (ii) Credit a maximum of 50 hours toward the total aeronautical 
experience requirements of this section for a helicopter rating, 
provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized 
instructor in a full flight simulator or flight training device that 
represents a helicopter and type, if applicable, appropriate to the 
rating sought.
    (3) Except when fewer hours are approved by the FAA, an applicant 
for the commercial pilot certificate with the airplane or powered-lift 
rating who has completed 190 hours of aeronautical experience is 
considered to

[[Page 555]]

have met the total aeronautical experience requirements of this section, 
provided the applicant satisfactorily completed an approved commercial 
pilot course under part 142 of this chapter and the approved course was 
appropriate to the commercial pilot certificate and aircraft rating 
sought.
    (j) Technically advanced airplane. Unless otherwise authorized by 
the Administrator, a technically advanced airplane must be equipped with 
an electronically advanced avionics system that includes the following 
installed components:
    (1) An electronic Primary Flight Display (PFD) that includes, at a 
minimum, an airspeed indicator, turn coordinator, attitude indicator, 
heading indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator;
    (2) An electronic Multifunction Display (MFD) that includes, at a 
minimum, a moving map using Global Positioning System (GPS) navigation 
with the aircraft position displayed;
    (3) A two axis autopilot integrated with the navigation and heading 
guidance system; and
    (4) The display elements described in paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of 
this section must be continuously visible.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-101, 62 FR 16892, 
Apr. 8, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 
FR 20288, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 
61-124A, 74 FR 53645, Oct. 20, 2009; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30278, June 27, 
2018]



Sec. 61.131  Exceptions to the night flying requirements.

    (a) Subject to the limitations of paragraph (b) of this section, a 
person is not required to comply with the night flight training 
requirements of this subpart if the person receives flight training in 
and resides in the State of Alaska.
    (b) A person who receives flight training in and resides in the 
State of Alaska but does not meet the night flight training requirements 
of this section:
    (1) May be issued a pilot certificate with the limitation ``night 
flying prohibited.''
    (2) Must comply with the appropriate night flight training 
requirements of this subpart within the 12-calendar-month period after 
the issuance of the pilot certificate. At the end of that period, the 
certificate will become invalid for use until the person complies with 
the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart. The 
person may have the ``night flying prohibited'' limitation removed if 
the person--
    (i) Accomplishes the appropriate night flight training requirements 
of this subpart; and
    (ii) Presents to an examiner a logbook or training record 
endorsement from an authorized instructor that verifies accomplishment 
of the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.133  Commercial pilot privileges and limitations.

    (a) Privileges--(1) General. A person who holds a commercial pilot 
certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft--
    (i) Carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, provided 
the person is qualified in accordance with this part and with the 
applicable parts of this chapter that apply to the operation; and
    (ii) For compensation or hire, provided the person is qualified in 
accordance with this part and with the applicable parts of this chapter 
that apply to the operation.
    (2) Commercial pilots with lighter-than-air category ratings. A 
person with a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air 
category rating may--
    (i) For an airship--(A) Give flight and ground training in an 
airship for the issuance of a certificate or rating;
    (B) Give an endorsement for a pilot certificate with an airship 
rating;
    (C) Endorse a pilot's logbook for solo operating privileges in an 
airship;
    (D) Act as pilot in command of an airship under IFR or in weather 
conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight; and
    (E) Give flight and ground training and endorsements that are 
required for a flight review, an operating privilege or recency-of-
experience requirements of this part.

[[Page 556]]

    (ii) For a balloon--(A) Give flight and ground training in a balloon 
for the issuance of a certificate or rating;
    (B) Give an endorsement for a pilot certificate with a balloon 
rating;
    (C) Endorse a pilot's logbook for solo operating privileges in a 
balloon; and
    (D) Give ground and flight training and endorsements that are 
required for a flight review, an operating privilege, or recency-of-
experience requirements of this part.
    (b) Limitations. (1) A person who applies for a commercial pilot 
certificate with an airplane category or powered-lift category rating 
and does not hold an instrument rating in the same category and class 
will be issued a commercial pilot certificate that contains the 
limitation, ``The carriage of passengers for hire in (airplanes) 
(powered-lifts) on cross-country flights in excess of 50 nautical miles 
or at night is prohibited.'' The limitation may be removed when the 
person satisfactorily accomplishes the requirements listed in Sec. 
61.65 of this part for an instrument rating in the same category and 
class of aircraft listed on the person's commercial pilot certificate.
    (2) If a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with 
a balloon rating takes a practical test in a balloon with an airborne 
heater--
    (i) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the 
exercise of the privileges of that certificate to a balloon with an 
airborne heater.
    (ii) The limitation specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section 
may be removed when the person obtains the required aeronautical 
experience in a gas balloon and receives a logbook endorsement from an 
authorized instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the 
required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a 
gas balloon.
    (3) If a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with 
a balloon rating takes a practical test in a gas balloon--
    (i) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the 
exercise of the privileges of that certificate to a gas balloon.
    (ii) The limitation specified in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section 
may be removed when the person obtains the required aeronautical 
experience in a balloon with an airborne heater and receives a logbook 
endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's 
accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to 
satisfactorily operate a balloon with an airborne heater.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, 
July 30, 1997; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 
2016]



Sec. Sec. 61.135-61.141  [Reserved]



                   Subpart G_Airline Transport Pilots



Sec. 61.151  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of airline 
transport pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which 
those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating 
rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings.



Sec. 61.153  Eligibility requirements: General.

    To be eligible for an airline transport pilot certificate, a person 
must:
    (a) Meet the following age requirements:
    (1) For an airline transport pilot certificate obtained under the 
aeronautical experience requirements of Sec. Sec. 61.159, 61.161, or 
61.163, be at least 23 years of age; or
    (2) For an airline transport pilot certificate obtained under the 
aeronautical experience requirements of Sec. 61.160, be at least 21 
years of age.
    (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for 
the safe operation of the aircraft;
    (c) Be of good moral character;
    (d) Meet at least one of the following requirements:
    (1) Holds a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating 
issued under this part;
    (2) Meet the military experience requirements under Sec. 61.73 of 
this part to

[[Page 557]]

qualify for a commercial pilot certificate, and an instrument rating if 
the person is a rated military pilot or former rated military pilot of 
an Armed Force of the United States; or
    (3) Holds either a foreign airline transport pilot license with 
instrument privileges, or a foreign commercial pilot license with an 
instrument rating, that--
    (i) Was issued by a contracting State to the Convention on 
International Civil Aviation; and
    (ii) Contains no geographical limitations.
    (e) For an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane 
category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot 
certificate obtained concurrently with a multiengine airplane type 
rating, receive a graduation certificate from an authorized training 
provider certifying completion of the airline transport pilot 
certification training program specified in Sec. 61.156 before applying 
for the knowledge test required by paragraph (g) of this section;
    (f) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this subpart 
that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought before 
applying for the practical test;
    (g) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of 
Sec. 61.155(c) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and 
class rating sought;
    (h) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation listed in 
Sec. 61.157(e) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and 
class rating sought; and
    (i) Comply with the sections of this subpart that apply to the 
aircraft category and class rating sought.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42559, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-130, 
78 FR 42374, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021]



Sec. 61.155  Aeronautical knowledge.

    (a) General. The knowledge test for an airline transport pilot 
certificate is based on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in 
paragraph (c) of this section that are appropriate to the aircraft 
category and class rating sought.
    (b) Aircraft type rating. A person who is applying for an additional 
aircraft type rating to be added to an airline transport pilot 
certificate is not required to pass a knowledge test if that person's 
airline transport pilot certificate lists the aircraft category and 
class rating that is appropriate to the type rating sought.
    (c) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation 
Regulations of this chapter that relate to airline transport pilot 
privileges, limitations, and flight operations;
    (2) Meteorology, including knowledge of and effects of fronts, 
frontal characteristics, cloud formations, icing, and upper-air data;
    (3) General system of weather and NOTAM collection, dissemination, 
interpretation, and use;
    (4) Interpretation and use of weather charts, maps, forecasts, 
sequence reports, abbreviations, and symbols;
    (5) National Weather Service functions as they pertain to operations 
in the National Airspace System;
    (6) Windshear and microburst awareness, identification, and 
avoidance;
    (7) Principles of air navigation under instrument meteorological 
conditions in the National Airspace System;
    (8) Air traffic control procedures and pilot responsibilities as 
they relate to en route operations, terminal area and radar operations, 
and instrument departure and approach procedures;
    (9) Aircraft loading, weight and balance, use of charts, graphs, 
tables, formulas, and computations, and their effect on aircraft 
performance;
    (10) Aerodynamics relating to an aircraft's flight characteristics 
and performance in normal and abnormal flight regimes;
    (11) Human factors;
    (12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment;
    (13) Crew resource management to include crew communication and 
coordination; and
    (14) For an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane 
category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot 
certificate obtained concurrently with a multiengine airplane type 
rating, the content of the

[[Page 558]]

airline transport pilot certification training program in Sec. 61.156.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-130, 
78 FR 42374, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-130C, 81 FR 2, Jan. 4, 2016; Amdt. 
61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021]



Sec. 61.156  Training requirements: Airplane category--multiengine
class or multiengine airplane type rating concurrently with an
airline transport pilot 
          certificate.

    A person who applies for the knowledge test for an airline transport 
pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating 
must present a graduation certificate from an authorized training 
provider under part 121, 135, 141, or 142 of this chapter certifying the 
applicant has completed the following training in a course approved by 
the Administrator.
    (a) Academic training. The applicant for the knowledge test must 
receive at least 30 hours of classroom instruction that includes the 
following:
    (1) At least 8 hours of instruction on aerodynamics including high 
altitude operations;
    (2) At least 2 hours of instruction on meteorology, including 
adverse weather phenomena and weather detection systems; and
    (3) At least 14 hours of instruction on air carrier operations, 
including the following areas:
    (i) Physiology;
    (ii) Communications;
    (iii) Checklist philosophy;
    (iv) Operational control;
    (v) Minimum equipment list/configuration deviation list;
    (vi) Ground operations;
    (vii) Turbine engines;
    (viii) Transport category aircraft performance;
    (ix) Automation, navigation, and flight path warning systems.
    (4) At least 6 hours of instruction on leadership, professional 
development, crew resource management, and safety culture.
    (b) FSTD training. The applicant for the knowledge test must receive 
at least 10 hours of training in a flight simulation training device 
qualified under part 60 of this chapter that represents a multiengine 
turbine airplane. The training must include the following:
    (1) At least 6 hours of training in a Level C or higher full flight 
simulator qualified under part 60 of this chapter that represents a 
multiengine turbine airplane with a maximum takeoff weight of 40,000 
pounds or greater. The training must include the following areas:
    (i) Low energy states/stalls;
    (ii) Upset recovery techniques; and
    (iii) Adverse weather conditions, including icing, thunderstorms, 
and crosswinds with gusts.
    (2) The remaining FSTD training may be completed in a Level 4 or 
higher flight simulation training device. The training must include the 
following areas:
    (i) Navigation including flight management systems; and
    (ii) Automation including autoflight.
    (c) Deviation authority. The Administrator may issue deviation 
authority from the weight requirement in paragraph (b)(1) of this 
section upon a determination that the objectives of the training can be 
met in an alternative device.

[Doc. No. FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42375, July 15, 2013, as amended by Amdt. 
61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021]



Sec. 61.157  Flight proficiency.

    (a) General. (1) The practical test for an airline transport pilot 
certificate is given for--
    (i) An airplane category and single engine class rating.
    (ii) An airplane category and multiengine class rating.
    (iii) A rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating.
    (iv) A powered-lift category rating.
    (v) An aircraft type rating.
    (2) A person who is applying for an airline transport pilot 
practical test must meet--
    (i) The eligibility requirements of Sec. 61.153; and
    (ii) The aeronautical knowledge and aeronautical experience 
requirements of this subpart that apply to the aircraft category and 
class rating sought.
    (b) Aircraft type rating. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of 
this section, a person who applies for an aircraft type rating to be 
added to an airline transport pilot certificate or applies for a

[[Page 559]]

type rating to be concurrently completed with an airline transport pilot 
certificate:
    (1) Must receive and log ground and flight training from an 
authorized instructor on the areas of operation under this section that 
apply to the aircraft type rating;
    (2) Must receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor 
that certifies the applicant completed the training on the areas of 
operation listed under paragraph (e) of this section that apply to the 
aircraft type rating; and
    (3) Must perform the practical test in actual or simulated 
instrument conditions, except as provided under paragraph (g) of this 
section.
    (c) Exceptions. A person who applies for an aircraft type rating to 
be added to an airline transport pilot certificate or an aircraft type 
rating concurrently with an airline transport pilot certificate, and who 
is an employee of a certificate holder operating under part 121 or part 
135 of this chapter, does not need to comply with the requirements of 
paragraph (b) of this section if the applicant presents a training 
record that shows completion of that certificate holder's approved 
training program for the aircraft type rating.
    (d) Upgrading type ratings. Any type rating(s) and limitations on a 
pilot certificate of an applicant who completes an airline transport 
pilot practical test will be included at the airline transport pilot 
certification level, provided the applicant passes the practical test in 
the same category and class of aircraft for which the applicant holds 
the type rating(s).
    (e) Areas of operation. (1) For an airplane category--single engine 
class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Takeoff and departure phase;
    (iv) In-flight maneuvers;
    (v) Instrument procedures;
    (vi) Landings and approaches to landings;
    (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;
    (viii) Emergency procedures; and
    (ix) Postflight procedures.
    (2) For an airplane category--multiengine class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Takeoff and departure phase;
    (iv) In-flight maneuvers;
    (v) Instrument procedures;
    (vi) Landings and approaches to landings;
    (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;
    (viii) Emergency procedures; and
    (ix) Postflight procedures.
    (3) For a powered-lift category rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Takeoff and departure phase;
    (iv) In-flight maneuvers;
    (v) Instrument procedures;
    (vi) Landings and approaches to landings;
    (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;
    (viii) Emergency procedures; and
    (ix) Postflight procedures.
    (4) For a rotorcraft category--helicopter class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Takeoff and departure phase;
    (iv) In-flight maneuvers;
    (v) Instrument procedures;
    (vi) Landings and approaches to landings;
    (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;
    (viii) Emergency procedures; and
    (ix) Postflight procedures.
    (f) Proficiency and competency checks conducted under part 121, part 
135, or subpart K of part 91. (1) Successful completion of any of the 
following checks satisfies the flight proficiency requirements of this 
section for the issuance of an airline transport pilot certificate and/
or the appropriate aircraft rating:
    (i) A proficiency check under Sec. 121.441 of this chapter.
    (ii) Both a competency check under Sec. 135.293(a)(2) and Sec. 
135.293(b) of this chapter and pilot-in-command instrument proficiency 
check under Sec. 135.297 of this chapter.
    (iii) Both a competency check under Sec. 91.1065 of this chapter 
and a pilot-in-command instrument proficiency check under Sec. 91.1069 
of this chapter.
    (2) The checks specified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section must be 
conducted by one of the following:

[[Page 560]]

    (i) An FAA Aviation Safety Inspector.
    (ii) An Aircrew Program Designee who is authorized to perform 
proficiency and/or competency checks for the air carrier whose approved 
training program has been satisfactorily completed by the pilot 
applicant.
    (iii) A Training Center Evaluator with appropriate certification 
authority who is also authorized to perform the portions of the 
competency and/or proficiency checks required by paragraph (f)(1) of 
this section for the air carrier whose approved training program has 
been satisfactorily completed by the pilot applicant.
    (g) Aircraft not capable of instrument maneuvers and procedures. An 
applicant may add a type rating to an airline transport pilot 
certificate with an aircraft that is not capable of the instrument 
maneuvers and procedures required on the practical test under the 
following circumstances--
    (1) The rating is limited to ``VFR only.''
    (2) The type rating is added to an airline transport pilot 
certificate that has instrument privileges in that category and class of 
aircraft.
    (3) The ``VFR only'' limitation may be removed for that aircraft 
type after the applicant:
    (i) Passes a practical test in that type of aircraft on the 
appropriate instrument maneuvers and procedures in Sec. 61.157; or
    (ii) Becomes qualified in Sec. 61.73(d) for that type of aircraft.
    (h) Multiengine airplane with a single-pilot station. An applicant 
for a type rating, at the ATP certification level, in a multiengine 
airplane with a single-pilot station must perform the practical test in 
the multi-seat version of that airplane. The practical test may be 
performed in the single-seat version of that airplane if the Examiner is 
in a position to observe the applicant during the practical test in the 
case where there is no multi-seat version of that multiengine airplane.
    (i) Single engine airplane with a single-pilot station. An applicant 
for a type rating, at the ATP certification level, in a single engine 
airplane with a single-pilot station must perform the practical test in 
the multi-seat version of that single engine airplane. The practical 
test may be performed in the single-seat version of that airplane if the 
Examiner is in a position to observe the applicant during the practical 
test in the case where there is no multi-seat version of that single 
engine airplane.
    (j) Waiver authority. An Examiner who conducts a practical test may 
waive any task for which the FAA has provided waiver authority.

[Doc. No. FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42560, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 
FR 53647, Oct. 20, 2009; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42375, July 15, 2013]



Sec. 61.158  [Reserved]



Sec. 61.159  Aeronautical experience: Airplane category rating.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this 
section, a person who is applying for an airline transport pilot 
certificate with an airplane category and class rating must have at 
least 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least:
    (1) 500 hours of cross-country flight time.
    (2) 100 hours of night flight time.
    (3) 50 hours of flight time in the class of airplane for the rating 
sought. A maximum of 25 hours of training in a full flight simulator 
representing the class of airplane for the rating sought may be credited 
toward the flight time requirement of this paragraph if the training was 
accomplished as part of an approved training course in parts 121, 135, 
141, or 142 of this chapter. A flight training device or aviation 
training device may not be used to satisfy this requirement.
    (4) 75 hours of instrument flight time, in actual or simulated 
instrument conditions, subject to the following:
    (i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, an 
applicant may not receive credit for more than a total of 25 hours of 
simulated instrument time in a full flight simulator or flight training 
device.
    (ii) A maximum of 50 hours of training in a full flight simulator or 
flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time 
requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section if the training was 
accomplished in a course conducted by a training

[[Page 561]]

center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (iii) Training in a full flight simulator or flight training device 
must be accomplished in a full flight simulator or flight training 
device, representing an airplane.
    (5) 250 hours of flight time in an airplane as a pilot in command, 
or as second in command performing the duties of pilot in command while 
under the supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination thereof, 
subject to the following:
    (i) The flight time requirement must include at least--
    (A) 100 hours of cross-country flight time; and
    (B) 25 hours of night flight time.
    (ii) Except for a person who has been removed from flying status for 
lack of proficiency or because of a disciplinary action involving 
aircraft operations, a U.S. military pilot or former U.S. military pilot 
who meets the requirements of Sec. 61.73(b)(1), or a military pilot in 
the Armed Forces of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on 
International Civil Aviation who meets the requirements of Sec. 
61.73(c)(1), may credit flight time in a powered-lift aircraft operated 
in horizontal flight toward the flight time requirement.
    (6) Not more than 100 hours of the total aeronautical experience 
requirements of paragraph (a) of this section or Sec. 61.160 may be 
obtained in a full flight simulator or flight training device provided 
the device represents an airplane and the aeronautical experience was 
accomplished as part of an approved training course in parts 121, 135, 
141, or 142 of this chapter.
    (b) A person who has performed at least 20 night takeoffs and 
landings to a full stop may substitute each additional night takeoff and 
landing to a full stop for 1 hour of night flight time to satisfy the 
requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section; however, not more than 
25 hours of night flight time may be credited in this manner.
    (c) A commercial pilot may log second-in-command pilot time toward 
the aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (a) of this 
section and the aeronautical experience requirements in Sec. 61.160, 
provided the pilot is employed by a part 119 certificate holder 
authorized to conduct operations under part 135 of this chapter and the 
second-in-command pilot time is obtained in operations conducted for the 
certificate holder under part 91 or 135 of this chapter when a second 
pilot is not required under the type certification of the aircraft or 
the regulations under which the flight is being conducted, and the 
following requirements are met--
    (1) The experience must be accomplished as part of a second-in-
command professional development program approved by the Administrator 
under Sec. 135.99 of this chapter;
    (2) The flight operation must be conducted in accordance with the 
certificate holder's operations specification for the second-in-command 
professional development program;
    (3) The pilot in command of the operation must certify in the 
pilot's logbook that the second-in-command pilot time was accomplished 
under this section; and
    (4) The pilot time may not be logged as pilot-in-command time even 
when the pilot is the sole manipulator of the controls and may not be 
used to meet the aeronautical experience requirements in paragraph 
(a)(5) of this section.
    (d) A commercial pilot may log the following flight engineer flight 
time toward the 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot required by 
paragraph (a) of this section and the total time as a pilot required by 
Sec. 61.160:
    (1) Flight-engineer time, provided the time--
    (i) Is acquired in an airplane required to have a flight engineer by 
the airplane's flight manual or type certificate;
    (ii) Is acquired while engaged in operations under part 121 of this 
chapter for which a flight engineer is required;
    (iii) Is acquired while the person is participating in a pilot 
training program approved under part 121 of this chapter; and
    (iv) Does not exceed more than 1 hour for each 3 hours of flight 
engineer flight time for a total credited time of no more than 500 
hours.
    (2) Flight-engineer time, provided the flight time--

[[Page 562]]

    (i) Is acquired as a U.S. Armed Forces' flight engineer crewmember 
in an airplane that requires a flight engineer crewmember by the flight 
manual;
    (ii) Is acquired while the person is participating in a flight 
engineer crewmember training program for the U.S. Armed Forces; and
    (iii) Does not exceed 1 hour for each 3 hours of flight engineer 
flight time for a total credited time of no more than 500 hours.
    (e) An applicant who credits time under paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) 
of this section is issued an airline transport pilot certificate with 
the limitation, ``Holder does not meet the pilot in command aeronautical 
experience requirements of ICAO,'' as prescribed under Article 39 of the 
Convention on International Civil Aviation.
    (f) An applicant is entitled to an airline transport pilot 
certificate without the ICAO limitation specified under paragraph (e) of 
this section when the applicant presents satisfactory evidence of having 
met the ICAO requirements under paragraph (e) of this section and 
otherwise meets the aeronautical experience requirements of this 
section.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-103, 
62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20288, Apr. 23, 1998; 
Amdt. 61-109, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42561, 
Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42375, July 15, 2013; Admt. 61-130A, 
78 FR 44874, July 25, 2013; Amdt. 61-130B, 78 FR 77573, Dec. 24, 2013; 
Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30278, June 27, 2018; Amdt. Nos. 61-150, 87 FR 
57590, Sept. 21, 2022]



Sec. 61.160  Aeronautical experience--airplane category restricted privileges.

    (a) Except for a person who has been removed from flying status for 
lack of proficiency or because of a disciplinary action involving 
aircraft operations, a U.S. military pilot or former U.S. military pilot 
may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane 
category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot 
certificate concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating with a 
minimum of 750 hours of total time as a pilot if the pilot presents:
    (1) An official Form DD-214 (Certificate of Release or Discharge 
from Active Duty) indicating that the person was honorably discharged 
from the U.S. Armed Forces or an official U.S. Armed Forces record that 
shows the pilot is currently serving in the U.S. Armed Forces; and
    (2) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person 
graduated from a U.S. Armed Forces undergraduate pilot training school 
and received a rating qualification as a military pilot.
    (b) A person may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate 
with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline 
transport pilot certificate concurrently with a multiengine airplane 
type rating with a minimum of 1,000 hours of total time as a pilot if 
the person:
    (1) Holds a Bachelor's degree with an aviation major from an 
institution of higher education, as defined in Sec. 61.1, that has been 
issued a letter of authorization by the Administrator under Sec. 
61.169;
    (2) Completes 60 semester credit hours of aviation and aviation-
related coursework that has been recognized by the Administrator as 
coursework designed to improve and enhance the knowledge and skills of a 
person seeking a career as a professional pilot;
    (3) Holds a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category 
and instrument rating if:
    (i) The required ground training was completed as part of an 
approved part 141 curriculum at the institution of higher education; and
    (ii) The required flight training was completed as part of an 
approved part 141 curriculum at the institution of higher education or 
at a part 141 pilot school that has a training agreement under Sec. 
141.26 of this chapter with the institution of higher education; and
    (4) Presents official transcripts or other documentation acceptable 
to the Administrator from the institution of higher education certifying 
that the graduate has satisfied the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) 
through (3) of this section.
    (c) A person may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate 
with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline 
transport pilot certificate concurrently with a multiengine airplane 
type rating with a minimum

[[Page 563]]

of 1,250 hours of total time as a pilot if the person:
    (1) Holds an Associate's degree with an aviation major from an 
institution of higher education, as defined in Sec. 61.1, that has been 
issued a letter of authorization by the Administrator under Sec. 
61.169;
    (2) Completes at least 30 semester credit hours of aviation and 
aviation-related coursework that has been recognized by the 
Administrator as coursework designed to improve and enhance the 
knowledge and skills of a person seeking a career as a professional 
pilot;
    (3) Holds a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category 
and instrument rating if:
    (i) The required ground training was completed as part of an 
approved part 141 curriculum at the institution of higher education; and
    (ii) The required flight training was completed as part of an 
approved part 141 curriculum at the institution of higher education or 
at a part 141 pilot school that has a written training agreement under 
Sec. 141.26 of this chapter with the institution of higher education; 
and
    (4) Presents official transcripts or other documentation acceptable 
to the Administrator from the institution of higher education certifying 
that the graduate has satisfied the requirements in paragraphs (c)(1) 
through (3) of this section.
    (d) A graduate of an institution of higher education who completes 
fewer than 60 semester credit hours but at least 30 credit hours and 
otherwise satisfies the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section 
may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane 
category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot 
certificate concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating with a 
minimum of 1,250 hours of total time as a pilot.
    (e) A person who applies for an airline transport pilot certificate 
under the total flight times listed in paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and (d) 
of this section must otherwise meet the aeronautical experience 
requirements of Sec. 61.159, except that the person may apply for an 
airline transport pilot certificate with 200 hours of cross-country 
flight time.
    (f) A person may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate 
with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline 
transport pilot certificate concurrently with a multiengine airplane 
type rating if the person has 1,500 hours total time as a pilot, 200 
hours of cross-country flight time, and otherwise meets the aeronautical 
experience requirements of Sec. 61.159.
    (g) An airline transport pilot certificate obtained under this 
section is subject to the pilot in command limitations set forth in 
Sec. 61.167(b) and must contain the following limitation, ``Restricted 
in accordance with 14 CFR 61.167.'' The pilot is entitled to an airline 
transport pilot certificate without the limitation specified in this 
paragraph when the applicant presents satisfactory evidence of having 
met the aeronautical experience requirements of Sec. 61.159 and the age 
requirement of Sec. 61.153(a)(1).
    (h) An applicant who meets the aeronautical experience requirements 
of paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and (d) of this section is issued an 
airline transport pilot certificate with the limitation, ``Holder does 
not meet the pilot in command aeronautical experience requirements of 
ICAO,'' as prescribed under Article 39 of the Convention on 
International Civil Aviation if the applicant does not meet the ICAO 
requirements contained in Annex 1 ``Personnel Licensing'' to the 
Convention on International Civil Aviation. An applicant is entitled to 
an airline transport pilot certificate without the ICAO limitation 
specified under this paragraph when the applicant presents satisfactory 
evidence of having met the ICAO requirements and otherwise meets the 
aeronautical experience requirements of Sec. 61.159.

[Doc. No. FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42375, July 15, 2013, as amended by Amdt. 
61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021]



Sec. 61.161  Aeronautical experience: Rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating.

    (a) A person who is applying for an airline transport pilot 
certificate with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating, must 
have at least 1,200

[[Page 564]]

hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least:
    (1) 500 hours of cross-country flight time;
    (2) 100 hours of night flight time, of which 15 hours are in 
helicopters;
    (3) 200 hours of flight time in helicopters, which includes at least 
75 hours as a pilot in command, or as second in command performing the 
duties of a pilot in command under the supervision of a pilot in 
command, or any combination thereof; and
    (4) 75 hours of instrument flight time in actual or simulated 
instrument meteorological conditions, of which at least 50 hours are 
obtained in flight with at least 25 hours in helicopters as a pilot in 
command, or as second in command performing the duties of a pilot in 
command under the supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination 
thereof.
    (b) Training in a full flight simulator or flight training device 
may be credited toward the instrument flight time requirements of 
paragraph (a)(4) of this section, subject to the following:
    (1) Training in a full flight simulator or a flight training device 
must be accomplished in a full flight simulator or flight training 
device that represents a rotorcraft.
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, an 
applicant may receive credit for not more than a total of 25 hours of 
simulated instrument time in a full flight simulator and flight training 
device.
    (3) A maximum of 50 hours of training in a full flight simulator or 
flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time 
requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section if the aeronautical 
experience is accomplished in an approved course conducted by a training 
center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (c) Flight time logged under Sec. 61.159(c) may be counted toward 
the 1,200 hours of total time as a pilot required by paragraph (a) of 
this section and the flight time requirements of paragraphs (a)(1), (2), 
and (4) of this section, except for the specific helicopter flight time 
requirements.
    (d) An applicant who credits time under paragraph (c) of this 
section is issued an airline transport pilot certificate with the 
limitation, ``Holder does not meet the pilot in command aeronautical 
experience requirements of ICAO,'' as prescribed under Article 39 of the 
Convention on International Civil Aviation.
    (e) An applicant is entitled to an airline transport pilot 
certificate without the ICAO limitation specified under paragraph (d) of 
this section when the applicant presents satisfactory evidence of having 
met the ICAO requirements under paragraph (d) of this section and 
otherwise meets the aeronautical experience requirements of this 
section.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998; Docket FAA-
2016-6142, Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30279, June 27, 2018]



Sec. 61.163  Aeronautical experience: Powered-lift category rating.

    (a) A person who is applying for an airline transport pilot 
certificate with a powered-lift category rating must have at least 1,500 
hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least:
    (1) 500 hours of cross-country flight time;
    (2) 100 hours of night flight time;
    (3) 250 hours in a powered-lift as a pilot in command, or as a 
second in command performing the duties of a pilot in command under the 
supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination thereof, which 
includes at least--
    (i) 100 hours of cross-country flight time; and
    (ii) 25 hours of night flight time.
    (4) 75 hours of instrument flight time in actual or simulated 
instrument conditions, subject to the following:
    (i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, an 
applicant may not receive credit for more than a total of 25 hours of 
simulated instrument time in a flight simulator or flight training 
device.
    (ii) A maximum of 50 hours of training in a flight simulator or 
flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time 
requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section if the training was 
accomplished in a course conducted by a training center certificated 
under part 142 of this chapter.

[[Page 565]]

    (iii) Training in a flight simulator or flight training device must 
be accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training device that 
represents a powered-lift.
    (b) Not more than 100 hours of the total aeronautical experience 
requirements of paragraph (a) of this section may be obtained in a 
flight simulator or flight training device that represents a powered-
lift, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained in an approved 
course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of 
this chapter.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998]



Sec. 61.165  Additional aircraft category and class ratings.

    (a) Rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating. A person 
applying for an airline transport certificate with a rotorcraft category 
and helicopter class rating who holds an airline transport pilot 
certificate with another aircraft category rating must:
    (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of Sec. 61.153 of this part;
    (2) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of 
Sec. 61.155(c) of this part;
    (3) Comply with the requirements in Sec. 61.157(b) of this part, if 
appropriate;
    (4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of 
Sec. 61.161 of this part; and
    (5) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation of Sec. 
61.157(e)(4) of this part.
    (b) Airplane category rating with a single-engine class rating. A 
person applying for an airline transport certificate with an airplane 
category and single-engine class rating who holds an airline transport 
pilot certificate with another aircraft category rating must:
    (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of Sec. 61.153 of this part;
    (2) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of 
Sec. 61.155(c) of this part;
    (3) Comply with the requirements in Sec. 61.157(b) of this part, if 
appropriate;
    (4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of 
Sec. 61.159 of this part; and
    (5) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation of Sec. 
61.157(e)(1) of this part.
    (c) Airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating. A 
person applying for an airline transport certificate with an airplane 
category and multiengine class rating who holds an airline transport 
certificate with another aircraft category rating must:
    (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of Sec. 61.153 of this part;
    (2) Successfully complete the airline transport pilot certification 
training program specified in Sec. 61.156;
    (3) Pass a knowledge test for an airplane category multiengine class 
rating or type rating on the aeronautical knowledge areas of Sec. 
61.155(c);
    (4) Comply with the requirements in Sec. 61.157(b) of this part, if 
appropriate;
    (5) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of Sec. 61.159 or 
Sec. 61.160; and
    (6) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation of Sec. 
61.157(e)(2) of this part.
    (d) Powered-lift category. A person applying for an airline 
transport pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating who 
holds an airline transport certificate with another aircraft category 
rating must:
    (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of Sec. 61.153 of this part;
    (2) Pass a required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas of Sec. 61.155(c) of this part;
    (3) Comply with the requirements in Sec. 61.157(b) of this part, if 
appropriate;
    (4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of 
Sec. 61.163 of this part; and
    (5) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation of 
Sec. 61.157(e)(3) of this part.
    (e) Additional class rating within the same aircraft category. 
Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, a person applying 
for an airline transport pilot certificate with an additional class 
rating who holds an airline transport certificate in the same aircraft 
category must--
    (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of Sec. 61.153, except 
paragraph (g) of that section;
    (2) Comply with the requirements in Sec. 61.157(b) of this part, if 
applicable;

[[Page 566]]

    (3) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of 
subpart G of this part; and
    (4) Pass a practical test on the areas of operation of Sec. 
61.157(e) appropriate to the aircraft rating sought.
    (f) Adding a multiengine class rating to an airline transport pilot 
certificate with a single engine class rating. A person applying to add 
a multiengine class rating, or a multiengine class rating concurrently 
with a multiengine airplane type rating, to an airline transport pilot 
certificate with an airplane category single engine class rating must--
    (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of Sec. 61.153;
    (2) Pass a required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas of Sec. 61.155(c), as applicable to multiengine airplanes;
    (3) Comply with the requirements in Sec. 61.157(b), if applicable;
    (4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of 
Sec. 61.159; and
    (5) Pass a practical test on the areas of operation of Sec. 
61.157(e)(2).
    (g) Category class ratings for the operation of aircraft with 
experimental certificates. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs 
(a) through (f) of this section, a person holding an airline transport 
certificate may apply for a category and class rating limited to a 
specific make and model of experimental aircraft, provided--
    (1) The person has logged at least 5 hours flight time while acting 
as pilot in command in the same category, class, make, and model of 
aircraft that has been issued an experimental certificate;
    (2) The person has received a logbook endorsement from an authorized 
instructor who has determined that he or she is proficient to act as 
pilot in command of the same category, class, make, and model of 
aircraft for which application is made; and
    (3) The flight time specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this section 
must be logged between September 1, 2004 and August 31, 2005.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, 
July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; 
Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42376, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-130B, 78 FR 77574, 
Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 61-130C, 81 FR 2, Jan. 4, 2016]



Sec. 61.167  Airline transport pilot privileges and limitations.

    (a) Privileges. (1) A person who holds an airline transport pilot 
certificate is entitled to the same privileges as a person who holds a 
commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating.
    (2) A person who holds an airline transport pilot certificate and 
has met the aeronautical experience requirements of Sec. 61.159 or 
Sec. 61.161, and the age requirements of Sec. 61.153(a)(1) of this 
part may instruct--
    (i) Other pilots in air transportation service in aircraft of the 
category, class, and type, as applicable, for which the airline 
transport pilot is rated and endorse the logbook or other training 
record of the person to whom training has been given;
    (ii) In flight simulators, and flight training devices representing 
the aircraft referenced in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, when 
instructing under the provisions of this section and endorse the logbook 
or other training record of the person to whom training has been given;
    (iii) Only as provided in this section, except that an airline 
transport pilot who also holds a flight instructor certificate can 
exercise the instructor privileges under subpart H of this part for 
which he or she is rated; and
    (iv) In an aircraft, only if the aircraft has functioning dual 
controls, when instructing under the provisions of this section.
    (3) Excluding briefings and debriefings, an airline transport pilot 
may not instruct in aircraft, flight simulators, and flight training 
devices under this section--
    (i) For more than 8 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period; or
    (ii) For more than 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.
    (4) An airline transport pilot may not instruct in Category II or 
Category III operations unless he or she has been trained and 
successfully tested under Category II or Category III operations, as 
applicable.
    (b) Limitations. A person who holds an airline transport pilot 
certificate and has not satisfied the age requirement of Sec. 
61.153(a)(1) and the aeronautical experience requirements of Sec. 
61.159 may not:

[[Page 567]]

    (1) Act as pilot in command in operations conducted under part 121, 
Sec. 91.1053(a)(2)(i), or Sec. 135.243(a)(1) of this chapter, or
    (2) Serve as second in command in flag or supplemental operations in 
part 121 of this chapter requiring three or more pilots.

[Doc. No. FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42376, July 15, 2013, as amended by Amdt. 
61-130B, 78 FR 77574, Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 61-130C, 81 FR 2, Jan. 4, 
2016]



Sec. 61.169  Letters of authorization for institutions of higher education.

    (a) An institution of higher education that is accredited, as 
defined in Sec. 61.1, may apply for a letter of authorization for the 
purpose of certifying its graduates for an airline transport pilot 
certificate under the academic and aeronautical experience requirements 
in Sec. 61.160. The application must be in a form and manner acceptable 
to the Administrator.
    (b) An institution of higher education must comply with the 
provisions of the letter of authorization and may not certify a graduate 
unless it determines that the graduate has satisfied the requirements of 
Sec. 61.160, as appropriate.
    (c) The Administrator may rescind or amend a letter of authorization 
if the Administrator determines that the institution of higher education 
is not complying or is unable to comply with the provisions of the 
letter of authorization.

[Doc. No. FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42377, July 15, 2013]



Sec. Sec. 61.170-69.171  [Reserved]



Subpart H_Flight Instructors Other than Flight Instructors With a Sport 
                              Pilot Rating



Sec. 61.181  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of flight 
instructor certificates and ratings (except for flight instructor 
certificates with a sport pilot rating), the conditions under which 
those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the limitations on 
those certificates and ratings.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.183  Eligibility requirements.

    To be eligible for a flight instructor certificate or rating a 
person must:
    (a) Be at least 18 years of age;
    (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on that applicant's flight instructor certificate as are 
necessary;
    (c) Hold either a commercial pilot certificate or airline transport 
pilot certificate with:
    (1) An aircraft category and class rating that is appropriate to the 
flight instructor rating sought; and
    (2) An instrument rating, or privileges on that person's pilot 
certificate that are appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought, 
if applying for--
    (i) A flight instructor certificate with an airplane category and 
single-engine class rating;
    (ii) A flight instructor certificate with an airplane category and 
multiengine class rating;
    (iii) A flight instructor certificate with a powered-lift rating; or
    (iv) A flight instructor certificate with an instrument rating.
    (d) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor on 
the fundamentals of instructing listed in Sec. 61.185 of this part 
appropriate to the required knowledge test;
    (e) Pass a knowledge test on the areas listed in Sec. 61.185(a)(1) 
of this part, unless the applicant:
    (1) Holds a flight instructor certificate or ground instructor 
certificate issued under this part;
    (2) Holds a teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, city, 
or municipality that authorizes the person to teach at an educational 
level of the 7th grade or higher; or
    (3) Is employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university.
    (f) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed 
in Sec. 61.185(a)(2) and (a)(3) of this part that

[[Page 568]]

are appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought;
    (g) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor on 
the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.187(b) of this part, 
appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought;
    (h) Pass the required practical test that is appropriate to the 
flight instructor rating sought in an:
    (1) Aircraft that is representative of the category and class of 
aircraft for the aircraft rating sought; or
    (2) Flight simulator or approved flight training device that is 
representative of the category and class of aircraft for the rating 
sought, and used in accordance with a course at a training center 
certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (i) Accomplish the following for a flight instructor certificate 
with an airplane or a glider rating:
    (1) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor 
indicating that the applicant is competent and possesses instructional 
proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery 
procedures after providing the applicant with flight training in those 
training areas in an airplane or glider, as appropriate, that is 
certificated for spins; and
    (2) Demonstrate instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin 
entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures. However, upon presentation 
of the endorsement specified in paragraph (i)(1) of this section an 
examiner may accept that endorsement as satisfactory evidence of 
instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and 
spin recovery procedures for the practical test, provided that the 
practical test is not a retest as a result of the applicant failing the 
previous test for deficiencies in the knowledge or skill of stall 
awareness, spin entry, spins, or spin recovery instructional procedures. 
If the retest is a result of deficiencies in the ability of an applicant 
to demonstrate knowledge or skill of stall awareness, spin entry, spins, 
or spin recovery instructional procedures, the examiner must test the 
person on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery 
instructional procedures in an airplane or glider, as appropriate, that 
is certificated for spins;
    (j) Log at least 15 hours as pilot in command in the category and 
class of aircraft that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating 
sought; and
    (k) Comply with the appropriate sections of this part that apply to 
the flight instructor rating sought.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42561, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.185  Aeronautical knowledge.

    (a) A person who is applying for a flight instructor certificate 
must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on:
    (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the 
fundamentals of instructing, including:
    (i) The learning process;
    (ii) Elements of effective teaching;
    (iii) Student evaluation and testing;
    (iv) Course development;
    (v) Lesson planning; and
    (vi) Classroom training techniques.
    (2) The aeronautical knowledge areas for a recreational, private, 
and commercial pilot certificate applicable to the aircraft category for 
which flight instructor privileges are sought; and
    (3) The aeronautical knowledge areas for the instrument rating 
applicable to the category for which instrument flight instructor 
privileges are sought.
    (b) The following applicants do not need to comply with paragraph 
(a)(1) of this section:
    (1) The holder of a flight instructor certificate or ground 
instructor certificate issued under this part;
    (2) The holder of a current teacher's certificate issued by a State, 
county, city, or municipality that authorizes the person to teach at an 
educational level of the 7th grade or higher; or
    (3) A person employed as a teacher at an accredited college or 
university.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.187  Flight proficiency.

    (a) General. A person who is applying for a flight instructor 
certificate must receive and log flight and ground training from an 
authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in this section 
that apply to the flight instructor rating sought. The applicant's 
logbook must contain an endorsement

[[Page 569]]

from an authorized instructor certifying that the person is proficient 
to pass a practical test on those areas of operation.
    (b) Areas of operation. (1) For an airplane category rating with a 
single-engine class rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subject areas;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;
    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Preflight procedures;
    (vi) Airport and seaplane base operations;
    (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (viii) Fundamentals of flight;
    (ix) Performance maneuvers;
    (x) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (xi) Slow flight, stalls, and spins;
    (xii) Basic instrument maneuvers;
    (xiii) Emergency operations; and
    (xiv) Postflight procedures.
    (2) For an airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subject areas;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;
    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Preflight procedures;
    (vi) Airport and seaplane base operations;
    (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (viii) Fundamentals of flight;
    (ix) Performance maneuvers;
    (x) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (xi) Slow flight and stalls;
    (xii) Basic instrument maneuvers;
    (xiii) Emergency operations;
    (xiv) Multiengine operations; and
    (xv) Postflight procedures.
    (3) For a rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subject areas;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;
    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Preflight procedures;
    (vi) Airport and heliport operations;
    (vii) Hovering maneuvers;
    (viii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (ix) Fundamentals of flight;
    (x) Performance maneuvers;
    (xi) Emergency operations;
    (xii) Special operations; and
    (xiii) Postflight procedures.
    (4) For a rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subject areas;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;
    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Preflight procedures;
    (vi) Airport operations;
    (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (viii) Fundamentals of flight;
    (ix) Performance maneuvers;
    (x) Flight at slow airspeeds;
    (xi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (xii) Emergency operations; and
    (xiii) Postflight procedures.
    (5) For a powered-lift category rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subject areas;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;
    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Preflight procedures;
    (vi) Airport and heliport operations;
    (vii) Hovering maneuvers;
    (viii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (ix) Fundamentals of flight;
    (x) Performance maneuvers;
    (xi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (xii) Slow flight and stalls;
    (xiii) Basic instrument maneuvers;
    (xiv) Emergency operations;
    (xv) Special operations; and
    (xvi) Postflight procedures.
    (6) For a glider category rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subject areas;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;
    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Preflight procedures;
    (vi) Airport and gliderport operations;
    (vii) Launches and landings;
    (viii) Fundamentals of flight;
    (ix) Performance speeds;
    (x) Soaring techniques;
    (xi) Performance maneuvers;
    (xii) Slow flight, stalls, and spins;
    (xiii) Emergency operations; and
    (xiv) Postflight procedures.
    (7) For an instrument rating with the appropriate aircraft category 
and class rating:

[[Page 570]]

    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subject areas;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;
    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Air traffic control clearances and procedures;
    (vi) Flight by reference to instruments;
    (vii) Navigation aids;
    (viii) Instrument approach procedures;
    (ix) Emergency operations; and
    (x) Postflight procedures.
    (c) The flight training required by this section may be 
accomplished:
    (1) In an aircraft that is representative of the category and class 
of aircraft for the rating sought; or
    (2) In a flight simulator or flight training device representative 
of the category and class of aircraft for the rating sought, and used in 
accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated 
under part 142 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42561, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.189  Flight instructor records.

    (a) A flight instructor must sign the logbook of each person to whom 
that instructor has given flight training or ground training.
    (b) A flight instructor must maintain a record in a logbook or a 
separate document that contains the following:
    (1) The name of each person whose logbook that instructor has 
endorsed for solo flight privileges, and the date of the endorsement; 
and
    (2) The name of each person that instructor has endorsed for a 
knowledge test or practical test, and the record shall also indicate the 
kind of test, the date, and the results.
    (c) Each flight instructor must retain the records required by this 
section for at least 3 years.

[Docket No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Docket FAA-
2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016]



Sec. 61.191  Additional flight instructor ratings.

    (a) A person who applies for an additional flight instructor rating 
on a flight instructor certificate must meet the eligibility 
requirements listed in Sec. 61.183 of this part that apply to the 
flight instructor rating sought.
    (b) A person who applies for an additional rating on a flight 
instructor certificate is not required to pass the knowledge test on the 
areas listed in Sec. 61.185(a)(1) of this part.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.193  Flight instructor privileges.

    (a) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate is authorized 
within the limitations of that person's flight instructor certificate 
and ratings to train and issue endorsements that are required for:
    (1) A student pilot certificate;
    (2) A pilot certificate;
    (3) A flight instructor certificate;
    (4) A ground instructor certificate;
    (5) An aircraft rating;
    (6) An instrument rating;
    (7) A flight review, operating privilege, or recency of experience 
requirement of this part;
    (8) A practical test; and
    (9) A knowledge test.
    (b) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate is 
authorized, in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator, to:
    (1) Accept an application for a student pilot certificate or, for an 
applicant who holds a pilot certificate (other than a student pilot 
certificate) issued under part 61 of this chapter and meets the flight 
review requirements specified in Sec. 61.56, a remote pilot certificate 
with a small UAS rating;
    (2) Verify the identity of the applicant; and
    (3) Verify that an applicant for a student pilot certificate meets 
the eligibility requirements in Sec. 61.83 or an applicant for a remote 
pilot certificate with a small UAS rating meets the eligibility 
requirements in Sec. 107.61 of this chapter.

[Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016, as 
amended by Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 61-137, 81 FR 42208, June 28, 
2016]

[[Page 571]]



Sec. 61.195  Flight instructor limitations and qualifications.

    A person who holds a flight instructor certificate is subject to the 
following limitations:
    (a) Hours of training. In any 24-consecutive-hour period, a flight 
instructor may not conduct more than 8 hours of flight training.
    (b) Aircraft ratings. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this 
section, a flight instructor may not conduct flight training in any 
aircraft unless the flight instructor:
    (1) Holds a flight instructor certificate with the applicable 
category and class rating;
    (2) Holds a pilot certificate with the applicable category and class 
rating; and
    (3) Meets the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section, if 
applicable.
    (c) Instrument rating. A flight instructor may conduct instrument 
training for the issuance of an instrument rating, a type rating not 
limited to VFR, or the instrument training required for commercial pilot 
and airline transport pilot certificates if the following requirements 
are met:
    (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the 
flight instructor must hold an instrument rating appropriate to the 
aircraft used for the instrument training on his or her flight 
instructor certificate, and--
    (i) Meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section; or
    (ii) Hold a commercial pilot certificate or airline transport pilot 
certificate with the appropriate category and class ratings for the 
aircraft in which the instrument training is conducted provided the 
pilot receiving instrument training holds a pilot certificate with 
category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft in which the 
instrument training is being conducted.
    (2) If the flight instructor is conducting the instrument training 
in a multiengine airplane, the flight instructor must hold an instrument 
rating appropriate to the aircraft used for the instrument training on 
his or her flight instructor certificate and meet the requirements of 
paragraph (b) of this section.
    (d) Limitations on endorsements. A flight instructor may not endorse 
a:
    (1) Student pilot's logbook for solo flight privileges, unless that 
flight instructor has--
    (i) Given that student the flight training required for solo flight 
privileges required by this part; and
    (ii) Determined that the student is prepared to conduct the flight 
safely under known circumstances, subject to any limitations listed in 
the student's logbook that the instructor considers necessary for the 
safety of the flight.
    (2) Student pilot's logbook for a solo cross-country flight, unless 
that flight instructor has determined the student's flight preparation, 
planning, equipment, and proposed procedures are adequate for the 
proposed flight under the existing conditions and within any limitations 
listed in the logbook that the instructor considers necessary for the 
safety of the flight;
    (3) Student pilot's logbook for solo flight in a Class B airspace 
area or at an airport within Class B airspace unless that flight 
instructor has--
    (i) Given that student ground and flight training in that Class B 
airspace or at that airport; and
    (ii) Determined that the student is proficient to operate the 
aircraft safely.
    (4) Logbook of a recreational pilot, unless that flight instructor 
has--
    (i) Given that pilot the ground and flight training required by this 
part; and
    (ii) Determined that the recreational pilot is proficient to operate 
the aircraft safely.
    (5) Logbook of a pilot for a flight review, unless that instructor 
has conducted a review of that pilot in accordance with the requirements 
of Sec. 61.56(a) of this part; or
    (6) Logbook of a pilot for an instrument proficiency check, unless 
that instructor has tested that pilot in accordance with the 
requirements of Sec. 61.57(d) of this part.
    (e) Training in an aircraft that requires a type rating. A flight 
instructor may not give flight instruction, including instrument 
training, in an aircraft that requires the pilot in command to hold a 
type rating unless the flight instructor holds a type rating for that 
aircraft on his or her pilot certificate.

[[Page 572]]

    (f) Training received in a multiengine airplane, a helicopter, or a 
powered-lift. A flight instructor may not give training required for the 
issuance of a certificate or rating in a multiengine airplane, a 
helicopter, or a powered-lift unless that flight instructor has at least 
5 flight hours of pilot-in-command time in the specific make and model 
of multiengine airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift, as appropriate.
    (g) Position in aircraft and required pilot stations for providing 
flight training. (1) A flight instructor must perform all training from 
in an aircraft that complies with the requirements of Sec. 91.109 of 
this chapter.
    (2) A flight instructor who provides flight training for a pilot 
certificate or rating issued under this part must provide that flight 
training in an aircraft that meets the following requirements--
    (i) The aircraft must have at least two pilot stations and be of the 
same category, class, and type, if appropriate, that applies to the 
pilot certificate or rating sought.
    (ii) For single-place aircraft, the pre-solo flight training must 
have been provided in an aircraft that has two pilot stations and is of 
the same category, class, and type, if appropriate.
    (h) Qualifications of the flight instructor for training first-time 
flight instructor applicants. (1) The ground training provided to an 
initial applicant for a flight instructor certificate must be given by 
an authorized instructor who--
    (i) Holds a ground or flight instructor certificate with the 
appropriate rating, has held that certificate for at least 24 calendar 
months, and has given at least 40 hours of ground training; or
    (ii) Holds a ground or flight instructor certificate with the 
appropriate rating, and has given at least 100 hours of ground training 
in an FAA-approved course.
    (2) Except for an instructor who meets the requirements of paragraph 
(h)(3)(ii) of this section, a flight instructor who provides training to 
an initial applicant for a flight instructor certificate must--
    (i) Meet the eligibility requirements prescribed in Sec. 61.183 of 
this part;
    (ii) Hold the appropriate flight instructor certificate and rating;
    (iii) Have held a flight instructor certificate for at least 24 
months;
    (iv) For training in preparation for an airplane, rotorcraft, or 
powered-lift rating, have given at least 200 hours of flight training as 
a flight instructor; and
    (v) For training in preparation for a glider rating, have given at 
least 80 hours of flight training as a flight instructor.
    (3) A flight instructor who serves as a flight instructor in an FAA-
approved course for the issuance of a flight instructor rating must hold 
a flight instructor certificate with the appropriate rating and pass the 
required initial and recurrent flight instructor proficiency tests, in 
accordance with the requirements of the part under which the FAA-
approved course is conducted, and must--
    (i) Meet the requirements of paragraph (h)(2) of this section; or
    (ii) Have trained and endorsed at least five applicants for a 
practical test for a pilot certificate, flight instructor certificate, 
ground instructor certificate, or an additional rating, and at least 80 
percent of those applicants passed that test on their first attempt; and
    (A) Given at least 400 hours of flight training as a flight 
instructor for training in an airplane, a rotorcraft, or for a powered-
lift rating; or
    (B) Given at least 100 hours of flight training as a flight 
instructor, for training in a glider rating.
    (i) Prohibition against self-endorsements. A flight instructor shall 
not make any self-endorsement for a certificate, rating, flight review, 
authorization, operating privilege, practical test, or knowledge test 
that is required by this part.
    (j) Additional qualifications required to give training in Category 
II or Category III operations. A flight instructor may not give training 
in Category II or Category III operations unless the flight instructor 
has been trained and tested in Category II or Category III operations, 
pursuant to Sec. 61.67 or Sec. 61.68 of this part, as applicable.
    (k) Training for night vision goggle operations. A flight instructor 
may not

[[Page 573]]

conduct training for night vision goggle operations unless the flight 
instructor:
    (1) Has a pilot and flight instructor certificate with the 
applicable category and class rating for the training;
    (2) If appropriate, has a type rating on his or her pilot 
certificate for the aircraft;
    (3) Is pilot in command qualified for night vision goggle 
operations, in accordance with Sec. 61.31(k);
    (4) Has logged 100 night vision goggle operations as the sole 
manipulator of the controls;
    (5) Has logged 20 night vision goggle operations as the sole 
manipulator of the controls in the category and class, and type of 
aircraft, if aircraft class and type is appropriate, that the training 
will be given in;
    (6) Is qualified to act as pilot in command in night vision goggle 
operations under Sec. 61.57(f) or (g); and
    (7) Has a logbook endorsement from an FAA Aviation Safety Inspector 
or a person who is authorized by the FAA to provide that logbook 
endorsement that states the flight instructor is authorized to perform 
the night vision goggle pilot in command qualification and recent flight 
experience requirements under Sec. 61.31(k) and Sec. 61.57(f) and (g).
    (l) Training on control and maneuvering an aircraft solely by 
reference to the instruments. A flight instructor may conduct flight 
training on control and maneuvering an airplane solely by reference to 
the flight instruments, provided the flight instructor--
    (1) Holds a flight instructor certificate with the applicable 
category and class rating; or
    (2) Holds an instrument rating appropriate to the aircraft used for 
the training on his or her flight instructor certificate, and holds a 
commercial pilot certificate or airline transport pilot certificate with 
the appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft in which the 
training is conducted provided the pilot receiving the training holds a 
pilot certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the 
aircraft in which the training is being conducted.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42561, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-
2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1307, Jan. 12, 2016; Docket FAA-2016-
6142, Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30729, June 27, 2018]



Sec. 61.197  Renewal requirements for flight instructor certification.

    (a) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate that has not 
expired may renew that flight instructor certificate by--
    (1) Passing a practical test for--
    (i) One of the ratings listed on the current flight instructor 
certificate; or
    (ii) An additional flight instructor rating; or
    (2) Submitting a completed and signed application with the FAA and 
satisfactorily completing one of the following renewal requirements--
    (i) A record of training students showing that, during the preceding 
24 calendar months, the flight instructor has endorsed at least 5 
students for a practical test for a certificate or rating and at least 
80 percent of those students passed that test on the first attempt.
    (ii) A record showing that, within the preceding 24 calendar months, 
the flight instructor has served as a company check pilot, chief flight 
instructor, company check airman, or flight instructor in a part 121 or 
part 135 operation, or in a position involving the regular evaluation of 
pilots.
    (iii) A graduation certificate showing that, within the preceding 3 
calendar months, the person has successfully completed an approved 
flight instructor refresher course consisting of ground training or 
flight training, or a combination of both.
    (iv) A record showing that, within the preceding 24 months from the 
month of application, the flight instructor passed an official U.S. 
Armed Forces military instructor pilot or pilot examiner proficiency 
check in an aircraft for which the military instructor already holds a 
rating or in an aircraft for an additional rating.
    (b) The expiration month of a renewed flight instructor certificate 
shall be 24 calendar months from--

[[Page 574]]

    (1) The month the renewal requirements of paragraph (a) of this 
section are accomplished; or
    (2) The month of expiration of the current flight instructor 
certificate provided--
    (i) The renewal requirements of paragraph (a) of this section are 
accomplished within the 3 calendar months preceding the expiration month 
of the current flight instructor certificate, and
    (ii) If the renewal is accomplished under paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of 
this section, the approved flight instructor refresher course must be 
completed within the 3 calendar months preceding the expiration month of 
the current flight instructor certificate.
    (c) The practical test required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section 
may be accomplished in a full flight simulator or flight training device 
if the test is accomplished pursuant to an approved course conducted by 
a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 25910, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 
74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30279, June 27, 2018]



Sec. 61.199  Reinstatement requirements of an expired flight instructor certificate.

    (a) Flight instructor certificates. The holder of an expired flight 
instructor certificate who has not complied with the flight instructor 
renewal requirements of Sec. 61.197 may reinstate that flight 
instructor certificate and ratings by filing a completed and signed 
application with the FAA and satisfactorily completing one of the 
following reinstatement requirements:
    (1) A flight instructor certification practical test, as prescribed 
by Sec. 61.183(h), for one of the ratings held on the expired flight 
instructor certificate.
    (2) A flight instructor certification practical test for an 
additional rating.
    (3) For military instructor pilots, provide a record showing that, 
within the preceding 6 calendar months from the date of application for 
reinstatement, the person--
    (i) Passed a U.S. Armed Forces instructor pilot or pilot examiner 
proficiency check; or
    (ii) Completed a U.S. Armed Forces' instructor pilot or pilot 
examiner training course and received an additional aircraft rating 
qualification as a military instructor pilot or pilot examiner that is 
appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought.
    (b) Flight instructor ratings. (1) A flight instructor rating or a 
limited flight instructor rating on a pilot certificate is no longer 
valid and may not be exchanged for a similar rating or a flight 
instructor certificate.
    (2) The holder of a flight instructor rating or a limited flight 
instructor rating on a pilot certificate may be issued a flight 
instructor certificate with the current ratings, but only if the person 
passes the required knowledge and practical test prescribed in this 
subpart for the issuance of the current flight instructor certificate 
and rating.
    (c) Certain military instructors and examiners. The holder of an 
expired flight instructor certificate issued prior to October 20, 2009, 
may apply for reinstatement of that certificate by presenting the 
following:
    (1) A record showing that, since the date the flight instructor 
certificate was issued, the person passed a U.S. Armed Forces instructor 
pilot or pilot examiner proficiency check for an additional military 
rating; and
    (2) A knowledge test report that shows the person passed a knowledge 
test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed under Sec. 61.185(a) 
appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought and the knowledge 
test was passed within the preceding 24 calendar months prior to the 
month of application.
    (d) Expiration date. The requirements of paragraph (c) of this 
section will expire on August 26, 2019.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 
63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009; 
Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30279, June 27, 2018]

[[Page 575]]



Sec. 61.201  [Reserved]



                      Subpart I_Ground Instructors



Sec. 61.211  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of ground 
instructor certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those 
certificates and ratings are necessary, and the limitations upon those 
certificates and ratings.



Sec. 61.213  Eligibility requirements.

    (a) To be eligible for a ground instructor certificate or rating a 
person must:
    (1) Be at least 18 years of age;
    (2) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on that applicant's ground instructor certificate as are 
necessary;
    (3) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, pass a 
knowledge test on the fundamentals of instructing to include--
    (i) The learning process;
    (ii) Elements of effective teaching;
    (iii) Student evaluation and testing;
    (iv) Course development;
    (v) Lesson planning; and
    (vi) Classroom training techniques.
    (4) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas in--
    (i) For a basic ground instructor rating Sec. Sec. 61.97, 61.105, 
and 61.309;
    (ii) For an advanced ground instructor rating Sec. Sec. 61.97, 
61.105, 61.125, 61.155, and 61.309; and
    (iii) For an instrument ground instructor rating, Sec. 61.65.
    (b) The knowledge test specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section 
is not required if the applicant:
    (1) Holds a ground instructor certificate or flight instructor 
certificate issued under this part;
    (2) Holds a teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, city, 
or municipality that authorizes the person to teach at an educational 
level of the 7th grade or higher; or
    (3) Is employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.215  Ground instructor privileges.

    (a) A person who holds a basic ground instructor rating is 
authorized to provide--
    (1) Ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for 
the issuance of a sport pilot certificate, recreational pilot 
certificate, private pilot certificate, or associated ratings under this 
part;
    (2) Ground training required for a sport pilot, recreational pilot, 
and private pilot flight review; and
    (3) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance 
of a sport pilot certificate, recreational pilot certificate, or private 
pilot certificate under this part.
    (b) A person who holds an advanced ground instructor rating is 
authorized to provide:
    (1) Ground training on the aeronautical knowledge areas required for 
the issuance of any certificate or rating under this part except for the 
aeronautical knowledge areas required for an instrument rating.
    (2) The ground training required for any flight review except for 
the training required for an instrument rating.
    (3) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance 
of any certificate or rating under this part except for an instrument 
rating.
    (c) A person who holds an instrument ground instructor rating is 
authorized to provide:
    (1) Ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for 
the issuance of an instrument rating under this part;
    (2) Ground training required for an instrument proficiency check; 
and
    (3) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance 
of an instrument rating under this part.
    (d) A person who holds a ground instructor certificate is 
authorized, within the limitations of the ratings on the ground 
instructor certificate, to endorse the logbook or other training record 
of a person to whom the holder

[[Page 576]]

has provided the training or recommendation specified in paragraphs (a) 
through (c) of this section.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.217  Recent experience requirements.

    The holder of a ground instructor certificate may not perform the 
duties of a ground instructor unless the person can show that one of the 
following occurred during the preceding 12 calendar months:
    (a) Employment or activity as a ground instructor giving pilot, 
flight instructor, or ground instructor training;
    (b) Employment or activity as a flight instructor giving pilot, 
flight instructor, or ground instructor ground or flight training;
    (c) Completion of an approved flight instructor refresher course and 
receipt of a graduation certificate for that course; or
    (d) An endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the 
person has demonstrated knowledge in the subject areas prescribed under 
Sec. 61.213(a)(3) and (a)(4), as appropriate.

[Doc. No. FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009]



                         Subpart J_Sport Pilots

    Source: Docket No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, 
unless otherwise noted.



Sec. 61.301  What is the purpose of this subpart and to whom does it apply?

    (a) This subpart prescribes the following requirements that apply to 
a sport pilot certificate:
    (1) Eligibility.
    (2) Aeronautical knowledge.
    (3) Flight proficiency.
    (4) Aeronautical experience.
    (5) Endorsements.
    (6) Privileges and limits.
    (b) Other provisions of this part apply to the logging of flight 
time and testing.
    (c) This subpart applies to applicants for, and holders of, sport 
pilot certificates. It also applies to holders of recreational pilot 
certificates and higher, as provided in Sec. 61.303.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010]



Sec. 61.303  If I want to operate a light-sport aircraft, what operating limits and endorsement requirements in this subpart must I comply with?

    (a) Use the following table to determine what operating limits and 
endorsement requirements in this subpart, if any, apply to you when you 
operate a light-sport aircraft. The medical certificate specified in 
this table must be in compliance with Sec. 61.2 in regards to currency 
and validity. If you hold a recreational pilot certificate, but not a 
medical certificate, you must comply with cross country requirements in 
Sec. 61.101 (c), even if your flight does not exceed 50 nautical miles 
from your departure airport. You must also comply with requirements in 
other subparts of this part that apply to your certificate and the 
operation you conduct.

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
             If you hold                     And you hold         Then you may operate             And
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(1) A medical certificate............  (i) A sport pilot        (A) Any light-sport      (1) You must hold any
                                        certificate,.            aircraft for which you   other endorsements
                                                                 hold the endorsements    required by this
                                                                 required for its         subpart, and comply
                                                                 category and class       with the limitations
                                                                                          in Sec. 61.315.
                                       (ii) At least a          (A) Any light-sport      (1) You do not have to
                                        recreational pilot       aircraft in that         hold any of the
                                        certificate with a       category and class,      endorsements required
                                        category and class                                by this subpart, nor
                                        rating,                                           do you have to comply
                                                                                          with the limitations
                                                                                          in Sec. 61.315.

[[Page 577]]

 
                                       (iii) At least a         (A) That light-sport     (1) You must comply
                                        recreational pilot       aircraft, only if you    with the limitations
                                        certificate but not a    hold the endorsements    in Sec. 61.315,
                                        rating for the           required in Sec. except Sec.
                                        category and class of    61.321 for its           61.315(c)(14) and, if
                                        light sport aircraft     category and class,      a private pilot or
                                        you operate,                                      higher, Sec.
                                                                                          61.315(c)(7).
(2) Only a U.S. driver's license.....  (i) A sport pilot        (A) Any light-sport      (1) You must hold any
                                        certificate,             aircraft for which you   other endorsements
                                                                 hold the endorsements    required by this
                                                                 required for its         subpart, and comply
                                                                 category and class.      with the limitations
                                                                                          in Sec. 61.315.
                                       (ii) At least a          (A) Any light-sport      (1) You do not have to
                                        recreational pilot       aircraft in that         hold any of the
                                        certificate with a       category and class,      endorsements required
                                        category and class                                by this subpart, but
                                        rating,                                           you must comply with
                                                                                          the limitations in
                                                                                          Sec. 61.315.
                                       (iii) At least a         (A) That light-sport     (1) You must comply
                                        recreational pilot       aircraft, only if you    with the limitations
                                        certificate but not a    hold the endorsements    in Sec. 61.315,
                                        rating for the           required in Sec. except Sec.
                                        category and class of    61.321 for its           61.315(c)(14) and, if
                                        light-sport aircraft     category and class,      a private pilot or
                                        you operate,                                      higher, Sec.
                                                                                          61.315(c)(7).
(3) Neither a medical certificate nor  (i) A sport pilot        (A) Any light-sport      (1) You must hold any
 a U.S. driver's license                certificate,             glider or balloon for    other endorsements
                                                                 which you hold the       required by this
                                                                 endorsements required    subpart, and comply
                                                                 for its category and     with the limitations
                                                                 class                    in Sec. 61.315.
                                       (ii) At least a private  (A) Any light-sport      (1) You do not have to
                                        pilot certificate with   glider or balloon in     hold any of the
                                        a category and class     that category and        endorsements required
                                        rating for glider or     class                    by this subpart, nor
                                        balloon,                                          do you have to comply
                                                                                          with the limitations
                                                                                          in Sec. 61.315.
                                       (iii) At least a         (A) Any light-sport      (1) You must comply
                                        private pilot            glider or balloon,       with the limitations
                                        certificate but not a    only if you hold the     in Sec. 61.315,
                                        rating for glider or     endorsements required    except Sec.
                                        balloon,                 in Sec. 61.321 for     61.315(c)(14) and, if
                                                                 its category and class   a private pilot or
                                                                                          higher, Sec.
                                                                                          61.315(c)(7).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (b) A person using a U.S. driver's license to meet the requirements 
of this paragraph must--
    (1) Comply with each restriction and limitation imposed by that 
person's U.S. driver's license and any judicial or administrative order 
applying to the operation of a motor vehicle;
    (2) Have been found eligible for the issuance of at least a third-
class airman medical certificate at the time of his or her most recent 
application (if the person has applied for a medical certificate);
    (3) Not have had his or her most recently issued medical certificate 
(if the person has held a medical certificate) suspended or revoked or 
most recent Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical 
Certificate withdrawn; and
    (4) Not know or have reason to know of any medical condition that 
would make that person unable to operate a light-sport aircraft in a 
safe manner.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 
1, 2010]



Sec. 61.305  What are the age and language requirements for a sport pilot certificate?

    (a) To be eligible for a sport pilot certificate you must:
    (1) Be at least 17 years old (or 16 years old if you are applying to 
operate a glider or balloon).
    (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand English. If you 
cannot read, speak, write, and understand English because of medical 
reasons, the FAA may place limits on your certificate as are necessary 
for the safe operation of light-sport aircraft.



Sec. 61.307  What tests do I have to take to obtain a sport pilot certificate?

    To obtain a sport pilot certificate, you must pass the following 
tests:

[[Page 578]]

    (a) Knowledge test. You must pass a knowledge test on the applicable 
aeronautical knowledge areas listed in Sec. 61.309. Before you may take 
the knowledge test for a sport pilot certificate, you must receive a 
logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who trained you or 
reviewed and evaluated your home-study course on the aeronautical 
knowledge areas listed in Sec. 61.309 certifying you are prepared for 
the test.
    (b) Practical test. You must pass a practical test on the applicable 
areas of operation listed in Sec. Sec. 61.309 and 61.311. Before you 
may take the practical test for a sport pilot certificate, you must 
receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who 
provided you with flight training on the areas of operation specified in 
Sec. Sec. 61.309 and 61.311 in preparation for the practical test. This 
endorsement certifies that you meet the applicable aeronautical 
knowledge and experience requirements and are prepared for the practical 
test.



Sec. 61.309  What aeronautical knowledge must I have to apply for a sport pilot certificate?

    To apply for a sport pilot certificate you must receive and log 
ground training from an authorized instructor or complete a home-study 
course on the following aeronautical knowledge areas:
    (a) Applicable regulations of this chapter that relate to sport 
pilot privileges, limits, and flight operations.
    (b) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation 
Safety Board.
    (c) Use of the applicable portions of the aeronautical information 
manual and FAA advisory circulars.
    (d) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage, 
dead reckoning, and navigation systems, as appropriate.
    (e) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and 
in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of 
aeronautical weather reports and forecasts.
    (f) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision 
avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence.
    (g) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance.
    (h) Weight and balance computations.
    (i) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems.
    (j) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery 
techniques, as applicable.
    (k) Aeronautical decision making and risk management.
    (l) Preflight actions that include--
    (1) How to get information on runway lengths at airports of intended 
use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and 
forecasts, and fuel requirements; and
    (2) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be 
completed or if you encounter delays.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010]



Sec. 61.311  What flight proficiency requirements must I meet to apply for a sport pilot certificate?

    To apply for a sport pilot certificate you must receive and log 
ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the 
following areas of operation, as appropriate, for airplane single-engine 
land or sea, glider, gyroplane, airship, balloon, powered parachute land 
or sea, and weight-shift-control aircraft land or sea privileges:
    (a) Preflight preparation.
    (b) Preflight procedures.
    (c) Airport, seaplane base, and gliderport operations, as 
applicable.
    (d) Takeoffs (or launches), landings, and go-arounds.
    (e) Performance maneuvers, and for gliders, performance speeds.
    (f) Ground reference maneuvers (not applicable to gliders and 
balloons).
    (g) Soaring techniques (applicable only to gliders).
    (h) Navigation.
    (i) Slow flight (not applicable to lighter-than-air aircraft and 
powered parachutes).
    (j) Stalls (not applicable to lighter-than-air aircraft, gyroplanes, 
and powered parachutes).
    (k) Emergency operations.

[[Page 579]]

    (l) Post-flight procedures.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010]



Sec. 61.313  What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for a sport pilot certificate?

    Use the following table to determine the aeronautical experience you 
must have to apply for a sport pilot certificate:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                      Which must include
 If you are applying for a sport   Then you must log    at least . . .
  pilot certificate with . . .      at least . . .
------------------------------------------------------------------------
(a) Airplane category and single- (1) 20 hours of     (i) 2 hours of
 engine land or sea class          flight time,        cross-country
 privileges,                       including at        flight training,
                                   least 15 hours of   (ii) 10 takeoffs
                                   flight training     and landings to a
                                   from an             full stop (with
                                   authorized          each landing
                                   instructor in a     involving a
                                   single-engine       flight in the
                                   airplane and at     traffic pattern)
                                   least 5 hours of    at an airport,
                                   solo flight         (iii) One solo
                                   training in the     cross-country
                                   areas of            flight of at
                                   operation listed    least 75 nautical
                                   in Sec. 61.311,   miles total
                                                       distance, with a
                                                       full-stop landing
                                                       at a minimum of
                                                       two points and
                                                       one segment of
                                                       the flight
                                                       consisting of a
                                                       straight-line
                                                       distance of at
                                                       least 25 nautical
                                                       miles between the
                                                       takeoff and
                                                       landing
                                                       locations, and
                                                       (iv) 2 hours of
                                                       flight training
                                                       with an
                                                       authorized
                                                       instructor on
                                                       those areas of
                                                       operation
                                                       specified in Sec.
                                                         61.311 in
                                                       preparation for
                                                       the practical
                                                       test within the
                                                       preceding 2
                                                       calendar months
                                                       from the month of
                                                       the test.
(b) Glider category privileges,   (1) 10 hours of     (i) Five solo
 and you have not logged at        flight time in a    launches and
 least 20 hours of flight time     glider, including   landings, and
 in a heavier-than-air aircraft,   10 flights in a     (ii) at least 3
                                   glider receiving    training flights
                                   flight training     with an
                                   from an             authorized
                                   authorized          instructor on
                                   instructor and at   those areas of
                                   least 2 hours of    operation
                                   solo flight         specified in Sec.
                                   training in the       61.311 in
                                   areas of            preparation for
                                   operation listed    the practical
                                   in Sec. 61.311,   test within the
                                                       preceding 2
                                                       calendar months
                                                       from the month of
                                                       the test.
(c) Glider category privileges,   (1) 3 hours of      (i) Three solo
 and you have logged 20 hours      flight time in a    launches and
 flight time in a heavier-than-    glider, including   landings, and
 air aircraft,                     five flights in a   (ii) at least 3
                                   glider while        training flights
                                   receiving flight    with an
                                   training from an    authorized
                                   authorized          instructor on
                                   instructor and at   those areas of
                                   least 1 hour of     operation
                                   solo flight         specified in Sec.
                                   training in the       61.311 in
                                   areas of            preparation for
                                   operation listed    the practical
                                   in Sec. 61.311,   test within the
                                                       preceding 2
                                                       calendar months
                                                       from the month of
                                                       the test.
(d) Rotorcraft category and       (1) 20 hours of     (i) 2 hours of
 gyroplane class privileges,       flight time,        cross-country
                                   including 15        flight training,
                                   hours of flight     (ii) 10 takeoffs
                                   training from an    and landings to a
                                   authorized          full stop (with
                                   instructor in a     each landing
                                   gyroplane and at    involving a
                                   least 5 hours of    flight in the
                                   solo flight         traffic pattern)
                                   training in the     at an airport,
                                   areas of            (iii) One solo
                                   operation listed    cross-country
                                   in Sec. 61.311,   flight of at
                                                       least 50 nautical
                                                       miles total
                                                       distance, with a
                                                       full-stop landing
                                                       at a minimum of
                                                       two points, and
                                                       one segment of
                                                       the flight
                                                       consisting of a
                                                       straight-line
                                                       distance of at
                                                       least 25 nautical
                                                       miles between the
                                                       takeoff and
                                                       landing
                                                       locations, and
                                                       (iv) 2 hours of
                                                       flight training
                                                       with an
                                                       authorized
                                                       instructor on
                                                       those areas of
                                                       operation
                                                       specified in Sec.
                                                         61.311 in
                                                       preparation for
                                                       the practical
                                                       test within the
                                                       preceding 2
                                                       calendar months
                                                       from the month of
                                                       the test.
(e) Lighter-than-air category     (1) 20 hours of     (i) 2 hours of
 and airship class privileges,     flight time,        cross-country
                                   including 15        flight training,
                                   hours of flight     (ii) Three
                                   training from an    takeoffs and
                                   authorized          landings to a
                                   instructor in an    full stop (with
                                   airship and at      each landing
                                   least 3 hours       involving a
                                   performing the      flight in the
                                   duties of pilot     traffic pattern)
                                   in command in an    at an airport,
                                   airship with an     (iii) One cross-
                                   authorized          country flight of
                                   instructor in the   at least 25
                                   areas of            nautical miles
                                   operation listed    between the
                                   in Sec. 61.311,   takeoff and
                                                       landing
                                                       locations, and
                                                       (iv) 2 hours of
                                                       flight training
                                                       with an
                                                       authorized
                                                       instructor on
                                                       those areas of
                                                       operation
                                                       specified in Sec.
                                                         61.311 in
                                                       preparation for
                                                       the practical
                                                       test within the
                                                       preceding 2
                                                       calendar months
                                                       from the month of
                                                       the test.

[[Page 580]]

 
(f) Lighter-than-air category     (1) 7 hours of      (i) 2 hours of
 and balloon class privileges,     flight time in a    cross-country
                                   balloon,            flight training,
                                   including three     and (ii) 1 hours
                                   flights with an     of flight
                                   authorized          training with an
                                   instructor and      authorized
                                   one flight          instructor on
                                   performing the      those areas of
                                   duties of pilot     operation
                                   in command in a     specified in Sec.
                                   balloon with an       61.311 in
                                   authorized          preparation for
                                   instructor in the   the practical
                                   areas of            test within the
                                   operation listed    preceding 2
                                   in Sec. 61.311,   calendar months
                                                       from the month of
                                                       the test.
(g) Powered parachute category    (1) 12 hours of     (i) 1 hour of
 land or sea class privileges,     flight time in a    cross-country
                                   powered             flight training,
                                   parachute,          (ii) 20 takeoffs
                                   including 10        and landings to a
                                   hours of flight     full stop in a
                                   training from an    powered parachute
                                   authorized          with each landing
                                   instructor in a     involving flight
                                   powered             in the traffic
                                   parachute, and at   pattern at an
                                   least 2 hours of    airport; (iii) 10
                                   solo flight         solo takeoffs and
                                   training in the     landings to a
                                   areas of            full stop (with
                                   operation listed    each landing
                                   in Sec. 61.311    involving a
                                                       flight in the
                                                       traffic pattern)
                                                       at an airport,
                                                       (iv) One solo
                                                       flight with a
                                                       landing at a
                                                       different airport
                                                       and one segment
                                                       of the flight
                                                       consisting of a
                                                       straight-line
                                                       distance of at
                                                       least 10 nautical
                                                       miles between
                                                       takeoff and
                                                       landing
                                                       locations, and
                                                       (v) 1 hours of
                                                       flight training
                                                       with an
                                                       authorized
                                                       instructor on
                                                       those areas of
                                                       operation
                                                       specified in Sec.
                                                         61.311 in
                                                       preparation for
                                                       the practical
                                                       test within the
                                                       preceding 2
                                                       calendar months
                                                       from the month of
                                                       the test.
(h) Weight-shift-control          (1) 20 hours of     (i) 2 hours of
 aircraft category land or sea     flight time,        cross-country
 class privileges,                 including 15        flight training,
                                   hours of flight     (ii) 10 takeoffs
                                   training from an    and landings to a
                                   authorized          full stop (with
                                   instructor in a     each landing
                                   weight-shift-       involving a
                                   control aircraft    flight in the
                                   and at least 5      traffic pattern)
                                   hours of solo       at an airport,
                                   flight training     (iii) One solo
                                   in the areas of     cross-country
                                   operation listed    flight of at
                                   in Sec. 61.311,   least 50 nautical
                                                       miles total
                                                       distance, with a
                                                       full-stop landing
                                                       at a minimum of
                                                       two points, and
                                                       one segment of
                                                       the flight
                                                       consisting of a
                                                       straight-line
                                                       distance of at
                                                       least 25 nautical
                                                       miles between
                                                       takeoff and
                                                       landing
                                                       locations, and
                                                       (iv) 2 hours of
                                                       flight training
                                                       with an
                                                       authorized
                                                       instructor on
                                                       those areas of
                                                       operation
                                                       specified in Sec.
                                                         61.311 in
                                                       preparation for
                                                       the practical
                                                       test within the
                                                       preceding 2
                                                       calendar months
                                                       from the month of
                                                       the test.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 
FR 53647, Oct. 20, 2009; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010; Docket 
No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 61-151, 87 FR 75845, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 61.315  What are the privileges and limits of my sport pilot certificate?

    (a) If you hold a sport pilot certificate you may act as pilot in 
command of a light-sport aircraft, except as specified in paragraph (c) 
of this section.
    (b) You may share the operating expenses of a flight with a 
passenger, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport 
expenses, or aircraft rental fees. You must pay at least half the 
operating expenses of the flight.
    (c) You may not act as pilot in command of a light-sport aircraft:
    (1) That is carrying a passenger or property for compensation or 
hire.
    (2) For compensation or hire.
    (3) In furtherance of a business.
    (4) While carrying more than one passenger.
    (5) At night.
    (6) In Class A airspace.
    (7) In Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, 
C, or D airspace, and to, from, through, or at an airport having an 
operational control tower unless you have met the requirements specified 
in Sec. 61.325.
    (8) Outside the United States, unless you have prior authorization 
from the country in which you seek to operate. Your sport pilot 
certificate carries the limit ``Holder does not meet ICAO 
requirements.''

[[Page 581]]

    (9) To demonstrate the aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer if 
you are an aircraft salesperson.
    (10) In a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable 
organization.
    (11) At an altitude of more than 10,000 feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL, 
whichever is higher.
    (12) When the flight or surface visibility is less than 3 statute 
miles.
    (13) Without visual reference to the surface.
    (14) If the aircraft:
    (i) Has a VH greater than 87 knots CAS, unless you have 
met the requirements of Sec. 61.327(b).
    (ii) Has a VH less than or equal to 87 knots CAS, unless 
you have met the requirements of Sec. 61.327(a) or have logged flight 
time as pilot in command of an airplane with a VH less than 
or equal to 87 knots CAS before April 2, 2010.
    (15) Contrary to any operating limitation placed on the 
airworthiness certificate of the aircraft being flown.
    (16) Contrary to any limit on your pilot certificate or airman 
medical certificate, or any other limit or endorsement from an 
authorized instructor.
    (17) Contrary to any restriction or limitation on your U.S. driver's 
license or any restriction or limitation imposed by judicial or 
administrative order when using your driver's license to satisfy a 
requirement of this part.
    (18) While towing any object.
    (19) As a pilot flight crewmember on any aircraft for which more 
than one pilot is required by the type certificate of the aircraft or 
the regulations under which the flight is conducted.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-125A, 75 FR 15610, Mar. 
30, 2010]



Sec. 61.317  Is my sport pilot certificate issued with aircraft category and class ratings?

    Your sport pilot certificate does not list aircraft category and 
class ratings. When you successfully pass the practical test for a sport 
pilot certificate, regardless of the light-sport aircraft privileges you 
seek, the FAA will issue you a sport pilot certificate without any 
category and class ratings. The FAA will provide you with a logbook 
endorsement for the category and class of aircraft in which you are 
authorized to act as pilot in command.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-125A, 75 FR 15610, Mar. 
30, 2010]



Sec. 61.319  [Reserved]



Sec. 61.321  How do I obtain privileges to operate an additional category or class of light-sport aircraft?

    If you hold a sport pilot certificate and seek to operate an 
additional category or class of light-sport aircraft, you must--
    (a) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who 
trained you on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas specified in 
Sec. 61.309 and areas of operation specified in Sec. 61.311. The 
endorsement certifies you have met the aeronautical knowledge and flight 
proficiency requirements for the additional light-sport aircraft 
privilege you seek;
    (b) Successfully complete a proficiency check from an authorized 
instructor other than the instructor who trained you on the aeronautical 
knowledge areas and areas of operation specified in Sec. Sec. 61.309 
and 61.311 for the additional light-sport aircraft privilege you seek;
    (c) Complete an application for those privileges on a form and in a 
manner acceptable to the FAA and present this application to the 
authorized instructor who conducted the proficiency check specified in 
paragraph (b) of this section; and
    (d) Receive a logbook endorsement from the instructor who conducted 
the proficiency check specified in paragraph (b) of this section 
certifying you are proficient in the applicable areas of operation and 
aeronautical knowledge areas, and that you are authorized for the 
additional category and class light-sport aircraft privilege.

[[Page 582]]



Sec. 61.323  [Reserved]



Sec. 61.325  How do I obtain privileges to operate a light-sport aircraft at an airport within, or in airspace within, Class B, C, and D airspace, or in other 
          airspace with an airport having an operational control tower?

    If you hold a sport pilot certificate and seek privileges to operate 
a light-sport aircraft in Class B, C, or D airspace, at an airport 
located in Class B, C, or D airspace, or to, from, through, or at an 
airport having an operational control tower, you must receive and log 
ground and flight training. The authorized instructor who provides this 
training must provide a logbook endorsement that certifies you are 
proficient in the following aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of 
operation:
    (a) The use of radios, communications, navigation system/facilities, 
and radar services.
    (b) Operations at airports with an operating control tower to 
include three takeoffs and landings to a full stop, with each landing 
involving a flight in the traffic pattern, at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (c) Applicable flight rules of part 91 of this chapter for 
operations in Class B, C, and D airspace and air traffic control 
clearances.



Sec. 61.327  Are there specific endorsement requirements to operate a light-sport aircraft based on VH?

    (a) Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, if you 
hold a sport pilot certificate and you seek to operate a light-sport 
aircraft that is an airplane with a VH less than or equal to 
87 knots CAS you must--
    (1) Receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized 
instructor in an airplane that has a VH less than or equal to 
87 knots CAS; and
    (2) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who 
provided the training specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section 
certifying that you are proficient in the operation of light-sport 
aircraft that is an airplane with a VH less than or equal to 
87 knots CAS.
    (b) If you hold a sport pilot certificate and you seek to operate a 
light-sport aircraft that has a VH greater than 87 knots CAS 
you must--
    (1) Receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized 
instructor in an aircraft that has a VH greater than 87 knots 
CAS; and
    (2) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who 
provided the training specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section 
certifying that you are proficient in the operation of light-sport 
aircraft with a VH greater than 87 knots CAS.
    (c) The training and endorsements required by paragraph (a) of this 
section are not required if you have logged flight time as pilot in 
command of an airplane with a VH less than or equal to 87 
knots CAS prior to April 2, 2010.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-29015, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-125A, 75 FR 
15610, Mar. 30, 2010]



         Subpart K_Flight Instructors With a Sport Pilot Rating

    Source: Docket No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, 
unless otherwise noted.



Sec. 61.401  What is the purpose of this subpart?

    (a) This part prescribes the following requirements that apply to a 
flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating:
    (1) Eligibility.
    (2) Aeronautical knowledge.
    (3) Flight proficiency.
    (4) Endorsements.
    (5) Privileges and limits.
    (b) Other provisions of this part apply to the logging of flight 
time and testing.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010]



Sec. 61.403  What are the age, language, and pilot certificate requirements for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

    To be eligible for a flight instructor certificate with a sport 
pilot rating you must:
    (a) Be at least 18 years old.
    (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand English. If you 
cannot read, speak, write, and understand English because of medical 
reasons, the FAA

[[Page 583]]

may place limits on your certificate as are necessary for the safe 
operation of light-sport aircraft.
    (c) Hold at least a sport pilot certificate with category and class 
ratings or privileges, as applicable, that are appropriate to the flight 
instructor privileges sought.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.405  What tests do I have to take to obtain a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

    To obtain a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating 
you must pass the following tests:
    (a) Knowledge test. Before you take a knowledge test, you must 
receive a logbook endorsement certifying you are prepared for the test 
from an authorized instructor who trained you or evaluated your home-
study course on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in Sec. 61.407. 
You must pass knowledge tests on--
    (1) The fundamentals of instructing listed in Sec. 61.407(a), 
unless you meet the requirements of Sec. 61.407(c); and
    (2) The aeronautical knowledge areas for a sport pilot certificate 
applicable to the aircraft category and class for which flight 
instructor privileges are sought.
    (b) Practical test. (1) Before you take the practical test, you 
must--
    (i) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who 
provided you with flight training on the areas of operation specified in 
Sec. 61.409 that apply to the category and class of aircraft privileges 
you seek. This endorsement certifies you meet the applicable 
aeronautical knowledge and experience requirements and are prepared for 
the practical test;
    (ii) If you are seeking privileges to provide instruction in an 
airplane or glider, receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized 
instructor indicating that you are competent and possess instructional 
proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery 
procedures after you have received flight training in those training 
areas in an airplane or glider, as appropriate, that is certificated for 
spins;
    (2) You must pass a practical test--
    (i) On the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.409 that are 
appropriate to the category and class of aircraft privileges you seek;
    (ii) In an aircraft representative of the category and class of 
aircraft for the privileges you seek;
    (iii) In which you demonstrate that you are able to teach stall 
awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures if you are 
seeking privileges to provide instruction in an airplane or glider. If 
you have not failed a practical test based on deficiencies in your 
ability to demonstrate knowledge or skill in these areas and you provide 
the endorsement required by paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, an 
examiner may accept the endorsement instead of the demonstration 
required by this paragraph. If you are taking a test because you 
previously failed a test based on not meeting the requirements of this 
paragraph, you must pass a practical test on stall awareness, spin 
entry, spins, and spin recovery instructional competency and proficiency 
in the applicable category and class of aircraft that is certificated 
for spins.



Sec. 61.407  What aeronautical knowledge must I have to apply for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

    (a) Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section you must 
receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on the 
fundamentals of instruction that includes:
    (1) The learning process.
    (2) Elements of effective teaching.
    (3) Student evaluation and testing.
    (4) Course development.
    (5) Lesson planning.
    (6) Classroom training techniques.
    (b) You must receive and log ground training from an authorized 
instructor on the aeronautical knowledge areas applicable to a sport 
pilot certificate for the aircraft category and class in which you seek 
flight instructor privileges.
    (c) You do not have to meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of 
this section if you--
    (1) Hold a flight instructor certificate or ground instructor 
certificate issued under this part;

[[Page 584]]

    (2) Hold a teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, city, or 
municipality; or
    (3) Are employed as a teacher at an accredited college or 
university.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009]



Sec. 61.409  What flight proficiency requirements must I 
meet to apply for a flight instructor certificate with a
sport pilot rating?

    You must receive and log ground and flight training from an 
authorized instructor on the following areas of operation for the 
aircraft category and class in which you seek flight instructor 
privileges:
    (a) Technical subject areas.
    (b) Preflight preparation.
    (c) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight.
    (d) Preflight procedures.
    (e) Airport, seaplane base, and gliderport operations, as 
applicable.
    (f) Takeoffs (or launches), landings, and go-arounds.
    (g) Fundamentals of flight.
    (h) Performance maneuvers and for gliders, performance speeds.
    (i) Ground reference maneuvers (except for gliders and lighter-than-
air).
    (j) Soaring techniques.
    (k) Slow flight (not applicable to lighter-than-air and powered 
parachutes).
    (l) Stalls (not applicable to lighter-than-air, powered parachutes, 
and gyroplanes).
    (m) Spins (applicable to airplanes and gliders).
    (n) Emergency operations.
    (o) Tumble entry and avoidance techniques (applicable to weight-
shift-control aircraft).
    (p) Post-flight procedures.



Sec. 61.411  What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for
a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

    Use the following table to determine the experience you must have 
for each aircraft category and class:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
   If you are applying for a
 flight instructor certificate   Then you must log    Which must include
 with a sport pilot rating for     at least . . .       at least . . .
             . . .
------------------------------------------------------------------------
(a) Airplane category and       (1) 150 hours of     (i) 100 hours of
 single-engine class             flight time as a     flight time as
 privileges,                     pilot,.              pilot in command
                                                      in powered
                                                      aircraft,
                                                     (ii) 50 hours of
                                                      flight time in a
                                                      single-engine
                                                      airplane,
                                                     (iii) 25 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time,
                                                     (iv) 10 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time in a
                                                      single-engine
                                                      airplane, and
                                                     (v) 15 hours of
                                                      flight time as
                                                      pilot in command
                                                      in a single-engine
                                                      airplane that is a
                                                      light-sport
                                                      aircraft.
(b) Glider category             (1) 25 hours of
 privileges,                     flight time as
                                 pilot in command
                                 in a glider, 100
                                 flights in a
                                 glider, and 15
                                 flights as pilot
                                 in command in a
                                 glider that is a
                                 light-sport
                                 aircraft, or.
                                (2) 100 hours in
                                 heavier-than-air
                                 aircraft, 20
                                 flights in a
                                 glider, and 15
                                 flights as pilot
                                 in command in a
                                 glider that is a
                                 light-sport
                                 aircraft.
(c) Rotorcraft category and     (1) 125 hours of     (i) 100 hours of
 gyroplane class privileges,     flight time as a     flight time as
                                 pilot,.              pilot in command
                                                      in powered
                                                      aircraft,
                                                     (ii) 50 hours of
                                                      flight time in a
                                                      gyroplane,
                                                     (iii) 10 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time,
                                                     (iv) 3 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time in a
                                                      gyroplane, and
                                                     (v) 15 hours of
                                                      flight time as
                                                      pilot in command
                                                      in a gyroplane
                                                      that is a light-
                                                      sport aircraft.
(d) Lighter-than-air category   (1) 100 hours of     (i) 40 hours of
 and airship class privileges,   flight time as a     flight time in an
                                 pilot,.              airship,
                                                     (ii) 20 hours of
                                                      pilot in command
                                                      time in an
                                                      airship,
                                                     (iii) 10 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time,
                                                     (iv) 5 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time in an
                                                      airship, and

[[Page 585]]

 
                                                     (v) 15 hours of
                                                      flight time as
                                                      pilot in command
                                                      in an airship that
                                                      is a light-sport
                                                      aircraft.
(e) Lighter-than-air category   (1) 35 hours of      (i) 20 hours of
 and balloon class privileges,   flight time as       flight time in a
                                 pilot-in-command,.   balloon,
                                                     (ii) 10 flights in
                                                      a balloon, and
                                                     (iii) 5 flights as
                                                      pilot in command
                                                      in a balloon that
                                                      is a light-sport
                                                      aircraft.
(f) Weight-shift-control        (1) 150 hours of     (i) 100 hours of
 aircraft category privileges,   flight time as a     flight time as
                                 pilot,.              pilot in command
                                                      in powered
                                                      aircraft,
                                                     (ii) 50 hours of
                                                      flight time in a
                                                      weight-shift-
                                                      control aircraft,
                                                     (iii) 25 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time,
                                                     (iv) 10 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time in a
                                                      weight-shift-
                                                      control aircraft,
                                                      and
                                                     (v) 15 hours of
                                                      flight time as
                                                      pilot in command
                                                      in a weight-shift-
                                                      control aircraft
                                                      that is a light-
                                                      sport aircraft.
(g) Powered-parachute category  (1) 100 hours of     (i) 75 hours of
 privileges,                     flight time as a     flight time as
                                 pilot,.              pilot in command
                                                      in powered
                                                      aircraft,
                                                     (ii) 50 hours of
                                                      flight time in a
                                                      powered parachute,
                                                     (iii) 15 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time,
                                                     (iv) 5 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time in a
                                                      powered parachute,
                                                      and
                                                     (v) 15 hours of
                                                      flight time as
                                                      pilot in command
                                                      in a powered
                                                      parachute that is
                                                      a light-sport
                                                      aircraft.
------------------------------------------------------------------------



Sec. 61.412  Do I need additional training to provide instruction on control and maneuvering an airplane solely by reference to the instruments in a light-
          sport aircraft based on VH?

    To provide flight training under Sec. 61.93(e)(12) on control and 
maneuvering an airplane solely by reference to the flight instruments 
for the purpose of issuing a solo cross-country endorsement under Sec. 
61.93(c)(1) to a student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate, a 
flight instructor with a sport pilot rating must:
    (a) Hold an endorsement required by Sec. 61.327(b);
    (b) Receive and log a minimum of 1 hour of ground training and 3 
hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in an airplane 
with a VH greater than 87 knots CAS or in a full flight 
simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device that 
replicates an airplane with a VH greater than 87 knots CAS; 
and
    (c) Receive a one-time endorsement in his or her logbook from an 
instructor authorized under subpart H of this part who certifies that 
the person is proficient in providing training on control and 
maneuvering solely by reference to the flight instruments in an airplane 
with a VH greater than 87 knots CAS. This flight training 
must include straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of 
radio navigation aids, and ATC directives.

[Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30280, June 27, 2018]



Sec. 61.413  What are the privileges of my flight instructor
certificate with a sport pilot rating?

    (a) If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot 
rating, you are authorized, within the limits of your certificate and 
rating, to provide training and endorsements that are required for, and 
relate to--
    (1) A student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate;
    (2) A sport pilot certificate;
    (3) A flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating;
    (4) A powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft rating;
    (5) Sport pilot privileges;
    (6) A flight review or operating privilege for a sport pilot;
    (7) A practical test for a sport pilot certificate, a private pilot 
certificate with a powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft 
rating or a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating;

[[Page 586]]

    (8) A knowledge test for a sport pilot certificate, a private pilot 
certificate with a powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft 
rating or a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating; and
    (9) A proficiency check for an additional category or class 
privilege for a sport pilot certificate or a flight instructor 
certificate with a sport pilot rating.
    (b) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate with a sport 
pilot rating is authorized, in a form and manner acceptable to the 
Administrator, to:
    (1) Accept an application for a student pilot certificate or, for an 
applicant who holds a pilot certificate (other than a student pilot 
certificate) issued under part 61 of this chapter and meets the flight 
review requirements specified in Sec. 61.56, a remote pilot certificate 
with a small UAS rating;
    (2) Verify the identity of the applicant; and
    (3) Verify that an applicant for a student pilot certificate meets 
the eligibility requirements in Sec. 61.83.

[Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1307, Jan. 12, 2016, as 
amended by Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 61-137, 81 FR 42208, June 28, 
2016]



Sec. 61.415  What are the limits of a flight instructor certificate
with a sport pilot rating?

    If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot 
rating, you may only provide flight training in a light-sport aircraft 
and are subject to the following limits:
    (a) You may not provide ground or flight training in any aircraft 
for which you do not hold:
    (1) A sport pilot certificate with applicable category and class 
privileges or a pilot certificate with the applicable category and class 
rating; and
    (2) Applicable category and class privileges for your flight 
instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating.
    (b) You may not provide ground or flight training for a private 
pilot certificate with a powered parachute or weight-shift-control 
aircraft rating unless you hold:
    (1) At least a private pilot certificate with the applicable 
category and class rating; and
    (2) Applicable category and class privileges for your flight 
instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating.
    (c) You may not conduct more than 8 hours of flight training in any 
24-consecutive-hour period.
    (d) You may not endorse a:
    (1) Student pilot's logbook for solo flight privileges, unless you 
have--
    (i) Given that student the flight training required for solo flight 
privileges required by this part; and
    (ii) Determined that the student is prepared to conduct the flight 
safely under known circumstances, subject to any limitations listed in 
the student's logbook that you consider necessary for the safety of the 
flight.
    (2) Student pilot's logbook for a solo cross-country flight, unless 
you have determined the student's flight preparation, planning, 
equipment, and proposed procedures are adequate for the proposed flight 
under the existing conditions and within any limitations listed in the 
logbook that you consider necessary for the safety of the flight.
    (3) Student pilot's logbook for solo flight in Class B, C, and D 
airspace areas, at an airport within Class B, C, or D airspace and to 
from, through or on an airport having an operational control tower, 
unless you have--
    (i) Given that student ground and flight training in that airspace 
or at that airport; and
    (ii) Determined that the student is proficient to operate the 
aircraft safely.
    (4) Logbook of a pilot for a flight review, unless you have 
conducted a review of that pilot in accordance with the requirements of 
Sec. 61.56.
    (e) You may not provide training to operate a light-sport aircraft 
in Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D 
airspace, and to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational 
control tower, unless you have the endorsement specified in Sec. 
61.325, or are otherwise authorized to conduct operations in this 
airspace and at these airports.
    (f) You may not provide training in a light-sport aircraft that is 
an airplane with a VH less than or equal to 87 knots

[[Page 587]]

CAS unless you have the endorsement specified in Sec. 61.327 (a), or 
are otherwise authorized to operate that light-sport aircraft.
    (g) You may not provide training in a light-sport aircraft with a 
VH greater than 87 knots CAS unless you have the endorsement 
specified in Sec. 61.327 (b), or are otherwise authorized to operate 
that light-sport aircraft.
    (h) You may not provide training on the control and maneuvering of 
an aircraft solely by reference to the instruments in a light sport 
airplane with a Vh greater than 87 knots CAS unless you meet 
the requirements in Sec. 61.412.
    (i) You must perform all training in an aircraft that complies with 
the requirements of Sec. 91.109 of this chapter.
    (j) If you provide flight training for a certificate, rating or 
privilege, you must provide that flight training in an aircraft that 
meets the following:
    (1) The aircraft must have at least two pilot stations and be of the 
same category and class appropriate to the certificate, rating or 
privilege sought.
    (2) For single place aircraft, pre-solo flight training must be 
provided in an aircraft that has two pilot stations and is of the same 
category and class appropriate to the certificate, rating, or privilege 
sought.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-125A, 75 FR 15610, Mar. 
30, 2010; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1307, Jan. 12, 2016; 
Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30280, June 27, 2018]



Sec. 61.417  Will my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot
rating list aircraft category and class ratings?

    Your flight instructor certificate does not list aircraft category 
and class ratings. When you successfully pass the practical test for a 
flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, regardless of 
the light-sport aircraft privileges you seek, the FAA will issue you a 
flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating without any 
category and class ratings. The FAA will provide you with a logbook 
endorsement for the category and class of light-sport aircraft you are 
authorized to provide training in.



Sec. 61.419  How do I obtain privileges to provide training in an additional category or class of light-sport aircraft?

    If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot 
rating and seek to provide training in an additional category or class 
of light-sport aircraft you must--
    (a) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who 
trained you on the applicable areas of operation specified in Sec. 
61.409 certifying you have met the aeronautical knowledge and flight 
proficiency requirements for the additional category and class flight 
instructor privilege you seek;
    (b) Successfully complete a proficiency check from an authorized 
instructor other than the instructor who trained you on the areas 
specified in Sec. 61.409 for the additional category and class flight 
instructor privilege you seek;
    (c) Complete an application for those privileges on a form and in a 
manner acceptable to the FAA and present this application to the 
authorized instructor who conducted the proficiency check specified in 
paragraph (b) of this section; and
    (d) Receive a logbook endorsement from the instructor who conducted 
the proficiency check specified in paragraph (b) of this section 
certifying you are proficient in the areas of operation and authorized 
for the additional category and class flight instructor privilege.



Sec. 61.421  May I give myself an endorsement?

    No. If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot 
rating, you may not give yourself an endorsement for any certificate, 
privilege, rating, flight review, authorization, practical test, 
knowledge test, or proficiency check required by this part.



Sec. 61.423  What are the recordkeeping requirements for a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating?

    (a) As a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating you must:
    (1) Sign the logbook of each person to whom you have given flight 
training or ground training.

[[Page 588]]

    (2) Keep a record of the name, date, and type of endorsement for:
    (i) Each person whose logbook you have endorsed for solo flight 
privileges.
    (ii) Each person for whom you have provided an endorsement for a 
knowledge test, practical test, or proficiency check, and the record 
must indicate the kind of test or check, and the results.
    (iii) Each person whose logbook you have endorsed as proficient to 
operate--
    (A) An additional category or class of light-sport aircraft;
    (B) In Class B, C, and D airspace; at an airport located in Class B, 
C, or D airspace; and to, from, through, or at an airport having an 
operational control tower;
    (C) A light-sport aircraft that is an airplane with a VH 
less than or equal to 87 knots CAS; and
    (D) A light-sport aircraft with a VH greater than 87 
knots CAS.
    (iv) Each person whose logbook you have endorsed as proficient to 
provide flight training in an additional category or class of light-
sport aircraft.
    (b) Within 10 days after providing an endorsement for a person to 
operate or provide training in an additional category and class of 
light-sport aircraft you must--
    (1) Complete, sign, and submit to the FAA the application presented 
to you to obtain those privileges; and
    (2) Retain a copy of the form.
    (c) You must keep the records listed in this section for 3 years. 
You may keep these records in a logbook or a separate document.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-125A, 75 FR 15610, Mar. 
30, 2010; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1307, Jan. 12, 2016]



Sec. 61.425  How do I renew my flight instructor certificate?

    If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot 
rating you may renew your certificate in accordance with the provisions 
of Sec. 61.197.



Sec. 61.427  What must I do if my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating expires?

    You may exchange your expired flight instructor certificate with a 
sport pilot rating for a new certificate with a sport pilot rating and 
any other rating on that certificate by passing a practical test as 
prescribed in Sec. 61.405(b) or Sec. 61.183(h) for one of the ratings 
listed on the expired flight instructor certificate. The FAA will 
reinstate any privilege authorized by the expired certificate.



Sec. 61.429  May I exercise the privileges of a flight instructor
certificate with a sport pilot rating if I hold a flight instructor
certificate with another 
          rating?

    If you hold a flight instructor certificate, a commercial pilot 
certificate with an airship rating, or a commercial pilot certificate 
with a balloon rating issued under this part, and you seek to exercise 
the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot 
rating, you may do so without any further showing of proficiency, 
subject to the following limits:
    (a) You are limited to the aircraft category and class ratings 
listed on your flight instructor certificate, commercial pilot 
certificate with an airship rating, or commercial pilot certificate with 
a balloon rating, as appropriate, when exercising your flight instructor 
privileges and the privileges specified in Sec. 61.413.
    (b) You must comply with the limits specified in Sec. 61.415 and 
the recordkeeping requirements of Sec. 61.423.
    (c) If you want to exercise the privileges of your flight instructor 
certificate in a category or class of light-sport aircraft for which you 
are not currently rated, you must meet all applicable requirements to 
provide training in an additional category or class of light-sport 
aircraft specified in Sec. 61.419.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 
1, 2010]

[[Page 589]]



PART 63_CERTIFICATION: FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS OTHER
THAN PILOTS--Table of Contents



Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100-2 [Note]

                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
63.1 Applicability.
63.2 Certification of foreign flight crewmembers other than pilots.
63.3 Certificates and ratings required.
63.11 Application and issue.
63.12 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.
63.12a Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results.
63.12b [Reserved]
63.13 Temporary certificate.
63.14 [Reserved]
63.15 Duration of certificates.
63.15a [Reserved]
63.16 Change of name; replacement of lost or destroyed certificate.
63.17 Tests: General procedure.
63.18 Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.
63.19 Operations during physical deficiency.
63.20 Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records; 
          falsification, reproduction, or alteration.
63.21 Change of address.
63.23 Special purpose flight engineer and flight navigator certificates: 
          Operation of U.S.-registered civil airplanes leased by a 
          person not a U.S. citizen.

                       Subpart B_Flight Engineers

63.31 Eligibility requirements; general.
63.33 Aircraft ratings.
63.35 Knowledge requirements.
63.37 Aeronautical experience requirements.
63.39 Skill requirements.
63.41 Retesting after failure.
63.42 Flight engineer certificate issued on basis of a foreign flight 
          engineer license.
63.43 Flight engineer courses.

                       Subpart C_Flight Navigators

63.51 Eligibility requirements; general.
63.53 Knowledge requirements.
63.55 Experience requirements.
63.57 Skill requirements.
63.59 Retesting after failure.
63.61 Flight navigator courses.

Appendix A to Part 63--Test Requirements for Flight Navigator 
          Certificate
Appendix B to Part 63--Flight Navigator Training Course Requirements
Appendix C to Part 63--Flight Engineer Training Course Requirements

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 
44709-44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45302.



           Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100-2

    Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 100-2, see part 61 of this 
chapter.



                            Subpart A_General

    Source: Docket No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, unless otherwise 
noted.



Sec. 63.1  Applicability.

    This part prescribes the requirements for issuing flight engineer 
and flight navigator certificates and the general operating rules for 
holders of those certificates.



Sec. 63.2  Certification of foreign flight crewmembers other than pilots.

    A person who is neither a United States citizen nor a resident alien 
is issued a certificate under this part (other than under Sec. 63.23 or 
Sec. 63.42) outside the United States only when the Administrator finds 
that the certificate is needed for the operation of a U.S.-registered 
civil aircraft.

(Secs. 313, 601, 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 
U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation 
Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, Independent Offices Appropriations Act 
of 1952 (31 U.S.C. 483(a)); sec. 28, International Air Transportation 
Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. 1159(b)))

[Doc. No. 22052, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 18, 1982]



Sec. 63.3  Certificates and ratings required.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person 
may act as a flight engineer of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry unless 
that person has in his or her physical possession or readily accessible 
in the aircraft:
    (1) A current flight engineer certificate with appropriate ratings 
issued to that person under this part;
    (2) A document conveying temporary authority to exercise certificate 
privileges issued by the Airman Certification Branch under Sec. 
63.16(f); or
    (3) When engaged in a flight operation within the United States for 
a

[[Page 590]]

part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 
121 of this chapter, a temporary document provided by that certificate 
holder under an approved certificate verification plan.
    (b) A person may act as a flight engineer of an aircraft only if 
that person holds a current second-class (or higher) medical certificate 
issued to that person under part 67 of this chapter, or other 
documentation acceptable to the FAA, that is in that person's physical 
possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.
    (c) When the aircraft is operated within a foreign country, a 
current flight engineer certificate issued by the country in which the 
aircraft is operated, with evidence of current medical qualification for 
that certificate, may be used. Also, in the case of a flight engineer 
certificate issued under Sec. 63.42, evidence of current medical 
qualification accepted for the issue of that certificate is used in 
place of a medical certificate.
    (d) No person may act as a flight navigator of a civil aircraft of 
U.S. registry unless that person has in his or her physical possession a 
current flight navigator certificate issued to him or her under this 
part and a second-class (or higher) medical certificate issued to him or 
her under part 67 of this chapter within the preceding 12 months. 
However, when the aircraft is operated within a foreign country, a 
current flight navigator certificate issued by the country in which the 
aircraft is operated, with evidence of current medical qualification for 
that certificate, may be used.
    (e) Each person who holds a flight engineer or flight navigator 
certificate, medical certificate, or temporary document in accordance 
with paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall present it for inspection 
upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of 
the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or 
local law enforcement officer.

[Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 30280, June 27, 2018]



Sec. 63.11  Application and issue.

    (a) An application for a certificate and appropriate class rating, 
or for an additional rating, under this part must be made on a form and 
in a manner prescribed by the Administrator. Each person who applies for 
airmen certification services to be administered outside the United 
States for any certificate or rating issued under this part must show 
evidence that the fee prescribed in appendix A of part 187 of this 
chapter has been paid.
    (b) An applicant who meets the requirements of this part is entitled 
to an appropriate certificate and appropriate class ratings.
    (c) Unless authorized by the Administrator, a person whose flight 
engineer certificate is suspended may not apply for any rating to be 
added to that certificate during the period of suspension.
    (d) Unless the order of revocation provides otherwise, a person 
whose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate is revoked may not 
apply for the same kind of certificate for 1 year after the date of 
revocation.

(Secs. 313, 601, 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 
U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation 
Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, Independent Offices Appropriations Act 
of 1952 (31 U.S.C. 483(a)); sec. 28, International Air Transportation 
Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. 1159(b)))

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-3, 30 
FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965; Amdt. 63-7, 31 FR 13523, Oct. 20, 1966; Amdt. 
63-22, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982; Amdt. 63-35, 72 FR 18558, Apr. 12, 
2007 ]



Sec. 63.12  Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.

    (a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or state statute 
relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, 
possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marihuana, 
or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for--
    (1) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued 
under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final 
conviction; or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued 
under this part.
    (b) The commission of an act prohibited by Sec. 91.17(a) or Sec. 
91.19(a) of this chapter is grounds for--

[[Page 591]]

    (1) Denial of an application for a certificate or rating issued 
under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; 
or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued 
under this part.

[Doc. No. 21956, 50 FR 15379, Apr. 17, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 63-27, 
54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989]



Sec. 63.12a  Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results.

    A refusal to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight 
of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer in 
accordance with Sec. 91.11(c) of this chapter, or a refusal to furnish 
or authorize the release of the test results when requested by the 
Administrator in accordance with Sec. 91.17 (c) or (d) of this chapter, 
is grounds for--
    (a) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued 
under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that 
refusal; or
    (b) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued 
under this part.

[Doc. No. 21956, 51 FR 1229, Jan. 9, 1986, as amended by Amdt. 63-27, 54 
FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989]



Sec. 63.12b  [Reserved]



Sec. 63.13  Temporary certificate.

    A certificate effective for a period of not more than 120 days may 
be issued to a qualified applicant, pending review of his application 
and supplementary documents and the issue of the certificate for which 
he applied.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 
FR 22639, May 25, 1978]



Sec. 63.14  [Reserved]



Sec. 63.15  Duration of certificates.

    (a) Except as provided in Sec. 63.23 and paragraph (b) of this 
section, a certificate or rating issued under this part is effective 
until it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.
    (b) A flight engineer certificate (with any amendment thereto) 
issued under Sec. 63.42 expires at the end of the 24th month after the 
month in which the certificate was issued or renewed. However, the 
holder may exercise the privileges of that certificate only while the 
foreign flight engineer license on which that certificate is based is 
effective.
    (c) Any certificate issued under this part ceases to be effective if 
it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked. The holder of any certificate 
issued under this part that is suspended or revoked shall, upon the 
Administrator's request, return it to the Administrator.
    (d) Except for temporary certificate issued under Sec. 63.13, the 
holder of a paper certificate issued under this part may not exercise 
the privileges of that certificate after March 31, 2013.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655; secs. 313, 601, 602, Federal 
Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and 1422); sec. 
6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, 
Independent Offices Appropriations Act of 1952 (31 U.S.C. 483(a)); sec. 
28, International Air Transportation Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. 
1159(b)))

[Doc. No. 8846, 33 FR 18613, Dec. 17, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 63-22, 
47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982; Amdt. 63-36, 73 FR 10668, Feb. 28, 2008]



Sec. 63.15a  [Reserved]



Sec. 63.16  Change of name; replacement of lost or destroyed certificate.

    (a) An application for a change of name on a certificate issued 
under this part must be accompanied by the applicant's current 
certificate and the marriage license, court order, or other document 
verifying the change. The documents are returned to the applicant after 
inspection.
    (b) A request for a replacement of a lost or destroyed airman 
certificate issued under this part must be made:
    (1) By letter to the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation 
Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, 
Oklahoma City, OK 73125 and must be accompanied by a check or money 
order for the appropriate fee payable to the FAA; or
    (2) In any other form and manner approved by the Administrator 
including a request to Airman Services at http://www.faa.gov, and must 
be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate fee.

[[Page 592]]

    (c) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed medical 
certificate must be made:
    (1) By letter to the Department of Transportation, FAA, Aerospace 
Medical Certification Division, P.O. Box 26200, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, 
and must be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate 
fee payable to the FAA; or
    (2) In any other manner and form approved by the Administrator and 
must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate 
fee.
    (d) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed knowledge 
test report must be made:
    (1) By letter to the Department of Transportation, FAA, Airmen 
Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, and must 
be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate fee payable 
to the FAA; or
    (2) In any other manner and form approved by the Administrator and 
must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate 
fee.
    (e) The letter requesting replacement of a lost or destroyed airman 
certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report must state:
    (1) The name of the person;
    (2) The permanent mailing address (including ZIP code), or if the 
permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, then the 
person's current residential address;
    (3) The certificate holder's date and place of birth; and
    (4) Any information regarding the--
    (i) Grade, number, and date of issuance of the airman certificate 
and ratings, if appropriate;
    (ii) Class of medical certificate, the place and date of the medical 
exam, name of the Airman Medical Examiner (AME), and the circumstances 
concerning the loss of the original medical certificate, as appropriate; 
and
    (iii) Date the knowledge test was taken, if appropriate.
    (f) A person who has lost an airman certificate, medical 
certificate, or knowledge test report may obtain in a form or manner 
approved by the Administrator, a document conveying temporary authority 
to exercise certificate privileges from the FAA Aeromedical 
Certification Branch or the Airman Certification Branch, as appropriate, 
and the--
    (1) Document may be carried as an airman certificate, medical 
certificate, or knowledge test report, as appropriate, for a period not 
to exceed 60 days pending the person's receiving a duplicate under 
paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section, unless the person has been 
notified that the certificate has been suspended or revoked.
    (2) Request for such a document must include the date on which a 
duplicate certificate or knowledge test report was previously requested.

[Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 30280, June 27, 2018]



Sec. 63.17  Tests: General procedure.

    (a) Tests prescribed by or under this part are given at times and 
places, and by persons, designated by the Administrator.
    (b) The minimum passing grade for each test is 70 percent.



Sec. 63.18  Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.

    (a) Except as authorized by the Administrator, no person may--
    (1) Copy, or intentionally remove, a written test under this part;
    (2) Give to another, or receive from another, any part or copy of 
that test;
    (3) Give help on that test to, or receive help on that test from, 
any person during the period that test is being given.
    (4) Take any part of that test in behalf of another person;
    (5) Use any material or aid during the period that test is being 
given; or
    (6) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act 
prohibited by this paragraph.
    (b) No person who commits an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this 
section is eligible for any airman or ground instructor certificate or 
rating under this chapter for a period of 1 year after the date of that 
act. In addition, the commission of that act is a basis for suspending 
or revoking any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held 
by that person.

[Doc. No. 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]

[[Page 593]]



Sec. 63.19  Operations during physical deficiency.

    No person may serve as a flight engineer or flight navigator during 
a period of known physical deficiency, or increase in physical 
deficiency, that would make him unable to meet the physical requirements 
for his current medical certificate.



Sec. 63.20  Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records; falsification, reproduction, or alteration.

    (a) No person may make or cause to be made--
    (1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement on any 
application for a certificate or rating under this part;
    (2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, 
record, or report that is required to be kept, made, or used, to show 
compliance with any requirement for any certificate or rating under this 
part;
    (3) Any reproduction, for fraudulent purpose, of any certificate or 
rating under this part; or
    (4) Any alteration of any certificate or rating under this part.
    (b) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under 
paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for suspending or revoking any 
airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held by that person.

[Doc. No. 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]



Sec. 63.21  Change of address.

    Within 30 days after any change in his permanent mailing address, 
the holder of a certificate issued under this part shall notify the 
Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman 
Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, in 
writing, of his new address.

[Doc. No. 10536, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970]



Sec. 63.23  Special purpose flight engineer and flight navigator
certificates: Operation of U.S.-registered civil airplanes leased
by a person not a U.S. 
          citizen.

    (a) General. The holder of a current foreign flight engineer or 
flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization issued by a 
foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil 
Aviation, who meets the requirements of this section, may hold a special 
purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, as appropriate, 
authorizing the holder to perform flight engineer or flight navigator 
duties on a civil airplane of U.S. registry, leased to a person not a 
citizen of the United States, carrying persons or property for 
compensation or hire. Special purpose flight engineer and flight 
navigator certificates are issued under this section only for airplane 
types that can have a maximum passenger seating configuration, excluding 
any flight crewmember seat, of more than 30 seats or a maximum payload 
capacity (as defined in Sec. 135.2(e) of this chapter) of more than 
7,500 pounds.
    (b) Eligibility. To be eligible for the issuance, or renewal, of a 
certificate under this section, an applicant must present the following 
to the Administrator:
    (1) A current foreign flight engineer or flight navigator 
certificate, license, or authorization issued by the aeronautical 
authority of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on 
International Civil Aviation or a facsimile acceptable to the 
Administrator. The certificate or license must authorize the applicant 
to perform the flight engineer or flight navigator duties to be 
authorized by a certificate issued under this section on the same 
airplane type as the leased airplane.
    (2) A current certification by the lessee of the airplane--
    (i) Stating that the applicant is employed by the lessee;
    (ii) Specifying the airplane type on which the applicant will 
perform flight engineer or flight navigator duties; and
    (iii) Stating that the applicant has received ground and flight 
instruction which qualifies the applicant to perform the duties to be 
assigned on the airplane.
    (3) Documentation showing that the applicant currently meets the 
medical standards for the foreign flight engineer or flight navigator 
certificate, license, or authorization required by paragraph (b)(1) of 
this section, except that a U.S. medical certificate issued

[[Page 594]]

under part 67 of this chapter is not evidence that the applicant meets 
those standards unless the State which issued the applicant's foreign 
flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or 
authorization accepts a U.S. medical certificate as evidence of medical 
fitness for a flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, 
or authorization.
    (c) Privileges. The holder of a special purpose flight engineer or 
flight navigator certificate issued under this section may exercise the 
same privileges as those shown on the certificate, license, or 
authorization specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, subject to 
the limitations specified in this section.
    (d) Limitations. Each certificate issued under this section is 
subject to the following limitations:
    (1) It is valid only--
    (i) For flights between foreign countries and for flights in foreign 
air commerce;
    (ii) While it and the certificate, license, or authorization 
required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section are in the certificate 
holder's personal possession and are current;
    (iii) While the certificate holder is employed by the person to whom 
the airplane described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) 
of this section is leased;
    (iv) While the certificate holder is performing flight engineer or 
flight navigator duties on the U.S.-registered civil airplane described 
in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and
    (v) While the medical documentation required by paragraph (b)(3) of 
this section is in the certificate holder's personal possession and is 
currently valid.
    (2) Each certificate issued under this section contains the 
following:
    (i) The name of the person to whom the U.S.-registered civil 
airplane is leased.
    (ii) The type of airplane.
    (iii) The limitation: ``Issued under, and subject to, Sec. 63.23 of 
the Federal Aviation Regulations.''
    (iv) The limitation: ``Subject to the privileges and limitations 
shown on the holder's foreign flight (engineer or navigator) 
certificate, license, or authorization.''
    (3) Any additional limitations placed on the certificate which the 
Administrator considers necessary.
    (e) Termination. Each special purpose flight engineer or flight 
navigator certificate issued under this section terminates--
    (1) When the lease agreement for the airplane described in the 
certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section terminates;
    (2) When the foreign flight engineer or flight navigator 
certificate, license, or authorization, or the medical documentation 
required by paragraph (b) of this section is suspended, revoked, or no 
longer valid; or
    (3) After 24 months after the month in which the special purpose 
flight engineer or flight navigator certificate was issued.
    (f) Surrender of certificate. The certificate holder shall surrender 
the special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate to 
the Administrator within 7 days after the date it terminates.
    (g) Renewal. The certificate holder may have the certificate renewed 
by complying with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section at 
the time of application for renewal.

(Secs. 313(a), 601, and 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958; as amended 
(49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of 
Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))

[Doc. No. 19300, 45 FR 5672, Jan. 24, 1980]



                       Subpart B_Flight Engineers

    Authority: Secs. 313(a), 601, and 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958; 
49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, 1422.

    Source: Docket No. 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 63.31  Eligibility requirements; general.

    To be eligible for a flight engineer certificate, a person must--
    (a) Be at least 21 years of age;
    (b) Be able to read, speak, and understand the English language, or 
have an appropriate limitation placed on his flight engineer 
certificate;

[[Page 595]]

    (c) Hold at least a second-class medical certificate issued under 
part 67 of this chapter within the 12 months before the date he applies, 
or other evidence of medical qualification accepted for the issue of a 
flight engineer certificate under Sec. 63.42; and
    (d) Comply with the requirements of this subpart that apply to the 
rating he seeks.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)

[Doc. No. 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 63-9, 33 
FR 18614, Dec. 17, 1968]



Sec. 63.33  Aircraft ratings.

    (a) The aircraft class ratings to be placed on flight engineer 
certificates are--
    (1) Reciprocating engine powered;
    (2) Turbopropeller powered; and
    (3) Turbojet powered.
    (b) To be eligible for an additional aircraft class rating after his 
flight engineer certificate with a class rating is issued to him, an 
applicant must pass the written test that is appropriate to the class of 
airplane for which an additional rating is sought, and--
    (1) Pass the flight test for that class of aircraft; or
    (2) Satisfactorily complete an approved flight engineer training 
program that is appropriate to the additional class rating sought.



Sec. 63.35  Knowledge requirements.

    (a) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate must pass a 
written test on the following:
    (1) The regulations of this chapter that apply to the duties of a 
flight engineer.
    (2) The theory of flight and aerodynamics.
    (3) Basic meteorology with respect to engine operations.
    (4) Center of gravity computations.
    (b) An applicant for the original or additional issue of a flight 
engineer class rating must pass a written test for that airplane class 
on the following:
    (1) Preflight.
    (2) Airplane equipment.
    (3) Airplane systems.
    (4) Airplane loading.
    (5) Airplane procedures and engine operations with respect to 
limitations.
    (6) Normal operating procedures.
    (7) Emergency procedures.
    (8) Mathematical computation of engine operations and fuel 
consumption.
    (c) Before taking the written tests prescribed in paragraphs (a) and 
(b) of this section, an applicant for a flight engineer certificate must 
present satisfactory evidence of having completed one of the experience 
requirements of Sec. 63.37. However, he may take the written tests 
before acquiring the flight training required by Sec. 63.37.
    (d) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate or rating must 
have passed the written tests required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this 
section since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month 
in which the flight is taken. However, this limitation does not apply to 
an applicant for a flight engineer certificate or rating if--
    (1) The applicant--
    (i) Within the period ending 24 calendar months after the month in 
which the applicant passed the written test, is employed as a flight 
crewmember or mechanic by a U.S. air carrier or commercial operator 
operating either under part 121 or as a commuter air carrier under part 
135 (as defined in part 298 of this title) and is employed by such a 
certificate holder at the time of the flight test;
    (ii) If employed as a flight crewmember, has completed initial 
training, and, if appropriate, transition or upgrade training; and
    (iii) Meets the recurrent training requirements of the applicable 
part or, for mechanics, meets the recency of experience requirements of 
part 65; or
    (2) Within the period ending 24 calendar months after the month in 
which the applicant passed the written test, the applicant participated 
in a flight engineer or maintenance training program of a U.S. scheduled 
military air transportation service and is currently participating in 
that program.
    (e) An air carrier or commercial operator with an approved training 
program under part 121 of this chapter may, when authorized by the 
Administrator, provide as part of that program a written test that it 
may administer

[[Page 596]]

to satisfy the test required for an additional rating under paragraph 
(b) of this section.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655; secs. 313(a), 601 through 605 of 
the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421 through 1425); 
sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); and 14 
CFR 11.49)

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-17, 40 
FR 32830, Aug. 5, 1975; Doc. No. 63-21, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982]



Sec. 63.37  Aeronautical experience requirements.

    (a) Except as otherwise specified therein, the flight time used to 
satisfy the aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (b) of 
this section must have been obtained on an airplane--
    (1) On which a flight engineer is required by this chapter; or
    (2) That has at least three engines that are rated at least 800 
horsepower each or the equivalent in turbine-powered engines.
    (b) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate with a class 
rating must present, for the class rating sought, satisfactory evidence 
of one of the following:
    (1) At least 3 years of diversified practical experience in aircraft 
and aircraft engine maintenance (of which at least 1 year was in 
maintaining multiengine aircraft with engines rated at least 800 
horsepower each, or the equivalent in turbine engine powered aircraft), 
and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight 
engineer.
    (2) Graduation from at least a 2-year specialized aeronautical 
training course in maintaining aircraft and aircraft engines (of which 
at least 6 calendar months were in maintaining multiengine aircraft with 
engines rated at least 800 horsepower each or the equivalent in turbine 
engine powered aircraft), and at least 5 hours of flight training in the 
duties of a flight engineer.
    (3) A degree in aeronautical, electrical, or mechanical engineering 
from a recognized college, university, or engineering school; at least 6 
calendar months of practical experience in maintaining multiengine 
aircraft with engines rated at least 800 horsepower each, or the 
equivalent in turbine engine powered aircraft; and at least 5 hours of 
flight training in the duties of a flight engineer.
    (4) At least a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument 
rating and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight 
engineer.
    (5) At least 200 hours of flight time in a transport category 
airplane (or in a military airplane with at least two engines and at 
least equivalent weight and horsepower) as pilot in command or second in 
command performing the functions of a pilot in command under the 
supervision of a pilot in command.
    (6) At least 100 hours of flight time as a flight engineer.
    (7) Within the 90-day period before he applies, successful 
completion of an approved flight engineer ground and flight course of 
instruction as provided in appendix C of this part.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)

[Doc. No. 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 63-5, 31 
FR 9047, July 1, 1966; Amdt. 63-17, 40 FR 32830, Aug. 5, 1975]



Sec. 63.39  Skill requirements.

    (a) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate with a class 
rating must pass a practical test on the duties of a flight engineer in 
the class of airplane for which a rating is sought. The test may only be 
given on an airplane specified in Sec. 63.37(a).
    (b) The applicant must--
    (1) Show that he can satisfactorily perform preflight inspection, 
servicing, starting, pretakeoff, and postlanding procedures;
    (2) In flight, show that he can satisfactorily perform the normal 
duties and procedures relating to the airplane, airplane engines, 
propellers (if appropriate), systems, and appliances; and
    (3) In flight, in an airplane simulator, or in an approved flight 
engineer training device, show that he can satisfactorily perform 
emergency duties and procedures and recognize and take appropriate 
action for malfunctions of the airplane, engines, propellers (if 
appropriate), systems and appliances.

[[Page 597]]



Sec. 63.41  Retesting after failure.

    An applicant for a flight engineer certificate who fails a written 
test or practical test for that certificate may apply for retesting--
    (a) After 30 days after the date he failed that test; or
    (b) After he has received additional practice or instruction 
(flight, synthetic trainer, or ground training, or any combination 
thereof) that is necessary, in the opinion of the Administrator or the 
applicant's instructor (if the Administrator has authorized him to 
determine the additional instruction necessary) to prepare the applicant 
for retesting.



Sec. 63.42  Flight engineer certificate issued on basis of
a foreign flight engineer license.

    (a) Certificates issued. The holder of a current foreign flight 
engineer license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on 
International Civil Aviation, who meets the requirements of this 
section, may have a flight engineer certificate issued to him for the 
operation of civil aircraft of U.S. registry. Each flight engineer 
certificate issued under this section specifies the number and State of 
issuance of the foreign flight engineer license on which it is based. If 
the holder of the certificate cannot read, speak, or understand the 
English language, the Administrator may place any limitation on the 
certificate that he considers necessary for safety.
    (b) Medical standards and certification. An applicant must submit 
evidence that he currently meets the medical standards for the foreign 
flight engineer license on which the application for a certificate under 
this section is based. A current medical certificate issued under part 
67 of this chapter will be excepted as evidence that the applicant meets 
those standards. However, a medical certificate issued under part 67 of 
this chapter is not evidence that the applicant meets those standards 
outside the United States unless the State that issued the applicant's 
foreign flight engineer license also accepts that medical certificate as 
evidence of the applicant's physical fitness for his foreign flight 
engineer license.
    (c) Ratings issued. Aircraft class ratings listed on the applicant's 
foreign flight engineer license, in addition to any issued to him after 
testing under the provisions of this part, are placed on the applicant's 
flight engineer certificate. An applicant without an aircraft class 
rating on his foreign flight engineer license may be issued a class 
rating if he shows that he currently meets the requirements for 
exercising the privileges of his foreign flight engineer license on that 
class of aircraft.
    (d) Privileges and limitations. The holder of a flight engineer 
certificate issued under this section may act as a flight engineer of a 
civil aircraft of U.S. registry subject to the limitations of this part 
and any additional limitations placed on his certificate by the 
Administrator. He is subject to these limitations while he is acting as 
a flight engineer of the aircraft within or outside the United States. 
However, he may not act as flight engineer or in any other capacity as a 
required flight crewmember, of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry that is 
carrying persons or property for compensation or hire.
    (e) Renewal of certificate and ratings. The holder of a certificate 
issued under this section may have that certificate and the ratings 
placed thereon renewed if, at the time of application for renewal, the 
foreign flight engineer license on which that certificate is based is in 
effect. Application for the renewal of the certificate and ratings 
thereon must be made before the expiration of the certificate.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)

[Doc. No. 8846, 33 FR 18614, Dec. 17, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 63-20, 
45 FR 5673, Jan. 24, 1980]



Sec. 63.43  Flight engineer courses.

    An applicant for approval of a flight engineer course must submit a 
letter to the Administrator requesting approval, and must also submit 
three copies of each course outline, a description of the facilities and 
equipment, and a list of the instructors and their qualifications. An 
air carrier or commercial operator with an approved flight engineer 
training course under part 121 of this chapter may apply for approval of 
a training course under this part by letter without submitting

[[Page 598]]

the additional information required by this paragraph. Minimum 
requirements for obtaining approval of a flight engineer course are set 
forth in appendix C of this part.



                       Subpart C_Flight Navigators

    Authority: Secs. 313(a), 314, 601, and 607; 49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1355, 
1421, and 1427.

    Source: Docket No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, unless otherwise 
noted.



Sec. 63.51  Eligibility requirements; general.

    To be eligible for a flight navigator certificate, a person must--
    (a) Be at least 21 years of age;
    (b) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English 
language;
    (c) Hold at least a second-class medical certificate issued under 
part 67 of this chapter within the 12 months before the date he applies; 
and
    (d) Comply with Sec. Sec. 63.53, 63.55, and 63.57.



Sec. 63.53  Knowledge requirements.

    (a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate must pass a 
written test on--
    (1) The regulations of this chapter that apply to the duties of a 
flight navigator;
    (2) The fundamentals of flight navigation, including flight planning 
and cruise control;
    (3) Practical meteorology, including analysis of weather maps, 
weather reports, and weather forecasts; and weather sequence 
abbreviations, symbols, and nomenclature;
    (4) The types of air navigation facilities and procedures in general 
use;
    (5) Calibrating and using air navigation instruments;
    (6) Navigation by dead reckoning;
    (7) Navigation by celestial means;
    (8) Navigation by radio aids;
    (9) Pilotage and map reading; and
    (10) Interpretation of navigation aid identification signals.
    (b) A report of the test is mailed to the applicant. A passing grade 
is evidence, for a period of 24 months after the test, that the 
applicant has complied with this section.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 
FR 22639, May 25, 1978]



Sec. 63.55  Experience requirements.

    (a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate must be a 
graduate of a flight navigator course approved by the Administrator or 
present satisfactory documentary evidence of--
    (1) Satisfactory determination of his position in flight at least 25 
times by night by celestial observations and at least 25 times by day by 
celestial observations in conjunction with other aids; and
    (2) At least 200 hours of satisfactory flight navigation including 
celestial and radio navigation and dead reckoning.

A pilot who has logged 500 hours of cross-country flight time, of which 
at least 100 hours were at night, may be credited with not more than 100 
hours for the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
    (b) Flight time used exclusively for practicing long-range 
navigation methods, with emphasis on celestial navigation and dead 
reckoning, is considered to be satisfactory navigation experience for 
the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section. It must be substantiated 
by a logbook, by records of an armed force or a certificated air 
carrier, or by a letter signed by a certificated flight navigator and 
attached to the application.



Sec. 63.57  Skill requirements.

    (a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate must pass a 
practical test in navigating aircraft by--
    (1) Dead reckoning;
    (2) Celestial means; and
    (3) Radio aids to navigation.
    (b) An applicant must pass the written test prescribed by Sec. 
63.53 before taking the test under this section. However, if a delay in 
taking the test under this section would inconvenience the applicant or 
an air carrier, he may take it before he receives the result of the 
written test, or after he has failed the written test.

[[Page 599]]

    (c) The test requirements for this section are set forth in appendix 
A of this part.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 
FR 22639, May 25, 1978]



Sec. 63.59  Retesting after failure.

    (a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate who fails a 
written or practical test for that certificate may apply for retesting--
    (1) After 30 days after the date he failed that test; or
    (2) Before the 30 days have expired if the applicant presents a 
signed statement from a certificated flight navigator, certificated 
ground instructor, or any other qualified person approved by the 
Administrator, certifying that that person has given the applicant 
additional instruction in each of the subjects failed and that person 
considers the applicant ready for retesting.
    (b) A statement from a certificated flight navigator, or from an 
operations official of an approved navigator course, is acceptable, for 
the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, for the written test 
and for the flight test. A statement from a person approved by the 
Administrator is acceptable for the written tests. A statement from a 
supervising or check navigator with the United States Armed Forces is 
acceptable for the written test and for the practical test.
    (c) If the applicant failed the flight test, the additional 
instruction must have been administered in flight.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 
FR 22640, May 25, 1978]



Sec. 63.61  Flight navigator courses.

    An applicant for approval of a flight navigator course must submit a 
letter to the Administrator requesting approval, and must also submit 
three copies of the course outline, a description of his facilities and 
equipment, and a list of the instructors and their qualifications. 
Requirements for the course are set forth in appendix B to this part.





   Sec. Appendix A to Part 63--Test Requirements for Flight Navigator 
                               Certificate

    (a) Demonstration of skill. An applicant will be required to pass 
practical tests on the prescribed subjects. These tests may be given by 
FAA inspectors and designated flight navigator examiners.
    (b) The examination. The practical examination consists of a ground 
test and a flight test as itemized on the examination check sheet. Each 
item must be completed satisfactorily in order for the applicant to 
obtain a passing grade. Items 5, 6, 7 of the ground test may be 
completed orally, and items 17, 22, 23, 34, 36, 37, 38, and 39 of the 
flight test may be completed by an oral examination when a lack of 
ground facilities or navigation equipment makes such procedure 
necessary. In these cases a notation to that effect shall be made in the 
``Remarks'' space on the check sheet.
    (c) Examination procedure. (1) An applicant will provide an aircraft 
in which celestial observations can be taken in all directions. Minimum 
equipment shall include a table for plotting, a drift meter or absolute 
altimeter, an instrument for taking visual bearings, and a radio 
direction finder.
    (2) More than one flight may be used to complete the flight test and 
any type of flight pattern may be used. The test will be conducted 
chiefly over water whenever practicable, and without regard to radio 
range legs or radials. If the test is conducted chiefly over land, a 
chart should be used which shows very little or no topographical and 
aeronautical data. The total flight time will cover a period of at least 
four hours. Only one applicant may be examined at one time, and no 
applicant may perform other than navigator duties during the 
examination.
    (3) When the test is conducted with an aircraft belonging to an air 
carrier, the navigation procedures should conform with those set forth 
in the carrier's operations manual. Items of the flight test which are 
not performed during the routine navigation of the flight will be 
completed by oral examination after the flight or at times during flight 
which the applicant indicates may be used for tests on those items. 
Since in-flight weather conditions, the reliability of the weather 
forecast, and the stability of the aircraft will have considerable 
effect on an applicant's performance, good judgment must be used by the 
agent or examiner in evaluating the tests.
    (d) Ground test. For the ground test, in the order of the numbered 
items on the examination check sheet, an applicant will be required to:
    (1) Identify without a star identifier, at least six navigational 
stars and all planets available for navigation at the time of the

[[Page 600]]

examination and explain the method of identification.
    (2) Identify two additional stars with a star identifier or sky 
diagrams and explain identification procedure.
    (3) Precompute a time-altitude curve for a period of about 20 
minutes and take 10 single observations of a celestial body which is 
rising or setting rapidly. The intervals between observations should be 
at least one minute. Mark each observation on the graph to show 
accuracy. All observations, after corrections, shall plot within 8 
minutes of arc from the time-altitude curve, and the average error shall 
not exceed 5 minutes of arc.
    (4) Take and plot one 3-star fix and 3 LOP's of the sun. Plotted fix 
or an average of LOP's must fall within 5 miles of the actual position 
of the observer.
    (5) Demonstrate or explain the compensation and swinging of a 
liquid-type magnetic compass.
    (6) Demonstrate or explain a method of aligning one type of drift 
meter.
    (7) Demonstrate or explain a method of aligning an astro-compass or 
periscopic sextant.
    (e) Flight test. For the flight test, in the order of the numbered 
items on the examination check sheet, an applicant will be required to:
    (1) Demonstrate his ability to read weather symbols and interpret 
synoptic surface and upper air weather maps with particular emphasis 
being placed on winds.
    (2) Prepare a flight plan by zones from the forecast winds or 
pressure data of an upper air chart and the operator's data.
    (3) Compute from the operator's data the predicted fuel consumption 
for each zone of the flight, including the alternate.
    (4) Determine the point-of-no-return for the flight with all engines 
running and the equitime point with one engine inoperative. Graphical 
methods which are part of the company's operations manual may be used 
for these computations.
    (5) Prepare a cruise control (howgozit) chart from the operator's 
data.
    (6) Enter actual fuel consumed on the cruise control chart and 
interpret the variations of the actual curve from the predicted curve.
    (7) Check the presence on board and operating condition of all 
navigation equipment. Normally a check list will be used. This check 
will include a time tick or chronometer comparison. Any lack of 
thoroughness during this check will justify this item being graded 
unsatisfactory.
    (8) Locate emergency equipment, such as, the nearest fire 
extinguisher, life preserver, life rafts, exits, axe, first aid kits, 
etc.
    (9) Recite the navigator's duties and stations during emergencies 
for the type of aircraft used for the test.
    (10) Demonstrate the proper use of a flux gate compass or gyrosyn 
compass (when available), with special emphasis on the caging methods 
and the location of switches, circuit breakers, and fuses. If these 
compasses are not part of the aircraft's equipment, an oral examination 
will be given.
    (11) Be accurate and use good judgment when setting and altering 
headings. Erroneous application of variation, deviation, or drift 
correction, or incorrect measurement of course on the chart will be 
graded as unsatisfactory.
    (12) Demonstrate or explain the use of characteristics of various 
chart projections used in long-range air navigation, including the 
plotting of courses and bearings, and the measuring of distances.
    (13) Demonstrate ability to identify designated landmarks by the use 
of a sectional or WAC chart.
    (14) Use a computer with facility and accuracy for the computation 
of winds, drift correction and drift angles, ground speeds, ETA's, fuel 
loads, etc.
    (15) Determine track, ground speed, and wind by the double drift 
method. When a drift meter is not part of the aircraft's equipment, an 
oral examination on the use of the drift meter and a double drift 
problem shall be completed.
    (16) Determine ground speed and wind by the timing method with a 
drift meter. When a drift meter is not part of the aircraft's equipment, 
an oral examination on the procedure and a problem shall be completed.
    (17) Demonstrate the use of air plot for determining wind between 
fixes and for plotting pressure lines of position when using pressure 
and absolute altimeter comparisons.
    (18) Give ETA's to well defined check points at least once each hour 
after the second hour of flight. The average error shall not be more 
than 5 percent of the intervening time intervals, and the maximum error 
of any one ETA shall not be more than 10 percent.
    (19) Demonstrate knowledge and use of D/F equipment and radio 
facility information. Grading on this item will be based largely on the 
applicant's selection of those radio aids which will be of most value to 
his navigation, the manner with which he uses equipment, including 
filter box controls, and the precision with which he reads bearings. The 
aircraft's compass heading and all compass corrections must be 
considered for each bearing.
    (20) Use care in tuning to radio stations to insure maximum 
reception of signal and check for interference signals. Receiver will be 
checked to ascertain that antenna and BFO (Voice-CW) switches are in 
correct positions.

[[Page 601]]

    (21) Identify at least three radio stations using International 
Morse code only for identification. The agent or examiner will tune in 
these stations so that the applicant will have no knowledge of the 
direction, distance, or frequency of the stations.
    (22) Take at least one radio bearing by manual use of the loop. The 
agent or examiner will check the applicant's bearing by taking a manual 
bearing on the same station immediately after the applicant.
    (23) Show the use of good judgment in evaluating radio bearings, and 
explain why certain bearings may be of doubtful value.
    (24) Determine and apply correctly the correction required to be 
made to radio bearings before plotting them on a Mercator chart, and 
demonstrate the ability to plot bearings accurately on charts of the 
Mercator and Lambert conformal projections.
    (25) Compute the compass heading, ETA, and fuel remaining if it is 
assumed that the flight would be diverted to an alternate airport at a 
time specified by the agent or examiner.
    (26)-(28) [Reserved]
    (29) Demonstrate the ability to properly operate and read an 
absolute altimeter.
    (30) Determine the ``D'' factors for a series of compared readings 
of an absolute altimeter and a pressure altimeter.
    (31) Determine drift angle or lateral displacement from the true 
headingline by application of Bellamy's formula or a variation thereof.
    (32) Interpret the altimeter comparison data with respect to the 
pressure system found at flight level. From this data evaluate the 
accuracy of the prognostic weather map used for flight planning and 
apply this analysis to the navigation of the flight.
    (33) Interpret single LOP's for most probable position, and show how 
a series of single LOP's of the same body may be used to indicate the 
probable track and ground speed. Also, show how a series of single LOP's 
(celestial or radio) from the same celestial body or radio station may 
be used to determine position when the change of azimuth or bearing is 
30[deg] or more between observations.
    (34) Select one of the celestial LOP's used during the flight and 
explain how to make a single line of position approach to a point 
selected by the agent or examiner, giving headings, times, and ETA's.
    (35) Demonstrate the proper use of an astro-compass or periscopic 
sextant for taking bearings.
    (36) Determine compass deviation as soon as possible after reaching 
cruising altitude and whenever there is a change of compass heading of 
15[deg] or more.
    (37) Take celestial fixes at hourly intervals when conditions 
permit. The accuracy of these fixes shall be checked by means of a radio 
or visual fix whenever practicable. After allowing for the probable 
error of a radio or visual fix, a celestial fix under favorable 
conditions should plot within 10 miles of the actual position.
    (38) Select celestial bodies for observation, when possible, whose 
azimuths will differ by approximately 120[deg] for a 3-body fix and will 
differ by approximately 90[deg] for a 2-body fix. The altitudes of the 
selected bodies should be between 25[deg] and 75[deg] whenever 
practicable.
    (39) Have POMAR and any other required reports ready for 
transmission at time of schedule, and be able to inform the pilot in 
command promptly with regard to the aircraft's position and progress in 
comparison with the flight plan.
    (40) Keep a log with sufficient legible entries to provide a record 
from which the flight could be retraced.
    (41) Note significant weather changes which might influence the 
drift or ground speed of the aircraft, such as, temperature, ``D'' 
factors, frontal conditions, turbulence, etc.
    (42) Determine the wind between fixes as a regular practice.
    (43) Estimate the time required and average ground speed during a 
letdown, under conditions specified by the pilot in command.
    (44) Work with sufficient speed to determine the aircraft's position 
hourly by celestial means and also make all other observations and 
records pertinent to the navigation. The applicant should be able to 
take the observation, compute, and plot a celestial LOP within a time 
limit of 8 minutes; observe the absolute and pressure altimeters and 
compute the drift or lateral displacement within a time limit of 3 
minutes.
    (45) Be accurate in reading instruments and making computations. 
Errors which are made and corrected without affecting the navigation 
will be disregarded unless they cause considerable loss of time.
    An uncorrected error in computation (including reading instruments 
and books) which will affect the reported position more than 25 miles, 
the heading more than 3[deg], or any ETA more than 15 minutes will cause 
this item to be graded unsatisfactory.
    (46) Be alert to changing weather or other conditions during flight 
which might affect the navigation. An applicant should not fail to take 
celestial observations just prior to encountering a broken or overcast 
sky condition; and he should not fail to take a bearing on a radio 
station, which operates at scheduled intervals and which would be a 
valuable aid to the navigation.
    (47) Show a logical choice and sequence in using the various 
navigation methods according to time and accuracy, and check the 
positions determined by one method against positions determined by other 
methods.
    (48) Use a logical sequence in performing the various duties of a 
navigator and plan

[[Page 602]]

work according to a schedule. The more important duties should not be 
neglected for others of less importance.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Docket FAA-
2017-0733, Amdt. 63-39, 82 FR 34398, July 25, 2017]



      Sec. Appendix B to Part 63--Flight Navigator Training Course 
                              Requirements

    (a) Training course outline--(1) Format. The ground course outline 
and the flight course outline shall be combined in one looseleaf binder 
and shall include a table of contents, divided into two parts--ground 
course and flight course. Each part of the table of contents must 
contain a list of the major subjects, together with hours allotted to 
each subject and the total classroom and flight hours.
    (2) Ground course outline. (i) It is not mandatory that a course 
outline have the subject headings arranged exactly as listed in this 
paragraph. Any arrangement of general headings and subheadings will be 
satisfactory provided all the subject material listed here is included 
and the acceptable minimum number of hours is assigned to each subject. 
Each general subject shall be broken down into detail showing items to 
be covered.
    (ii) If any agency desires to include additional subjects in the 
ground training curriculum, such as international law, flight hygiene, 
or others which are not required, the hours allotted these additional 
subjects may not be included in the minimum classroom hours.
    (iii) The following subjects with classroom hours are considered the 
minimum coverage for a ground training course for flight navigators:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                               Classroom
                           Subject                               hours
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Federal Aviation Administration.............................           5
  To include Parts 63, 91, and 121 of this chapter.
Meteorology.................................................          40
  To include:
    Basic weather principles.
    Temperature.
    Pressure.
    Winds.
    Moisture in the atmosphere.
    Stability.
    Clouds.
    Hazards.
    Air masses.
    Front weather.
    Fog.
    Thunderstorms.
    Icing.
    World weather and climate.
    Weather maps and weather reports.
    Forecasting.
International Morse code:
  Ability to receive code groups of letters and numerals at
   a speed of eight words per minute
Navigation instruments (exclusive of radio and radar).......          20
  To include:
    Compasses.
    Pressure altimeters.
    Airspeed indicators.
    Driftmeters.
    Bearing indicators.
    Aircraft octants.
    Instrument calibration and alignment.
Charts and pilotage.........................................          15
To include:
  Chart projections.
  Chart symbols.
  Principles of pilotage.
Dead reckoning..............................................          30
To include:
  Air plot.
  Ground plot.
  Calculation of ETA.
  Vector analysis.
  Use of computer.
  Search.
Absolute altimeter with:
Applications................................................          15
  To include:
    Principles of construction.
    Operating instructions.
    Use of Bellamy's formula.
    Flight planning with single drift correction.
Radio and long-range navigational aids......................          35
    To include:
    Principles of radio transmission and reception..........
    Radio aids to navigation................................
    Government publications.................................
    Airborne D/F equipment..................................
    Errors of radio bearings................................
    Quadrantal correction...................................
Plotting radio bearings.....................................
    ICAO Q code for direction finding.......................
Celestial navigation........................................         150

[[Page 603]]

 
  To include:
    The solar system.
    The celestial sphere.
    The astronomical triangle.
    Theory of lines of position.
    Use of the Air Almanac.
    Time and its applications.
    Navigation tables.
    Precomputation.
    Celestial line of position approach.
    Star identification.
    Corrections to celestial observations.
Flight planning and cruise control..........................          25
  To include:
    The flight plan.
    Fuel consumption charts.
    Methods of cruise control.
    Flight progress chart.
    Point-of-no-return.
    Equitime point.
Long-range flight problems..................................          15
                                                             -----------
    Total (exclusive of final examinations).................         350
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (3) Flight course outline. (i) A minimum of 150 hours of supervised 
flight training shall be given, of which at least 50 hours of flight 
training must be given at night, and celestial navigation must be used 
during flights which total at least 125 hours.
    (ii) A maximum of 50 hours of the required flight training may be 
obtained in acceptable types of synthetic flight navigator training 
devices.
    (iii) Flights should be at least four hours in length and should be 
conducted off civil airways. Some training on long-range flights is 
desirable, but is not required. There is no limit to the number of 
students that may be trained on one flight, but at least one astrodrome 
or one periscopic sextant mounting must be provided for each group of 
four students.
    (iv) Training must be given in dead reckoning, pilotage, radio 
navigation, celestial navigation, and the use of the absolute altimeter.
    (b) Equipment. (1) Classroom equipment shall include one table at 
least 24 x 32 in dimensions for each student.
    (2) Aircraft suitable for the flight training must be available to 
the approved course operator to insure that the flight training may be 
completed without undue delay.

The approved course operator may contract or obtain written agreements 
with aircraft operators for the use of suitable aircraft. A copy of the 
contract or written agreement with an aircraft operator shall be 
attached to each of the three copies of the course outline submitted for 
approval. In all cases, the approved course operator is responsible for 
the nature and quality of instruction given during flight.
    (c) Instructors. (1) Sufficient classroom instructors must be 
available to prevent an excessive ratio of students to instructors. Any 
ratio in excess of 20 to 1 will be considered unsatisfactory.
    (2) At least one ground instructor must hold a valid flight 
navigator certificate, and be utilized to coordinate instruction of 
ground school subjects.
    (3) Each instructor who conducts flight training must hold a valid 
flight navigator certificate.
    (d) Revision of training course. (1) Requests for revisions to 
course outlines, facilities, and equipment shall follow procedures for 
original approval of the course. Revisions should be submitted in such 
form that an entire page or pages of the approved outline can be removed 
and replaced by the revisions.
    (2) The list of instructors may be revised at any time without 
request for approval, provided the minimum requirement of paragraph (e) 
of this section is maintained.
    (e) Credit for previous training and experience. (1) Credit may be 
granted by an operator to students for previous training and experience 
which is provable and comparable to portions of the approved curriculum. 
When granting such credit, the approved course operator should be fully 
cognizant of the fact that he is responsible for the proficiency of his 
graduates in accordance with subdivision (i) of paragraph (3) of this 
section.
    (2) Where advanced credit is allowed, the operator shall evaluate 
the student's previous training and experience in accordance with the 
normal practices of accredited technical schools. Before credit is given 
for any ground school subject or portion thereof, the student must pass 
an appropriate examination given by the operator. The results of the 
examination, the basis for credit allowance, and the hours credited 
shall be incorporated as a part of the student's records.
    (3) Credit up to a maximum of 50 hours toward the flight training 
requirement may be given to pilots who have logged at least 500 hours 
while a member of a flight crew which required a certificated flight 
navigator or the Armed Forces equivalent. A similar credit may also be 
given to a licensed deck officer of the Maritime Service who has served 
as such for at least one year on ocean-going vessels. One-half of the 
flight time credited under the terms of this paragraph may be applied 
toward the 50 hours of flight training required at night.
    (f) Students records and reports. Approval of a course shall not be 
continued in effect unless the course operator keeps an accurate record 
of each student, including a chronological log of all instruction, 
subjects covered and course examinations and grades, and unless he 
prepares and transmits to the responsible Flight Standards office not 
later than January 31 of each year, a report containing the following 
information for the previous calendar year:

[[Page 604]]

    (1) The names of all students graduated, together with their school 
grades for ground and flight subjects.
    (2) The names of all students failed or dropped, together with their 
school grades and reasons for dropping.
    (g) Quality of instruction. Approval of a course shall not be 
continued in effect unless at least 80 percent of the students who apply 
within 90 days after graduation are able to qualify on the first attempt 
for certification as flight navigators.
    (h) Statement of graduation. Each student who successfully completes 
an approved flight navigator course shall be given a statement of 
graduation.
    (i) Inspections. Approved course operations will be inspected by 
authorized representatives of the Administrator as often as deemed 
necessary to insure that instruction is maintained at the required 
standards, but the period between inspections shall not exceed 12 
months.
    (j) Change of ownership, name, or location--(1) Change of ownership. 
Approval of a flight navigator course shall not be continued in effect 
after the course has changed ownership. The new owner must obtain a new 
approval by following the procedure prescribed for original approval.
    (2) Change in name. An approved course changed in name but not 
changed in ownership shall remain valid if the change is reported by the 
approved course operator to the responsible Flight Standards office. A 
letter of approval under the new name will be issued by the responsible 
Flight Standards office.
    (3) Change in location. An approved course shall remain in effect 
even though the approved course operator changes location if the change 
is reported without delay by the operator to the responsible Flight 
Standards office, which will inspect the facilities to be used. If they 
are found to be adequate, a letter of approval showing the new location 
will be issued by the responsible Flight Standards office.
    (k) Cancellation of approval. (1) Failure to meet or maintain any of 
the requirements set forth in this section for the approval or operation 
of an approved flight navigator course shall be considered sufficient 
reason for cancellation of the approval.
    (2) If an operator should desire voluntary cancellation of his 
approved course, he should submit the effective letter of approval and a 
written request for cancellation to the Administrator through the 
responsible Flight Standards office.
    (l) Duration. The authority to operate an approved flight navigator 
course shall expire 24 months after the last day of the month of 
issuance.
    (m) Renewal. Application for renewal of authority to operate an 
approved flight navigator course may be made by letter to the 
responsible Flight Standards office at any time within 60 days before to 
the expiration date. Renewal of approval will depend upon the course 
operator meeting the current conditions for approval and having a 
satisfactory record as an operator.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-6, 31 
FR 9211, July 6, 1966; Amdt. 63-28, 54 FR 39291, Sept. 25, 1989; Docket 
FAA-2017-0733, Amdt. 63-39, 82 FR 34398, July 25, 2017; Docket FAA-2018-
0119, Amdt. 63-40, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. Appendix C to Part 63--Flight Engineer Training Course Requirements

    (a) Training course outline--(1) Format. The ground course outline 
and the flight course outline are independent. Each must be contained in 
a looseleaf binder to include a table of contents. If an applicant 
desires approval of both a ground school course and a flight school 
course, they must be combined in one looseleaf binder that includes a 
separate table of contents for each course. Separate course outlines are 
required for each type of airplane.
    (2) Ground course outline. (i) It is not mandatory that the subject 
headings be arranged exactly as listed in this paragraph. Any 
arrangement of subjects is satisfactory if all the subject material 
listed here is included and at least the minimum programmed hours are 
assigned to each subject. Each general subject must be broken down into 
detail showing the items to be covered.
    (ii) If any course operator desires to include additional subjects 
in the ground course curriculum, such as international law, flight 
hygiene, or others that are not required, the hours allotted these 
additional subjects may not be included in the minimum programmed 
classroom hours.
    (iii) The following subjects and classroom hours are the minimum 
programmed coverage for the initial approval of a ground training course 
for flight engineers. Subsequent to initial approval of a ground 
training course an applicant may apply to the Administrator for a 
reduction in the programmed hours. Approval of a reduction in the 
approved programmed hours is based on improved training effectiveness 
due to improvements in methods, training aids, quality of instruction, 
or any combination thereof.

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                               Classroom
                           Subject                               hours
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Federal Aviation Regulations................................          10
  To include the regulations of this chapter that apply to
   flight engineers
Theory of Flight and Aerodynamics...........................          10
Airplane Familiarization....................................          90

[[Page 605]]

 
  To include as appropriate:
    Specifications.
    Construction features.
    Flight controls.
    Hydraulic systems.
    Pneumatic systems.
    Electrical systems.
    Anti-icing and de-icing systems.
    Pressurization and air-conditioning systems.
    Vacuum systems.
    Pilot static systems.
    Instrument systems.
    Fuel and oil systems.
    Emergency equipment.
Engine Familiarization......................................          45
  To include as appropriate:
    Specifications.
    Construction features.
    Lubrication.
    Ignition.
    Carburetor and induction, supercharging and fuel control
     systems
    Accessories.
    Propellers.
    Instrumentation.
    Emergency equipment.
Normal Operations (Ground and Flight).......................          50
  To include as appropriate:
    Servicing methods and procedures.
    Operation of all the airplane systems.
    Operation of all the engine systems.
    Loading and center of gravity computations.
    Cruise control (normal, long range, maximum endurance)
    Power and fuel computation.
    Meteorology as applicable to engine operation
Emergency Operations........................................          80
  To include as appropriate:
    Landing gear, brakes, flaps, speed brakes, and leading
     edge devices
    Pressurization and air-conditioning.
    Portable fire extinguishers.
    Fuselage fire and smoke control.
    Loss of electrical power.
    Engine fire control.
    Engine shut-down and restart.
    Oxygen.
                                                             -----------
      Total (exclusive of final tests)......................         235
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    The above subjects, except Theory of Flight and Aerodynamics, and 
Regulations must apply to the same type of airplane in which the student 
flight engineer is to receive flight training.
    (3) Flight Course Outline. (i) The flight training curriculum must 
include at least 10 hours of flight instruction in an airplane specified 
in Sec. 63.37(a). The flight time required for the practical test may 
not be credited as part of the required flight instruction.
    (ii) All of the flight training must be given in the same type 
airplane.
    (iii) As appropriate to the airplane type, the following subjects 
must be taught in the flight training course:

                                 Subject

                normal duties, procedures and operations

To include as appropriate:
    Airplane preflight.
    Engine starting, power checks, pretakeoff, postlanding and shut-down 
procedures.
    Power control.
    Temperature control.
    Engine operation analysis.
    Operation of all systems.
    Fuel management.
    Logbook entries.
    Pressurization and air conditioning.

          recognition and correction of in-flight malfunctions

To include:
    Analysis of abnormal engine operation.
    Analysis of abnormal operation of all systems.
    Corrective action.

                     emergency operations in flight

To include as appropriate:
    Engine fire control.
    Fuselage fire control.
    Smoke control.
    Loss of power or pressure in each system.
    Engine overspeed.
    Fuel dumping.
    Landing gear, spoilers, speed brakes, and flap extension and 
retraction.
    Engine shut-down and restart.
    Use of oxygen.
    (iv) If the Administrator finds a simulator or flight engineer 
training device to accurately reproduce the design, function, and 
control characteristics, as pertaining to the duties and 
responsibilities of a flight engineer on the type of airplane to be 
flown, the flight training time may be reduced by a ratio of 1 hour of 
flight time to 2 hours of airplane simulator time, or 3 hours of flight 
engineer training device time, as the case may be, subject to the 
following limitations:
    (a) Except as provided in subdivision (b) of this paragraph, the 
required flight instruction time in an airplane may not be less than 5 
hours.
    (b) As to a flight engineer student holding at least a commercial 
pilot certificate with an instrument rating, airplane simulator or a 
combination of airplane simulator and flight engineer training device 
time may be submitted for up to all 10 hours of the required flight 
instruction time in an airplane. However, not more than 15 hours of 
flight engineer training device time may be substituted for flight 
instruction time.
    (v) To obtain credit for flight training time, airplane simulator 
time, or flight engineer training device time, the student must occupy 
the flight engineer station and operate the controls.

[[Page 606]]

    (b) Classroom equipment. Classroom equipment should consist of 
systems and procedural training devices, satisfactory to the 
Administrator, that duplicate the operation of the systems of the 
airplane in which the student is to receive his flight training.
    (c) Contracts or agreements. (1) An approved flight engineer course 
operator may contract with other persons to obtain suitable airplanes, 
airplane simulators, or other training devices or equipment.
    (2) An operator who is approved to conduct both the flight engineer 
ground course and the flight engineer flight course may contract with 
others to conduct one course or the other in its entirety but may not 
contract with others to conduct both courses for the same airplane type.
    (3) An operator who has approval to conduct a flight engineer ground 
course or flight course for a type of airplane, but not both courses, 
may not contract with another person to conduct that course in whole or 
in part.
    (4) An operator who contracts with another to conduct a flight 
engineer course may not authorize or permit the course to be conducted 
in whole or in part by a third person.
    (5) In all cases, the course operator who is approved to operate the 
course is responsible for the nature and quality of the instruction 
given.
    (6) A copy of each contract authorized under this paragraph must be 
attached to each of the 3 copies of the course outline submitted for 
approval.
    (d) Instructors. (1) Only certificated flight engineers may give the 
flight instruction required by this appendix in an airplane, simulator, 
or flight engineer training device.
    (2) There must be a sufficient number of qualified instructors 
available to prevent an excess ratio of students to instructors.
    (e) Revisions. (1) Requests for revisions of the course outlines, 
facilities or equipment must follow the procedures for original approval 
of the course. Revisions must be submitted in such form that an entire 
page or pages of the approved outline can be removed and replaced by the 
revisions.
    (2) The list of instructors may be revised at any time without 
request for approval, if the requirements of paragraph (d) of this 
appendix are maintained.
    (f) Ground school credits. (1) Credit may be granted a student in 
the ground school course by the course operator for comparable previous 
training or experience that the student can show by written evidence: 
however, the course operator must still meet the quality of instruction 
as described in paragraph (h) of this appendix.
    (2) Before credit for previous training or experience may be given, 
the student must pass a test given by the course operator on the subject 
for which the credit is to be given. The course operator shall 
incorporate results of the test, the basis for credit allowance, and the 
hours credited as part of the student's records.
    (g) Records and reports. (1) The course operator must maintain, for 
at least two years after a student graduates, fails, or drops from a 
course, a record of the student's training, including a chronological 
log of the subject course, attendance examinations, and grades.
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of this section, the course 
operator must submit to the Administrator, not later than January 31 of 
each year, a report for the previous calendar year's training, to 
include:
    (i) Name, enrollment and graduation date of each student;
    (ii) Ground school hours and grades of each student;
    (iii) Flight, airplane simulator, flight engineer training device 
hours, and grades of each student; and
    (iv) Names of students failed or dropped, together with their school 
grades and reasons for dropping.
    (3) Upon request, the Administrator may waive the reporting 
requirements of paragraph (2) of this section for an approved flight 
engineer course that is part of an approved training course under 
subpart N of part 121 of this chapter.
    (h) Quality of instruction. (1) Approval of a ground course is 
discontinued whenever less than 80 percent of the students pass the FAA 
written test on the first attempt.
    (2) Approval of a flight course is discontinued whenever less than 
80 percent of the students pass the FAA practical test on the first 
attempt.
    (3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2) of this section, approval 
of a ground or flight course may be continued when the Administrator 
finds--
    (i) That the failure rate was based on less than a representative 
number of students; or
    (ii) That the course operator has taken satisfactory means to 
improve the effectiveness of the training.
    (i) Time limitation. Each student must apply for the written test 
and the flight test within 90 days after completing the ground school 
course.
    (j) Statement of course completion. (1) The course operator shall 
give to each student who successfully completes an approved flight 
engineer ground school training course, and passes the FAA written test, 
a statement of successful completion of the course that indicates the 
date of training, the type of airplane on which the ground course 
training was based, and the number of hours received in the ground 
school course.
    (2) The course operator shall give each student who successfully 
completes an approved flight engineer flight course, and passed the FAA 
practical test, a statement of successful

[[Page 607]]

completion of the flight course that indicates the dates of the 
training, the type of airplane used in the flight course, and the number 
of hours received in the flight course.
    (3) A course operator who is approved to conduct both the ground 
course and the flight course may include both courses in a single 
statement of course completion if the provisions of paragraphs (1) and 
(2) of this section are included.
    (4) The requirements of this paragraph do not apply to an air 
carrier or commercial operator with an approved training course under 
part 121 of this chapter providing the student receives a flight 
engineer certificate upon completion of that course.
    (k) Inspections. Each course operator shall allow the Administrator 
at any time or place, to make any inspection necessary to ensure that 
the quality and effectiveness of the instruction are maintained at the 
required standards.
    (l) Change of ownership, name, or location. (1) Approval of a flight 
engineer ground course or flight course is discontinued if the ownership 
of the course changes. The new owner must obtain a new approval by 
following the procedure prescribed for original approval.
    (2) Approval of a flight engineer ground course or flight course 
does not terminate upon a change in the name of the course that is 
reported to the Administrator within 30 days. The Administrator issues a 
new letter of approval, using the new name, upon receipt of notice 
within that time.
    (3) Approval of a flight engineer ground course or flight course 
does not terminate upon a change in location of the course that is 
reported to the Administrator within 30 days. The Administrator issues a 
new letter of approval, showing the new location, upon receipt of notice 
within that time, if he finds the new facilities to be adequate.
    (m) Cancellation of approval. (1) Failure to meet or maintain any of 
the requirements of this appendix for the approval of a flight engineer 
ground course or flight course is reason for cancellation of the 
approval.
    (2) If a course operator desires to voluntarily terminate the 
course, he should notify the Administrator in writing and return the 
last letter of approval.
    (n) Duration. Except for a course operated as part of an approved 
training course under subpart N of part 121 of this chapter, the 
approval to operate a flight engineer ground course or flight course 
terminates 24 months after the last day of the month of issue.
    (o) Renewal. (1) Renewal of approval to operate a flight engineer 
ground course or flight course is conditioned upon the course operator's 
meeting the requirements of this appendix.
    (2) Application for renewal may be made to the Administrator at any 
time after 60 days before the termination date.
    (p) Course operator approvals. An applicant for approval of a flight 
engineer ground course, or flight course, or both, must meet all of the 
requirements of this appendix concerning application, approval, and 
continuing approval of that course or courses.
    (q) Practical test eligibility. An applicant for a flight engineer 
certificate and class rating under the provisions of Sec. 63.37(b)(6) 
is not eligible to take the practical test unless he has successfully 
completed an approved flight engineer ground school course in the same 
type of airplane for which he has completed an approved flight engineer 
flight course.

[Doc. No. 6458, 30 FR 14560, Nov. 23, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 63-15, 
37 FR 9758, May 17, 1972]



PART 65_CERTIFICATION: AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS--Table of Contents



Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100-2 [Note]
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 103

                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
65.1 Applicability.
65.3 Certification of foreign airmen other than flight crewmembers.
65.11 Application and issue.
65.12 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.
65.13 Temporary certificate.
65.14 [Reserved]
65.15 Duration of certificates.
65.16 Change of name: Replacement of lost or destroyed certificate.
65.17 Tests: General procedure.
65.18 Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.
65.19 Retesting after failure.
65.20 Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records: 
          Falsification reproduction, or alteration.
65.21 Change of address.
65.23 Incorporation by reference.

              Subpart B_Air Traffic Control Tower Operators

65.31 Required credentials, certificates, and ratings or qualifications.
65.33 Eligibility requirements: General.
65.35 Knowledge requirements.
65.37 Skill requirements: Operating positions.
65.39 Practical experience requirements: Facility rating.
65.41 Skill requirements: Facility ratings.

[[Page 608]]

65.43 [Reserved]
65.45 Performance of duties.
65.46-65.46b [Reserved]
65.47 Maximum hours.
65.49 General operating rules.
65.50 Currency requirements.

                     Subpart C_Aircraft Dispatchers

65.51 Certificate required.
65.53 Eligibility requirements: General.
65.55 Knowledge requirements.
65.57 Experience or training requirements.
65.59 Skill requirements.
65.61 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Content and minimum 
          hours.
65.63 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Application, duration, 
          and other general requirements.
65.65 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Training facilities.
65.67 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Personnel.
65.70 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Records.

                           Subpart D_Mechanics

65.71 Eligibility requirements: General.
65.73 Ratings.
65.75 Knowledge requirements.
65.77 Experience requirements.
65.79 Skill requirements.
65.80 Certificated aviation maintenance technician school students.
65.81 General privileges and limitations.
65.83 Recent experience requirements.
65.85 Airframe rating; additional privileges.
65.87 Powerplant rating; additional privileges.
65.89 Display of certificate.
65.91 Inspection authorization.
65.92 Inspection authorization: Duration.
65.93 Inspection authorization: Renewal.
65.95 Inspection authorization: Privileges and limitations.

                           Subpart E_Repairmen

65.101 Eligibility requirements: General.
65.103 Repairman certificate: Privileges and limitations.
65.104 Repairman certificate--experimental aircraft builder--
          Eligibility, privileges and limitations.
65.105 Display of certificate.
65.107 Repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft): Eligibility, 
          privileges, and limits.

                       Subpart F_Parachute Riggers

65.111 Certificate required.
65.113 Eligibility requirements: General.
65.115 Senior parachute rigger certificate: Experience, knowledge, and 
          skill requirements.
65.117 Military riggers or former military riggers: Special 
          certification rule.
65.119 Master parachute rigger certificate: Experience, knowledge, and 
          skill requirements.
65.121 Type ratings.
65.123 Additional type ratings: Requirements.
65.125 Certificates: Privileges.
65.127 Facilities and equipment.
65.129 Performance standards.
65.131 Records.
65.133 Seal.

Appendix A to Part 65--Aircraft Dispatcher Courses

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 
44709-44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45302.

    Source: Docket No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, unless otherwise 
noted.



           Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100-2

    Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 100-2, see part 61 of this 
chapter.



Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 103--Process for Requesting 
Waiver of Mandatory Separation Age for a Federal Aviation Administration 
 Air Traffic Control Specialist In Flight Service Stations, Enroute or 
Terminal Facilities, and the David J. Hurley Air Traffic Control System 
                             Command Center

    1. To whom does this SFAR apply? This Special Federal Aviation 
Regulation (SFAR) applies to you if you are an air traffic control 
specialist (ATCS) employed by the FAA in flight service stations, 
enroute facilities, terminal facilities, or at the David J. Hurley Air 
Traffic Control System Command Center who wishes to obtain a waiver of 
the mandatory separation age as provided by 5 U.S.C. section 8335(a).
    2. When must I file for a waiver? No earlier than the beginning of 
the twelfth month before, but no later than the beginning of the sixth 
month before, the month in which you turn 56, your official chain-of-
command must receive your written request asking for a waiver of 
mandatory separation.
    3. What if I do not file a request before six months before the 
month in which I turn 56? If your official chain-of-command does not 
receive your written request for a waiver of mandatory separation before 
the beginning of the sixth month before the month in which you turn 56, 
your request will be denied.
    4. How will the FAA determine if my request meets the filing time 
requirements of this SFAR?

[[Page 609]]

    a. We consider your request to be filed in a timely manner under 
this SFAR if your official chain-of-command receives it or it is 
postmarked:
    i. After 12 a.m. on the first day of the twelfth month before the 
month in which you turn 56; and
    ii. Before 12 a.m. of the first day of the sixth month before the 
month in which you turn 56.
    b. If you file your request by mail and the postmark is not legible, 
we will consider it to comply with paragraph a.2 of this section if we 
receive it by 12 p.m. of the fifth day of the sixth month before the 
month in which you turn 56.
    c. If the last day of the time period specified in paragraph a.2 or 
paragraph b falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, we will 
consider the time period to end at 12 p.m. of the next business day.
    5. Where must I file my request for waiver and what must it include?
    a. You must file your request for waiver of mandatory separation in 
writing with the Air Traffic Manager in flight service stations, enroute 
facilities, terminal facilities, or the David J. Hurley Air Traffic 
Control System Command Center in which you are employed.
    b. Your request for waiver must include all of the following:
    i. Your name.
    ii. Your current facility.
    iii. Your starting date at the facility.
    iv. A list of positions at the facility that you are certified in 
and how many hours it took to achieve certification at the facility.
    v. Your area of specialty at the facility.
    vi. Your shift schedule.
    vii. [Reserved]
    viii. A list of all facilities where you have worked as a certified 
professional controller (CPC) including facility level and dates at each 
facility;
    ix. Evidence of your exceptional skills and experience as a 
controller; and
    x. Your signature.
    6. How will my waiver request be reviewed?
    a. Upon receipt of your request for waiver, the Air Traffic Manager 
of your facility will make a written recommendation that the 
Administrator either approve or deny your request. If the manager 
recommends approval of your request, he or she will certify in writing 
the accuracy of the information you provided as evidence of your 
exceptional skills and experience as a controller.
    b. The Air Traffic Manager will then forward the written 
recommendation with a copy of your request to the senior executive 
manager in the Air Traffic Manager's regional chain-of-command.
    c. The senior executive manager in the regional chain-of-command 
will make a written recommendation that the Administrator either approve 
or deny your request. If the senior executive manager recommends 
approval of your request, he or she will certify in writing the accuracy 
of the information you have provided as evidence of exceptional skills 
and experience.
    d. The senior executive manager in the regional chain-of-command 
will then forward his or her recommendation with a copy of your request 
to the appropriate Vice President at FAA Headquarters. Depending on the 
facility in which you are employed, the request will be forwarded to 
either the Vice President for Flight Services, the Vice President for 
Enroute and Oceanic Services, the Vice President for Terminal Services 
or the Vice President for Systems Operations. For example, if you work 
at a flight service station at the time that you request a waiver, the 
request will be forwarded to the Vice President for Flight Services.
    e. The appropriate Vice President will review your request and make 
a written recommendation that the Administrator either approve or deny 
your request, which will be forwarded to the Administrator.
    f. The Administrator will issue the final decision on your request.
    7. If I am granted a waiver, when will it expire?
    a. Waivers will be granted for a period of one year.
    b. No later than 90-days prior to expiration of a waiver, you may 
request that the waiver be extended using the same process identified in 
section 6.
    c. If you timely request an extension of the waiver and it is 
denied, you will receive a 60-day advance notice of your separation date 
simultaneously with notification of the denial.
    d. If you do not request an extension of the waiver granted, you 
will receive a 60-day advance notice of your separation date.
    e. Action to separate you from your covered position becomes 
effective on the last day of the month in which the 60-day notice 
expires.
    8. Under what circumstances may my waiver be terminated?
    a. The FAA/DOT may terminate your waiver under the following 
circumstances:
    i. The needs of the FAA; or
    ii. If you are identified as a primary contributor to an operational 
error/deviation or runway incursion.
    b. If the waiver is terminated for either of the reasons identified 
in paragraph 1 of this section, the air traffic control specialist will 
receive a 60-day advance notice.
    c. Action to separate you from your covered position becomes 
effective on the last day of the month in which the 60-day notice 
expires.

[[Page 610]]

    9. Appeal of denial or termination of waiver request: The denial or 
termination of a waiver of mandatory separation request is neither 
appealable nor grievable.

[Doc. No. FAA-2004-17334, 70 FR 1636, Jan. 7, 2005, as amended by Amdt. 
65-55, 76 FR 12, Jan. 3, 2011]



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 65.1  Applicability.

    This part prescribes the requirements for issuing the following 
certificates and associated ratings and the general operating rules for 
the holders of those certificates and ratings:
    (a) Air-traffic control-tower operators.
    (b) Aircraft dispatchers.
    (c) Mechanics.
    (d) Repairmen.
    (e) Parachute riggers.



Sec. 65.3  Certification of foreign airmen other than flight crewmembers.

    A person who is neither a U.S. citizen nor a resident alien is 
issued a certificate under subpart D of this part, outside the United 
States, only when the Administrator finds that the certificate is needed 
for the operation or continued airworthiness of a U.S.-registered civil 
aircraft.

[Doc. No. 65-28, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982]



Sec. 65.11  Application and issue.

    (a) Application for a certificate and appropriate class rating, or 
for an additional rating, under this part must be made on a form and in 
a manner prescribed by the Administrator. Each person who applies for 
airmen certification services to be administered outside the United 
States or for any certificate or rating issued under this part must show 
evidence that the fee prescribed in appendix A of part 187 of this 
chapter has been paid.
    (b) Except for FAA Credential holders with tower ratings, an 
applicant who meets the requirements of this part is entitled to an 
appropriate certificate and rating.
    (c) Unless authorized by the Administrator, a person whose air 
traffic control tower operator, mechanic, or parachute rigger 
certificate is suspended may not apply for any rating to be added to 
that certificate during the period of suspension.
    (d) Unless the order of revocation provides otherwise--
    (1) A person whose air traffic control tower operator, aircraft 
dispatcher, or parachute rigger certificate is revoked may not apply for 
the same kind of certificate for 1 year after the date of revocation; 
and
    (2) A person whose mechanic or repairman certificate is revoked may 
not apply for either of those kinds of certificates for 1 year after the 
date of revocation.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-9, 31 
FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966; Amdt. 65-28, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982; Amdt. 
65-49, 72 FR 18559, Apr. 12, 2007; Amdt. 65-56, 79 FR 74611, Dec. 16, 
2014]



Sec. 65.12  Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.

    (a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or state statute 
relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, 
possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marihuana, 
or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for--
    (1) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued 
under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final 
conviction; or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued 
under this part.
    (b) The commission of an act prohibited by Sec. 91.19(a) of this 
chapter is grounds for--
    (1) Denial of an application for a certificate or rating issued 
under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; 
or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued 
under this part.

[Doc. No. 21956, 50 FR 15379, Apr. 17, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 65-34, 
54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989]



Sec. 65.13  Temporary certificate.

    A certificate and ratings effective for a period of not more than 
120 days may be issued to a qualified applicant, pending review of his 
application and supplementary documents and the issue of

[[Page 611]]

the certificate and ratings for which he applied.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-23, 43 
FR 22640, May 25, 1978]



Sec. 65.14  [Reserved]



Sec. 65.15  Duration of certificates.

    (a) Except for repairman certificates, a certificate or rating 
issued under this part is effective until it is surrendered, suspended, 
or revoked.
    (b) Unless it is sooner surrendered, suspended, or revoked, a 
repairman certificate is effective until the holder is relieved from the 
duties for which the holder was employed and certificated.
    (c) The holder of a certificate issued under this part that is 
suspended, revoked, or no longer effective shall return it to the 
Administrator.
    (d) Except for temporary certificates issued under Sec. 65.13, the 
holder of a paper certificate issued under this part may not exercise 
the privileges of that certificate after March 31, 2013.

[Doc. No. 22052, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982, as amended by Amdt. 65-51, 
73 FR 10668, Feb. 28, 2008]



Sec. 65.16  Change of name: Replacement of lost or destroyed certificate.

    (a) An application for a change of name on a certificate issued 
under this part must be accompanied by the applicant's current 
certificate and the marriage license, court order, or other document 
verifying the change. The documents are returned to the applicant after 
inspection.
    (b) An application for a replacement of a lost or destroyed 
certificate is made by letter to the Department of Transportation, 
Federal Aviation Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Post 
Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125. The letter must--
    (1) Contain the name in which the certificate was issued, the 
permanent mailing address (including zip code), social security number 
(if any), and date and place of birth of the certificate holder, and any 
available information regarding the grade, number, and date of issue of 
the certificate, and the ratings on it; and
    (2) Be accompanied by a check or money order for $2, payable to the 
Federal Aviation Administration.
    (c) An application for a replacement of a lost or destroyed medical 
certificate is made by letter to the Department of Transportation, 
Federal Aviation Administration, Aerospace Medical Certification 
Division, Post Office Box 26200, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, accompanied by 
a check or money order for $2.00.
    (d) A person whose certificate issued under this part or medical 
certificate, or both, has been lost may obtain a telegram from the FAA 
confirming that it was issued. The telegram may be carried as a 
certificate for a period not to exceed 60 days pending his receiving a 
duplicate certificate under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, unless 
he has been notified that the certificate has been suspended or revoked. 
The request for such a telegram may be made by prepaid telegram, stating 
the date upon which a duplicate certificate was requested, or including 
the request for a duplicate and a money order for the necessary amount. 
The request for a telegraphic certificate should be sent to the office 
prescribed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, as appropriate. 
However, a request for both at the same time should be sent to the 
office prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section.

[Doc. No. 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Doc. No. 8084, 
32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-16, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970; 
Amdt. 65-17, 36 FR 2865, Feb. 11, 1971; Amdt. 65-52, 73 FR 43065, July 
24, 2008]



Sec. 65.17  Tests: General procedure.

    (a) Tests prescribed by or under this part are given at times and 
places, and by persons, designated by the Administrator.
    (b) The minimum passing grade for each test is 70 percent.



Sec. 65.18  Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.

    (a) Except as authorized by the Administrator, no person may--
    (1) Copy, or intentionally remove, a written test under this part;
    (2) Give to another, or receive from another, any part or copy of 
that test;

[[Page 612]]

    (3) Give help on that test to, or receive help on that test from, 
any person during the period that test is being given;
    (4) Take any part of that test in behalf of another person;
    (5) Use any material or aid during the period that test is being 
given; or
    (6) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act 
prohibited by this paragraph.
    (b) No person who commits an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this 
section is eligible for any airman or ground instructor certificate or 
rating under this chapter for a period of 1 year after the date of that 
act. In addition, the commission of that act is a basis for suspending 
or revoking any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held 
by that person.

[Doc. No. 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]



Sec. 65.19  Retesting after failure.

    An applicant for a written, oral, or practical test for a 
certificate and rating, or for an additional rating under this part, may 
apply for retesting--
    (a) After 30 days after the date the applicant failed the test; or
    (b) Before the 30 days have expired if the applicant presents a 
signed statement from an airman holding the certificate and rating 
sought by the applicant, certifying that the airman has given the 
applicant additional instruction in each of the subjects failed and that 
the airman considers the applicant ready for retesting.

[Doc. No. 16383, 43 FR 22640, May 25, 1978]



Sec. 65.20  Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports,
and records: Falsification, reproduction, or alteration.

    (a) No person may make or cause to be made--
    (1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement on any 
application for a certificate or rating under this part;
    (2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, 
record, or report that is required to be kept, made, or used, to show 
compliance with any requirement for any certificate or rating under this 
part;
    (3) Any reproduction, for fraudulent purpose, of any certificate or 
rating under this part; or
    (4) Any alteration of any certificate or rating under this part.
    (b) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under 
paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for suspending or revoking any 
airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held by that person.

[Doc. No. 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]



Sec. 65.21  Change of address.

    Within 30 days after any change in his permanent mailing address, 
the holder of a certificate issued under this part shall notify the 
Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman 
Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, in 
writing, of his new address.

[Doc. No. 10536, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970]



Sec. 65.23  Incorporation by reference.

    Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with 
the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 
552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. This material is available for inspection at 
the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and at the National Archives 
and Records Administration (NARA). Contact FAA, Airman Testing Standards 
Branch/Regulatory Support Division, 405-954-4151, 
[email protected]. For information on the availability of this 
material at NARA, email [email protected], or go to 
www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html. The material 
may be obtained from the source in the following paragraph of this 
section.
    (a) Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, 
Washington, DC 20591, 866-835-5322, www.faa.gov/training_testing.
    (1) FAA-S-8081-26B, Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and 
Powerplant Practical Test Standards, November 1, 2021; IBR approved for 
Sec. Sec. 65.75 and 65.79.
    (2) FAA-S-ACS-1, Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant 
Airman Certification Standards, November 1, 2021; IBR approved for 
Sec. Sec. 65.75 and 65.79.

[[Page 613]]

    (b) [Reserved]

[Docket No.: FAA-2021-0237; Amdt. No. 65-63, 87 FR 31414, May 24, 2022]



              Subpart B_Air Traffic Control Tower Operators

    Source: Docket No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 65.31  Required credentials, certificates, and ratings or qualifications.

    No person may act as an air traffic control tower operator at an air 
traffic control tower in connection with civil aircraft unless he or 
she--
    (a) Holds an FAA Credential with a tower rating or an air traffic 
control tower operator certificate issued under this subpart;
    (b) Holds a facility rating for that control tower issued under this 
subpart, or has qualified for the operating position at which he or she 
acts and is under the supervision of the holder of a facility rating for 
that control tower; and
    (c) Except for a person employed by the FAA or employed by, or on 
active duty with, the Department of the Air Force, Army, or Navy or the 
Coast Guard, holds at least a second-class medical certificate issued 
under part 67 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 65-25, 
45 FR 18911, Mar. 24, 1980; Amdt. 65-31, 52 FR 17518, May 8, 1987; Amdt. 
65-56, 79 FR 74611, Dec. 16, 2014]



Sec. 65.33  Eligibility requirements: General.

    To be eligible for an air traffic control tower operator certificate 
a person must--
    (a) Be at least 18 years of age;
    (b) Be of good moral character;
    (c) Be able to read, write, and understand the English language and 
speak it without accent or impediment of speech that would interfere 
with two-way radio conversation;
    (d) Except for a person employed by the FAA or employed by, or on 
active duty with, the Department of the Air Force, Army, or Navy or the 
Coast Guard, hold at least a second-class medical certificate issued 
under part 67 of this chapter within the 12 months before the date 
application is made; and
    (e) Comply with Sec. 65.35.

[Doc. No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 65-25, 
45 FR 18911, Mar. 24, 1980; Amdt. 65-31, 52 FR 17518, May 8, 1987]



Sec. 65.35  Knowledge requirements.

    Each applicant for an air traffic control tower operator certificate 
must pass a written test on--
    (a) The flight rules in part 91 of this chapter:
    (b) Airport traffic control procedures, and this subpart:
    (c) En route traffic control procedures;
    (d) Communications operating procedures;
    (e) Flight assistance service;
    (f) Air navigation, and aids to air navigation; and
    (g) Aviation weather.



Sec. 65.37  Skill requirements: Operating positions.

    No person may act as an air traffic control tower operator at any 
operating position unless he has passed a practical test on--
    (a) Control tower equipment and its use;
    (b) Weather reporting procedures and use of reports;
    (c) Notices to Airmen, and use of the Airman's Information Manual;
    (d) Use of operational forms;
    (e) Performance of noncontrol operational duties; and
    (f) Each of the following procedures that is applicable to that 
operating position and is required by the person performing the 
examination:
    (1) The airport, including rules, equipment, runways, taxiways, and 
obstructions.
    (2) The terrain features, visual checkpoints, and obstructions 
within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, 
Class D, or Class E airspace designated for the airport.
    (3) Traffic patterns and associated procedures for use of 
preferential runways and noise abatement.
    (4) Operational agreements.
    (5) The center, alternate airports, and those airways, routes, 
reporting points, and air navigation aids used for terminal air traffic 
control.

[[Page 614]]

    (6) Search and rescue procedures.
    (7) Terminal air traffic control procedures and phraseology.
    (8) Holding procedures, prescribed instrument approach, and 
departure procedures.
    (9) Radar alignment and technical operation.
    (10) The application of the prescribed radar and nonradar separation 
standard, as appropriate.

[Doc. No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 65-36, 
56 FR 65653, Dec. 17, 1991]



Sec. 65.39  Practical experience requirements: Facility rating.

    Each applicant for a facility rating at any air traffic control 
tower must have satisfactorily served--
    (a) As an air traffic control tower operator at that control tower 
without a facility rating for at least 6 months; or
    (b) As an air traffic control tower operator with a facility rating 
at a different control tower for at least 6 months before the date he 
applies for the rating.


However, an applicant who is a member of an Armed Force of the United 
States meets the requirements of this section if he has satisfactorily 
served as an air traffic control tower operator for at least 6 months.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-19, 36 
FR 21280, Nov. 5, 1971]



Sec. 65.41  Skill requirements: Facility ratings.

    Each applicant for a facility rating at an air traffic control tower 
must have passed a practical test on each item listed in Sec. 65.37 of 
this part that is applicable to each operating position at the control 
tower at which the rating is sought.



Sec. 65.43  [Reserved]



Sec. 65.45  Performance of duties.

    (a) An air traffic control tower operator shall perform his duties 
in accordance with the limitations on his certificate and the procedures 
and practices prescribed in air traffic control manuals of the FAA, to 
provide for the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic.
    (b) An operator with a facility rating may control traffic at any 
operating position at the control tower at which he holds a facility 
rating. However, he may not issue an air traffic clearance for IFR 
flight without authorization from the appropriate facility exercising 
IFR control at that location.
    (c) An operator who does not hold a facility rating for a particular 
control tower may act at each operating position for which he has 
qualified, under the supervision of an operator holding a facility 
rating for that control tower.

[Doc. No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 65-16, 
35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970]



Sec. Sec. 65.46-65.46b  [Reserved]



Sec. 65.47  Maximum hours.

    Except in an emergency, a certificated air traffic control tower 
operator must be relieved of all duties for at least 24 consecutive 
hours at least once during each 7 consecutive days. Such an operator may 
not serve or be required to serve--
    (a) For more than 10 consecutive hours; or
    (b) For more than 10 hours during a period of 24 consecutive hours, 
unless he has had a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the end 
of the 10 hours of duty.



Sec. 65.49  General operating rules.

    (a) Except for a person employed by the FAA or employed by, or on 
active duty with, the Department of the Air Force, Army, or Navy, or the 
Coast Guard, no person may act as an air traffic control tower operator 
under a certificate issued to him or her under this part unless he or 
she has in his or her personal possession an appropriate current medical 
certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter.
    (b) Each person holding an air traffic control tower operator 
certificate shall keep it readily available when performing duties in an 
air traffic control tower, and shall present that certificate or his 
medical certificate or both for inspection upon the request of the 
Administrator or an authorized representative of the National 
Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law 
enforcement officer.

[[Page 615]]

    (c) A certificated air traffic control tower operator who does not 
hold a facility rating for a particular control tower may not act at any 
operating position at the control tower concerned unless there is 
maintained at that control tower, readily available to persons named in 
paragraph (b) of this section, a current record of the operating 
positions at which he has qualified.
    (d) An air traffic control tower operator may not perform duties 
under his certificate during any period of known physical deficiency 
that would make him unable to meet the physical requirements for his 
current medical certificate. However, if the deficiency is temporary, he 
may perform duties that are not affected by it whenever another 
certificated and qualified operator is present and on duty.
    (e) A certificated air traffic control tower operator may not 
control air traffic with equipment that the Administrator has found to 
be inadequate.
    (f) The holder of an air traffic control tower operator certificate, 
or an applicant for one, shall, upon the reasonable request of the 
Administrator, cooperate fully in any test that is made of him.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-31, 52 
FR 17519, May 8, 1987]



Sec. 65.50  Currency requirements.

    The holder of an air traffic control tower operator certificate may 
not perform any duties under that certificate unless--
    (a) He has served for at least three of the preceding 6 months as an 
air traffic control tower operator at the control tower to which his 
facility rating applies, or at the operating positions for which he has 
qualified; or
    (b) He has shown that he meets the requirements for his certificate 
and facility rating at the control tower concerned, or for operating at 
positions for which he has previously qualified.



                     Subpart C_Aircraft Dispatchers

    Source: Docket No. FAA-1998-4553, 64 FR 68923, Dec. 8, 1999, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 65.51  Certificate required.

    (a) No person may act as an aircraft dispatcher (exercising 
responsibility with the pilot in command in the operational control of a 
flight) in connection with any civil aircraft in air commerce unless 
that person has in his or her personal possession an aircraft dispatcher 
certificate issued under this subpart.
    (b) Each person who holds an aircraft dispatcher certificate must 
present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an 
authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, 
or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.



Sec. 65.53  Eligibility requirements: General.

    (a) To be eligible to take the aircraft dispatcher knowledge test, a 
person must be at least 21 years of age.
    (b) To be eligible for an aircraft dispatcher certificate, a person 
must--
    (1) Be at least 23 years of age;
    (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language;
    (3) Pass the required knowledge test prescribed by Sec. 65.55 of 
this part;
    (4) Pass the required practical test prescribed by Sec. 65.59 of 
this part; and
    (5) Comply with the requirements of Sec. 65.57 of this part.



Sec. 65.55  Knowledge requirements.

    (a) A person who applies for an aircraft dispatcher certificate must 
pass a knowledge test on the following aeronautical knowledge areas:
    (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that 
relate to airline transport pilot privileges, limitations, and flight 
operations;
    (2) Meteorology, including knowledge of and effects of fronts, 
frontal characteristics, cloud formations, icing, and upper-air data;
    (3) General system of weather and NOTAM collection, dissemination, 
interpretation, and use;
    (4) Interpretation and use of weather charts, maps, forecasts, 
sequence reports, abbreviations, and symbols;
    (5) National Weather Service functions as they pertain to operations 
in the National Airspace System;
    (6) Windshear and microburst awareness, identification, and 
avoidance;

[[Page 616]]

    (7) Principles of air navigation under instrument meteorological 
conditions in the National Airspace System;
    (8) Air traffic control procedures and pilot responsibilities as 
they relate to enroute operations, terminal area and radar operations, 
and instrument departure and approach procedures;
    (9) Aircraft loading, weight and balance, use of charts, graphs, 
tables, formulas, and computations, and their effect on aircraft 
performance;
    (10) Aerodynamics relating to an aircraft's flight characteristics 
and performance in normal and abnormal flight regimes;
    (11) Human factors;
    (12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and
    (13) Crew resource management, including crew communication and 
coordination.
    (b) The applicant must present documentary evidence satisfactory to 
the administrator of having passed an aircraft dispatcher knowledge test 
within the preceding 24 calendar months.



Sec. 65.57  Experience or training requirements.

    An applicant for an aircraft dispatcher certificate must present 
documentary evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that he or she 
has the experience prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section or has 
accomplished the training described in paragraph (b) of this section as 
follows:
    (a) A total of at least 2 years experience in the 3 years before the 
date of application, in any one or in any combination of the following 
areas:
    (1) In military aircraft operations as a--
    (i) Pilot;
    (ii) Flight navigator; or
    (iii) Meteorologist.
    (2) In aircraft operations conducted under part 121 of this chapter 
as--
    (i) An assistant in dispatching air carrier aircraft, under the 
direct supervision of a dispatcher certificated under this subpart;
    (ii) A pilot;
    (iii) A flight engineer; or
    (iv) A meteorologist.
    (3) In aircraft operations as--
    (i) An Air Traffic Controller; or
    (ii) A Flight Service Specialist.
    (4) In aircraft operations, performing other duties that the 
Administrator finds provide equivalent experience.
    (b) A statement of graduation issued or revalidated in accordance 
with Sec. 65.70(b) of this part, showing that the person has 
successfully completed an approved aircraft dispatcher course.



Sec. 65.59  Skill requirements.

    An applicant for an aircraft dispatcher certificate must pass a 
practical test given by the Administrator, with respect to any one type 
of large aircraft used in air carrier operations. To pass the practical 
test for an aircraft dispatcher certificate, the applicant must 
demonstrate skill in applying the areas of knowledge and topics 
specified in appendix A of this part to preflight and all phases of 
flight, including abnormal and emergency procedures.

[Docket FAA-2016-6142, Amdt. 65-58, 83 FR 30281, June 27, 2018



Sec. 65.61  Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Content
and minimum hours.

    (a) An approved aircraft dispatcher certification course must:
    (1) Provide instruction in the areas of knowledge and topics listed 
in appendix A of this part;
    (2) Include a minimum of 200 hours of instruction.
    (b) An applicant for approval of an aircraft dispatcher course must 
submit an outline that describes the major topics and subtopics to be 
covered and the number of hours proposed for each.
    (c) Additional subject headings for an aircraft dispatcher 
certification course may also be included, however the hours proposed 
for any subjects not listed in appendix A of this part must be in 
addition to the minimum 200 course hours required in paragraph (a) of 
this section.
    (d) For the purpose of completing an approved course, a student may 
substitute previous experience or training for a portion of the minimum 
200 hours of training. The course operator determines the number of 
hours of credit based on an evaluation of the experience or training to 
determine if it is comparable to portions of the approved course 
curriculum. The credit allowed,

[[Page 617]]

including the total hours and the basis for it, must be placed in the 
student's record required by Sec. 65.70(a) of this part.



Sec. 65.63  Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Application,
duration, and other general requirements.

    (a) Application. Application for original approval of an aircraft 
dispatcher certification course or the renewal of approval of an 
aircraft dispatcher certification course under this part must be:
    (1) Made in writing to the Administrator;
    (2) Accompanied by two copies of the course outline required under 
Sec. 65.61(b) of this part, for which approval is sought;
    (3) Accompanied by a description of the equipment and facilities to 
be used; and
    (4) Accompanied by a list of the instructors and their 
qualifications.
    (b) Duration. Unless withdrawn or canceled, an approval of an 
aircraft dispatcher certification course of study expires:
    (1) On the last day of the 24th month from the month the approval 
was issued; or
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, on the date 
that any change in ownership of the school occurs.
    (c) Renewal. Application for renewal of an approved aircraft 
dispatcher certification course must be made within 30 days preceding 
the month the approval expires, provided the course operator meets the 
following requirements:
    (1) At least 80 percent of the graduates from that aircraft 
dispatcher certification course, who applied for the practical test 
required by Sec. 65.59 of this part, passed the practical test on their 
first attempt; and
    (2) The aircraft dispatcher certification course continues to meet 
the requirements of this subpart for course approval.
    (d) Course revisions. Requests for approval of a revision of the 
course outline, facilities, or equipment must be in accordance with 
paragraph (a) of this section. Proposed revisions of the course outline 
or the description of facilities and equipment must be submitted in a 
format that will allow an entire page or pages of the approved outline 
or description to be removed and replaced by any approved revision. The 
list of instructors may be revised at any time without request for 
approval, provided the minimum requirements of Sec. 65.67 of this part 
are maintained and the Administrator is notified in writing.
    (e) Withdrawal or cancellation of approval. Failure to continue to 
meet the requirements of this subpart for the approval or operation of 
an approved aircraft dispatcher certification course is grounds for 
withdrawal of approval of the course. A course operator may request 
cancellation of course approval by a letter to the Administrator. The 
operator must forward any records to the FAA as requested by the 
Administrator.
    (f) Change in ownership. A change in ownership of a part 65, 
appendix A-approved course does not terminate that aircraft dispatcher 
certification course approval if, within 10 days after the date that any 
change in ownership of the school occurs:
    (1) Application is made for an appropriate amendment to the 
approval; and
    (2) No change in the facilities, personnel, or approved aircraft 
dispatcher certification course is involved.
    (g) Change in name or location. A change in name or location of an 
approved aircraft dispatcher certification course does not invalidate 
the approval if, within 10 days after the date that any change in name 
or location occurs, the course operator of the part 65, appendix A-
approved course notifies the Administrator, in writing, of the change.



Sec. 65.65  Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Training facilities.

    An applicant for approval of authority to operate an aircraft 
dispatcher course of study must have facilities, equipment, and 
materials adequate to provide each student the theoretical and practical 
aspects of aircraft dispatching. Each room, training booth, or other 
space used for instructional purposes must be temperature controlled, 
lighted, and ventilated to conform to local building, sanitation, and

[[Page 618]]

health codes. In addition, the training facility must be so located that 
the students in that facility are not distracted by the instruction 
conducted in other rooms.



Sec. 65.67  Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Personnel.

    (a) Each applicant for an aircraft dispatcher certification course 
must meet the following personnel requirements:
    (1) Each applicant must have adequate personnel, including one 
instructor who holds an aircraft dispatcher certificate and is available 
to coordinate all training course instruction.
    (2) Each applicant must not exceed a ratio of 25 students for one 
instructor.
    (b) The instructor who teaches the practical dispatch applications 
area of the appendix A course must hold an aircraft dispatchers 
certificate



Sec. 65.70  Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Records.

    (a) The operator of an aircraft dispatcher course must maintain a 
record for each student, including a chronological log of all 
instructors, subjects covered, and course examinations and results. The 
record must be retained for at least 3 years after graduation. The 
course operator also must prepare, for its records, and transmit to the 
Administrator not later than January 31 of each year, a report 
containing the following information for the previous year:
    (1) The names of all students who graduated, together with the 
results of their aircraft dispatcher certification courses.
    (2) The names of all the students who failed or withdrew, together 
with the results of their aircraft dispatcher certification courses or 
the reasons for their withdrawal.
    (b) Each student who successfully completes the approved aircraft 
dispatcher certification course must be given a written statement of 
graduation, which is valid for 90 days. After 90 days, the course 
operator may revalidate the graduation certificate for an additional 90 
days if the course operator determines that the student remains 
proficient in the subject areas listed in appendix A of this part.



                           Subpart D_Mechanics



Sec. 65.71  Eligibility requirements: General.

    (a) To be eligible for a mechanic certificate and associated 
ratings, a person must--
    (1) Be at least 18 years of age;
    (2) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English 
language, or in the case of an applicant who does not meet this 
requirement and who is employed outside of the United States by a U.S. 
air carrier, have his certificate endorsed ``Valid only outside the 
United States'';
    (3) Have passed all of the prescribed tests within a period of 24 
months; and
    (4) Comply with the sections of this subpart that apply to the 
rating he seeks.
    (b) A certificated mechanic who applies for an additional rating 
must meet the requirements of Sec. 65.77 and, within a period of 24 
months, pass the tests prescribed by Sec. Sec. 65.75 and 65.79 for the 
additional rating sought.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-6, 31 
FR 5950, Apr. 19, 1966]



Sec. 65.73  Ratings.

    (a) The following ratings are issued under this subpart:
    (1) Airframe.
    (2) Powerplant.
    (b) A mechanic certificate with an aircraft or aircraft engine 
rating, or both, that was issued before, and was valid on, June 15, 
1952, is equal to a mechanic certificate with an airframe or powerplant 
rating, or both, as the case may be, and may be exchanged for such a 
corresponding certificate and rating or ratings.



Sec. 65.75  Knowledge requirements.

    (a) Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, each 
applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must, after meeting the 
applicable experience requirements of Sec. 65.77, pass a written test, 
appropriate to the rating sought, which includes:

[[Page 619]]

    (1) Until July 31, 2023, the subject areas contained in the Aviation 
Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant Practical Test Standards 
(incorporated by reference, see Sec. 65.23), as appropriate to the 
rating sought.
    (2) After July 31, 2023, the aeronautical knowledge subject areas 
contained in the Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant 
Airman Certification Standards (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 
65.23), as appropriate to the rating sought.
    (b) The applicant must pass each section of the test before applying 
for the oral and practical tests prescribed by Sec. 65.79. A report of 
the written test is sent to the applicant.
    (c) An applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating may take the 
mechanic general written test prior to meeting the applicable experience 
requirements of Sec. 65.77, provided the applicant presents an 
authenticated document from a certificated aviation maintenance 
technician school that demonstrates satisfactory completion of the 
general portion of the school's curriculum and specifies the completion 
date.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-1, 27 
FR 10410, Oct. 25, 1962; Amdt. 65-6, 31 FR 5950, Apr. 19, 1966; Amdt. 
No. 65-63, 87 FR 31414, May 24, 2022]

    Effective Date Note: By Amdt. No. 65-63, 87 FR 31414, May 24, 2022, 
Sec. 65.75 was amended by revising paragraph (a), effective Aug. 1, 
2023. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as 
follows:



Sec. 65.75  Knowledge requirements.

    (a) Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, each 
applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must, after meeting the 
applicable experience requirements of Sec. 65.77, pass a written test, 
appropriate to the rating sought, which includes the aeronautical 
knowledge subject areas contained in the Aviation Mechanic General, 
Airframe, and Powerplant Airman Certification Standards (incorporated by 
reference, see Sec. 65.23), as appropriate to the rating sought.

                                * * * * *



Sec. 65.77  Experience requirements

    Each applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must present 
either--
    (a) An authenticated document from a certificated aviation 
maintenance technician school in accordance with Sec. 147.21 of this 
chapter; or
    (b) Documentary evidence, satisfactory to the Administrator, of--
    (1) At least 18 months of practical experience with the procedures, 
practices, materials, tools, machine tools, and equipment generally used 
in constructing, maintaining, or altering airframes or powerplants, 
appropriate to the rating sought; or
    (2) At least 30 months of practical experience concurrently 
performing the duties appropriate to both the airframe and powerplant 
ratings.

[Docket No.: FAA-2021-0237; Amdt. No. 65-63, 87 FR 31415, May 24, 2022]



Sec. 65.79  Skill requirements.

    Each applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must pass an 
oral test and a practical test, as appropriate to the rating sought, by 
demonstrating:
    (a) Until July 31, 2023, the prescribed proficiency in the assigned 
objectives for the subject areas contained in the Aviation Mechanic 
General, Airframe, and Powerplant Practical Test Standard (incorporated 
by reference, see Sec. 65.23), as appropriate to the rating sought.
    (b) After July 31, 2023, satisfactory understanding of the 
knowledge, risk management, and skill elements for each subject 
contained in the Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant 
Airmen Certification Standards (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 
65.23), as appropriate to the rating sought.

[Docket No.: FAA-2021-0237; Amdt. No. 65-63, 87 FR 31415, May 24, 2022]

    Effective Date Note: By Amdt. No. 65-63, 87 FR 31415, May 24, 2022, 
Sec. 65.79 was revised, effective Aug. 1, 2023. For the convenience of 
the user, the revised text is set forth as follows:



Sec. 65.79  Skill requirements.

    Each applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must pass an 
oral test and a practical test, as appropriate to the rating sought, by 
demonstrating satisfactory understanding of the knowledge, risk 
management, and skill elements for each subject contained in the 
Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant Airmen Certification 
Standards (incorporated by reference,

[[Page 620]]

see Sec. 65.23), as appropriate to the rating sought.



Sec. 65.80  Certificated aviation maintenance technician school students.

    Whenever an aviation maintenance technician school certificated 
under part 147 of this chapter shows to the Administrator that any of 
its students has made satisfactory progress at the school and is 
prepared to take the oral and practical tests prescribed by Sec. 65.79, 
that student may take those tests during the final subjects of the 
student's training in the curriculum required under part 147, before the 
student meets the applicable experience requirements of Sec. 65.77 and 
before the student passes each section of the written test prescribed by 
Sec. 65.75.

[Docket No.: FAA-2021-0237; Amdt. No. 65-63, 87 FR 31415, May 24, 2022]



Sec. 65.81  General privileges and limitations.

    (a) A certificated mechanic may perform or supervise the 
maintenance, preventive maintenance or alteration of an aircraft or 
appliance, or a part thereof, for which he is rated (but excluding major 
repairs to, and major alterations of, propellers, and any repair to, or 
alteration of, instruments), and may perform additional duties in 
accordance with Sec. Sec. 65.85, 65.87, and 65.95. However, he may not 
supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of, or 
approve and return to service, any aircraft or appliance, or part 
thereof, for which he is rated unless he has satisfactorily performed 
the work concerned at an earlier date. If he has not so performed that 
work at an earlier date, he may show his ability to do it by performing 
it to the satisfaction of the Administrator or under the direct 
supervision of a certificated and appropriately rated mechanic, or a 
certificated repairman, who has had previous experience in the specific 
operation concerned.
    (b) A certificated mechanic may not exercise the privileges of his 
certificate and rating unless he understands the current instructions of 
the manufacturer, and the maintenance manuals, for the specific 
operation concerned.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-2, 29 
FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964; Amdt. 65-26, 45 FR 46737, July 10, 1980]



Sec. 65.83  Recent experience requirements.

    A certificated mechanic may not exercise the privileges of his 
certificate and rating unless, within the preceding 24 months--
    (a) The Administrator has found that he is able to do that work; or
    (b) He has, for at least 6 months--
    (1) Served as a mechanic under his certificate and rating;
    (2) Technically supervised other mechanics;
    (3) Supervised, in an executive capacity, the maintenance or 
alteration of aircraft; or
    (4) Been engaged in any combination of paragraph (b) (1), (2), or 
(3) of this section.



Sec. 65.85  Airframe rating; additional privileges.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a 
certificated mechanic with an airframe rating may approve and return to 
service an airframe, or any related part or appliance, after he has 
performed, supervised, or inspected its maintenance or alteration 
(excluding major repairs and major alterations). In addition, he may 
perform the 100-hour inspection required by part 91 of this chapter on 
an airframe, or any related part or appliance, and approve and return it 
to service.
    (b) A certificated mechanic with an airframe rating can approve and 
return to service an airframe, or any related part or appliance, of an 
aircraft with a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport 
category after performing and inspecting a major repair or major 
alteration for products that are not produced under an FAA approval 
provided the work was performed in accordance with instructions 
developed by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-10, 32 
FR 5770, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-45, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004]

[[Page 621]]



Sec. 65.87  Powerplant rating; additional privileges.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a 
certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating may approve and return to 
service a powerplant or propeller or any related part or appliance, 
after he has performed, supervised, or inspected its maintenance or 
alteration (excluding major repairs and major alterations). In addition, 
he may perform the 100-hour inspection required by part 91 of this 
chapter on a powerplant or propeller, or any part thereof, and approve 
and return it to service.
    (b) A certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating can approve and 
return to service a powerplant or propeller, or any related part or 
appliance, of an aircraft with a special airworthiness certificate in 
the light-sport category after performing and inspecting a major repair 
or major alteration for products that are not produced under an FAA 
approval, provided the work was performed in accordance with 
instructions developed by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the 
FAA.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-10, 32 
FR 5770, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-45, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 65.89  Display of certificate.

    Each person who holds a mechanic certificate shall keep it within 
the immediate area where he normally exercises the privileges of the 
certificate and shall present it for inspection upon the request of the 
Administrator or an authorized representative of the National 
Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law 
enforcement officer.

[Doc. No. 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Doc. No. 8084, 
32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967]



Sec. 65.91  Inspection authorization.

    (a) An application for an inspection authorization is made on a form 
and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator.
    (b) An applicant who meets the requirements of this section is 
entitled to an inspection authorization.
    (c) To be eligible for an inspection authorization, an applicant 
must--
    (1) Hold a currently effective mechanic certificate with both an 
airframe rating and a powerplant rating, each of which is currently 
effective and has been in effect for a total of at least 3 years;
    (2) Have been actively engaged, for at least the 2-year period 
before the date he applies, in maintaining aircraft certificated and 
maintained in accordance with this chapter;
    (3) Have a fixed base of operations at which he may be located in 
person or by telephone during a normal working week but it need not be 
the place where he will exercise his inspection authority;
    (4) Have available to him the equipment, facilities, and inspection 
data necessary to properly inspect airframes, powerplants, propellers, 
or any related part or appliance; and
    (5) Pass a written test on his ability to inspect according to 
safety standards for returning aircraft to service after major repairs 
and major alterations and annual and progressive inspections performed 
under part 43 of this chapter.


An applicant who fails the test prescribed in paragraph (c)(5) of this 
section may not apply for retesting until at least 90 days after the 
date he failed the test.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-5, 31 
FR 3337, Mar. 3, 1966; Amdt. 65-22, 42 FR 46279, Sept. 15, 1977; Amdt. 
65-30, 50 FR 15700, Apr. 19, 1985]



Sec. 65.92  Inspection authorization: Duration.

    (a) Each inspection authorization expires on March 31 of each odd-
numbered year. However, the holder may exercise the privileges of that 
authorization only while he holds a currently effective mechanic 
certificate with both a currently effective airframe rating and a 
currently effective powerplant rating.
    (b) An inspection authorization ceases to be effective whenever any 
of the following occurs:
    (1) The authorization is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.
    (2) The holder no longer has a fixed base of operation.

[[Page 622]]

    (3) The holder no longer has the equipment, facilities, and 
inspection data required by Sec. 65.91(c) (3) and (4) for issuance of 
his authorization.
    (c) The holder of an inspection authorization that is suspended or 
revoked shall, upon the Administrator's request, return it to the 
Administrator.

[Doc. No. 12537, 42 FR 46279, Sept. 15, 1977, as amended by Amdt. 65-50, 
72 FR 4404, Jan. 30, 2007]



Sec. 65.93  Inspection authorization: Renewal.

    (a) To be eligible for renewal of an inspection authorization for a 
2-year period an applicant must present evidence during the month of 
March of each odd-numbered year, at the responsible Flight Standards 
office, that the applicant still meets the requirements of Sec. 
65.91(c) (1) through (4). In addition, during the time the applicant 
held the inspection authorization, the applicant must show completion of 
one of the activities in Sec. 65.93(a) (1) through (5) below by March 
31 of the first year of the 2-year inspection authorization period, and 
completion of one of the five activities during the second year of the 
2-year period:
    (1) Performed at least one annual inspection for each 90 days that 
the applicant held the current authority; or
    (2) Performed at least two major repairs or major alterations for 
each 90 days that the applicant held the current authority; or
    (3) Performed or supervised and approved at least one progressive 
inspection in accordance with standards prescribed by the Administrator; 
or
    (4) Attended and successfully completed a refresher course, 
acceptable to the Administrator, of not less than 8 hours of 
instruction; or
    (5) Passed an oral test by an FAA inspector to determine that the 
applicant's knowledge of applicable regulations and standards is 
current.
    (b) The holder of an inspection authorization that has been in 
effect:
    (1) for less than 90 days before the expiration date need not comply 
with paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section.
    (2) for less than 90 days before March 31 of an even-numbered year 
need not comply with paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section for 
the first year of the 2-year inspection authorization period.
    (c) An inspection authorization holder who does not complete one of 
the activities set forth in Sec. 65.93(a) (1) through (5) of this 
section by March 31 of the first year of the 2-year inspection 
authorization period may not exercise inspection authorization 
privileges after March 31 of the first year. The inspection 
authorization holder may resume exercising inspection authorization 
privileges after passing an oral test from an FAA inspector to determine 
that the applicant's knowledge of the applicable regulations and 
standards is current. An inspection authorization holder who passes this 
oral test is deemed to have completed the requirements of Sec. 65.93(a) 
(1) through (5) by March 31 of the first year.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27108, 72 FR 4404, Jan. 30, 2007, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 65-57A, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 65.95  Inspection authorization: Privileges and limitations.

    (a) The holder of an inspection authorization may--
    (1) Inspect and approve for return to service any aircraft or 
related part or appliance (except any aircraft maintained in accordance 
with a continuous airworthiness program under part 121 of this chapter) 
after a major repair or major alteration to it in accordance with part 
43 [New] of this chapter, if the work was done in accordance with 
technical data approved by the Administrator; and
    (2) Perform an annual, or perform or supervise a progressive 
inspection according to Sec. Sec. 43.13 and 43.15 of this chapter.
    (b) When he exercises the privileges of an inspection authorization 
the holder shall keep it available for inspection by the aircraft owner, 
the mechanic submitting the aircraft, repair, or alteration for approval 
(if any), and shall present it upon the request of the Administrator or 
an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety 
Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.
    (c) If the holder of an inspection authorization changes his fixed 
base of

[[Page 623]]

operation, he may not exercise the privileges of the authorization until 
he has notified the responsible Flight Standards office or International 
Field Office for the area in which the new base is located, in writing, 
of the change.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-2, 29 
FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964; Amdt. 65-4, 30 FR 3638, Mar. 14, 1965; Amdt. 65-
5, 31 FR 3337, Mar. 3, 1966; Amdt. 65-9, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966; 32 
FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-35, 54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 
65-41, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 65-57A, 
83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]



                           Subpart E_Repairmen



Sec. 65.101  Eligibility requirements: General.

    (a) To be eligible for a repairman certificate a person must--
    (1) Be at least 18 years of age;
    (2) Be specially qualified to perform maintenance on aircraft or 
components thereof, appropriate to the job for which he is employed;
    (3) Be employed for a specific job requiring those special 
qualifications by a certificated repair station, or by a certificated 
commercial operator or certificated air carrier, that is required by its 
operating certificate or approved operations specifications to provide a 
continuous airworthiness maintenance program according to its 
maintenance manuals;
    (4) Be recommended for certification by his employer, to the 
satisfaction of the Administrator, as able to satisfactorily maintain 
aircraft or components, appropriate to the job for which he is employed;
    (5) Have either--
    (i) At least 18 months of practical experience in the procedures, 
practices, inspection methods, materials, tools, machine tools, and 
equipment generally used in the maintenance duties of the specific job 
for which the person is to be employed and certificated; or
    (ii) Completed formal training that is acceptable to the 
Administrator and is specifically designed to qualify the applicant for 
the job on which the applicant is to be employed; and
    (6) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English 
language, or, in the case of an applicant who does not meet this 
requirement and who is employed outside the United States by a 
certificated repair station, a certificated U.S. commercial operator, or 
a certificated U.S. air carrier, described in paragraph (a)(3) of this 
section, have this certificate endorsed ``Valid only outside the United 
States.''
    (b) This section does not apply to the issuance of a repairman 
certificate (experimental aircraft builder) under Sec. 65.104 or to a 
repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) under Sec. 65.107.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-11, 32 
FR 13506, Sept. 27, 1967; Amdt. 65-24, 44 FR 46781, Aug. 9, 1979; Amdt. 
65-27, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982; Amdt. 65-45, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 
2004; 72 FR 7739, Feb. 20, 2007]



Sec. 65.103  Repairman certificate: Privileges and limitations.

    (a) A certificated repairman may perform or supervise the 
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of aircraft or 
aircraft components appropriate to the job for which the repairman was 
employed and certificated, but only in connection with duties for the 
certificate holder by whom the repairman was employed and recommended.
    (b) A certificated repairman may not perform or supervise duties 
under the repairman certificate unless the repairman understands the 
current instructions of the certificate holder by whom the repairman is 
employed and the manufacturer's instructions for continued airworthiness 
relating to the specific operations concerned.
    (c) This section does not apply to the holder of a repairman 
certificate (light-sport aircraft) while that repairman is performing 
work under that certificate.

[Doc. No. 18241, 45 FR 46738, July 10, 1980, as amended by Amdt. 65-45, 
69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 65.104  Repairman certificate--experimental aircraft
builder--Eligibility, privileges and limitations.

    (a) To be eligible for a repairman certificate (experimental 
aircraft builder), an individual must--
    (1) Be at least 18 years of age;

[[Page 624]]

    (2) Be the primary builder of the aircraft to which the privileges 
of the certificate are applicable;
    (3) Show to the satisfaction of the Administrator that the 
individual has the requisite skill to determine whether the aircraft is 
in a condition for safe operations; and
    (4) Be a citizen of the United States or an individual citizen of a 
foreign country who has lawfully been admitted for permanent residence 
in the United States.
    (b) The holder of a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft 
builder) may perform condition inspections on the aircraft constructed 
by the holder in accordance with the operating limitations of that 
aircraft.
    (c) Section 65.103 does not apply to the holder of a repairman 
certificate (experimental aircraft builder) while performing under that 
certificate.

[Doc. No. 18739, 44 FR 46781, Aug. 9, 1979]



Sec. 65.105  Display of certificate.

    Each person who holds a repairman certificate shall keep it within 
the immediate area where he normally exercises the privileges of the 
certificate and shall present it for inspection upon the request of the 
Administrator or an authorized representative of the National 
Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law 
enforcement officer.

[Doc. No. 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Doc. No. 8084, 
32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967]



Sec. 65.107  Repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft): Eligibility,
privileges, and limits.

    (a) Use the following table to determine your eligibility for a 
repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) and appropriate rating:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
            To be eligible for                        You must
------------------------------------------------------------------------
(1) A repairman certificate (light-sport    (i) Be at least 18 years
 aircraft).                                  old,
                                            (ii) Be able to read, speak,
                                             write, and understand
                                             English. If for medical
                                             reasons you cannot meet one
                                             of these requirements, the
                                             FAA may place limits on
                                             your repairman certificate
                                             necessary to safely perform
                                             the actions authorized by
                                             the certificate and rating,
                                            (iii) Demonstrate the
                                             requisite skill to
                                             determine whether a light-
                                             sport aircraft is in a
                                             condition for safe
                                             operation, and
                                            (iv) Be a citizen of the
                                             United States, or a citizen
                                             of a foreign country who
                                             has been lawfully admitted
                                             for permanent residence in
                                             the United States.
(2) A repairman certificate (light-sport    (i) Meet the requirements of
 aircraft) with an inspection rating.        paragraph (a)(1) of this
                                             section, and
                                            (ii) Complete a 16-hour
                                             training course acceptable
                                             to the FAA on inspecting
                                             the particular class of
                                             experimental light-sport
                                             aircraft for which you
                                             intend to exercise the
                                             privileges of this rating.
(3) A repairman certificate (light-sport    (i) Meet the requirements of
 aircraft) with a maintenance rating         paragraph (a)(1) of this
                                             section, and
                                            (ii) Complete a training
                                             course acceptable to the
                                             FAA on maintaining the
                                             particular class of light-
                                             sport aircraft for which
                                             you intend to exercise the
                                             privileges of this rating.
                                             The training course must,
                                             at a minimum, provide the
                                             following number of hours
                                             of instruction:
                                            (A) For airplane class
                                             privileges--120-hours,
                                            (B) For weight-shift control
                                             aircraft class privileges--
                                             104 hours,
                                            (C) For powered parachute
                                             class privileges--104
                                             hours,
                                            (D) For lighter than air
                                             class privileges--80 hours,
                                            (E) For glider class
                                             privileges--80 hours.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (b) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) 
with an inspection rating may perform the annual condition inspection on 
a light-sport aircraft:
    (1) That is owned by the holder;
    (2) That has been issued an experimental certificate for operating a 
light-sport aircraft under Sec. 21.191(i) of this chapter; and
    (3) That is in the same class of light-sport-aircraft for which the 
holder has completed the training specified in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of 
this section.
    (c) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) 
with a maintenance rating may--
    (1) Approve and return to service an aircraft that has been issued a 
special

[[Page 625]]

airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category under Sec. 21.190 
of this chapter, or any part thereof, after performing or inspecting 
maintenance (to include the annual condition inspection and the 100-hour 
inspection required by Sec. 91.327 of this chapter), preventive 
maintenance, or an alteration (excluding a major repair or a major 
alteration on a product produced under an FAA approval);
    (2) Perform the annual condition inspection on a light-sport 
aircraft that has been issued an experimental certificate for operating 
a light-sport aircraft under Sec. 21.191(i) of this chapter; and
    (3) Only perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and an 
alteration on a light-sport aircraft that is in the same class of light-
sport aircraft for which the holder has completed the training specified 
in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section. Before performing a major 
repair, the holder must complete additional training acceptable to the 
FAA and appropriate to the repair performed.
    (d) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) 
with a maintenance rating may not approve for return to service any 
aircraft or part thereof unless that person has previously performed the 
work concerned satisfactorily. If that person has not previously 
performed that work, the person may show the ability to do the work by 
performing it to the satisfaction of the FAA, or by performing it under 
the direct supervision of a certificated and appropriately rated 
mechanic, or a certificated repairman, who has had previous experience 
in the specific operation concerned. The repairman may not exercise the 
privileges of the certificate unless the repairman understands the 
current instructions of the manufacturer and the maintenance manuals for 
the specific operation concerned.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004]



                       Subpart F_Parachute Riggers



Sec. 65.111  Certificate required.

    (a) No person may pack, maintain, or alter any personnel-carrying 
parachute intended for emergency use in connection with civil aircraft 
of the United States (including the reserve parachute of a dual 
parachute system to be used for intentional parachute jumping) unless 
that person holds an appropriate current certificate and type rating 
issued under this subpart and complies with Sec. Sec. 65.127 through 
65.133.
    (b) No person may pack any main parachute of a dual-parachute system 
to be used for intentional parachute jumping in connection with civil 
aircraft of the United States unless that person--
    (1) Has an appropriate current certificate issued under this 
subpart;
    (2) Is under the supervision of a current certificated parachute 
rigger;
    (3) Is the person making the next parachute jump with that parachute 
in accordance with Sec. 105.43(a) of this chapter; or
    (4) Is the parachutist in command making the next parachute jump 
with that parachute in a tandem parachute operation conducted under 
Sec. 105.45(b)(1) of this chapter.
    (c) No person may maintain or alter any main parachute of a dual-
parachute system to be used for intentional parachute jumping in 
connection with civil aircraft of the United States unless that person--
    (1) Has an appropriate current certificate issued under this 
subpart; or
    (2) Is under the supervision of a current certificated parachute 
rigger;
    (d) Each person who holds a parachute rigger certificate shall 
present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an 
authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, 
or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.
    (e) The following parachute rigger certificates are issued under 
this part:
    (1) Senior parachute rigger.
    (2) Master parachute rigger.
    (f) Sections 65.127 through 65.133 do not apply to parachutes 
packed, maintained, or altered for the use of the armed forces.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-9, 31 
FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966; 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-42, 66 FR 
23553, May 9, 2001; Amdt. 65-54, 75 FR 31285, June 3, 2010]

[[Page 626]]



Sec. 65.113  Eligibility requirements: General.

    (a) To be eligible for a parachute rigger certificate, a person 
must--
    (1) Be at least 18 years of age;
    (2) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English 
language, or, in the case of a citizen of Puerto Rico, or a person who 
is employed outside of the United States by a U.S. air carrier, and who 
does not meet this requirement, be issued a certificate that is valid 
only in Puerto Rico or while he is employed outside of the United States 
by that air carrier, as the case may be; and
    (3) Comply with the sections of this subpart that apply to the 
certificate and type rating he seeks.
    (b) Except for a master parachute rigger certificate, a parachute 
rigger certificate that was issued before, and was valid on, October 31, 
1962, is equal to a senior parachute rigger certificate, and may be 
exchanged for such a corresponding certificate.



Sec. 65.115  Senior parachute rigger certificate: Experience, 
knowledge, and skill requirements.

    Except as provided in Sec. 65.117, an applicant for a senior 
parachute rigger certificate must--
    (a) Present evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that he has 
packed at least 20 parachutes of each type for which he seeks a rating, 
in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and under the 
supervision of a certificated parachute rigger holding a rating for that 
type or a person holding an appropriate military rating;
    (b) Pass a written test, with respect to parachutes in common use, 
on--
    (1) Their construction, packing, and maintenance;
    (2) The manufacturer's instructions;
    (3) The regulations of this subpart; and
    (c) Pass an oral and practical test showing his ability to pack and 
maintain at least one type of parachute in common use, appropriate to 
the type rating he seeks.

[Doc. No. 10468, 37 FR 13251, July 6, 1972]



Sec. 65.117  Military riggers or former military riggers: 
Special certification rule.

    In place of the procedure in Sec. 65.115, an applicant for a senior 
parachute rigger certificate is entitled to it if he passes a written 
test on the regulations of this subpart and presents satisfactory 
documentary evidence that he--
    (a) Is a member or civilian employee of an Armed Force of the United 
States, is a civilian employee of a regular armed force of a foreign 
country, or has, within the 12 months before he applies, been honorably 
discharged or released from any status covered by this paragraph;
    (b) Is serving, or has served within the 12 months before he 
applies, as a parachute rigger for such an Armed Force; and
    (c) Has the experience required by Sec. 65.115(a).



Sec. 65.119  Master parachute rigger certificate: Experience,
knowledge, and skill requirements.

    An applicant for a master parachute rigger certificate must meet the 
following requirements:
    (a) Present evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that he has 
had at least 3 years of experience as a parachute rigger and has 
satisfactorily packed at least 100 parachutes of each of two types in 
common use, in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions--
    (1) While a certificated and appropriately rated senior parachute 
rigger; or
    (2) While under the supervision of a certificated and appropriately 
rated parachute rigger or a person holding appropriate military ratings.


An applicant may combine experience specified in paragraphs (a) (1) and 
(2) of this section to meet the requirements of this paragraph.
    (b) If the applicant is not the holder of a senior parachute rigger 
certificate, pass a written test, with respect to parachutes in common 
use, on--
    (1) Their construction, packing, and maintenance;
    (2) The manufacturer's instructions; and
    (3) The regulations of this subpart.

[[Page 627]]

    (c) Pass an oral and practical test showing his ability to pack and 
maintain two types of parachutes in common use, appropriate to the type 
ratings he seeks.

[Doc. No. 10468, 37 FR 13252, July 6, 1972]



Sec. 65.121  Type ratings.

    (a) The following type ratings are issued under this subpart:
    (1) Seat.
    (2) Back.
    (3) Chest.
    (4) Lap.
    (b) The holder of a senior parachute rigger certificate who 
qualifies for a master parachute rigger certificate is entitled to have 
placed on his master parachute rigger certificate the ratings that were 
on his senior parachute rigger certificate.



Sec. 65.123  Additional type ratings: Requirements.

    A certificated parachute rigger who applies for an additional type 
rating must--
    (a) Present evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that he has 
packed at least 20 parachutes of the type for which he seeks a rating, 
in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and under the 
supervision of a certificated parachute rigger holding a rating for that 
type or a person holding an appropriate military rating; and
    (b) Pass a practical test, to the satisfaction of the Administrator, 
showing his ability to pack and maintain the type of parachute for which 
he seeks a rating.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-20, 37 
FR 13251, July 6, 1972]



Sec. 65.125  Certificates: Privileges.

    (a) A certificated senior parachute rigger may--
    (1) Pack or maintain (except for major repair) any type of parachute 
for which he is rated; and
    (2) Supervise other persons in packing any type of parachute for 
which that person is rated in accordance with Sec. 105.43(a) or Sec. 
105.45(b)(1) of this chapter.
    (b) A certificated master parachute rigger may--
    (1) Pack, maintain, or alter any type of parachute for which he is 
rated; and
    (2) Supervise other persons in packing, maintaining, or altering any 
type of parachute for which the certificated parachute rigger is rated 
in accordance with Sec. 105.43(a) or Sec. 105.45(b)(1) of this 
chapter.
    (c) A certificated parachute rigger need not comply with Sec. Sec. 
65.127 through 65.133 (relating to facilities, equipment, performance 
standards, records, recent experience, and seal) in packing, 
maintaining, or altering (if authorized) the main parachute of a dual 
parachute pack to be used for intentional jumping.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-20, 37 
FR 13252, July 6, 1972; Amdt. 65-42, 66 FR 23553, May 9, 2001]



Sec. 65.127  Facilities and equipment.

    No certificated parachute rigger may exercise the privileges of his 
certificate unless he has at least the following facilities and 
equipment available to him:
    (a) A smooth top table at least three feet wide by 40 feet long.
    (b) Suitable housing that is adequately heated, lighted, and 
ventilated for drying and airing parachutes.
    (c) Enough packing tools and other equipment to pack and maintain 
the types of parachutes that he services.
    (d) Adequate housing facilities to perform his duties and to protect 
his tools and equipment.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-27, 47 
FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982]



Sec. 65.129  Performance standards.

    No certificated parachute rigger may--
    (a) Pack, maintain, or alter any parachute unless he is rated for 
that type;
    (b) Pack a parachute that is not safe for emergency use;
    (c) Pack a parachute that has not been thoroughly dried and aired;
    (d) Alter a parachute in a manner that is not specifically 
authorized by the Administrator or the manufacturer;
    (e) Pack, maintain, or alter a parachute in any manner that deviates

[[Page 628]]

from procedures approved by the Administrator or the manufacturer of the 
parachute; or
    (f) Exercise the privileges of his certificate and type rating 
unless he understands the current manufacturer's instructions for the 
operation involved and has--
    (1) Performed duties under his certificate for at least 90 days 
within the preceding 12 months; or
    (2) Shown the Administrator that he is able to perform those duties.



Sec. 65.131  Records.

    (a) Each certificated parachute rigger shall keep a record of the 
packing, maintenance, and alteration of parachutes performed or 
supervised by him. He shall keep in that record, with respect to each 
parachute worked on, a statement of--
    (1) Its type and make;
    (2) Its serial number;
    (3) The name and address of its owner;
    (4) The kind and extent of the work performed;
    (5) The date when and place where the work was performed; and
    (6) The results of any drop tests made with it.
    (b) Each person who makes a record under paragraph (a) of this 
section shall keep it for at least 2 years after the date it is made.
    (c) Each certificated parachute rigger who packs a parachute shall 
write, on the parachute packing record attached to the parachute, the 
date and place of the packing and a notation of any defects he finds on 
inspection. He shall sign that record with his name and the number of 
his certificate.



Sec. 65.133  Seal.

    Each certificated parachute rigger must have a seal with an 
identifying mark prescribed by the Administrator, and a seal press. 
After packing a parachute he shall seal the pack with his seal in 
accordance with the manufacturer's recommendation for that type of 
parachute.





         Sec. Appendix A to Part 65--Aircraft Dispatcher Courses

                                Overview

    This appendix sets forth the areas of knowledge necessary to perform 
dispatcher functions. The items listed below indicate the minimum set of 
topics that must be covered in a training course for aircraft dispatcher 
certification. The order of coverage is at the discretion of the 
approved school.

I. Regulations
    A. Subpart C of this part;
    B. Parts 1, 25, 61, 71, 91, 121, 139, and 175, of this chapter;
    C. 49 CFR part 830;
    D. General Operating Manual.
II. Meteorology
    A. Basic Weather Studies
    (1) The earth's motion and its effects on weather.
    (2) Analysis of the following regional weather types, 
characteristics, and structures, or combinations thereof:
    (a) Maritime.
    (b) Continental.
    (c) Polar.
    (d) Tropical.
    (3) Analysis of the following local weather types, characteristics, 
and structures or combinations thereof:
    (a) Coastal.
    (b) Mountainous.
    (c) Island.
    (d) Plains.
    (4) The following characteristics of the atmosphere:
    (a) Layers.
    (b) Composition.
    (c) Global Wind Patterns.
    (d) Ozone.
    (5) Pressure:
    (a) Units of Measure.
    (b) Weather Systems Characteristics.
    (c) Temperature Effects on Pressure.
    (d) Altimeters.
    (e) Pressure Gradient Force.
    (f) Pressure Pattern Flying Weather.
    (6) Wind:
    (a) Major Wind Systems and Coriolis Force.
    (b) Jetstreams and their Characteristics.
    (c) Local Wind and Related Terms.
    (7) States of Matter:
    (a) Solids, Liquid, and Gases.
    (b) Causes of change of state.
    (8) Clouds:
    (a) Composition, Formation, and Dissipation.
    (b) Types and Associated Precipitation.
    (c) Use of Cloud Knowledge in Forecasting.
    (9) Fog:
    (a) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation.
    (b) Types.
    (10) Ice:
    (a) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation.

[[Page 629]]

    (b) Types.
    (11) Stability/Instability:
    (a) Temperature Lapse Rate, Convection.
    (b) Adiabatic Processes.
    (c) Lifting Processes.
    (d) Divergence.
    (e) Convergence.
    (12) Turbulence:
    (a) Jetstream Associated.
    (b) Pressure Pattern Recognition.
    (c) Low Level Windshear.
    (d) Mountain Waves.
    (e) Thunderstorms.
    (f) Clear Air Turbulence.
    (13) Airmasses:
    (a) Classification and Characteristics.
    (b) Source Regions.
    (c) Use of Airmass Knowledge in Forecasting.
    (14) Fronts:
    (a) Structure and Characteristics, Both Vertical and Horizontal.
    (b) Frontal Types.
    (c) Frontal Weather Flying.
    (15) Theory of Storm Systems:
    (a) Thunderstorms.
    (b) Tornadoes.
    (c) Hurricanes and Typhoons.
    (d) Microbursts.
    (e) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation.
    B. Weather, Analysis, and Forecasts
    (1) Observations:
    (a) Surface Observations.
    (i) Observations made by certified weather observer.
    (ii) Automated Weather Observations.
    (b) Terminal Forecasts.
    (c) Significant En route Reports and Forecasts.
    (i) Pilot Reports.
    (ii) Area Forecasts.
    (iii) Sigmets, Airmets.
    (iv) Center Weather Advisories.
    (d) Weather Imagery.
    (i) Surface Analysis.
    (ii) Weather Depiction.
    (iii) Significant Weather Prognosis.
    (iv) Winds and Temperature Aloft.
    (v) Tropopause Chart.
    (vi) Composite Moisture Stability Chart.
    (vii) Surface Weather Prognostic Chart.
    (viii) Radar Meteorology.
    (ix) Satellite Meteorology.
    (x) Other charts as applicable.
    (e) Meteorological Information Data Collection Systems.
    (2) Data Collection, Analysis, and Forecast Facilities.
    (3) Service Outlets Providing Aviation Weather Products.
    C. Weather Related Aircraft Hazards
    (1) Crosswinds and Gusts.
    (2) Contaminated Runways.
    (3) Restrictions to Surface Visibility.
    (4) Turbulence and Windshear.
    (5) Icing.
    (6) Thunderstorms and Microburst.
    (7) Volcanic Ash.
III. Navigation
    A. Study of the Earth
    (1) Time reference and location (0 Longitude, UTC).
    (2) Definitions.
    (3) Projections.
    (4) Charts.
    B. Chart Reading, Application, and Use.
    C. National Airspace Plan.
    D. Navigation Systems.
    E. Airborne Navigation Instruments.
    F. Instrument Approach Procedures.
    (1) Transition Procedures.
    (2) Precision Approach Procedures.
    (3) Non-precision Approach Procedures.
    (4) Minimums and the relationship to weather.
    G. Special Navigation and Operations.
    (1) North Atlantic.
    (2) Pacific.
    (3) Global Differences.
IV. AIRCRAFT
    A. Aircraft Flight Manual.
    B. Systems Overview.
    (1) Flight controls.
    (2) Hydraulics.
    (3) Electrical.
    (4) Air Conditioning and Pressurization.
    (5) Ice and Rain protection.
    (6) Avionics, Communication, and Navigation.
    (7) Powerplants and Auxiliary Power Units.
    (8) Emergency and Abnormal Procedures.
    (9) Fuel Systems and Sources.
    C. Minimum Equipment List/Configuration Deviation List (MEL/CDL) and 
Applications.
    D. Performance.
    (1) Aircraft in general.
    (2) Principles of flight:
    (a) Group one aircraft.
    (b) Group two aircraft.
    (3) Aircraft Limitations.
    (4) Weight and Balance.
    (5) Flight instrument errors.
    (6) Aircraft performance:
    (a) Take-off performance.
    (b) En route performance.
    (c) Landing performance.
V. Communications
    A. Regulatory requirements.
    B. Communication Protocol.
    C. Voice and Data Communications.
    D. Notice to Airmen (NOTAMS).
    E. Aeronautical Publications.
    F. Abnormal Procedures.
VI. Air Traffic Control
    A. Responsibilities.
    B. Facilities and Equipment.
    C. Airspace classification and route structure.
    D. Flight Plans.
    (1) Domestic.
    (2) International.
    E. Separation Minimums.

[[Page 630]]

    F. Priority Handling.
    G. Holding Procedures.
    H. Traffic Management.
VII. Emergency and Abnormal Procedures
    A. Security measures on the ground.
    B. Security measures in the air.
    C. FAA responsibility and services.
    D. Collection and dissemination of information on overdue or missing 
aircraft.
    E. Means of declaring an emergency.
    F. Responsibility for declaring an emergency.
    G. Required reporting of an emergency.
    H. NTSB reporting requirements.
VIII. Practical Dispatch Applications
    A. Human Factors.
    (1) Decisionmaking:
    (a) Situation Assessment.
    (b) Generation and Evaluation of Alternatives.
    (i) Tradeoffs and Prioritization.
    (ii) Contingency Planning.
    (c) Support Tools and Technologies.
    (2) Human Error:
    (a) Causes.
    (i) Individual and Organizational Factors.
    (ii) Technology-Induced Error.
    (b) Prevention.
    (c) Detection and Recovery.
    (3) Teamwork:
    (a) Communication and Information Exchange.
    (b) Cooperative and Distributed Problem-Solving.
    (c) Resource Management.
    (i) Air Traffic Control (ATC) activities and workload.
    (ii) Flightcrew activities and workload.
    (iii) Maintenance activities and workload.
    (iv) Operations Control Staff activities and workload.
    B. Applied Dispatching.
    (1) Briefing techniques, Dispatcher, Pilot.
    (2) Preflight:
    (a) Safety.
    (b) Weather Analysis.
    (i) Satellite imagery.
    (ii) Upper and lower altitude charts.
    (iii) Significant en route reports and forecasts.
    (iv) Surface charts.
    (v) Surface observations.
    (vi) Terminal forecasts and orientation to Enhanced Weather 
Information System (EWINS).
    (c) NOTAMS and airport conditions.
    (d) Crew.
    (i) Qualifications.
    (ii) Limitations.
    (e) Aircraft.
    (i) Systems.
    (ii) Navigation instruments and avionics systems.
    (iii) Flight instruments.
    (iv) Operations manuals and MEL/CDL.
    (v) Performance and limitations.
    (f) Flight Planning.
    (i) Route of flight.
    1. Standard Instrument Departures and Standard Terminal Arrival 
Routes.
    2. En route charts.
    3. Operational altitude.
    4. Departure and arrival charts.
    (ii) Minimum departure fuel.
    1. Climb.
    2. Cruise.
    3. Descent.
    (g) Weight and balance.
    (h) Economics of flight overview (Performance, Fuel Tankering).
    (i) Decision to operate the flight.
    (j) ATC flight plan filing.
    (k) Flight documentation.
    (i) Flight plan.
    (ii) Dispatch release.
    (3) Authorize flight departure with concurrence of pilot in command.
    (4) In-flight operational control:
    (a) Current situational awareness.
    (b) Information exchange.
    (c) Amend original flight release as required.
    (5) Post-Flight:
    (a) Arrival verification.
    (b) Weather debrief.
    (c) Flight irregularity reports as required.

[Doc. No. FAA-1998-4553, 64 FR 68925, Dec. 8, 1999, as amended by Docket 
FAA-2016-6142, Amdt. 65-58, 83 FR 30281, June 27, 2018]



PART 67_MEDICAL STANDARDS AND CERTIFICATION--Table of Contents



                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
67.1 Applicability.
67.3 Issue.
67.4 Application.
67.7 Access to the National Driver Register.

            Subpart B_First-Class Airman Medical Certificate

67.101 Eligibility.
67.103 Eye.
67.105 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.
67.107 Mental.
67.109 Neurologic.
67.111 Cardiovascular.
67.113 General medical condition.
67.115 Discretionary issuance.

            Subpart C_Second-Class Airman Medical Certificate

67.201 Eligibility.
67.203 Eye.
67.205 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.
67.207 Mental.
67.209 Neurologic.
67.211 Cardiovascular.
67.213 General medical condition.

[[Page 631]]

67.215 Discretionary issuance.

            Subpart D_Third-Class Airman Medical Certificate

67.301 Eligibility.
67.303 Eye.
67.305 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.
67.307 Mental.
67.309 Neurologic.
67.311 Cardiovascular.
67.313 General medical condition.
67.315 Discretionary issuance.

                   Subpart E_Certification Procedures

67.401 Special issuance of medical certificates.
67.403 Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records: 
          Falsification, reproduction, or alteration; incorrect 
          statements.
67.405 Medical examinations: Who may perform?
67.407 Delegation of authority.
67.409 Denial of medical certificate.
67.411 [Reserved]
67.413 Medical records.
67.415 Return of medical certificate after suspension or revocation.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 
45102-45103, 45301-45303.

    Source: Docket No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, unless 
otherwise noted.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 67.1  Applicability.

    This part prescribes the medical standards and certification 
procedures for issuing medical certificates for airmen and for remaining 
eligible for a medical certificate.



Sec. 67.3  Issue.

    A person who meets the medical standards prescribed in this part, 
based on medical examination and evaluation of the person's history and 
condition, is entitled to an appropriate medical certificate.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27812, 73 FR 43065, July 24, 2008]



Sec. 67.4  Application.

    An applicant for first-, second- and third-class medical 
certification must:
    (a) Apply on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator;
    (b) Be examined by an aviation medical examiner designated in 
accordance with part 183 of this chapter. An applicant may obtain a list 
of aviation medical examiners from the FAA Office of Aerospace Medicine 
homepage on the FAA Web site, from any FAA Regional Flight Surgeon, or 
by contacting the Manager of the Aerospace Medical Education Division, 
P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73125.
    (c) Show proof of age and identity by presenting a government-issued 
photo identification (such as a valid U.S. driver's license, 
identification card issued by a driver's license authority, military 
identification, or passport). If an applicant does not have government-
issued identification, he or she may use non-photo, government-issued 
identification (such as a birth certificate or voter registration card) 
in conjunction with photo identification (such as a work identification 
card or a student identification card).

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27812, 73 FR 43065, July 24, 2008, as amended by 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 67-22, 87 FR 75845, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 67.7  Access to the National Driver Register.

    At the time of application for a certificate issued under this part, 
each person who applies for a medical certificate shall execute an 
express consent form authorizing the Administrator to request the chief 
driver licensing official of any state designated by the Administrator 
to transmit information contained in the National Driver Register about 
the person to the Administrator. The Administrator shall make 
information received from the National Driver Register, if any, 
available on request to the person for review and written comment.



            Subpart B_First-Class Airman Medical Certificate



Sec. 67.101  Eligibility.

    To be eligible for a first-class airman medical certificate, and to 
remain eligible for a first-class airman medical certificate, a person 
must meet the requirements of this subpart.



Sec. 67.103  Eye.

    Eye standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:

[[Page 632]]

    (a) Distant visual acuity of 20/20 or better in each eye separately, 
with or without corrective lenses. If corrective lenses (spectacles or 
contact lenses) are necessary for 20/20 vision, the person may be 
eligible only on the condition that corrective lenses are worn while 
exercising the privileges of an airman certificate.
    (b) Near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at 16 inches 
in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. If age 50 or 
older, near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at both 16 
inches and 32 inches in each eye separately, with or without corrective 
lenses.
    (c) Ability to perceive those colors necessary for the safe 
performance of airman duties.
    (d) Normal fields of vision.
    (e) No acute or chronic pathological condition of either eye or 
adnexa that interferes with the proper function of an eye, that may 
reasonably be expected to progress to that degree, or that may 
reasonably be expected to be aggravated by flying.
    (f) Bifoveal fixation and vergence-phoria relationship sufficient to 
prevent a break in fusion under conditions that may reasonably be 
expected to occur in performing airman duties. Tests for the factors 
named in this paragraph are not required except for persons found to 
have more than 1 prism diopter of hyperphoria, 6 prism diopters of 
esophoria, or 6 prism diopters of exophoria. If any of these values are 
exceeded, the Federal Air Surgeon may require the person to be examined 
by a qualified eye specialist to determine if there is bifoveal fixation 
and an adequate vergence-phoria relationship. However, if otherwise 
eligible, the person is issued a medical certificate pending the results 
of the examination.



Sec. 67.105  Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.

    Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium standards for a first-class 
airman medical certificate are:
    (a) The person shall demonstrate acceptable hearing by at least one 
of the following tests:
    (1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an average conversational voice 
in a quiet room, using both ears, at a distance of 6 feet from the 
examiner, with the back turned to the examiner.
    (2) Demonstrate an acceptable understanding of speech as determined 
by audiometric speech discrimination testing to a score of at least 70 
percent obtained in one ear or in a sound field environment.
    (3) Provide acceptable results of pure tone audiometric testing of 
unaided hearing acuity according to the following table of worst 
acceptable thresholds, using the calibration standards of the American 
National Standards Institute, 1969 (11 West 42d Street, New York, NY 
10036):

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                500   1000   2000   3000
                Frequency (Hz)                   Hz    Hz     Hz     Hz
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Better ear (Db)...............................   35     30     30     40
Poorer ear (Db)...............................   35     50     50     60
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (b) No disease or condition of the middle or internal ear, nose, 
oral cavity, pharynx, or larynx that--
    (1) Interferes with, or is aggravated by, flying or may reasonably 
be expected to do so; or
    (2) Interferes with, or may reasonably be expected to interfere 
with, clear and effective speech communication.
    (c) No disease or condition manifested by, or that may reasonably be 
expected to be manifested by, vertigo or a disturbance of equilibrium.



Sec. 67.107  Mental.

    Mental standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of 
the following:
    (1) A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly 
manifested itself by overt acts.
    (2) A psychosis. As used in this section, ``psychosis'' refers to a 
mental disorder in which:
    (i) The individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly 
bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of 
this condition; or
    (ii) The individual may reasonably be expected to manifest 
delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or 
other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition.

[[Page 633]]

    (3) A bipolar disorder.
    (4) Substance dependence, except where there is established clinical 
evidence, satisfactory to the Federal Air Surgeon, of recovery, 
including sustained total abstinence from the substance(s) for not less 
than the preceding 2 years. As used in this section--
    (i) ``Substance'' includes: Alcohol; other sedatives and hypnotics; 
anxiolytics; opioids; central nervous system stimulants such as cocaine, 
amphetamines, and similarly acting sympathomimetics; hallucinogens; 
phencyclidine or similarly acting arylcyclohexylamines; cannabis; 
inhalants; and other psychoactive drugs and chemicals; and
    (ii) ``Substance dependence'' means a condition in which a person is 
dependent on a substance, other than tobacco or ordinary xanthine-
containing (e.g., caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by--
    (A) Increased tolerance;
    (B) Manifestation of withdrawal symptoms;
    (C) Impaired control of use; or
    (D) Continued use despite damage to physical health or impairment of 
social, personal, or occupational functioning.
    (b) No substance abuse within the preceding 2 years defined as:
    (1) Use of a substance in a situation in which that use was 
physically hazardous, if there has been at any other time an instance of 
the use of a substance also in a situation in which that use was 
physically hazardous;
    (2) A verified positive drug test result, an alcohol test result of 
0.04 or greater alcohol concentration, or a refusal to submit to a drug 
or alcohol test required by the U.S. Department of Transportation or an 
agency of the U.S. Department of Transportation; or
    (3) Misuse of a substance that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on 
case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the 
substance involved, finds--
    (i) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (ii) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.
    (c) No other personality disorder, neurosis, or other mental 
condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and 
appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition 
involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.

[Doc. No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 67-19, 
71 FR 35764, June 21, 2006]



Sec. 67.109  Neurologic.

    Neurologic standards for a first-class airman medical certificate 
are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of 
the following:
    (1) Epilepsy;
    (2) A disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical 
explanation of the cause; or
    (3) A transient loss of control of nervous system function(s) 
without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause.
    (b) No other seizure disorder, disturbance of consciousness, or 
neurologic condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case 
history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the 
condition involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.



Sec. 67.111  Cardiovascular.

    Cardiovascular standards for a first-class airman medical 
certificate are:

[[Page 634]]

    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of 
the following:
    (1) Myocardial infarction;
    (2) Angina pectoris;
    (3) Coronary heart disease that has required treatment or, if 
untreated, that has been symptomatic or clinically significant;
    (4) Cardiac valve replacement;
    (5) Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation; or
    (6) Heart replacement;
    (b) A person applying for first-class medical certification must 
demonstrate an absence of myocardial infarction and other clinically 
significant abnormality on electrocardiographic examination:
    (1) At the first application after reaching the 35th birthday; and
    (2) On an annual basis after reaching the 40th birthday.
    (c) An electrocardiogram will satisfy a requirement of paragraph (b) 
of this section if it is dated no earlier than 60 days before the date 
of the application it is to accompany and was performed and transmitted 
according to acceptable standards and techniques.



Sec. 67.113  General medical condition.

    The general medical standards for a first-class airman medical 
certificate are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes 
mellitus that requires insulin or any other hypoglycemic drug for 
control.
    (b) No other organic, functional, or structural disease, defect, or 
limitation that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and 
appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition 
involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.
    (c) No medication or other treatment that the Federal Air Surgeon, 
based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment 
relating to the medication or other treatment involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.



Sec. 67.115  Discretionary issuance.

    A person who does not meet the provisions of Sec. Sec. 67.103 
through 67.113 may apply for the discretionary issuance of a certificate 
under Sec. 67.401.



            Subpart C_Second-Class Airman Medical Certificate



Sec. 67.201  Eligibility.

    To be eligible for a second-class airman medical certificate, and to 
remain eligible for a second-class airman medical certificate, a person 
must meet the requirements of this subpart.



Sec. 67.203  Eye.

    Eye standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are:
    (a) Distant visual acuity of 20/20 or better in each eye separately, 
with or without corrective lenses. If corrective lenses (spectacles or 
contact lenses) are necessary for 20/20 vision, the person may be 
eligible only on the condition that corrective lenses are worn while 
exercising the privileges of an airman certificate.
    (b) Near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at 16 inches 
in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. If age 50 or 
older, near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at both 16 
inches and 32 inches in each eye separately, with or without corrective 
lenses.
    (c) Ability to perceive those colors necessary for the safe 
performance of airman duties.
    (d) Normal fields of vision.
    (e) No acute or chronic pathological condition of either eye or 
adnexa that interferes with the proper function of an eye, that may 
reasonably be expected to progress to that degree, or

[[Page 635]]

that may reasonably be expected to be aggravated by flying.
    (f) Bifoveal fixation and vergence-phoria relationship sufficient to 
prevent a break in fusion under conditions that may reasonably be 
expected to occur in performing airman duties. Tests for the factors 
named in this paragraph are not required except for persons found to 
have more than 1 prism diopter of hyperphoria, 6 prism diopters of 
esophoria, or 6 prism diopters of exophoria. If any of these values are 
exceeded, the Federal Air Surgeon may require the person to be examined 
by a qualified eye specialist to determine if there is bifoveal fixation 
and an adequate vergence-phoria relationship. However, if otherwise 
eligible, the person is issued a medical certificate pending the results 
of the examination.



Sec. 67.205  Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.

    Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium standards for a second-class 
airman medical certificate are:
    (a) The person shall demonstrate acceptable hearing by at least one 
of the following tests:
    (1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an average conversational voice 
in a quiet room, using both ears, at a distance of 6 feet from the 
examiner, with the back turned to the examiner.
    (2) Demonstrate an acceptable understanding of speech as determined 
by audiometric speech discrimination testing to a score of at least 70 
percent obtained in one ear or in a sound field environment.
    (3) Provide acceptable results of pure tone audiometric testing of 
unaided hearing acuity according to the following table of worst 
acceptable thresholds, using the calibration standards of the American 
National Standards Institute, 1969:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                500   1000   2000   3000
                Frequency (Hz)                   Hz    Hz     Hz     Hz
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Better ear (Db)...............................   35     30     30     40
Poorer ear (Db)...............................   35     50     50     60
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (b) No disease or condition of the middle or internal ear, nose, 
oral cavity, pharynx, or larynx that--
    (1) Interferes with, or is aggravated by, flying or may reasonably 
be expected to do so; or
    (2) Interferes with, or may reasonably be expected to interfere 
with, clear and effective speech communication.
    (c) No disease or condition manifested by, or that may reasonably be 
expected to be manifested by, vertigo or a disturbance of equilibrium.



Sec. 67.207  Mental.

    Mental standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of 
the following:
    (1) A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly 
manifested itself by overt acts.
    (2) A psychosis. As used in this section, ``psychosis'' refers to a 
mental disorder in which:
    (i) The individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly 
bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of 
this condition; or
    (ii) The individual may reasonably be expected to manifest 
delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or 
other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition.
    (3) A bipolar disorder.
    (4) Substance dependence, except where there is established clinical 
evidence, satisfactory to the Federal Air Surgeon, of recovery, 
including sustained total abstinence from the substance(s) for not less 
than the preceding 2 years. As used in this section--
    (i) ``Substance'' includes: Alcohol; other sedatives and hypnotics; 
anxiolytics; opioids; central nervous system stimulants such as cocaine, 
amphetamines, and similarly acting sympathomimetics; hallucinogens; 
phencyclidine or similarly acting arylcyclohexylamines; cannabis; 
inhalants; and other psychoactive drugs and chemicals; and
    (ii) ``Substance dependence'' means a condition in which a person is 
dependent on a substance, other than tobacco or ordinary xanthine-
containing (e.g., caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by--
    (A) Increased tolerance;

[[Page 636]]

    (B) Manifestation of withdrawal symptoms;
    (C) Impaired control of use; or
    (D) Continued use despite damage to physical health or impairment of 
social, personal, or occupational functioning.
    (b) No substance abuse within the preceding 2 years defined as:
    (1) Use of a substance in a situation in which that use was 
physically hazardous, if there has been at any other time an instance of 
the use of a substance also in a situation in which that use was 
physically hazardous;
    (2) A verified positive drug test result, an alcohol test result of 
0.04 or greater alcohol concentration, or a refusal to submit to a drug 
or alcohol test required by the U.S. Department of Transportation or an 
agency of the U.S. Department of Transportation; or
    (3) Misuse of a substance that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on 
case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the 
substance involved, finds--
    (i) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (ii) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.
    (c) No other personality disorder, neurosis, or other mental 
condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and 
appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition 
involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.

[Doc. No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 67-19, 
71 FR 35764, June 21, 2006]



Sec. 67.209  Neurologic.

    Neurologic standards for a second-class airman medical certificate 
are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of 
the following:
    (1) Epilepsy;
    (2) A disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical 
explanation of the cause; or
    (3) A transient loss of control of nervous system function(s) 
without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause;
    (b) No other seizure disorder, disturbance of consciousness, or 
neurologic condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case 
history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the 
condition involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.



Sec. 67.211  Cardiovascular.

    Cardiovascular standards for a second-class medical certificate are 
no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the 
following:
    (a) Myocardial infarction;
    (b) Angina pectoris;
    (c) Coronary heart disease that has required treatment or, if 
untreated, that has been symptomatic or clinically significant;
    (d) Cardiac valve replacement;
    (e) Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation; or
    (f) Heart replacement.



Sec. 67.213  General medical condition.

    The general medical standards for a second-class airman medical 
certificate are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes 
mellitus that requires insulin or any other hypoglycemic drug for 
control.
    (b) No other organic, functional, or structural disease, defect, or 
limitation that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on

[[Page 637]]

the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to 
the condition involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.
    (c) No medication or other treatment that the Federal Air Surgeon, 
based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment 
relating to the medication or other treatment involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.



Sec. 67.215  Discretionary issuance.

    A person who does not meet the provisions of Sec. Sec. 67.203 
through 67.213 may apply for the discretionary issuance of a certificate 
under Sec. 67.401.



            Subpart D_Third-Class Airman Medical Certificate



Sec. 67.301  Eligibility.

    To be eligible for a third-class airman medical certificate, or to 
remain eligible for a third-class airman medical certificate, a person 
must meet the requirements of this subpart.



Sec. 67.303  Eye.

    Eye standards for a third-class airman medical certificate are:
    (a) Distant visual acuity of 20/40 or better in each eye separately, 
with or without corrective lenses. If corrective lenses (spectacles or 
contact lenses) are necessary for 20/40 vision, the person may be 
eligible only on the condition that corrective lenses are worn while 
exercising the privileges of an airman certificate.
    (b) Near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at 16 inches 
in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses.
    (c) Ability to perceive those colors necessary for the safe 
performance of airman duties.
    (d) No acute or chronic pathological condition of either eye or 
adnexa that interferes with the proper function of an eye, that may 
reasonably be expected to progress to that degree, or that may 
reasonably be expected to be aggravated by flying.



Sec. 67.305  Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.

    Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium standards for a third-class 
airman medical certificate are:
    (a) The person shall demonstrate acceptable hearing by at least one 
of the following tests:
    (1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an average conversational voice 
in a quiet room, using both ears, at a distance of 6 feet from the 
examiner, with the back turned to the examiner.
    (2) Demonstrate an acceptable understanding of speech as determined 
by audiometric speech discrimination testing to a score of at least 70 
percent obtained in one ear or in a sound field environment.
    (3) Provide acceptable results of pure tone audiometric testing of 
unaided hearing acuity according to the following table of worst 
acceptable thresholds, using the calibration standards of the American 
National Standards Institute, 1969:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                500   1000   2000   3000
                Frequency (Hz)                   Hz    Hz     Hz     Hz
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Better ear (Db)...............................   35     30     30     40
Poorer ear (Db)...............................   35     50     50     60
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (b) No disease or condition of the middle or internal ear, nose, 
oral cavity, pharynx, or larynx that--
    (1) Interferes with, or is aggravated by, flying or may reasonably 
be expected to do so; or
    (2) Interferes with clear and effective speech communication.
    (c) No disease or condition manifested by, or that may reasonably be 
expected to be manifested by, vertigo or a disturbance of equilibrium.

[[Page 638]]



Sec. 67.307  Mental.

    Mental standards for a third-class airman medical certificate are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of 
the following:
    (1) A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly 
manifested itself by overt acts.
    (2) A psychosis. As used in this section, ``psychosis'' refers to a 
mental disorder in which--
    (i) The individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly 
bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of 
this condition; or
    (ii) The individual may reasonably be expected to manifest 
delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or 
other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition.
    (3) A bipolar disorder.
    (4) Substance dependence, except where there is established clinical 
evidence, satisfactory to the Federal Air Surgeon, of recovery, 
including sustained total abstinence from the substance(s) for not less 
than the preceding 2 years. As used in this section--
    (i) ``Substance'' includes: alcohol; other sedatives and hypnotics; 
anxiolytics; opioids; central nervous system stimulants such as cocaine, 
amphetamines, and similarly acting sympathomimetics; hallucinogens; 
phencyclidine or similarly acting arylcyclohexylamines; cannabis; 
inhalants; and other psychoactive drugs and chemicals; and
    (ii) ``Substance dependence'' means a condition in which a person is 
dependent on a substance, other than tobacco or ordinary xanthine-
containing (e.g., caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by--
    (A) Increased tolerance;
    (B) Manifestation of withdrawal symptoms;
    (C) Impaired control of use; or
    (D) Continued use despite damage to physical health or impairment of 
social, personal, or occupational functioning.
    (b) No substance abuse within the preceding 2 years defined as:
    (1) Use of a substance in a situation in which that use was 
physically hazardous, if there has been at any other time an instance of 
the use of a substance also in a situation in which that use was 
physically hazardous;
    (2) A verified positive drug test result, an alcohol test result of 
0.04 or greater alcohol concentration, or a refusal to submit to a drug 
or alcohol test required by the U.S. Department of Transportation or an 
agency of the U.S. Department of Transportation; or
    (3) Misuse of a substance that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on 
case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the 
substance involved, finds--
    (i) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (ii) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.
    (c) No other personality disorder, neurosis, or other mental 
condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and 
appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition 
involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.

[Doc. No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 67-19, 
71 FR 35764, June 21, 2006]



Sec. 67.309  Neurologic.

    Neurologic standards for a third-class airman medical certificate 
are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of 
the following:
    (1) Epilepsy;
    (2) A disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical 
explanation of the cause; or
    (3) A transient loss of control of nervous system function(s) 
without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause.

[[Page 639]]

    (b) No other seizure disorder, disturbance of consciousness, or 
neurologic condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case 
history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the 
condition involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.



Sec. 67.311  Cardiovascular.

    Cardiovascular standards for a third-class airman medical 
certificate are no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of 
any of the following:
    (a) Myocardial infarction;
    (b) Angina pectoris;
    (c) Coronary heart disease that has required treatment or, if 
untreated, that has been symptomatic or clinically significant;
    (d) Cardiac valve replacement;
    (e) Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation; or
    (f) Heart replacement.



Sec. 67.313  General medical condition.

    The general medical standards for a third-class airman medical 
certificate are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes 
mellitus that requires insulin or any other hypoglycemic drug for 
control.
    (b) No other organic, functional, or structural disease, defect, or 
limitation that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and 
appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition 
involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.
    (c) No medication or other treatment that the Federal Air Surgeon, 
based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment 
relating to the medication or other treatment involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.



Sec. 67.315  Discretionary issuance.

    A person who does not meet the provisions of Sec. Sec. 67.303 
through 67.313 may apply for the discretionary issuance of a certificate 
under Sec. 67.401.



                   Subpart E_Certification Procedures



Sec. 67.401  Special issuance of medical certificates.

    (a) At the discretion of the Federal Air Surgeon, an Authorization 
for Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate (Authorization), valid for 
a specified period, may be granted to a person who does not meet the 
provisions of subparts B, C, or D of this part if the person shows to 
the satisfaction of the Federal Air Surgeon that the duties authorized 
by the class of medical certificate applied for can be performed without 
endangering public safety during the period in which the Authorization 
would be in force. The Federal Air Surgeon may authorize a special 
medical flight test, practical test, or medical evaluation for this 
purpose. A medical certificate of the appropriate class may be issued to 
a person who does not meet the provisions of subparts B, C, or D of this 
part if that person possesses a valid Authorization and is otherwise 
eligible. An airman medical certificate issued in accordance with this 
section shall expire no later than the end of the validity period or 
upon the withdrawal of the Authorization upon which it is based. At the 
end of its specified validity period, for grant of a new Authorization, 
the person must again show to the satisfaction of the

[[Page 640]]

Federal Air Surgeon that the duties authorized by the class of medical 
certificate applied for can be performed without endangering public 
safety during the period in which the Authorization would be in force.
    (b) At the discretion of the Federal Air Surgeon, a Statement of 
Demonstrated Ability (SODA) may be granted, instead of an Authorization, 
to a person whose disqualifying condition is static or nonprogressive 
and who has been found capable of performing airman duties without 
endangering public safety. A SODA does not expire and authorizes a 
designated aviation medical examiner to issue a medical certificate of a 
specified class if the examiner finds that the condition described on 
its face has not adversely changed.
    (c) In granting an Authorization or SODA, the Federal Air Surgeon 
may consider the person's operational experience and any medical facts 
that may affect the ability of the person to perform airman duties 
including--
    (1) The combined effect on the person of failure to meet more than 
one requirement of this part; and
    (2) The prognosis derived from professional consideration of all 
available information regarding the person.
    (d) In granting an Authorization or SODA under this section, the 
Federal Air Surgeon specifies the class of medical certificate 
authorized to be issued and may do any or all of the following:
    (1) Limit the duration of an Authorization;
    (2) Condition the granting of a new Authorization on the results of 
subsequent medical tests, examinations, or evaluations;
    (3) State on the Authorization or SODA, and any medical certificate 
based upon it, any operational limitation needed for safety; or
    (4) Condition the continued effect of an Authorization or SODA, and 
any second- or third-class medical certificate based upon it, on 
compliance with a statement of functional limitations issued to the 
person in coordination with the Director of Flight Standards or the 
Director's designee.
    (e) In determining whether an Authorization or SODA should be 
granted to an applicant for a third-class medical certificate, the 
Federal Air Surgeon considers the freedom of an airman, exercising the 
privileges of a private pilot certificate, to accept reasonable risks to 
his or her person and property that are not acceptable in the exercise 
of commercial or airline transport pilot privileges, and, at the same 
time, considers the need to protect the safety of persons and property 
in other aircraft and on the ground.
    (f) An Authorization or SODA granted under the provisions of this 
section to a person who does not meet the applicable provisions of 
subparts B, C, or D of this part may be withdrawn, at the discretion of 
the Federal Air Surgeon, at any time if--
    (1) There is adverse change in the holder's medical condition;
    (2) The holder fails to comply with a statement of functional 
limitations or operational limitations issued as a condition of 
certification under this section;
    (3) Public safety would be endangered by the holder's exercise of 
airman privileges;
    (4) The holder fails to provide medical information reasonably 
needed by the Federal Air Surgeon for certification under this section; 
or
    (5) The holder makes or causes to be made a statement or entry that 
is the basis for withdrawal of an Authorization or SODA under Sec. 
67.403.
    (g) A person who has been granted an Authorization or SODA under 
this section based on a special medical flight or practical test need 
not take the test again during later physical examinations unless the 
Federal Air Surgeon determines or has reason to believe that the 
physical deficiency has or may have degraded to a degree to require 
another special medical flight test or practical test.
    (h) The authority of the Federal Air Surgeon under this section is 
also exercised by the Manager, Aeromedical Certification Division, and 
each Regional Flight Surgeon.
    (i) If an Authorization or SODA is withdrawn under paragraph (f) of 
this section the following procedures apply:
    (1) The holder of the Authorization or SODA will be served a letter 
of withdrawal, stating the reason for the action;

[[Page 641]]

    (2) By not later than 60 days after the service of the letter of 
withdrawal, the holder of the Authorization or SODA may request, in 
writing, that the Federal Air Surgeon provide for review of the decision 
to withdraw. The request for review may be accompanied by supporting 
medical evidence;
    (3) Within 60 days of receipt of a request for review, a written 
final decision either affirming or reversing the decision to withdraw 
will be issued; and
    (4) A medical certificate rendered invalid pursuant to a withdrawal, 
in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, shall be surrendered 
to the Administrator upon request.

[Doc. No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 67-20, 
73 FR 43066, July 24, 2008; Amdt. 67-21, 77 FR 16668, Mar. 22, 2012]



Sec. 67.403  Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records:
Falsification, reproduction, or alteration; incorrect statements.

    (a) No person may make or cause to be made--
    (1) A fraudulent or intentionally false statement on any application 
for a medical certificate or on a request for any Authorization for 
Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate (Authorization) or Statement 
of Demonstrated Ability (SODA) under this part;
    (2) A fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, 
record, or report that is kept, made, or used, to show compliance with 
any requirement for any medical certificate or for any Authorization or 
SODA under this part;
    (3) A reproduction, for fraudulent purposes, of any medical 
certificate under this part; or
    (4) An alteration of any medical certificate under this part.
    (b) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under 
paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for--
    (1) Suspending or revoking all airman, ground instructor, and 
medical certificates and ratings held by that person;
    (2) Withdrawing all Authorizations or SODA's held by that person; 
and
    (3) Denying all applications for medical certification and requests 
for Authorizations or SODA's.
    (c) The following may serve as a basis for suspending or revoking a 
medical certificate; withdrawing an Authorization or SODA; or denying an 
application for a medical certificate or request for an authorization or 
SODA:
    (1) An incorrect statement, upon which the FAA relied, made in 
support of an application for a medical certificate or request for an 
Authorization or SODA.
    (2) An incorrect entry, upon which the FAA relied, made in any 
logbook, record, or report that is kept, made, or used to show 
compliance with any requirement for a medical certificate or an 
Authorization or SODA.



Sec. 67.405  Medical examinations: Who may perform?

    (a) First-class. Any aviation medical examiner who is specifically 
designated for the purpose may perform examinations for the first-class 
medical certificate.
    (b) Second- and third-class. Any aviation medical examiner may 
perform examinations for the second-or third-class medical certificate.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27812, 73 FR 43066, July 24, 2008]



Sec. 67.407  Delegation of authority.

    (a) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703 to 
issue or deny medical certificates is delegated to the Federal Air 
Surgeon to the extent necessary to--
    (1) Examine applicants for and holders of medical certificates to 
determine whether they meet applicable medical standards; and
    (2) Issue, renew, and deny medical certificates, and issue, renew, 
deny, and withdraw Authorizations for Special Issuance of a Medical 
Certificate and Statements of Demonstrated Ability to a person based 
upon meeting or failing to meet applicable medical standards.
    (b) Subject to limitations in this chapter, the delegated functions 
of the Federal Air Surgeon to examine applicants for and holders of 
medical certificates for compliance with applicable medical standards 
and to issue, renew, and deny medical certificates are also delegated to 
aviation medical examiners and to authorized representatives

[[Page 642]]

of the Federal Air Surgeon within the FAA.
    (c) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44702, to 
reconsider the action of an aviation medical examiner is delegated to 
the Federal Air Surgeon; the Manager, Aeromedical Certification 
Division; and each Regional Flight Surgeon. Where the person does not 
meet the standards of Sec. Sec. 67.107(b)(3) and (c), 67.109(b), 
67.113(b) and (c), 67.207(b)(3) and (c), 67.209(b), 67.213(b) and (c), 
67.307(b)(3) and (c), 67.309(b), or 67.313(b) and (c), any action taken 
under this paragraph other than by the Federal Air Surgeon is subject to 
reconsideration by the Federal Air Surgeon. A certificate issued by an 
aviation medical examiner is considered to be affirmed as issued unless 
an FAA official named in this paragraph (authorized official) reverses 
that issuance within 60 days after the date of issuance. However, if 
within 60 days after the date of issuance an authorized official 
requests the certificate holder to submit additional medical 
information, an authorized official may reverse the issuance within 60 
days after receipt of the requested information.
    (d) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44709 to re-
examine any civil airman to the extent necessary to determine an 
airman's qualification to continue to hold an airman medical 
certificate, is delegated to the Federal Air Surgeon and his or her 
authorized representatives within the FAA.



Sec. 67.409  Denial of medical certificate.

    (a) Any person who is denied a medical certificate by an aviation 
medical examiner may, within 30 days after the date of the denial, apply 
in writing to the Federal Air Surgeon, Attention: Manager, Aeromedical 
Certification Division, AAM-300, Federal Aviation Administration, P.O. 
Box 25082, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73126, for reconsideration of that 
denial. If the person does not ask for reconsideration during the 30-day 
period after the date of the denial, he or she is considered to have 
withdrawn the application for a medical certificate.
    (b) The denial of a medical certificate--
    (1) By an aviation medical examiner is not a denial by the 
Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703.
    (2) By the Federal Air Surgeon is considered to be a denial by the 
Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703.
    (3) By the Manager, Aeromedical Certification Division, or a 
Regional Flight Surgeon is considered to be a denial by the 
Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703 except where the person does not 
meet the standards of Sec. Sec. 67.107(b)(3) and (c), 67.109(b), or 
67.113(b) and (c); 67.207(b)(3) and (c), 67.209(b), or 67.213(b) and 
(c); or 67.307(b)(3) and (c), 67.309(b), or 67.313(b) and (c).
    (c) Any action taken under Sec. 67.407(c) that wholly or partly 
reverses the issue of a medical certificate by an aviation medical 
examiner is the denial of a medical certificate under paragraph (b) of 
this section.
    (d) If the issue of a medical certificate is wholly or partly 
reversed by the Federal Air Surgeon; the Manager, Aeromedical 
Certification Division; or a Regional Flight Surgeon, the person holding 
that certificate shall surrender it, upon request of the FAA.

[Docket No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as amended by Docket No. 
FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 67-22, 87 FR 75845, Dec. 9, 2022



Sec. 67.411  [Reserved]



Sec. 67.413  Medical records.

    (a) Whenever the Administrator finds that additional medical 
information or history is necessary to determine whether you meet the 
medical standards required to hold a medical certificate, you must:
    (1) Furnish that information to the FAA; or
    (2) Authorize any clinic, hospital, physician, or other person to 
release to the FAA all available information or records concerning that 
history.
    (b) If you fail to provide the requested medical information or 
history or to authorize its release, the FAA may suspend, modify, or 
revoke your medical certificate or, in the case of an applicant, deny 
the application for a medical certificate.
    (c) If your medical certificate is suspended, modified, or revoked 
under

[[Page 643]]

paragraph (b) of this section, that suspension or modification remains 
in effect until you provide the requested information, history, or 
authorization to the FAA and until the FAA determines that you meet the 
medical standards set forth in this part.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27812, 73 FR 43066, July 24, 2008]



Sec. 67.415  Return of medical certificate after suspension or revocation.

    The holder of any medical certificate issued under this part that is 
suspended or revoked shall, upon the Administrator's request, return it 
to the Administrator.



PART 68_REQUIREMENTS FOR OPERATING CERTAIN SMALL 
AIRCRAFT WITHOUT A MEDICAL CERTIFICATE--Table of Contents



Sec.
68.1 Applicability.
68.3 Medical education course requirements.
68.5 Comprehensive medical examination.
68.7 Comprehensive medical examination checklist.
68.9 Special Issuance process.
68.11 Authority to require additional information.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 44701-44703, sec. 2307 of Pub. L. 114-
190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note).

    Source: Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 68-1, 82 FR 3165, Jan. 11, 2017, 
unless otherwise noted.



Sec. 68.1  Applicability.

    This part prescribes the medical education and examination 
requirements for operating an aircraft under Sec. 61.113(i) of this 
chapter without holding a medical certificate issued under part 67 of 
this chapter.



Sec. 68.3  Medical education course requirements.

    (a) The medical education course required to act as pilot in command 
or serve as a required flightcrew member in an operation under Sec. 
61.113(i) of this chapter must--
    (1) Educate pilots on conducting medical self-assessments;
    (2) Advise pilots on identifying warning signs of potential serious 
medical conditions;
    (3) Identify risk mitigation strategies for medical conditions;
    (4) Increase awareness of the impacts of potentially impairing over-
the-counter and prescription drug medications;
    (5) Encourage regular medical examinations and consultations with 
primary care physicians;
    (6) Inform pilots of the regulations pertaining to the prohibition 
on operations during medical deficiency and medically disqualifying 
conditions; and
    (7) Provide the checklist developed by the FAA in accordance with 
Sec. 68.7.
    (b) Upon successful completion of the medical education course, the 
following items must be electronically provided to the individual 
seeking to act as pilot in command or serve as a required flightcrew 
member under the conditions and limitations of Sec. 61.113(i) of this 
chapter and transmitted to the FAA--
    (1) A certification of completion of the medical education course, 
which shall be retained in the individual's logbook and made available 
upon request, and shall contain the individual's name, address, and 
airman certificate number;
    (2) A release authorizing single access to the National Driver 
Register through a designated State Department of Motor Vehicles to 
furnish to the FAA information pertaining to the individual's driving 
record;
    (3) A certification by the individual that the individual is under 
the care and treatment of a physician if the individual has been 
diagnosed with any medical condition that may impact the ability of the 
individual to fly, as required under Sec. 61.23(c)(3) of this chapter;
    (4) A form that includes--
    (i) The name, address, telephone number, and airman certificate 
number of the individual;
    (ii) The name, address, telephone number, and State medical license 
number of the physician performing the comprehensive medical 
examination;
    (iii) The date of the comprehensive medical examination; and
    (iv) A certification by the individual that the checklist described 
in Sec. 68.7

[[Page 644]]

was followed and signed by the physician during the medical examination 
required by this section; and
    (5) A statement, which shall be signed by the individual certifying 
that the individual understands the existing prohibition on operations 
during medical deficiency by stating: ``I understand that I cannot act 
as pilot in command, or any other capacity as a required flight crew 
member, if I know or have reason to know of any medical condition that 
would make me unable to operate the aircraft in a safe manner.''.

[Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 68-1, 82 FR 3165, Jan. 11, 2017, as amended 
by Docket No. FAA-2021-1040, Amdt. Nos. 61-152, 87 FR 71236, Nov. 22, 
2022]



Sec. 68.5  Comprehensive medical examination.

    (a) Prior to the medical examination required by Sec. 61.23(c)(3) 
of this chapter, an individual must--
    (1) Complete the individual's section of the checklist described in 
Sec. 68.7; and
    (2) Provide the completed checklist to the State-licensed physician 
performing the medical examination.
    (b) The physician must--
    (1) Conduct the medical examination in accordance with the checklist 
set forth in Sec. 68.7,
    (2) Check each item specified during the examination; and
    (3) Address, as medically appropriate, every medical condition 
listed and any medications the individual is taking.



Sec. 68.7  Comprehensive medical examination checklist.

    The comprehensive medical examination required to conduct operations 
under Sec. 61.113(i) must include a checklist containing the following:
    (a) A section, for the individual to complete that contains--
    (1) Boxes 3 through 13 and boxes 16 through 19 of the FAA Form 8500-
8 (3-99); and
    (2) A signature line for the individual to affirm that--
    (i) The answers provided by the individual on that checklist, 
including the individual's answers regarding medical history, are true 
and complete;
    (ii) The individual understands that he or she is prohibited under 
FAA regulations from acting as pilot in command, or any other capacity 
as a required flight crew member, if he or she knows or has reason to 
know of any medical deficiency or medically disqualifying condition that 
would make the individual unable to operate the aircraft in a safe 
manner; and
    (iii) The individual is aware of the regulations pertaining to the 
prohibition on operations during medical deficiency and has no medically 
disqualifying conditions in accordance with applicable law;
    (b) A section with instructions for the individual to provide the 
completed checklist to the State-licensed physician performing the 
comprehensive medical examination required under Sec. 68.5; and
    (c) A section, for the physician to complete, that instructs the 
physician--
    (1) To perform a clinical examination of--
    (i) Head, face, neck, and scalp;
    (ii) Nose, sinuses, mouth, and throat;
    (iii) Ears, general (internal and external canals), and eardrums 
(perforation);
    (iv) Eyes (general), ophthalmoscopic, pupils (equality and 
reaction), and ocular motility (associated parallel movement, 
nystagmus);
    (v) Lungs and chest (not including breast examination);
    (vi) Heart (precordial activity, rhythm, sounds, and murmurs);
    (vii) Vascular system (pulse, amplitude, and character, and arms, 
legs, and others);
    (viii) Abdomen and viscera (including hernia);
    (ix) Anus (not including digital examination);
    (x) Skin;
    (xi) G-U system (not including pelvic examination);
    (xii) Upper and lower extremities (strength and range of motion);
    (xiii) Spine and other musculoskeletal;
    (xiv) Identifying body marks, scars, and tattoos (size and 
location);
    (xv) Lymphatics;
    (xvi) Neurologic (tendon reflexes, equilibrium, senses, cranial 
nerves, and coordination, etc.);

[[Page 645]]

    (xvii) Psychiatric (appearance, behavior, mood, communication, and 
memory);
    (xviii) General systemic;
    (xix) Hearing;
    (xx) Vision (distant, near, and intermediate vision, field of 
vision, color vision, and ocular alignment);
    (xxi) Blood pressure and pulse; and
    (xxii) Anything else the physician, in his or her medical judgment, 
considers necessary;
    (2) To exercise medical discretion to address, as medically 
appropriate, any medical conditions identified, and to exercise medical 
discretion in determining whether any medical tests are warranted as 
part of the comprehensive medical examination;
    (3) To discuss all drugs the individual reports taking (prescription 
and nonprescription) and their potential to interfere with the safe 
operation of an aircraft or motor vehicle;
    (4) To sign the checklist, stating: ``I certify that I discussed all 
items on this checklist with the individual during my examination, 
discussed any medications the individual is taking that could interfere 
with his or her ability to safely operate an aircraft or motor vehicle, 
and performed an examination that included all of the items on this 
checklist. I certify that I am not aware of any medical condition that, 
as presently treated, could interfere with the individual's ability to 
safely operate an aircraft.''; and
    (5) To provide the date the comprehensive medical examination was 
completed, and the physician's full name, address, telephone number, and 
State medical license number.



Sec. 68.9  Special Issuance process.

    (a) General. An individual who has met the qualifications to operate 
an aircraft under Sec. 61.113(i) of this chapter and is seeking to act 
as a pilot in command or serve as a required flightcrew member under 
that section must have completed the process for obtaining an 
Authorization for Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate for each of 
the following:
    (1) A mental health disorder, limited to an established medical 
history or clinical diagnosis of--
    (i) A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly 
manifested itself by overt acts;
    (ii) A psychosis, defined as a case in which an individual--
    (A) Has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or 
disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of psychosis; 
or
    (B) May reasonably be expected to manifest delusions, 
hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other 
commonly accepted symptoms of psychosis;
    (iii) A bipolar disorder; or
    (iv) A substance dependence within the previous 2 years, as defined 
in Sec. 67.307(a)(4) of this chapter.
    (2) A neurological disorder, limited to an established medical 
history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following:
    (i) Epilepsy;
    (ii) Disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical 
explanation of the cause; or
    (iii) A transient loss of control of nervous system functions 
without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause.
    (3) A cardiovascular condition, limited to a one-time special 
issuance for each diagnosis of the following:
    (i) Myocardial infarction;
    (ii) Coronary heart disease that has required treatment;
    (iii) Cardiac valve replacement; or
    (iv) Heart replacement.
    (b) Special rule for cardiovascular conditions. In the case of an 
individual with a cardiovascular condition, the process for obtaining an 
Authorization for Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate shall be 
satisfied with the successful completion of an appropriate clinical 
evaluation without a mandatory wait period.
    (c) Special rule for mental health conditions. (1) In the case of an 
individual with a clinically diagnosed mental health condition, the 
ability to operate an aircraft under Sec. 61.113(i) of this chapter 
shall not apply if--
    (i) In the judgment of the individual's State-licensed medical 
specialist, the condition--
    (A) Renders the individual unable to safely perform the duties or 
exercise

[[Page 646]]

the airman privileges required to operate an aircraft under Sec. 
61.113(i) of this chapter; or
    (B) May reasonably be expected to make the individual unable to 
perform the duties or exercise the privileges required to operate an 
aircraft under Sec. 61.113(i) of this chapter; or
    (ii) The individual's driver's license is revoked by the issuing 
agency as a result of a clinically diagnosed mental health condition.
    (2) Subject to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, an individual 
clinically diagnosed with a mental health condition shall certify every 
2 years, in conjunction with the certification under Sec. 68.3(b)(3), 
that the individual is under the care of a State-licensed medical 
specialist for that mental health condition.
    (d) Special rule for neurological conditions. (1) In the case of an 
individual with a clinically diagnosed neurological condition, the 
ability to operate an aircraft under Sec. 61.113(i) of this chapter 
shall not apply if--
    (i) In the judgment of the individual's State-licensed medical 
specialist, the condition--
    (A) Renders the individual unable to safely perform the duties or 
exercise the airman privileges required to operate an aircraft under 
Sec. 61.113(i) of this chapter; or
    (B) May reasonably be expected to make the individual unable to 
perform the duties or exercise the privileges required to operate an 
aircraft under Sec. 61.113(i) of this chapter; or
    (ii) The individual's driver's license is revoked by the issuing 
agency as a result of a clinically diagnosed neurological condition.
    (2) Subject to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, an individual 
clinically diagnosed with a neurological condition shall certify every 2 
years, in conjunction with the certification under Sec. 68.3(b)(3), 
that the individual is under the care of a State-licensed medical 
specialist for that neurological condition.

[Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 68-1, 82 FR 3165, Jan. 11, 2017, as amended 
by Docket No. FAA-2021-1040, Amdt. Nos. 61-152, 87 FR 71238, Nov. 22, 
2022]



Sec. 68.11  Authority to require additional information.

    (a) If the Administrator receives credible or urgent information, 
including from the National Driver Register or the Administrator's 
Safety Hotline, that reflects on an individual's ability to safely 
operate an aircraft under Sec. 61.113(i) of this chapter, the 
Administrator may require the individual to provide additional 
information or history so that the Administrator may determine whether 
the individual is safe to continue operating under that section.
    (b) The Administrator may use credible or urgent information 
received under paragraph (a) to request an individual to provide 
additional information or to take actions under 49 U.S.C. 44709(b).

[[Page 647]]



                          SUBCHAPTER E_AIRSPACE





PART 71_DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE
AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS--
Table of Contents



Sec.

Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97 [Note]
71.1 Applicability.
71.3 [Reserved]
71.5 Reporting points.
71.7 Bearings, radials, and mileages.
71.9 Overlapping airspace designations.
71.11 Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes.
71.13 Classification of Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes.
71.15 Designation of jet routes and VOR Federal airways.

                       Subpart A_Class A Airspace

71.31 Class A airspace.
71.33 Class A airspace areas.

                       Subpart B_Class B Airspace

71.41 Class B airspace.

                       Subpart C_Class C Airspace

71.51 Class C airspace.

                       Subpart D_Class D Airspace

71.61 Class D airspace.

                       Subpart E_Class E Airspace

71.71 Class E airspace.

Subparts F-G [Reserved]

                       Subpart H_Reporting Points

71.901 Applicability.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 
10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p.389.

    Source: Amdt. 71-14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, 1991, unless otherwise 
noted.



             Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97

    Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 97, see part 91 of this 
chapter.



Sec. 71.1  Applicability.

    A listing for Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas; air traffic 
service routes; and reporting points can be found in FAA Order JO 
7400.11G, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 19, 
2022. This incorporation by reference was approved by the Director of 
the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552 (a) and 1 CFR part 
51. The approval to incorporate by reference FAA Order JO 7400.11G is 
effective September 15, 2022, through September 15, 2023. During the 
incorporation by reference period, proposed changes to the listings of 
Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas; air traffic service routes; and 
reporting points will be published in full text as proposed rule 
documents in the Federal Register, unless there is good cause to forego 
notice and comment. Amendments to the listings of Class A, B, C, D, and 
E airspace areas; air traffic service routes; and reporting points will 
be published in full text as final rules in the Federal Register. 
Periodically, the final rule amendments will be integrated into a 
revised edition of FAA Order JO 7400.11 and submitted to the Director of 
the Federal Register for approval for incorporation by reference in this 
section. Copies of FAA Order JO 7400.11G may be obtained from Rules and 
Regulations Group, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence 
Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591, (202) 267-8783. An electronic version 
of FAA Order JO 7400.11G is available on the FAA website at www.faa.gov/
air_traffic/publications. Copies of FAA Order JO 7400.11G may be 
inspected in Docket No. FAA-2022-1022; Amendment No. 71-54, on 
www.regulations.gov. A copy of FAA Order JO 7400.11G may be inspected at 
the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information 
on the availability of FAA Order JO 7400.11G at NARA, email: 
[email protected] or go to www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/
ibr-locations.html.

[Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54,87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022]

    Effective Date Note: By Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 
87 FR 54878,

[[Page 648]]

Sept. 8, 2022, Sec. 71.1 was revised, effective Sept. 15, 2022, through 
Sept. 15, 2023.



Sec. 71.3  [Reserved]



Sec. 71.5  Reporting points.

    The reporting points listed in subpart H of FAA Order JO 7400.11G 
(incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) consist of geographic 
locations at which the position of an aircraft must be reported in 
accordance with part 91 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 
73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; 
Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55268, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 
26, 2011; Amdt. 71-44, 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71-45, 78 FR 
52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-
47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; 
Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40068, Aug. 24, 2017; Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 
28, 2018; Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 
50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. No. 71-53, 86 FR 46963, Aug. 23, 2021; 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022]

    Effective Date Note: By Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 
87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022, Sec. 71.5 was amended by removing the words 
``FAA Order 7400.11F'' and adding, in their place, the words ``FAA Order 
JO 7400.11G'', effective Sept. 15, 2022, through Sept. 15, 2023.



Sec. 71.7  Bearings, radials, and mileages.

    All bearings and radials in this part are true and are applied from 
point of origin and all mileages in this part are stated as nautical 
miles.



Sec. 71.9  Overlapping airspace designations.

    (a) When overlapping airspace designations apply to the same 
airspace, the operating rules associated with the more restrictive 
airspace designation apply.
    (b) For the purpose of this section--
    (1) Class A airspace is more restrictive than Class B, Class C, 
Class D, Class E, or Class G airspace;
    (2) Class B airspace is more restrictive than Class C, Class D, 
Class E, or Class G airspace;
    (3) Class C airspace is more restrictive than Class D, Class E, or 
Class G airspace;
    (4) Class D airspace is more restrictive than Class E or Class G 
airspace; and
    (5) Class E is more restrictive than Class G airspace.



Sec. 71.11  Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes.

    Unless otherwise specified, the following apply:
    (a) An Air Traffic Service (ATS) route is based on a centerline that 
extends from one navigation aid, fix, or intersection, to another 
navigation aid, fix, or intersection (or through several navigation 
aids, fixes, or intersections) specified for that route.
    (b) An ATS route does not include the airspace of a prohibited area.

[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14698, 68 FR 16947, Apr. 8, 2003, as amended by Amdt. 
71-33, 70 FR 23004, May 3, 2005]



Sec. 71.13  Classification of Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes.

    Unless otherwise specified, ATS routes are classified as follows:
    (a) In subpart A of this part:
    (1) Jet routes.
    (2) Area navigation (RNAV) routes.
    (b) In subpart E of this part:
    (1) VOR Federal airways.
    (2) Colored Federal airways.
    (i) Green Federal airways.
    (ii) Amber Federal airways.
    (iii) Red Federal airways.
    (iv) Blue Federal airways.
    (3) Area navigation (RNAV) routes.

[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14698, 68 FR 16947, Apr. 8, 2003]



Sec. 71.15  Designation of jet routes and VOR Federal airways.

    Unless otherwise specified, the place names appearing in the 
descriptions of airspace areas designated as jet routes in subpart A 
ofFAA Order JO 7400.11G, and as VOR Federal airways in subpart E of FAA 
Order 7400.11E, are the names of VOR or VORTAC navigation aids.

[[Page 649]]

FAA Order 7400.11E is incorporated by reference in Sec. 71.1.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 
73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; 
Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55268, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 
26, 2011; Amdt. 71-44, 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71-45, 78 FR 
52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-
47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; 
Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40068, Aug. 24, 2017; Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 
28, 2018; Docket FAA-2019-0627, Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; 
Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. No. 71-53, 86 FR 46963, 
Aug. 23, 2021; Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 87 FR 54878, 
Sept. 8, 2022]

    Effective Date Note: By Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 
87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022, Sec. 71.15 was amended by removing the 
words ``FAA Order 7400.11F'' and adding, in their place, the words ``FAA 
Order JO 7400.11G'', effective Sept. 15, 2022, through Sept. 15, 2023.



                       Subpart A_Class A Airspace



Sec. 71.31  Class A airspace.

    The airspace descriptions contained in Sec. 71.33 and the routes 
contained in subpart A of FAA Order JO 7400.11G (incorporated by 
reference, see Sec. 71.1) are designated as Class A airspace within 
which all pilots and aircraft are subject to the rating requirements, 
operating rules, and equipment requirements of part 91 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 
73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; 
Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55268, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 
26, 2011; Amdt. 71-44, 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71-45, 78 FR 
52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-
47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; 
Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40068, Aug. 24, 2017; Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 
28, 2018; Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 
50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. No. 71-53, 86 FR 46963, Aug. 23, 2021; 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022]

    Effective Date Note: By Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 
87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022, Sec. 71.31 was amended by removing the 
words ``FAA Order 7400.11F'' and adding, in their place, the words ``FAA 
Order JO 7400.11G'', effective Sept. 15, 2022, through Sept. 15, 2023.



Sec. 71.33  Class A airspace areas.

    (a) That airspace of the United States, including that airspace 
overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 
contiguous States, from 18,000 feet MSL to and including FL600 excluding 
the states of Alaska and Hawaii.
    (b) That airspace of the State of Alaska, including that airspace 
overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast, from 18,000 
feet MSL to and including FL600 but not including the airspace less than 
1,500 feet above the surface of the earth and the Alaska Peninsula west 
of longitude 160[deg]00[min]00[sec] West.
    (c) The airspace areas listed as offshore airspace areas in subpart 
A of FAA Order JO 7400.11G (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) 
that are designated in international airspace within areas of domestic 
radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which 
domestic ATC procedures are applied.

[Amdt. 71-14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, 1991]

    Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting Sec. 
71.33, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the 
Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

    Effective Date Note: By Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 
87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022, Sec. 71.33 was amended in paragraph (c), by 
removing the words ``FAA Order 7400.11F'' and adding, in their place, 
the words ``FAA Order JO 7400.11G, effective Sept. 15, 2022, through 
Sept. 15, 2023.



                       Subpart B_Class B Airspace



Sec. 71.41  Class B airspace.

    The Class B airspace areas listed in subpart B of FAA Order JO 
7400.11G (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) consist of 
specified airspace within which all aircraft operators are subject to 
the minimum pilot qualification requirements, operating rules, and 
aircraft equipment requirements of part 91 of this chapter. Each Class B 
airspace area designated for an airport in subpart B of FAA Order JO 
7400.11G (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) contains at least 
one primary airport

[[Page 650]]

around which the airspace is designated.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 
73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; 
Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55268, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 
26, 2011; Amdt. 71-44, 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71-45, 78 FR 
52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-
47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; 
Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40068, Aug. 24, 2017; Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 
28, 2018; Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 
50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. No. 71-53, 86 FR 46963, Aug. 23, 2021; 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022]

    Effective Date Note: By Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 
87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022, Sec. 71.41 was amended by removing the 
words ``FAA Order 7400.11F'' and adding, in their place, the words ``FAA 
Order JO 7400.11G'', effective Sept. 15, 2022, through Sept. 15, 2023.



                       Subpart C_Class C Airspace



Sec. 71.51  Class C airspace.

    The Class C airspace areas listed in subpart C of FAA Order JO 
7400.11G (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) consist of 
specified airspace within which all aircraft operators are subject to 
operating rules and equipment requirements specified in part 91 of this 
chapter. Each Class C airspace area designated for an airport in subpart 
C of FAA Order JO 7400.11G. (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) 
contains at least one primary airport around which the airspace is 
designated.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 
73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; 
Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55269, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 
26, 2011; Amdt. 71-44, 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71-45, 78 FR 
52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-
47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; 
Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40068, Aug. 24, 2017; Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 
28, 2018; Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 
50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. No. 71-53, 86 FR 46963, Aug. 23, 2021; 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022]

    Effective Date Note: By Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 
87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022, Sec. 71.51 was amended by removing the 
words ``FAA Order 7400.11F'' and adding, in their place, the words ``FAA 
Order JO 7400.11G'', effective Sept. 15, 2022, through Sept. 15, 2023.



                       Subpart D_Class D Airspace



Sec. 71.61  Class D airspace.

    The Class D airspace areas listed in subpart D of FAA Order JO 
7400.11G (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) consist of 
specified airspace within which all aircraft operators are subject to 
operating rules and equipment requirements specified in part 91 of this 
chapter. Each Class D airspace area designated for an airport in subpart 
D of FAA Order JO 7400.11G (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) 
contains at least one primary airport around which the airspace is 
designated.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 
73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; 
Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55269, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 
26, 2011; Amdt. 71-44, 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71-45, 78 FR 
52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-
47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; 
Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40069, Aug. 24, 2017; Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 
28, 2018; Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 
50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. No. 71-53, 86 FR 46963, Aug. 23, 2021; 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022]

    Effective Date Note: By Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 
87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022, Sec. 71.61 was amended by removing the 
words ``FAA Order 7400.11F'' and adding, in their place, the words ``FAA 
Order JO 7400.11G'', effective Sept. 15, 2022, through Sept. 15, 2023.



                       Subpart E_Class E Airspace



Sec. 71.71  Class E airspace.

    Class E Airspace consists of:
    (a) The airspace of the United States, including that airspace 
overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 
contiguous states and Alaska, extending upward from 14,500 feet MSL up 
to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL, and the airspace above FL600, 
excluding--
    (1) The Alaska peninsula west of longitude 160[deg]00[min]00[sec] 
W.; and
    (2) The airspace below 1,500 feet above the surface of the earth.

[[Page 651]]

    (b) The airspace areas designated for an airport in subpart E of FAA 
Order JO 7400.11G (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) within 
which all aircraft operators are subject to the operating rules 
specified in part 91 of this chapter.
    (c) The airspace areas listed as domestic airspace areas in subpart 
E of FAA Order JO 7400.11G (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) 
which extend upward from 700 feet or more above the surface of the earth 
when designated in conjunction with an airport for which an approved 
instrument approach procedure has been prescribed, or from 1,200 feet or 
more above the surface of the earth for the purpose of transitioning to 
or from the terminal or en route environment. When such areas are 
designated in conjunction with airways or routes, the extent of such 
designation has the lateral extent identical to that of a Federal airway 
and extends upward from 1,200 feet or higher. Unless otherwise 
specified, the airspace areas in the paragraph extend upward from 1,200 
feet or higher above the surface to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.
    (d) The Federal airways described in subpart E of FAA Order JO 
7400.11G (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1).
    (e) The airspace areas listed as en route domestic airspace areas in 
subpart E of FAA Order JO 7400.11G (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 
71.1). Unless otherwise specified, each airspace area has a lateral 
extent identical to that of a Federal airway and extends upward from 
1,200 feet above the surface of the earth to the overlying or adjacent 
controlled airspace.
    (f) The airspace areas listed as offshore airspace areas in subpart 
E of FAA Order JO 7400.11G (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) 
that are designated in international airspace within areas of domestic 
radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which 
domestic ATC procedures are applied. Unless otherwise specified, each 
airspace area extends upward from a specified altitude up to, but not 
including, 18,000 feet MSL.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 
73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; 
Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55269, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 
26, 2011; Amdt. 71-44, 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71-45, 78 FR 
52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-
47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; 
Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40069, Aug. 24, 2017; Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 
28, 2018; Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 
50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. No. 71-53, 86 FR 46963, Aug. 23, 2021; 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022]

    Effective Date Note: By Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 
87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022, Sec. 71.71 was amended in paragraphs (b) 
through (f), by removing the words ``FAA Order 7400.11F'' and adding, in 
their place, the words ``FAA Order JO 7400.11G'', effective Sept. 15, 
2022, through Sept. 15, 2023.

Subparts F-G [Reserved]



                       Subpart H_Reporting Points



Sec. 71.901  Applicability.

    Unless otherwise designated:
    (a) Each reporting point listed in subpart H of FAA Order JO 
7400.11G (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) applies to all 
directions of flight. In any case where a geographic location is 
designated as a reporting point for less than all airways passing 
through that point, or for a particular direction of flight along an 
airway only, it is so indicated by including the airways or direction of 
flight in the designation of geographical location.
    (b) Place names appearing in the reporting point descriptions 
indicate

[[Page 652]]

VOR or VORTAC facilities identified by those names.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 
73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008; Amdt. 71-41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; 
Amdt. 71-42, 75 FR 55269, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. 71-43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 
26, 2011; Amdt. 71-44, 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71-45, 78 FR 
52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71-46, 79 FR 51888, Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71-
47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. 27, 2015; Amdt. 71-48, 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; 
Amdt. 71-49, 82 FR 40069, Aug. 24, 2017; Amdt. 71-50, 83 FR 43757, Aug. 
28, 2018; Amdt. 71-51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Amdt. 71-52, 85 FR 
50780, Aug. 18, 2020; Amdt. No. 71-53, 86 FR 46963, Aug. 23, 2021; 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022]

    Effective Date Note: By Docket No. FAA-2022-1022, Amdt. No. 71-54, 
87 FR 54878, Sept. 8, 2022, Sec. 71.901 was amended by removing the 
words ``FAA Order 7400.11F'' and adding, in their place, the words ``FAA 
Order JO 7400.11G'', effective Sept. 15, 2022, through Sept. 15, 2023.



PART 73_SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE--Table of Contents



                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
73.1 Applicability.
73.3 Special use airspace.
73.5 Bearings; radials; miles.

                       Subpart B_Restricted Areas

73.11 Applicability.
73.13 Restrictions.
73.15 Using agency.
73.17 Controlling agency.
73.19 Reports by using agency.

                       Subpart C_Prohibited Areas

73.81 Applicability.
73.83 Restrictions.
73.85 Using agency.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 
10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.

    Source: 46 FR 779, Jan. 2, 1981, unless otherwise noted.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 73.1  Applicability.

    The airspace that is described in subpart B and subpart C of this 
part is designated as special use airspace. These parts prescribe the 
requirements for the use of that airspace.



Sec. 73.3  Special use airspace.

    (a) Special use airspace consists of airspace of defined dimensions 
identified by an area on the surface of the earth wherein activities 
must be confined because of their nature, or wherein limitations are 
imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those 
activities, or both.
    (b) The vertical limits of special use airspace are measured by 
designated altitude floors and ceilings expressed as flight levels or as 
feet above mean sea level. Unless otherwise specified, the word ``to'' 
(an altitude or flight level) means ``to and including'' (that altitude 
or flight level).
    (c) The horizontal limits of special use airspace are measured by 
boundaries described by geographic coordinates or other appropriate 
references that clearly define their perimeter.
    (d) The period of time during which a designation of special use 
airspace is in effect is stated in the designation.



Sec. 73.5  Bearings; radials; miles.

    (a) All bearings and radials in this part are true from point of 
origin.
    (b) Unless otherwise specified, all mileages in this part are stated 
as statute miles.



                       Subpart B_Restricted Areas



Sec. 73.11  Applicability.

    This subpart designates restricted areas and prescribes limitations 
on the operation of aircraft within them.



Sec. 73.13  Restrictions.

    No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area between 
the designated altitudes and during the time of designation, unless he 
has the advance permission of
    (a) The using agency described in Sec. 73.15; or
    (b) The controlling agency described in Sec. 73.17.



Sec. 73.15  Using agency.

    (a) For the purposes of this subpart, the following are using 
agencies;
    (1) The agency, organization, or military command whose activity 
within a restricted area necessitated the area being so designated.

[[Page 653]]

    (b) Upon the request of the FAA, the using agency shall execute a 
letter establishing procedures for joint use of a restricted area by the 
using agency and the controlling agency, under which the using agency 
would notify the controlling agency whenever the controlling agency may 
grant permission for transit through the restricted area in accordance 
with the terms of the letter.
    (c) The using agency shall--
    (1) Schedule activities within the restricted area;
    (2) Authorize transit through, or flight within, the restricted area 
as feasible; and
    (3) Contain within the restricted area all activities conducted 
therein in accordance with the purpose for which it was designated.



Sec. 73.17  Controlling agency.

    For the purposes of this part, the controlling agency is the FAA 
facility that may authorize transit through or flight within a 
restricted area in accordance with a joint-use letter issued under Sec. 
73.15.



Sec. 73.19  Reports by using agency.

    (a) Each using agency must prepare a report on the use of each 
restricted area assigned thereto during any part of the preceding 12-
month period ended September 30, and transmit it by the following 
January 31 of each year to the Manager, Operations Support Group in the 
ATO Service Center office of the Federal Aviation Administration having 
jurisdiction over the area in which the restricted area is located, with 
a copy to the Manager, Airspace Policy Group, Federal Aviation 
Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591.
    (b) In the report under this section the using agency must:
    (1) State the name and number of the restricted area as published in 
this part, and the period covered by the report.
    (2) State the activities (including average daily number of 
operations if appropriate) conducted in the area, and any other 
pertinent information concerning current and future electronic 
monitoring devices.
    (3) State the number of hours daily, the days of the week, and the 
number of weeks during the year that the area was used.
    (4) For restricted areas having a joint-use designation, also state 
the number of hours daily, the days of the week, and the number of weeks 
during the year that the restricted area was released to the controlling 
agency for public use.
    (5) State the mean sea level altitudes or flight levels (whichever 
is appropriate) used in aircraft operations and the maximum and average 
ordinate of surface firing (expressed in feet, mean sea level altitude) 
used on a daily, weekly, and yearly basis.
    (6) Include a chart of the area (of optional scale and design) 
depicting, if used, aircraft operating areas, flight patterns, ordnance 
delivery areas, surface firing points, and target, fan, and impact 
areas. After once submitting an appropriate chart, subsequent annual 
charts are not required unless there is a change in the area, activity 
or altitude (or flight levels) used, which might alter the depiction of 
the activities originally reported. If no change is to be submitted, a 
statement indicating ``no change'' shall be included in the report.
    (7) Include any other information not otherwise required under this 
part which is considered pertinent to activities carried on in the 
restricted area.
    (c) If it is determined that the information submitted under 
paragraph (b) of this section is not sufficient to evaluate the nature 
and extent of the use of a restricted area, the FAA may request the 
using agency to submit supplementary reports. Within 60 days after 
receiving a request for additional information, the using agency must 
submit such information as the FAA Service Center Operations Support 
Group Manager considers appropriate. Supplementary reports must be sent 
to

[[Page 654]]

the FAA officials designated in paragraph (a) of this section.

(Secs. 307 and 313(a), Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1348 and 
1354(a)))

[Doc. No. 15379, 42 FR 54798, Oct. 11, 1977, as amended by Amdt. 73-5, 
54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 73-6, 58 FR 42001, Aug. 6, 1993; 
Amdt. 73-8, 61 FR 26435, May 28, 1996; Amdt. 73-8, 63 FR 16890, Apr. 7, 
1998; Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 73-1, 87 FR 75845, Dec. 9, 
2022]

    Editorial Note: The restricted areas formerly carried as Sec. Sec. 
608.21 to 608.72 of this title were transferred to part 73 as Sec. Sec. 
73.21 to 73.72 under subpart B but are not carried in the Code of 
Federal Regulations. For Federal Register citations affecting these 
restricted areas, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears 
in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at 
www.govinfo.gov.



                       Subpart C_Prohibited Areas



Sec. 73.81  Applicability.

    This subpart designates prohibited areas and prescribes limitations 
on the operation of aircraft therein.



Sec. 73.83  Restrictions.

    No person may operate an aircraft within a prohibited area unless 
authorization has been granted by the using agency.



Sec. 73.85  Using agency.

    For the purpose of this subpart, the using agency is the agency, 
organization or military command that established the requirements for 
the prohibited area.

    Editorial Note: Sections 73.87 through 73.99 are reserved for 
descriptions of designated prohibited areas. For Federal Register 
citations affecting these prohibited areas, see the List of CFR Sections 
Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed 
volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

                           PART 75 [RESERVED]



PART 77_SAFE, EFFICIENT USE, AND PRESERVATION OF THE
NAVIGABLE AIRSPACE--Table of Contents



                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
77.1 Purpose.
77.3 Definitions.

                      Subpart B_Notice Requirements

77.5 Applicability.
77.7 Form and time of notice.
77.9 Construction or alteration requiring notice.
77.11 Supplemental notice requirements.

 Subpart C_Standards for Determining Obstructions to Air Navigation or 
                     Navigational Aids or Facilities

77.13 Applicability.
77.15 Scope.
77.17 Obstruction standards.
77.19 Civil airport imaginary surfaces.
77.21 Department of Defense (DOD) airport imaginary surfaces.
77.23 Heliport imaginary surfaces.

            Subpart D_Aeronautical Studies and Determinations

77.25 Applicability.
77.27 Initiation of studies.
77.29 Evaluating aeronautical effect.
77.31 Determinations.
77.33 Effective period of determinations.
77.35 Extensions, terminations, revisions and corrections.

              Subpart E_Petitions for Discretionary Review

77.37 General.
77.39 Contents of a petition.
77.41 Discretionary review results.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106 (g), 40103, 40113-40114, 44502, 44701, 
44718, 46101-46102, 46104.

    Source: Docket No. FAA-2006-25002, 75 FR 42303, July 21, 2010, 
unless otherwise noted.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 77.1  Purpose.

    This part establishes:
    (a) The requirements to provide notice to the FAA of certain 
proposed construction, or the alteration of existing structures;
    (b) The standards used to determine obstructions to air navigation, 
and navigational and communication facilities;
    (c) The process for aeronautical studies of obstructions to air 
navigation or navigational facilities to determine the effect on the 
safe and efficient use of navigable airspace, air navigation facilities 
or equipment; and

[[Page 655]]

    (d) The process to petition the FAA for discretionary review of 
determinations, revisions, and extensions of determinations.



Sec. 77.3  Definitions.

    For the purpose of this part:
    Non-precision instrument runway means a runway having an existing 
instrument approach procedure utilizing air navigation facilities with 
only horizontal guidance, or area type navigation equipment, for which a 
straight-in non-precision instrument approach procedure has been 
approved, or planned, and for which no precision approach facilities are 
planned, or indicated on an FAA planning document or military service 
military airport planning document.
    Planned or proposed airport is an airport that is the subject of at 
least one of the following documents received by the FAA:
    (1) Airport proposals submitted under 14 CFR part 157.
    (2) Airport Improvement Program requests for aid.
    (3) Notices of existing airports where prior notice of the airport 
construction or alteration was not provided as required by 14 CFR part 
157.
    (4) Airport layout plans.
    (5) DOD proposals for airports used only by the U.S. Armed Forces.
    (6) DOD proposals on joint-use (civil-military) airports.
    (7) Completed airport site selection feasibility study.
    Precision instrument runway means a runway having an existing 
instrument approach procedure utilizing an Instrument Landing System 
(ILS), or a Precision Approach Radar (PAR). It also means a runway for 
which a precision approach system is planned and is so indicated by an 
FAA-approved airport layout plan; a military service approved military 
airport layout plan; any other FAA planning document, or military 
service military airport planning document.
    Public use airport is an airport available for use by the general 
public without a requirement for prior approval of the airport owner or 
operator.
    Seaplane base is considered to be an airport only if its sea lanes 
are outlined by visual markers.
    Utility runway means a runway that is constructed for and intended 
to be used by propeller driven aircraft of 12,500 pounds maximum gross 
weight and less.
    Visual runway means a runway intended solely for the operation of 
aircraft using visual approach procedures, with no straight-in 
instrument approach procedure and no instrument designation indicated on 
an FAA-approved airport layout plan, a military service approved 
military airport layout plan, or by any planning document submitted to 
the FAA by competent authority.



                      Subpart B_Notice Requirements



Sec. 77.5  Applicability.

    (a) If you propose any construction or alteration described in Sec. 
77.9, you must provide adequate notice to the FAA of that construction 
or alteration.
    (b) If requested by the FAA, you must also file supplemental notice 
before the start date and upon completion of certain construction or 
alterations that are described in Sec. 77.9.
    (c) Notice received by the FAA under this subpart is used to:
    (1) Evaluate the effect of the proposed construction or alteration 
on safety in air commerce and the efficient use and preservation of the 
navigable airspace and of airport traffic capacity at public use 
airports;
    (2) Determine whether the effect of proposed construction or 
alteration is a hazard to air navigation;
    (3) Determine appropriate marking and lighting recommendations, 
using FAA Advisory Circular 70/7460-1, Obstruction Marking and Lighting;
    (4) Determine other appropriate measures to be applied for continued 
safety of air navigation; and
    (5) Notify the aviation community of the construction or alteration 
of objects that affect the navigable airspace, including the revision of 
charts, when necessary.



Sec. 77.7  Form and time of notice.

    (a) If you are required to file notice under Sec. 77.9, you must 
submit to the FAA a completed FAA Form 7460-1, Notice of Proposed 
Construction or Alteration. FAA Form 7460-1 is available

[[Page 656]]

at FAA regional offices and on the Internet.
    (b) You must submit this form at least 45 days before the start date 
of the proposed construction or alteration or the date an application 
for a construction permit is filed, whichever is earliest.
    (c) If you propose construction or alteration that is also subject 
to the licensing requirements of the Federal Communications Commission 
(FCC), you must submit notice to the FAA on or before the date that the 
application is filed with the FCC.
    (d) If you propose construction or alteration to an existing 
structure that exceeds 2,000 ft. in height above ground level (AGL), the 
FAA presumes it to be a hazard to air navigation that results in an 
inefficient use of airspace. You must include details explaining both 
why the proposal would not constitute a hazard to air navigation and why 
it would not cause an inefficient use of airspace.
    (e) The 45-day advance notice requirement is waived if immediate 
construction or alteration is required because of an emergency involving 
essential public services, public health, or public safety. You may 
provide notice to the FAA by any available, expeditious means. You must 
file a completed FAA Form 7460-1 within 5 days of the initial notice to 
the FAA. Outside normal business hours, the nearest flight service 
station will accept emergency notices.



Sec. 77.9  Construction or alteration requiring notice.

    If requested by the FAA, or if you propose any of the following 
types of construction or alteration, you must file notice with the FAA 
of:
    (a) Any construction or alteration that is more than 200 ft. AGL at 
its site.
    (b) Any construction or alteration that exceeds an imaginary surface 
extending outward and upward at any of the following slopes:
    (1) 100 to 1 for a horizontal distance of 20,000 ft. from the 
nearest point of the nearest runway of each airport described in 
paragraph (d) of this section with its longest runway more than 3,200 
ft. in actual length, excluding heliports.
    (2) 50 to 1 for a horizontal distance of 10,000 ft. from the nearest 
point of the nearest runway of each airport described in paragraph (d) 
of this section with its longest runway no more than 3,200 ft. in actual 
length, excluding heliports.
    (3) 25 to 1 for a horizontal distance of 5,000 ft. from the nearest 
point of the nearest landing and takeoff area of each heliport described 
in paragraph (d) of this section.
    (c) Any highway, railroad, or other traverse way for mobile objects, 
of a height which, if adjusted upward 17 feet for an Interstate Highway 
that is part of the National System of Military and Interstate Highways 
where overcrossings are designed for a minimum of 17 feet vertical 
distance, 15 feet for any other public roadway, 10 feet or the height of 
the highest mobile object that would normally traverse the road, 
whichever is greater, for a private road, 23 feet for a railroad, and 
for a waterway or any other traverse way not previously mentioned, an 
amount equal to the height of the highest mobile object that would 
normally traverse it, would exceed a standard of paragraph (a) or (b) of 
this section.
    (d) Any construction or alteration on any of the following airports 
and heliports:
    (1) A public use airport listed in the Airport/Facility Directory, 
Alaska Supplement, or Pacific Chart Supplement of the U.S. Government 
Flight Information Publications;
    (2) A military airport under construction, or an airport under 
construction that will be available for public use;
    (3) An airport operated by a Federal agency or the DOD.
    (4) An airport or heliport with at least one FAA-approved instrument 
approach procedure.
    (e) You do not need to file notice for construction or alteration 
of:
    (1) Any object that will be shielded by existing structures of a 
permanent and substantial nature or by natural terrain or topographic 
features of equal or greater height, and will be located in the 
congested area of a city, town,

[[Page 657]]

or settlement where the shielded structure will not adversely affect 
safety in air navigation;
    (2) Any air navigation facility, airport visual approach or landing 
aid, aircraft arresting device, or meteorological device meeting FAA-
approved siting criteria or an appropriate military service siting 
criteria on military airports, the location and height of which are 
fixed by its functional purpose;
    (3) Any construction or alteration for which notice is required by 
any other FAA regulation.
    (4) Any antenna structure of 20 feet or less in height, except one 
that would increase the height of another antenna structure.



Sec. 77.11  Supplemental notice requirements.

    (a) You must file supplemental notice with the FAA when:
    (1) The construction or alteration is more than 200 feet in height 
AGL at its site; or
    (2) Requested by the FAA.
    (b) You must file supplemental notice on a prescribed FAA form to be 
received within the time limits specified in the FAA determination. If 
no time limit has been specified, you must submit supplemental notice of 
construction to the FAA within 5 days after the structure reaches its 
greatest height.
    (c) If you abandon a construction or alteration proposal that 
requires supplemental notice, you must submit notice to the FAA within 5 
days after the project is abandoned.
    (d) If the construction or alteration is dismantled or destroyed, 
you must submit notice to the FAA within 5 days after the construction 
or alteration is dismantled or destroyed.



 Subpart C_Standards for Determining Obstructions to Air Navigation or 
                     Navigational Aids or Facilities



Sec. 77.13  Applicability.

    This subpart describes the standards used for determining 
obstructions to air navigation, navigational aids, or navigational 
facilities. These standards apply to the following:
    (a) Any object of natural growth, terrain, or permanent or temporary 
construction or alteration, including equipment or materials used and 
any permanent or temporary apparatus.
    (b) The alteration of any permanent or temporary existing structure 
by a change in its height, including appurtenances, or lateral 
dimensions, including equipment or material used therein.



Sec. 77.15  Scope.

    (a) This subpart describes standards used to determine obstructions 
to air navigation that may affect the safe and efficient use of 
navigable airspace and the operation of planned or existing air 
navigation and communication facilities. Such facilities include air 
navigation aids, communication equipment, airports, Federal airways, 
instrument approach or departure procedures, and approved off-airway 
routes.
    (b) Objects that are considered obstructions under the standards 
described in this subpart are presumed hazards to air navigation unless 
further aeronautical study concludes that the object is not a hazard. 
Once further aeronautical study has been initiated, the FAA will use the 
standards in this subpart, along with FAA policy and guidance material, 
to determine if the object is a hazard to air navigation.
    (c) The FAA will apply these standards with reference to an existing 
airport facility, and airport proposals received by the FAA, or the 
appropriate military service, before it issues a final determination.
    (d) For airports having defined runways with specially prepared hard 
surfaces, the primary surface for each runway extends 200 feet beyond 
each end of the runway. For airports having defined strips or pathways 
used regularly for aircraft takeoffs and landings, and designated 
runways, without specially prepared hard surfaces, each end of the 
primary surface for each such runway shall coincide with the 
corresponding end of the runway. At airports, excluding seaplane bases, 
having a defined landing and takeoff area with no defined pathways for 
aircraft takeoffs and landings, a determination must be made as to which 
portions of the landing and takeoff area are regularly used

[[Page 658]]

as landing and takeoff pathways. Those determined pathways must be 
considered runways, and an appropriate primary surface as defined in 
Sec. 77.19 will be considered as longitudinally centered on each such 
runway. Each end of that primary surface must coincide with the 
corresponding end of that runway.
    (e) The standards in this subpart apply to construction or 
alteration proposals on an airport (including heliports and seaplane 
bases with marked lanes) if that airport is one of the following before 
the issuance of the final determination:
    (1) Available for public use and is listed in the Airport/Facility 
Directory, Supplement Alaska, or Supplement Pacific of the U.S. 
Government Flight Information Publications; or
    (2) A planned or proposed airport or an airport under construction 
of which the FAA has received actual notice, except DOD airports, where 
there is a clear indication the airport will be available for public 
use; or,
    (3) An airport operated by a Federal agency or the DOD; or,
    (4) An airport that has at least one FAA-approved instrument 
approach.



Sec. 77.17  Obstruction standards.

    (a) An existing object, including a mobile object, is, and a future 
object would be an obstruction to air navigation if it is of greater 
height than any of the following heights or surfaces:
    (1) A height of 499 feet AGL at the site of the object.
    (2) A height that is 200 feet AGL, or above the established airport 
elevation, whichever is higher, within 3 nautical miles of the 
established reference point of an airport, excluding heliports, with its 
longest runway more than 3,200 feet in actual length, and that height 
increases in the proportion of 100 feet for each additional nautical 
mile from the airport up to a maximum of 499 feet.
    (3) A height within a terminal obstacle clearance area, including an 
initial approach segment, a departure area, and a circling approach 
area, which would result in the vertical distance between any point on 
the object and an established minimum instrument flight altitude within 
that area or segment to be less than the required obstacle clearance.
    (4) A height within an en route obstacle clearance area, including 
turn and termination areas, of a Federal Airway or approved off-airway 
route, that would increase the minimum obstacle clearance altitude.
    (5) The surface of a takeoff and landing area of an airport or any 
imaginary surface established under Sec. 77.19, 77.21, or 77.23. 
However, no part of the takeoff or landing area itself will be 
considered an obstruction.
    (b) Except for traverse ways on or near an airport with an operative 
ground traffic control service furnished by an airport traffic control 
tower or by the airport management and coordinated with the air traffic 
control service, the standards of paragraph (a) of this section apply to 
traverse ways used or to be used for the passage of mobile objects only 
after the heights of these traverse ways are increased by:
    (1) 17 feet for an Interstate Highway that is part of the National 
System of Military and Interstate Highways where overcrossings are 
designed for a minimum of 17 feet vertical distance.
    (2) 15 feet for any other public roadway.
    (3) 10 feet or the height of the highest mobile object that would 
normally traverse the road, whichever is greater, for a private road.
    (4) 23 feet for a railroad.
    (5) For a waterway or any other traverse way not previously 
mentioned, an amount equal to the height of the highest mobile object 
that would normally traverse it.



Sec. 77.19  Civil airport imaginary surfaces.

    The following civil airport imaginary surfaces are established with 
relation to the airport and to each runway. The size of each such 
imaginary surface is based on the category of each runway according to 
the type of approach available or planned for that runway. The slope and 
dimensions of the approach surface applied to each end of a runway are 
determined by the most precise approach procedure existing or planned 
for that runway end.

[[Page 659]]

    (a) Horizontal surface. A horizontal plane 150 feet above the 
established airport elevation, the perimeter of which is constructed by 
swinging arcs of a specified radii from the center of each end of the 
primary surface of each runway of each airport and connecting the 
adjacent arcs by lines tangent to those arcs. The radius of each arc is:
    (1) 5,000 feet for all runways designated as utility or visual;
    (2) 10,000 feet for all other runways. The radius of the arc 
specified for each end of a runway will have the same arithmetical 
value. That value will be the highest determined for either end of the 
runway. When a 5,000-foot arc is encompassed by tangents connecting two 
adjacent 10,000-foot arcs, the 5,000-foot arc shall be disregarded on 
the construction of the perimeter of the horizontal surface.
    (b) Conical surface. A surface extending outward and upward from the 
periphery of the horizontal surface at a slope of 20 to 1 for a 
horizontal distance of 4,000 feet.
    (c) Primary surface. A surface longitudinally centered on a runway. 
When the runway has a specially prepared hard surface, the primary 
surface extends 200 feet beyond each end of that runway; but when the 
runway has no specially prepared hard surface, the primary surface ends 
at each end of that runway. The elevation of any point on the primary 
surface is the same as the elevation of the nearest point on the runway 
centerline. The width of the primary surface is:
    (1) 250 feet for utility runways having only visual approaches.
    (2) 500 feet for utility runways having non-precision instrument 
approaches.
    (3) For other than utility runways, the width is:
    (i) 500 feet for visual runways having only visual approaches.
    (ii) 500 feet for non-precision instrument runways having visibility 
minimums greater than three-fourths statute mile.
    (iii) 1,000 feet for a non-precision instrument runway having a non-
precision instrument approach with visibility minimums as low as three-
fourths of a statute mile, and for precision instrument runways.
    (iv) The width of the primary surface of a runway will be that width 
prescribed in this section for the most precise approach existing or 
planned for either end of that runway.
    (d) Approach surface. A surface longitudinally centered on the 
extended runway centerline and extending outward and upward from each 
end of the primary surface. An approach surface is applied to each end 
of each runway based upon the type of approach available or planned for 
that runway end.
    (1) The inner edge of the approach surface is the same width as the 
primary surface and it expands uniformly to a width of:
    (i) 1,250 feet for that end of a utility runway with only visual 
approaches;
    (ii) 1,500 feet for that end of a runway other than a utility runway 
with only visual approaches;
    (iii) 2,000 feet for that end of a utility runway with a non-
precision instrument approach;
    (iv) 3,500 feet for that end of a non-precision instrument runway 
other than utility, having visibility minimums greater that three-
fourths of a statute mile;
    (v) 4,000 feet for that end of a non-precision instrument runway, 
other than utility, having a non-precision instrument approach with 
visibility minimums as low as three-fourths statute mile; and
    (vi) 16,000 feet for precision instrument runways.
    (2) The approach surface extends for a horizontal distance of:
    (i) 5,000 feet at a slope of 20 to 1 for all utility and visual 
runways;
    (ii) 10,000 feet at a slope of 34 to 1 for all non-precision 
instrument runways other than utility; and
    (iii) 10,000 feet at a slope of 50 to 1 with an additional 40,000 
feet at a slope of 40 to 1 for all precision instrument runways.
    (3) The outer width of an approach surface to an end of a runway 
will be that width prescribed in this subsection for the most precise 
approach existing or planned for that runway end.
    (e) Transitional surface. These surfaces extend outward and upward 
at right angles to the runway centerline and the runway centerline 
extended at

[[Page 660]]

a slope of 7 to 1 from the sides of the primary surface and from the 
sides of the approach surfaces. Transitional surfaces for those portions 
of the precision approach surface which project through and beyond the 
limits of the conical surface, extend a distance of 5,000 feet measured 
horizontally from the edge of the approach surface and at right angles 
to the runway centerline.



Sec. 77.21  Department of Defense (DOD) airport imaginary surfaces.

    (a) Related to airport reference points. These surfaces apply to all 
military airports. For the purposes of this section, a military airport 
is any airport operated by the DOD.
    (1) Inner horizontal surface. A plane that is oval in shape at a 
height of 150 feet above the established airfield elevation. The plane 
is constructed by scribing an arc with a radius of 7,500 feet about the 
centerline at the end of each runway and interconnecting these arcs with 
tangents.
    (2) Conical surface. A surface extending from the periphery of the 
inner horizontal surface outward and upward at a slope of 20 to 1 for a 
horizontal distance of 7,000 feet to a height of 500 feet above the 
established airfield elevation.
    (3) Outer horizontal surface. A plane, located 500 feet above the 
established airfield elevation, extending outward from the outer 
periphery of the conical surface for a horizontal distance of 30,000 
feet.
    (b) Related to runways. These surfaces apply to all military 
airports.
    (1) Primary surface. A surface located on the ground or water 
longitudinally centered on each runway with the same length as the 
runway. The width of the primary surface for runways is 2,000 feet. 
However, at established bases where substantial construction has taken 
place in accordance with a previous lateral clearance criteria, the 
2,000-foot width may be reduced to the former criteria.
    (2) Clear zone surface. A surface located on the ground or water at 
each end of the primary surface, with a length of 1,000 feet and the 
same width as the primary surface.
    (3) Approach clearance surface. An inclined plane, symmetrical about 
the runway centerline extended, beginning 200 feet beyond each end of 
the primary surface at the centerline elevation of the runway end and 
extending for 50,000 feet. The slope of the approach clearance surface 
is 50 to 1 along the runway centerline extended until it reaches an 
elevation of 500 feet above the established airport elevation. It then 
continues horizontally at this elevation to a point 50,000 feet from the 
point of beginning. The width of this surface at the runway end is the 
same as the primary surface, it flares uniformly, and the width at 
50,000 is 16,000 feet.
    (4) Transitional surfaces. These surfaces connect the primary 
surfaces, the first 200 feet of the clear zone surfaces, and the 
approach clearance surfaces to the inner horizontal surface, conical 
surface, outer horizontal surface or other transitional surfaces. The 
slope of the transitional surface is 7 to 1 outward and upward at right 
angles to the runway centerline.



Sec. 77.23  Heliport imaginary surfaces.

    (a) Primary surface. The area of the primary surface coincides in 
size and shape with the designated take-off and landing area. This 
surface is a horizontal plane at the elevation of the established 
heliport elevation.
    (b) Approach surface. The approach surface begins at each end of the 
heliport primary surface with the same width as the primary surface, and 
extends outward and upward for a horizontal distance of 4,000 feet where 
its width is 500 feet. The slope of the approach surface is 8 to 1 for 
civil heliports and 10 to 1 for military heliports.
    (c) Transitional surfaces. These surfaces extend outward and upward 
from the lateral boundaries of the primary surface and from the approach 
surfaces at a slope of 2 to 1 for a distance of 250 feet measured 
horizontally from the centerline of the primary and approach surfaces.



            Subpart D_Aeronautical Studies and Determinations



Sec. 77.25  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart applies to any aeronautical study of a proposed 
construction or alteration for which notice to the FAA is required under 
Sec. 77.9.

[[Page 661]]

    (b) The purpose of an aeronautical study is to determine whether the 
aeronautical effects of the specific proposal and, where appropriate, 
the cumulative impact resulting from the proposed construction or 
alteration when combined with the effects of other existing or proposed 
structures, would constitute a hazard to air navigation.
    (c) The obstruction standards in subpart C of this part are 
supplemented by other manuals and directives used in determining the 
effect on the navigable airspace of a proposed construction or 
alteration. When the FAA needs additional information, it may circulate 
a study to interested parties for comment.



Sec. 77.27  Initiation of studies.

    The FAA will conduct an aeronautical study when:
    (a) Requested by the sponsor of any proposed construction or 
alteration for which a notice is submitted; or
    (b) The FAA determines a study is necessary.



Sec. 77.29  Evaluating aeronautical effect.

    (a) The FAA conducts an aeronautical study to determine the impact 
of a proposed structure, an existing structure that has not yet been 
studied by the FAA, or an alteration of an existing structure on 
aeronautical operations, procedures, and the safety of flight. These 
studies include evaluating:
    (1) The impact on arrival, departure, and en route procedures for 
aircraft operating under visual flight rules;
    (2) The impact on arrival, departure, and en route procedures for 
aircraft operating under instrument flight rules;
    (3) The impact on existing and planned public use airports;
    (4) Airport traffic capacity of existing public use airports and 
public use airport development plans received before the issuance of the 
final determination;
    (5) Minimum obstacle clearance altitudes, minimum instrument flight 
rules altitudes, approved or planned instrument approach procedures, and 
departure procedures;
    (6) The potential effect on ATC radar, direction finders, ATC tower 
line-of-sight visibility, and physical or electromagnetic effects on air 
navigation, communication facilities, and other surveillance systems;
    (7) The aeronautical effects resulting from the cumulative impact of 
a proposed construction or alteration of a structure when combined with 
the effects of other existing or proposed structures.
    (b) If you withdraw the proposed construction or alteration or 
revise it so that it is no longer identified as an obstruction, or if no 
further aeronautical study is necessary, the FAA may terminate the 
study.



Sec. 77.31  Determinations.

    (a) The FAA will issue a determination stating whether the proposed 
construction or alteration would be a hazard to air navigation, and will 
advise all known interested persons.
    (b) The FAA will make determinations based on the aeronautical study 
findings and will identify the following:
    (1) The effects on VFR/IFR aeronautical departure/arrival 
operations, air traffic procedures, minimum flight altitudes, and 
existing, planned, or proposed airports listed in Sec. 77.15(e) of 
which the FAA has received actual notice prior to issuance of a final 
determination.
    (2) The extent of the physical and/or electromagnetic effect on the 
operation of existing or proposed air navigation facilities, 
communication aids, or surveillance systems.
    (c) The FAA will issue a Determination of Hazard to Air Navigation 
when the aeronautical study concludes that the proposed construction or 
alteration will exceed an obstruction standard and would have a 
substantial aeronautical impact.
    (d) A Determination of No Hazard to Air Navigation will be issued 
when the aeronautical study concludes that the proposed construction or 
alteration will exceed an obstruction standard but would not have a 
substantial aeronautical impact to air navigation. A Determination of No 
Hazard to Air Navigation may include the following:
    (1) Conditional provisions of a determination.

[[Page 662]]

    (2) Limitations necessary to minimize potential problems, such as 
the use of temporary construction equipment.
    (3) Supplemental notice requirements, when required.
    (4) Marking and lighting recommendations, as appropriate.
    (e) The FAA will issue a Determination of No Hazard to Air 
Navigation when a proposed structure does not exceed any of the 
obstruction standards and would not be a hazard to air navigation.



Sec. 77.33  Effective period of determinations.

    (a) The effective date of a determination not subject to 
discretionary review under 77.37(b) is the date of issuance. The 
effective date of all other determinations for a proposed or existing 
structure is 40 days from the date of issuance, provided a valid 
petition for review has not been received by the FAA. If a valid 
petition for review is filed, the determination will not become final, 
pending disposition of the petition.
    (b) Unless extended, revised, or terminated, each Determination of 
No Hazard to Air Navigation issued under this subpart expires 18 months 
after the effective date of the determination, or on the date the 
proposed construction or alteration is abandoned, whichever is earlier.
    (c) A Determination of Hazard to Air Navigation has no expiration 
date.

[Doc. No. FAA-2006-25002, 75 FR 42303, July 21, 2010, as amended by 
Amdt. 77-13-A, 76 FR 2802, Jan. 18, 2011]



Sec. 77.35  Extensions, terminations, revisions and corrections.

    (a) You may petition the FAA official that issued the Determination 
of No Hazard to Air Navigation to revise or reconsider the determination 
based on new facts or to extend the effective period of the 
determination, provided that:
    (1) Actual structural work of the proposed construction or 
alteration, such as the laying of a foundation, but not including 
excavation, has not been started; and
    (2) The petition is submitted at least 15 days before the expiration 
date of the Determination of No Hazard to Air Navigation.
    (b) A Determination of No Hazard to Air Navigation issued for those 
construction or alteration proposals not requiring an FCC construction 
permit may be extended by the FAA one time for a period not to exceed 18 
months.
    (c) A Determination of No Hazard to Air Navigation issued for a 
proposal requiring an FCC construction permit may be granted extensions 
for up to 18 months, provided that:
    (1) You submit evidence that an application for a construction 
permit/license was filed with the FCC for the associated site within 6 
months of issuance of the determination; and
    (2) You submit evidence that additional time is warranted because of 
FCC requirements; and
    (3) Where the FCC issues a construction permit, a final 
Determination of No Hazard to Air Navigation is effective until the date 
prescribed by the FCC for completion of the construction. If an 
extension of the original FCC completion date is needed, an extension of 
the FAA determination must be requested from the Obstruction Evaluation 
Service (OES).
    (4) If the Commission refuses to issue a construction permit, the 
final determination expires on the date of its refusal.



              Subpart E_Petitions for Discretionary Review



Sec. 77.37  General.

    (a) If you are the sponsor, provided a substantive aeronautical 
comment on a proposal in an aeronautical study, or have a substantive 
aeronautical comment on the proposal but were not given an opportunity 
to state it, you may petition the FAA for a discretionary review of a 
determination, revision, or extension of a determination issued by the 
FAA.
    (b) You may not file a petition for discretionary review for a 
Determination of No Hazard that is issued for a temporary structure, 
marking and lighting recommendation, or when a proposed structure or 
alteration does not exceed obstruction standards contained in subpart C 
of this part.

[[Page 663]]



Sec. 77.39  Contents of a petition.

    (a) You must file a petition for discretionary review in writing and 
it must be received by the FAA within 30 days after the issuance of a 
determination under Sec. 77.31, or a revision or extension of the 
determination under Sec. 77.35.
    (b) The petition must contain a full statement of the aeronautical 
basis on which the petition is made, and must include new information or 
facts not previously considered or presented during the aeronautical 
study, including valid aeronautical reasons why the determination, 
revisions, or extension made by the FAA should be reviewed.
    (c) In the event that the last day of the 30-day filing period falls 
on a weekend or a day the Federal government is closed, the last day of 
the filing period is the next day that the government is open.
    (d) The FAA will inform the petitioner or sponsor (if other than the 
petitioner) and the FCC (whenever an FCC-related proposal is involved) 
of the filing of the petition and that the determination is not final 
pending disposition of the petition.



Sec. 77.41  Discretionary review results.

    (a) If discretionary review is granted, the FAA will inform the 
petitioner and the sponsor (if other than the petitioner) of the issues 
to be studied and reviewed. The review may include a request for 
comments and a review of all records from the initial aeronautical 
study.
    (b) If discretionary review is denied, the FAA will notify the 
petitioner and the sponsor (if other than the petitioner), and the FCC, 
whenever a FCC-related proposal is involved, of the basis for the denial 
along with a statement that the determination is final.
    (c) After concluding the discretionary review process, the FAA will 
revise, affirm, or reverse the determination.

[[Page 664]]



          SUBCHAPTER F_AIR TRAFFIC AND GENERAL OPERATING RULES





PART 89_REMOTE IDENTIFICATION OF UNMANNED AIRCRAFT--Table of Contents



                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
89.1 Definitions.
89.5 Falsification, reproduction, alteration, or omission.

                    Subpart B_Operating Requirements

89.101 Applicability.
89.105 Remote identification requirement.
89.110 Operation of standard remote identification unmanned aircraft.
89.115 Alternative remote identification.
89.120 Operations for aeronautical research or to show compliance with 
          regulations.
89.125 Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out 
          prohibition.
89.130 Confirmation of identification.

              Subpart C_FAA-Recognized Identification Areas

89.201 Applicability.
89.205 Eligibility.
89.210 Requests for establishment of an FAA-recognized identification 
          area.
89.215 Approval of FAA-recognized identification areas.
89.220 Amendment.
89.225 Duration of an FAA-recognized identification area.
89.230 Expiration and termination.

   Subpart D_Requirements for Standard Remote Identification Unmanned 
          Aircraft and Remote Identification Broadcast Modules

89.301 Applicability.
89.305 Minimum message elements broadcast by standard remote 
          identification unmanned aircraft.
89.310 Minimum performance requirements for standard remote 
          identification unmanned aircraft.
89.315 Minimum message elements broadcast by remote identification 
          broadcast modules.
89.320 Minimum performance requirements for remote identification 
          broadcast modules.

                      Subpart E_Means of Compliance

89.401 Applicability.
89.405 Submission of a means of compliance for FAA acceptance.
89.410 Acceptance of a means of compliance.
89.415 Rescission.
89.420 Record retention.

         Subpart F_ Remote Identification Design and Production

89.501 Applicability.
89.505 Serial numbers.
89.510 Production requirements for unmanned aircraft produced under a 
          design approval or production approval issued under part 21 of 
          this chapter.
89.515 Production requirements for unmanned aircraft without design 
          approval or production approval issued under part 21 of this 
          chapter.
89.520 Production requirements for remote identification broadcast 
          modules.
89.525 Labeling.
89.530 Submission of a declaration of compliance for FAA acceptance.
89.535 Acceptance of a declaration of compliance.
89.540 Rescission and reconsideration.
89.545 Record retention.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40101(d), 40103(b), 44701, 
44805, 44809(f); Section 2202 of Pub. L. 114-190, 130 Stat. 629.

    Source: Amdt. No. 89-1, 86 FR 4505, Jan. 15, 2021, unless otherwise 
noted.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 89.1  Definitions.

    The following definitions apply to this part.
    Declaration of compliance means a record submitted to the FAA by the 
producer of a standard remote identification unmanned aircraft or remote 
identification broadcast module to attest that all the requirements of 
subpart F of this part have been met.
    Home-built unmanned aircraft means an unmanned aircraft that an 
individual built solely for education or recreation.



Sec. 89.5  Falsification, reproduction, alteration, or omission.

    (a) No person may make or cause to be made any of the following:
    (1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement in any document 
related to any acceptance, application, approval, authorization, 
certificate,

[[Page 665]]

declaration, designation, qualification, record, report, request for 
reconsideration, or similar, submitted under this part.
    (2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement in any document 
required to be developed, provided, kept, or used to show compliance 
with any requirement under this part.
    (3) Any reproduction or alteration, for fraudulent purpose, of any 
document related to any acceptance, application, approval, 
authorization, certificate, declaration, designation, qualification, 
record, report, request for reconsideration, or similar, submitted or 
granted under this part.
    (b) No person may, by omission, knowingly conceal or cause to be 
concealed, a material fact in--
    (1) Any document related to any acceptance, application, approval, 
authorization, certificate, declaration, designation, qualification, 
record, report, request for reconsideration, or similar, submitted under 
this part; or
    (2) Any document required to be developed, provided, kept, or used 
to show compliance with any requirement under this part.
    (c) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under 
paragraph (a) or (b) of this section is a basis for--
    (1) Denial, suspension, rescission, or revocation of any acceptance, 
application, approval, authorization, certificate, declaration, 
declaration of compliance, designation, document, filing, qualification, 
means of compliance, record, report, request for reconsideration, or 
similar instrument issued or granted by the Administrator and held by 
that person; or
    (2) A civil penalty.



                     Subpart B_Operating Requirement



Sec. 89.101  Applicability.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this 
subpart applies to the following:
    (1) Persons operating unmanned aircraft registered or required to be 
registered under part 47 or 48 of this chapter.
    (2) Persons operating foreign civil unmanned aircraft in the United 
States.
    (b) This subpart does not apply to unmanned aircraft operations 
under part 91 of this chapter that are transmitting ADS-B Out pursuant 
to Sec. 91.225.



Sec. 89.105  Remote identification requirement.

    Except as otherwise authorized by the Administrator or as provided 
in Sec. 89.120, after September 16, 2023, no person may operate an 
unmanned aircraft within the airspace of the United States unless the 
operation meets the requirements of Sec. 89.110 or Sec. 89.115.



Sec. 89.110  Operation of standard remote identification unmanned aircraft.

    Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, a person may 
comply with the remote identification requirement of Sec. 89.105 by 
operating a standard remote identification unmanned aircraft under the 
following conditions:
    (a) Operational requirements. A person may operate a standard remote 
identification unmanned aircraft only if the person operating the 
standard remote identification unmanned aircraft ensures that all of the 
following conditions are met:
    (1) From takeoff to shutdown, the standard remote identification 
unmanned aircraft must broadcast the message elements of Sec. 89.305.
    (2) The person manipulating the flight controls of the unmanned 
aircraft system must land the unmanned aircraft as soon as practicable 
if the standard remote identification unmanned aircraft is no longer 
broadcasting the message elements of Sec. 89.305.
    (b) Standard remote identification unmanned aircraft requirements. A 
person may operate a standard remote identification unmanned aircraft 
only if the unmanned aircraft meets all of the following requirements:
    (1) Its serial number is listed on an FAA-accepted declaration of 
compliance, or the standard remote identification unmanned aircraft is 
covered by a design approval or production approval issued under part 21 
of this chapter and meets the requirements of subpart F of this part.
    (2) Its remote identification equipment is functional and complies 
with

[[Page 666]]

the requirements of this part from takeoff to shutdown.
    (3) Its remote identification equipment and functionality have not 
been disabled.
    (4) The Certificate of Aircraft Registration of the unmanned 
aircraft used in the operation must include the serial number of the 
unmanned aircraft, as per applicable requirements of parts 47 and 48 of 
this chapter, or the serial number of the unmanned aircraft must be 
provided to the FAA in a notice of identification pursuant to Sec. 
89.130 prior to the operation.



Sec. 89.115  Alternative remote identification.

    A person operating an unmanned aircraft that is not a standard 
remote identification unmanned aircraft may comply with the remote 
identification requirement of Sec. 89.105 by meeting all of the 
requirements of either paragraph (a) or (b) of this section.
    (a) Remote identification broadcast modules. Unless otherwise 
authorized by the Administrator, a person may operate an unmanned 
aircraft that is not a standard remote identification unmanned aircraft 
if all of the following conditions are met:
    (1) Equipage. (i) The unmanned aircraft used in the operation must 
be equipped with a remote identification broadcast module that meets the 
requirements of Sec. 89.320 and the serial number of the remote 
identification broadcast module must be listed on an FAA-accepted 
declaration of compliance.
    (ii) The Certificate of Aircraft Registration of the unmanned 
aircraft used in the operation must include the serial number of the 
remote identification broadcast module, as per applicable requirements 
of parts 47 and 48 of this chapter, or the serial number of the unmanned 
aircraft must be provided to the FAA in a notice of identification 
pursuant to Sec. 89.130 prior to the operation.
    (2) Remote identification operating requirements. Unless otherwise 
authorized by the Administrator, a person may operate an unmanned 
aircraft under this paragraph (a) only if all of the following 
conditions are met:
    (i) From takeoff to shutdown, the person operating the unmanned 
aircraft must ensure that the remote identification broadcast module 
broadcasts the remote identification message elements of Sec. 89.315 
directly from the unmanned aircraft.
    (ii) The person manipulating the flight controls of the unmanned 
aircraft system must be able to see the unmanned aircraft at all times 
throughout the operation.
    (3) Pre-flight requirement. Prior to takeoff, the person 
manipulating the flight controls of the unmanned aircraft system must 
ensure the remote identification broadcast module is functioning in 
accordance with this subpart.
    (4) In-flight loss of remote identification broadcast. The person 
manipulating the flight controls of the unmanned aircraft system must 
land the unmanned aircraft as soon as practicable if the unmanned 
aircraft is no longer broadcasting the message elements of Sec. 89.315.
    (b) Operations at FAA-recognized identification areas. Unless 
otherwise authorized by the Administrator, a person may operate an 
unmanned aircraft without remote identification equipment only if all of 
the following conditions are met:
    (1) The unmanned aircraft and the person manipulating the flight 
controls of the unmanned aircraft system remain within the boundaries of 
an FAA-recognized identification area throughout the operation; and
    (2) The person manipulating the flight controls of the unmanned 
aircraft system must be able to see the unmanned aircraft at all times 
throughout the operation.



Sec. 89.120  Operations for aeronautical research or to 
show compliance with regulations.

    The Administrator may authorize operations without remote 
identification where the operation is solely for the purpose of 
aeronautical research or to show compliance with regulations.

[[Page 667]]



Sec. 89.125  Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out prohibition.

    Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment 
cannot be used to comply with the remote identification requirements of 
this part.



Sec. 89.130  Confirmation of identification.

    (a) Notification requirement. No person may operate a foreign 
registered civil unmanned aircraft with remote identification in the 
airspace of the United States unless, prior to the operation, the person 
submits a notice of identification in a form and manner acceptable to 
the Administrator. The notice of identification must include all of the 
following:
    (1) The name of the person operating the foreign registered civil 
unmanned aircraft in the United States, and, if applicable, the person's 
authorized representative.
    (2) The physical address of the person operating the foreign 
registered civil unmanned aircraft in the United States, and, if 
applicable, the physical address for the person's authorized 
representative. If the operator or authorized representative does not 
receive mail at the physical address, a mailing address must also be 
provided.
    (3) The telephone number(s) where the person operating the foreign 
registered civil unmanned aircraft in the United States, and, if 
applicable, the person's authorized representative can be reached while 
in the United States.
    (4) The email address of the person operating the foreign registered 
civil unmanned aircraft in the United States, and, if applicable, the 
email address of the person's authorized representative.
    (5) The unmanned aircraft manufacturer and model name.
    (6) The serial number of the unmanned aircraft or remote 
identification broadcast module.
    (7) The country of registration of the unmanned aircraft.
    (8) The registration number.
    (b) Issuance of a Confirmation of Identification. (1) The FAA will 
issue a Confirmation of Identification upon completion of the 
notification requirements provided in paragraph (a) of this section.
    (2) The filing of a notification under paragraph (a) of this section 
and the Confirmation of Identification issued under paragraph (b)(1) of 
this section do not have the effect of United States aircraft 
registration.
    (c) Proof of notification. No person may operate a foreign 
registered civil unmanned aircraft with remote identification in the 
United States unless the person obtains a Confirmation of Identification 
under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, maintains such Confirmation of 
Identification at the unmanned aircraft's control station, and produces 
the Confirmation of Identification when requested by the FAA or a law 
enforcement officer.
    (d) Requirement to maintain current information. The holder of a 
Confirmation of Identification must ensure that the information provided 
under paragraph (a) of this section remains accurate and must update the 
information prior to operating a foreign registered civil unmanned 
aircraft in the United States.



              Subpart C_FAA-Recognized Identification Areas

    Source: Amdt. No. 89-1, 86 FR 4511, Jan. 15, 2021, unless otherwise 
noted.



Sec. 89.201  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes procedural requirements to establish an FAA-
recognized identification area.



Sec. 89.205  Eligibility.

    Only the following persons are eligible to apply for the 
establishment of an FAA-recognized identification area under this 
subpart:
    (a) A community-based organization recognized by the Administrator.
    (b) An educational institution, including primary and secondary 
educational institutions, trade schools, colleges, and universities.



Sec. 89.210  Requests for establishment of an FAA-recognized 
identification area.

    (a) Application. An eligible person requesting the establishment of 
an FAA-recognized identification area under this subpart may submit an 
application

[[Page 668]]

in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator.
    (b) Required documentation. A request under this subpart must 
contain all of the following information:
    (1) The name of the eligible person under Sec. 89.205.
    (2) The name of the individual making the request on behalf of the 
eligible person.
    (3) A declaration that the individual making the request has the 
authority to act on behalf of the community-based organization or 
educational institution.
    (4) The name and contact information of the primary point of contact 
for communications with the FAA.
    (5) The physical address of the proposed FAA-recognized 
identification area.
    (6) The location of the proposed FAA-recognized identification area 
in a form and manner prescribed by the Administrator.
    (7) If applicable, a copy of any existing letter of agreement 
regarding the flying site.
    (8) Description of the intended purpose of the FAA-recognized 
identification area and why the proposed FAA-recognized identification 
area is necessary for that purpose.
    (9) Any other information required by the Administrator.



Sec. 89.215  Approval of FAA-recognized identification areas.

    The Administrator will assess applications for FAA-recognized 
identification areas and may require additional information or 
documentation, as needed, to supplement an application. The 
Administrator will approve or deny an application, and may take into 
consideration matters such as, but not limited to:
    (a) The existence of any FAA established flight or airspace 
restriction limiting the operation of unmanned aircraft systems, such as 
special use airspace designations under part 73 of this chapter, 
temporary flight restrictions issued under part 91 of this chapter, or 
any other special flight rule, restriction or regulation in this chapter 
limiting the operation of unmanned aircraft systems in the interest of 
safety, efficiency, national security and/or homeland security, which 
overlaps with the proposed FAA-recognized identification area.
    (b) The safe and efficient use of airspace by other aircraft.
    (c) The safety and security of persons or property on the ground.
    (d) The need for an FAA-recognized identification area in the 
proposed location and proximity of other FAA-recognized identification 
areas.



Sec. 89.220  Amendment.

    (a) From the time of application until expiration or termination of 
an FAA-recognized identification area, any change to the information 
submitted in the application including but not limited to a change to 
the point of contact for the FAA-recognized identification area or a 
change to the FAA-recognized identification area's organizational 
affiliation must be submitted to the FAA within 10 calendar days of the 
change.
    (b) If the person who has been granted an FAA-recognized 
identification area wishes to change the geographic boundaries of the 
FAA-recognized identification area, the person must submit a request 
describing the change to the FAA for review. The geographic boundaries 
of the FAA-recognized identification area will not change unless the 
requested change is approved in accordance with Sec. 89.215.
    (c) The establishment of an FAA-recognized identification area is 
subject to ongoing review in accordance with Sec. 89.215 by the 
Administrator that may result in the termination of the FAA-recognized 
identification area pursuant to Sec. 89.230 or modification of the FAA-
recognized identification area.



Sec. 89.225  Duration of an FAA-recognized identification area.

    (a) Duration. Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, an FAA-
recognized identification area will be in effect for 48 calendar months 
after the date the FAA approves the request for establishment of an FAA-
recognized identification area.
    (b) Renewal. A person wishing to renew an FAA-recognized 
identification area must submit a request for renewal no later than 120 
days prior to the expiration of the FAA-recognized

[[Page 669]]

identification area in a form and manner acceptable to the 
Administrator. The Administrator may deny requests submitted after that 
deadline or requests submitted after the expiration.



Sec. 89.230  Expiration and termination.

    (a) Expiration. Unless renewed, an FAA-recognized identification 
area issued under this subpart will expire automatically and will have 
no further force or effect as of the day that immediately follows the 
date of expiration.
    (b) Termination prior to expiration--(1) Termination by request. An 
individual identified as the point of contact for an approved FAA-
recognized identification area may submit a request to the Administrator 
to terminate that FAA-recognized identification area.
    (2) Termination by FAA. (i) The FAA may terminate an FAA-recognized 
identification area upon a finding that--
    (A) The FAA-recognized identification area may pose a risk to 
aviation safety, public safety, homeland security, or national security;
    (B) The FAA-recognized identification area is no longer associated 
with a person eligible for an FAA-recognized identification area; or
    (C) The person who submitted a request for establishment of an FAA-
recognized identification area provided false or misleading information 
during the submission, amendment, or renewal process.
    (ii) The Administrator will notify the primary point of contact of 
the decision to terminate the FAA-recognized identification area and the 
reasons for the termination. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this 
section, if the FAA terminates an FAA-recognized identification area 
based upon a finding that the FAA-recognized identification area may 
pose a risk to aviation safety, public safety, homeland security, or 
national security, that area will no longer be eligible to be an FAA-
recognized identification area for as long as those conditions remain in 
effect.
    (c) Petition to reconsider the FAA's decision to terminate an FAA-
recognized identification area. No later than 30 calendar days after the 
termination of an FAA-recognized identification area, a person may 
petition the Administrator for reconsideration of the decision. The 
petition must state the reasons justifying the request for 
reconsideration and include any supporting documentation. Upon 
consideration of the information submitted by the petitioner, the 
Administrator will notify the petitioner of the decision on the request 
for reconsideration.
    (d) Inapplicability of part 13, subpart D, of this chapter. Part 13, 
subpart D, of this chapter does not apply to the procedures of 
paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.



   Subpart D_Requirements for Standard Remote Identification Unmanned 
          Aircraft and Remote Identification Broadcast Modules



Sec. 89.301  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the minimum message element set and minimum 
performance requirements for standard remote identification unmanned 
aircraft and remote identification broadcast modules.



Sec. 89.305  Minimum message elements broadcast by standard remote
identification unmanned aircraft.

    A standard remote identification unmanned aircraft must be capable 
of broadcasting the following remote identification message elements:
    (a) The identity of the unmanned aircraft, consisting of:
    (1) A serial number assigned to the unmanned aircraft by the person 
responsible for the production of the standard remote identification 
unmanned aircraft; or
    (2) A session ID.
    (b) An indication of the latitude and longitude of the control 
station.
    (c) An indication of the geometric altitude of the control station.
    (d) An indication of the latitude and longitude of the unmanned 
aircraft.
    (e) An indication of the geometric altitude of the unmanned 
aircraft.
    (f) An indication of the velocity of the unmanned aircraft.
    (g) A time mark identifying the Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) 
time of applicability of a position source output.

[[Page 670]]

    (h) An indication of the emergency status of the unmanned aircraft.



Sec. 89.310  Minimum performance requirements for standard remote identification unmanned aircraft.

    A standard remote identification unmanned aircraft must meet the 
following minimum performance requirements:
    (a) Control station location. The location of the control station of 
the unmanned aircraft must be generated and encoded into the message 
elements and must correspond to the location of the person manipulating 
the flight controls of the unmanned aircraft system.
    (b) Time mark. The time mark message element must be synchronized 
with all other remote identification message elements.
    (c) Self-testing and monitoring. (1) Prior to takeoff, the unmanned 
aircraft must automatically test the remote identification functionality 
and notify the person manipulating the flight controls of the unmanned 
aircraft system of the result of the test.
    (2) The unmanned aircraft must not be able to take off if the remote 
identification equipment is not functional.
    (3) The unmanned aircraft must continuously monitor the remote 
identification functionality from takeoff to shutdown and must provide 
notification of malfunction or failure to the person manipulating the 
flight controls of the unmanned aircraft system.
    (d) Tamper resistance. The unmanned aircraft must be designed and 
produced in a way that reduces the ability of a person to tamper with 
the remote identification functionality.
    (e) Error correction. The remote identification equipment must 
incorporate error correction in the broadcast of the message elements in 
Sec. 89.305.
    (f) Interference considerations. The remote identification equipment 
must not interfere with other systems or equipment installed on the 
unmanned aircraft, and other systems or equipment installed on the 
unmanned aircraft must not interfere with the remote identification 
equipment.
    (g) Message broadcast. (1) The unmanned aircraft must be capable of 
broadcasting the message elements in Sec. 89.305 using a non-
proprietary broadcast specification and using radio frequency spectrum 
compatible with personal wireless devices in accordance with 47 CFR part 
15, where operations may occur without an FCC individual license.
    (2) Any broadcasting device used to meet the requirements of this 
section must be integrated into the unmanned aircraft without 
modification to its authorized radio frequency parameters and designed 
to maximize the range at which the broadcast can be received, while 
complying with 47 CFR part 15 and any other applicable laws in effect as 
of the date the declaration of compliance is submitted to the FAA for 
acceptance.
    (h) Message elements performance requirements. (1) The reported 
geometric position of the unmanned aircraft and the control station must 
be accurate to within 100 feet of the true position, with 95 percent 
probability.
    (2) The reported geometric altitude of the control station must be 
accurate to within 15 feet of the true geometric altitude, with 95 
percent probability.
    (3) The reported geometric altitude of the unmanned aircraft must be 
accurate to within 150 feet of the true geometric altitude, with 95 
percent probability.
    (4) The unmanned aircraft must broadcast the latitude, longitude, 
and geometric altitude of the unmanned aircraft and its control station 
no later than 1.0 seconds from the time of measurement to the time of 
broadcast.
    (5) The unmanned aircraft must broadcast the message elements at a 
rate of at least 1 message per second.
    (i) Take-off limitation. The unmanned aircraft must not be able to 
take off unless it is broadcasting the message elements in Sec. 89.305.



Sec. 89.315  Minimum message elements broadcast by remote 
identification broadcast modules.

    Remote identification broadcast modules must be capable of 
broadcasting the following remote identification message elements:
    (a) The identity of the unmanned aircraft, consisting of the serial 
number assigned to the remote identification

[[Page 671]]

broadcast module by the person responsible for the production of the 
remote identification broadcast module.
    (b) An indication of the latitude and longitude of the unmanned 
aircraft.
    (c) An indication of the geometric altitude of the unmanned 
aircraft.
    (d) An indication of the velocity of the unmanned aircraft.
    (e) An indication of the latitude and longitude of the take-off 
location of the unmanned aircraft.
    (f) An indication of the geometric altitude of the take-off location 
of the unmanned aircraft.
    (g) A time mark identifying the Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) 
time of applicability of a position source output.



Sec. 89.320  Minimum performance requirements for remote 
identification broadcast modules.

    Remote identification broadcast modules must meet the following 
minimum performance requirements:
    (a) Take-off location. The remote identification broadcast module 
must be capable of determining the take-off location of the unmanned 
aircraft.
    (b) Time mark. The time mark message element must be synchronized 
with all other remote identification message elements.
    (c) Self-testing and monitoring. (1) Prior to take-off, the remote 
identification broadcast module must automatically test the remote 
identification functionality and notify the person manipulating the 
flight controls of the unmanned aircraft system of the result of the 
test.
    (2) The remote identification broadcast module must continuously 
monitor the remote identification functionality from takeoff to shutdown 
and must provide notification of malfunction or failure to the person 
manipulating the flight controls of the unmanned aircraft system.
    (d) Tamper resistance. The remote identification broadcast module 
must be designed and produced in a way that reduces the ability of a 
person to tamper with the remote identification functionality.
    (e) Error correction. The remote identification broadcast module 
must incorporate error correction in the broadcast of the message 
elements in Sec. 89.315.
    (f) Interference considerations. The remote identification broadcast 
module must not interfere with other systems or equipment installed on 
compatible unmanned aircraft, and other systems or equipment installed 
on compatible unmanned aircraft must not interfere with the remote 
identification equipment.
    (g) Message broadcast. (1) The remote identification broadcast 
module must be capable of broadcasting the message elements in Sec. 
89.315 using a non-proprietary broadcast specification and using radio 
frequency spectrum compatible with personal wireless devices in 
accordance with 47 CFR part 15, where operations may occur without an 
FCC individual license.
    (2) The remote identification broadcast module must be designed to 
maximize the range at which the broadcast can be received, while 
complying with 47 CFR part 15 and any other applicable laws in effect as 
of the date the declaration of compliance is submitted to the FAA for 
acceptance.
    (h) Message elements performance requirements. (1) The reported 
geometric position of the unmanned aircraft must be accurate to within 
100 feet of the true position, with 95 percent probability.
    (2) The reported geometric altitude of the unmanned aircraft must be 
accurate to within 150 feet of the true geometric altitude, with 95 
percent probability.
    (3) The reported geometric position of the take-off location must be 
accurate to within 100 feet of the true geometric position, with 95 
percent probability.
    (4) The reported geometric altitude of the take-off location must be 
accurate to within 150 feet of the true geometric altitude, with 95 
percent probability.
    (5) The remote identification broadcast module must broadcast the 
latitude, longitude, and geometric altitude of the unmanned aircraft no 
later than 1.0 seconds from the time of measurement to the time of 
broadcast.

[[Page 672]]

    (6) The remote identification broadcast module must broadcast the 
message elements at a rate of at least 1 message per second.



                      Subpart E_Means of Compliance



Sec. 89.401  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes--
    (a) Requirements for means of compliance with subpart D of this 
part.
    (b) Procedural requirements for the submission and acceptance of 
means of compliance used in the design and production of standard remote 
identification unmanned aircraft or remote identification broadcast 
modules to ensure they meet the minimum performance requirements of this 
part.
    (c) Rules governing persons submitting means of compliance for FAA 
acceptance.



Sec. 89.405  Submission of a means of compliance for FAA acceptance.

    (a) Eligibility. Any person may submit a means of compliance for 
acceptance by the FAA.
    (b) Required information. A person requesting acceptance of a means 
of compliance must submit the following information to the FAA in a form 
and manner acceptable to the Administrator:
    (1) The name of the person or entity submitting the means of 
compliance, the name of the main point of contact for communications 
with the FAA, the physical address, email address, and other contact 
information.
    (2) A detailed description of the means of compliance.
    (3) An explanation of how the means of compliance addresses all of 
the minimum performance requirements established in subpart D of this 
part so that any standard remote identification unmanned aircraft or 
remote identification broadcast module designed and produced in 
accordance with such means of compliance meets the remote identification 
requirements of this part.
    (4) Any substantiating material the person wishes the FAA to 
consider as part of the request.
    (c) Testing and validation. A means of compliance submitted for 
acceptance by the FAA must include testing and validation procedures for 
persons responsible for the production of standard remote identification 
unmanned aircraft or remote identification broadcast modules to 
demonstrate through analysis, ground test, or flight test, as 
appropriate, how the standard remote identification unmanned aircraft or 
the remote identification broadcast module performs its intended 
functions and meets the requirements in subpart D of this part, 
including any applicable FAA performance requirements for radio station 
operation.



Sec. 89.410  Acceptance of a means of compliance.

    (a) A person requesting acceptance of a means of compliance must 
demonstrate to the Administrator that the means of compliance addresses 
all of the requirements of subparts D and E of this part, and that any 
standard remote identification unmanned aircraft or remote 
identification broadcast module designed and produced in accordance with 
such means of compliance would meet the performance requirements of 
subpart D of this part.
    (b) The Administrator will evaluate a means of compliance that is 
submitted to the FAA and may request additional information or 
documentation, as needed, to supplement the submission.
    (c) If the Administrator determines the person has demonstrated that 
the means of compliance meets the requirements of subparts D and E of 
this part, the FAA will notify the person that the Administrator has 
accepted the means of compliance.



Sec. 89.415  Rescission.

    (a) Rescission of an FAA-accepted means of compliance. (1) A means 
of compliance is subject to ongoing review by the Administrator. The 
Administrator may rescind acceptance of a means of compliance if the 
Administrator determines that a means of compliance does not meet any or 
all of the requirements of subpart D or E of this part.
    (2) The Administrator will publish a notice of rescission in the 
Federal Register.
    (b) Inapplicability of part 13, subpart D, of this chapter. Part 13, 
subpart D, of

[[Page 673]]

this chapter does not apply to the procedures of paragraph (a) of this 
section.



Sec. 89.420  Record retention.

    A person who submits a means of compliance that is accepted by the 
Administrator under this subpart must retain the following information 
for as long as the means of compliance is accepted plus an additional 24 
calendar months, and must make available for inspection by the 
Administrator the following:
    (a) All documentation and substantiating data submitted to the FAA 
for acceptance of the means of compliance.
    (b) Records of all test procedures, methodology, and other 
procedures, as applicable.
    (c) Any other information necessary to justify and substantiate how 
the means of compliance enables compliance with the remote 
identification requirements of this part.



         Subpart F_ Remote Identification Design and Production



Sec. 89.501  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart prescribes--
    (1) Requirements for the design and production of unmanned aircraft 
with remote identification produced for operation in the airspace of the 
United States.
    (2) Requirements for the design and production of remote 
identification broadcast modules.
    (3) Procedural requirements for the submission, acceptance, and 
rescission of declarations of compliance.
    (4) Rules governing persons submitting declarations of compliance 
for FAA acceptance under this part.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, this 
subpart applies to the design and production of all unmanned aircraft 
operated in the airspace of the United States.
    (c) Except for unmanned aircraft designed and produced to be 
standard remote identification unmanned aircraft, this subpart does not 
apply to the design or production of:
    (1) Home-built unmanned aircraft.
    (2) Unmanned aircraft of the United States Government.
    (3) Unmanned aircraft that weigh 0.55 pounds or less on takeoff, 
including everything that is on board or otherwise attached to the 
aircraft.
    (4) Unmanned aircraft designed or produced exclusively for the 
purpose of aeronautical research or to show compliance with regulations.



Sec. 89.505  Serial numbers.

    No person may produce a standard remote identification unmanned 
aircraft under Sec. 89.510 or Sec. 89.515 or a remote identification 
broadcast module under Sec. 89.520, unless the producer assigns to the 
unmanned aircraft or remote identification broadcast module a serial 
number that complies with ANSI/CTA-2063-A. ANSI/CTA-2063-A, Small 
Unmanned Aerial Systems Serial Numbers (September 2019) is incorporated 
by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the 
Office of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. 
All approved material is available for inspection at the FAA's Office of 
Rulemaking (ARM-1), 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20590 
(telephone 202-267-9677) and is available from Consumer Technology 
Association (CTA), 1919 South Eads Street, Arlington, VA 22202, 
[email protected], 703-907-7600 or at https://www.cta.tech. It is also 
available for inspection at the National Archives and Records 
Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this 
material at NARA, email [email protected], or go to 
www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.



Sec. 89.510  Production requirements for unmanned aircraft produced
under a design approval or production approval issued under part
21 of this chapter.

    After September 16, 2022, no person may produce an unmanned aircraft 
for operation in the airspace of the United States under a design 
approval or production approval issued under part 21 of this chapter 
unless:
    (a) All applicable requirements of part 21 of this chapter are met; 
and
    (b) The unmanned aircraft is--
    (1) Designed and produced to meet the minimum performance 
requirements for standard remote identification unmanned aircraft 
established in

[[Page 674]]

Sec. 89.310 in accordance with an FAA-accepted means of compliance; or
    (2) Equipped with Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) 
Out equipment that meets the requirements of Sec. 91.225 of this 
chapter.



Sec. 89.515  Production requirements for unmanned aircraft without 
design approval or production approval issued under part 21 of this 
chapter.

    Except as provided in Sec. 89.510, after September 16, 2022, no 
person may produce an unmanned aircraft for operation in the airspace of 
the United States unless--
    (a) The unmanned aircraft is designed and produced to meet the 
minimum performance requirements for standard remote identification 
unmanned aircraft established in Sec. 89.310 in accordance with an FAA-
accepted means of compliance; and
    (b) All of the following conditions are met:
    (1) Inspection requirements for production of standard unmanned 
aircraft. A person responsible for the production of standard remote 
identification unmanned aircraft must, upon request, allow the 
Administrator to inspect the person's facilities, technical data, and 
any standard remote identification unmanned aircraft the person 
produces, and to witness any tests necessary to determine compliance 
with this subpart.
    (2) Audit requirements. A person responsible for the production of 
standard remote identification unmanned aircraft must cause independent 
audits to be performed on a recurring basis, and additionally whenever 
the FAA provides notice of noncompliance or potential noncompliance, to 
demonstrate the unmanned aircraft listed under a declaration of 
compliance meet the requirements of this subpart. The person responsible 
for the production of standard remote identification unmanned aircraft 
must provide the results of all such audits to the FAA upon request.
    (3) Product support and notification. A person responsible for the 
production of standard remote identification unmanned aircraft must 
maintain product support and notification procedures to notify the 
public and the FAA of any defect or condition that causes an unmanned 
aircraft to no longer meet the requirements of this subpart, within 15 
calendar days of the date the person becomes aware of the defect or 
condition.



Sec. 89.520  Production requirements for remote identification 
broadcast modules.

    After April 21, 2021, no person may produce remote identification 
broadcast modules unless:
    (a) The remote identification broadcast module is designed and 
produced to meet the minimum performance requirements for remote 
identification broadcast modules established in Sec. 89.320 in 
accordance with an FAA-accepted means of compliance; and
    (b) All of the following conditions are met:
    (1) Inspection requirements for production of remote identification 
broadcast modules. A person responsible for the production of remote 
identification broadcast modules must, upon request, allow the 
Administrator to inspect the person's facilities, technical data, and 
any remote identification broadcast modules the person produces, and to 
witness any tests necessary to determine compliance with this subpart.
    (2) Audit requirements. A person responsible for the production of 
remote identification broadcast modules must cause independent audits to 
be performed on a recurring basis, and additionally whenever the FAA 
provides notice of noncompliance or potential noncompliance, to 
demonstrate the remote identification broadcast modules listed under a 
declaration of compliance meet the requirements of this subpart. The 
person responsible for the production of remote identification broadcast 
modules must provide the results of all such audits to the FAA upon 
request.
    (3) Product support and notification. A person responsible for the 
production of remote identification broadcast modules must maintain 
product support and notification procedures to notify the public and the 
FAA of any defect or condition that causes the remote identification 
broadcast module to no longer meet the requirements of this subpart, 
within 15 calendar days of

[[Page 675]]

the date the person becomes aware of the defect or condition.
    (4) Instructions. A person responsible for the production of a 
remote identification broadcast module must make available instructions 
for installing and operating the remote identification broadcast module 
to any person operating an unmanned aircraft with the remote 
identification broadcast module.

[Amdt. No. 89-1, 86 FR 4505, Jan. 15, 2021; 86 FR 13630, Mar. 10, 2021]



Sec. 89.525  Labeling.

    (a) No person may produce a standard remote identification unmanned 
aircraft under Sec. 89.515 unless it displays a label indicating that 
the unmanned aircraft meets the requirements of this part. The label 
must be in English and be legible, prominent, and permanently affixed to 
the unmanned aircraft.
    (b) No person may produce a remote identification broadcast module 
under Sec. 89.520 unless it displays a label indicating that the 
equipment meets the requirements of this part. The label must be in 
English and be legible, prominent, and permanently affixed to the 
broadcast module.



Sec. 89.530  Submission of a declaration of compliance for FAA acceptance.

    (a) Eligibility. A person responsible for the production of a 
standard remote identification unmanned aircraft under Sec. 89.515 or a 
remote identification broadcast module under Sec. 89.520 must submit a 
declaration of compliance for acceptance by the FAA.
    (b) Required information for standard remote identification unmanned 
aircraft. The person responsible for the production of a standard remote 
identification unmanned aircraft requesting acceptance of a declaration 
of compliance must declare that the unmanned aircraft complies with the 
requirements of this subpart by submitting a declaration of compliance 
to the FAA in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator. The 
declaration must include at a minimum the following information:
    (1) The name, physical address, telephone number, and email address 
of the person responsible for production of the unmanned aircraft.
    (2) The unmanned aircraft's make and model.
    (3) The unmanned aircraft's serial number, or the range of serial 
numbers for which the person responsible for production is declaring 
compliance.
    (4) The FCC Identifier of the 47 CFR part 15-compliant radio 
frequency equipment used and integrated into the unmanned aircraft.
    (5) The means of compliance used in the design and production of the 
unmanned aircraft.
    (6) Whether the declaration of compliance is an initial declaration 
or an amended declaration, and if the declaration of compliance is an 
amended declaration, the reason for the amendment.
    (7) A declaration that the person responsible for the production of 
the unmanned aircraft:
    (i) Can demonstrate that the unmanned aircraft was designed and 
produced to meet the minimum performance requirements of Sec. 89.310 by 
using an FAA-accepted means of compliance.
    (ii) Complies with the requirements of Sec. 89.515(b).
    (8) A statement that 47 CFR part 15-compliant radio frequency 
equipment is used and is integrated into the unmanned aircraft without 
modification to its authorized radio frequency parameters.
    (c) Required information for remote identification broadcast 
modules. The person responsible for the production of a remote 
identification broadcast module under Sec. 89.520 that is requesting 
acceptance of a declaration of compliance must declare that the remote 
identification broadcast module complies with the requirements of this 
subpart by submitting a declaration of compliance to the FAA in a form 
and manner acceptable to the Administrator. The declaration must include 
at a minimum the following information:
    (1) The name, physical address, telephone number, and email address 
of the person responsible for production of the remote identification 
broadcast module.
    (2) The remote identification broadcast module's make and model.
    (3) The remote identification broadcast module's serial number, or 
the range of serial numbers for which the

[[Page 676]]

person responsible for production is declaring compliance.
    (4) The FCC Identifier of the 47 CFR part 15-compliant radio 
frequency equipment used and integrated into the remote identification 
broadcast module.
    (5) The means of compliance used in the design and production of the 
remote identification broadcast module.
    (6) Whether the declaration of compliance is an initial declaration 
or an amended declaration, and if the declaration of compliance is an 
amended declaration, the reason for the amendment.
    (7) A declaration that the person responsible for the production of 
the remote identification broadcast module:
    (i) Can demonstrate that the remote identification broadcast module 
was designed and produced to meet the minimum performance requirements 
of Sec. 89.320 by using an FAA-accepted means of compliance.
    (ii) Complies with the requirements of Sec. 89.520(b).
    (8) A statement that 47 CFR part 15-compliant radio frequency 
equipment is used and is integrated into the remote identification 
broadcast module without modification to its authorized radio frequency 
parameters, and a statement that instructions have been provided for 
installation of 47 CFR part 15-compliant remote identification broadcast 
module without modification to the broadcast module's authorized radio 
frequency parameters.



Sec. 89.535  Acceptance of a declaration of compliance.

    (a) The Administrator will evaluate a declaration of compliance that 
is submitted to the FAA and may request additional information or 
documentation, as needed, to supplement the declaration of compliance.
    (b) If the Administrator determines that the submitter has 
demonstrated compliance with the requirements of this subpart, the FAA 
will notify the submitter that the Administrator has accepted the 
declaration of compliance.



Sec. 89.540  Rescission and reconsideration.

    (a) Rescission of the FAA's acceptance of a declaration of 
compliance. (1) A declaration of compliance is subject to ongoing review 
by the Administrator. The Administrator may rescind acceptance of a 
declaration of compliance under circumstances including but not limited 
to the following:
    (i) A standard remote identification unmanned aircraft or remote 
identification broadcast module listed under an accepted declaration of 
compliance does not meet the minimum performance requirements of Sec. 
89.310 or Sec. 89.320.
    (ii) A previously FAA-accepted declaration of compliance does not 
meet a requirement of this subpart; or
    (iii) The FAA rescinds acceptance of the means of compliance listed 
in an FAA-accepted declaration of compliance.
    (2) The Administrator will notify the person who submitted the FAA-
accepted declaration of compliance of any issue of noncompliance.
    (3) If the Administrator determines that it is in the public 
interest, prior to rescinding acceptance of a declaration of compliance, 
the Administrator may provide a reasonable period of time for the person 
who submitted the declaration of compliance to remediate the 
noncompliance. A failure to remediate the noncompliance constitutes 
cause for rescission of the FAA's acceptance of the declaration of 
compliance.
    (4) The Administrator will notify the person who submitted the 
declaration of compliance of the decision to rescind acceptance of the 
declaration of compliance by publishing a notice of rescission in the 
Federal Register.
    (b) Petition to reconsider the FAA's decision to rescind acceptance 
of a declaration of compliance. (1) The person who submitted the FAA-
accepted declaration of compliance or any person adversely affected by 
the rescission of the Administrator's acceptance of a declaration of 
compliance may petition for a reconsideration of the decision by 
submitting a request to the FAA in a form and manner acceptable to the 
Administrator within 60 calendar days of the date of publication in the 
Federal Register of notification of rescission.

[[Page 677]]

    (2) A petition to reconsider the rescission of the Administrator's 
acceptance of a declaration of compliance must show that the petitioner 
is an interested party and has been adversely affected by the decision 
of the FAA. The petition must also demonstrate at least one of the 
following:
    (i) The petitioner adduces a significant additional fact not 
previously presented to the FAA.
    (ii) The Administrator made a material error of fact in the decision 
to rescind acceptance of the declaration of compliance.
    (iii) The Administrator did not correctly interpret a law, 
regulation, or precedent.
    (3) Upon consideration of the information submitted by the 
petitioner, the Administrator will notify the petitioner and the person 
who submitted the declaration of compliance (if different) of the 
decision on whether to reinstate the Administrator's acceptance of the 
declaration of compliance.
    (c) Inapplicability of part 13, subpart D, of this chapter. Part 13, 
subpart D, of this chapter does not apply to the procedures of 
paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.



Sec. 89.545  Record retention.

    A person who submits a declaration of compliance under this subpart 
that is accepted by the Administrator must retain the following 
information for as long as the standard remote identification unmanned 
aircraft or remote identification broadcast module listed on that 
declaration of compliance is produced plus an additional 24 calendar 
months, and must make available for inspection by the Administrator the 
following:
    (a) The means of compliance, all documentation, and substantiating 
data related to the means of compliance used.
    (b) Records of all test results.
    (c) Any other information necessary to demonstrate compliance with 
the means of compliance so that the standard remote identification 
unmanned aircraft or remote identification broadcast module meets the 
remote identification requirements and the design and production 
requirements of this part.



PART 91_GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES--Table of Contents



Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 50-2
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 60
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 104

                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
91.1 Applicability.
91.3 Responsibility and authority of the pilot in command.
91.5 Pilot in command of aircraft requiring more than one required 
          pilot.
91.7 Civil aircraft airworthiness.
91.9 Civil aircraft flight manual, marking, and placard requirements.
91.11 Prohibition on interference with crewmembers.
91.13 Careless or reckless operation.
91.15 Dropping objects.
91.17 Alcohol or drugs.
91.19 Carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant 
          drugs or substances.
91.21 Portable electronic devices.
91.23 Truth-in-leasing clause requirement in leases and conditional 
          sales contracts.
91.25 Aviation Safety Reporting Program: Prohibition against use of 
          reports for enforcement purposes.
91.27-91.99 [Reserved]

                         Subpart B_Flight Rules

                                 General

91.101 Applicability.
91.103 Preflight action.
91.105 Flight crewmembers at stations.
91.107 Use of safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and child restraint 
          systems.
91.109 Flight instruction; Simulated instrument flight and certain 
          flight tests.
91.111 Operating near other aircraft.
91.113 Right-of-way rules: Except water operations.
91.115 Right-of-way rules: Water operations.
91.117 Aircraft speed.
91.119 Minimum safe altitudes: General.
91.121 Altimeter settings.
91.123 Compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
91.125 ATC light signals.
91.126 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class G 
          airspace.
91.127 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class E 
          airspace.
91.129 Operations in Class D airspace.
91.130 Operations in Class C airspace.
91.131 Operations in Class B airspace.

[[Page 678]]

91.133 Restricted and prohibited areas.
91.135 Operations in Class A airspace.
91.137 Temporary flight restrictions in the vicinity of disaster/hazard 
          areas.
91.138 Temporary flight restrictions in national disaster areas in the 
          State of Hawaii.
91.139 Emergency air traffic rules.
91.141 Flight restrictions in the proximity of the Presidential and 
          other parties.
91.143 Flight limitation in the proximity of space flight operations.
91.144 Temporary restriction on flight operations during abnormally high 
          barometric pressure conditions.
91.145 Management of aircraft operations in the vicinity of aerial 
          demonstrations and major sporting events.
91.146 Passenger-carrying flights for the benefit of a charitable, 
          nonprofit, or community event.
91.147 Passenger carrying flights for compensation or hire.
91.148-91.149 [Reserved]

                           Visual Flight Rules

91.151 Fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions.
91.153 VFR flight plan: Information required.
91.155 Basic VFR weather minimums.
91.157 Special VFR weather minimums.
91.159 VFR cruising altitude or flight level.
91.161 Special awareness training required for pilots flying under 
          visual flight rules within a 60-nautical mile radius of the 
          Washington, DC VOR/DME.
91.162-91.165 [Reserved]

                         Instrument Flight Rules

91.167 Fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions.
91.169 IFR flight plan: Information required.
91.171 VOR equipment check for IFR operations.
91.173 ATC clearance and flight plan required.
91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR.
91.176 Straight-in landing operations below DA/DH or MDA using an 
          enhanced flight vision system (EFVS) under IFR.
91.177 Minimum altitudes for IFR operations.
91.179 IFR cruising altitude or flight level.
91.180 Operations within airspace designated as Reduced Vertical 
          Separation Minimum airspace.
91.181 Course to be flown.
91.183 IFR communications.
91.185 IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure.
91.187 Operation under IFR in controlled airspace: Malfunction reports.
91.189 Category II and III operations: General operating rules.
91.191 Category II and Category III manual.
91.193 Certificate of authorization for certain Category II operations.
91.195-91.199 [Reserved]

      Subpart C_Equipment, Instrument, and Certificate Requirements

91.201 [Reserved]
91.203 Civil aircraft: Certifications required.
91.205 Powered civil aircraft with standard category U.S. airworthiness 
          certificates: Instrument and equipment requirements.
91.207 Emergency locator transmitters.
91.209 Aircraft lights.
91.211 Supplemental oxygen.
91.213 Inoperative instruments and equipment.
91.215 ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment and use.
91.217 Data correspondence between automatically reported pressure 
          altitude data and the pilot's altitude reference.
91.219 Altitude alerting system or device: Turbojet-powered civil 
          airplanes.
91.221 Traffic alert and collision avoidance system equipment and use.
91.223 Terrain awareness and warning system.
91.225 Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment 
          and use.
91.227 Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment 
          performance requirements.
91.228-91.299 [Reserved]

                   Subpart D_Special Flight Operations

91.301 [Reserved]
91.303 Aerobatic flight.
91.305 Flight test areas.
91.307 Parachutes and parachuting.
91.309 Towing: Gliders and unpowered ultralight vehicles.
91.311 Towing: Other than under Sec. 91.309.
91.313 Restricted category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.
91.315 Limited category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.
91.317 Provisionally certificated civil aircraft: Operating limitations.
91.319 Aircraft having experimental certificates: Operating limitations.
91.321 Carriage of candidates in elections.
91.323 Increased maximum certificated weights for certain airplanes 
          operated in Alaska.
91.325 Primary category aircraft: Operating limitations.
91.326 [Reserved]
91.327 Aircraft having a special airworthiness certificate in the light-
          sport category: Operating limitations.
91.328-91.399 [Reserved]

[[Page 679]]

     Subpart E_Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alterations

91.401 Applicability.
91.403 General.
91.405 Maintenance required.
91.407 Operation after maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, 
          or alteration.
91.409 Inspections.
91.410 [Reserved]
91.411 Altimeter system and altitude reporting equipment tests and 
          inspections.
91.413 ATC transponder tests and inspections.
91.415 Changes to aircraft inspection programs.
91.417 Maintenance records.
91.419 Transfer of maintenance records.
91.421 Rebuilt engine maintenance records.
91.423-91.499 [Reserved]

Subpart F_Large and Turbine-Powered Multiengine Airplanes and Fractional 
                       Ownership Program Aircraft

91.501 Applicability.
91.503 Flying equipment and operating information.
91.505 Familiarity with operating limitations and emergency equipment.
91.507 Equipment requirements: Over-the-top or night VFR operations.
91.509 Survival equipment for overwater operations.
91.511 Communication and navigation equipment for overwater operations.
91.513 Emergency equipment.
91.515 Flight altitude rules.
91.517 Passenger information.
91.519 Passenger briefing.
91.521 Shoulder harness.
91.523 Carry-on baggage.
91.525 Carriage of cargo.
91.527 Operating in icing conditions.
91.529 Flight engineer requirements.
91.531 Second in command requirements.
91.533 Flight attendant requirements.
91.535 Stowage of food, beverage, and passenger service equipment during 
          aircraft movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.
91.537-91.599 [Reserved]

Subpart G_Additional Equipment and Operating Requirements for Large and 
                       Transport Category Aircraft

91.601 Applicability.
91.603 Aural speed warning device.
91.605 Transport category civil airplane weight limitations.
91.607 Emergency exits for airplanes carrying passengers for hire.
91.609 Flight data recorders and cockpit voice recorders.
91.611 Authorization for ferry flight with one engine inoperative.
91.613 Materials for compartment interiors.
91.615-91.699 [Reserved]

Subpart H_Foreign Aircraft Operations and Operations of U.S.-Registered 
Civil Aircraft Outside of the United States; and Rules Governing Persons 
                         on Board Such Aircraft

91.701 Applicability.
91.702 Persons on board.
91.703 Operations of civil aircraft of U.S. registry outside of the 
          United States.
91.705 [Reserved]
91.706 Operations within airspace designed as Reduced Vertical 
          Separation Minimum Airspace.
91.707 Flights between Mexico or Canada and the United States.
91.709 Operations to Cuba.
91.711 Special rules for foreign civil aircraft.
91.713 Operation of civil aircraft of Cuban registry.
91.715 Special flight authorizations for foreign civil aircraft.
91.717-91.799 [Reserved]

                    Subpart I_Operating Noise Limits

91.801 Applicability: Relation to part 36.
91.803 Part 125 operators: Designation of applicable regulations.
91.805 Final compliance: Subsonic airplanes.
91.807-91.813 [Reserved]
91.815 Agricultural and fire fighting airplanes: Noise operating 
          limitations.
91.817 Civil aircraft sonic boom.
91.818 xxx
91.819 Civil supersonic airplanes that do not comply with part 36.
91.821 Civil supersonic airplanes: Noise limits.
91.823-91.849 [Reserved]
91.851 Definitions.
91.853 Final compliance: Civil subsonic airplanes.
91.855 Entry and nonaddition rule.
91.857 Stage 2 operations outside of the 48 contiguous United States.
91.858 Special flight authorizations for non-revenue Stage 2 operations.
91.859 Modification to meet Stage 3, Stage 4, or Stage 5 noise levels.
91.861 Base level.
91.863 Transfers of Stage 2 airplanes with base level.
91.865 Phased compliance for operators with base level.
91.867 Phased compliance for new entrants.
91.869 Carry-forward compliance.
91.871 Waivers from interim compliance requirements.
91.873 Waivers from final compliance.
91.875 Annual progress reports.

[[Page 680]]

91.877 Annual reporting of Hawaiian operations.
91.879-91.880 [Reserved]
91.881 Final compliance: Civil subsonic jet airplanes weighing 75,000 
          pounds or less.
91.883 Special flight authorizations for jet airplanes weighing 75,000 
          pounds or less.
91.884-91.899 [Reserved]

                            Subpart J_Waivers

91.901 [Reserved]
91.903 Policy and procedures.
91.905 List of rules subject to waivers.
91.907-91.999 [Reserved]

                Subpart K_Fractional Ownership Operations

91.1001 Applicability.
91.1002 Compliance date.
91.1003 Management contract between owner and program manager.
91.1005 Prohibitions and limitations.
91.1007 Flights conducted under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter.
91.1009 Clarification of operational control.
91.1011 Operational control responsibilities and delegation.
91.1013 Operational control briefing and acknowledgment.
91.1014 Issuing or denying management specifications.
91.1015 Management specifications.
91.1017 Amending program manager's management specifications.
91.1019 Conducting tests and inspections.
91.1021 Internal safety reporting and incident/accident response.
91.1023 Program operating manual requirements.
91.1025 Program operating manual contents.
91.1027 Recordkeeping.
91.1029 Flight scheduling and locating requirements.
91.1031 Pilot in command or second in command: Designation required.
91.1033 Operating information required.
91.1035 Passenger awareness.
91.1037 Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine powered; 
          Limitations; Destination and alternate airports.
91.1039 IFR takeoff, approach and landing minimums.
91.1041 Aircraft proving and validation tests.
91.1043 [Reserved]
91.1045 Additional equipment requirements.
91.1047 Drug and alcohol misuse education program.
91.1049 Personnel.
91.1050 Employment of former FAA employees.
91.1051 Pilot safety background check.
91.1053 Crewmember experience.
91.1055 Pilot operating limitations and pairing requirement.
91.1057 Flight, duty and rest time requirements; All crewmembers.
91.1059 Flight time limitations and rest requirements: One or two pilot 
          crews.
91.1061 Augmented flight crews.
91.1062 Duty periods and rest requirements: Flight attendants.
91.1063 Testing and training: Applicability and terms used.
91.1065 Initial and recurrent pilot testing requirements.
91.1067 Initial and recurrent flight attendant crewmember testing 
          requirements.
91.1069 Flight crew: Instrument proficiency check requirements.
91.1071 Crewmember: Tests and checks, grace provisions, training to 
          accepted standards.
91.1073 Training program: General.
91.1075 Training program: Special rules.
91.1077 Training program and revision: Initial and final approval.
91.1079 Training program: Curriculum.
91.1081 Crewmember training requirements.
91.1083 Crewmember emergency training.
91.1085 Hazardous materials recognition training.
91.1087 Approval of aircraft simulators and other training device.
91.1089 Qualifications: Check pilots (aircraft) and check pilots 
          (simulator).
91.1091 Qualifications: Flight instructors (aircraft) and flight 
          instructors (simulator).
91.1093 Initial and transition training and checking: Check pilots 
          (aircraft), check pilots (simulator).
91.1095 Initial and transition training and checking: Flight instructors 
          (aircraft), flight instructors (simulator).
91.1097 Pilot and flight attendant crewmember training programs.
91.1099 Crewmember initial and recurrent training requirements.
91.1101 Pilots: Initial, transition, and upgrade ground training.
91.1103 Pilots: Initial, transition, upgrade, requalification, and 
          differences flight training.
91.1105 Flight attendants: Initial and transition ground training.
91.1107 Recurrent training.
91.1109 Aircraft maintenance: Inspection program.
91.1111 Maintenance training.
91.1113 Maintenance recordkeeping.
91.1115 Inoperable instruments and equipment.
91.1411 Continuous airworthiness maintenance program use by fractional 
          ownership program manager.
91.1413 CAMP: Responsibility for airworthiness.
91.1415 CAMP: Mechanical reliability reports.
91.1417 CAMP: Mechanical interruption summary report.

[[Page 681]]

91.1423 CAMP: Maintenance organization.
91.1425 CAMP: Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration 
          programs.
91.1427 CAMP: Manual requirements.
91.1429 CAMP: Required inspection personnel.
91.1431 CAMP: Continuing analysis and surveillance.
91.1433 CAMP: Maintenance and preventive maintenance training program.
91.1435 CAMP: Certificate requirements.
91.1437 CAMP: Authority to perform and approve maintenance.
91.1439 CAMP: Maintenance recording requirements.
91.1441 CAMP: Transfer of maintenance records.
91.1443 CAMP: Airworthiness release or aircraft maintenance log entry.

        Subpart L_Continued Airworthiness and Safety Improvements

91.1501 Purpose and definition.
91.1503 [Reserved]
91.1505 Repairs assessment for pressurized fuselages.
91.1507 Fuel tank system inspection program.

             Subpart M_Special Federal Aviation Regulations

91.1603 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 112--Prohibition Against 
          Certain Flights in the Tripoli Flight Information Region (FIR) 
          (HLLL).
91.1605 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 77--Prohibition Against 
          Certain Flights in the Baghdad Flight Information Region (FIR) 
          (ORBB).
91.1607 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 113--Prohibition Against 
          Certain Flights in Specified Areas of the Dnipro Flight 
          Information Region (FIR) (UKDV).
Sec. 91.1609 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 114--Prohibition 
          Against Certain Flights in the Damascus Flight Information 
          Region (FIR) (OSTT).
91.1611 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 115--Prohibition Against 
          Certain Flights in Specified Areas of the Sanaa Flight 
          Information Region (FIR) (OYSC).
91.1613 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 107--Prohibition Against 
          Certain Flights in the Territory and Airspace of Somalia.
91.1615 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 79--Prohibition Against 
          Certain Flights in the Pyongyang Flight Information Region 
          (FIR) (ZKKP).
91.1617 Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 117--Prohibition Against 
          Certain Flights in the Tehran Flight Information Region (FIR) 
          (OIIX).

  Subpart N_Mitsubishi MU	2B Series Special Training, Experience, and 
                         Operating Requirements

91.1701 Applicability.
91.1703 Compliance and eligibility.
91.1705 Required pilot training.
91.1707 Training program hours.
91.1709 Training program approval.
91.1711 Aeronautical experience.
91.1713 Instruction, checking, and evaluation.
91.1715 Currency requirements and flight review.
91.1717 Operating requirements.
91.1719 Credit for prior training.
91.1721 Incorporation by reference.

Appendix A to Part 91--Category II Operations: Manual, Instruments, 
          Equipment, and Maintenance
Appendixes B--C to Part 91 [Reserved]
Appendix D to Part 91--Airports/Locations: Special Operating 
          Restrictions
Appendix E to Part 91--Airplane Flight Recorder Specifications
Appendix F to Part 91--Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications
Appendix G to Part 91--Operations in Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum 
          (RVSM) Airspace

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40101, 40103, 40105, 40113, 
40120, 44101, 44111, 44701, 44704, 44709, 44711, 44712, 44715, 44716, 
44717, 44722, 46306, 46315, 46316, 46504, 46506-46507, 47122, 47508, 
47528-47531, 47534, Pub. L. 114-190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703 
note); articles 12 and 29 of the Convention on International Civil 
Aviation (61 Stat. 1180), (126 Stat. 11).



Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 50-2--Special Flight Rules 
          in the Vicinity of the Grand Canyon National Park, AZ

    Section 1. Applicability. This rule prescribes special operating 
rules for all persons operating aircraft in the following airspace, 
designated as the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area:
    That airspace extending upward from the surface up to but not 
including 14,500 feet MSL within an area bounded by a line beginning at 
lat. 36[deg]09[min]30[sec] N., long. 114[deg]03[min]00[sec] W.; 
northeast to lat. 36[deg]14[min]00[sec] N., long. 113[deg]09[min]50[sec] 
W.; thence northeast along the boundary of the Grand Canyon National 
Park to lat. 36[deg]24[min]47[sec] N., long. 112[deg]52[min]00[sec] W.; 
to lat. 36[deg]30[min]30[sec] N., long. 112[deg]36[min]15[sec] W. to 
lat. 36[deg]21[min]30[sec] N., long. 112[deg]00[min]00[sec] W. to lat. 
36[deg]35[min]30[sec] N., long. 111[deg]53[min]10[sec] W., to lat. 
36[deg]53[min]00[sec] N., long. 111[deg]36[min]45[sec] W. to lat. 
36[deg]53[min]00[sec] N., long. 111[deg]33[min]00[sec] W.; to lat. 
36[deg]19[min]00[sec] N., long. 111[deg]50[min]50[sec] W.; to lat. 
36[deg]17[min]00[sec] N., long. 111[deg]42[min]00[sec] W.; to lat. 
35[deg]59[min]30[sec] N.,

[[Page 682]]

long. 111[deg]42[min]00[sec] W.; to lat. 35[deg]57[min]30[sec] N., long. 
112[deg]03[min]55[sec] W.; thence counterclockwise via the 5 statute 
mile radius of the Grand Canyon Airport airport reference point (lat. 
35[deg]57[min]09[sec] N., long. 112[deg]08[min]47[sec] W.) to lat. 
35[deg]57[min]30[sec] N., long. 112[deg]14[min]00[sec] W.; to lat. 
35[deg]57[min]30[sec] N., long. 113[deg]11[min]00[sec] W.; to lat. 
35[deg]42[min]30[sec] N., long. 113[deg]11[min]00[sec] W.; to 
35[deg]38[min]30[sec] N.; long. 113[deg]27[min]30[sec] W.; thence 
counterclockwise via the 5 statute mile radius of the Peach Springs 
VORTAC to lat. 35[deg]41[min]20[sec] N., long. 113[deg]36[min]00[sec] 
W.; to lat. 35[deg]55[min]25[sec] N., long. 113[deg]49[min]10[sec] W.; 
to lat. 35[deg]57[min]45[sec] N., 113[deg]45[min]20[sec] W.; thence 
northwest along the park boundary to lat. 36[deg]02[min]20[sec] N., 
long. 113[deg]50[min]15[sec] W.; to 36[deg]00[min]10[sec] N., long. 
113[deg]53[min]45[sec] W.; thence to the point of beginning.
    Section 3. Aircraft operations: general. Except in an emergency, no 
person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules, Area under 
VFR on or after September 22, 1988, or under IFR on or after April 6, 
1989, unless the operation--
    (a) Is conducted in accordance with the following procedures:

    Note: The following procedures do not relieve the pilot from see-
and-avoid responsibility or compliance with FAR 91.119.

    (1) Unless necessary to maintain a safe distance from other aircraft 
or terrain--
    (i) Remain clear of the areas described in Section 4; and
    (ii) Remain at or above the following altitudes in each sector of 
the canyon:
    Eastern section from Lees Ferry to North Canyon and North Canyon to 
Boundary Ridge: as prescribed in Section 5.
    Boundary Ridge to Supai Point (Yumtheska Point): 10,000 feet MSL.
    Western section from Diamond Creek to the Grant Wash Cliffs: 8,000 
feet MSL.
    (2) Proceed through the four flight corridors describe in Section 4 
at the following altitudes unless otherwise authorized in writing by the 
responsible Flight Standards office:

                               Northbound

    11,500 or
    13,500 feet MSL

                               Southbound

    10,500 or
    12,500 feet MSL
    (b) Is authorized in writing by the responsible Flight Standards 
office and is conducted in compliance with the conditions contained in 
that authorization. Normally authorization will be granted for operation 
in the areas described in Section 4 or below the altitudes listed in 
Section 5 only for operations of aircraft necessary for law enforcement, 
firefighting, emergency medical treatment/evacuation of persons in the 
vicinity of the Park; for support of Park maintenance or activities; or 
for aerial access to and maintenance of other property located within 
the Special Flight Rules Area. Authorization may be issued on a 
continuing basis.
    (c)(1) Prior to November 1, 1988, is conducted in accordance with a 
specific authorization to operate in that airspace incorporated in the 
operator's part 135 operations specifications in accordance with the 
provisions of SFAR 50-1, notwithstanding the provisions of Sections 4 
and 5; and
    (2) On or after November 1, 1988, is conducted in accordance with a 
specific authorization to operate in that airspace incorporated in the 
operated in the operator's operations specifications and approved by the 
responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with the provisions of 
SFAR 50-2.
    (d) Is a search and rescue mission directed by the U.S. Air Force 
Rescue Coordination Center.
    (e) Is conducted within 3 nautical miles of Whitmore Airstrip, 
Pearce Ferry Airstrip, North Rim Airstrip, Cliff Dwellers Airstrip, or 
Marble Canyon Airstrip at an altitudes less than 3,000 feet above 
airport elevation, for the purpose of landing at or taking off from that 
facility. Or
    (f) Is conducted under an IFR clearance and the pilot is acting in 
accordance with ATC instructions. An IFR flight plan may not be filed on 
a route or at an altitude that would require operation in an area 
described in Section 4.
    Section 4. Flight-free zones. Except in an emergency or if otherwise 
necessary for safety of flight, or unless otherwise authorized by the 
responsible Flight Standards office for a purpose listed in Section 
3(b), no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area 
within the following areas:
    (a) Desert View Flight-Free Zone. Within an area bounded by a line 
beginning at Lat. 35[deg]59[min]30[sec] N., Long. 111[deg]46[min]20[sec] 
W. to 35[deg]59[min]30[sec] N., Long. 111[deg]52[min]45[sec] W.; to Lat. 
36[deg]04[min]50[sec] N., Long. 111[deg]52[min]00[sec] W.; to Lat. 
36[deg]06[min]00[sec] N., Long. 111[deg]46[min]20[sec] W.; to the point 
of origin; but not including the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL 
within 1 mile of the western boundary of the zone. The area between the 
Desert View and Bright Angel Flight-Free Zones is designated the ``Zuni 
Point Corridor.''
    (b) Bright Angel Flight-Free Zone. Within an area bounded by a line 
beginning at Lat. 35[deg]59[min]30[sec] N., Long. 111[deg]55[min]30[sec] 
W.; to Lat. 35[deg]59[min]30[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]04[min]00[sec] W.; 
thence counterclockwise via the 5 statute mile radius of the Grand 
Canyon Airport point (Lat. 35[deg]57[min]09[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]08[min]47[sec] W.) to Lat. 36[deg]01[min]30[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]11[min]00[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]06[min]15[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]12[min]50[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]14[min]40[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]08[min]50[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]14[min]40[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]57[min]30[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]12[min]30[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]53[min]50[sec] W.; to the point of origin; but not including the 
airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 1 mile of the eastern 
boundary between the southern

[[Page 683]]

boundary and Lat. 36[deg]04[min]50[sec] N. or the airspace at and above 
10,500 feet MSL within 2 miles of the northwest boundary. The area 
bounded by the Bright Angel and Shinumo Flight-Free Zones is designated 
the ``Dragon Corridor.''
    (c) Shinumo Flight-Free Zone. Within an area bounded by a line 
beginning at Lat. 36[deg]04[min]00[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]16[min]40[sec] 
W.; northwest along the park boundary to a point at Lat. 
36[deg]12[min]47[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]30[min]53[sec] W.; to Lat. 
36[deg]21[min]15[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]20[min]20[sec] W.; east along 
the park boundary to Lat. 36[deg]21[min]15[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]13[min]55[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]14[min]40[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]11[min]25[sec] W.; to the point of origin. The area between the 
Thunder River/Toroweap and Shinumo Flight Free Zones is designated the 
``Fossil Canyon Corridor.''
    (d) Toroweap/Thunder River Flight-Free Zone. Within an area bounded 
by a line beginning at Lat. 36[deg]22[min]45[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]20[min]35[sec] W.; thence northwest along the boundary of the 
Grand Canyon National Park to Lat. 36[deg]17[min]48[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]03[min]15[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]15[min]00[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]07[min]10[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]10[min]30[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]07[min]10[sec] W.; thence east along the Colorado River to the 
confluence of Havasu Canyon (Lat. 36[deg]18[min]40[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]45[min]45[sec] W.;) including that area within a 1.5 nautical 
mile radius of Toroweap Overlook (Lat. 36[deg]12[min]45[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]03[min]30[sec] W.); to the point of origin; but not including 
the following airspace designated as the ``Tuckup Corridor'': at or 
above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 nautical miles either side of a line 
extending between Lat. 36[deg]24[min]47[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]48[min]50[sec] W. and Lat. 36[deg]17[min]10[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]48[min]50[sec] W.; to the point of origin.
    Section 5. Minimum flight altitudes. Except in an emergency or if 
otherwise necessary for safety of flight, or unless otherwise authorized 
by the responsible Flight Standards office for a purpose listed in 
Section 3(b), no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight 
Rules Area at an altitude lower than the following:
    (a) Eastern section from Lees Ferry to North Canyon: 5,000 feet MSL.
    (b) Eastern section from North Canyon to Boundary Ridge: 6,000 feet 
MSL.
    (c) Boundary Ridge to Supai (Yumtheska) Point: 7,500 feet MSL.
    (d) Supai Point to Diamond Creek: 6,500 feet MSL.
    (e) Western section from Diamond Creek to the Grand Wash Cliffs: 
5,000 feet MSL.
    Section 9. Termination date. Section 1. Applicability, Section 4, 
Flight-free zones, and Section 5. Minimum flight altitudes, expire on 
April 19, 2001.

    Note: [Removed]

[66 FR 1003, Jan. 4, 2001, as amended at 66 FR 16584, Mar. 26, 2001; 72 
FR 9846, Mar. 6, 2007; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, 
Mar. 5, 2018]



  Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 60--Air Traffic Control 
                       System Emergency Operation

    1. Each person shall, before conducting any operation under the 
Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR chapter I), be familiar with all 
available information concerning that operation, including Notices to 
Airmen issued under Sec. 91.139 and, when activated, the provisions of 
the National Air Traffic Reduced Complement Operations Plan available 
for inspection at operating air traffic facilities and Regional air 
traffic division offices, and the General Aviation Reservation Program. 
No operator may change the designated airport of intended operation for 
any flight contained in the October 1, 1990, OAG.
    2. Notwithstanding any provision of the Federal Aviation Regulations 
to the contrary, no person may operate an aircraft in the Air Traffic 
Control System:
    a. Contrary to any restriction, prohibition, procedure or other 
action taken by the Director of the Office of Air Traffic Systems 
Management (Director) pursuant to paragraph 3 of this regulation and 
announced in a Notice to Airmen pursuant to Sec. 91.139 of the Federal 
Aviation Regulations.
    b. When the National Air Traffic Reduced Complement Operations Plan 
is activated pursuant to paragraph 4 of this regulation, except in 
accordance with the pertinent provisions of the National Air Traffic 
Reduced Complement Operations Plan.
    3. Prior to or in connection with the implementation of the RCOP, 
and as conditions warrant, the Director is authorized to:
    a. Restrict, prohibit, or permit VFR and/or IFR operations at any 
airport, Class B airspace area, Class C airspace area, or other class of 
controlled airspace.
    b. Give priority at any airport to flights that are of military 
necessity, or are medical emergency flights, Presidential flights, and 
flights transporting critical Government employees.
    c. Implement, at any airport, traffic management procedures, that 
may include reduction of flight operations. Reduction of flight 
operations will be accomplished, to the extent practical, on a pro rata 
basis among and between air carrier, commercial operator, and general 
aviation operations. Flights cancelled under this SFAR at a high density 
traffic airport will be considered to have been operated for purposes of 
part 93 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.
    4. The Director may activate the National Air Traffic Reduced 
Complement Operations Plan at any time he finds that it is necessary for 
the safety and efficiency of the National Airspace System. Upon 
activation of the RCOP and notwithstanding any provision of the FAR to 
the contrary, the Director is authorized to suspend or modify any 
airspace designation.

[[Page 684]]

    5. Notice of restrictions, prohibitions, procedures and other 
actions taken by the Director under this regulation with respect to the 
operation of the Air Traffic Control system will be announced in Notices 
to Airmen issued pursuant to Sec. 91.139 of the Federal Aviation 
Regulations.
    6. The Director may delegate his authority under this regulation to 
the extent he considers necessary for the safe and efficient operation 
of the National Air Traffic Control System.

(Authority: 49 U.S.C. app. 1301(7), 1303, 1344, 1348, 1352 through 1355, 
1401, 1421 through 1431, 1471, 1472, 1502, 1510, 1522, and 2121 through 
2125; articles 12, 29, 31, and 32(a) of the Convention on International 
Civil Aviation (61 stat. 1180); 42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.; E.O. 11514, 35 
FR 4247, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 902; 49 U.S.C. 106(g))

[Doc. No. 26351, 55 FR 40760, Oct. 4, 1990, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 
56 FR 65652, Dec. 17, 1991]



Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97--Special Operating Rules 
for the Conduct of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Area Navigation (RNAV) 
       Operations using Global Positioning Systems (GPS) in Alaska

    Those persons identified in Section 1 may conduct IFR en route RNAV 
operations in the State of Alaska and its airspace on published air 
traffic routes using TSO C145a/C146a navigation systems as the only 
means of IFR navigation. Despite contrary provisions of parts 71, 91, 
95, 121, 125, and 135 of this chapter, a person may operate aircraft in 
accordance with this SFAR if the following requirements are met.

                Section 1. Purpose, use, and limitations

    a. This SFAR permits TSO C145a/C146a GPS (RNAV) systems to be used 
for IFR en route operations in the United States airspace over and near 
Alaska (as set forth in paragraph c of this section) at Special Minimum 
En Route Altitudes (MEA) that are outside the operational service volume 
of ground-based navigation aids, if the aircraft operation also meets 
the requirements of sections 3 and 4 of this SFAR.
    b. Certificate holders and part 91 operators may operate aircraft 
under this SFAR provided that they comply with the requirements of this 
SFAR.
    c. Operations conducted under this SFAR are limited to United States 
Airspace within and near the State of Alaska as defined in the following 
area description:
    From 62[deg]00[min]00.000[sec] N, Long. 141[deg]00[min]00.00[sec] 
W.; to Lat. 59[deg]47[min]54.11[sec] N., Long. 135[deg]28[min]38.34[sec] 
W.; to Lat. 56[deg]00[min]04.11[sec] N., Long. 130[deg]00[min]07.80[sec] 
W.; to Lat. 54[deg]43[min]00.00[sec] N., Long. 130[deg]37[min]00.00[sec] 
W.; to Lat. 51[deg]24[min]00.00[sec] N., Long. 167[deg]49[min]00.00[sec] 
W.; to Lat. 50[deg]08[min]00.00[sec] N., Long. 176[deg]34[min]00.00[sec] 
W.; to Lat. 45[deg]42[min]00.00[sec] N., Long. -
162[deg]55[min]00.00[sec] E.; to Lat. 50[deg]05[min]00.00[sec] N., Long. 
-159[deg]00[min]00.00[sec] E.; to Lat. 54[deg]00[min]00.00[sec] N., 
Long. -169[deg]00[min]00.00[sec] E.; to Lat. 60[deg]00 00.00[sec] N., 
Long. -180[deg]00[min] 00.00[sec] E; to Lat. 65[deg]00[min]00.00[sec] 
N., Long. 168[deg]58[min]23.00[sec] W.; to Lat. 90[deg]00[min]00.00[sec] 
N., Long. 00[deg]00[min]0.00[sec] W.; to Lat. 62[deg]00[min]00.000[sec] 
N, Long. 141[deg]00[min]00.00[sec] W.
    (d) No person may operate an aircraft under IFR during the en route 
portion of flight below the standard MEA or at the special MEA unless 
the operation is conducted in accordance with sections 3 and 4 of this 
SFAR.

                Section 2. Definitions and abbreviations

    For the purposes of this SFAR, the following definitions and 
abbreviations apply.
    Area navigation (RNAV). RNAV is a method of navigation that permits 
aircraft operations on any desired flight path.
    Area navigation (RNAV) route. RNAV route is a published route based 
on RNAV that can be used by suitably equipped aircraft.
    Certificate holder. A certificate holder means a person holding a 
certificate issued under part 119 or part 125 of this chapter or holding 
operations specifications issued under part 129 of this chapter.
    Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS). GNSS is a world-wide 
position and time determination system that uses satellite ranging 
signals to determine user location. It encompasses all satellite ranging 
technologies, including GPS and additional satellites. Components of the 
GNSS include GPS, the Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite System, and 
WAAS satellites.
    Global Positioning System (GPS). GPS is a satellite-based radio 
navigational, positioning, and time transfer system. The system provides 
highly accurate position and velocity information and precise time on a 
continuous global basis to properly equipped users.
    Minimum crossing altitude (MCA). The minimum crossing altitude (MCA) 
applies to the operation of an aircraft proceeding to a higher minimum 
en route altitude when crossing specified fixes.
    Required navigation system. Required navigation system means 
navigation equipment that meets the performance requirements of TSO 
C145a/C146a navigation systems certified for IFR en route operations.
    Route segment. Route segment is a portion of a route bounded on each 
end by a fix or NAVAID.
    Special MEA. Special MEA refers to the minimum en route altitudes, 
using required navigation systems, on published routes outside the 
operational service volume of ground-based navigation aids and are 
depicted on the published Low Altitude and High Altitude En Route Charts 
using the

[[Page 685]]

color blue and with the suffix ``G.'' For example, a GPS MEA of 4000 
feet MSL would be depicted using the color blue, as 4000G.
    Standard MEA. Standard MEA refers to the minimum en route IFR 
altitude on published routes that uses ground-based navigation aids and 
are depicted on the published Low Altitude and High Altitude En Route 
Charts using the color black.
    Station referenced. Station referenced refers to radio navigational 
aids or fixes that are referenced by ground based navigation facilities 
such as VOR facilities.
    Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS). WAAS is an augmentation to GPS 
that calculates GPS integrity and correction data on the ground and uses 
geo-stationary satellites to broadcast GPS integrity and correction data 
to GPS/WAAS users and to provide ranging signals. It is a safety 
critical system consisting of a ground network of reference and 
integrity monitor data processing sites to assess current GPS 
performance, as well as a space segment that broadcasts that assessment 
to GNSS users to support en route through precision approach navigation. 
Users of the system include all aircraft applying the WAAS data and 
ranging signal.

                   Section 3. Operational Requirements

    To operate an aircraft under this SFAR, the following requirements 
must be met:
    a. Training and qualification for operations and maintenance 
personnel on required navigation equipment used under this SFAR.
    b. Use authorized procedures for normal, abnormal, and emergency 
situations unique to these operations, including degraded navigation 
capabilities, and satellite system outages.
    c. For certificate holders, training of flight crewmembers and other 
personnel authorized to exercise operational control on the use of those 
procedures specified in paragraph b of this section.
    d. Part 129 operators must have approval from the State of the 
operator to conduct operations in accordance with this SFAR.
    e. In order to operate under this SFAR, a certificate holder must be 
authorized in operations specifications.

                    Section 4. Equipment Requirements

    a. The certificate holder must have properly installed, 
certificated, and functional dual required navigation systems as defined 
in section 2 of this SFAR for the en route operations covered under this 
SFAR.
    b. When the aircraft is being operated under part 91, the aircraft 
must be equipped with at least one properly installed, certificated, and 
functional required navigation system as defined in section 2 of this 
SFAR for the en route operations covered under this SFAR.

                       Section 5. Expiration date

    This Special Federal Aviation Regulation will remain in effect until 
rescinded.

[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14305, 68 FR 14077, Mar. 21, 2003]



 Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 104--Prohibition Against 
       Certain Flights by Syrian Air Carriers to the United States

    1. Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) 
No. 104 applies to any air carrier owned or controlled by Syria that is 
engaged in scheduled international air services.
    2. Special flight restrictions. Except as provided in paragraphs 3 
and 4 of this SFAR No. 104, no air carrier described in paragraph 1 may 
take off from or land in the territory of the United States.
    3. Permitted operations. This SFAR does not prohibit overflights of 
the territory of the United States by any air carrier described in 
paragraph 1.
    4. Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate 
decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command 
of an aircraft of any air carrier described in paragraph 1 may deviate 
from this SFAR to the extent required by that emergency. Each person who 
deviates from this rule must, within 10 days of the deviation, excluding 
Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the responsible 
Flight Standards office a complete report of the operations or the 
aircraft involved in the deviation, including a description of the 
deviation and the reasons therefor.
    5. Duration. This SFAR No. 104 will remain in effect until further 
notice.

[Doc. No. FAA-2004-17763, 69 FR 31719, June 4, 2004, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]



                            Subpart A_General

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.1  Applicability.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), (e), and (f) of this 
section and Sec. Sec. 91.701 and 91.703, this part prescribes rules 
governing the operation of aircraft within the United States, including 
the waters within 3 nautical miles of the U.S. coast.
    (b) Each person operating an aircraft in the airspace overlying the 
waters between 3 and 12 nautical miles from the

[[Page 686]]

coast of the United States must comply with Sec. Sec. 91.1 through 
91.21; Sec. Sec. 91.101 through 91.143; Sec. Sec. 91.151 through 
91.159; Sec. Sec. 91.167 through 91.193; Sec. 91.203; Sec. 91.205; 
Sec. Sec. 91.209 through 91.217; Sec. 91.221, Sec. 91.225; Sec. Sec. 
91.303 through 91.319; Sec. Sec. 91.323 through 91.327; Sec. 91.605; 
Sec. 91.609; Sec. Sec. 91.703 through 91.715; and Sec. 91.903.
    (c) This part applies to each person on board an aircraft being 
operated under this part, unless otherwise specified.
    (d) This part also establishes requirements for operators to take 
actions to support the continued airworthiness of each airplane.
    (e) This part does not apply to any aircraft or vehicle governed by 
part 103 of this chapter, or subparts B, C, or D of part 101 of this 
chapter.
    (f) Except as provided in Sec. Sec. 107.13, 107.27, 107.47, 107.57, 
and 107.59 of this chapter, this part does not apply to any aircraft 
governed by part 107 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-257, 
64 FR 1079, Jan. 7, 1999; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004; 
Amdt. 91-297, 72 FR 63410, Nov. 8, 2007; Amdt. 91-314, 75 FR 30193, May 
28, 2010; Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 91-343, 81 FR 42208, June 28, 
2016]



Sec. 91.3  Responsibility and authority of the pilot in command.

    (a) The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, 
and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.
    (b) In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot 
in command may deviate from any rule of this part to the extent required 
to meet that emergency.
    (c) Each pilot in command who deviates from a rule under paragraph 
(b) of this section shall, upon the request of the Administrator, send a 
written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)



Sec. 91.5  Pilot in command of aircraft requiring more than one required pilot.

    No person may operate an aircraft that is type certificated for more 
than one required pilot flight crewmember unless the pilot in command 
meets the requirements of Sec. 61.58 of this chapter.



Sec. 91.7  Civil aircraft airworthiness.

    (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless it is in an 
airworthy condition.
    (b) The pilot in command of a civil aircraft is responsible for 
determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight. The 
pilot in command shall discontinue the flight when unairworthy 
mechanical, electrical, or structural conditions occur.



Sec. 91.9  Civil aircraft flight manual, marking, and placard requirements.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person 
may operate a civil aircraft without complying with the operating 
limitations specified in the approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight 
Manual, markings, and placards, or as otherwise prescribed by the 
certificating authority of the country of registry.
    (b) No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft--
    (1) For which an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual is required by 
Sec. 21.5 of this chapter unless there is available in the aircraft a 
current, approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual or the manual 
provided for in Sec. 121.141(b); and
    (2) For which an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual is not 
required by Sec. 21.5 of this chapter, unless there is available in the 
aircraft a current approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual, 
approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination 
thereof.
    (c) No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft unless 
that aircraft is identified in accordance with part 45 or 48of this 
chapter.
    (d) Any person taking off or landing a helicopter certificated under 
part 29 of this chapter at a heliport constructed over water may make 
such momentary flight as is necessary for takeoff or landing through the 
prohibited range of the limiting height-speed envelope established for 
the helicopter if that flight through the prohibited range takes place 
over water on which a safe ditching can be accomplished and if the 
helicopter is amphibious or

[[Page 687]]

is equipped with floats or other emergency flotation gear adequate to 
accomplish a safe emergency ditching on open water.

[Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by ; Docket 
No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 91-366, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 91.11  Prohibition on interference with crewmembers.

    No person may assault, threaten, intimidate, or interfere with a 
crewmember in the performance of the crewmember's duties aboard an 
aircraft being operated.



Sec. 91.13  Careless or reckless operation.

    (a) Aircraft operations for the purpose of air navigation. No person 
may operate an aircraft in a careless or reckless manner so as to 
endanger the life or property of another.
    (b) Aircraft operations other than for the purpose of air 
navigation. No person may operate an aircraft, other than for the 
purpose of air navigation, on any part of the surface of an airport used 
by aircraft for air commerce (including areas used by those aircraft for 
receiving or discharging persons or cargo), in a careless or reckless 
manner so as to endanger the life or property of another.



Sec. 91.15  Dropping objects.

    No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be 
dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or 
property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any 
object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to 
persons or property.



Sec. 91.17  Alcohol or drugs.

    (a) No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil 
aircraft--
    (1) Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage;
    (2) While under the influence of alcohol;
    (3) While using any drug that affects the person's faculties in any 
way contrary to safety; or
    (4) While having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater in a 
blood or breath specimen. Alcohol concentration means grams of alcohol 
per deciliter of blood or grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath.
    (b) Except in an emergency, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a 
person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or 
physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs 
(except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in that 
aircraft.
    (c) A crewmember shall do the following:
    (1) On request of a law enforcement officer, submit to a test to 
indicate the alcohol concentration in the blood or breath, when--
    (i) The law enforcement officer is authorized under State or local 
law to conduct the test or to have the test conducted; and
    (ii) The law enforcement officer is requesting submission to the 
test to investigate a suspected violation of State or local law 
governing the same or substantially similar conduct prohibited by 
paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(4) of this section.
    (2) Whenever the FAA has a reasonable basis to believe that a person 
may have violated paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(4) of this section, 
on request of the FAA, that person must furnish to the FAA the results, 
or authorize any clinic, hospital, or doctor, or other person to release 
to the FAA, the results of each test taken within 4 hours after acting 
or attempting to act as a crewmember that indicates an alcohol 
concentration in the blood or breath specimen.
    (d) Whenever the Administrator has a reasonable basis to believe 
that a person may have violated paragraph (a)(3) of this section, that 
person shall, upon request by the Administrator, furnish the 
Administrator, or authorize any clinic, hospital, doctor, or other 
person to release to the Administrator, the results of each test taken 
within 4 hours after acting or attempting to act as a crewmember that 
indicates the presence of any drugs in the body.
    (e) Any test information obtained by the Administrator under 
paragraph (c) or (d) of this section may be evaluated in determining a 
person's qualifications for any airman certificate or possible 
violations of this chapter and

[[Page 688]]

may be used as evidence in any legal proceeding under section 602, 609, 
or 901 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-291, 
June 21, 2006]



Sec. 91.19  Carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant
or stimulant drugs or substances.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person 
may operate a civil aircraft within the United States with knowledge 
that narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or 
substances as defined in Federal or State statutes are carried in the 
aircraft.
    (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to any carriage of 
narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or 
substances authorized by or under any Federal or State statute or by any 
Federal or State agency.



Sec. 91.21  Portable electronic devices.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person 
may operate, nor may any operator or pilot in command of an aircraft 
allow the operation of, any portable electronic device on any of the 
following U.S.-registered civil aircraft:
    (1) Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating 
certificate or an operating certificate; or
    (2) Any other aircraft while it is operated under IFR.
    (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to--
    (1) Portable voice recorders;
    (2) Hearing aids;
    (3) Heart pacemakers;
    (4) Electric shavers; or
    (5) Any other portable electronic device that the operator of the 
aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation 
or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used.
    (c) In the case of an aircraft operated by a holder of an air 
carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate, the 
determination required by paragraph (b)(5) of this section shall be made 
by that operator of the aircraft on which the particular device is to be 
used. In the case of other aircraft, the determination may be made by 
the pilot in command or other operator of the aircraft.



Sec. 91.23  Truth-in-leasing clause requirement in leases and conditional
sales contracts.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the parties 
to a lease or contract of conditional sale involving a U.S.-registered 
large civil aircraft and entered into after January 2, 1973, shall 
execute a written lease or contract and include therein a written truth-
in-leasing clause as a concluding paragraph in large print, immediately 
preceding the space for the signature of the parties, which contains the 
following with respect to each such aircraft:
    (1) Identification of the Federal Aviation Regulations under which 
the aircraft has been maintained and inspected during the 12 months 
preceding the execution of the lease or contract of conditional sale, 
and certification by the parties thereto regarding the aircraft's status 
of compliance with applicable maintenance and inspection requirements in 
this part for the operation to be conducted under the lease or contract 
of conditional sale.
    (2) The name and address (printed or typed) and the signature of the 
person responsible for operational control of the aircraft under the 
lease or contract of conditional sale, and certification that each 
person understands that person's responsibilities for compliance with 
applicable Federal Aviation Regulations.
    (3) A statement that an explanation of factors bearing on 
operational control and pertinent Federal Aviation Regulations can be 
obtained from the responsible Flight Standards office.
    (b) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply--
    (1) To a lease or contract of conditional sale when--
    (i) The party to whom the aircraft is furnished is a foreign air 
carrier or certificate holder under part 121, 125, 135, or 141 of this 
chapter, or
    (ii) The party furnishing the aircraft is a foreign air carrier or a 
person operating under part 121, 125, and 141 of this chapter, or a 
person operating under

[[Page 689]]

part 135 of this chapter having authority to engage in on-demand 
operations with large aircraft.
    (2) To a contract of conditional sale, when the aircraft involved 
has not been registered anywhere prior to the execution of the contract, 
except as a new aircraft under a dealer's aircraft registration 
certificate issued in accordance with Sec. 47.61 of this chapter.
    (c) No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S. registry 
that is subject to a lease or contract of conditional sale to which 
paragraph (a) of this section applies, unless--
    (1) The lessee or conditional buyer, or the registered owner if the 
lessee is not a citizen of the United States, has mailed a copy of the 
lease or contract that complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) 
of this section, within 24 hours of its execution, to the Aircraft 
Registration Branch, Attn: Technical Section, P.O. Box 25724, Oklahoma 
City, OK 73125;
    (2) A copy of the lease or contract that complies with the 
requirements of paragraph (a) of this section is carried in the 
aircraft. The copy of the lease or contract shall be made available for 
review upon request by the Administrator, and
    (3) The lessee or conditional buyer, or the registered owner if the 
lessee is not a citizen of the United States, has notified by telephone 
or in person the responsible Flight Standards office. Unless otherwise 
authorized by that office, the notification shall be given at least 48 
hours before takeoff in the case of the first flight of that aircraft 
under that lease or contract and inform the FAA of--
    (i) The location of the airport of departure;
    (ii) The departure time; and
    (iii) The registration number of the aircraft involved.
    (d) The copy of the lease or contract furnished to the FAA under 
paragraph (c) of this section is commercial or financial information 
obtained from a person. It is, therefore, privileged and confidential 
and will not be made available by the FAA for public inspection or 
copying under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) unless recorded with the FAA under part 
49 of this chapter.
    (e) For the purpose of this section, a lease means any agreement by 
a person to furnish an aircraft to another person for compensation or 
hire, whether with or without flight crewmembers, other than an 
agreement for the sale of an aircraft and a contract of conditional sale 
under section 101 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958. The person 
furnishing the aircraft is referred to as the lessor, and the person to 
whom it is furnished the lessee.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-212, 
54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 91-253, 62 FR 13253, Mar. 19, 1997; 
Amdt. 91-267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 
91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 91.25  Aviation Safety Reporting Program: Prohibition against
use of reports for enforcement purposes.

    The Administrator of the FAA will not use reports submitted to the 
National Aeronautics and Space Administration under the Aviation Safety 
Reporting Program (or information derived therefrom) in any enforcement 
action except information concerning accidents or criminal offenses 
which are wholly excluded from the Program.



Sec. Sec. 91.27-91.99  [Reserved]



                         Subpart B_Flight Rules

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.

                                 General



Sec. 91.101  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes flight rules governing the operation of 
aircraft within the United States and within 12 nautical miles from the 
coast of the United States.



Sec. 91.103  Preflight action.

    Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become 
familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This 
information must include--
    (a) For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an 
airport,

[[Page 690]]

weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available 
if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays 
of which the pilot in command has been advised by ATC;
    (b) For any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use, and 
the following takeoff and landing distance information:
    (1) For civil aircraft for which an approved Airplane or Rotorcraft 
Flight Manual containing takeoff and landing distance data is required, 
the takeoff and landing distance data contained therein; and
    (2) For civil aircraft other than those specified in paragraph 
(b)(1) of this section, other reliable information appropriate to the 
aircraft, relating to aircraft performance under expected values of 
airport elevation and runway slope, aircraft gross weight, and wind and 
temperature.



Sec. 91.105  Flight crewmembers at stations.

    (a) During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required 
flight crewmember shall--
    (1) Be at the crewmember station unless the absence is necessary to 
perform duties in connection with the operation of the aircraft or in 
connection with physiological needs; and
    (2) Keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station.
    (b) Each required flight crewmember of a U.S.-registered civil 
aircraft shall, during takeoff and landing, keep his or her shoulder 
harness fastened while at his or her assigned duty station. This 
paragraph does not apply if--
    (1) The seat at the crewmember's station is not equipped with a 
shoulder harness; or
    (2) The crewmember would be unable to perform required duties with 
the shoulder harness fastened.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-231, 
57 FR 42671, Sept. 15, 1992]



Sec. 91.107  Use of safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and 
child restraint systems.

    (a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator--
    (1) No pilot may take off a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a 
free balloon that incorporates a basket or gondola, or an airship type 
certificated before November 2, 1987) unless the pilot in command of 
that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to 
fasten and unfasten that person's safety belt and, if installed, 
shoulder harness.
    (2) No pilot may cause to be moved on the surface, take off, or land 
a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that 
incorporates a basket or gondola, or an airship type certificated before 
November 2, 1987) unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures 
that each person on board has been notified to fasten his or her safety 
belt and, if installed, his or her shoulder harness.
    (3) Except as provided in this paragraph, each person on board a 
U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that incorporates 
a basket or gondola or an airship type certificated before November 2, 
1987) must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt and, if 
installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during 
movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. For seaplane and float 
equipped rotorcraft operations during movement on the surface, the 
person pushing off the seaplane or rotorcraft from the dock and the 
person mooring the seaplane or rotorcraft at the dock are excepted from 
the preceding seating and safety belt requirements. Notwithstanding the 
preceding requirements of this paragraph, a person may:
    (i) Be held by an adult who is occupying an approved seat or berth, 
provided that the person being held has not reached his or her second 
birthday and does not occupy or use any restraining device;
    (ii) Use the floor of the aircraft as a seat, provided that the 
person is on board for the purpose of engaging in sport parachuting; or
    (iii) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this chapter, occupy 
an approved child restraint system furnished by the operator or one of 
the persons described in paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A) of this section 
provided that:

[[Page 691]]

    (A) The child is accompanied by a parent, guardian, or attendant 
designated by the child's parent or guardian to attend to the safety of 
the child during the flight;
    (B) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(B)(4) of this 
action, the approved child restraint system bears one or more labels as 
follows:
    (1) Seats manufactured to U.S. standards between January 1, 1981, 
and February 25, 1985, must bear the label: ``This child restraint 
system conforms to all applicable Federal motor vehicle safety 
standards'';
    (2) Seats manufactured to U.S. standards on or after February 26, 
1985, must bear two labels:
    (i) ``This child restraint system conforms to all applicable Federal 
motor vehicle safety standards''; and
    (ii) ``THIS RESTRAINT IS CERTIFIED FOR USE IN MOTOR VEHICLES AND 
AIRCRAFT'' in red lettering;
    (3) Seats that do not qualify under paragraphs (a)(3)(iii)(B)(1) and 
(a)(3)(iii)(B)(2) of this section must bear a label or markings showing:
    (ii) That the seat was manufactured under the standards of the 
United Nations;
    (iii) That the seat or child restraint device furnished by the 
operator was approved by the FAA through Type Certificate or 
Supplemental Type Certificate; or
    (iv) That the seat or child restraint device furnished by the 
operator, or one of the persons described in paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A) of 
this section, was approved by the FAA in accordance with Sec. 21.8(d) 
of this chapter or Technical Standard Order C-100b or a later version. 
The child restraint device manufactured by AmSafe, Inc. (CARES, Part No. 
4082) and approved by the FAA in accordance with Sec. 21.305(d) (2010 
ed.) of this chapter may continue to bear a label or markings showing 
FAA approval in accordance with Sec. 21.305(d) (2010 ed.) of this 
chapter.
    (4) Except as provided in Sec. 91.107(a)(3)(iii)(B)(3)(iii) and 
Sec. 91.107(a)(3)(iii)(B)(3)(iv), booster-type child restraint systems 
(as defined in Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard No. 213 (49 CFR 
571.213)), vest- and harness-type child restraint systems, and lap held 
child restraints are not approved for use in aircraft; and
    (C) The operator complies with the following requirements:
    (1) The restraint system must be properly secured to an approved 
forward-facing seat or berth;
    (2) The child must be properly secured in the restraint system and 
must not exceed the specified weight limit for the restraint system; and
    (3) The restraint system must bear the appropriate label(s).
    (b) Unless otherwise stated, this section does not apply to 
operations conducted under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter. 
Paragraph (a)(3) of this section does not apply to persons subject to 
Sec. 91.105.

[Doc. No. 26142, 57 FR 42671, Sept. 15, 1992, as amended by Amdt. 91-
250, 61 FR 28421, June 4, 1996; Amdt. 91-289, 70 FR 50906, Aug. 26, 
2005; Amdt. 91-292, 71 FR 40009, July 14, 2006; Amdt. 91-317, 75 FR 
48857, Aug. 12, 2010; Amdt. 91-332, 79 FR 28812, May 20, 2014]



Sec. 91.109  Flight instruction; Simulated instrument flight
and certain flight tests.

    (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft (except a manned free 
balloon) that is being used for flight instruction unless that aircraft 
has fully functioning dual controls. However, instrument flight 
instruction may be given in an airplane that is equipped with a single, 
functioning throwover control wheel that controls the elevator and 
ailerons, in place of fixed, dual controls, when--
    (1) The instructor has determined that the flight can be conducted 
safely; and
    (2) The person manipulating the controls has at least a private 
pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings.
    (b) An airplane equipped with a single, functioning throwover 
control wheel that controls the elevator and ailerons, in place of 
fixed, dual controls may be used for flight instruction to conduct a 
flight review required by Sec. 61.56 of this chapter, or to obtain 
recent flight experience or an instrument proficiency check required by 
Sec. 61.57 when--
    (1) The airplane is equipped with operable rudder pedals at both 
pilot stations;

[[Page 692]]

    (2) The pilot manipulating the controls is qualified to serve and 
serves as pilot in command during the entire flight;
    (3) The instructor is current and qualified to serve as pilot in 
command of the airplane, meets the requirements of Sec. 61.195(b), and 
has logged at least 25 hours of pilot-in-command flight time in the make 
and model of airplane; and
    (4) The pilot in command and the instructor have determined the 
flight can be conducted safely.
    (c) No person may operate a civil aircraft in simulated instrument 
flight unless--
    (1) The other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot who 
possesses at least:
    (i) A private pilot certificate with category and class ratings 
appropriate to the aircraft being flown; or
    (ii) For purposes of providing training for a solo cross-country 
endorsement under Sec. 61.93 of this chapter, a flight instructor 
certificate with an appropriate sport pilot rating and meets the 
requirements of Sec. 61.412 of this chapter.
    (2) The safety pilot has adequate vision forward and to each side of 
the aircraft, or a competent observer in the aircraft adequately 
supplements the vision of the safety pilot; and
    (3) Except in the case of lighter-than-air aircraft, that aircraft 
is equipped with fully functioning dual controls. However, simulated 
instrument flight may be conducted in a single-engine airplane, equipped 
with a single, functioning, throwover control wheel, in place of fixed, 
dual controls of the elevator and ailerons, when--
    (i) The safety pilot has determined that the flight can be conducted 
safely; and
    (ii) The person manipulating the controls has at least a private 
pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings.
    (d) No person may operate a civil aircraft that is being used for a 
flight test for an airline transport pilot certificate or a class or 
type rating on that certificate, or for a part 121 proficiency flight 
test, unless the pilot seated at the controls, other than the pilot 
being checked, is fully qualified to act as pilot in command of the 
aircraft.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-324, 
76 FR 54107, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30281, June 27, 2018]



Sec. 91.111  Operating near other aircraft.

    (a) No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft 
as to create a collision hazard.
    (b) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by 
arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
    (c) No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, 
in formation flight.



Sec. 91.113  Right-of-way rules: Except water operations.

    (a) Inapplicability. This section does not apply to the operation of 
an aircraft on water.
    (b) General. When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether 
an operation is conducted under instrument flight rules or visual flight 
rules, vigilance shall be maintained by each person operating an 
aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft. When a rule of this 
section gives another aircraft the right-of-way, the pilot shall give 
way to that aircraft and may not pass over, under, or ahead of it unless 
well clear.
    (c) In distress. An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over 
all other air traffic.
    (d) Converging. When aircraft of the same category are converging at 
approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the 
aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way. If the aircraft are 
of different categories--
    (1) A balloon has the right-of-way over any other category of 
aircraft;
    (2) A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, powered 
parachute, weight-shift-control aircraft, airplane, or rotorcraft.
    (3) An airship has the right-of-way over a powered parachute, 
weight-shift-control aircraft, airplane, or rotorcraft.
    However, an aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the 
right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft.

[[Page 693]]

    (e) Approaching head-on. When aircraft are approaching each other 
head-on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to 
the right.
    (f) Overtaking. Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-
of-way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to 
the right to pass well clear.
    (g) Landing. Aircraft, while on final approach to land or while 
landing, have the right-of-way over other aircraft in flight or 
operating on the surface, except that they shall not take advantage of 
this rule to force an aircraft off the runway surface which has already 
landed and is attempting to make way for an aircraft on final approach. 
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of 
landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it 
shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which 
is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-282, 
69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 91.115  Right-of-way rules: Water operations.

    (a) General. Each person operating an aircraft on the water shall, 
insofar as possible, keep clear of all vessels and avoid impeding their 
navigation, and shall give way to any vessel or other aircraft that is 
given the right-of-way by any rule of this section.
    (b) Crossing. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are on 
crossing courses, the aircraft or vessel to the other's right has the 
right-of-way.
    (c) Approaching head-on. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, 
are approaching head-on, or nearly so, each shall alter its course to 
the right to keep well clear.
    (d) Overtaking. Each aircraft or vessel that is being overtaken has 
the right-of-way, and the one overtaking shall alter course to keep well 
clear.
    (e) Special circumstances. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a 
vessel, approach so as to involve risk of collision, each aircraft or 
vessel shall proceed with careful regard to existing circumstances, 
including the limitations of the respective craft.



Sec. 91.117  Aircraft speed.

    (a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may 
operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed of 
more than 250 knots (288 m.p.h.).
    (b) Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may 
operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 
nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace 
area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph.). This 
paragraph (b) does not apply to any operations within a Class B airspace 
area. Such operations shall comply with paragraph (a) of this section.
    (c) No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a 
Class B airspace area designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor 
designated through such a Class B airspace area, at an indicated 
airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph).
    (d) If the minimum safe airspeed for any particular operation is 
greater than the maximum speed prescribed in this section, the aircraft 
may be operated at that minimum speed.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-219, 
55 FR 34708, Aug. 24, 1990; Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65657, Dec. 17, 1991; 
Amdt. 91-233, 58 FR 43554, Aug. 17, 1993]



Sec. 91.119  Minimum safe altitudes: General.

    Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate 
an aircraft below the following altitudes:
    (a) Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an 
emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the 
surface.
    (b) Over congested areas. Over any congested area of a city, town, 
or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, an altitude of 
1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 
2,000 feet of the aircraft.
    (c) Over other than congested areas. An altitude of 500 feet above 
the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In 
those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to 
any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

[[Page 694]]

    (d) Helicopters, powered parachutes, and weight-shift-control 
aircraft. If the operation is conducted without hazard to persons or 
property on the surface--
    (1) A helicopter may be operated at less than the minimums 
prescribed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, provided each person 
operating the helicopter complies with any routes or altitudes 
specifically prescribed for helicopters by the FAA; and
    (2) A powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft may be 
operated at less than the minimums prescribed in paragraph (c) of this 
section.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-311, 
75 FR 5223, Feb. 1, 2010]



Sec. 91.121  Altimeter settings.

    (a) Each person operating an aircraft shall maintain the cruising 
altitude or flight level of that aircraft, as the case may be, by 
reference to an altimeter that is set, when operating--
    (1) Below 18,000 feet MSL, to--
    (i) The current reported altimeter setting of a station along the 
route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft;
    (ii) If there is no station within the area prescribed in paragraph 
(a)(1)(i) of this section, the current reported altimeter setting of an 
appropriate available station; or
    (iii) In the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio, the 
elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting 
available before departure; or
    (2) At or above 18,000 feet MSL, to 29.92[sec] Hg.
    (b) The lowest usable flight level is determined by the atmospheric 
pressure in the area of operation as shown in the following table:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                 Lowest
                                                                 usable
                   Current altimeter setting                     flight
                                                                  level
------------------------------------------------------------------------
29.92 (or higher).............................................       180
29.91 through 29.42...........................................       185
29.41 through 28.92...........................................       190
28.91 through 28.42...........................................       195
28.41 through 27.92...........................................       200
27.91 through 27.42...........................................       205
27.41 through 26.92...........................................       210
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (c) To convert minimum altitude prescribed under Sec. Sec. 91.119 
and 91.177 to the minimum flight level, the pilot shall take the flight 
level equivalent of the minimum altitude in feet and add the appropriate 
number of feet specified below, according to the current reported 
altimeter setting:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                              Adjustment
                  Current altimeter setting                     factor
------------------------------------------------------------------------
29.92 (or higher)...........................................       None
29.91 through 29.42.........................................        500
29.41 through 28.92.........................................      1,000
28.91 through 28.42.........................................      1,500
28.41 through 27.92.........................................      2,000
27.91 through 27.42.........................................      2,500
27.41 through 26.92.........................................      3,000
------------------------------------------------------------------------



Sec. 91.123  Compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.

    (a) When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may 
deviate from that clearance unless an amended clearance is obtained, an 
emergency exists, or the deviation is in response to a traffic alert and 
collision avoidance system resolution advisory. However, except in Class 
A airspace, a pilot may cancel an IFR flight plan if the operation is 
being conducted in VFR weather conditions. When a pilot is uncertain of 
an ATC clearance, that pilot shall immediately request clarification 
from ATC.
    (b) Except in an emergency, no person may operate an aircraft 
contrary to an ATC instruction in an area in which air traffic control 
is exercised.
    (c) Each pilot in command who, in an emergency, or in response to a 
traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory, 
deviates from an ATC clearance or instruction shall notify ATC of that 
deviation as soon as possible.
    (d) Each pilot in command who (though not deviating from a rule of 
this subpart) is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall submit a 
detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that 
ATC facility, if requested by ATC.
    (e) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person operating an 
aircraft may operate that aircraft according to any clearance or 
instruction that has

[[Page 695]]

been issued to the pilot of another aircraft for radar air traffic 
control purposes.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)

[Doc. No. 18834, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 
56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-244, 60 FR 50679, Sept. 29, 1995]



Sec. 91.125  ATC light signals.

    ATC light signals have the meaning shown in the following table:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                     Meaning with
                                      respect to         Meaning with
    Color and type of signal        aircraft on the       respect to
                                        surface       aircraft in flight
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Steady green....................  Cleared for         Cleared to land.
                                   takeoff.
Flashing green..................  Cleared to taxi...  Return for landing
                                                       (to be followed
                                                       by steady green
                                                       at proper time).
Steady red......................  Stop..............  Give way to other
                                                       aircraft and
                                                       continue
                                                       circling.
Flashing red....................  Taxi clear of       Airport unsafe--do
                                   runway in use.      not land.
Flashing white..................  Return to starting  Not applicable.
                                   point on airport.
Alternating red and green.......  Exercise extreme    Exercise extreme
                                   caution.            caution.
------------------------------------------------------------------------



Sec. 91.126  Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class G airspace.

    (a) General. Unless otherwise authorized or required, each person 
operating an aircraft on or in the vicinity of an airport in a Class G 
airspace area must comply with the requirements of this section.
    (b) Direction of turns. When approaching to land at an airport 
without an operating control tower in Class G airspace--
    (1) Each pilot of an airplane must make all turns of that airplane 
to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual 
markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which 
case the pilot must make all turns to the right; and
    (2) Each pilot of a helicopter or a powered parachute must avoid the 
flow of fixed-wing aircraft.
    (c) Flap settings. Except when necessary for training or 
certification, the pilot in command of a civil turbojet-powered aircraft 
must use, as a final flap setting, the minimum certificated landing flap 
setting set forth in the approved performance information in the 
Airplane Flight Manual for the applicable conditions. However, each 
pilot in command has the final authority and responsibility for the safe 
operation of the pilot's airplane, and may use a different flap setting 
for that airplane if the pilot determines that it is necessary in the 
interest of safety.
    (d) Communications with control towers. Unless otherwise authorized 
or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, 
or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way 
radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the 
control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical 
miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. However, if 
the aircraft radio fails in flight, the pilot in command may operate 
that aircraft and land if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR 
weather minimums, visual contact with the tower is maintained, and a 
clearance to land is received. If the aircraft radio fails while in 
flight under IFR, the pilot must comply with Sec. 91.185.

[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-239, 
59 FR 11693, Mar. 11, 1994; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 91.127  Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class E airspace.

    (a) Unless otherwise required by part 93 of this chapter or unless 
otherwise authorized or required by the ATC facility having jurisdiction 
over the Class E airspace area, each person operating an aircraft on or 
in the vicinity of an airport in a Class E airspace area must comply 
with the requirements of Sec. 91.126.
    (b) Departures. Each pilot of an aircraft must comply with any 
traffic patterns established for that airport in part 93 of this 
chapter.
    (c) Communications with control towers. Unless otherwise authorized 
or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, 
or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way 
radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the 
control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical 
miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. However, if 
the aircraft radio fails in flight, the

[[Page 696]]

pilot in command may operate that aircraft and land if weather 
conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums, visual contact 
with the tower is maintained, and a clearance to land is received. If 
the aircraft radio fails while in flight under IFR, the pilot must 
comply with Sec. 91.185.

[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-239, 
59 FR 11693, Mar. 11, 1994]



Sec. 91.129  Operations in Class D airspace.

    (a) General. Unless otherwise authorized or required by the ATC 
facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area, each person 
operating an aircraft in Class D airspace must comply with the 
applicable provisions of this section. In addition, each person must 
comply with Sec. Sec. 91.126 and 91.127. For the purpose of this 
section, the primary airport is the airport for which the Class D 
airspace area is designated. A satellite airport is any other airport 
within the Class D airspace area.
    (b) Deviations. An operator may deviate from any provision of this 
section under the provisions of an ATC authorization issued by the ATC 
facility having jurisdiction over the airspace concerned. ATC may 
authorize a deviation on a continuing basis or for an individual flight, 
as appropriate.
    (c) Communications. Each person operating an aircraft in Class D 
airspace must meet the following two-way radio communications 
requirements:
    (1) Arrival or through flight. Each person must establish two-way 
radio communications with the ATC facility (including foreign ATC in the 
case of foreign airspace designated in the United States) providing air 
traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain 
those communications while within that airspace.
    (2) Departing flight. Each person--
    (i) From the primary airport or satellite airport with an operating 
control tower must establish and maintain two-way radio communications 
with the control tower, and thereafter as instructed by ATC while 
operating in the Class D airspace area; or
    (ii) From a satellite airport without an operating control tower, 
must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC 
facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area as soon as 
practicable after departing.
    (d) Communications failure. Each person who operates an aircraft in 
a Class D airspace area must maintain two-way radio communications with 
the ATC facility having jurisdiction over that area.
    (1) If the aircraft radio fails in flight under IFR, the pilot must 
comply with Sec. 91.185 of the part.
    (2) If the aircraft radio fails in flight under VFR, the pilot in 
command may operate that aircraft and land if--
    (i) Weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums;
    (ii) Visual contact with the tower is maintained; and
    (iii) A clearance to land is received.
    (e) Minimum altitudes when operating to an airport in Class D 
airspace. (1) Unless required by the applicable distance-from-cloud 
criteria, each pilot operating a large or turbine-powered airplane must 
enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet above 
the elevation of the airport and maintain at least 1,500 feet until 
further descent is required for a safe landing.
    (2) Each pilot operating a large or turbine-powered airplane 
approaching to land on a runway served by an instrument approach 
procedure with vertical guidance, if the airplane is so equipped, must:
    (i) Operate that airplane at an altitude at or above the glide path 
between the published final approach fix and the decision altitude (DA), 
or decision height (DH), as applicable; or
    (ii) If compliance with the applicable distance-from-cloud criteria 
requires glide path interception closer in, operate that airplane at or 
above the glide path, between the point of interception of glide path 
and the DA or the DH.
    (3) Each pilot operating an airplane approaching to land on a runway 
served by a visual approach slope indicator must maintain an altitude at 
or above the glide path until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe 
landing.
    (4) Paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section do not prohibit 
normal bracketing maneuvers above or below the

[[Page 697]]

glide path that are conducted for the purpose of remaining on the glide 
path.
    (f) Approaches. Except when conducting a circling approach under 
part 97 of this chapter or unless otherwise required by ATC, each pilot 
must--
    (1) Circle the airport to the left, if operating an airplane; or
    (2) Avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft, if operating a 
helicopter.
    (g) Departures. No person may operate an aircraft departing from an 
airport except in compliance with the following:
    (1) Each pilot must comply with any departure procedures established 
for that airport by the FAA.
    (2) Unless otherwise required by the prescribed departure procedure 
for that airport or the applicable distance from clouds criteria, each 
pilot of a turbine-powered airplane and each pilot of a large airplane 
must climb to an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface as rapidly as 
practicable.
    (h) Noise abatement. Where a formal runway use program has been 
established by the FAA, each pilot of a large or turbine-powered 
airplane assigned a noise abatement runway by ATC must use that runway. 
However, consistent with the final authority of the pilot in command 
concerning the safe operation of the aircraft as prescribed in Sec. 
91.3(a), ATC may assign a different runway if requested by the pilot in 
the interest of safety.
    (i) Takeoff, landing, taxi clearance. No person may, at any airport 
with an operating control tower, operate an aircraft on a runway or 
taxiway, or take off or land an aircraft, unless an appropriate 
clearance is received from ATC.

[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-234, 
58 FR 48793, Sept. 20, 1993; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31678, June 7, 2007; 77 
FR 28250, May 14, 2012]



Sec. 91.130  Operations in Class C airspace.

    (a) General. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each aircraft 
operation in Class C airspace must be conducted in compliance with this 
section and Sec. 91.129. For the purpose of this section, the primary 
airport is the airport for which the Class C airspace area is 
designated. A satellite airport is any other airport within the Class C 
airspace area.
    (b) Traffic patterns. No person may take off or land an aircraft at 
a satellite airport within a Class C airspace area except in compliance 
with FAA arrival and departure traffic patterns.
    (c) Communications. Each person operating an aircraft in Class C 
airspace must meet the following two-way radio communications 
requirements:
    (1) Arrival or through flight. Each person must establish two-way 
radio communications with the ATC facility (including foreign ATC in the 
case of foreign airspace designated in the United States) providing air 
traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain 
those communications while within that airspace.
    (2) Departing flight. Each person--
    (i) From the primary airport or satellite airport with an operating 
control tower must establish and maintain two-way radio communications 
with the control tower, and thereafter as instructed by ATC while 
operating in the Class C airspace area; or
    (ii) From a satellite airport without an operating control tower, 
must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC 
facility having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area as soon as 
practicable after departing.
    (d) Equipment requirements. Unless otherwise authorized by the ATC 
having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area, no person may 
operate an aircraft within a Class C airspace area designated for an 
airport unless that aircraft is equipped with the applicable equipment 
specified in Sec. 91.215, and after January 1, 2020, Sec. 91.225.
    (e) Deviations. An operator may deviate from any provision of this 
section under the provisions of an ATC authorization issued by the ATC 
facility having jurisdiction over the airspace concerned. ATC may 
authorize a deviation on a continuing basis or for an individual flight, 
as appropriate.

[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65659, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-232, 
58 FR 40736, July 30, 1993; Amdt. 91-239, 59 FR 11693, Mar. 11, 1994; 
Amdt. 91-314, 75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010]

[[Page 698]]



Sec. 91.131  Operations in Class B airspace.

    (a) Operating rules. No person may operate an aircraft within a 
Class B airspace area except in compliance with Sec. 91.129 and the 
following rules:
    (1) The operator must receive an ATC clearance from the ATC facility 
having jurisdiction for that area before operating an aircraft in that 
area.
    (2) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating a 
large turbine engine-powered airplane to or from a primary airport for 
which a Class B airspace area is designated must operate at or above the 
designated floors of the Class B airspace area while within the lateral 
limits of that area.
    (3) Any person conducting pilot training operations at an airport 
within a Class B airspace area must comply with any procedures 
established by ATC for such operations in that area.
    (b) Pilot requirements. (1) No person may take off or land a civil 
aircraft at an airport within a Class B airspace area or operate a civil 
aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless--
    (i) The pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate;
    (ii) The pilot in command holds a recreational pilot certificate and 
has met--
    (A) The requirements of Sec. 61.101(d) of this chapter; or
    (B) The requirements for a student pilot seeking a recreational 
pilot certificate in Sec. 61.94 of this chapter;
    (iii) The pilot in command holds a sport pilot certificate and has 
met--
    (A) The requirements of Sec. 61.325 of this chapter; or
    (B) The requirements for a student pilot seeking a recreational 
pilot certificate in Sec. 61.94 of this chapter; or
    (iv) The aircraft is operated by a student pilot who has met the 
requirements of Sec. 61.94 or Sec. 61.95 of this chapter, as 
applicable.
    (2) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (b)(1)(ii), 
(b)(1)(iii) and (b)(1)(iv) of this section, no person may take off or 
land a civil aircraft at those airports listed in section 4 of appendix 
D to this part unless the pilot in command holds at least a private 
pilot certificate.
    (c) Communications and navigation equipment requirements. Unless 
otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within a 
Class B airspace area unless that aircraft is equipped with--
    (1) For IFR operation. An operable VOR or TACAN receiver or an 
operable and suitable RNAV system; and
    (2) For all operations. An operable two-way radio capable of 
communications with ATC on appropriate frequencies for that Class B 
airspace area.
    (d) Other equipment requirements. No person may operate an aircraft 
in a Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with--
    (1) The applicable operating transponder and automatic altitude 
reporting equipment specified in Sec. 91.215 (a), except as provided in 
Sec. 91.215 (e), and
    (2) After January 1, 2020, the applicable Automatic Dependent 
Surveillance-Broadcast Out equipment specified in Sec. 91.225.

[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-282, 
69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31678, June 7, 2007; 
Amdt. 91-314, 75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010]



Sec. 91.133  Restricted and prohibited areas.

    (a) No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area 
(designated in part 73) contrary to the restrictions imposed, or within 
a prohibited area, unless that person has the permission of the using or 
controlling agency, as appropriate.
    (b) Each person conducting, within a restricted area, an aircraft 
operation (approved by the using agency) that creates the same hazards 
as the operations for which the restricted area was designated may 
deviate from the rules of this subpart that are not compatible with the 
operation of the aircraft.



Sec. 91.135  Operations in Class A airspace.

    Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, each person 
operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must conduct that operation 
under instrument flight rules (IFR) and in compliance with the 
following:

[[Page 699]]

    (a) Clearance. Operations may be conducted only under an ATC 
clearance received prior to entering the airspace.
    (b) Communications. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each 
aircraft operating in Class A airspace must be equipped with a two-way 
radio capable of communicating with ATC on a frequency assigned by ATC. 
Each pilot must maintain two-way radio communications with ATC while 
operating in Class A airspace.
    (c) Equipment requirements. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no 
person may operate an aircraft within Class A airspace unless that 
aircraft is equipped with the applicable equipment specified in Sec. 
91.215, and after January 1, 2020, Sec. 91.225.
    (d) ATC authorizations. An operator may deviate from any provision 
of this section under the provisions of an ATC authorization issued by 
the ATC facility having jurisdiction of the airspace concerned. In the 
case of an inoperative transponder, ATC may immediately approve an 
operation within a Class A airspace area allowing flight to continue, if 
desired, to the airport of ultimate destination, including any 
intermediate stops, or to proceed to a place where suitable repairs can 
be made, or both. Requests for deviation from any provision of this 
section must be submitted in writing, at least 4 days before the 
proposed operation. ATC may authorize a deviation on a continuing basis 
or for an individual flight.

[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65659, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-314, 
75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010]



Sec. 91.137  Temporary flight restrictions in the vicinity of disaster/hazard areas.

    (a) The Administrator will issue a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) 
designating an area within which temporary flight restrictions apply and 
specifying the hazard or condition requiring their imposition, whenever 
he determines it is necessary in order to--
    (1) Protect persons and property on the surface or in the air from a 
hazard associated with an incident on the surface;
    (2) Provide a safe environment for the operation of disaster relief 
aircraft; or
    (3) Prevent an unsafe congestion of sightseeing and other aircraft 
above an incident or event which may generate a high degree of public 
interest.


The Notice to Airmen will specify the hazard or condition that requires 
the imposition of temporary flight restrictions.
    (b) When a NOTAM has been issued under paragraph (a)(1) of this 
section, no person may operate an aircraft within the designated area 
unless that aircraft is participating in the hazard relief activities 
and is being operated under the direction of the official in charge of 
on scene emergency response activities.
    (c) When a NOTAM has been issued under paragraph (a)(2) of this 
section, no person may operate an aircraft within the designated area 
unless at least one of the following conditions are met:
    (1) The aircraft is participating in hazard relief activities and is 
being operated under the direction of the official in charge of on scene 
emergency response activities.
    (2) The aircraft is carrying law enforcement officials.
    (3) The aircraft is operating under the ATC approved IFR flight 
plan.
    (4) The operation is conducted directly to or from an airport within 
the area, or is necessitated by the impracticability of VFR flight above 
or around the area due to weather, or terrain; notification is given to 
the Flight Service Station (FSS) or ATC facility specified in the NOTAM 
to receive advisories concerning disaster relief aircraft operations; 
and the operation does not hamper or endanger relief activities and is 
not conducted for the purpose of observing the disaster.
    (5) The aircraft is carrying properly accredited news 
representatives, and, prior to entering the area, a flight plan is filed 
with the appropriate FAA or ATC facility specified in the Notice to 
Airmen and the operation is conducted above the altitude used by the 
disaster relief aircraft, unless otherwise authorized by the official in 
charge of on scene emergency response activities.

[[Page 700]]

    (d) When a NOTAM has been issued under paragraph (a)(3) of this 
section, no person may operate an aircraft within the designated area 
unless at least one of the following conditions is met:
    (1) The operation is conducted directly to or from an airport within 
the area, or is necessitated by the impracticability of VFR flight above 
or around the area due to weather or terrain, and the operation is not 
conducted for the purpose of observing the incident or event.
    (2) The aircraft is operating under an ATC approved IFR flight plan.
    (3) The aircraft is carrying incident or event personnel, or law 
enforcement officials.
    (4) The aircraft is carrying properly accredited news 
representatives and, prior to entering that area, a flight plan is filed 
with the appropriate FSS or ATC facility specified in the NOTAM.
    (e) Flight plans filed and notifications made with an FSS or ATC 
facility under this section shall include the following information:
    (1) Aircraft identification, type and color.
    (2) Radio communications frequencies to be used.
    (3) Proposed times of entry of, and exit from, the designated area.
    (4) Name of news media or organization and purpose of flight.
    (5) Any other information requested by ATC.



Sec. 91.138  Temporary flight restrictions in national disaster
areas in the State of Hawaii.

    (a) When the Administrator has determined, pursuant to a request and 
justification provided by the Governor of the State of Hawaii, or the 
Governor's designee, that an inhabited area within a declared national 
disaster area in the State of Hawaii is in need of protection for 
humanitarian reasons, the Administrator will issue a Notice to Airmen 
(NOTAM) designating an area within which temporary flight restrictions 
apply. The Administrator will designate the extent and duration of the 
temporary flight restrictions necessary to provide for the protection of 
persons and property on the surface.
    (b) When a NOTAM has been issued in accordance with this section, no 
person may operate an aircraft within the designated area unless at 
least one of the following conditions is met:
    (1) That person has obtained authorization from the official in 
charge of associated emergency or disaster relief response activities, 
and is operating the aircraft under the conditions of that 
authorization.
    (2) The aircraft is carrying law enforcement officials.
    (3) The aircraft is carrying persons involved in an emergency or a 
legitimate scientific purpose.
    (4) The aircraft is carrying properly accredited newspersons, and 
that prior to entering the area, a flight plan is filed with the 
appropriate FAA or ATC facility specified in the NOTAM and the operation 
is conducted in compliance with the conditions and restrictions 
established by the official in charge of on-scene emergency response 
activities.
    (5) The aircraft is operating in accordance with an ATC clearance or 
instruction.
    (c) A NOTAM issued under this section is effective for 90 days or 
until the national disaster area designation is terminated, whichever 
comes first, unless terminated by notice or extended by the 
Administrator at the request of the Governor of the State of Hawaii or 
the Governor's designee.

[Doc. No. 26476, 56 FR 23178, May 20, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-270, 
66 FR 47377, Sept. 11, 2001]



Sec. 91.139  Emergency air traffic rules.

    (a) This section prescribes a process for utilizing Notices to 
Airmen (NOTAMs) to advise of the issuance and operations under emergency 
air traffic rules and regulations and designates the official who is 
authorized to issue NOTAMs on behalf of the Administrator in certain 
matters under this section.
    (b) Whenever the Administrator determines that an emergency 
condition exists, or will exist, relating to the FAA's ability to 
operate the air traffic

[[Page 701]]

control system and during which normal flight operations under this 
chapter cannot be conducted consistent with the required levels of 
safety and efficiency--
    (1) The Administrator issues an immediately effective air traffic 
rule or regulation in response to that emergency condition; and
    (2) The Administrator or the Associate Administrator for Air Traffic 
may utilize the NOTAM system to provide notification of the issuance of 
the rule or regulation.


Those NOTAMs communicate information concerning the rules and 
regulations that govern flight operations, the use of navigation 
facilities, and designation of that airspace in which the rules and 
regulations apply.
    (c) When a NOTAM has been issued under this section, no person may 
operate an aircraft, or other device governed by the regulation 
concerned, within the designated airspace except in accordance with the 
authorizations, terms, and conditions prescribed in the regulation 
covered by the NOTAM.



Sec. 91.141  Flight restrictions in the proximity of the Presidential
and other parties.

    No person may operate an aircraft over or in the vicinity of any 
area to be visited or traveled by the President, the Vice President, or 
other public figures contrary to the restrictions established by the 
Administrator and published in a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM).



Sec. 91.143  Flight limitation in the proximity of space flight operations.

    When a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) is issued in accordance with this 
section, no person may operate any aircraft of U.S. registry, or pilot 
any aircraft under the authority of an airman certificate issued by the 
Federal Aviation Administration, within areas designated in a NOTAM for 
space flight operation except when authorized by ATC.

[Doc. No. FAA-2004-19246, 69 FR 59753, Oct. 5, 2004]



Sec. 91.144  Temporary restriction on flight operations during abnormally
high barometric pressure conditions.

    (a) Special flight restrictions. When any information indicates that 
barometric pressure on the route of flight currently exceeds or will 
exceed 31 inches of mercury, no person may operate an aircraft or 
initiate a flight contrary to the requirements established by the 
Administrator and published in a Notice to Airmen issued under this 
section.
    (b) Waivers. The Administrator is authorized to waive any 
restriction issued under paragraph (a) of this section to permit 
emergency supply, transport, or medical services to be delivered to 
isolated communities, where the operation can be conducted with an 
acceptable level of safety.

[Amdt. 91-240, 59 FR 17452, Apr. 12, 1994; 59 FR 37669, July 25, 1994]



Sec. 91.145  Management of aircraft operations in the vicinity 
of aerial demonstrations and major sporting events.

    (a) The FAA will issue a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) designating an 
area of airspace in which a temporary flight restriction applies when it 
determines that a temporary flight restriction is necessary to protect 
persons or property on the surface or in the air, to maintain air safety 
and efficiency, or to prevent the unsafe congestion of aircraft in the 
vicinity of an aerial demonstration or major sporting event. These 
demonstrations and events may include:
    (1) United States Naval Flight Demonstration Team (Blue Angels);
    (2) United States Air Force Air Demonstration Squadron 
(Thunderbirds);
    (3) United States Army Parachute Team (Golden Knights);
    (4) Summer/Winter Olympic Games;
    (5) Annual Tournament of Roses Football Game;
    (6) World Cup Soccer;
    (7) Major League Baseball All-Star Game;
    (8) World Series;
    (9) Kodak Albuquerque International Balloon Fiesta;
    (10) Sandia Classic Hang Gliding Competition;

[[Page 702]]

    (11) Indianapolis 500 Mile Race;
    (12) Any other aerial demonstration or sporting event the FAA 
determines to need a temporary flight restriction in accordance with 
paragraph (b) of this section.
    (b) In deciding whether a temporary flight restriction is necessary 
for an aerial demonstration or major sporting event not listed in 
paragraph (a) of this section, the FAA considers the following factors:
    (1) Area where the event will be held.
    (2) Effect flight restrictions will have on known aircraft 
operations.
    (3) Any existing ATC airspace traffic management restrictions.
    (4) Estimated duration of the event.
    (5) Degree of public interest.
    (6) Number of spectators.
    (7) Provisions for spectator safety.
    (8) Number and types of participating aircraft.
    (9) Use of mixed high and low performance aircraft.
    (10) Impact on non-participating aircraft.
    (11) Weather minimums.
    (12) Emergency procedures that will be in effect.
    (c) A NOTAM issued under this section will state the name of the 
aerial demonstration or sporting event and specify the effective dates 
and times, the geographic features or coordinates, and any other 
restrictions or procedures governing flight operations in the designated 
airspace.
    (d) When a NOTAM has been issued in accordance with this section, no 
person may operate an aircraft or device, or engage in any activity 
within the designated airspace area, except in accordance with the 
authorizations, terms, and conditions of the temporary flight 
restriction published in the NOTAM, unless otherwise authorized by:
    (1) Air traffic control; or
    (2) A Flight Standards Certificate of Waiver or Authorization issued 
for the demonstration or event.
    (e) For the purpose of this section:
    (1) Flight restricted airspace area for an aerial demonstration--The 
amount of airspace needed to protect persons and property on the surface 
or in the air, to maintain air safety and efficiency, or to prevent the 
unsafe congestion of aircraft will vary depending on the aerial 
demonstration and the factors listed in paragraph (b) of this section. 
The restricted airspace area will normally be limited to a 5 nautical 
mile radius from the center of the demonstration and an altitude 17000 
mean sea level (for high performance aircraft) or 13000 feet above the 
surface (for certain parachute operations), but will be no greater than 
the minimum airspace necessary for the management of aircraft operations 
in the vicinity of the specified area.
    (2) Flight restricted area for a major sporting event--The amount of 
airspace needed to protect persons and property on the surface or in the 
air, to maintain air safety and efficiency, or to prevent the unsafe 
congestion of aircraft will vary depending on the size of the event and 
the factors listed in paragraph (b) of this section. The restricted 
airspace will normally be limited to a 3 nautical mile radius from the 
center of the event and 2500 feet above the surface but will not be 
greater than the minimum airspace necessary for the management of 
aircraft operations in the vicinity of the specified area.
    (f) A NOTAM issued under this section will be issued at least 30 
days in advance of an aerial demonstration or a major sporting event, 
unless the FAA finds good cause for a shorter period and explains this 
in the NOTAM.
    (g) When warranted, the FAA Administrator may exclude the following 
flights from the provisions of this section:
    (1) Essential military.
    (2) Medical and rescue.
    (3) Presidential and Vice Presidential.
    (4) Visiting heads of state.
    (5) Law enforcement and security.
    (6) Public health and welfare.

[Doc. No. FAA-2000-8274, 66 FR 47378, Sept. 11, 2001]



Sec. 91.146  Passenger-carrying flights for the benefit of a 
charitable, nonprofit, or community event.

    (a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following 
definitions apply:
    Charitable event means an event that raises funds for the benefit of 
a charitable organization recognized by the

[[Page 703]]

Department of the Treasury whose donors may deduct contributions under 
section 170 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. Section 170).
    Community event means an event that raises funds for the benefit of 
any local or community cause that is not a charitable event or non-
profit event.
    Non-profit event means an event that raises funds for the benefit of 
a non-profit organization recognized under State or Federal law, as long 
as one of the organization's purposes is the promotion of aviation 
safety.
    (b) Passenger carrying flights for the benefit of a charitable, 
nonprofit, or community event identified in paragraph (c) of this 
section are not subject to the certification requirements of part 119 or 
the drug and alcohol testing requirements in part 120 of this chapter, 
provided the following conditions are satisfied and the limitations in 
paragraphs (c) and (d) are not exceeded:
    (1) The flight is nonstop and begins and ends at the same airport 
and is conducted within a 25-statute mile radius of that airport;
    (2) The flight is conducted from a public airport that is adequate 
for the airplane or helicopter used, or from another location the FAA 
approves for the operation;
    (3) The airplane or helicopter has a maximum of 30 seats, excluding 
each crewmember seat, and a maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds;
    (4) The flight is not an aerobatic or a formation flight;
    (5) Each airplane or helicopter holds a standard airworthiness 
certificate, is airworthy, and is operated in compliance with the 
applicable requirements of subpart E of this part;
    (6) Each flight is made during day VFR conditions;
    (7) Reimbursement of the operator of the airplane or helicopter is 
limited to that portion of the passenger payment for the flight that 
does not exceed the pro rata cost of owning, operating, and maintaining 
the aircraft for that flight, which may include fuel, oil, airport 
expenditures, and rental fees;
    (8) The beneficiary of the funds raised is not in the business of 
transportation by air;
    (9) A private pilot acting as pilot in command has at least 500 
hours of flight time;
    (10) Each flight is conducted in accordance with the safety 
provisions of part 136, subpart A of this chapter; and
    (11) Flights are not conducted over a national park, unit of a 
national park, or abutting tribal lands, unless the operator has secured 
a letter of agreement from the FAA, as specified under subpart B of part 
136 of this chapter, and is operating in accordance with that agreement 
during the flights.
    (c) (1) Passenger-carrying flights or series of flights are limited 
to a total of four charitable events or non-profit events per year, with 
no event lasting more than three consecutive days.
    (2) Passenger-carrying flights or series of flights are limited to 
one community event per year, with no event lasting more than three 
consecutive days.
    (d) Pilots and sponsors of events described in this section are 
limited to no more than 4 events per calendar year.
    (e) At least seven days before the event, each sponsor of an event 
described in this section must furnish to the responsible Flight 
Standards office for the area where the event is scheduled:
    (1) A signed letter detailing the name of the sponsor, the purpose 
of the event, the date and time of the event, the location of the event, 
all prior events under this section participated in by the sponsor in 
the current calendar year;
    (2) A photocopy of each pilot in command's pilot certificate, 
medical certificate, and logbook entries that show the pilot is current 
in accordance with Sec. Sec. 61.56 and 61.57 of this chapter and that 
any private pilot has at least 500 hours of flight time; and
    (3) A signed statement from each pilot that lists all prior events 
under this section in which the pilot has participated during the 
current calendar year.

[Doc. No. FAA-1998-4521, 72 FR 6910, Feb. 13, 2007, as amended by Amdt. 
91-308, 74 FR 32804, July 9, 2009; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 
83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]

[[Page 704]]



Sec. 91.147  Passenger carrying flights for compensation or hire.

    Each Operator conducting passenger-carrying flights for compensation 
or hire must meet the following requirements unless all flights are 
conducted under Sec. 91.146.
    (a) For the purposes of this section and for drug and alcohol 
testing, Operator means any person conducting nonstop passenger-carrying 
flights in an airplane or helicopter for compensation or hire in 
accordance with Sec. Sec. 119.1(e)(2), 135.1(a)(5), or 121.1(d), of 
this chapter that begin and end at the same airport and are conducted 
within a 25-statute mile radius of that airport.
    (b) An Operator must comply with the safety provisions of part 136, 
subpart A of this chapter, and apply for and receive a Letter of 
Authorization from the responsible Flight Standards office.
    (c) Each application for a Letter of Authorization must include the 
following information:
    (1) Name of Operator, agent, and any d/b/a (doing-business-as) under 
which that Operator does business;
    (2) Principal business address and mailing address;
    (3) Principal place of business (if different from business 
address);
    (4) Name of person responsible for management of the business;
    (5) Name of person responsible for aircraft maintenance;
    (6) Type of aircraft, registration number(s), and make/model/series; 
and
    (7) An Antidrug and Alcohol Misuse Prevention Program registration.
    (d) The Operator must register and implement its drug and alcohol 
testing programs in accordance with part 120 of this chapter.
    (e) The Operator must comply with the provisions of the Letter of 
Authorization received.

[Doc. No. FAA-1998-4521, 72 FR 6911, Feb. 13, 2007, as amended by Amdt. 
91-307, 74 FR 22652, May 14, 2009; Amdt. 91-320, 76 FR 8893, Feb. 16, 
2011; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. Sec. 91.148-91.149  [Reserved]

                           Visual Flight Rules



Sec. 91.151  Fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions.

    (a) No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions 
unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is 
enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming 
normal cruising speed--
    (1) During the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes; or
    (2) At night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.
    (b) No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR 
conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) 
there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, 
assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 20 
minutes.



Sec. 91.153  VFR flight plan: Information required.

    (a) Information required. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each 
person filing a VFR flight plan shall include in it the following 
information:
    (1) The aircraft identification number and, if necessary, its radio 
call sign.
    (2) The type of the aircraft or, in the case of a formation flight, 
the type of each aircraft and the number of aircraft in the formation.
    (3) The full name and address of the pilot in command or, in the 
case of a formation flight, the formation commander.
    (4) The point and proposed time of departure.
    (5) The proposed route, cruising altitude (or flight level), and 
true airspeed at that altitude.
    (6) The point of first intended landing and the estimated elapsed 
time until over that point.
    (7) The amount of fuel on board (in hours).
    (8) The number of persons in the aircraft, except where that 
information is otherwise readily available to the FAA.
    (9) Any other information the pilot in command or ATC believes is 
necessary for ATC purposes.

[[Page 705]]

    (b) Cancellation. When a flight plan has been activated, the pilot 
in command, upon canceling or completing the flight under the flight 
plan, shall notify an FAA Flight Service Station or ATC facility.



Sec. 91.155  Basic VFR weather minimums.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section and Sec. 
91.157, no person may operate an aircraft under VFR when the flight 
visibility is less, or at a distance from clouds that is less, than that 
prescribed for the corresponding altitude and class of airspace in the 
following table:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                         Distance from
            Airspace              Flight visibility         clouds
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Class A........................  Not Applicable.....  Not Applicable.
Class B........................  3 statute miles....  Clear of Clouds.
Class C........................  3 statute miles....  500 feet below.
                                 ...................  1,000 feet above.
                                 ...................  2,000 feet
                                                       horizontal.
Class D........................  3 statute miles....  500 feet below.
                                 ...................  1,000 feet above.
                                 ...................  2,000 feet
                                                       horizontal.
Class E:
    Less than 10,000 feet MSL..  3 statute miles....  500 feet below.
                                 ...................  1,000 feet above.
                                 ...................  2,000 feet
                                                       horizontal.
    At or above 10,000 feet MSL  5 statute miles....  1,000 feet below.
                                 ...................  1,000 feet above.
                                 ...................  1 statute mile
                                                       horizontal.
Class G:
    1,200 feet or less above
     the surface (regardless of
     MSL altitude)
For aircraft other than
 helicopters:
    Day, except as provided in   1 statute mile.....  Clear of clouds.
     Sec. 91.155(b).
    Night, except as provided    3 statute miles....  500 feet below.
     in Sec. 91.155(b).
                                 ...................  1,000 feet above.
                                 ...................  2,000 feet
                                                       horizontal.
For helicopters:
    Day........................  \1/2\ statute mile.  Clear of clouds
    Night, except as provided    1 statute mile.....  Clear of clouds.
     in Sec. 91.155(b).
    More than 1,200 feet above
     the surface but less than
     10,000 feet MSL
        Day....................  1 statute mile.....  500 feet below.
                                 ...................  1,000 feet above.
                                 ...................  2,000 feet
                                                       horizontal.
        Night..................  3 statute miles....  500 feet below.
                                 ...................  1,000 feet above.
                                 ...................  2,000 feet
                                                       horizontal.
    More than 1,200 feet above   5 statute miles....  1,000 feet below.
     the surface and at or
     above 10,000 feet MSL.
                                 ...................  1,000 feet above.
                                 ...................  1 statute mile
                                                       horizontal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (b) Class G Airspace. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph 
(a) of this section, the following operations may be conducted in Class 
G airspace below 1,200 feet above the surface:
    (1) Helicopter. A helicopter may be operated clear of clouds in an 
airport traffic pattern within \1/2\ mile of the runway or helipad of 
intended landing if the flight visibility is not less than \1/2\ statute 
mile.
    (2) Airplane, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft. 
If the visibility is less than 3 statute miles but not less than 1 
statute mile during night hours and you are operating in an airport 
traffic pattern within \1/2\ mile of the runway, you may operate an 
airplane, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft clear of 
clouds.
    (c) Except as provided in Sec. 91.157, no person may operate an 
aircraft beneath the ceiling under VFR within the lateral boundaries of 
controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the 
ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
    (d) Except as provided in Sec. 91.157 of this part, no person may 
take off or land an aircraft, or enter the traffic pattern of an 
airport, under VFR, within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas 
of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an 
airport--
    (1) Unless ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 statute 
miles; or
    (2) If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, unless 
flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the 
traffic pattern is at least 3 statute miles.

[[Page 706]]

    (e) For the purpose of this section, an aircraft operating at the 
base altitude of a Class E airspace area is considered to be within the 
airspace directly below that area.

[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65660, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-235, 
58 FR 51968, Oct. 5, 1993; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004; 
Amdt. 91-330, 79 FR 9972, Feb. 21, 2014; Amdt. 91-330A, 79 FR 41125, 
July 15, 2014]



Sec. 91.157  Special VFR weather minimums.

    (a) Except as provided in appendix D, section 3, of this part, 
special VFR operations may be conducted under the weather minimums and 
requirements of this section, instead of those contained in Sec. 
91.155, below 10,000 feet MSL within the airspace contained by the 
upward extension of the lateral boundaries of the controlled airspace 
designated to the surface for an airport.
    (b) Special VFR operations may only be conducted--
    (1) With an ATC clearance;
    (2) Clear of clouds;
    (3) Except for helicopters, when flight visibility is at least 1 
statute mile; and
    (4) Except for helicopters, between sunrise and sunset (or in 
Alaska, when the sun is 6 degrees or less below the horizon) unless--
    (i) The person being granted the ATC clearance meets the applicable 
requirements for instrument flight under part 61 of this chapter; and
    (ii) The aircraft is equipped as required in Sec. 91.205(d).
    (c) No person may take off or land an aircraft (other than a 
helicopter) under special VFR--
    (1) Unless ground visibility is at least 1 statute mile; or
    (2) If ground visibility is not reported, unless flight visibility 
is at least 1 statute mile. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term 
flight visibility includes the visibility from the cockpit of an 
aircraft in takeoff position if:
    (i) The flight is conducted under this part 91; and
    (ii) The airport at which the aircraft is located is a satellite 
airport that does not have weather reporting capabilities.
    (d) The determination of visibility by a pilot in accordance with 
paragraph (c)(2) of this section is not an official weather report or an 
official ground visibility report.

[Amdt. 91-235, 58 FR 51968, Oct. 5, 1993, as amended by Amdt. 91-247, 60 
FR 66874, Dec. 27, 1995; Amdt. 91-262, 65 FR 16116, Mar. 24, 2000; 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 91-366, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 91.159  VFR cruising altitude or flight level.

    Except while holding in a holding pattern of 2 minutes or less, or 
while turning, each person operating an aircraft under VFR in level 
cruising flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface shall maintain 
the appropriate altitude or flight level prescribed below, unless 
otherwise authorized by ATC:
    (a) When operating below 18,000 feet MSL and--
    (1) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any 
odd thousand foot MSL altitude + 500 feet (such as 3,500, 5,500, or 
7,500); or
    (2) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any 
even thousand foot MSL altitude + 500 feet (such as 4,500, 6,500, or 
8,500).
    (b) When operating above 18,000 feet MSL, maintain the altitude or 
flight level assigned by ATC.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-276, 
68 FR 61321, Oct. 27, 2003; 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003]



Sec. 91.161  Special awareness training required for pilots flying
under visual flight rules within a 60-nautical mile radius of the 
Washington, DC VOR/DME.

    (a) Operations within a 60-nautical mile radius of the Washington, 
DC VOR/DME under visual flight rules (VFR). Except as provided under 
paragraph (e) of this section, no person may serve as a pilot in command 
or as second in command of an aircraft while flying within a 60-nautical 
mile radius of the DCA VOR/DME, under VFR, unless that pilot has 
completed Special Awareness Training and holds a certificate of training 
completion.
    (b) Special Awareness Training. The Special Awareness Training 
consists of information to educate pilots about the procedures for 
flying in the Washington, DC area and, more generally, in other types of 
special use airspace.

[[Page 707]]

This free training is available on the FAA's Web site. Upon completion 
of the training, each person will need to print out a copy of the 
certificate of training completion.
    (c) Inspection of certificate of training completion. Each person 
who holds a certificate for completing the Special Awareness Training 
must present it for inspection upon request from:
    (1) An authorized representative of the FAA;
    (2) An authorized representative of the National Transportation 
Safety Board;
    (3) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer; or
    (4) An authorized representative of the Transportation Security 
Administration.
    (d) Emergency declared. The failure to complete the Special 
Awareness Training course on flying in and around the Washington, DC 
Metropolitan Area is not a violation of this section if an emergency is 
declared by the pilot, as described under Sec. 91.3(b), or there was a 
failure of two-way radio communications when operating under IFR as 
described under Sec. 91.185.
    (e) Exceptions. The requirements of this section do not apply if the 
flight is being performed in an aircraft of an air ambulance operator 
certificated to conduct part 135 operations under this chapter, the U.S. 
Armed Forces, or a law enforcement agency.

[Doc. No. FAA-2006-25250, 73 FR 46803, Aug. 12, 2008]



Sec. Sec. 91.162-91.165  [Reserved]

                         Instrument Flight Rules



Sec. 91.167  Fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions.

    (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft in IFR conditions unless 
it carries enough fuel (considering weather reports and forecasts and 
weather conditions) to--
    (1) Complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing;
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, fly from 
that airport to the alternate airport; and
    (3) Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed or, for 
helicopters, fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
    (b) Paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply if:
    (1) Part 97 of this chapter prescribes a standard instrument 
approach procedure to, or a special instrument approach procedure has 
been issued by the Administrator to the operator for, the first airport 
of intended landing; and
    (2) Appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a 
combination of them, indicate the following:
    (i) For aircraft other than helicopters. For at least 1 hour before 
and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be 
at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation and the visibility will 
be at least 3 statute miles.
    (ii) For helicopters. At the estimated time of arrival and for 1 
hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 
1,000 feet above the airport elevation, or at least 400 feet above the 
lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and the 
visibility will be at least 2 statute miles.

[Doc. No. 98-4390, 65 FR 3546, Jan. 21, 2000]



Sec. 91.169  IFR flight plan: Information required.

    (a) Information required. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each 
person filing an IFR flight plan must include in it the following 
information:
    (1) Information required under Sec. 91.153 (a) of this part;
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an 
alternate airport.
    (b) Paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply if :
    (1) Part 97 of this chapter prescribes a standard instrument 
approach procedure to, or a special instrument approach procedure has 
been issued by the Administrator to the operator for, the first airport 
of intended landing; and
    (2) Appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a 
combination of them, indicate the following:
    (i) For aircraft other than helicopters. For at least 1 hour before 
and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be 
at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation and

[[Page 708]]

the visibility will be at least 3 statute miles.
    (ii) For helicopters. At the estimated time of arrival and for 1 
hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 
1,000 feet above the airport elevation, or at least 400 feet above the 
lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and the 
visibility will be at least 2 statute miles.
    (c) IFR alternate airport weather minima. Unless otherwise 
authorized by the Administrator, no person may include an alternate 
airport in an IFR flight plan unless appropriate weather reports or 
weather forecasts, or a combination of them, indicate that, at the 
estimated time of arrival at the alternate airport, the ceiling and 
visibility at that airport will be at or above the following weather 
minima:
    (1) If an instrument approach procedure has been published in part 
97 of this chapter, or a special instrument approach procedure has been 
issued by the Administrator to the operator, for that airport, the 
following minima:
    (i) For aircraft other than helicopters: The alternate airport 
minima specified in that procedure, or if none are specified the 
following standard approach minima:
    (A) For a precision approach procedure. Ceiling 600 feet and 
visibility 2 statute miles.
    (B) For a nonprecision approach procedure. Ceiling 800 feet and 
visibility 2 statute miles.
    (ii) For helicopters: Ceiling 200 feet above the minimum for the 
approach to be flown, and visibility at least 1 statute mile but never 
less than the minimum visibility for the approach to be flown, and
    (2) If no instrument approach procedure has been published in part 
97 of this chapter and no special instrument approach procedure has been 
issued by the Administrator to the operator, for the alternate airport, 
the ceiling and visibility minima are those allowing descent from the 
MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR.
    (d) Cancellation. When a flight plan has been activated, the pilot 
in command, upon canceling or completing the flight under the flight 
plan, shall notify an FAA Flight Service Station or ATC facility.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-259, 
65 FR 3546, Jan. 21, 2000]



Sec. 91.171  VOR equipment check for IFR operations.

    (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft under IFR using the VOR 
system of radio navigation unless the VOR equipment of that aircraft--
    (1) Is maintained, checked, and inspected under an approved 
procedure; or
    (2) Has been operationally checked within the preceding 30 days, and 
was found to be within the limits of the permissible indicated bearing 
error set forth in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, each person 
conducting a VOR check under paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall--
    (1) Use, at the airport of intended departure, an FAA-operated or 
approved test signal or a test signal radiated by a certificated and 
appropriately rated radio repair station or, outside the United States, 
a test signal operated or approved by an appropriate authority to check 
the VOR equipment (the maximum permissible indicated bearing error is 
plus or minus 4 degrees); or
    (2) Use, at the airport of intended departure, a point on the 
airport surface designated as a VOR system checkpoint by the 
Administrator, or, outside the United States, by an appropriate 
authority (the maximum permissible bearing error is plus or minus 4 
degrees);
    (3) If neither a test signal nor a designated checkpoint on the 
surface is available, use an airborne checkpoint designated by the 
Administrator or, outside the United States, by an appropriate authority 
(the maximum permissible bearing error is plus or minus 6 degrees); or
    (4) If no check signal or point is available, while in flight--
    (i) Select a VOR radial that lies along the centerline of an 
established VOR airway;
    (ii) Select a prominent ground point along the selected radial 
preferably more than 20 nautical miles from the

[[Page 709]]

VOR ground facility and maneuver the aircraft directly over the point at 
a reasonably low altitude; and
    (iii) Note the VOR bearing indicated by the receiver when over the 
ground point (the maximum permissible variation between the published 
radial and the indicated bearing is 6 degrees).
    (c) If dual system VOR (units independent of each other except for 
the antenna) is installed in the aircraft, the person checking the 
equipment may check one system against the other in place of the check 
procedures specified in paragraph (b) of this section. Both systems 
shall be tuned to the same VOR ground facility and note the indicated 
bearings to that station. The maximum permissible variation between the 
two indicated bearings is 4 degrees.
    (d) Each person making the VOR operational check, as specified in 
paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, shall enter the date, place, 
bearing error, and sign the aircraft log or other record. In addition, 
if a test signal radiated by a repair station, as specified in paragraph 
(b)(1) of this section, is used, an entry must be made in the aircraft 
log or other record by the repair station certificate holder or the 
certificate holder's representative certifying to the bearing 
transmitted by the repair station for the check and the date of 
transmission.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)



Sec. 91.173  ATC clearance and flight plan required.

    No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR 
unless that person has--
    (a) Filed an IFR flight plan; and
    (b) Received an appropriate ATC clearance.



Sec. 91.175  Takeoff and landing under IFR.

    (a) Instrument approaches to civil airports. Unless otherwise 
authorized by the FAA, when it is necessary to use an instrument 
approach to a civil airport, each person operating an aircraft must use 
a standard instrument approach procedure prescribed in part 97 of this 
chapter for that airport. This paragraph does not apply to United States 
military aircraft.
    (b) Authorized DA/DH or MDA. For the purpose of this section, when 
the approach procedure being used provides for and requires the use of a 
DA/DH or MDA, the authorized DA/DH or MDA is the highest of the 
following:
    (1) The DA/DH or MDA prescribed by the approach procedure.
    (2) The DA/DH or MDA prescribed for the pilot in command.
    (3) The DA/DH or MDA appropriate for the aircraft equipment 
available and used during the approach.
    (c) Operation below DA/DH or MDA. Except as provided in Sec. 91.176 
of this chapter, where a DA/DH or MDA is applicable, no pilot may 
operate an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, 
below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized 
DA/DH unless--
    (1) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent 
to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of 
descent using normal maneuvers, and for operations conducted under part 
121 or part 135 unless that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur 
within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing;
    (2) The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed 
in the standard instrument approach being used; and
    (3) Except for a Category II or Category III approach where any 
necessary visual reference requirements are specified by the 
Administrator, at least one of the following visual references for the 
intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
    (i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend 
below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach 
lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side 
row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
    (ii) The threshold.
    (iii) The threshold markings.
    (iv) The threshold lights.
    (v) The runway end identifier lights.
    (vi) The visual glideslope indicator.
    (vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.
    (viii) The touchdown zone lights.
    (ix) The runway or runway markings.

[[Page 710]]

    (x) The runway lights.
    (d) Landing. No pilot operating an aircraft, except a military 
aircraft of the United States, may land that aircraft when--
    (1) For operations conducted under Sec. 91.176 of this part, the 
requirements of paragraphs (a)(3)(iii) or (b)(3)(iii), as applicable, of 
that section are not met; or
    (2) For all other operations under this part and parts 121, 125, 
129, and 135, the flight visibility is less than the visibility 
prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used.
    (e) Missed approach procedures. Each pilot operating an aircraft, 
except a military aircraft of the United States, shall immediately 
execute an appropriate missed approach procedure when either of the 
following conditions exist:
    (1) Whenever operating an aircraft pursuant to paragraph (c) of this 
section or Sec. 91.176 of this part, and the requirements of that 
paragraph or section are not met at either of the following times:
    (i) When the aircraft is being operated below MDA; or
    (ii) Upon arrival at the missed approach point, including a DA/DH 
where a DA/DH is specified and its use is required, and at any time 
after that until touchdown.
    (2) Whenever an identifiable part of the airport is not distinctly 
visible to the pilot during a circling maneuver at or above MDA, unless 
the inability to see an identifiable part of the airport results only 
from a normal bank of the aircraft during the circling approach.
    (f) Civil airport takeoff minimums. This paragraph applies to 
persons operating an aircraft under part 121, 125, 129, or 135 of this 
chapter.
    (1) Unless otherwise authorized by the FAA, no pilot may takeoff 
from a civil airport under IFR unless the weather conditions at time of 
takeoff are at or above the weather minimums for IFR takeoff prescribed 
for that airport under part 97 of this chapter.
    (2) If takeoff weather minimums are not prescribed under part 97 of 
this chapter for a particular airport, the following weather minimums 
apply to takeoffs under IFR:
    (i) For aircraft, other than helicopters, having two engines or 
less--1 statute mile visibility.
    (ii) For aircraft having more than two engines--\1/2\ statute mile 
visibility.
    (iii) For helicopters--\1/2\ statute mile visibility.
    (3) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(4) of this section, no pilot 
may takeoff under IFR from a civil airport having published obstacle 
departure procedures (ODPs) under part 97 of this chapter for the 
takeoff runway to be used, unless the pilot uses such ODPs or an 
alternative procedure or route assigned by air traffic control.
    (4) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this 
section, no pilot may takeoff from an airport under IFR unless:
    (i) For part 121 and part 135 operators, the pilot uses a takeoff 
obstacle clearance or avoidance procedure that ensures compliance with 
the applicable airplane performance operating limitations requirements 
under part 121, subpart I or part 135, subpart I for takeoff at that 
airport; or
    (ii) For part 129 operators, the pilot uses a takeoff obstacle 
clearance or avoidance procedure that ensures compliance with the 
airplane performance operating limitations prescribed by the State of 
the operator for takeoff at that airport.
    (g) Military airports. Unless otherwise prescribed by the 
Administrator, each person operating a civil aircraft under IFR into or 
out of a military airport shall comply with the instrument approach 
procedures and the takeoff and landing minimum prescribed by the 
military authority having jurisdiction of that airport.
    (h) Comparable values of RVR and ground visibility. (1) Except for 
Category II or Category III minimums, if RVR minimums for takeoff or 
landing are prescribed in an instrument approach procedure, but RVR is 
not reported for the runway of intended operation, the RVR minimum shall 
be converted to ground visibility in accordance with the table in 
paragraph (h)(2) of this section and shall be the visibility minimum for 
takeoff or landing on that runway.
    (2)

[[Page 711]]



------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                              Visibility
                         RVR (feet)                            (statute
                                                                miles)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1,600......................................................        \1/4\
2,400......................................................        \1/2\
3,200......................................................        \5/8\
4,000......................................................        \3/4\
4,500......................................................        \7/8\
5,000......................................................            1
6,000......................................................       1\1/4\
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (i) Operations on unpublished routes and use of radar in instrument 
approach procedures. When radar is approved at certain locations for ATC 
purposes, it may be used not only for surveillance and precision radar 
approaches, as applicable, but also may be used in conjunction with 
instrument approach procedures predicated on other types of radio 
navigational aids. Radar vectors may be authorized to provide course 
guidance through the segments of an approach to the final course or fix. 
When operating on an unpublished route or while being radar vectored, 
the pilot, when an approach clearance is received, shall, in addition to 
complying with Sec. 91.177, maintain the last altitude assigned to that 
pilot until the aircraft is established on a segment of a published 
route or instrument approach procedure unless a different altitude is 
assigned by ATC. After the aircraft is so established, published 
altitudes apply to descent within each succeeding route or approach 
segment unless a different altitude is assigned by ATC. Upon reaching 
the final approach course or fix, the pilot may either complete the 
instrument approach in accordance with a procedure approved for the 
facility or continue a surveillance or precision radar approach to a 
landing.
    (j) Limitation on procedure turns. In the case of a radar vector to 
a final approach course or fix, a timed approach from a holding fix, or 
an approach for which the procedure specifies ``No PT,'' no pilot may 
make a procedure turn unless cleared to do so by ATC.
    (k) ILS components. The basic components of an ILS are the 
localizer, glide slope, and outer marker, and, when installed for use 
with Category II or Category III instrument approach procedures, an 
inner marker. The following means may be used to substitute for the 
outer marker: Compass locator; precision approach radar (PAR) or airport 
surveillance radar (ASR); DME, VOR, or nondirectional beacon fixes 
authorized in the standard instrument approach procedure; or a suitable 
RNAV system in conjunction with a fix identified in the standard 
instrument approach procedure. Applicability of, and substitution for, 
the inner marker for a Category II or III approach is determined by the 
appropriate 14 CFR part 97 approach procedure, letter of authorization, 
or operations specifications issued to an operator.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-267, 
66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-281, 69 FR 1640, Jan. 9, 2004; 
Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31678, June 7, 2007; Amdt. 91-306, 74 FR 20205, May 
1, 2009; Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 91-345, 81 FR 90172, Dec. 13, 2016; 
Amdt. 91-345B, 83 FR 10568, Mar. 12, 2018]



Sec. 91.176  Straight-in landing operations below DA/DH or MDA using
an enhanced flight vision system (EFVS) under IFR.

    (a) EFVS operations to touchdown and rollout. Unless otherwise 
authorized by the Administrator to use an MDA as a DA/DH with vertical 
navigation on an instrument approach procedure, or unless paragraph (d) 
of this section applies, no person may conduct an EFVS operation in an 
aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, at any 
airport below the authorized DA/DH to touchdown and rollout unless the 
minimums used for the particular approach procedure being flown include 
a DA or DH, and the following requirements are met:
    (1) Equipment. (i) The aircraft must be equipped with an operable 
EFVS that meets the applicable airworthiness requirements. The EFVS 
must:
    (A) Have an electronic means to provide a display of the forward 
external scene topography (the applicable natural or manmade features of 
a place or region especially in a way to show their relative positions 
and elevation) through the use of imaging sensors, including but not 
limited to forward-looking infrared, millimeter wave radiometry, 
millimeter wave radar, or low-light level image intensification.
    (B) Present EFVS sensor imagery, aircraft flight information, and 
flight symbology on a head up display, or an equivalent display, so that 
the imagery, information and symbology are

[[Page 712]]

clearly visible to the pilot flying in his or her normal position with 
the line of vision looking forward along the flight path. Aircraft 
flight information and flight symbology must consist of at least 
airspeed, vertical speed, aircraft attitude, heading, altitude, height 
above ground level such as that provided by a radio altimeter or other 
device capable of providing equivalent performance, command guidance as 
appropriate for the approach to be flown, path deviation indications, 
flight path vector, and flight path angle reference cue. Additionally, 
for aircraft other than rotorcraft, the EFVS must display flare prompt 
or flare guidance.
    (C) Present the displayed EFVS sensor imagery, attitude symbology, 
flight path vector, and flight path angle reference cue, and other cues, 
which are referenced to the EFVS sensor imagery and external scene 
topography, so that they are aligned with, and scaled to, the external 
view.
    (D) Display the flight path angle reference cue with a pitch scale. 
The flight path angle reference cue must be selectable by the pilot to 
the desired descent angle for the approach and be sufficient to monitor 
the vertical flight path of the aircraft.
    (E) Display the EFVS sensor imagery, aircraft flight information, 
and flight symbology such that they do not adversely obscure the pilot's 
outside view or field of view through the cockpit window.
    (F) Have display characteristics, dynamics, and cues that are 
suitable for manual control of the aircraft to touchdown in the 
touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing and during rollout.
    (ii) When a minimum flightcrew of more than one pilot is required, 
the aircraft must be equipped with a display that provides the pilot 
monitoring with EFVS sensor imagery. Any symbology displayed may not 
adversely obscure the sensor imagery of the runway environment.
    (2) Operations. (i) The pilot conducting the EFVS operation may not 
use circling minimums.
    (ii) Each required pilot flightcrew member must have adequate 
knowledge of, and familiarity with, the aircraft, the EFVS, and the 
procedures to be used.
    (iii) The aircraft must be equipped with, and the pilot flying must 
use, an operable EFVS that meets the equipment requirements of paragraph 
(a)(1) of this section.
    (iv) When a minimum flightcrew of more than one pilot is required, 
the pilot monitoring must use the display specified in paragraph 
(a)(1)(ii) to monitor and assess the safe conduct of the approach, 
landing, and rollout.
    (v) The aircraft must continuously be in a position from which a 
descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate 
of descent using normal maneuvers.
    (vi) The descent rate must allow touchdown to occur within the 
touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing.
    (vii) Each required pilot flightcrew member must meet the following 
requirements--
    (A) A person exercising the privileges of a pilot certificate issued 
under this chapter, any person serving as a required pilot flightcrew 
member of a U.S.-registered aircraft, or any person serving as a 
required pilot flightcrew member for a part 121, 125, or 135 operator, 
must be qualified in accordance with part 61 and, as applicable, the 
training, testing, and qualification provisions of subpart K of this 
part, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter that apply to the operation; 
or
    (B) Each person acting as a required pilot flightcrew member for a 
foreign air carrier subject to part 129, or any person serving as a 
required pilot flightcrew member of a foreign registered aircraft, must 
be qualified in accordance with the training requirements of the civil 
aviation authority of the State of the operator for the EFVS operation 
to be conducted.
    (viii) A person conducting operations under this part must conduct 
the operation in accordance with a letter of authorization for the use 
of EFVS unless the operation is conducted in an aircraft that has been 
issued an experimental certificate under Sec. 21.191 of this chapter 
for the purpose of research and development or showing compliance with 
regulations, or the operation is being conducted by a person otherwise

[[Page 713]]

authorized to conduct EFVS operations under paragraphs (a)(2)(ix) 
through (xii) of this section. A person applying to the FAA for a letter 
of authorization must submit an application in a form and manner 
prescribed by the Administrator.
    (ix) A person conducting operations under subpart K of this part 
must conduct the operation in accordance with management specifications 
authorizing the use of EFVS.
    (x) A person conducting operations under part 121, 129, or 135 of 
this chapter must conduct the operation in accordance with operations 
specifications authorizing the use of EFVS.
    (xi) A person conducting operations under part 125 of this chapter 
must conduct the operation in accordance with operations specifications 
authorizing the use of EFVS or, for a holder of a part 125 letter of 
deviation authority, a letter of authorization for the use of EFVS.
    (xii) A person conducting an EFVS operation during an authorized 
Category II or Category III operation must conduct the operation in 
accordance with operations specifications, management specifications, or 
a letter of authorization authorizing EFVS operations during authorized 
Category II or Category III operations.
    (3) Visibility and visual reference requirements. No pilot operating 
under this section or Sec. Sec. 121.651, 125.381, or 135.225 of this 
chapter may continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH and land 
unless:
    (i) The pilot determines that the enhanced flight visibility 
observed by use of an EFVS is not less than the visibility prescribed in 
the instrument approach procedure being used.
    (ii) From the authorized DA/DH to 100 feet above the touchdown zone 
elevation of the runway of intended landing, any approach light system 
or both the runway threshold and the touchdown zone are distinctly 
visible and identifiable to the pilot using an EFVS.
    (A) The pilot must identify the runway threshold using at least one 
of the following visual references--
    (1) The beginning of the runway landing surface;
    (2) The threshold lights; or
    (3) The runway end identifier lights.
    (B) The pilot must identify the touchdown zone using at least one of 
the following visual references--
    (1) The runway touchdown zone landing surface;
    (2) The touchdown zone lights;
    (3) The touchdown zone markings; or
    (4) The runway lights.
    (iii) At 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation of the runway 
of intended landing and below that altitude, the enhanced flight 
visibility using EFVS must be sufficient for one of the following visual 
references to be distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot--
    (A) The runway threshold;
    (B) The lights or markings of the threshold;
    (C) The runway touchdown zone landing surface; or
    (D) The lights or markings of the touchdown zone.
    (4) Additional requirements. The Administrator may prescribe 
additional equipment, operational, and visibility and visual reference 
requirements to account for specific equipment characteristics, 
operational procedures, or approach characteristics. These requirements 
will be specified in an operator's operations specifications, management 
specifications, or letter of authorization authorizing the use of EFVS.
    (b) EFVS operations to 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation. 
Except as specified in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may 
conduct an EFVS operation in an aircraft, except a military aircraft of 
the United States, at any airport below the authorized DA/DH or MDA to 
100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation unless the following 
requirements are met:
    (1) Equipment. (i) The aircraft must be equipped with an operable 
EFVS that meets the applicable airworthiness requirements.
    (ii) The EFVS must meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(i)(A) 
through (F) of this section, but need not present flare prompt, flare 
guidance, or height above ground level.
    (2) Operations. (i) The pilot conducting the EFVS operation may not 
use circling minimums.

[[Page 714]]

    (ii) Each required pilot flightcrew member must have adequate 
knowledge of, and familiarity with, the aircraft, the EFVS, and the 
procedures to be used.
    (iii) The aircraft must be equipped with, and the pilot flying must 
use, an operable EFVS that meets the equipment requirements of paragraph 
(b)(1) of this section.
    (iv) The aircraft must continuously be in a position from which a 
descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate 
of descent using normal maneuvers.
    (v) For operations conducted under part 121 or part 135 of this 
chapter, the descent rate must allow touchdown to occur within the 
touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing.
    (vi) Each required pilot flightcrew member must meet the following 
requirements--
    (A) A person exercising the privileges of a pilot certificate issued 
under this chapter, any person serving as a required pilot flightcrew 
member of a U.S.-registered aircraft, or any person serving as a 
required pilot flightcrew member for a part 121, 125, or 135 operator, 
must be qualified in accordance with part 61 and, as applicable, the 
training, testing, and qualification provisions of subpart K of this 
part, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter that apply to the operation; 
or
    (B) Each person acting as a required pilot flightcrew member for a 
foreign air carrier subject to part 129, or any person serving as a 
required pilot flightcrew member of a foreign registered aircraft, must 
be qualified in accordance with the training requirements of the civil 
aviation authority of the State of the operator for the EFVS operation 
to be conducted.
    (vii) A person conducting operations under subpart K of this part 
must conduct the operation in accordance with management specifications 
authorizing the use of EFVS.
    (viii) A person conducting operations under part 121, 129, or 135 of 
this chapter must conduct the operation in accordance with operations 
specifications authorizing the use of EFVS.
    (ix) A person conducting operations under part 125 of this chapter 
must conduct the operation in accordance with operations specifications 
authorizing the use of EFVS or, for a holder of a part 125 letter of 
deviation authority, a letter of authorization for the use of EFVS.
    (x) A person conducting an EFVS operation during an authorized 
Category II or Category III operation must conduct the operation in 
accordance with operations specifications, management specifications, or 
a letter of authorization authorizing EFVS operations during authorized 
Category II or Category III operations.
    (3) Visibility and Visual Reference Requirements. No pilot operating 
under this section or Sec. 121.651, Sec. 125.381, or Sec. 135.225 of 
this chapter may continue an approach below the authorized MDA or 
continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH and land unless:
    (i) The pilot determines that the enhanced flight visibility 
observed by use of an EFVS is not less than the visibility prescribed in 
the instrument approach procedure being used.
    (ii) From the authorized MDA or DA/DH to 100 feet above the 
touchdown zone elevation of the runway of intended landing, any approach 
light system or both the runway threshold and the touchdown zone are 
distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot using an EFVS.
    (A) The pilot must identify the runway threshold using at least one 
of the following visual references-
    (1) The beginning of the runway landing surface;
    (2) The threshold lights; or
    (3) The runway end identifier lights.
    (B) The pilot must identify the touchdown zone using at least one of 
the following visual references--
    (1) The runway touchdown zone landing surface;
    (2) The touchdown zone lights;
    (3) The touchdown zone markings; or
    (4) The runway lights.
    (iii) At 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation of the runway 
of intended landing and below that altitude, the flight visibility must 
be sufficient for one of the following visual references to be 
distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot without reliance on the 
EFVS--
    (A) The runway threshold;

[[Page 715]]

    (B) The lights or markings of the threshold;
    (C) The runway touchdown zone landing surface; or
    (D) The lights or markings of the touchdown zone.
    (4) Compliance Date. Beginning on March 13, 2018, a person 
conducting an EFVS operation to 100 feet above the touchdown zone 
elevation must comply with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this 
section.
    (c) Public aircraft certification and training requirements. A 
public aircraft operator, other than the U.S. military, may conduct an 
EFVS operation under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section only if:
    (1) The aircraft meets all of the civil certification and 
airworthiness requirements of paragraph (a)(1) or (b)(1) of this 
section, as applicable to the EFVS operation to be conducted; and
    (2) The pilot flightcrew member, or any other person who manipulates 
the controls of an aircraft during an EFVS operation, meets the 
training, recent flight experience and refresher training requirements 
of Sec. 61.66 of this chapter applicable to EFVS operations.
    (d) Exception for Experimental Aircraft. The requirement to use an 
EFVS that meets the applicable airworthiness requirements specified in 
paragraphs (a)(1)(i), (a)(2)(iii), (b)(1)(i), and (b)(2)(iii) of this 
section does not apply to operations conducted in an aircraft issued an 
experimental certificate under Sec. 21.191 of this chapter for the 
purpose of research and development or showing compliance with 
regulations, provided the Administrator has determined that the 
operations can be conducted safely in accordance with operating 
limitations issued for that purpose.

[Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 91-345, 81 FR 90172, Dec. 13, 2016; 82 FR 
2193, Jan. 9, 2017]



Sec. 91.177  Minimum altitudes for IFR operations.

    (a) Operation of aircraft at minimum altitudes. Except when 
necessary for takeoff or landing, or unless otherwise authorized by the 
FAA, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below--
    (1) The applicable minimum altitudes prescribed in parts 95 and 97 
of this chapter. However, if both a MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a 
particular route or route segment, a person may operate an aircraft 
below the MEA down to, but not below, the MOCA, provided the applicable 
navigation signals are available. For aircraft using VOR for navigation, 
this applies only when the aircraft is within 22 nautical miles of that 
VOR (based on the reasonable estimate by the pilot operating the 
aircraft of that distance); or
    (2) If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed in parts 95 and 
97 of this chapter, then--
    (i) In the case of operations over an area designated as a 
mountainous area in part 95 of this chapter, an altitude of 2,000 feet 
above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical 
miles from the course to be flown; or
    (ii) In any other case, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest 
obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the 
course to be flown.
    (b) Climb. Climb to a higher minimum IFR altitude shall begin 
immediately after passing the point beyond which that minimum altitude 
applies, except that when ground obstructions intervene, the point 
beyond which that higher minimum altitude applies shall be crossed at or 
above the applicable MCA.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-296, 
72 FR 31678, June 7, 2007; Amdt. 91-315, 75 FR 30690, June 2, 2010]



Sec. 91.179  IFR cruising altitude or flight level.

    Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, the following rules apply--
    (a) In controlled airspace. Each person operating an aircraft under 
IFR in level cruising flight in controlled airspace shall maintain the 
altitude or flight level assigned that aircraft by ATC. However, if the 
ATC clearance assigns ``VFR conditions on-top,'' that person shall 
maintain an altitude or flight level as prescribed by Sec. 91.159.
    (b) In uncontrolled airspace. Except while in a holding pattern of 2 
minutes or less or while turning, each person operating an aircraft 
under IFR in level cruising flight in uncontrolled airspace shall 
maintain an appropriate altitude as follows:

[[Page 716]]

    (1) When operating below 18,000 feet MSL and--
    (i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any 
odd thousand foot MSL altitude (such as 3,000, 5,000, or 7,000); or
    (ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any 
even thousand foot MSL altitude (such as 2,000, 4,000, or 6,000).
    (2) When operating at or above 18,000 feet MSL but below flight 
level 290, and--
    (i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any 
odd flight level (such as 190, 210, or 230); or
    (ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any 
even flight level (such as 180, 200, or 220).
    (3) When operating at flight level 290 and above in non-RVSM 
airspace, and--
    (i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any 
flight level, at 4,000-foot intervals, beginning at and including flight 
level 290 (such as flight level 290, 330, or 370); or
    (ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any 
flight level, at 4,000-foot intervals, beginning at and including flight 
level 310 (such as flight level 310, 350, or 390).
    (4) When operating at flight level 290 and above in airspace 
designated as Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace and--
    (i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any 
odd flight level, at 2,000-foot intervals beginning at and including 
flight level 290 (such as flight level 290, 310, 330, 350, 370, 390, 
410); or
    (ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any 
even flight level, at 2000-foot intervals beginning at and including 
flight level 300 (such as 300, 320, 340, 360, 380, 400).

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-276, 
68 FR 61321, Oct. 27, 2003; 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003; Amdt. 91-296, 72 
FR 31679, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 91.180  Operations within airspace designated as Reduced 
Vertical Separation Minimum airspace.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person 
may operate a civil aircraft in airspace designated as Reduced Vertical 
Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace unless:
    (1) The operator and the operator's aircraft comply with the minimum 
standards of appendix G of this part; and
    (2) The operator is authorized by the Administrator or the country 
of registry to conduct such operations.
    (b) The Administrator may authorize a deviation from the 
requirements of this section.

[Amdt. 91-276, 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003]



Sec. 91.181  Course to be flown.

    Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an 
aircraft within controlled airspace under IFR except as follows:
    (a) On an ATS route, along the centerline of that airway.
    (b) On any other route, along the direct course between the 
navigational aids or fixes defining that route. However, this section 
does not prohibit maneuvering the aircraft to pass well clear of other 
air traffic or the maneuvering of the aircraft in VFR conditions to 
clear the intended flight path both before and during climb or descent.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-296, 
72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 91.183  IFR communications.

    Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, the pilot in command of each 
aircraft operated under IFR in controlled airspace must ensure that a 
continuous watch is maintained on the appropriate frequency and must 
report the following as soon as possible--
    (a) The time and altitude of passing each designated reporting 
point, or the reporting points specified by ATC, except that while the 
aircraft is under radar control, only the passing of those reporting 
points specifically requested by ATC need be reported;
    (b) Any unforecast weather conditions encountered; and
    (c) Any other information relating to the safety of flight.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-296, 
72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007]

[[Page 717]]



Sec. 91.185  IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure.

    (a) General. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each pilot who has 
two-way radio communications failure when operating under IFR shall 
comply with the rules of this section.
    (b) VFR conditions. If the failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if 
VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall 
continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
    (c) IFR conditions. If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, or if 
paragraph (b) of this section cannot be complied with, each pilot shall 
continue the flight according to the following:
    (1) Route. (i) By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance 
received;
    (ii) If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of 
radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector 
clearance;
    (iii) In the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has 
advised may be expected in a further clearance; or
    (iv) In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has 
advised may be expected in a further clearance, by the route filed in 
the flight plan.
    (2) Altitude. At the highest of the following altitudes or flight 
levels for the route segment being flown:
    (i) The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance 
received;
    (ii) The minimum altitude (converted, if appropriate, to minimum 
flight level as prescribed in Sec. 91.121(c)) for IFR operations; or
    (iii) The altitude or flight level ATC has advised may be expected 
in a further clearance.
    (3) Leave clearance limit. (i) When the clearance limit is a fix 
from which an approach begins, commence descent or descent and approach 
as close as possible to the expect-further-clearance time if one has 
been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to 
the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended 
(with ATC) estimated time en route.
    (ii) If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach 
begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time 
if one has been received, or if none has been received, upon arrival 
over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach 
begins and commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible 
to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended 
(with ATC) estimated time en route.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 91-211, 54 FR 41211, 
Oct. 5, 1989]



Sec. 91.187  Operation under IFR in controlled airspace: 
Malfunction reports.

    (a) The pilot in command of each aircraft operated in controlled 
airspace under IFR shall report as soon as practical to ATC any 
malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communication equipment 
occurring in flight.
    (b) In each report required by paragraph (a) of this section, the 
pilot in command shall include the--
    (1) Aircraft identification;
    (2) Equipment affected;
    (3) Degree to which the capability of the pilot to operate under IFR 
in the ATC system is impaired; and
    (4) Nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC.



Sec. 91.189  Category II and III operations: General operating rules.

    (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft in a Category II or III 
operation unless--
    (1) The flight crew of the aircraft consists of a pilot in command 
and a second in command who hold the appropriate authorizations and 
ratings prescribed in Sec. 61.3 of this chapter;
    (2) Each flight crewmember has adequate knowledge of, and 
familiarity with, the aircraft and the procedures to be used; and
    (3) The instrument panel in front of the pilot who is controlling 
the aircraft has appropriate instrumentation for the type of flight 
control guidance system that is being used.
    (b) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may 
operate a civil aircraft in a Category II or Category III operation 
unless each ground component required for that operation and the related 
airborne equipment is installed and operating.

[[Page 718]]

    (c) Authorized DA/DH. For the purpose of this section, when the 
approach procedure being used provides for and requires the use of a DA/
DH, the authorized DA/DH is the highest of the following:
    (1) The DA/DH prescribed by the approach procedure.
    (2) The DA/DH prescribed for the pilot in command.
    (3) The DA/DH for which the aircraft is equipped.
    (d) Except as provided in Sec. 91.176 of this part or unless 
otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no pilot operating an 
aircraft in a Category II or Category III approach that provides and 
requires the use of a DA/DH may continue the approach below the 
authorized decision height unless the following conditions are met:
    (1) The aircraft is in a position from which a descent to a landing 
on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using 
normal maneuvers, and where that descent rate will allow touchdown to 
occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing.
    (2) At least one of the following visual references for the intended 
runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
    (i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend 
below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach 
lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side 
row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
    (ii) The threshold.
    (iii) The threshold markings.
    (iv) The threshold lights.
    (v) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.
    (vi) The touchdown zone lights.
    (e) Except as provided in Sec. 91.176 of this part or unless 
otherwise authorized by the Administrator, each pilot operating an 
aircraft shall immediately execute an appropriate missed approach 
whenever, prior to touchdown, the requirements of paragraph (d) of this 
section are not met.
    (f) No person operating an aircraft using a Category III approach 
without decision height may land that aircraft except in accordance with 
the provisions of the letter of authorization issued by the 
Administrator.
    (g) Paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section do not apply to 
operations conducted by certificate holders operating under part 121, 
125, 129, or 135 of this chapter, or holders of management 
specifications issued in accordance with subpart K of this part. Holders 
of operations specifications or management specifications may operate a 
civil aircraft in a Category II or Category III operation only in 
accordance with their operations specifications or management 
specifications, as applicable.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 
68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007; 
Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 91-345, 81 FR 90175, Dec. 13, 2016]



Sec. 91.191  Category II and Category III manual.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, after 
August 4, 1997, no person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft 
in a Category II or a Category III operation unless--
    (1) There is available in the aircraft a current and approved 
Category II or Category III manual, as appropriate, for that aircraft;
    (2) The operation is conducted in accordance with the procedures, 
instructions, and limitations in the appropriate manual; and
    (3) The instruments and equipment listed in the manual that are 
required for a particular Category II or Category III operation have 
been inspected and maintained in accordance with the maintenance program 
contained in the manual.
    (b) Each operator must keep a current copy of each approved manual 
at its principal base of operations and must make each manual available 
for inspection upon request by the Administrator.
    (c) This section does not apply to operations conducted by a 
certificate holder operating under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter 
or a holder of management specifications issued in accordance with 
subpart K of this part.

[Doc. No. 26933, 61 FR 34560, July 2, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 
68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003]

[[Page 719]]



Sec. 91.193  Certificate of authorization for certain Category II operations.

    The Administrator may issue a certificate of authorization 
authorizing deviations from the requirements of Sec. Sec. 91.189, 
91.191, and 91.205(f) for the operation of small aircraft identified as 
Category A aircraft in Sec. 97.3 of this chapter in Category II 
operations if the Administrator finds that the proposed operation can be 
safely conducted under the terms of the certificate. Such authorization 
does not permit operation of the aircraft carrying persons or property 
for compensation or hire.



Sec. Sec. 91.195-91.199  [Reserved]



      Subpart C_Equipment, Instrument, and Certificate Requirements

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.201  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.203  Civil aircraft: Certifications required.

    (a) Except as provided in Sec. 91.715, no person may operate a 
civil aircraft unless it has within it the following:
    (1) An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate. Each U.S. 
airworthiness certificate used to comply with this subparagraph (except 
a special flight permit, a copy of the applicable operations 
specifications issued under Sec. 21.197(c) of this chapter, appropriate 
sections of the air carrier manual required by parts 121 and 135 of this 
chapter containing that portion of the operations specifications issued 
under Sec. 21.197(c), or an authorization under Sec. 91.611) must have 
on it the registration number assigned to the aircraft under part 47 or 
48 of this chapter. However, the airworthiness certificate need not have 
on it an assigned special identification number before 10 days after 
that number is first affixed to the aircraft. A revised airworthiness 
certificate having on it an assigned special identification number, that 
has been affixed to an aircraft, may only be obtained upon application 
to the responsible Flight Standards office.
    (2) An effective U.S. registration certificate issued to its owner 
or, for operation within the United States, the second copy of the 
Aircraft registration Application as provided for in Sec. 47.31(c), a 
Certificate of Aircraft registration as provided in part 48, or a 
registration certification issued under the laws of a foreign country.
    (b) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless the airworthiness 
certificate required by paragraph (a) of this section or a special 
flight authorization issued under Sec. 91.715 is displayed at the cabin 
or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.
    (c) No person may operate an aircraft with a fuel tank installed 
within the passenger compartment or a baggage compartment unless the 
installation was accomplished pursuant to part 43 of this chapter, and a 
copy of FAA Form 337 authorizing that installation is on board the 
aircraft.
    (d) No person may operate a civil airplane (domestic or foreign) 
into or out of an airport in the United States unless it complies with 
the fuel venting and exhaust emissions requirements of part 34 of this 
chapter.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-218, 
55 FR 32861, Aug. 10, 1990; Amdt. 91-318, 75 FR 41983, July 20, 2010; 
Amdt. 91-338, 80 FR 78648, Dec. 16, 2015; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 
91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018; Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 
91-366, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 91.205  Powered civil aircraft with standard category U.S. 
airworthiness certificates: Instrument and equipment requirements.

    (a) General. Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(3) and (e) of this 
section, no person may operate a powered civil aircraft with a standard 
category U.S. airworthiness certificate in any operation described in 
paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section unless that aircraft contains 
the instruments and equipment specified in those paragraphs (or FAA-
approved equivalents) for that type of operation, and those instruments 
and items of equipment are in operable condition.
    (b) Visual-flight rules (day). For VFR flight during the day, the 
following instruments and equipment are required:
    (1) Airspeed indicator.
    (2) Altimeter.
    (3) Magnetic direction indicator.
    (4) Tachometer for each engine.

[[Page 720]]

    (5) Oil pressure gauge for each engine using pressure system.
    (6) Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine.
    (7) Oil temperature gauge for each air-cooled engine.
    (8) Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine.
    (9) Fuel gauge indicating the quantity of fuel in each tank.
    (10) Landing gear position indicator, if the aircraft has a 
retractable landing gear.
    (11) For small civil airplanes certificated after March 11, 1996, in 
accordance with part 23 of this chapter, an approved aviation red or 
aviation white anticollision light system. In the event of failure of 
any light of the anticollision light system, operation of the aircraft 
may continue to a location where repairs or replacement can be made.
    (12) If the aircraft is operated for hire over water and beyond 
power-off gliding distance from shore, approved flotation gear readily 
available to each occupant and, unless the aircraft is operating under 
part 121 of this subchapter, at least one pyrotechnic signaling device. 
As used in this section, ``shore'' means that area of the land adjacent 
to the water which is above the high water mark and excludes land areas 
which are intermittently under water.
    (13) An approved safety belt with an approved metal-to-metal 
latching device, or other approved restraint system for each occupant 2 
years of age or older.
    (14) For small civil airplanes manufactured after July 18, 1978, an 
approved shoulder harness or restraint system for each front seat. For 
small civil airplanes manufactured after December 12, 1986, an approved 
shoulder harness or restraint system for all seats. Shoulder harnesses 
installed at flightcrew stations must permit the flightcrew member, when 
seated and with the safety belt and shoulder harness fastened, to 
perform all functions necessary for flight operations. For purposes of 
this paragraph--
    (i) The date of manufacture of an airplane is the date the 
inspection acceptance records reflect that the airplane is complete and 
meets the FAA-approved type design data; and
    (ii) A front seat is a seat located at a flightcrew member station 
or any seat located alongside such a seat.
    (15) An emergency locator transmitter, if required by Sec. 91.207.
    (16) [Reserved]
    (17) For rotorcraft manufactured after September 16, 1992, a 
shoulder harness for each seat that meets the requirements of Sec. 27.2 
or Sec. 29.2 of this chapter in effect on September 16, 1991.
    (c) Visual flight rules (night). For VFR flight at night, the 
following instruments and equipment are required:
    (1) Instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (b) of this 
section.
    (2) Approved position lights.
    (3) An approved aviation red or aviation white anticollision light 
system on all U.S.-registered civil aircraft. Anticollision light 
systems initially installed after August 11, 1971, on aircraft for which 
a type certificate was issued or applied for before August 11, 1971, 
must at least meet the anticollision light standards of part 23, 25, 27, 
or 29 of this chapter, as applicable, that were in effect on August 10, 
1971, except that the color may be either aviation red or aviation 
white. In the event of failure of any light of the anticollision light 
system, operations with the aircraft may be continued to a stop where 
repairs or replacement can be made.
    (4) If the aircraft is operated for hire, one electric landing 
light.
    (5) An adequate source of electrical energy for all installed 
electrical and radio equipment.
    (6) One spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind 
required, that are accessible to the pilot in flight.
    (d) Instrument flight rules. For IFR flight, the following 
instruments and equipment are required:
    (1) Instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (b) of this 
section, and, for night flight, instruments and equipment specified in 
paragraph (c) of this section.
    (2) Two-way radio communication and navigation equipment suitable 
for the route to be flown.
    (3) Gyroscopic rate-of-turn indicator, except on the following 
aircraft:
    (i) Airplanes with a third attitude instrument system usable through 
flight

[[Page 721]]

attitudes of 360 degrees of pitch and roll and installed in accordance 
with the instrument requirements prescribed in Sec. 121.305(j) of this 
chapter; and
    (ii) Rotorcraft with a third attitude instrument system usable 
through flight attitudes of 80 degrees of pitch 
and 120 degrees of roll and installed in 
accordance with Sec. 29.1303(g) of this chapter.
    (4) Slip-skid indicator.
    (5) Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.
    (6) A clock displaying hours, minutes, and seconds with a sweep-
second pointer or digital presentation.
    (7) Generator or alternator of adequate capacity.
    (8) Gyroscopic pitch and bank indicator (artificial horizon).
    (9) Gyroscopic direction indicator (directional gyro or equivalent).
    (e) Flight at and above 24,000 feet MSL (FL 240). If VOR navigation 
equipment is required under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, no person 
may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft within the 50 states and 
the District of Columbia at or above FL 240 unless that aircraft is 
equipped with approved DME or a suitable RNAV system. When the DME or 
RNAV system required by this paragraph fails at and above FL 240, the 
pilot in command of the aircraft must notify ATC immediately, and then 
may continue operations at and above FL 240 to the next airport of 
intended landing where repairs or replacement of the equipment can be 
made.
    (f) Category II operations. The requirements for Category II 
operations are the instruments and equipment specified in--
    (1) Paragraph (d) of this section; and
    (2) Appendix A to this part.
    (g) Category III operations. The instruments and equipment required 
for Category III operations are specified in paragraph (d) of this 
section.
    (h) Night vision goggle operations. For night vision goggle 
operations, the following instruments and equipment must be installed in 
the aircraft, functioning in a normal manner, and approved for use by 
the FAA:
    (1) Instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (b) of this 
section, instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (c) of this 
section;
    (2) Night vision goggles;
    (3) Interior and exterior aircraft lighting system required for 
night vision goggle operations;
    (4) Two-way radio communications system;
    (5) Gyroscopic pitch and bank indicator (artificial horizon);
    (6) Generator or alternator of adequate capacity for the required 
instruments and equipment; and
    (7) Radar altimeter.
    (i) Exclusions. Paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section do not apply 
to operations conducted by a holder of a certificate issued under part 
121 or part 135 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-220, 
55 FR 43310, Oct. 26, 1990; Amdt. 91-223, 56 FR 41052, Aug. 16, 1991; 
Amdt. 91-231, 57 FR 42672, Sept. 15, 1992; Amdt. 91-248, 61 FR 5171, 
Feb. 9, 1996; Amdt. 91-251, 61 FR 34560, July 2, 1996; Amdt. 91-285, 69 
FR 77599, Dec. 27, 2004; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007; Amdt. 
91-309, 74 FR 42563, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-2015-1621, Amdt. 91-346, 
81 FR 96700, Dec. 30, 2016]



Sec. 91.207  Emergency locator transmitters.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, no 
person may operate a U.S.-registered civil airplane unless--
    (1) There is attached to the airplane an approved automatic type 
emergency locator transmitter that is in operable condition for the 
following operations, except that after June 21, 1995, an emergency 
locator transmitter that meets the requirements of TSO-C91 may not be 
used for new installations:
    (i) Those operations governed by the supplemental air carrier and 
commercial operator rules of parts 121 and 125;
    (ii) Charter flights governed by the domestic and flag air carrier 
rules of part 121 of this chapter; and
    (iii) Operations governed by part 135 of this chapter; or
    (2) For operations other than those specified in paragraph (a)(1) of 
this section, there must be attached to the airplane an approved 
personal type or an approved automatic type emergency locator 
transmitter that is in operable condition, except that after June 21, 
1995, an emergency locator transmitter

[[Page 722]]

that meets the requirements of TSO-C91 may not be used for new 
installations.
    (b) Each emergency locator transmitter required by paragraph (a) of 
this section must be attached to the airplane in such a manner that the 
probability of damage to the transmitter in the event of crash impact is 
minimized. Fixed and deployable automatic type transmitters must be 
attached to the airplane as far aft as practicable.
    (c) Batteries used in the emergency locator transmitters required by 
paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must be replaced (or recharged, 
if the batteries are rechargeable)--
    (1) When the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative 
hour; or
    (2) When 50 percent of their useful life (or, for rechargeable 
batteries, 50 percent of their useful life of charge) has expired, as 
established by the transmitter manufacturer under its approval.


The new expiration date for replacing (or recharging) the battery must 
be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter and entered in the 
aircraft maintenance record. Paragraph (c)(2) of this section does not 
apply to batteries (such as water-activated batteries) that are 
essentially unaffected during probable storage intervals.
    (d) Each emergency locator transmitter required by paragraph (a) of 
this section must be inspected within 12 calendar months after the last 
inspection for--
    (1) Proper installation;
    (2) Battery corrosion;
    (3) Operation of the controls and crash sensor; and
    (4) The presence of a sufficient signal radiated from its antenna.
    (e) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a person may--
    (1) Ferry a newly acquired airplane from the place where possession 
of it was taken to a place where the emergency locator transmitter is to 
be installed; and
    (2) Ferry an airplane with an inoperative emergency locator 
transmitter from a place where repairs or replacements cannot be made to 
a place where they can be made.


No person other than required crewmembers may be carried aboard an 
airplane being ferried under paragraph (e) of this section.
    (f) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to--
    (1) Before January 1, 2004, turbojet-powered aircraft;
    (2) Aircraft while engaged in scheduled flights by scheduled air 
carriers;
    (3) Aircraft while engaged in training operations conducted entirely 
within a 50-nautical mile radius of the airport from which such local 
flight operations began;
    (4) Aircraft while engaged in flight operations incident to design 
and testing;
    (5) New aircraft while engaged in flight operations incident to 
their manufacture, preparation, and delivery;
    (6) Aircraft while engaged in flight operations incident to the 
aerial application of chemicals and other substances for agricultural 
purposes;
    (7) Aircraft certificated by the Administrator for research and 
development purposes;
    (8) Aircraft while used for showing compliance with regulations, 
crew training, exhibition, air racing, or market surveys;
    (9) Aircraft equipped to carry not more than one person.
    (10) An aircraft during any period for which the transmitter has 
been temporarily removed for inspection, repair, modification, or 
replacement, subject to the following:
    (i) No person may operate the aircraft unless the aircraft records 
contain an entry which includes the date of initial removal, the make, 
model, serial number, and reason for removing the transmitter, and a 
placard located in view of the pilot to show ``ELT not installed.''
    (ii) No person may operate the aircraft more than 90 days after the 
ELT is initially removed from the aircraft; and

[[Page 723]]

    (11) On and after January 1, 2004, aircraft with a maximum payload 
capacity of more than 18,000 pounds when used in air transportation.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-242, 
59 FR 32057, June 21, 1994; 59 FR 34578, July 6, 1994; Amdt. 91-265, 65 
FR 81319, Dec. 22, 2000; 66 FR 16316, Mar. 23, 2001]



Sec. 91.209  Aircraft lights.

    No person may:
    (a) During the period from sunset to sunrise (or, in Alaska, during 
the period a prominent unlighted object cannot be seen from a distance 
of 3 statute miles or the sun is more than 6 degrees below the 
horizon)--
    (1) Operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights;
    (2) Park or move an aircraft in, or in dangerous proximity to, a 
night flight operations area of an airport unless the aircraft--
    (i) Is clearly illuminated;
    (ii) Has lighted position lights; or
    (iii) is in an area that is marked by obstruction lights;
    (3) Anchor an aircraft unless the aircraft--
    (i) Has lighted anchor lights; or
    (ii) Is in an area where anchor lights are not required on vessels; 
or
    (b) Operate an aircraft that is equipped with an anticollision light 
system, unless it has lighted anticollision lights. However, the 
anticollision lights need not be lighted when the pilot-in-command 
determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the 
interest of safety to turn the lights off.

[Doc. No. 27806, 61 FR 5171, Feb. 9, 1996]



Sec. 91.211  Supplemental oxygen.

    (a) General. No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. 
registry--
    (1) At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet (MSL) up to and 
including 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is 
provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight 
at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration;
    (2) At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the 
required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental 
oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes; and
    (3) At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet (MSL) unless each 
occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.
    (b) Pressurized cabin aircraft. (1) No person may operate a civil 
aircraft of U.S. registry with a pressurized cabin--
    (i) At flight altitudes above flight level 250 unless at least a 10-
minute supply of supplemental oxygen, in addition to any oxygen required 
to satisfy paragraph (a) of this section, is available for each occupant 
of the aircraft for use in the event that a descent is necessitated by 
loss of cabin pressurization; and
    (ii) At flight altitudes above flight level 350 unless one pilot at 
the controls of the airplane is wearing and using an oxygen mask that is 
secured and sealed and that either supplies oxygen at all times or 
automatically supplies oxygen whenever the cabin pressure altitude of 
the airplane exceeds 14,000 feet (MSL), except that the one pilot need 
not wear and use an oxygen mask while at or below flight level 410 if 
there are two pilots at the controls and each pilot has a quick-donning 
type of oxygen mask that can be placed on the face with one hand from 
the ready position within 5 seconds, supplying oxygen and properly 
secured and sealed.
    (2) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, if for any 
reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave the controls 
of the aircraft when operating at flight altitudes above flight level 
350, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use an oxygen 
mask until the other pilot has returned to that crewmember's station.



Sec. 91.213  Inoperative instruments and equipment.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person 
may take off an aircraft with inoperative instruments or equipment 
installed unless the following conditions are met:
    (1) An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft.

[[Page 724]]

    (2) The aircraft has within it a letter of authorization, issued by 
the responsible Flight Standards office, authorizing operation of the 
aircraft under the Minimum Equipment List. The letter of authorization 
may be obtained by written request of the airworthiness certificate 
holder. The Minimum Equipment List and the letter of authorization 
constitute a supplemental type certificate for the aircraft.
    (3) The approved Minimum Equipment List must--
    (i) Be prepared in accordance with the limitations specified in 
paragraph (b) of this section; and
    (ii) Provide for the operation of the aircraft with the instruments 
and equipment in an inoperable condition.
    (4) The aircraft records available to the pilot must include an 
entry describing the inoperable instruments and equipment.
    (5) The aircraft is operated under all applicable conditions and 
limitations contained in the Minimum Equipment List and the letter 
authorizing the use of the list.
    (b) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in a 
Minimum Equipment List:
    (1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or 
otherwise required by the airworthiness requirements under which the 
aircraft is type certificated and which are essential for safe 
operations under all operating conditions.
    (2) Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive 
to be in operable condition unless the airworthiness directive provides 
otherwise.
    (3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations by 
this part.
    (c) A person authorized to use an approved Minimum Equipment List 
issued for a specific aircraft under subpart K of this part, part 121, 
125, or 135 of this chapter must use that Minimum Equipment List to 
comply with the requirements in this section.
    (d) Except for operations conducted in accordance with paragraph (a) 
or (c) of this section, a person may takeoff an aircraft in operations 
conducted under this part with inoperative instruments and equipment 
without an approved Minimum Equipment List provided--
    (1) The flight operation is conducted in a--
    (i) Rotorcraft, non-turbine-powered airplane, glider, lighter-than-
air aircraft, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft, for 
which a master minimum equipment list has not been developed; or
    (ii) Small rotorcraft, nonturbine-powered small airplane, glider, or 
lighter-than-air aircraft for which a Master Minimum Equipment List has 
been developed; and
    (2) The inoperative instruments and equipment are not--
    (i) Part of the VFR-day type certification instruments and equipment 
prescribed in the applicable airworthiness regulations under which the 
aircraft was type certificated;
    (ii) Indicated as required on the aircraft's equipment list, or on 
the Kinds of Operations Equipment List for the kind of flight operation 
being conducted;
    (iii) Required by Sec. 91.205 or any other rule of this part for 
the specific kind of flight operation being conducted; or
    (iv) Required to be operational by an airworthiness directive; and
    (3) The inoperative instruments and equipment are--
    (i) Removed from the aircraft, the cockpit control placarded, and 
the maintenance recorded in accordance with Sec. 43.9 of this chapter; 
or
    (ii) Deactivated and placarded ``Inoperative.'' If deactivation of 
the inoperative instrument or equipment involves maintenance, it must be 
accomplished and recorded in accordance with part 43 of this chapter; 
and
    (4) A determination is made by a pilot, who is certificated and 
appropriately rated under part 61 of this chapter, or by a person, who 
is certificated and appropriately rated to perform maintenance on the 
aircraft, that the inoperative instrument or equipment does not 
constitute a hazard to the aircraft.
    An aircraft with inoperative instruments or equipment as provided in 
paragraph (d) of this section is considered to be in a properly altered 
condition acceptable to the Administrator.

[[Page 725]]

    (e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an aircraft 
with inoperable instruments or equipment may be operated under a special 
flight permit issued in accordance with Sec. Sec. 21.197 and 21.199 of 
this chapter.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 
68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004; 
Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 91.215  ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment and use.

    (a) All airspace: U.S.-registered civil aircraft. For operations not 
conducted under part 121 or 135 of this chapter, ATC transponder 
equipment installed must meet the performance and environmental 
requirements of any class of TSO-C74b (Mode A) or any class of TSO-C74c 
(Mode A with altitude reporting capability) as appropriate, or the 
appropriate class of TSO-C112 (Mode S).
    (b) All airspace. Unless otherwise authorized or directed by ATC, 
and except as provided in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, no person 
may operate an aircraft in the airspace described in paragraphs (b)(1) 
through (5) of this section, unless that aircraft is equipped with an 
operable coded radar beacon transponder having either Mode 3/A 4096 code 
capability, replying to Mode 3/A interrogations with the code specified 
by ATC, or a Mode S capability, replying to Mode 3/A interrogations with 
the code specified by ATC and intermode and Mode S interrogations in 
accordance with the applicable provisions specified in TSO C-112, and 
that aircraft is equipped with automatic pressure altitude reporting 
equipment having a Mode C capability that automatically replies to Mode 
C interrogations by transmitting pressure altitude information in 100-
foot increments. The requirements of this paragraph (b) apply to--
    (1) All aircraft. In Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas;
    (2) All aircraft. In all airspace within 30 nautical miles of an 
airport listed in appendix D, section 1 of this part from the surface 
upward to 10,000 feet MSL;
    (3) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, any aircraft 
which was not originally certificated with an engine-driven electrical 
system or which has not subsequently been certified with such a system 
installed, balloon or glider may conduct operations in the airspace 
within 30 nautical miles of an airport listed in appendix D, section 1 
of this part provided such operations are conducted--
    (i) Outside any Class A, Class B, or Class C airspace area; and
    (ii) Below the altitude of the ceiling of a Class B or Class C 
airspace area designated for an airport or 10,000 feet MSL, whichever is 
lower; and
    (4) All aircraft in all airspace above the ceiling and within the 
lateral boundaries of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for 
an airport upward to 10,000 feet MSL; and
    (5) All aircraft except any aircraft which was not originally 
certificated with an engine-driven electrical system or which has not 
subsequently been certified with such a system installed, balloon, or 
glider--
    (i) In all airspace of the 48 contiguous states and the District of 
Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and 
below 2,500 feet above the surface; and
    (ii) In the airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL within a 
10-nautical-mile radius of any airport listed in appendix D, section 2 
of this part, excluding the airspace below 1,200 feet outside of the 
lateral boundaries of the surface area of the airspace designated for 
that airport.
    (c) Transponder-on operation. Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) 
of this section, while in the airspace as specified in paragraph (b) of 
this section or in all controlled airspace, each person operating an 
aircraft equipped with an operable ATC transponder maintained in 
accordance with Sec. 91.413 shall operate the transponder, including 
Mode C equipment if installed, and shall reply on the appropriate code 
or as assigned by ATC, unless otherwise directed by ATC when 
transmitting would jeopardize the safe execution of air traffic control 
functions.
    (d) ATC authorized deviations. Requests for ATC authorized 
deviations must be made to the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the 
concerned airspace within the time periods specified as follows:

[[Page 726]]

    (1) For operation of an aircraft with an operating transponder but 
without operating automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment having 
a Mode C capability, the request may be made at any time.
    (2) For operation of an aircraft with an inoperative transponder to 
the airport of ultimate destination, including any intermediate stops, 
or to proceed to a place where suitable repairs can be made or both, the 
request may be made at any time.
    (3) For operation of an aircraft that is not equipped with a 
transponder, the request must be made at least one hour before the 
proposed operation.
    (e) Unmanned aircraft. (1) The requirements of paragraph (b) of this 
section do not apply to a person operating an unmanned aircraft under 
this part unless the operation is conducted under a flight plan and the 
person operating the unmanned aircraft maintains two-way communication 
with ATC.
    (2) No person may operate an unmanned aircraft under this part with 
a transponder on unless:
    (i) The operation is conducted under a flight plan and the person 
operating the unmanned aircraft maintains two-way communication with 
ATC; or
    (ii) The use of a transponder is otherwise authorized by the 
Administrator.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-221, 
56 FR 469, Jan. 4, 1991; Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65660, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 
91-227, 7 FR 328, Jan. 3, 1992; Amdt. 91-229, 57 FR 34618, Aug. 5, 1992; 
Amdt. 91-267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-355, 84 FR 34287, 
July 18, 2019; Amdt. No. 91-361, 86 FR 4512, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 91.217  Data correspondence between automatically reported
pressure altitude data and the pilot's altitude reference.

    (a) No person may operate any automatic pressure altitude reporting 
equipment associated with a radar beacon transponder--
    (1) When deactivation of that equipment is directed by ATC;
    (2) Unless, as installed, that equipment was tested and calibrated 
to transmit altitude data corresponding within 125 feet (on a 95 percent 
probability basis) of the indicated or calibrated datum of the altimeter 
normally used to maintain flight altitude, with that altimeter 
referenced to 29.92 inches of mercury for altitudes from sea level to 
the maximum operating altitude of the aircraft; or
    (3) Unless the altimeters and digitizers in that equipment meet the 
standards of TSO-C10b and TSO-C88, respectively.
    (b) No person may operate any automatic pressure altitude reporting 
equipment associated with a radar beacon transponder or with ADS-B Out 
equipment unless the pressure altitude reported for ADS-B Out and Mode 
C/S is derived from the same source for aircraft equipped with both a 
transponder and ADS-B Out.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-314, 
75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010]



Sec. 91.219  Altitude alerting system or device: Turbojet-powered
civil airplanes.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person 
may operate a turbojet-powered U.S.-registered civil airplane unless 
that airplane is equipped with an approved altitude alerting system or 
device that is in operable condition and meets the requirements of 
paragraph (b) of this section.
    (b) Each altitude alerting system or device required by paragraph 
(a) of this section must be able to--
    (1) Alert the pilot--
    (i) Upon approaching a preselected altitude in either ascent or 
descent, by a sequence of both aural and visual signals in sufficient 
time to establish level flight at that preselected altitude; or
    (ii) Upon approaching a preselected altitude in either ascent or 
descent, by a sequence of visual signals in sufficient time to establish 
level flight at that preselected altitude, and when deviating above and 
below that preselected altitude, by an aural signal;
    (2) Provide the required signals from sea level to the highest 
operating altitude approved for the airplane in which it is installed;
    (3) Preselect altitudes in increments that are commensurate with the 
altitudes at which the aircraft is operated;

[[Page 727]]

    (4) Be tested without special equipment to determine proper 
operation of the alerting signals; and
    (5) Accept necessary barometric pressure settings if the system or 
device operates on barometric pressure. However, for operation below 
3,000 feet AGL, the system or device need only provide one signal, 
either visual or aural, to comply with this paragraph. A radio altimeter 
may be included to provide the signal if the operator has an approved 
procedure for its use to determine DA/DH or MDA, as appropriate.
    (c) Each operator to which this section applies must establish and 
assign procedures for the use of the altitude alerting system or device 
and each flight crewmember must comply with those procedures assigned to 
him.
    (d) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to any operation of 
an airplane that has an experimental certificate or to the operation of 
any airplane for the following purposes:
    (1) Ferrying a newly acquired airplane from the place where 
possession of it was taken to a place where the altitude alerting system 
or device is to be installed.
    (2) Continuing a flight as originally planned, if the altitude 
alerting system or device becomes inoperative after the airplane has 
taken off; however, the flight may not depart from a place where repair 
or replacement can be made.
    (3) Ferrying an airplane with any inoperative altitude alerting 
system or device from a place where repairs or replacements cannot be 
made to a place where it can be made.
    (4) Conducting an airworthiness flight test of the airplane.
    (5) Ferrying an airplane to a place outside the United States for 
the purpose of registering it in a foreign country.
    (6) Conducting a sales demonstration of the operation of the 
airplane.
    (7) Training foreign flight crews in the operation of the airplane 
before ferrying it to a place outside the United States for the purpose 
of registering it in a foreign country.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-296, 
72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 91.221  Traffic alert and collision avoidance 
system equipment and use.

    (a) All airspace: U.S.-registered civil aircraft. Any traffic alert 
and collision avoidance system installed in a U.S.-registered civil 
aircraft must be approved by the Administrator.
    (b) Traffic alert and collision avoidance system, operation 
required. Each person operating an aircraft equipped with an operable 
traffic alert and collision avoidance system shall have that system on 
and operating.



Sec. 91.223  Terrain awareness and warning system.

    (a) Airplanes manufactured after March 29, 2002. Except as provided 
in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may operate a turbine-
powered U.S.-registered airplane configured with six or more passenger 
seats, excluding any pilot seat, unless that airplane is equipped with 
an approved terrain awareness and warning system that as a minimum meets 
the requirements for Class B equipment in Technical Standard Order 
(TSO)-C151.
    (b) Airplanes manufactured on or before March 29, 2002. Except as 
provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may operate a 
turbine-powered U.S.-registered airplane configured with six or more 
passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, after March 29, 2005, unless 
that airplane is equipped with an approved terrain awareness and warning 
system that as a minimum meets the requirements for Class B equipment in 
Technical Standard Order (TSO)-C151.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0631)

    (c) Airplane Flight Manual. The Airplane Flight Manual shall contain 
appropriate procedures for--
    (1) The use of the terrain awareness and warning system; and
    (2) Proper flight crew reaction in response to the terrain awareness 
and warning system audio and visual warnings.
    (d) Exceptions. Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply 
to--
    (1) Parachuting operations when conducted entirely within a 50 
nautical mile radius of the airport from which such local flight 
operations began.

[[Page 728]]

    (2) Firefighting operations.
    (3) Flight operations when incident to the aerial application of 
chemicals and other substances.

[Doc. No. 29312, 65 FR 16755, Mar. 29, 2000]



Sec. 91.225  Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)
Out equipment and use.

    (a) After January 1, 2020, unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no 
person may operate an aircraft in Class A airspace unless the aircraft 
has equipment installed that--
    (1) Meets the performance requirements in TSO-C166b, Extended 
Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic 
Information Service-Broadcast (TIS-B) Equipment Operating on the Radio 
Frequency of 1090 Megahertz (MHz); and
    (2) Meets the requirements of Sec. 91.227.
    (b) After January 1, 2020, except as prohibited in paragraph (i)(2) 
of this section or unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may 
operate an aircraft below 18,000 feet MSL and in airspace described in 
paragraph (d) of this section unless the aircraft has equipment 
installed that--
    (1) Meets the performance requirements in--
    (i) TSO-C166b; or
    (ii) TSO-C154c, Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) Automatic 
Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Equipment Operating on the 
Frequency of 978 MHz;
    (2) Meets the requirements of Sec. 91.227.
    (c) Operators with equipment installed with an approved deviation 
under Sec. 21.618 of this chapter also are in compliance with this 
section.
    (d) After January 1, 2020, except as prohibited in paragraph (i)(2) 
of this section or unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may 
operate an aircraft in the following airspace unless the aircraft has 
equipment installed that meets the requirements in paragraph (b) of this 
section:
    (1) Class B and Class C airspace areas;
    (2) Except as provided for in paragraph (e) of this section, within 
30 nautical miles of an airport listed in appendix D, section 1 to this 
part from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL;
    (3) Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of a Class B 
or Class C airspace area designated for an airport upward to 10,000 feet 
MSL;
    (4) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, Class E 
airspace within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia at 
and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 
feet above the surface; and
    (5) Class E airspace at and above 3,000 feet MSL over the Gulf of 
Mexico from the coastline of the United States out to 12 nautical miles.
    (e) The requirements of paragraph (b) of this section do not apply 
to any aircraft that was not originally certificated with an electrical 
system, or that has not subsequently been certified with such a system 
installed, including balloons and gliders. These aircraft may conduct 
operations without ADS-B Out in the airspace specified in paragraphs 
(d)(2) and (d)(4) of this section. Operations authorized by this section 
must be conducted--
    (1) Outside any Class B or Class C airspace area; and
    (2) Below the altitude of the ceiling of a Class B or Class C 
airspace area designated for an airport, or 10,000 feet MSL, whichever 
is lower.
    (f) Except as prohibited in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, each 
person operating an aircraft equipped with ADS-B Out must operate this 
equipment in the transmit mode at all times unless--
    (1) Otherwise authorized by the FAA when the aircraft is performing 
a sensitive government mission for national defense, homeland security, 
intelligence or law enforcement purposes and transmitting would 
compromise the operations security of the mission or pose a safety risk 
to the aircraft, crew, or people and property in the air or on the 
ground; or
    (2) Otherwise directed by ATC when transmitting would jeopardize the 
safe execution of air traffic control functions.
    (g) Requests for ATC authorized deviations from the requirements of 
this section must be made to the ATC facility having jurisdiction over 
the concerned airspace within the time periods specified as follows:

[[Page 729]]

    (1) For operation of an aircraft with an inoperative ADS-B Out, to 
the airport of ultimate destination, including any intermediate stops, 
or to proceed to a place where suitable repairs can be made or both, the 
request may be made at any time.
    (2) For operation of an aircraft that is not equipped with ADS-B 
Out, the request must be made at least 1 hour before the proposed 
operation.
    (h) The standards required in this section are incorporated by 
reference with the approval of the Director of the Office of the Federal 
Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved materials 
are available for inspection at the FAA's Office of Rulemaking (ARM-1), 
800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20590 (telephone 202-267-
9677), or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). 
For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-
741-6030, or go to http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/
code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html. This material is also 
available from the sources indicated in paragraphs (h)(1) and (h)(2) of 
this section.
    (1) Copies of Technical Standard Order (TSO)-C166b, Extended 
Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic 
Information Service-Broadcast (TIS-B) Equipment Operating on the Radio 
Frequency of 1090 Megahertz (MHz) (December 2, 2009) and TSO-C154c, 
Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) Automatic Dependent Surveillance-
Broadcast (ADS-B) Equipment Operating on the Frequency of 978 MHz 
(December 2, 2009) may be obtained from the U.S. Department of 
Transportation, Subsequent Distribution Office, DOT Warehouse M30, 
Ardmore East Business Center, 3341 Q 75th Avenue, Landover, MD 20785; 
telephone (301) 322-5377. Copies of TSO -C166B and TSO-C154c are also 
available on the FAA's Web site, at http://www.faa.gov/aircraft/
air_cert/design_approvals/tso/. Select the link ``Search Technical 
Standard Orders.''
    (2) Copies of Section 2, Equipment Performance Requirements and Test 
Procedures, of RTCA DO-260B, Minimum Operational Performance Standards 
for 1090 MHz Extended Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-
Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic Information Services-Broadcast (TIS-B), 
December 2, 2009 (referenced in TSO-C166b) and Section 2, Equipment 
Performance Requirements and Test Procedures, of RTCA DO-282B, Minimum 
Operational Performance Standards for Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) 
Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B), December 2, 2009 
(referenced in TSO C-154c) may be obtained from RTCA, Inc., 1828 L 
Street, NW., Suite 805, Washington, DC 20036-5133, telephone 202-833-
9339. Copies of RTCA DO-260B and RTCA DO-282B are also available on RTCA 
Inc.'s Web site, at http://www.rtca.org/onlinecart/allproducts.cfm.
    (i) For unmanned aircraft:
    (1) No person may operate an unmanned aircraft under a flight plan 
and in two way communication with ATC unless:
    (i) That aircraft has equipment installed that meets the performance 
requirements in TSO-C166b or TSO-C154c; and
    (ii) The equipment meets the requirements of Sec. 91.227.
    (2) No person may operate an unmanned aircraft under this part with 
Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast Out equipment in transmit 
mode unless:
    (i) The operation is conducted under a flight plan and the person 
operating that unmanned aircraft maintains two-way communication with 
ATC; or
    (ii) The use of ADS-B Out is otherwise authorized by the 
Administrator.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-29305, 75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010; Amdt. 91-314-A, 75 
FR 37712, June 30, 2010; Amdt. 91-316, 75 FR 37712, June 30, 2010; Amdt. 
91-336, 80 FR 6900, Feb. 9, 2015; Amdt. 91-336A, 80 FR 11537, Mar. 4, 
2015; Amdt. 91-355, 84 FR 34287, July 18, 2019; Amdt. No. 91-361, 86 FR 
4513, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 91.227  Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)
Out equipment performance requirements.

    (a) Definitions. For the purposes of this section:
    ADS-B Out is a function of an aircraft's onboard avionics that 
periodically broadcasts the aircraft's state vector (3-dimensional 
position and 3-dimensional velocity) and other required

[[Page 730]]

information as described in this section.
    Navigation Accuracy Category for Position (NACP) specifies the 
accuracy of a reported aircraft's position, as defined in TSO-C166b and 
TSO-C154c.
    Navigation Accuracy Category for Velocity (NACV) specifies the 
accuracy of a reported aircraft's velocity, as defined in TSO-C166b and 
TSO-C154c.
    Navigation Integrity Category (NIC) specifies an integrity 
containment radius around an aircraft's reported position, as defined in 
TSO-C166b and TSO-C154c.
    Position Source refers to the equipment installed onboard an 
aircraft used to process and provide aircraft position (for example, 
latitude, longitude, and velocity) information.
    Source Integrity Level (SIL) indicates the probability of the 
reported horizontal position exceeding the containment radius defined by 
the NIC on a per sample or per hour basis, as defined in TSO-C166b and 
TSO-C154c.
    System Design Assurance (SDA) indicates the probability of an 
aircraft malfunction causing false or misleading information to be 
transmitted, as defined in TSO-C166b and TSO-C154c.
    Total latency is the total time between when the position is 
measured and when the position is transmitted by the aircraft.
    Uncompensated latency is the time for which the aircraft does not 
compensate for latency.
    (b) 1090 MHz ES and UAT Broadcast Links and Power Requirements--
    (1) Aircraft operating in Class A airspace must have equipment 
installed that meets the antenna and power output requirements of Class 
A1, A1S, A2, A3, B1S, or B1 equipment as defined in TSO-C166b, Extended 
Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic 
Information Service-Broadcast (TIS-B) Equipment Operating on the Radio 
Frequency of 1090 Megahertz (MHz).
    (2) Aircraft operating in airspace designated for ADS-B Out, but 
outside of Class A airspace, must have equipment installed that meets 
the antenna and output power requirements of either:
    (i) Class A1, A1S, A2, A3, B1S, or B1 as defined in TSO-C166b; or
    (ii) Class A1H, A1S, A2, A3, B1S, or B1 equipment as defined in TSO-
C154c, Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) Automatic Dependent 
Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Equipment Operating on the Frequency of 
978 MHz.
    (c) ADS-B Out Performance Requirements for NAC P, NACV, NIC, SDA, 
and SIL--
    (1) For aircraft broadcasting ADS-B Out as required under Sec. 
91.225 (a) and (b)--
    (i) The aircraft's NACP must be less than 0.05 nautical 
miles;
    (ii) The aircraft's NACV must be less than 10 meters per 
second;
    (iii) The aircraft's NIC must be less than 0.2 nautical miles;
    (iv) The aircraft's SDA must be 2; and
    (v) The aircraft's SIL must be 3.
    (2) Changes in NACP, NACV, SDA, and SIL must 
be broadcast within 10 seconds.
    (3) Changes in NIC must be broadcast within 12 seconds.
    (d) Minimum Broadcast Message Element Set for ADS-B Out. Each 
aircraft must broadcast the following information, as defined in TSO-
C166b or TSO-C154c. The pilot must enter information for message 
elements listed in paragraphs (d)(7) through (d)(10) of this section 
during the appropriate phase of flight.
    (1) The length and width of the aircraft;
    (2) An indication of the aircraft's latitude and longitude;
    (3) An indication of the aircraft's barometric pressure altitude;
    (4) An indication of the aircraft's velocity;
    (5) An indication if TCAS II or ACAS is installed and operating in a 
mode that can generate resolution advisory alerts;
    (6) If an operable TCAS II or ACAS is installed, an indication if a 
resolution advisory is in effect;
    (7) An indication of the Mode 3/A transponder code specified by ATC;
    (8) An indication of the aircraft's call sign that is submitted on 
the flight plan, or the aircraft's registration number, except when the 
pilot has not filed a flight plan, has not requested ATC services, and 
is using a TSO-C154c self-assigned temporary 24-bit address;

[[Page 731]]

    (9) An indication if the flightcrew has identified an emergency, 
radio communication failure, or unlawful interference;
    (10) An indication of the aircraft's ``IDENT'' to ATC;
    (11) An indication of the aircraft assigned ICAO 24-bit address, 
except when the pilot has not filed a flight plan, has not requested ATC 
services, and is using a TSO-C154c self-assigned temporary 24-bit 
address;
    (12) An indication of the aircraft's emitter category;
    (13) An indication of whether an ADS-B In capability is installed;
    (14) An indication of the aircraft's geometric altitude;
    (15) An indication of the Navigation Accuracy Category for Position 
(NACP);
    (16) An indication of the Navigation Accuracy Category for Velocity 
(NACV);
    (17) An indication of the Navigation Integrity Category (NIC);
    (18) An indication of the System Design Assurance (SDA); and
    (19) An indication of the Source Integrity Level (SIL).
    (e) ADS-B Latency Requirements--
    (1) The aircraft must transmit its geometric position no later than 
2.0 seconds from the time of measurement of the position to the time of 
transmission.
    (2) Within the 2.0 total latency allocation, a maximum of 0.6 
seconds can be uncompensated latency. The aircraft must compensate for 
any latency above 0.6 seconds up to the maximum 2.0 seconds total by 
extrapolating the geometric position to the time of message 
transmission.
    (3) The aircraft must transmit its position and velocity at least 
once per second while airborne or while moving on the airport surface.
    (4) The aircraft must transmit its position at least once every 5 
seconds while stationary on the airport surface.
    (f) Equipment with an approved deviation. Operators with equipment 
installed with an approved deviation under Sec. 21.618 of this chapter 
also are in compliance with this section.
    (g) Incorporation by Reference. The standards required in this 
section are incorporated by reference with the approval of the Director 
of the Office of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR 
part 51. All approved materials are available for inspection at the 
FAA's Office of Rulemaking (ARM-1), 800 Independence Avenue, SW., 
Washington, DC 20590 (telephone 202-267-9677), or at the National 
Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the 
availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to 
http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/
ibr_locations.html. This material is also available from the sources 
indicated in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this section.
    (1) Copies of Technical Standard Order (TSO)-C166b, Extended 
Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic 
Information Service-Broadcast (TIS-B) Equipment Operating on the Radio 
Frequency of 1090 Megahertz (MHz) (December 2, 2009) and TSO-C154c, 
Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) Automatic Dependent Surveillance-
Broadcast (ADS-B) Equipment Operating on the Frequency of 978 MHz 
(December 2, 2009) may be obtained from the U.S. Department of 
Transportation, Subsequent Distribution Office, DOT Warehouse M30, 
Ardmore East Business Center, 3341 Q 75th Avenue, Landover, MD 20785; 
telephone (301) 322-5377. Copies of TSO -C166B and TSO-C154c are also 
available on the FAA's Web site, at http://www.faa.gov/aircraft/
air_cert/design_approvals/tso/. Select the link ``Search Technical 
Standard Orders.''
    (2) Copies of Section 2, Equipment Performance Requirements and Test 
Procedures, of RTCA DO-260B, Minimum Operational Performance Standards 
for 1090 MHz Extended Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-
Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic Information Services-Broadcast (TIS-B), 
December 2, 2009 (referenced in TSO-C166b) and Section 2, Equipment 
Performance Requirements and Test Procedures, of RTCA DO-282B, Minimum 
Operational Performance Standards for Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) 
Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B), December 2, 2009 
(referenced in TSO C-154c) may be obtained from RTCA, Inc., 1828 L 
Street,

[[Page 732]]

NW., Suite 805, Washington, DC 20036-5133, telephone 202-833-9339. 
Copies of RTCA DO-260B and RTCA DO-282B are also available on RTCA 
Inc.'s Web site, at http://www.rtca.org/onlinecart/allproducts.cfm.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-29305, 75 FR 30194, May 28, 2010; Amdt. 91-314-A, 75 
FR 37712, June 30, 2010; Amdt. 91-316, 75 FR 37712, June 30, 2010]



Sec. Sec. 91.228-91.299  [Reserved]



                   Subpart D_Special Flight Operations

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.301  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.303  Aerobatic flight.

    No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight--
    (a) Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement;
    (b) Over an open air assembly of persons;
    (c) Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, 
Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport;
    (d) Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of any Federal 
airway;
    (e) Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or
    (f) When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.


For the purposes of this section, aerobatic flight means an intentional 
maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft's attitude, an 
abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal 
flight.

[Doc. No. 18834, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 
56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991]



Sec. 91.305  Flight test areas.

    No person may flight test an aircraft except over open water, or 
sparsely populated areas, having light air traffic.



Sec. 91.307  Parachutes and parachuting.

    (a) No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a parachute that is 
available for emergency use to be carried in that aircraft unless it is 
an approved type and has been packed by a certificated and appropriately 
rated parachute rigger--
    (1) Within the preceding 180 days, if its canopy, shrouds, and 
harness are composed exclusively of nylon, rayon, or other similar 
synthetic fiber or materials that are substantially resistant to damage 
from mold, mildew, or other fungi and other rotting agents propagated in 
a moist environment; or
    (2) Within the preceding 60 days, if any part of the parachute is 
composed of silk, pongee, or other natural fiber or materials not 
specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
    (b) Except in an emergency, no pilot in command may allow, and no 
person may conduct, a parachute operation from an aircraft within the 
United States except in accordance with part 105 of this chapter.
    (c) Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved 
parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft carrying any person (other than 
a crewmember) may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds--
    (1) A bank of 60 degrees relative to the horizon; or
    (2) A nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30 degrees relative to the 
horizon.
    (d) Paragraph (c) of this section does not apply to--
    (1) Flight tests for pilot certification or rating; or
    (2) Spins and other flight maneuvers required by the regulations for 
any certificate or rating when given by--
    (i) A certificated flight instructor; or
    (ii) An airline transport pilot instructing in accordance with Sec. 
61.67 of this chapter.
    (e) For the purposes of this section, approved parachute means--
    (1) A parachute manufactured under a type certificate or a technical 
standard order (C-23 series); or
    (2) A personnel-carrying military parachute identified by an NAF, 
AAF, or AN drawing number, an AAF order number, or any other military 
designation or specification number.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-255, 
62 FR 68137, Dec. 30, 1997; Amdt. 91-268, 66 FR 23553, May 9, 2001; 
Amdt. 91-305, 73 FR 69530, Nov. 19, 2008]

[[Page 733]]



Sec. 91.309  Towing: Gliders and unpowered ultralight vehicles.

    (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft towing a glider or 
unpowered ultralight vehicle unless--
    (1) The pilot in command of the towing aircraft is qualified under 
Sec. 61.69 of this chapter;
    (2) The towing aircraft is equipped with a tow-hitch of a kind, and 
installed in a manner, that is approved by the Administrator;
    (3) The towline used has breaking strength not less than 80 percent 
of the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider or unpowered 
ultralight vehicle and not more than twice this operating weight. 
However, the towline used may have a breaking strength more than twice 
the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider or unpowered 
ultralight vehicle if--
    (i) A safety link is installed at the point of attachment of the 
towline to the glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle with a breaking 
strength not less than 80 percent of the maximum certificated operating 
weight of the glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle and not greater 
than twice this operating weight;
    (ii) A safety link is installed at the point of attachment of the 
towline to the towing aircraft with a breaking strength greater, but not 
more than 25 percent greater, than that of the safety link at the towed 
glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle end of the towline and not 
greater than twice the maximum certificated operating weight of the 
glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle;
    (4) Before conducting any towing operation within the lateral 
boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E 
airspace designated for an airport, or before making each towing flight 
within such controlled airspace if required by ATC, the pilot in command 
notifies the control tower. If a control tower does not exist or is not 
in operation, the pilot in command must notify the FAA flight service 
station serving that controlled airspace before conducting any towing 
operations in that airspace; and
    (5) The pilots of the towing aircraft and the glider or unpowered 
ultralight vehicle have agreed upon a general course of action, 
including takeoff and release signals, airspeeds, and emergency 
procedures for each pilot.
    (b) No pilot of a civil aircraft may intentionally release a 
towline, after release of a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle, in a 
manner that endangers the life or property of another.

[Doc. No. 18834, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 
56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 91.311  Towing: Other than under Sec. 91.309.

    No pilot of a civil aircraft may tow anything with that aircraft 
(other than under Sec. 91.309) except in accordance with the terms of a 
certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator.



Sec. 91.313  Restricted category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.

    (a) No person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft--
    (1) For other than the special purpose for which it is certificated; 
or
    (2) In an operation other than one necessary to accomplish the work 
activity directly associated with that special purpose.
    (b) For the purpose of paragraph (a) of this section, the following 
operations are considered necessary to accomplish the work activity 
directly associated with a special purpose operation:
    (1) Flights conducted for flight crewmember training in a special 
purpose operation for which the aircraft is certificated.
    (2) Flights conducted to satisfy proficiency check and recent flight 
experience requirements under part 61 of this chapter provided the 
flight crewmember holds the appropriate category, class, and type 
ratings and is employed by the operator to perform the appropriate 
special purpose operation.
    (3) Flights conducted to relocate the aircraft for delivery, 
repositioning, or maintenance.
    (c) No person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft 
carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. For the purposes 
of this paragraph (c), a special purpose

[[Page 734]]

operation involving the carriage of persons or material necessary to 
accomplish that operation, such as crop dusting, seeding, spraying, and 
banner towing (including the carrying of required persons or material to 
the location of that operation), an operation for the purpose of 
providing flight crewmember training in a special purpose operation, and 
an operation conducted under the authority provided in paragraph (h) of 
this section are not considered to be the carriage of persons or 
property for compensation or hire.
    (d) No person may be carried on a restricted category civil aircraft 
unless that person--
    (1) Is a flight crewmember;
    (2) Is a flight crewmember trainee;
    (3) Performs an essential function in connection with a special 
purpose operation for which the aircraft is certificated;
    (4) Is necessary to accomplish the work activity directly associated 
with that special purpose; or
    (5) Is necessary to accomplish an operation under paragraph (h) of 
this section.
    (e) Except when operating in accordance with the terms and 
conditions of a certificate of waiver or special operating limitations 
issued by the Administrator, no person may operate a restricted category 
civil aircraft within the United States--
    (1) Over a densely populated area;
    (2) In a congested airway; or
    (3) Near a busy airport where passenger transport operations are 
conducted.
    (f) This section does not apply to nonpassenger-carrying civil 
rotorcraft external-load operations conducted under part 133 of this 
chapter.
    (g) No person may operate a small restricted-category civil airplane 
manufactured after July 18, 1978, unless an approved shoulder harness or 
restraint system is installed for each front seat. The shoulder harness 
or restraint system installation at each flightcrew station must permit 
the flightcrew member, when seated and with the safety belt and shoulder 
harness fastened or the restraint system engaged, to perform all 
functions necessary for flight operation. For purposes of this 
paragraph--
    (1) The date of manufacture of an airplane is the date the 
inspection acceptance records reflect that the airplane is complete and 
meets the FAA-approved type design data; and
    (2) A front seat is a seat located at a flight crewmember station or 
any seat located alongside such a seat.
    (h)(1) An operator may apply for deviation authority from the 
provisions of paragraph (a) of this section to conduct operations for 
the following purposes:
    (i) Flight training and the practical test for issuance of a type 
rating provided--
    (A) The pilot being trained and tested holds at least a commercial 
pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class ratings for 
the aircraft type;
    (B) The pilot receiving flight training is employed by the operator 
to perform a special purpose operation; and
    (C) The flight training is conducted by the operator who employs the 
pilot to perform a special purpose operation.
    (ii) Flights to designate an examiner or qualify an FAA inspector in 
the aircraft type and flights necessary to provide continuing oversight 
and evaluation of an examiner.
    (2) The FAA will issue this deviation authority as a letter of 
deviation authority.
    (3) The FAA may cancel or amend a letter of deviation authority at 
any time.
    (4) An applicant must submit a request for deviation authority in a 
form and manner acceptable to the Administrator at least 60 days before 
the date of intended operations. A request for deviation authority must 
contain a complete description of the proposed operation and 
justification that establishes a level of safety equivalent to that 
provided under the regulations for the deviation requested.

[Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Docket FAA-
2015-1621, Amdt. 91-346, 81 FR 96700, Dec. 30, 2016; Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 
30281, June 27, 2018]



Sec. 91.315  Limited category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.

    No person may operate a limited category civil aircraft carrying 
persons or property for compensation or hire.

[[Page 735]]



Sec. 91.317  Provisionally certificated civil aircraft: Operating limitations.

    (a) No person may operate a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft unless that person is eligible for a provisional airworthiness 
certificate under Sec. 21.213 of this chapter.
    (b) No person may operate a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft outside the United States unless that person has specific 
authority to do so from the Administrator and each foreign country 
involved.
    (c) Unless otherwise authorized by the Executive Director, Flight 
Standards Service, no person may operate a provisionally certificated 
civil aircraft in air transportation.
    (d) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may 
operate a provisionally certificated civil aircraft except--
    (1) In direct conjunction with the type or supplemental type 
certification of that aircraft;
    (2) For training flight crews, including simulated air carrier 
operations;
    (3) Demonstration flight by the manufacturer for prospective 
purchasers;
    (4) Market surveys by the manufacturer;
    (5) Flight checking of instruments, accessories, and equipment that 
do not affect the basic airworthiness of the aircraft; or
    (6) Service testing of the aircraft.
    (e) Each person operating a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft shall operate within the prescribed limitations displayed in 
the aircraft or set forth in the provisional aircraft flight manual or 
other appropriate document. However, when operating in direct 
conjunction with the type or supplemental type certification of the 
aircraft, that person shall operate under the experimental aircraft 
limitations of Sec. 21.191 of this chapter and when flight testing, 
shall operate under the requirements of Sec. 91.305 of this part.
    (f) Each person operating a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft shall establish approved procedures for--
    (1) The use and guidance of flight and ground personnel in operating 
under this section; and
    (2) Operating in and out of airports where takeoffs or approaches 
over populated areas are necessary. No person may operate that aircraft 
except in compliance with the approved procedures.
    (g) Each person operating a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft shall ensure that each flight crewmember is properly 
certificated and has adequate knowledge of, and familiarity with, the 
aircraft and procedures to be used by that crewmember.
    (h) Each person operating a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft shall maintain it as required by applicable regulations and as 
may be specially prescribed by the Administrator.
    (i) Whenever the manufacturer, or the Administrator, determines that 
a change in design, construction, or operation is necessary to ensure 
safe operation, no person may operate a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft until that change has been made and approved. Section 21.99 of 
this chapter applies to operations under this section.
    (j) Each person operating a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft--
    (1) May carry in that aircraft only persons who have a proper 
interest in the operations allowed by this section or who are 
specifically authorized by both the manufacturer and the Administrator; 
and
    (2) Shall advise each person carried that the aircraft is 
provisionally certificated.
    (k) The Administrator may prescribe additional limitations or 
procedures that the Administrator considers necessary, including 
limitations on the number of persons who may be carried in the aircraft.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-212, 
54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 
9171, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 91.319  Aircraft having experimental certificates: Operating limitations.

    (a) No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental 
certificate--
    (1) For other than the purpose for which the certificate was issued; 
or
    (2) Carrying persons or property for compensation or hire.
    (b) No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental 
certificate

[[Page 736]]

outside of an area assigned by the Administrator until it is shown 
that--
    (1) The aircraft is controllable throughout its normal range of 
speeds and throughout all the maneuvers to be executed; and
    (2) The aircraft has no hazardous operating characteristics or 
design features.
    (c) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator in special 
operating limitations, no person may operate an aircraft that has an 
experimental certificate over a densely populated area or in a congested 
airway. The Administrator may issue special operating limitations for 
particular aircraft to permit takeoffs and landings to be conducted over 
a densely populated area or in a congested airway, in accordance with 
terms and conditions specified in the authorization in the interest of 
safety in air commerce.
    (d) Each person operating an aircraft that has an experimental 
certificate shall--
    (1) Advise each person carried of the experimental nature of the 
aircraft;
    (2) Operate under VFR, day only, unless otherwise specifically 
authorized by the Administrator; and
    (3) Notify the control tower of the experimental nature of the 
aircraft when operating the aircraft into or out of airports with 
operating control towers.
    (e) No person may operate an aircraft that is issued an experimental 
certificate under Sec. 21.191(i) of this chapter for compensation or 
hire, except a person may operate an aircraft issued an experimental 
certificate under Sec. 21.191(i)(1) for compensation or hire to--
    (1) Tow a glider that is a light-sport aircraft or unpowered 
ultralight vehicle in accordance with Sec. 91.309; or
    (2) Conduct flight training in an aircraft which that person 
provides prior to January 31, 2010.
    (f) No person may lease an aircraft that is issued an experimental 
certificate under Sec. 21.191(i) of this chapter, except in accordance 
with paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
    (g) No person may operate an aircraft issued an experimental 
certificate under Sec. 21.191(i)(1) of this chapter to tow a glider 
that is a light-sport aircraft or unpowered ultralight vehicle for 
compensation or hire or to conduct flight training for compensation or 
hire in an aircraft which that persons provides unless within the 
preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has--
    (1) Been inspected by a certificated repairman (light-sport 
aircraft) with a maintenance rating, an appropriately rated mechanic, or 
an appropriately rated repair station in accordance with inspection 
procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable 
to the FAA; or
    (2) Received an inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness 
certificate in accordance with part 21 of this chapter.
    (h) The FAA may issue deviation authority providing relief from the 
provisions of paragraph (a) of this section for the purpose of 
conducting flight training. The FAA will issue this deviation authority 
as a letter of deviation authority.
    (1) The FAA may cancel or amend a letter of deviation authority at 
any time.
    (2) An applicant must submit a request for deviation authority to 
the FAA at least 60 days before the date of intended operations. A 
request for deviation authority must contain a complete description of 
the proposed operation and justification that establishes a level of 
safety equivalent to that provided under the regulations for the 
deviation requested.
    (i) The Administrator may prescribe additional limitations that the 
Administrator considers necessary, including limitations on the persons 
that may be carried in the aircraft.
    (j) No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental 
certificate under Sec. 61.113(i) of this chapter unless the aircraft is 
carrying not more than 6 occupants.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-282, 
69 FR 44881, July 27, 2004; Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 91-347, 82 FR 
3167, Jan. 11, 2017]

[[Page 737]]



Sec. 91.321  Carriage of candidates in elections.

    (a) As an aircraft operator, you may receive payment for carrying a 
candidate, agent of a candidate, or person traveling on behalf of a 
candidate, running for Federal, State, or local election, without having 
to comply with the rules in parts 121, 125 or 135 of this chapter, under 
the following conditions:
    (1) Your primary business is not as an air carrier or commercial 
operator;
    (2) You carry the candidate, agent, or person traveling on behalf of 
a candidate, under the rules of part 91; and
    (3) By Federal, state or local law, you are required to receive 
payment for carrying the candidate, agent, or person traveling on behalf 
of a candidate. For federal elections, the payment may not exceed the 
amount required by the Federal Election Commission. For a state or local 
election, the payment may not exceed the amount required under the 
applicable state or local law.
    (b) For the purposes of this section, for Federal elections, the 
terms candidate and election have the same meaning as set forth in the 
regulations of the Federal Election Commission. For State or local 
elections, the terms candidate and election have the same meaning as 
provided by the applicable State or local law and those terms relate to 
candidates for election to public office in State and local government 
elections.

[Doc. No. FAA-2005-20168, 70 FR 4982, Jan. 31, 2005]



Sec. 91.323  Increased maximum certificated weights for certain airplanes operated in Alaska.

    (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Federal Aviation 
Regulations, the Administrator will approve, as provided in this 
section, an increase in the maximum certificated weight of an airplane 
type certificated under Aeronautics Bulletin No. 7-A of the U.S. 
Department of Commerce dated January 1, 1931, as amended, or under the 
normal category of part 4a of the former Civil Air Regulations (14 CFR 
part 4a, 1964 ed.) if that airplane is operated in the State of Alaska 
by--
    (1) A certificate holder conducting operations under part 121 or 
part 135 of this chapter; or
    (2) The U.S. Department of Interior in conducting its game and fish 
law enforcement activities or its management, fire detection, and fire 
suppression activities concerning public lands.
    (b) The maximum certificated weight approved under this section may 
not exceed--
    (1) 12,500 pounds;
    (2) 115 percent of the maximum weight listed in the FAA aircraft 
specifications;
    (3) The weight at which the airplane meets the positive maneuvering 
load factor n, where n=2.1+(24,000/(W+10,000)) and W=design maximum 
takeoff weight, except that n need not be more than 3.8; or
    (4) The weight at which the airplane meets the climb performance 
requirements under which it was type certificated.
    (c) In determining the maximum certificated weight, the 
Administrator considers the structural soundness of the airplane and the 
terrain to be traversed.
    (d) The maximum certificated weight determined under this section is 
added to the airplane's operation limitations and is identified as the 
maximum weight authorized for operations within the State of Alaska.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 91-211, 54 FR 41211, 
Oct. 5, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-253, 62 FR 13253, Mar. 19, 1997; 
Docket FAA-2015-1621, Amdt. 91-346, 81 FR 96700, Dec. 30, 2016]



Sec. 91.325  Primary category aircraft: Operating limitations.

    (a) No person may operate a primary category aircraft carrying 
persons or property for compensation or hire.
    (b) No person may operate a primary category aircraft that is 
maintained by the pilot-owner under an approved special inspection and 
maintenance program except--
    (1) The pilot-owner; or
    (2) A designee of the pilot-owner, provided that the pilot-owner 
does not receive compensation for the use of the aircraft.

[Doc. No. 23345, 57 FR 41370, Sept. 9, 1992]

[[Page 738]]



Sec. 91.327  Aircraft having a special airworthiness certificate in
the light-sport category: Operating limitations.

    (a) No person may operate an aircraft that has a special 
airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category for compensation 
or hire except--
    (1) To tow a glider or an unpowered ultralight vehicle in accordance 
with Sec. 91.309 of this chapter; or
    (2) To conduct flight training.
    (b) No person may operate an aircraft that has a special 
airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category unless--
    (1) The aircraft is maintained by a certificated repairman with a 
light-sport aircraft maintenance rating, an appropriately rated 
mechanic, or an appropriately rated repair station in accordance with 
the applicable provisions of part 43 of this chapter and maintenance and 
inspection procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or a person 
acceptable to the FAA;
    (2) A condition inspection is performed once every 12 calendar 
months by a certificated repairman (light-sport aircraft) with a 
maintenance rating, an appropriately rated mechanic, or an appropriately 
rated repair station in accordance with inspection procedures developed 
by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA;
    (3) The owner or operator complies with all applicable airworthiness 
directives;
    (4) The owner or operator complies with each safety directive 
applicable to the aircraft that corrects an existing unsafe condition. 
In lieu of complying with a safety directive an owner or operator may--
    (i) Correct the unsafe condition in a manner different from that 
specified in the safety directive provided the person issuing the 
directive concurs with the action; or
    (ii) Obtain an FAA waiver from the provisions of the safety 
directive based on a conclusion that the safety directive was issued 
without adhering to the applicable consensus standard;
    (5) Each alteration accomplished after the aircraft's date of 
manufacture meets the applicable and current consensus standard and has 
been authorized by either the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the 
FAA;
    (6) Each major alteration to an aircraft product produced under a 
consensus standard is authorized, performed and inspected in accordance 
with maintenance and inspection procedures developed by the manufacturer 
or a person acceptable to the FAA; and
    (7) The owner or operator complies with the requirements for the 
recording of major repairs and major alterations performed on type-
certificated products in accordance with Sec. 43.9(d) of this chapter, 
and with the retention requirements in Sec. 91.417.
    (c) No person may operate an aircraft issued a special airworthiness 
certificate in the light-sport category to tow a glider or unpowered 
ultralight vehicle for compensation or hire or conduct flight training 
for compensation or hire in an aircraft which that persons provides 
unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft 
has--
    (1) Been inspected by a certificated repairman with a light-sport 
aircraft maintenance rating, an appropriately rated mechanic, or an 
appropriately rated repair station in accordance with inspection 
procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable 
to the FAA and been approved for return to service in accordance with 
part 43 of this chapter; or
    (2) Received an inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness 
certificate in accordance with part 21 of this chapter.
    (d) Each person operating an aircraft issued a special airworthiness 
certificate in the light-sport category must operate the aircraft in 
accordance with the aircraft's operating instructions, including any 
provisions for necessary operating equipment specified in the aircraft's 
equipment list.
    (e) Each person operating an aircraft issued a special airworthiness 
certificate in the light-sport category must advise each person carried 
of the special nature of the aircraft and that the aircraft does not 
meet the airworthiness requirements for an aircraft issued a standard 
airworthiness certificate.

[[Page 739]]

    (f) The FAA may prescribe additional limitations that it considers 
necessary.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44881, July 27, 2004]



Sec. Sec. 91.328-91.399  [Reserved]



     Subpart E_Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alterations

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.401  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart prescribes rules governing the maintenance, 
preventive maintenance, and alterations of U.S.-registered civil 
aircraft operating within or outside of the United States.
    (b) Sections 91.405, 91.409, 91.411, 91.417, and 91.419 of this 
subpart do not apply to an aircraft maintained in accordance with a 
continuous airworthiness maintenance program as provided in part 121, 
129, or Sec. Sec. 91.1411 or 135.411(a)(2) of this chapter.
    (c) Sections 91.405 and 91.409 of this part do not apply to an 
airplane inspected in accordance with part 125 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-267, 
66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-280, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003]



Sec. 91.403  General.

    (a) The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible 
for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including 
compliance with part 39 of this chapter.
    (b) No person may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or 
alterations on an aircraft other than as prescribed in this subpart and 
other applicable regulations, including part 43 of this chapter.
    (c) No person may operate an aircraft for which a manufacturer's 
maintenance manual or instructions for continued airworthiness has been 
issued that contains an airworthiness limitations section unless the 
mandatory replacement times, inspection intervals, and related 
procedures specified in that section or alternative inspection intervals 
and related procedures set forth in an operations specification approved 
by the Administrator under part 121 or 135 of this chapter or in 
accordance with an inspection program approved under Sec. 91.409(e) 
have been complied with.
    (d) A person must not alter an aircraft based on a supplemental type 
certificate unless the owner or operator of the aircraft is the holder 
of the supplemental type certificate, or has written permission from the 
holder.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-267, 
66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-293, 71 FR 56005, Sept. 26, 2006]



Sec. 91.405  Maintenance required.

    Each owner or operator of an aircraft--
    (a) Shall have that aircraft inspected as prescribed in subpart E of 
this part and shall between required inspections, except as provided in 
paragraph (c) of this section, have discrepancies repaired as prescribed 
in part 43 of this chapter;
    (b) Shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries 
in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been 
approved for return to service;
    (c) Shall have any inoperative instrument or item of equipment, 
permitted to be inoperative by Sec. 91.213(d)(2) of this part, 
repaired, replaced, removed, or inspected at the next required 
inspection; and
    (d) When listed discrepancies include inoperative instruments or 
equipment, shall ensure that a placard has been installed as required by 
Sec. 43.11 of this chapter.



Sec. 91.407  Operation after maintenance, preventive maintenance,
rebuilding, or alteration.

    (a) No person may operate any aircraft that has undergone 
maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration unless--
    (1) It has been approved for return to service by a person 
authorized under Sec. 43.7 of this chapter; and
    (2) The maintenance record entry required by Sec. 43.9 or Sec. 
43.11, as applicable, of this chapter has been made.

[[Page 740]]

    (b) No person may carry any person (other than crewmembers) in an 
aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that 
may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially 
affected its operation in flight until an appropriately rated pilot with 
at least a private pilot certificate flies the aircraft, makes an 
operational check of the maintenance performed or alteration made, and 
logs the flight in the aircraft records.
    (c) The aircraft does not have to be flown as required by paragraph 
(b) of this section if, prior to flight, ground tests, inspection, or 
both show conclusively that the maintenance, preventive maintenance, 
rebuilding, or alteration has not appreciably changed the flight 
characteristics or substantially affected the flight operation of the 
aircraft.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)



Sec. 91.409  Inspections.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person 
may operate an aircraft unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, 
it has had--
    (1) An annual inspection in accordance with part 43 of this chapter 
and has been approved for return to service by a person authorized by 
Sec. 43.7 of this chapter; or
    (2) An inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate 
in accordance with part 21 of this chapter.


No inspection performed under paragraph (b) of this section may be 
substituted for any inspection required by this paragraph unless it is 
performed by a person authorized to perform annual inspections and is 
entered as an ``annual'' inspection in the required maintenance records.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person 
may operate an aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) 
for hire, and no person may give flight instruction for hire in an 
aircraft which that person provides, unless within the preceding 100 
hours of time in service the aircraft has received an annual or 100-hour 
inspection and been approved for return to service in accordance with 
part 43 of this chapter or has received an inspection for the issuance 
of an airworthiness certificate in accordance with part 21 of this 
chapter. The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 
hours while en route to reach a place where the inspection can be done. 
The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done 
must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.
    (c) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to--
    (1) An aircraft that carries a special flight permit, a current 
experimental certificate, or a light-sport or provisional airworthiness 
certificate;
    (2) An aircraft inspected in accordance with an approved aircraft 
inspection program under part 125 or 135 of this chapter and so 
identified by the registration number in the operations specifications 
of the certificate holder having the approved inspection program;
    (3) An aircraft subject to the requirements of paragraph (d) or (e) 
of this section; or
    (4) Turbine-powered rotorcraft when the operator elects to inspect 
that rotorcraft in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
    (d) Progressive inspection. Each registered owner or operator of an 
aircraft desiring to use a progressive inspection program must submit a 
written request to the responsible Flight Standards office, and shall 
provide--
    (1) A certificated mechanic holding an inspection authorization, a 
certificated airframe repair station, or the manufacturer of the 
aircraft to supervise or conduct the progressive inspection;
    (2) A current inspection procedures manual available and readily 
understandable to pilot and maintenance personnel containing, in 
detail--
    (i) An explanation of the progressive inspection, including the 
continuity of inspection responsibility, the making of reports, and the 
keeping of records and technical reference material;
    (ii) An inspection schedule, specifying the intervals in hours or 
days when routine and detailed inspections will be performed and 
including instructions for exceeding an inspection interval by not more 
than 10 hours

[[Page 741]]

while en route and for changing an inspection interval because of 
service experience;
    (iii) Sample routine and detailed inspection forms and instructions 
for their use; and
    (iv) Sample reports and records and instructions for their use;
    (3) Enough housing and equipment for necessary disassembly and 
proper inspection of the aircraft; and
    (4) Appropriate current technical information for the aircraft.


The frequency and detail of the progressive inspection shall provide for 
the complete inspection of the aircraft within each 12 calendar months 
and be consistent with the manufacturer's recommendations, field service 
experience, and the kind of operation in which the aircraft is engaged. 
The progressive inspection schedule must ensure that the aircraft, at 
all times, will be airworthy and will conform to all applicable FAA 
aircraft specifications, type certificate data sheets, airworthiness 
directives, and other approved data. If the progressive inspection is 
discontinued, the owner or operator shall immediately notify the 
responsible Flight Standards office, in writing, of the discontinuance. 
After the discontinuance, the first annual inspection under Sec. 
91.409(a)(1) is due within 12 calendar months after the last complete 
inspection of the aircraft under the progressive inspection. The 100-
hour inspection under Sec. 91.409(b) is due within 100 hours after that 
complete inspection. A complete inspection of the aircraft, for the 
purpose of determining when the annual and 100-hour inspections are due, 
requires a detailed inspection of the aircraft and all its components in 
accordance with the progressive inspection. A routine inspection of the 
aircraft and a detailed inspection of several components is not 
considered to be a complete inspection.
    (e) Large airplanes (to which part 125 is not applicable), turbojet 
multiengine airplanes, turbopropeller-powered multiengine airplanes, and 
turbine-powered rotorcraft. No person may operate a large airplane, 
turbojet multiengine airplane, turbopropeller-powered multiengine 
airplane, or turbine-powered rotorcraft unless the replacement times for 
life-limited parts specified in the aircraft specifications, type data 
sheets, or other documents approved by the Administrator are complied 
with and the airplane or turbine-powered rotorcraft, including the 
airframe, engines, propellers, rotors, appliances, survival equipment, 
and emergency equipment, is inspected in accordance with an inspection 
program selected under the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section, 
except that, the owner or operator of a turbine-powered rotorcraft may 
elect to use the inspection provisions of Sec. 91.409(a), (b), (c), or 
(d) in lieu of an inspection option of Sec. 91.409(f).
    (f) Selection of inspection program under paragraph (e) of this 
section. The registered owner or operator of each airplane or turbine-
powered rotorcraft described in paragraph (e) of this section must 
select, identify in the aircraft maintenance records, and use one of the 
following programs for the inspection of the aircraft:
    (1) A continuous airworthiness inspection program that is part of a 
continuous airworthiness maintenance program currently in use by a 
person holding an air carrier operating certificate or an operating 
certificate issued under part 121 or 135 of this chapter and operating 
that make and model aircraft under part 121 of this chapter or operating 
that make and model under part 135 of this chapter and maintaining it 
under Sec. 135.411(a)(2) of this chapter.
    (2) An approved aircraft inspection program approved under Sec. 
135.419 of this chapter and currently in use by a person holding an 
operating certificate issued under part 135 of this chapter.
    (3) A current inspection program recommended by the manufacturer.
    (4) Any other inspection program established by the registered owner 
or operator of that airplane or turbine-powered rotorcraft and approved 
by the Administrator under paragraph (g) of this section. However, the 
Administrator may require revision of this inspection program in 
accordance with the provisions of Sec. 91.415.


Each operator shall include in the selected program the name and address 
of the person responsible for scheduling the inspections required by the 
program and make a copy of that program

[[Page 742]]

available to the person performing inspections on the aircraft and, upon 
request, to the Administrator.
    (g) Inspection program approved under paragraph (e) of this section. 
Each operator of an airplane or turbine-powered rotorcraft desiring to 
establish or change an approved inspection program under paragraph 
(f)(4) of this section must submit the program for approval to the 
responsible Flight Standards office. The program must be in writing and 
include at least the following information:
    (1) Instructions and procedures for the conduct of inspections for 
the particular make and model airplane or turbine-powered rotorcraft, 
including necessary tests and checks. The instructions and procedures 
must set forth in detail the parts and areas of the airframe, engines, 
propellers, rotors, and appliances, including survival and emergency 
equipment required to be inspected.
    (2) A schedule for performing the inspections that must be performed 
under the program expressed in terms of the time in service, calendar 
time, number of system operations, or any combination of these.
    (h) Changes from one inspection program to another. When an operator 
changes from one inspection program under paragraph (f) of this section 
to another, the time in service, calendar times, or cycles of operation 
accumulated under the previous program must be applied in determining 
inspection due times under the new program.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 91-211, 54 FR 41211, 
Oct. 5, 1989; Amdt. 91-267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-282, 69 
FR 44882, July 27, 2004; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, 
Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 91.410  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.411  Altimeter system and altitude reporting equipment
tests and inspections.

    (a) No person may operate an airplane, or helicopter, in controlled 
airspace under IFR unless--
    (1) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, each static pressure 
system, each altimeter instrument, and each automatic pressure altitude 
reporting system has been tested and inspected and found to comply with 
appendices E and F of part 43 of this chapter;
    (2) Except for the use of system drain and alternate static pressure 
valves, following any opening and closing of the static pressure system, 
that system has been tested and inspected and found to comply with 
paragraph (a), appendix E, of part 43 of this chapter; and
    (3) Following installation or maintenance on the automatic pressure 
altitude reporting system of the ATC transponder where data 
correspondence error could be introduced, the integrated system has been 
tested, inspected, and found to comply with paragraph (c), appendix E, 
of part 43 of this chapter.
    (b) The tests required by paragraph (a) of this section must be 
conducted by--
    (1) The manufacturer of the airplane, or helicopter, on which the 
tests and inspections are to be performed;
    (2) A certificated repair station properly equipped to perform those 
functions and holding--
    (i) An instrument rating, Class I;
    (ii) A limited instrument rating appropriate to the make and model 
of appliance to be tested;
    (iii) A limited rating appropriate to the test to be performed;
    (iv) An airframe rating appropriate to the airplane, or helicopter, 
to be tested; or
    (3) A certificated mechanic with an airframe rating (static pressure 
system tests and inspections only).
    (c) Altimeter and altitude reporting equipment approved under 
Technical Standard Orders are considered to be tested and inspected as 
of the date of their manufacture.
    (d) No person may operate an airplane, or helicopter, in controlled 
airspace under IFR at an altitude above the maximum altitude at which 
all altimeters and the automatic altitude reporting system of that 
airplane, or helicopter, have been tested.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-269, 
66 FR 41116, Aug. 6, 2001; 72 FR 7739, Feb. 20, 2007]

[[Page 743]]



Sec. 91.413  ATC transponder tests and inspections.

    (a) No persons may use an ATC transponder that is specified in 
91.215(a), 121.345(c), or Sec. 135.143(c) of this chapter unless, 
within the preceding 24 calendar months, the ATC transponder has been 
tested and inspected and found to comply with appendix F of part 43 of 
this chapter; and
    (b) Following any installation or maintenance on an ATC transponder 
where data correspondence error could be introduced, the integrated 
system has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with paragraph 
(c), appendix E, of part 43 of this chapter.
    (c) The tests and inspections specified in this section must be 
conducted by--
    (1) A certificated repair station properly equipped to perform those 
functions and holding--
    (i) A radio rating, Class III;
    (ii) A limited radio rating appropriate to the make and model 
transponder to be tested;
    (iii) A limited rating appropriate to the test to be performed;
    (2) A holder of a continuous airworthiness maintenance program as 
provided in part 121 or Sec. 135.411(a)(2) of this chapter; or
    (3) The manufacturer of the aircraft on which the transponder to be 
tested is installed, if the transponder was installed by that 
manufacturer.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-267, 
66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-269, 66 FR 41116, Aug. 6, 2001]



Sec. 91.415  Changes to aircraft inspection programs.

    (a) Whenever the Administrator finds that revisions to an approved 
aircraft inspection program under Sec. 91.409(f)(4) or Sec. 91.1109 
are necessary for the continued adequacy of the program, the owner or 
operator must, after notification by the Administrator, make any changes 
in the program found to be necessary by the Administrator.
    (b) The owner or operator may petition the Administrator to 
reconsider the notice to make any changes in a program in accordance 
with paragraph (a) of this section.
    (c) The petition must be filed with the Executive Director, Flight 
Standards Service within 30 days after the certificate holder or 
fractional ownership program manager receives the notice.
    (d) Except in the case of an emergency requiring immediate action in 
the interest of safety, the filing of the petition stays the notice 
pending a decision by the Administrator.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 
68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 
9171, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 91.417  Maintenance records.

    (a) Except for work performed in accordance with Sec. Sec. 91.411 
and 91.413, each registered owner or operator shall keep the following 
records for the periods specified in paragraph (b) of this section:
    (1) Records of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and 
alteration and records of the 100-hour, annual, progressive, and other 
required or approved inspections, as appropriate, for each aircraft 
(including the airframe) and each engine, propeller, rotor, and 
appliance of an aircraft. The records must include--
    (i) A description (or reference to data acceptable to the 
Administrator) of the work performed; and
    (ii) The date of completion of the work performed; and
    (iii) The signature, and certificate number of the person approving 
the aircraft for return to service.
    (2) Records containing the following information:
    (i) The total time in service of the airframe, each engine, each 
propeller, and each rotor.
    (ii) The current status of life-limited parts of each airframe, 
engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
    (iii) The time since last overhaul of all items installed on the 
aircraft which are required to be overhauled on a specified time basis.
    (iv) The current inspection status of the aircraft, including the 
time since the last inspection required by the inspection program under 
which the aircraft and its appliances are maintained.

[[Page 744]]

    (v) The current status of applicable airworthiness directives (AD) 
and safety directives including, for each, the method of compliance, the 
AD or safety directive number and revision date. If the AD or safety 
directive involves recurring action, the time and date when the next 
action is required.
    (vi) Copies of the forms prescribed by Sec. 43.9(d) of this chapter 
for each major alteration to the airframe and currently installed 
engines, rotors, propellers, and appliances.
    (b) The owner or operator shall retain the following records for the 
periods prescribed:
    (1) The records specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall 
be retained until the work is repeated or superseded by other work or 
for 1 year after the work is performed.
    (2) The records specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall 
be retained and transferred with the aircraft at the time the aircraft 
is sold.
    (3) A list of defects furnished to a registered owner or operator 
under Sec. 43.11 of this chapter shall be retained until the defects 
are repaired and the aircraft is approved for return to service.
    (c) The owner or operator shall make all maintenance records 
required to be kept by this section available for inspection by the 
Administrator or any authorized representative of the National 
Transportation Safety Board (NTSB). In addition, the owner or operator 
shall present Form 337 described in paragraph (d) of this section for 
inspection upon request of any law enforcement officer.
    (d) When a fuel tank is installed within the passenger compartment 
or a baggage compartment pursuant to part 43 of this chapter, a copy of 
FAA Form 337 shall be kept on board the modified aircraft by the owner 
or operator.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-311, 
75 FR 5223, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 91-323, 76 FR 39260, July 6, 2011]



Sec. 91.419  Transfer of maintenance records.

    Any owner or operator who sells a U.S.-registered aircraft shall 
transfer to the purchaser, at the time of sale, the following records of 
that aircraft, in plain language form or in coded form at the election 
of the purchaser, if the coded form provides for the preservation and 
retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the Administrator:
    (a) The records specified in Sec. 91.417(a)(2).
    (b) The records specified in Sec. 91.417(a)(1) which are not 
included in the records covered by paragraph (a) of this section, except 
that the purchaser may permit the seller to keep physical custody of 
such records. However, custody of records by the seller does not relieve 
the purchaser of the responsibility under Sec. 91.417(c) to make the 
records available for inspection by the Administrator or any authorized 
representative of the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB).



Sec. 91.421  Rebuilt engine maintenance records.

    (a) The owner or operator may use a new maintenance record, without 
previous operating history, for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the 
manufacturer or by an agency approved by the manufacturer.
    (b) Each manufacturer or agency that grants zero time to an engine 
rebuilt by it shall enter in the new record--
    (1) A signed statement of the date the engine was rebuilt;
    (2) Each change made as required by airworthiness directives; and
    (3) Each change made in compliance with manufacturer's service 
bulletins, if the entry is specifically requested in that bulletin.
    (c) For the purposes of this section, a rebuilt engine is a used 
engine that has been completely disassembled, inspected, repaired as 
necessary, reassembled, tested, and approved in the same manner and to 
the same tolerances and limits as a new engine with either new or used 
parts. However, all parts used in it must conform to the production 
drawing tolerances and limits for new parts or be of approved oversized 
or undersized dimensions for a new engine.

[[Page 745]]



Sec. Sec. 91.423-91.499  [Reserved]



Subpart F_Large and Turbine-Powered Multiengine Airplanes and Fractional 
                       Ownership Program Aircraft

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.501  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart prescribes operating rules, in addition to those 
prescribed in other subparts of this part, governing the operation of 
large airplanes of U.S. registry, turbojet-powered multiengine civil 
airplanes of U.S. registry, and fractional ownership program aircraft of 
U.S. registry that are operating under subpart K of this part in 
operations not involving common carriage. The operating rules in this 
subpart do not apply to those aircraft when they are required to be 
operated under parts 121, 125, 129, 135, and 137 of this chapter. 
(Section 91.409 prescribes an inspection program for large and for 
turbine-powered (turbojet and turboprop) multiengine airplanes and 
turbine-powered rotorcraft of U.S. registry when they are operated under 
this part or part 129 or 137.)
    (b) Operations that may be conducted under the rules in this subpart 
instead of those in parts 121, 129, 135, and 137 of this chapter when 
common carriage is not involved, include--
    (1) Ferry or training flights;
    (2) Aerial work operations such as aerial photography or survey, or 
pipeline patrol, but not including fire fighting operations;
    (3) Flights for the demonstration of an airplane to prospective 
customers when no charge is made except for those specified in paragraph 
(d) of this section;
    (4) Flights conducted by the operator of an airplane for his 
personal transportation, or the transportation of his guests when no 
charge, assessment, or fee is made for the transportation;
    (5) Carriage of officials, employees, guests, and property of a 
company on an airplane operated by that company, or the parent or a 
subsidiary of the company or a subsidiary of the parent, when the 
carriage is within the scope of, and incidental to, the business of the 
company (other than transportation by air) and no charge, assessment or 
fee is made for the carriage in excess of the cost of owning, operating, 
and maintaining the airplane, except that no charge of any kind may be 
made for the carriage of a guest of a company, when the carriage is not 
within the scope of, and incidental to, the business of that company;
    (6) The carriage of company officials, employees, and guests of the 
company on an airplane operated under a time sharing, interchange, or 
joint ownership agreement as defined in paragraph (c) of this section;
    (7) The carriage of property (other than mail) on an airplane 
operated by a person in the furtherance of a business or employment 
(other than transportation by air) when the carriage is within the scope 
of, and incidental to, that business or employment and no charge, 
assessment, or fee is made for the carriage other than those specified 
in paragraph (d) of this section;
    (8) The carriage on an airplane of an athletic team, sports group, 
choral group, or similar group having a common purpose or objective when 
there is no charge, assessment, or fee of any kind made by any person 
for that carriage; and
    (9) The carriage of persons on an airplane operated by a person in 
the furtherance of a business other than transportation by air for the 
purpose of selling them land, goods, or property, including franchises 
or distributorships, when the carriage is within the scope of, and 
incidental to, that business and no charge, assessment, or fee is made 
for that carriage.
    (10) Any operation identified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(9) of 
this section when conducted--
    (i) By a fractional ownership program manager, or
    (ii) By a fractional owner in a fractional ownership program 
aircraft operated under subpart K of this part, except that a flight 
under a joint ownership arrangement under paragraph (b)(6) of this 
section may not be conducted. For a flight under an interchange 
agreement under paragraph (b)(6) of this section, the exchange of equal 
time for the operation must be

[[Page 746]]

properly accounted for as part of the total hours associated with the 
fractional owner's share of ownership.
    (c) As used in this section--
    (1) A time sharing agreement means an arrangement whereby a person 
leases his airplane with flight crew to another person, and no charge is 
made for the flights conducted under that arrangement other than those 
specified in paragraph (d) of this section;
    (2) An interchange agreement means an arrangement whereby a person 
leases his airplane to another person in exchange for equal time, when 
needed, on the other person's airplane, and no charge, assessment, or 
fee is made, except that a charge may be made not to exceed the 
difference between the cost of owning, operating, and maintaining the 
two airplanes;
    (3) A joint ownership agreement means an arrangement whereby one of 
the registered joint owners of an airplane employs and furnishes the 
flight crew for that airplane and each of the registered joint owners 
pays a share of the charge specified in the agreement.
    (d) The following may be charged, as expenses of a specific flight, 
for transportation as authorized by paragraphs (b) (3) and (7) and 
(c)(1) of this section:
    (1) Fuel, oil, lubricants, and other additives.
    (2) Travel expenses of the crew, including food, lodging, and ground 
transportation.
    (3) Hangar and tie-down costs away from the aircraft's base of 
operation.
    (4) Insurance obtained for the specific flight.
    (5) Landing fees, airport taxes, and similar assessments.
    (6) Customs, foreign permit, and similar fees directly related to 
the flight.
    (7) In flight food and beverages.
    (8) Passenger ground transportation.
    (9) Flight planning and weather contract services.
    (10) An additional charge equal to 100 percent of the expenses 
listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 
68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003]



Sec. 91.503  Flying equipment and operating information.

    (a) The pilot in command of an airplane shall ensure that the 
following flying equipment and aeronautical charts and data, in current 
and appropriate form, are accessible for each flight at the pilot 
station of the airplane:
    (1) A flashlight having at least two size ``D'' cells, or the 
equivalent, that is in good working order.
    (2) A cockpit checklist containing the procedures required by 
paragraph (b) of this section.
    (3) Pertinent aeronautical charts.
    (4) For IFR, VFR over-the-top, or night operations, each pertinent 
navigational en route, terminal area, and approach and letdown chart.
    (5) In the case of multiengine airplanes, one-engine inoperative 
climb performance data.
    (b) Each cockpit checklist must contain the following procedures and 
shall be used by the flight crewmembers when operating the airplane:
    (1) Before starting engines.
    (2) Before takeoff.
    (3) Cruise.
    (4) Before landing.
    (5) After landing.
    (6) Stopping engines.
    (7) Emergencies.
    (c) Each emergency cockpit checklist procedure required by paragraph 
(b)(7) of this section must contain the following procedures, as 
appropriate:
    (1) Emergency operation of fuel, hydraulic, electrical, and 
mechanical systems.
    (2) Emergency operation of instruments and controls.
    (3) Engine inoperative procedures.
    (4) Any other procedures necessary for safety.
    (d) The equipment, charts, and data prescribed in this section shall 
be used by the pilot in command and other members of the flight crew, 
when pertinent.



Sec. 91.505  Familiarity with operating limitations and emergency equipment.

    (a) Each pilot in command of an airplane shall, before beginning a 
flight, become familiar with the Airplane Flight Manual for that 
airplane, if one

[[Page 747]]

is required, and with any placards, listings, instrument markings, or 
any combination thereof, containing each operating limitation prescribed 
for that airplane by the Administrator, including those specified in 
Sec. 91.9(b).
    (b) Each required member of the crew shall, before beginning a 
flight, become familiar with the emergency equipment installed on the 
airplane to which that crewmember is assigned and with the procedures to 
be followed for the use of that equipment in an emergency situation.



Sec. 91.507  Equipment requirements: Over-the-top or night VFR operations.

    No person may operate an airplane over-the-top or at night under VFR 
unless that airplane is equipped with the instruments and equipment 
required for IFR operations under Sec. 91.205(d) and one electric 
landing light for night operations. Each required instrument and item of 
equipment must be in operable condition.



Sec. 91.509  Survival equipment for overwater operations.

    (a) No person may take off an airplane for a flight over water more 
than 50 nautical miles from the nearest shore unless that airplane is 
equipped with a life preserver or an approved flotation means for each 
occupant of the airplane.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person 
may take off an airplane for flight over water more than 30 minutes 
flying time or 100 nautical miles from the nearest shore, whichever is 
less, unless it has on board the following survival equipment:
    (1) A life preserver, equipped with an approved survivor locator 
light, for each occupant of the airplane.
    (2) Enough liferafts (each equipped with an approved survival 
locator light) of a rated capacity and buoyancy to accommodate the 
occupants of the airplane.
    (3) At least one pyrotechnic signaling device for each liferaft.
    (4) One self-buoyant, water-resistant, portable emergency radio 
signaling device that is capable of transmission on the appropriate 
emergency frequency or frequencies and not dependent upon the airplane 
power supply.
    (5) A lifeline stored in accordance with Sec. 25.1411(g) of this 
chapter.
    (c) A fractional ownership program manager under subpart K of this 
part may apply for a deviation from paragraphs (b)(2) through (5) of 
this section for a particular over water operation or the Administrator 
may amend the management specifications to require the carriage of all 
or any specific items of the equipment listed in paragraphs (b)(2) 
through (5) of this section.
    (d) The required life rafts, life preservers, and signaling devices 
must be installed in conspicuously marked locations and easily 
accessible in the event of a ditching without appreciable time for 
preparatory procedures.
    (e) A survival kit, appropriately equipped for the route to be 
flown, must be attached to each required life raft.
    (f) As used in this section, the term shore means that area of the 
land adjacent to the water that is above the high water mark and 
excludes land areas that are intermittently under water.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 
68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003]



Sec. 91.511  Communication and navigation equipment for overwater operations.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (c), (d), and (f) of this 
section, no person operating under this subpart may take off an airplane 
for a flight over water more than 30 minutes flying time or 100 nautical 
miles from the nearest shore unless it has at least the following 
operable equipment:
    (1) Radio communication equipment appropriate to the facilities to 
be used and able to transmit to, and receive from, at least one 
communication facility from any place along the route:
    (i) Two transmitters.
    (ii) Two microphones.
    (iii) Two headsets or one headset and one speaker.
    (iv) Two independent receivers.
    (2) Appropriate electronic navigational equipment consisting of at 
least two independent electronic navigation units capable of providing 
the pilot

[[Page 748]]

with the information necessary to navigate the airplane within the 
airspace assigned by air traffic control. However, a receiver that can 
receive both communications and required navigational signals may be 
used in place of a separate communications receiver and a separate 
navigational signal receiver or unit.
    (b) For the purposes of paragraphs (a)(1)(iv) and (a)(2) of this 
section, a receiver or electronic navigation unit is independent if the 
function of any part of it does not depend on the functioning of any 
part of another receiver or electronic navigation unit.
    (c) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, 
a person may operate an airplane on which no passengers are carried from 
a place where repairs or replacement cannot be made to a place where 
they can be made, if not more than one of each of the dual items of 
radio communication and navigational equipment specified in paragraphs 
(a)(1) (i) through (iv) and (a)(2) of this section malfunctions or 
becomes inoperative.
    (d) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, 
when both VHF and HF communications equipment are required for the route 
and the airplane has two VHF transmitters and two VHF receivers for 
communications, only one HF transmitter and one HF receiver is required 
for communications.
    (e) As used in this section, the term shore means that area of the 
land adjacent to the water which is above the high-water mark and 
excludes land areas which are intermittently under water.
    (f) Notwithstanding the requirements in paragraph (a)(2) of this 
section, a person may operate in the Gulf of Mexico, the Caribbean Sea, 
and the Atlantic Ocean west of a line which extends from 
44[deg]47[min]00[sec] N / 67[deg]00[min]00[sec] W to 
39[deg]00[min]00[sec] N / 67[deg]00[min]00[sec] W to 
38[deg]30[min]00[sec] N / 60[deg]00[min]00[sec] W south along the 
60[deg]00[min]00[sec] W longitude line to the point where the line 
intersects with the northern coast of South America, when:
    (1) A single long-range navigation system is installed, operational, 
and appropriate for the route; and
    (2) Flight conditions and the aircraft's capabilities are such that 
no more than a 30-minute gap in two-way radio very high frequency 
communications is expected to exist.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-249, 
61 FR 7190, Feb. 26, 1996; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007; 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 91-366, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 91.513  Emergency equipment.

    (a) No person may operate an airplane unless it is equipped with the 
emergency equipment listed in this section.
    (b) Each item of equipment--
    (1) Must be inspected in accordance with Sec. 91.409 to ensure its 
continued serviceability and immediate readiness for its intended 
purposes;
    (2) Must be readily accessible to the crew;
    (3) Must clearly indicate its method of operation; and
    (4) When carried in a compartment or container, must have that 
compartment or container marked as to contents and date of last 
inspection.
    (c) Hand fire extinguishers must be provided for use in crew, 
passenger, and cargo compartments in accordance with the following:
    (1) The type and quantity of extinguishing agent must be suitable 
for the kinds of fires likely to occur in the compartment where the 
extinguisher is intended to be used.
    (2) At least one hand fire extinguisher must be provided and located 
on or near the flight deck in a place that is readily accessible to the 
flight crew.
    (3) At least one hand fire extinguisher must be conveniently located 
in the passenger compartment of each airplane accommodating more than 
six but less than 31 passengers, and at least two hand fire 
extinguishers must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment 
of each airplane accommodating more than 30 passengers.
    (4) Hand fire extinguishers must be installed and secured in such a 
manner that they will not interfere with the safe operation of the 
airplane or adversely affect the safety of the crew and passengers. They 
must be readily accessible and, unless the locations of the fire 
extinguishers are obvious,

[[Page 749]]

their stowage provisions must be properly identified.
    (d) First aid kits for treatment of injuries likely to occur in 
flight or in minor accidents must be provided.
    (e) Each airplane accommodating more than 19 passengers must be 
equipped with a crash axe.
    (f) Each passenger-carrying airplane must have a portable battery-
powered megaphone or megaphones readily accessible to the crewmembers 
assigned to direct emergency evacuation, installed as follows:
    (1) One megaphone on each airplane with a seating capacity of more 
than 60 but less than 100 passengers, at the most rearward location in 
the passenger cabin where it would be readily accessible to a normal 
flight attendant seat. However, the Administrator may grant a deviation 
from the requirements of this subparagraph if the Administrator finds 
that a different location would be more useful for evacuation of persons 
during an emergency.
    (2) On each airplane with a seating capacity of 100 or more 
passengers, one megaphone installed at the forward end and one installed 
at the most rearward location where it would be readily accessible to a 
normal flight attendant seat.



Sec. 91.515  Flight altitude rules.

    (a) Notwithstanding Sec. 91.119, and except as provided in 
paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate an airplane under 
VFR at less than--
    (1) One thousand feet above the surface, or 1,000 feet from any 
mountain, hill, or other obstruction to flight, for day operations; and
    (2) The altitudes prescribed in Sec. 91.177, for night operations.
    (b) This section does not apply--
    (1) During takeoff or landing;
    (2) When a different altitude is authorized by a waiver to this 
section under subpart J of this part; or
    (3) When a flight is conducted under the special VFR weather 
minimums of Sec. 91.157 with an appropriate clearance from ATC.



Sec. 91.517  Passenger information.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person 
may operate an airplane carrying passengers unless it is equipped with 
signs that are visible to passengers and flight attendants to notify 
them when smoking is prohibited and when safety belts must be fastened. 
The signs must be so constructed that the crew can turn them on and off. 
They must be turned on during airplane movement on the surface, for each 
takeoff, for each landing, and when otherwise considered to be necessary 
by the pilot in command.
    (b) The pilot in command of an airplane that is not required, in 
accordance with applicable aircraft and equipment requirements of this 
chapter, to be equipped as provided in paragraph (a) of this section 
shall ensure that the passengers are notified orally each time that it 
is necessary to fasten their safety belts and when smoking is 
prohibited.
    (c) If passenger information signs are installed, no passenger or 
crewmember may smoke while any ``no smoking'' sign is lighted nor may 
any passenger or crewmember smoke in any lavatory.
    (d) Each passenger required by Sec. 91.107(a)(3) to occupy a seat 
or berth shall fasten his or her safety belt about him or her and keep 
it fastened while any ``fasten seat belt'' sign is lighted.
    (e) Each passenger shall comply with instructions given him or her 
by crewmembers regarding compliance with paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of 
this section.

[Doc. No. 26142, 57 FR 42672, Sept. 15, 1992]



Sec. 91.519  Passenger briefing.

    (a) Before each takeoff the pilot in command of an airplane carrying 
passengers shall ensure that all passengers have been orally briefed 
on--
    (1) Smoking. Each passenger shall be briefed on when, where, and 
under what conditions smoking is prohibited. This briefing shall include 
a statement, as appropriate, that the Federal Aviation Regulations 
require passenger compliance with lighted passenger information signs 
and no smoking placards, prohibit smoking in lavatories, and require 
compliance with crewmember instructions with regard to these items;
    (2) Use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses. Each passenger shall 
be briefed on when, where, and under what conditions it is necessary to 
have his or her safety belt and, if installed, his or her

[[Page 750]]

shoulder harness fastened about him or her. This briefing shall include 
a statement, as appropriate, that Federal Aviation Regulations require 
passenger compliance with the lighted passenger sign and/or crewmember 
instructions with regard to these items;
    (3) Location and means for opening the passenger entry door and 
emergency exits;
    (4) Location of survival equipment;
    (5) Ditching procedures and the use of flotation equipment required 
under Sec. 91.509 for a flight over water; and
    (6) The normal and emergency use of oxygen equipment installed on 
the airplane.
    (b) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section 
shall be given by the pilot in command or a member of the crew, but need 
not be given when the pilot in command determines that the passengers 
are familiar with the contents of the briefing. It may be supplemented 
by printed cards for the use of each passenger containing--
    (1) A diagram of, and methods of operating, the emergency exits; and
    (2) Other instructions necessary for use of emergency equipment.
    (c) Each card used under paragraph (b) must be carried in convenient 
locations on the airplane for the use of each passenger and must contain 
information that is pertinent only to the type and model airplane on 
which it is used.
    (d) For operations under subpart K of this part, the passenger 
briefing requirements of Sec. 91.1035 apply, instead of the 
requirements of paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-231, 
57 FR 42672, Sept. 15, 1992; Amdt. 91-280, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003]



Sec. 91.521  Shoulder harness.

    (a) No person may operate a transport category airplane that was 
type certificated after January 1, 1958, unless it is equipped at each 
seat at a flight deck station with a combined safety belt and shoulder 
harness that meets the applicable requirements specified in Sec. 25.785 
of this chapter, except that--
    (1) Shoulder harnesses and combined safety belt and shoulder 
harnesses that were approved and installed before March 6, 1980, may 
continue to be used; and
    (2) Safety belt and shoulder harness restraint systems may be 
designed to the inertia load factors established under the certification 
basis of the airplane.
    (b) No person may operate a transport category airplane unless it is 
equipped at each required flight attendant seat in the passenger 
compartment with a combined safety belt and shoulder harness that meets 
the applicable requirements specified in Sec. 25.785 of this chapter, 
except that--
    (1) Shoulder harnesses and combined safety belt and shoulder 
harnesses that were approved and installed before March 6, 1980, may 
continue to be used; and
    (2) Safety belt and shoulder harness restraint systems may be 
designed to the inertia load factors established under the certification 
basis of the airplane.



Sec. 91.523  Carry-on baggage.

    No pilot in command of an airplane having a seating capacity of more 
than 19 passengers may permit a passenger to stow baggage aboard that 
airplane except--
    (a) In a suitable baggage or cargo storage compartment, or as 
provided in Sec. 91.525; or
    (b) Under a passenger seat in such a way that it will not slide 
forward under crash impacts severe enough to induce the ultimate inertia 
forces specified in Sec. 25.561(b)(3) of this chapter, or the 
requirements of the regulations under which the airplane was type 
certificated. Restraining devices must also limit sideward motion of 
under-seat baggage and be designed to withstand crash impacts severe 
enough to induce sideward forces specified in Sec. 25.561(b)(3) of this 
chapter.



Sec. 91.525  Carriage of cargo.

    (a) No pilot in command may permit cargo to be carried in any 
airplane unless--
    (1) It is carried in an approved cargo rack, bin, or compartment 
installed in the airplane;

[[Page 751]]

    (2) It is secured by means approved by the Administrator; or
    (3) It is carried in accordance with each of the following:
    (i) It is properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having 
enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting under all 
normally anticipated flight and ground conditions.
    (ii) It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to 
passengers.
    (iii) It does not impose any load on seats or on the floor structure 
that exceeds the load limitation for those components.
    (iv) It is not located in a position that restricts the access to or 
use of any required emergency or regular exit, or the use of the aisle 
between the crew and the passenger compartment.
    (v) It is not carried directly above seated passengers.
    (b) When cargo is carried in cargo compartments that are designed to 
require the physical entry of a crewmember to extinguish any fire that 
may occur during flight, the cargo must be loaded so as to allow a 
crewmember to effectively reach all parts of the compartment with the 
contents of a hand fire extinguisher.



Sec. 91.527  Operating in icing conditions.

    (a) No pilot may take off an airplane that has frost, ice, or snow 
adhering to any propeller, windshield, stabilizing or control surface; 
to a powerplant installation; or to an airspeed, altimeter, rate of 
climb, or flight attitude instrument system or wing, except that 
takeoffs may be made with frost under the wing in the area of the fuel 
tanks if authorized by the FAA.
    (b) No pilot may fly under IFR into known or forecast light or 
moderate icing conditions, or under VFR into known light or moderate 
icing conditions, unless--
    (1) The aircraft has functioning deicing or anti-icing equipment 
protecting each rotor blade, propeller, windshield, wing, stabilizing or 
control surface, and each airspeed, altimeter, rate of climb, or flight 
attitude instrument system;
    (2) The airplane has ice protection provisions that meet section 34 
of Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 23; or
    (3) The airplane meets transport category airplane type 
certification provisions, including the requirements for certification 
for flight in icing conditions.
    (c) Except for an airplane that has ice protection provisions that 
meet the requirements in section 34 of Special Federal Aviation 
Regulation No. 23, or those for transport category airplane type 
certification, no pilot may fly an airplane into known or forecast 
severe icing conditions.
    (d) If current weather reports and briefing information relied upon 
by the pilot in command indicate that the forecast icing conditions that 
would otherwise prohibit the flight will not be encountered during the 
flight because of changed weather conditions since the forecast, the 
restrictions in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section based on forecast 
conditions do not apply.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-310, 
74 FR 62696, Dec. 1, 2009]



Sec. 91.529  Flight engineer requirements.

    (a) No person may operate the following airplanes without a flight 
crewmember holding a current flight engineer certificate:
    (1) An airplane for which a type certificate was issued before 
January 2, 1964, having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more 
than 80,000 pounds.
    (2) An airplane type certificated after January 1, 1964, for which a 
flight engineer is required by the type certification requirements.
    (b) No person may serve as a required flight engineer on an airplane 
unless, within the preceding 6 calendar months, that person has had at 
least 50 hours of flight time as a flight engineer on that type airplane 
or has been checked by the Administrator on that type airplane and is 
found to be familiar and competent with all essential current 
information and operating procedures.

[[Page 752]]



Sec. 91.531  Second in command requirements.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person 
may operate the following airplanes without a pilot designated as second 
in command:
    (1) Any airplane that is type certificated for more than one 
required pilot.
    (2) Any large airplane.
    (3) Any commuter category airplane.
    (b) A person may operate the following airplanes without a pilot 
designated as second in command:
    (1) Any airplane certificated for operation with one pilot.
    (2) A large airplane or turbojet-powered multiengine airplane that 
holds a special airworthiness certificate, if:
    (i) The airplane was originally designed with only one pilot 
station; or
    (ii) The airplane was originally designed with more than one pilot 
station, but single pilot operations were permitted by the airplane 
flight manual or were otherwise permitted by a branch of the United 
States Armed Forces or the armed forces of a foreign contracting State 
to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.
    (c) No person may designate a pilot to serve as second in command, 
nor may any pilot serve as second in command, of an airplane required 
under this section to have two pilots unless that pilot meets the 
qualifications for second in command prescribed in Sec. 61.55 of this 
chapter.

[Docket FAA-2016-6142, Amdt. 91-351, 83 FR 30282, June 27, 2018]



Sec. 91.533  Flight attendant requirements.

    (a) No person may operate an airplane unless at least the following 
number of flight attendants are on board the airplane:
    (1) For airplanes having more than 19 but less than 51 passengers on 
board, one flight attendant.
    (2) For airplanes having more than 50 but less than 101 passengers 
on board, two flight attendants.
    (3) For airplanes having more than 100 passengers on board, two 
flight attendants plus one additional flight attendant for each unit (or 
part of a unit) of 50 passengers above 100.
    (b) No person may serve as a flight attendant on an airplane when 
required by paragraph (a) of this section unless that person has 
demonstrated to the pilot in command familiarity with the necessary 
functions to be performed in an emergency or a situation requiring 
emergency evacuation and is capable of using the emergency equipment 
installed on that airplane.



Sec. 91.535  Stowage of food, beverage, and passenger service equipment
during aircraft movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.

    (a) No operator may move an aircraft on the surface, take off, or 
land when any food, beverage, or tableware furnished by the operator is 
located at any passenger seat.
    (b) No operator may move an aircraft on the surface, take off, or 
land unless each food and beverage tray and seat back tray table is 
secured in its stowed position.
    (c) No operator may permit an aircraft to move on the surface, take 
off, or land unless each passenger serving cart is secured in its stowed 
position.
    (d) No operator may permit an aircraft to move on the surface, take 
off, or land unless each movie screen that extends into the aisle is 
stowed.
    (e) Each passenger shall comply with instructions given by a 
crewmember with regard to compliance with this section.

[Doc. No. 26142, 57 FR 42672, Sept. 15, 1992]



Sec. Sec. 91.536-91.599  [Reserved]



Subpart G_Additional Equipment and Operating Requirements for Large and 
                       Transport Category Aircraft

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34318, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.601  Applicability.

    This subpart applies to operation of large and transport category 
U.S.-registered civil aircraft.



Sec. 91.603  Aural speed warning device.

    No person may operate a transport category airplane in air commerce 
unless that airplane is equipped with an aural speed warning device that 
complies with Sec. 25.1303(c)(1).

[[Page 753]]



Sec. 91.605  Transport category civil airplane weight limitations.

    (a) No person may take off any transport category airplane (other 
than a turbine-engine-powered airplane certificated after September 30, 
1958) unless--
    (1) The takeoff weight does not exceed the authorized maximum 
takeoff weight for the elevation of the airport of takeoff;
    (2) The elevation of the airport of takeoff is within the altitude 
range for which maximum takeoff weights have been determined;
    (3) Normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight to the airport of 
intended landing will leave a weight on arrival not in excess of the 
authorized maximum landing weight for the elevation of that airport; and
    (4) The elevations of the airport of intended landing and of all 
specified alternate airports are within the altitude range for which the 
maximum landing weights have been determined.
    (b) No person may operate a turbine-engine-powered transport 
category airplane certificated after September 30, 1958, contrary to the 
Airplane Flight Manual, or take off that airplane unless--
    (1) The takeoff weight does not exceed the takeoff weight specified 
in the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the airport and for 
the ambient temperature existing at the time of takeoff;
    (2) Normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight to the airport of 
intended landing and to the alternate airports will leave a weight on 
arrival not in excess of the landing weight specified in the Airplane 
Flight Manual for the elevation of each of the airports involved and for 
the ambient temperatures expected at the time of landing;
    (3) The takeoff weight does not exceed the weight shown in the 
Airplane Flight Manual to correspond with the minimum distances required 
for takeoff, considering the elevation of the airport, the runway to be 
used, the effective runway gradient, the ambient temperature and wind 
component at the time of takeoff, and, if operating limitations exist 
for the minimum distances required for takeoff from wet runways, the 
runway surface condition (dry or wet). Wet runway distances associated 
with grooved or porous friction course runways, if provided in the 
Airplane Flight Manual, may be used only for runways that are grooved or 
treated with a porous friction course (PFC) overlay, and that the 
operator determines are designed, constructed, and maintained in a 
manner acceptable to the Administrator.
    (4) Where the takeoff distance includes a clearway, the clearway 
distance is not greater than one-half of--
    (i) The takeoff run, in the case of airplanes certificated after 
September 30, 1958, and before August 30, 1959; or
    (ii) The runway length, in the case of airplanes certificated after 
August 29, 1959.
    (c) No person may take off a turbine-engine-powered transport 
category airplane certificated after August 29, 1959, unless, in 
addition to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section--
    (1) The accelerate-stop distance is no greater than the length of 
the runway plus the length of the stopway (if present); and
    (2) The takeoff distance is no greater than the length of the runway 
plus the length of the clearway (if present); and
    (3) The takeoff run is no greater than the length of the runway.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34318, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-256, 
63 FR 8321, Feb. 18, 1998]



Sec. 91.607  Emergency exits for airplanes carrying passengers for hire.

    (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, no person 
may operate a large airplane (type certificated under the Civil Air 
Regulations effective before April 9, 1957) in passenger-carrying 
operations for hire, with more than the number of occupants--
    (1) Allowed under Civil Air Regulations Sec. 4b.362 (a), (b), and 
(c) as in effect on December 20, 1951; or
    (2) Approved under Special Civil Air Regulations SR-387, SR-389, SR-
389A, or SR-389B, or under this section as in effect.


However, an airplane type listed in the following table may be operated 
with up to the listed number of occupants (including crewmembers) and 
the corresponding number of exits (including emergency exits and doors) 
approved

[[Page 754]]

for the emergency exit of passengers or with an occupant-exit 
configuration approved under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                       Maximum number     Corresponding
                                        of occupants     number of exits
            Airplane type               including all    authorized for
                                         crewmembers      passenger use
------------------------------------------------------------------------
B-307...............................                61                 4
B-377...............................                96                 9
C-46................................                67                 4
CV-240..............................                53                 6
CV-340 and CV-440...................                53                 6
DC-3................................                35                 4
DC-3 (Super)........................                39                 5
DC-4................................                86                 5
DC-6................................                87                 7
DC-6B...............................               112                11
L-18................................                17                 3
L-049, L-649, L-749.................                87                 7
L-1049 series.......................                96                 9
M-202...............................                53                 6
M-404...............................                53                 7
Viscount 700 series.................                53                 7
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (b) Occupants in addition to those authorized under paragraph (a) of 
this section may be carried as follows:
    (1) For each additional floor-level exit at least 24 inches wide by 
48 inches high, with an unobstructed 20-inch-wide access aisleway 
between the exit and the main passenger aisle, 12 additional occupants.
    (2) For each additional window exit located over a wing that meets 
the requirements of the airworthiness standards under which the airplane 
was type certificated or that is large enough to inscribe an ellipse 19 
x 26 inches, eight additional occupants.
    (3) For each additional window exit that is not located over a wing 
but that otherwise complies with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, five 
additional occupants.
    (4) For each airplane having a ratio (as computed from the table in 
paragraph (a) of this section) of maximum number of occupants to number 
of exits greater than 14:1, and for each airplane that does not have at 
least one full-size, door-type exit in the side of the fuselage in the 
rear part of the cabin, the first additional exit must be a floor-level 
exit that complies with paragraph (b)(1) of this section and must be 
located in the rear part of the cabin on the opposite side of the 
fuselage from the main entrance door. However, no person may operate an 
airplane under this section carrying more than 115 occupants unless 
there is such an exit on each side of the fuselage in the rear part of 
the cabin.
    (c) No person may eliminate any approved exit except in accordance 
with the following:
    (1) The previously authorized maximum number of occupants must be 
reduced by the same number of additional occupants authorized for that 
exit under this section.
    (2) Exits must be eliminated in accordance with the following 
priority schedule: First, non-over-wing window exits; second, over-wing 
window exits; third, floor-level exits located in the forward part of 
the cabin; and fourth, floor-level exits located in the rear of the 
cabin.
    (3) At least one exit must be retained on each side of the fuselage 
regardless of the number of occupants.
    (4) No person may remove any exit that would result in a ratio of 
maximum number of occupants to approved exits greater than 14:1.
    (d) This section does not relieve any person operating under part 
121 of this chapter from complying with Sec. 121.291.



Sec. 91.609  Flight data recorders and cockpit voice recorders.

    (a) No holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an 
operating certificate may conduct any operation under this part with an 
aircraft listed in the holder's operations specifications or current 
list of aircraft used in air transportation unless that aircraft 
complies with any applicable flight recorder and cockpit voice recorder 
requirements of the part under which its certificate is issued except 
that the operator may--
    (1) Ferry an aircraft with an inoperative flight recorder or cockpit 
voice recorder from a place where repair or replacement cannot be made 
to a place where they can be made;
    (2) Continue a flight as originally planned, if the flight recorder 
or cockpit voice recorder becomes inoperative after the aircraft has 
taken off;
    (3) Conduct an airworthiness flight test during which the flight 
recorder or cockpit voice recorder is turned off to test it or to test 
any communications or electrical equipment installed in the aircraft; or

[[Page 755]]

    (4) Ferry a newly acquired aircraft from the place where possession 
of it is taken to a place where the flight recorder or cockpit voice 
recorder is to be installed.
    (b) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c) and (e) of this section, an 
operator other than the holder of an air carrier or a commercial 
operator certificate may--
    (1) Ferry an aircraft with an inoperative flight recorder or cockpit 
voice recorder from a place where repair or replacement cannot be made 
to a place where they can be made;
    (2) Continue a flight as originally planned if the flight recorder 
or cockpit voice recorder becomes inoperative after the aircraft has 
taken off;
    (3) Conduct an airworthiness flight test during which the flight 
recorder or cockpit voice recorder is turned off to test it or to test 
any communications or electrical equipment installed in the aircraft;
    (4) Ferry a newly acquired aircraft from a place where possession of 
it was taken to a place where the flight recorder or cockpit voice 
recorder is to be installed; or
    (5) Operate an aircraft:
    (i) For not more than 15 days while the flight recorder and/or 
cockpit voice recorder is inoperative and/or removed for repair provided 
that the aircraft maintenance records contain an entry that indicates 
the date of failure, and a placard is located in view of the pilot to 
show that the flight recorder or cockpit voice recorder is inoperative.
    (ii) For not more than an additional 15 days, provided that the 
requirements in paragraph (b)(5)(i) are met and that a certificated 
pilot, or a certificated person authorized to return an aircraft to 
service under Sec. 43.7 of this chapter, certifies in the aircraft 
maintenance records that additional time is required to complete repairs 
or obtain a replacement unit.
    (c)(1) No person may operate a U.S. civil registered, multiengine, 
turbine-powered airplane or rotorcraft having a passenger seating 
configuration, excluding any pilot seats of 10 or more that has been 
manufactured after October 11, 1991, unless it is equipped with one or 
more approved flight recorders that utilize a digital method of 
recording and storing data and a method of readily retrieving that data 
from the storage medium, that are capable of recording the data 
specified in appendix E to this part, for an airplane, or appendix F to 
this part, for a rotorcraft, of this part within the range, accuracy, 
and recording interval specified, and that are capable of retaining no 
less than 8 hours of aircraft operation.
    (2) All airplanes subject to paragraph (c)(1) of this section that 
are manufactured before April 7, 2010, by April 7, 2012, must meet the 
requirements of Sec. 23.1459(a)(7) or Sec. 25.1459(a)(8) of this 
chapter, as applicable.
    (3) All airplanes and rotorcraft subject to paragraph (c)(1) of this 
section that are manufactured on or after April 7, 2010, must meet the 
flight data recorder requirements of Sec. 23.1459, Sec. 25.1459, Sec. 
27.1459, or Sec. 29.1459 of this chapter, as applicable, and retain at 
least the last 25 hours of recorded information using a recorder that 
meets the standards of TSO-C124a, or later revision.
    (d) Whenever a flight recorder, required by this section, is 
installed, it must be operated continuously from the instant the 
airplane begins the takeoff roll or the rotorcraft begins lift-off until 
the airplane has completed the landing roll or the rotorcraft has landed 
at its destination.
    (e) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, after October 
11, 1991, no person may operate a U.S. civil registered multiengine, 
turbine-powered airplane or rotorcraft having a passenger seating 
configuration of six passengers or more and for which two pilots are 
required by type certification or operating rule unless it is equipped 
with an approved cockpit voice recorder that:
    (1) Is installed in compliance with Sec. 23.1457(a)(1) and (2), 
(b), (c), (d)(1)(i), (2) and (3), (e), (f), and (g); Sec. 25.1457(a)(1) 
and (2), (b), (c), (d)(1)(i), (2) and (3), (e), (f), and (g); Sec. 
27.1457(a)(1) and (2), (b), (c), (d)(1)(i), (2) and (3), (e), (f), and 
(g); or Sec. 29.1457(a)(1) and (2), (b), (c), (d)(1)(i), (2) and (3), 
(e), (f), and (g) of this chapter, as applicable; and
    (2) Is operated continuously from the use of the checklist before 
the flight to completion of the final checklist at the end of the 
flight.

[[Page 756]]

    (f) In complying with this section, an approved cockpit voice 
recorder having an erasure feature may be used, so that at any time 
during the operation of the recorder, information recorded more than 15 
minutes earlier may be erased or otherwise obliterated.
    (g) In the event of an accident or occurrence requiring immediate 
notification to the National Transportation Safety Board under 49 CFR 
part 830 of its regulations that results in the termination of the 
flight, any operator who has installed approved flight recorders and 
approved cockpit voice recorders shall keep the recorded information for 
at least 60 days or, if requested by the Administrator or the Board, for 
a longer period. Information obtained from the record is used to assist 
in determining the cause of accidents or occurrences in connection with 
the investigation under 49 CFR part 830. The Administrator does not use 
the cockpit voice recorder record in any civil penalty or certificate 
action.
    (h) All airplanes required by this section to have a cockpit voice 
recorder and a flight data recorder, that are manufactured before April 
7, 2010, must by April 7, 2012, have a cockpit voice recorder that 
also--
    (1) Meets the requirements of Sec. 23.1457(d)(6) or Sec. 
25.1457(d)(6) of this chapter, as applicable; and
    (2) If transport category, meets the requirements of Sec. 
25.1457(a)(3), (a)(4), and (a)(5) of this chapter.
    (i) All airplanes or rotorcraft required by this section to have a 
cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder, that are manufactured 
on or after April 7, 2010, must have a cockpit voice recorder installed 
that also--
    (1) Is installed in accordance with the requirements of Sec. 
23.1457 (except for paragraphs (a)(6) and (d)(5)); Sec. 25.1457 (except 
for paragraphs (a)(6) and (d)(5)); Sec. 27.1457 (except for paragraphs 
(a)(6) and (d)(5)); or Sec. 29.1457 (except for paragraphs (a)(6) and 
(d)(5)) of this chapter, as applicable; and
    (2) Retains at least the last 2 hours of recorded information using 
a recorder that meets the standards of TSO-C123a, or later revision.
    (3) For all airplanes or rotorcraft manufactured on or after April 
6, 2012, also meets the requirements of Sec. 23.1457(a)(6) and (d)(5); 
Sec. 25.1457(a)(6) and (d)(5); Sec. 27.1457(a)(6) and (d)(5); or Sec. 
29.1457(a)(6) and (d)(5) of this chapter, as applicable.
    (j) All airplanes or rotorcraft required by this section to have a 
cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder, that install datalink 
communication equipment on or after April 6, 2012, must record all 
datalink messages as required by the certification rule applicable to 
the aircraft.
    (k) An aircraft operated under this part under deviation authority 
from part 125 of this chapter must comply with all of the applicable 
flight data recorder requirements of part 125 applicable to the 
aircraft, notwithstanding such deviation authority.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34318, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-226, 
56 FR 51621, Oct. 11, 1991; Amdt. 91-228, 57 FR 19353, May 5, 1992; 
Amdt. 91-300, 73 FR 12564, Mar. 7, 2008; Amdt. 91-304, 73 FR 73178, Dec. 
2, 2008; Amdt. 91-300, 74 FR 32800, July 9, 2009; Amdt. 91-313, 75 FR 
17045, Apr. 5, 2010; Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 91-366, 87 FR 
75846, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 91.611  Authorization for ferry flight with one engine inoperative.

    (a) General. The holder of an air carrier operating certificate or 
an operating certificate issued under part 125 may conduct a ferry 
flight of a four-engine airplane or a turbine-engine-powered airplane 
equipped with three engines, with one engine inoperative, to a base for 
the purpose of repairing that engine subject to the following:
    (1) The airplane model has been test flown and found satisfactory 
for safe flight in accordance with paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, 
as appropriate. However, each operator who before November 19, 1966, has 
shown that a model of airplane with an engine inoperative is 
satisfactory for safe flight by a test flight conducted in accordance 
with performance data contained in the applicable Airplane Flight Manual 
under paragraph (a)(2) of this section need not repeat the test flight 
for that model.
    (2) The approved Airplane Flight Manual contains the following 
performance data and the flight is conducted in accordance with that 
data:
    (i) Maximum weight.

[[Page 757]]

    (ii) Center of gravity limits.
    (iii) Configuration of the inoperative propeller (if applicable).
    (iv) Runway length for takeoff (including temperature 
accountability).
    (v) Altitude range.
    (vi) Certificate limitations.
    (vii) Ranges of operational limits.
    (viii) Performance information.
    (ix) Operating procedures.
    (3) The operator has FAA approved procedures for the safe operation 
of the airplane, including specific requirements for--
    (i) Limiting the operating weight on any ferry flight to the minimum 
necessary for the flight plus the necessary reserve fuel load;
    (ii) A limitation that takeoffs must be made from dry runways 
unless, based on a showing of actual operating takeoff techniques on wet 
runways with one engine inoperative, takeoffs with full controllability 
from wet runways have been approved for the specific model aircraft and 
included in the Airplane Flight Manual:
    (iii) Operations from airports where the runways may require a 
takeoff or approach over populated areas; and
    (iv) Inspection procedures for determining the operating condition 
of the operative engines.
    (4) No person may take off an airplane under this section if--
    (i) The initial climb is over thickly populated areas; or
    (ii) Weather conditions at the takeoff or destination airport are 
less than those required for VFR flight.
    (5) Persons other than required flight crewmembers shall not be 
carried during the flight.
    (6) No person may use a flight crewmember for flight under this 
section unless that crewmember is thoroughly familiar with the operating 
procedures for one-engine inoperative ferry flight contained in the 
certificate holder's manual and the limitations and performance 
information in the Airplane Flight Manual.
    (b) Flight tests: reciprocating-engine-powered airplanes. The 
airplane performance of a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane with one 
engine inoperative must be determined by flight test as follows:
    (1) A speed not less than 1.3 VS1 must be chosen at which 
the airplane may be controlled satisfactorily in a climb with the 
critical engine inoperative (with its propeller removed or in a 
configuration desired by the operator and with all other engines 
operating at the maximum power determined in paragraph (b)(3) of this 
section.
    (2) The distance required to accelerate to the speed listed in 
paragraph (b)(1) of this section and to climb to 50 feet must be 
determined with--
    (i) The landing gear extended;
    (ii) The critical engine inoperative and its propeller removed or in 
a configuration desired by the operator; and
    (iii) The other engines operating at not more than maximum power 
established under paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
    (3) The takeoff, flight and landing procedures, such as the 
approximate trim settings, method of power application, maximum power, 
and speed must be established.
    (4) The performance must be determined at a maximum weight not 
greater than the weight that allows a rate of climb of at least 400 feet 
per minute in the en route configuration set forth in Sec. 25.67(d) of 
this chapter in effect on January 31, 1977, at an altitude of 5,000 
feet.
    (5) The performance must be determined using temperature 
accountability for the takeoff field length, computed in accordance with 
Sec. 25.61 of this chapter in effect on January 31, 1977.
    (c) Flight tests: Turbine-engine-powered airplanes. The airplane 
performance of a turbine-engine-powered airplane with one engine 
inoperative must be determined by flight tests, including at least three 
takeoff tests, in accordance with the following:
    (1) Takeoff speeds VR and V2, not less than 
the corresponding speeds under which the airplane was type certificated 
under Sec. 25.107 of this chapter, must be chosen at which the airplane 
may be controlled satisfactorily with the critical engine inoperative 
(with

[[Page 758]]

its propeller removed or in a configuration desired by the operator, if 
applicable) and with all other engines operating at not more than the 
power selected for type certification as set forth in Sec. 25.101 of 
this chapter.
    (2) The minimum takeoff field length must be the horizontal distance 
required to accelerate and climb to the 35-foot height at V2 
speed (including any additional speed increment obtained in the tests) 
multiplied by 115 percent and determined with--
    (i) The landing gear extended;
    (ii) The critical engine inoperative and its propeller removed or in 
a configuration desired by the operator (if applicable); and
    (iii) The other engine operating at not more than the power selected 
for type certification as set forth in Sec. 25.101 of this chapter.
    (3) The takeoff, flight, and landing procedures such as the 
approximate trim setting, method of power application, maximum power, 
and speed must be established. The airplane must be satisfactorily 
controllable during the entire takeoff run when operated according to 
these procedures.
    (4) The performance must be determined at a maximum weight not 
greater than the weight determined under Sec. 25.121(c) of this chapter 
but with--
    (i) The actual steady gradient of the final takeoff climb 
requirement not less than 1.2 percent at the end of the takeoff path 
with two critical engines inoperative; and
    (ii) The climb speed not less than the two-engine inoperative trim 
speed for the actual steady gradient of the final takeoff climb 
prescribed by paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section.
    (5) The airplane must be satisfactorily controllable in a climb with 
two critical engines inoperative. Climb performance may be shown by 
calculations based on, and equal in accuracy to, the results of testing.
    (6) The performance must be determined using temperature 
accountability for takeoff distance and final takeoff climb computed in 
accordance with Sec. 25.101 of this chapter.


For the purpose of paragraphs (c)(4) and (5) of this section, two 
critical engines means two adjacent engines on one side of an airplane 
with four engines, and the center engine and one outboard engine on an 
airplane with three engines.



Sec. 91.613  Materials for compartment interiors.

    (a) No person may operate an airplane that conforms to an amended or 
supplemental type certificate issued in accordance with SFAR No. 41 for 
a maximum certificated takeoff weight in excess of 12,500 pounds unless 
within 1 year after issuance of the initial airworthiness certificate 
under that SFAR the airplane meets the compartment interior requirements 
set forth in Sec. 25.853 (a), (b), (b-1), (b-2), and (b-3) of this 
chapter in effect on September 26, 1978.
    (b) Thermal/acoustic insulation materials. For transport category 
airplanes type certificated after January 1, 1958:
    (1) For airplanes manufactured before September 2, 2005, when 
thermal/acoustic insulation is installed in the fuselage as replacements 
after September 2, 2005, the insulation must meet the flame propagation 
requirements of Sec. 25.856 of this chapter, effective September 2, 
2003, if it is:
    (i) Of a blanket construction or
    (ii) Installed around air ducting.
    (2) For airplanes manufactured after September 2, 2005, thermal/
acoustic insulation materials installed in the fuselage must meet the 
flame propagation requirements of Sec. 25.856 of this chapter, 
effective September 2, 2003.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34318, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-279, 
68 FR 45083, July 31, 2003; Amdt. 91-290, 70 FR 77752, Dec. 30, 2005]



Sec. Sec. 91.615-91.699  [Reserved]



Subpart H_Foreign Aircraft Operations and Operations of U.S.-Registered 
Civil Aircraft Outside of the United States; and Rules Governing Persons 
                         on Board Such Aircraft

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34320, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.

[[Page 759]]



Sec. 91.701  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart applies to the operations of civil aircraft of U.S. 
registry outside of the United States and the operations of foreign 
civil aircraft within the United States.
    (b) Section 91.702 of this subpart also applies to each person on 
board an aircraft operated as follows:
    (1) A U.S. registered civil aircraft operated outside the United 
States;
    (2) Any aircraft operated outside the United States--
    (i) That has its next scheduled destination or last place of 
departure in the United States if the aircraft next lands in the United 
States; or
    (ii) If the aircraft lands in the United States with the individual 
still on the aircraft regardless of whether it was a scheduled or 
otherwise planned landing site.

[Doc. No. FAA-1998-4954, 64 FR 1079, Jan. 7, 1999]



Sec. 91.702  Persons on board.

    Section 91.11 of this part (Prohibitions on interference with 
crewmembers) applies to each person on board an aircraft.

[Doc. No. FAA-1998-4954, 64 FR 1079, Jan. 7, 1999]



Sec. 91.703  Operations of civil aircraft of U.S. registry outside of the United States.

    (a) Each person operating a civil aircraft of U.S. registry outside 
of the United States shall--
    (1) When over the high seas, comply with Annex 2 (Rules of the Air) 
to the Convention on International Civil Aviation and with Sec. Sec. 
91.117(c), 91.127, 91.129, and 91.131;
    (2) When within a foreign country, comply with the regulations 
relating to the flight and maneuver of aircraft there in force;
    (3) Except for Sec. Sec. 91.117(a), 91.307(b), 91.309, 91.323, and 
91.711, comply with this part so far as it is not inconsistent with 
applicable regulations of the foreign country where the aircraft is 
operated or Annex 2 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation; 
and
    (4) When operating within airspace designated as Reduced Vertical 
Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace, comply with Sec. 91.706.
    (5) For aircraft subject to ICAO Annex 16, carry on board the 
aircraft documents that summarize the noise operating characteristics 
and certifications of the aircraft that demonstrate compliance with this 
part and part 36 of this chapter.
    (b) Annex 2 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, Rules 
of the Air, Tenth Edition--July 2005, with Amendments through Amendment 
45, applicable November 10, 2016, is incorporated by reference into this 
section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 
5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than 
that specified in this section, the FAA must publish a document in the 
Federal Register and the material must be available to the public. All 
approved material is available for inspection at U.S. Department of 
Transportation, Docket Operations, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-
140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590 and is available 
from the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), Marketing and 
Customer Relations Unit, 999 Robert Bourassa Boulevard, Montreal, Quebec 
H3C 5H7, Canada; http://store1.icao.int/; or by contacting the ICAO 
Marketing and Customer Relations Unit by telephone at 514-954-8022 or by 
email at [email protected]. For questions about ICAO Annex 2, contact the 
FAA's Office of International Affairs at (202) 267-1000. It is also 
available for inspection at the National Archives and Records 
Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this 
material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to http://www.archives.gov/
federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.

[Doc. No. 18834, 54 FR 34320, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 
56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-254, 62 FR 17487, Apr. 9, 1997; 69 
FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004; Amdt. 91-299, 73 FR 10143, Feb. 26, 2008; Amdt. 
91-312, 75 FR 9333, Mar. 2, 2010; Docket FAA-2016-9154, Amdt. 91-348, 82 
FR 39664, Aug. 22, 2017]

[[Page 760]]



Sec. 91.705  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.706  Operations within airspace designed as Reduced Vertical
Separation Minimum Airspace.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person 
may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry in airspace designated as 
Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace unless:
    (1) The operator and the operator's aircraft comply with the 
requirements of appendix G of this part; and
    (2) The operator is authorized by the Administrator to conduct such 
operations.
    (b) The Administrator may authorize a deviation from the 
requirements of this section in accordance with Section 5 of appendix G 
to this part.

[Doc. No. 28870, 62 FR 17487, Apr. 9, 1997]



Sec. 91.707  Flights between Mexico or Canada and the United States.

    Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate a civil 
aircraft between Mexico or Canada and the United States without filing 
an IFR or VFR flight plan, as appropriate.



Sec. 91.709  Operations to Cuba.

    No person may operate a civil aircraft from the United States to 
Cuba unless--
    (a) Departure is from an international airport of entry designated 
in Sec. 6.13 of the Air Commerce Regulations of the Bureau of Customs 
(19 CFR 6.13); and
    (b) In the case of departure from any of the 48 contiguous States or 
the District of Columbia, the pilot in command of the aircraft has 
filed--
    (1) A DVFR or IFR flight plan as prescribed in Sec. 99.11 or Sec. 
99.13 of this chapter; and
    (2) A written statement, within 1 hour before departure, with the 
Office of Immigration and Naturalization Service at the airport of 
departure, containing--
    (i) All information in the flight plan;
    (ii) The name of each occupant of the aircraft;
    (iii) The number of occupants of the aircraft; and
    (iv) A description of the cargo, if any.


This section does not apply to the operation of aircraft by a scheduled 
air carrier over routes authorized in operations specifications issued 
by the Administrator.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)



Sec. 91.711  Special rules for foreign civil aircraft.

    (a) General. In addition to the other applicable regulations of this 
part, each person operating a foreign civil aircraft within the United 
States shall comply with this section.
    (b) VFR. No person may conduct VFR operations which require two-way 
radio communications under this part unless at least one crewmember of 
that aircraft is able to conduct two-way radio communications in the 
English language and is on duty during that operation.
    (c) IFR. No person may operate a foreign civil aircraft under IFR 
unless--
    (1) That aircraft is equipped with--
    (i) Radio equipment allowing two-way radio communication with ATC 
when it is operated in controlled airspace; and
    (ii) Navigation equipment suitable for the route to be flown.
    (2) Each person piloting the aircraft--
    (i) Holds a current United States instrument rating or is authorized 
by his foreign airman certificate to pilot under IFR; and
    (ii) Is thoroughly familiar with the United States en route, 
holding, and letdown procedures; and
    (3) At least one crewmember of that aircraft is able to conduct two-
way radiotelephone communications in the English language and that 
crewmember is on duty while the aircraft is approaching, operating 
within, or leaving the United States.
    (d) Over water. Each person operating a foreign civil aircraft over 
water off the shores of the United States shall give flight notification 
or file a flight plan in accordance with the Supplementary Procedures 
for the ICAO region concerned.
    (e) Flight at and above FL 240. If VOR navigation equipment is 
required under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, no

[[Page 761]]

person may operate a foreign civil aircraft within the 50 States and the 
District of Columbia at or above FL 240, unless the aircraft is equipped 
with approved DME or a suitable RNAV system. When the DME or RNAV system 
required by this paragraph fails at and above FL 240, the pilot in 
command of the aircraft must notify ATC immediately and may then 
continue operations at and above FL 240 to the next airport of intended 
landing where repairs or replacement of the equipment can be made. A 
foreign civil aircraft may be operated within the 50 States and the 
District of Columbia at or above FL 240 without DME or an RNAV system 
when operated for the following purposes, and ATC is notified before 
each takeoff:
    (1) Ferry flights to and from a place in the United States where 
repairs or alterations are to be made.
    (2) Ferry flights to a new country of registry.
    (3) Flight of a new aircraft of U.S. manufacture for the purpose 
of--
    (i) Flight testing the aircraft;
    (ii) Training foreign flight crews in the operation of the aircraft; 
or
    (iii) Ferrying the aircraft for export delivery outside the United 
States.
    (4) Ferry, demonstration, and test flight of an aircraft brought to 
the United States for the purpose of demonstration or testing the whole 
or any part thereof.

[Doc. No. 18834, 54 FR 34320, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 
56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 91.713  Operation of civil aircraft of Cuban registry.

    No person may operate a civil aircraft of Cuban registry except in 
controlled airspace and in accordance with air traffic clearance or air 
traffic control instructions that may require use of specific airways or 
routes and landings at specific airports.



Sec. 91.715  Special flight authorizations for foreign civil aircraft.

    (a) Foreign civil aircraft may be operated without airworthiness 
certificates required under Sec. 91.203 if a special flight 
authorization for that operation is issued under this section. 
Application for a special flight authorization must be made to the 
appropriate Flight Standards Division Manager, or Aircraft Certification 
Service Division Director. However, in the case of an aircraft to be 
operated in the U.S. for the purpose of demonstration at an airshow, the 
application may be made to the appropriate Flight Standards Division 
Manager or Aircraft Certification Service Division Director responsible 
for the airshow location.
    (b) The Administrator may issue a special flight authorization for a 
foreign civil aircraft subject to any conditions and limitations that 
the Administrator considers necessary for safe operation in the U.S. 
airspace.
    (c) No person may operate a foreign civil aircraft under a special 
flight authorization unless that operation also complies with part 375 
of the Special Regulations of the Department of Transportation (14 CFR 
part 375).

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34320, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-212, 
54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 
9171, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. Sec. 91.717-91.799  [Reserved]



                    Subpart I_Operating Noise Limits

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34321, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.801  Applicability: Relation to part 36.

    (a) This subpart prescribes operating noise limits and related 
requirements that apply, as follows, to the operation of civil aircraft 
in the United States.
    (1) Sections 91.803, 91.805, 91.807, 91.809, and 91.811 apply to 
civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplanes with maximum weights of more 
than 75,000 pounds and--
    (i) If U.S. registered, that have standard airworthiness 
certificates; or
    (ii) If foreign registered, that would be required by this chapter 
to have a U.S. standard airworthiness certificate in order to conduct 
the operations intended for the airplane were it registered in the 
United States. Those sections apply to operations to or from airports in 
the United States under

[[Page 762]]

this part and parts 121, 125, 129, and 135 of this chapter.
    (2) Section 91.813 applies to U.S. operators of civil subsonic jet 
(turbojet) airplanes covered by this subpart. This section applies to 
operators operating to or from airports in the United States under this 
part and parts 121, 125, and 135, but not to those operating under part 
129 of this chapter.
    (3) Sections 91.803, 91.819, and 91.821 apply to U.S.-registered 
civil supersonic airplanes having standard airworthiness certificates 
and to foreign-registered civil supersonic airplanes that, if registered 
in the United States, would be required by this chapter to have U.S. 
standard airworthiness certificates in order to conduct the operations 
intended for the airplane. Those sections apply to operations under this 
part and under parts 121, 125, 129, and 135 of this chapter.
    (b) Unless otherwise specified, as used in this subpart ``part 36'' 
refers to 14 CFR part 36, including the noise levels under appendix C of 
that part, notwithstanding the provisions of that part excepting certain 
airplanes from the specified noise requirements. For purposes of this 
subpart, the various stages of noise levels, the terms used to describe 
airplanes with respect to those levels, and the terms ``subsonic 
airplane'' and ``supersonic airplane'' have the meanings specified under 
part 36 of this chapter. For purposes of this subpart, for subsonic 
airplanes operated in foreign air commerce in the United States, the 
Administrator may accept compliance with the noise requirements under 
annex 16 of the International Civil Aviation Organization when those 
requirements have been shown to be substantially compatible with, and 
achieve results equivalent to those achievable under, part 36 for that 
airplane. Determinations made under these provisions are subject to the 
limitations of Sec. 36.5 of this chapter as if those noise levels were 
part 36 noise levels.
    (c) Sections 91.851 through 91.877 of this subpart prescribe 
operating noise limits and related requirements that apply to any civil 
subsonic jet (turbojet) airplane (for which an airworthiness certificate 
other than an experimental certificate has been issued by the 
Administrator) with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 
75,000 pounds operating to or from an airport in the 48 contiguous 
United States and the District of Columbia under this part, parts 121, 
125, 129, or 135 of this chapter on and after September 25, 1991.
    (d) Section 91.877 prescribes reporting requirements that apply to 
any civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplane with a maximum weight of more 
than 75,000 pounds operated by an air carrier or foreign air carrier 
between the contiguous United States and the State of Hawaii, between 
the State of Hawaii and any point outside of the 48 contiguous United 
States, or between the islands of Hawaii in turnaround service, under 
part 121 or 129 of this chapter on or after November 5, 1990.
    (e) Sections 91.881 through 91.883 of this subpart prescribe 
operating noise limits and related requirements that apply to any civil 
subsonic jet airplane with a maximum takeoff weight of 75,000 pounds or 
less and for which an airworthiness certificate (other than an 
experimental certificate) has been issued, operating to or from an 
airport in the contiguous United States under this part, part 121, 125, 
129, or 135 of this chapter on and after December 31, 2015.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34321, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 91-211, 54 FR 41211, 
Oct. 5, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-225, 56 FR 48658, Sept. 25, 1991; 
Amdt. 91-252, 61 FR 66185, Dec. 16, 1996; Amdt. 91-275, 67 FR 45237, 
July 8, 2002; Amdt. 91-276, 67 FR 46571, July 15, 2002; Amdt. 91-328, 78 
FR 39583, July 2, 2013]



Sec. 91.803  Part 125 operators: Designation of applicable regulations.

    For airplanes covered by this subpart and operated under part 125 of 
this chapter, the following regulations apply as specified:
    (a) For each airplane operation to which requirements prescribed 
under this subpart applied before November 29, 1980, those requirements 
of this subpart continue to apply.
    (b) For each subsonic airplane operation to which requirements 
prescribed under this subpart did not apply before November 29, 1980, 
because the airplane was not operated in the United States under this 
part or part 121, 129, or 135 of

[[Page 763]]

this chapter, the requirements prescribed under Sec. 91.805 of this 
subpart apply.
    (c) For each supersonic airplane operation to which requirements 
prescribed under this subpart did not apply before November 29, 1980, 
because the airplane was not operated in the United States under this 
part or part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter, the requirements of 
Sec. Sec. 91.819 and 91.821 of this subpart apply.
    (d) For each airplane required to operate under part 125 for which a 
deviation under that part is approved to operate, in whole or in part, 
under this part or part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter, 
notwithstanding the approval, the requirements prescribed under 
paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section continue to apply.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34321, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-276, 
67 FR 46571, July 15, 2002]



Sec. 91.805  Final compliance: Subsonic airplanes.

    Except as provided in Sec. Sec. 91.809 and 91.811, on and after 
January 1, 1985, no person may operate to or from an airport in the 
United States any subsonic airplane covered by this subpart unless that 
airplane has been shown to comply with Stage 2 or Stage 3 noise levels 
under part 36 of this chapter.



Sec. Sec. 91.807-91.813  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.815  Agricultural and fire fighting airplanes: Noise operating limitations.

    (a) This section applies to propeller-driven, small airplanes having 
standard airworthiness certificates that are designed for ``agricultural 
aircraft operations'' (as defined in Sec. 137.3 of this chapter, as 
effective on January 1, 1966) or for dispensing fire fighting materials.
    (b) If the Airplane Flight Manual, or other approved manual material 
information, markings, or placards for the airplane indicate that the 
airplane has not been shown to comply with the noise limits under part 
36 of this chapter, no person may operate that airplane, except--
    (1) To the extent necessary to accomplish the work activity directly 
associated with the purpose for which it is designed;
    (2) To provide flight crewmember training in the special purpose 
operation for which the airplane is designed; and
    (3) To conduct ``nondispensing aerial work operations'' in 
accordance with the requirements under Sec. 137.29(c) of this chapter.



Sec. 91.817  Civil aircraft sonic boom.

    (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft in the United States at a 
true flight Mach number greater than 1 except in compliance with 
conditions and limitations in an authorization to exceed Mach 1 issued 
to the operator in accordance with Sec. 91.818.
    (b) In addition, no person may operate a civil aircraft for which 
the maximum operating limit speed MM0 exceeds a Mach number 
of 1, to or from an airport in the United States, unless--
    (1) Information available to the flight crew includes flight 
limitations that ensure that flights entering or leaving the United 
States will not cause a sonic boom to reach the surface within the 
United States; and
    (2) The operator complies with the flight limitations prescribed in 
paragraph (b)(1) of this section or complies with conditions and 
limitations in an authorization to exceed Mach 1 issued in accordance 
with Sec. 91.818.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)

[Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34321, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. No. 
91-362, 86 FR 3792, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 91.818  Special flight authorization to exceed Mach 1.

    For all civil aircraft, any operation that exceeds Mach 1 may be 
conducted only in accordance with a special flight authorization issued 
to an operator in accordance with the requirements of this section.
    (a) Application. Application for a special flight authorization to 
exceed Mach 1 must be made to the FAA Office of Environment and Energy 
for consideration by the Administrator. Each application must include:
    (1) The name of the operator;

[[Page 764]]

    (2) The number and model(s) of the aircraft to be operated;
    (3) The number of proposed flights;
    (4) The date range during which the flight(s) would be conducted;
    (5) The time of day the flight(s) would be conducted. Proposed night 
operations may require further justification for their necessity;
    (6) A description of the flight area requested by the applicant, 
including any environmental information required to be submitted 
pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section;
    (7) All conditions and limitations on the flight(s) that will ensure 
that no measurable sonic boom overpressure will reach the surface 
outside of the proposed flight area; and
    (8) The reason(s) that operation at a speed greater than Mach 1 is 
necessary. A special flight authorization to exceed Mach 1 may be 
granted only for operations that are intended to:
    (i) Show compliance with airworthiness requirements;
    (ii) Determine the sonic boom characteristics of an aircraft;
    (iii) Establish a means of reducing or eliminating the effects of 
sonic boom, including flight profiles and special features of an 
aircraft;
    (iv) Demonstrate the conditions and limitations under which speeds 
in excess of Mach 1 will not cause a measurable sonic boom overpressure 
to reach the surface; or
    (v) Measure the noise characteristics of an aircraft to demonstrate 
compliance with noise requirements imposed under this chapter, or to 
determine the limits for operation in accordance with Sec. 91.817(b).
    (9) For any purpose listed in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, each 
applicant must indicate why its intended operation cannot be safely or 
properly accomplished over the ocean at a distance ensuring that no 
sonic boom overpressure reaches any land surface in the United States.
    (b) Operation outside a test area. An applicant may apply for an 
authorization to conduct flights outside a test area under certain 
conditions and limitations upon a conservative showing that:
    (1) Flight(s) within a test area have been conducted in accordance 
with an authorization issued for the purpose specified in paragraph 
(a)(8)(iv) of this section;
    (2) The results of the flight test(s) required by paragraph (b)(1) 
of this section demonstrate that a speed in excess of Mach 1 does not 
cause a measurable sonic boom overpressure to reach the surface; and
    (3) The conditions and limitations determined by the test(s) 
represent all foreseeable operating conditions and are effective on all 
flights conducted under an authorization.
    (c) Environmental findings. (1) No special flight authorization will 
be granted if the Administrator finds that such action is necessary to 
protect or enhance the environment.
    (2) The Administrator is required to consider the potential 
environmental impacts resulting from the issuance of an authorization 
for a particular flight area pursuant to the National Environmental 
Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C 4321 et seq.), all applicable 
regulations implementing NEPA, and related Executive orders and 
guidance. Accordingly, each applicant must provide information that 
sufficiently describes the potential environmental impact of any flight 
in excess of Mach 1, including the effect of a sonic boom reaching the 
surface in the proposed flight area, to enable the FAA to determine 
whether such impacts are significant within the meaning of NEPA.
    (d) Issuance. An authorization to operate a civil aircraft in excess 
of Mach 1 may be issued only after an applicant has submitted the 
information described in this section and the Administrator has taken 
the required action regarding the environmental findings described in 
paragraph (c) of this section.
    (e) Duration. (1) An authorization to exceed Mach 1 will be granted 
for the time the Administrator determines necessary to conduct the 
flights for the described purposes.
    (2) An authorization to exceed Mach 1 is effective until it expires 
or is surrendered.
    (3) An authorization to exceed Mach 1 may be terminated, suspended, 
or amended by the Administrator at any time the Administrator finds that 
such

[[Page 765]]

action is necessary to protect the environment.
    (4) The holder of an authorization to exceed Mach 1 may request 
reconsideration of a termination, amendment, or suspension issued under 
paragraph (e)(3) of this section within 30 days of notice of the action. 
Failure to request reconsideration and provide information why the 
Administrator's action is not appropriate will result in permanent 
termination of the authorization.
    (5) Findings made by and actions taken by the Administrator under 
this section do not affect any certificate issued under chapter 447 of 
Title 49 of the United States Code.

[Docket No. FAA-2019-0451; Amdt. No. 91-362, 86 FR 3792, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 91.819  Civil supersonic airplanes that do not comply with part 36.

    (a) Applicability. This section applies to civil supersonic 
airplanes that have not been shown to comply with the Stage 2 noise 
limits of part 36 in effect on October 13, 1977, using applicable trade-
off provisions, and that are operated in the United States, after July 
31, 1978.
    (b) Airport use. Except in an emergency, the following apply to each 
person who operates a civil supersonic airplane to or from an airport in 
the United States:
    (1) Regardless of whether a type design change approval is applied 
for under part 21 of this chapter, no person may land or take off an 
airplane covered by this section for which the type design is changed, 
after July 31, 1978, in a manner constituting an ``acoustical change'' 
under Sec. 21.93 unless the acoustical change requirements of part 36 
are complied with.
    (2) No flight may be scheduled, or otherwise planned, for takeoff or 
landing after 10 p.m. and before 7 a.m. local time.



Sec. 91.821  Civil supersonic airplanes: Noise limits.

    Except for Concorde airplanes having flight time before January 1, 
1980, no person may operate in the United States, a civil supersonic 
airplane that does not comply with Stage 2 noise limits of part 36 in 
effect on October 13, 1977, using applicable trade-off provisions.



Sec. Sec. 91.823-91.849  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.851  Definitions.

    For the purposes of Sec. Sec. 91.851 through 91.877 of this 
subpart:
    Chapter 4 noise level means a noise level at or below the maximum 
noise level prescribed in Chapter 4, Paragraph 4.4, Maximum Noise 
Levels, of the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Annex 
16, Volume I, Amendment 7, effective March 21, 2002. The Director of the 
Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51 
approved the incorporation by reference of this document, which can be 
obtained from the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), 
Document Sales Unit, 999 University Street, Montreal, Quebec H3C 5H7, 
Canada. Also, you may obtain documents on the Internet at http://
www.ICAO.int/eshop/index.cfm. Copies may be reviewed at the U.S. 
Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, West Building Ground 
Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590 
or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For 
information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-
6030, or go to: http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/
code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.
    Contiguous United States means the area encompassed by the 48 
contiguous United States and the District of Columbia.
    Fleet means those civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplanes with a 
maximum certificated weight of more than 75,000 pounds that are listed 
on an operator's operations specifications as eligible for operation in 
the contiguous United States.
    Import means a change in ownership of an airplane from a non-U.S. 
person to a U.S. person when the airplane is brought into the United 
States for operation.
    Operations specifications means an enumeration of airplanes by type, 
model, series, and serial number operated by the operator or foreign air 
carrier on a given day, regardless of how

[[Page 766]]

or whether such airplanes are formally listed or designated by the 
operator.
    Owner means any person that has indicia of ownership sufficient to 
register the airplane in the United States pursuant to part 47 of this 
chapter.
    New entrant means an air carrier or foreign air carrier that, on or 
before November 5, 1990, did not conduct operations under part 121 or 
129 of this chapter using an airplane covered by this subpart to or from 
any airport in the contiguous United States, but that initiates such 
operation after that date.
    Stage 2 noise levels mean the requirements for Stage 2 noise levels 
as defined in part 36 of this chapter in effect on November 5, 1990.
    Stage 3 noise levels mean the requirements for Stage 3 noise levels 
as defined in part 36 of this chapter in effect on November 5, 1990.
    Stage 4 noise level means a noise level at or below the Stage 4 
noise limit prescribed in part 36 of this chapter.
    Stage 2 airplane means a civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplane with 
a maximum certificated weight of 75,000 pounds or more that complies 
with Stage 2 noise levels as defined in part 36 of this chapter.
    Stage 3 airplane means a civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplane with 
a maximum certificated weight of 75,000 pounds or more that complies 
with Stage 3 noise levels as defined in part 36 of this chapter.
    Stage 4 airplane means an airplane that has been shown not to exceed 
the Stage 4 noise limit prescribed in part 36 of this chapter. A Stage 4 
airplane complies with all of the noise operating rules of this part.
    Stage 5 airplane means an airplane that has been shown not to exceed 
the Stage 5 noise limit prescribed in part 36 of this chapter. A Stage 5 
airplane complies with all of the noise operating rules of this part.
    Stage 5 noise level means a noise level at or below the Stage 5 
noise limit prescribed in part 36 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48658, Sept. 25, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-
252, 61 FR 66185, Dec. 16, 1996; Amdt. 91-275, 67 FR 45237, July 8, 
2002; Amdt. 91-288, 70 FR 38749, July 5, 2005; 72 FR 68475, Dec. 5, 
2007; Docket FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. 91-349, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017]



Sec. 91.853  Final compliance: Civil subsonic airplanes.

    Except as provided in Sec. 91.873, after December 31, 1999, no 
person shall operate to or from any airport in the contiguous United 
States any airplane subject to Sec. 91.801(c), unless that airplane has 
been shown to comply with Stage 3, Stage 4, or Stage 5 noise levels.

[Docket FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. 91-349, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017]



Sec. 91.855  Entry and nonaddition rule.

    No person may operate any airplane subject to Sec. 91.801(c) of 
this subpart to or from an airport in the contiguous United States 
unless one or more of the following apply:
    (a) The airplane complies with Stage 3, Stage 4, or Stage 5 noise 
levels.
    (b) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels and was owned by 
a U.S. person on and since November 5, 1990. Stage 2 airplanes that meet 
these criteria and are leased to foreign airlines are also subject to 
the return provisions of paragraph (e) of this section.
    (c) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels, is owned by a 
non-U.S. person, and is the subject of a binding lease to a U.S. person 
effective before and on September 25, 1991. Any such airplane may be 
operated for the term of the lease in effect on that date, and any 
extensions thereof provided for in that lease.
    (d) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels and is operated 
by a foreign air carrier.
    (e) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels and is operated 
by a foreign operator other than for the purpose of foreign air 
commerce.
    (f) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels and--
    (1) On November 5, 1990, was owned by:
    (i) A corporation, trust, or partnership organized under the laws of 
the United States or any State (including individual States, 
territories, possessions, and the District of Columbia);
    (ii) An individual who is a citizen of the United States; or
    (iii) An entity owned or controlled by a corporation, trust, 
partnership, or individual described in paragraph (f)(1) (i) or (ii) of 
this section; and

[[Page 767]]

    (2) Enters into the United States not later than 6 months after the 
expiration of a lease agreement (including any extensions thereof) 
between an owner described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section and a 
foreign airline.
    (g) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels and was 
purchased by the importer under a written contract executed before 
November 5, 1990.
    (h) Any Stage 2 airplane described in this section is eligible for 
operation in the contiguous United States only as provided under Sec. 
91.865 or 91.867.

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48658, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 51167, Oct. 10, 
1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-288, 70 FR 38750, July 5, 2005; Docket FAA-
2015-3782, Amdt. 91-349, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017]



Sec. 91.857  Stage 2 operations outside of the 48 contiguous
United States.

    An operator of a Stage 2 airplane that is operating only between 
points outside the contiguous United States on or after November 5, 
1990, must include in its operations specifications a statement that 
such airplane may not be used to provide air transportation to or from 
any airport in the contiguous United States.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12771, 67 FR 46571, July 15, 2002]



Sec. 91.858  Special flight authorizations for non-revenue 
Stage 2 operations.

    (a) After December 31, 1999, any operator of a Stage 2 airplane over 
75,000 pounds may operate that airplane in nonrevenue service in the 
contiguous United States only for the following purposes:
    (1) Sell, lease, or scrap the airplane;
    (2) Obtain modifications to meet Stage 3, Stage 4, or Stage 5 noise 
levels.
    (3) Obtain scheduled heavy maintenance or significant modifications;
    (4) Deliver the airplane to a lessee or return it to a lessor;
    (5) Park or store the airplane; and
    (6) Prepare the airplane for any of the purposes listed in paragraph 
(a)(1) thru (a)(5) of this section.
    (b) An operator of a Stage 2 airplane that needs to operate in the 
contiguous United States for any of the purposes listed above may apply 
to FAA's Office of Environment and Energy for a special flight 
authorization. The applicant must file in advance. Applications are due 
30 days in advance of the planned flight and must provide the 
information necessary for the FAA to determine that the planned flight 
is within the limits prescribed in the law.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12771, 67 FR 46571, July 15, 2002, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. 91-349, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017]



Sec. 91.859  Modification to meet Stage 3, Stage 4, or Stage
5 noise levels.

    For an airplane subject to Sec. 91.801(c) of this subpart and 
otherwise prohibited from operation to or from an airport in the 
contiguous United States by Sec. 91.855, any person may apply for a 
special flight authorization for that airplane to operate in the 
contiguous United States for the purpose of obtaining modifications to 
meet Stage 3, Stage 4, or Stage 5 noise levels.

[Docket FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. 91-349, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017]



Sec. 91.861  Base level.

    (a) U.S. Operators. The base level of a U.S. operator is equal to 
the number of owned or leased Stage 2 airplanes subject to Sec. 
91.801(c) of this subpart that were listed on that operator's operations 
specifications for operations to or from airports in the contiguous 
United States on any one day selected by the operator during the period 
January 1, 1990, through July 1, 1991, plus or minus adjustments made 
pursuant to paragraphs (a) (1) and (2).
    (1) The base level of a U.S. operator shall be increased by a number 
equal to the total of the following--
    (i) The number of Stage 2 airplanes returned to service in the 
United States pursuant to Sec. 91.855(f);
    (ii) The number of Stage 2 airplanes purchased pursuant to Sec. 
91.855(g); and
    (iii) Any U.S. operator base level acquired with a Stage 2 airplane 
transferred from another person under Sec. 91.863.
    (2) The base level of a U.S. operator shall be decreased by the 
amount of U.S. operator base level transferred with the corresponding 
number of Stage 2 airplanes to another person under Sec. 91.863.
    (b) Foreign air carriers. The base level of a foreign air carrier is 
equal to

[[Page 768]]

the number of owned or leased Stage 2 airplanes that were listed on that 
carrier's U.S. operations specifications on any one day during the 
period January 1, 1990, through July 1, 1991, plus or minus any 
adjustments to the base levels made pursuant to paragraphs (b) (1) and 
(2).
    (1) The base level of a foreign air carrier shall be increased by 
the amount of foreign air carrier base level acquired with a Stage 2 
airplane from another person under Sec. 91.863.
    (2) The base level of a foreign air carrier shall be decreased by 
the amount of foreign air carrier base level transferred with a Stage 2 
airplane to another person under Sec. 91.863.
    (c) New entrants do not have a base level.

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 51167, Oct. 10, 
1991]



Sec. 91.863  Transfers of Stage 2 airplanes with base level.

    (a) Stage 2 airplanes may be transferred with or without the 
corresponding amount of base level. Base level may not be transferred 
without the corresponding number of Stage 2 airplanes.
    (b) No portion of a U.S. operator's base level established under 
Sec. 91.861(a) may be used for operations by a foreign air carrier. No 
portion of a foreign air carrier's base level established under Sec. 
91.861(b) may be used for operations by a U.S. operator.
    (c) Whenever a transfer of Stage 2 airplanes with base level occurs, 
the transferring and acquiring parties shall, within 10 days, jointly 
submit written notification of the transfer to the FAA, Office of 
Environment and Energy. Such notification shall state:
    (1) The names of the transferring and acquiring parties;
    (2) The name, address, and telephone number of the individual 
responsible for submitting the notification on behalf of the 
transferring and acquiring parties;
    (3) The total number of Stage 2 airplanes transferred, listed by 
airplane type, model, series, and serial number;
    (4) The corresponding amount of base level transferred and whether 
it is U.S. operator or foreign air carrier base level; and
    (5) The effective date of the transaction.
    (d) If, taken as a whole, a transaction or series of transactions 
made pursuant to this section does not produce an increase or decrease 
in the number of Stage 2 airplanes for either the acquiring or 
transferring operator, such transaction or series of transactions may 
not be used to establish compliance with the requirements of Sec. 
91.865.

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991]



Sec. 91.865  Phased compliance for operators with base level.

    Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, each operator 
that operates an airplane under part 91, 121, 125, 129, or 135 of this 
chapter, regardless of the national registry of the airplane, shall 
comply with paragraph (b) or (d) of this section at each interim 
compliance date with regard to its subsonic airplane fleet covered by 
Sec. 91.801(c) of this subpart.
    (a) This section does not apply to new entrants covered by Sec. 
91.867 or to foreign operators not engaged in foreign air commerce.
    (b) Each operator that chooses to comply with this paragraph 
pursuant to any interim compliance requirement shall reduce the number 
of Stage 2 airplanes it operates that are eligible for operation in the 
contiguous United States to a maximum of:
    (1) After December 31, 1994, 75 percent of the base level held by 
the operator;
    (2) After December 31, 1996, 50 percent of the base level held by 
the operator;
    (3) After December 31, 1998, 25 percent of the base level held by 
the operator.
    (c) Except as provided under Sec. 91.871, the number of Stage 2 
airplanes that must be reduced at each compliance date contained in 
paragraph (b) of this section shall be determined by reference to the 
amount of base level held by the operator on that compliance date, as 
calculated under Sec. 91.861.
    (d) Each operator that chooses to comply with this paragraph 
pursuant to any interim compliance requirement shall operate a fleet 
that consists of:
    (1) After December 31, 1994, not less than 55 percent Stage 3 
airplanes;
    (2) After December 31, 1996, not less than 65 percent Stage 3 
airplanes;

[[Page 769]]

    (3) After December 31, 1998, not less than 75 percent Stage 3 
airplanes.
    (e) Calculations resulting in fractions may be rounded to permit the 
continued operation of the next whole number of Stage 2 airplanes.

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991]



Sec. 91.867  Phased compliance for new entrants.

    (a) New entrant U.S. air carriers.
    (1) A new entrant initiating operations under part 121 of this 
chapter on or before December 31, 1994, may initiate service without 
regard to the percentage of its fleet composed of Stage 3 airplanes.
    (2) After December 31, 1994, at least 25 percent of the fleet of a 
new entrant must comply with Stage 3 noise levels.
    (3) After December 31, 1996, at least 50 percent of the fleet of a 
new entrant must comply with Stage 3 noise levels.
    (4) After December 31, 1998, at least 75 percent of the fleet of a 
new entrant must comply with Stage 3 noise levels.
    (b) New entrant foreign air carriers.
    (1) A new entrant foreign air carrier initiating part 129 operations 
on or before December 31, 1994, may initiate service without regard to 
the percentage of its fleet composed of Stage 3 airplanes.
    (2) After December 31, 1994, at least 25 percent of the fleet on 
U.S. operations specifications of a new entrant foreign air carrier must 
comply with Stage 3 noise levels.
    (3) After December 31, 1996, at least 50 percent of the fleet on 
U.S. operations specifications of a new entrant foreign air carrier must 
comply with Stage 3 noise levels.
    (4) After December 31, 1998, at least 75 percent of the fleet on 
U.S. operations specifications of a new entrant foreign air carrier must 
comply with Stage 3 noise levels.
    (c) Calculations resulting in fractions may be rounded to permit the 
continued operation of the next whole number of Stage 2 airplanes.

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-
252, 61 FR 66185, Dec. 16, 1996]



Sec. 91.869  Carry-forward compliance.

    (a) Any operator that exceeds the requirements of paragraph (b) of 
Sec. 91.865 of this part on or before December 31, 1994, or on or 
before December 31, 1996, may claim a credit that may be applied at a 
subsequent interim compliance date.
    (b) Any operator that eliminates or modifies more Stage 2 airplanes 
pursuant to Sec. 91.865(b) than required as of December 31, 1994, or 
December 31, 1996, may count the number of additional Stage 2 airplanes 
reduced as a credit toward--
    (1) The number of Stage 2 airplanes it would otherwise be required 
to reduce following a subsequent interim compliance date specified in 
Sec. 91.865(b); or
    (2) The number of Stage 3 airplanes it would otherwise be required 
to operate in its fleet following a subsequent interim compliance date 
to meet the percentage requirements specified in Sec. 91.865(d).

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 65783, Dec. 18, 
1991]



Sec. 91.871  Waivers from interim compliance requirements.

    (a) Any U.S. operator or foreign air carrier subject to the 
requirements of Sec. 91.865 or 91.867 of this subpart may request a 
waiver from any individual compliance requirement.
    (b) Applications must be filed with the Secretary of Transportation 
at least 120 days prior to the compliance date from which the waiver is 
requested.
    (c) Applicants must show that a grant of waiver would be in the 
public interest, and must include in its application its plans and 
activities for modifying its fleet, including evidence of good faith 
efforts to comply with the requirements of Sec. 91.865 or Sec. 91.867. 
The application should contain all information the applicant considers 
relevant, including, as appropriate, the following:
    (1) The applicant's balance sheet and cash flow positions;
    (2) The composition of the applicant's current fleet; and
    (3) The applicant's delivery position with respect to new airplanes 
or noise-abatement equipment.
    (d) Waivers will be granted only upon a showing by the applicant 
that compliance with the requirements of Sec. 91.865 or 91.867 at a 
particular interim

[[Page 770]]

compliance date is financially onerous, physically impossible, or 
technologically infeasible, or that it would have an adverse effect on 
competition or on service to small communities.
    (e) The conditions of any waiver granted under this section shall be 
determined by the circumstances presented in the application, but in no 
case may the term extend beyond the next interim compliance date.
    (f) A summary of any request for a waiver under this section will be 
published in the Federal Register, and public comment will be invited. 
Unless the Secretary finds that circumstances require otherwise, the 
public comment period will be at least 14 days.

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48660, Sept. 25, 1991]



Sec. 91.873  Waivers from final compliance.

    (a) A U.S. air carrier or a foreign air carrier may apply for a 
waiver from the prohibition contained in Sec. 91.853 of this part for 
its remaining Stage 2 airplanes, provided that, by July 1, 1999, at 
least 85 percent of the airplanes used by the carrier to provide service 
to or from an airport in the contiguous United States will comply with 
the Stage 3 noise levels.
    (b) An application for the waiver described in paragraph (a) of this 
section must be filed with the Secretary of Transportation no later than 
January 1, 1999, or, in the case of a foreign air carrier, no later than 
April 20, 2000. Such application must include a plan with firm orders 
for replacing or modifying all airplanes to comply with Stage 3 noise 
levels at the earliest practicable time.
    (c) To be eligible to apply for the waiver under this section, a new 
entrant U.S. air carrier must initiate service no later than January 1, 
1999, and must comply fully with all provisions of this section.
    (d) The Secretary may grant a waiver under this section if the 
Secretary finds that granting such waiver is in the public interest. In 
making such a finding, the Secretary shall include consideration of the 
effect of granting such waiver on competition in the air carrier 
industry and the effect on small community air service, and any other 
information submitted by the applicant that the Secretary considers 
relevant.
    (e) The term of any waiver granted under this section shall be 
determined by the circumstances presented in the application, but in no 
case will the waiver permit the operation of any Stage 2 airplane 
covered by this subchapter in the contiguous United States after 
December 31, 2003.
    (f) A summary of any request for a waiver under this section will be 
published in the Federal Register, and public comment will be invited. 
Unless the secretary finds that circumstances require otherwise, the 
public comment period will be at least 14 days.

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48660, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 51167 Oct. 10, 1991; 
Amdt. 91-276, 67 FR 46571, July 15, 2002]



Sec. 91.875  Annual progress reports.

    (a) Each operator subject to Sec. 91.865 or Sec. 91.867 of this 
chapter shall submit an annual report to the FAA, Office of Environment 
and Energy, on the progress it has made toward complying with the 
requirements of that section. Such reports shall be submitted no later 
than 45 days after the end of a calendar year. All progress reports must 
provide the information through the end of the calendar year, be 
certified by the operator as true and complete (under penalty of 18 
U.S.C. 1001), and include the following information:
    (1) The name and address of the operator;
    (2) The name, title, and telephone number of the person designated 
by the operator to be responsible for ensuring the accuracy of the 
information in the report;
    (3) The operator's progress during the reporting period toward 
compliance with the requirements of Sec. 91.853, Sec. 91.865 or Sec. 
91.867. For airplanes on U.S. operations specifications, each operator 
shall identify the airplanes by type, model, series, and serial number.
    (i) Each Stage 2 airplane added or removed from operation or U.S. 
operations specifications (grouped separately by those airplanes 
acquired with and without base level);
    (ii) Each Stage 2 airplane modified to Stage 3 noise levels 
(identifying the manufacturer and model of noise abatement retrofit 
equipment;

[[Page 771]]

    (iii) Each Stage 3 airplane on U.S. operations specifications as of 
the last day of the reporting period; and
    (iv) For each Stage 2 airplane transferred or acquired, the name and 
address of the recipient or transferor; and, if base level was 
transferred, the person to or from whom base level was transferred or 
acquired pursuant to Section 91.863 along with the effective date of 
each base level transaction, and the type of base level transferred or 
acquired.
    (b) Each operator subject to Sec. 91.865 or Sec. 91.867 of this 
chapter shall submit an initial progress report covering the period from 
January 1, 1990, through December 31, 1991, and provide:
    (1) For each operator subject to Sec. 91.865:
    (i) The date used to establish its base level pursuant to Sec. 
91.861(a); and
    (ii) A list of those Stage 2 airplanes (by type, model, series and 
serial number) in its base level, including adjustments made pursuant to 
Sec. 91.861 after the date its base level was established.
    (2) For each U.S. operator:
    (i) A plan to meet the compliance schedules in Sec. 91.865 or Sec. 
91.867 and the final compliance date of Sec. 91.853, including the 
schedule for delivery of replacement Stage 3 airplanes or the 
installation of noise abatement retrofit equipment; and
    (ii) A separate list (by type, model, series, and serial number) of 
those airplanes included in the operator's base level, pursuant to Sec. 
91.861(a)(1) (i) and (ii), under the categories ``returned'' or 
``purchased,'' along with the date each was added to its operations 
specifications.
    (c) Each operator subject to Sec. 91.865 or Sec. 91.867 of this 
chapter shall submit subsequent annual progress reports covering the 
calendar year preceding the report and including any changes in the 
information provided in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; 
including the use of any carry-forward credits pursuant to Sec. 91.869.
    (d) An operator may request, in any report, that specific planning 
data be considered proprietary.
    (e) If an operator's actions during any reporting period cause it to 
achieve compliance with Sec. 91.853, the report should include a 
statement to that effect. Further progress reports are not required 
unless there is any change in the information reported pursuant to 
paragraph (a) of this section.
    (f) For each U.S. operator subject to Sec. 91.865, progress reports 
submitted for calendar years 1994, 1996, and 1998, shall also state how 
the operator achieved compliance with the requirements of that section, 
i.e.--
    (1) By reducing the number of Stage 2 airplanes in its fleet to no 
more than the maximum permitted percentage of its base level under Sec. 
91.865(b), or
    (2) By operating a fleet that consists of at least the minimum 
required percentage of Stage 3 airplanes under Sec. 91.865(d).

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0553)

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48660, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 51168, Oct. 10, 
1991, as amended by 57 FR 5977, Feb. 19, 1992]



Sec. 91.877  Annual reporting of Hawaiian operations.

    (a) Each air carrier or foreign air carrier subject to Sec. 91.865 
or Sec. 91.867 of this part that conducts operations between the 
contiguous United States and the State of Hawaii, between the State of 
Hawaii and any point outside of the contiguous United States, or between 
the islands of Hawaii in turnaround service, on or since November 5, 
1990, shall include in its annual report the information described in 
paragraph (c) of this section.
    (b) Each air carrier or foreign air carrier not subject to Sec. 
91.865 or Sec. 91.867 of this part that conducts operations between the 
contiguous U.S. and the State of Hawaii, between the State of Hawaii and 
any point outside of the contiguous United States, or between the 
islands of Hawaii in turnaround service, on or since November 5, 1990, 
shall submit an annual report to the FAA, Office of Environment and 
Energy, on its compliance with the Hawaiian operations provisions of 49 
U.S.C. 47528. Such reports shall be submitted no later than 45 days 
after the end of a calendar year. All progress reports must provide the 
information through the end of the calendar year, be certified by the 
operator as true and complete (under penalty of 18 U.S.C.

[[Page 772]]

1001), and include the following information--
    (1) The name and address of the air carrier or foreign air carrier;
    (2) The name, title, and telephone number of the person designated 
by the air carrier or foreign air carrier to be responsible for ensuring 
the accuracy of the information in the report; and
    (3) The information specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
    (c) The following information must be included in reports filed 
pursuant to this section--
    (1) For operations conducted between the contiguous United States 
and the State of Hawaii--
    (i) The number of Stage 2 airplanes used to conduct such operations 
as of November 5, 1990;
    (ii) Any change to that number during the calendar year being 
reported, including the date of such change;
    (2) For air carriers that conduct inter-island turnaround service in 
the State of Hawaii--
    (i) The number of Stage 2 airplanes used to conduct such operations 
as of November 5, 1990;
    (ii) Any change to that number during the calendar year being 
reported, including the date of such change;
    (iii) For an air carrier that provided inter-island trunaround 
service within the state of Hawaii on November 5, 1990, the number 
reported under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section may include all Stage 
2 airplanes with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 
75,000 pounds that were owned or leased by the air carrier on November 
5, 1990, regardless of whether such airplanes were operated by that air 
carrier or foreign air carrier on that date.
    (3) For operations conducted between the State of Hawaii and a point 
outside the contiguous United States--
    (i) The number of Stage 2 airplanes used to conduct such operations 
as of November 5, 1990; and
    (ii) Any change to that number during the calendar year being 
reported, including the date of such change.
    (d) Reports or amended reports for years predating this regulation 
are required to be filed concurrently with the next annual report.

[Doc. No. 28213, 61 FR 66185, Dec. 16, 1996]



Sec. Sec. 91.879-91.880  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.881  Final compliance: Civil subsonic jet airplanes 
weighing 75,000 pounds or less.

    Except as provided in Sec. 91.883, after December 31, 2015, a 
person may not operate to or from an airport in the contiguous United 
States a civil subsonic jet airplane subject to Sec. 91.801(e) of this 
subpart that weighs less than 75,000 pounds unless that airplane has 
been shown to comply with Stage 3, Stage 4, or Stage 5 noise levels.

[Docket FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. 91-349, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017]



Sec. 91.883  Special flight authorizations for jet airplanes 
weighing 75,000 pounds or less.

    (a) After December 31, 2015, an operator of a jet airplane weighing 
75,000 pounds or less that does not comply with Stage 3 noise levels 
may, when granted a special flight authorization by the FAA, operate 
that airplane in the contiguous United States only for one of the 
following purposes:
    (1) To sell, lease, or use the airplane outside the 48 contiguous 
States;
    (2) To scrap the airplane;
    (3) To obtain modifications to the airplane to meet Stage 3, Stage 
4, or Stage 5 noise levels.
    (4) To perform scheduled heavy maintenance or significant 
modifications on the airplane at a maintenance facility located in the 
contiguous 48 States;
    (5) To deliver the airplane to an operator leasing the airplane from 
the owner or return the airplane to the lessor;
    (6) To prepare, park, or store the airplane in anticipation of any 
of the activities described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5) of this 
section;
    (7) To provide transport of persons and goods in the relief of an 
emergency situation; or
    (8) To divert the airplane to an alternative airport in the 48 
contiguous States on account of weather, mechanical, fuel, air traffic 
control, or other safety reasons while conducting a flight in order to 
perform any of the activities described in paragraphs (a)(1) through 
(a)(7) of this section.

[[Page 773]]

    (b) An operator of an affected airplane may apply for a special 
flight authorization for one of the purposes listed in paragraph (a) of 
this section by filing an application with the FAA's Office of 
Environment and Energy. Except for emergency relief authorizations 
sought under paragraph (a)(7) of this section, applications must be 
filed at least 30 days in advance of the planned flight. All 
applications must provide the information necessary for the FAA to 
determine that the planned flight is within the limits prescribed in the 
law.

[Doc. No. FAA-2013-0503, 78 FR 39583, July 2, 2013, as amended by Docket 
FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. 91-349, 82 FR 46132, Oct. 4, 2017]



Sec. Sec. 91.884-91.899  [Reserved]



                            Subpart J_Waivers



Sec. 91.901  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.903  Policy and procedures.

    (a) The Administrator may issue a certificate of waiver authorizing 
the operation of aircraft in deviation from any rule listed in this 
subpart if the Administrator finds that the proposed operation can be 
safely conducted under the terms of that certificate of waiver.
    (b) An application for a certificate of waiver under this part is 
made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator and may 
be submitted to any FAA office.
    (c) A certificate of waiver is effective as specified in that 
certificate of waiver.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34325, Aug. 18, 1989]



Sec. 91.905  List of rules subject to waivers.

Sec.
91.107 Use of safety belts.
91.111 Operating near other aircraft.
91.113 Right-of-way rules: Except water operations.
91.115 Right-of-way rules: Water operations.
91.117 Aircraft speed.
91.119 Minimum safe altitudes: General.
91.121 Altimeter settings.
91.123 Compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
91.125 ATC light signals.
91.126 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class G 
          airspace.
91.127 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class E 
          airspace.
91.129 Operations in Class D airspace.
91.130 Operations in Class C airspace.
91.131 Operations in Class B airspace.
91.133 Restricted and prohibited areas.
91.135 Operations in Class A airspace.
91.137 Temporary flight restrictions.
91.141 Flight restrictions in the proximity of the Presidential and 
          other parties.
91.143 Flight limitation in the proximity of space flight operations.
91.153 VFR flight plan: Information required.
91.155 Basic VFR weather minimums
91.157 Special VFR weather minimums.
91.159 VFR cruising altitude or flight level.
91.169 IFR flight plan: Information required.
91.173 ATC clearance and flight plan required.
91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR.
91.176 Operations below DA/DH or MDA using an enhanced flight vision 
          system (EFVS) under IFR.
91.177 Minimum altitudes for IFR operations.
91.179 IFR cruising altitude or flight level.
91.181 Course to be flown.
91.183 IFR radio communications.
91.185 IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure.
91.187 Operation under IFR in controlled airspace: Malfunction reports.
91.209 Aircraft lights.
91.303 Aerobatic flights.
91.305 Flight test areas.
91.311 Towing: Other than under Sec. 91.309.
91.313(e) Restricted category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.
91.515 Flight altitude rules.
91.707 Flights between Mexico or Canada and the United States.
91.713 Operation of civil aircraft of Cuban registry.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34325, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 
56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991; Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 91-345, 81 FR 
90175, Dec. 13, 2016; Docket FAA-2016-9154, Amdt. 91-348, 82 FR 39664, 
Aug. 22, 2017]



Sec. Sec. 91.907-91.999  [Reserved]



                Subpart K_Fractional Ownership Operations

    Source: Docket No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, 
unless otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.1001  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart prescribes rules, in addition to those prescribed 
in other subparts of this part, that apply to fractional owners and 
fractional ownership program managers governing--

[[Page 774]]

    (1) The provision of program management services in a fractional 
ownership program;
    (2) The operation of a fractional ownership program aircraft in a 
fractional ownership program; and
    (3) The operation of a program aircraft included in a fractional 
ownership program managed by an affiliate of the manager of the program 
to which the owner belongs.
    (b) As used in this part--
    (1) Affiliate of a program manager means a manager that, directly, 
or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, controls, is 
controlled by, or is under common control with, another program manager. 
The holding of at least forty percent (40 percent) of the equity and 
forty percent (40 percent) of the voting power of an entity will be 
presumed to constitute control for purposes of determining an 
affiliation under this subpart.
    (2) A dry-lease aircraft exchange means an arrangement, documented 
by the written program agreements, under which the program aircraft are 
available, on an as needed basis without crew, to each fractional owner.
    (3) A fractional owner or owner means an individual or entity that 
possesses a minimum fractional ownership interest in a program aircraft 
and that has entered into the applicable program agreements; provided, 
however, that in the case of the flight operations described in 
paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section, and solely for purposes of 
requirements pertaining to those flight operations, the fractional owner 
operating the aircraft will be deemed to be a fractional owner in the 
program managed by the affiliate.
    (4) A fractional ownership interest means the ownership of an 
interest or holding of a multi-year leasehold interest and/or a multi-
year leasehold interest that is convertible into an ownership interest 
in a program aircraft.
    (5) A fractional ownership program or program means any system of 
aircraft ownership and exchange that consists of all of the following 
elements:
    (i) The provision for fractional ownership program management 
services by a single fractional ownership program manager on behalf of 
the fractional owners.
    (ii) Two or more airworthy aircraft.
    (iii) One or more fractional owners per program aircraft, with at 
least one program aircraft having more than one owner.
    (iv) Possession of at least a minimum fractional ownership interest 
in one or more program aircraft by each fractional owner.
    (v) A dry-lease aircraft exchange arrangement among all of the 
fractional owners.
    (vi) Multi-year program agreements covering the fractional 
ownership, fractional ownership program management services, and dry-
lease aircraft exchange aspects of the program.
    (6) A fractional ownership program aircraft or program aircraft 
means:
    (i) An aircraft in which a fractional owner has a minimal fractional 
ownership interest and that has been included in the dry-lease aircraft 
exchange pursuant to the program agreements, or
    (ii) In the case of a fractional owner from one program operating an 
aircraft in a different fractional ownership program managed by an 
affiliate of the operating owner's program manager, the aircraft being 
operated by the fractional owner, so long as the aircraft is:
    (A) Included in the fractional ownership program managed by the 
affiliate of the operating owner's program manager, and
    (B) Included in the operating owner's program's dry-lease aircraft 
exchange pursuant to the program agreements of the operating owner's 
program.
    (iii) An aircraft owned in whole or in part by the program manager 
that has been included in the dry-lease aircraft exchange and is used to 
supplement program operations.
    (7) A Fractional Ownership Program Flight or Program Flight means a 
flight under this subpart when one or more passengers or property 
designated by a fractional owner are on board the aircraft.
    (8) Fractional ownership program management services or program 
management services mean administrative and aviation support services 
furnished in accordance with the applicable requirements of this subpart 
or provided by the program manager on behalf of the

[[Page 775]]

fractional owners, including, but not limited to, the--
    (i) Establishment and implementation of program safety guidelines;
    (ii) Employment, furnishing, or contracting of pilots and other 
crewmembers;
    (iii) Training and qualification of pilots and other crewmembers and 
personnel;
    (iv) Scheduling and coordination of the program aircraft and crews;
    (v) Maintenance of program aircraft;
    (vi) Satisfaction of recordkeeping requirements;
    (vii) Development and use of a program operations manual and 
procedures; and
    (viii) Application for and maintenance of management specifications 
and other authorizations and approvals.
    (9) A fractional ownership program manager or program manager means 
the entity that offers fractional ownership program management services 
to fractional owners, and is designated in the multi-year program 
agreements referenced in paragraph (b)(5)(vi) of this section to fulfill 
the requirements of this chapter applicable to the manager of the 
program containing the aircraft being flown. When a fractional owner is 
operating an aircraft in a fractional ownership program managed by an 
affiliate of the owner's program manager, the references in this subpart 
to the flight-related responsibilities of the program manager apply, 
with respect to that particular flight, to the affiliate of the owner's 
program manager rather than to the owner's program manager.
    (10) A minimum fractional ownership interest means--
    (i) A fractional ownership interest equal to, or greater than, one-
sixteenth (\1/16\) of at least one subsonic, fixed-wing or powered-lift 
program aircraft; or
    (ii) A fractional ownership interest equal to, or greater than, one-
thirty-second (\1/32\) of at least one rotorcraft program aircraft.
    (c) The rules in this subpart that refer to a fractional owner or a 
fractional ownership program manager also apply to any person who 
engages in an operation governed by this subpart without the management 
specifications required by this subpart.

[Docket No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003,, as amended by 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 91-366, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 91.1002  Compliance date.

    No person that conducted flights before November 17, 2003 under a 
program that meets the definition of fractional ownership program in 
Sec. 91.1001 may conduct such flights after February 17, 2005 unless it 
has obtained management specifications under this subpart.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003; 69 FR 74413, Dec. 
14, 2004]



Sec. 91.1003  Management contract between owner and program manager.

    Each owner must have a contract with the program manager that--
    (a) Requires the program manager to ensure that the program conforms 
to all applicable requirements of this chapter.
    (b) Provides the owner the right to inspect and to audit, or have a 
designee of the owner inspect and audit, the records of the program 
manager pertaining to the operational safety of the program and those 
records required to show compliance with the management specifications 
and all applicable regulations. These records include, but are not 
limited to, the management specifications, authorizations, approvals, 
manuals, log books, and maintenance records maintained by the program 
manager.
    (c) Designates the program manager as the owner's agent to receive 
service of notices pertaining to the program that the FAA seeks to 
provide to owners and authorizes the FAA to send such notices to the 
program manager in its capacity as the agent of the owner for such 
service.
    (d) Acknowledges the FAA's right to contact the owner directly if 
the Administrator determines that direct contact is necessary.



Sec. 91.1005  Prohibitions and limitations.

    (a) Except as provided in Sec. 91.321 or Sec. 91.501, no owner may 
carry persons or property for compensation or hire on a program flight.

[[Page 776]]

    (b) During the term of the multi-year program agreements under which 
a fractional owner has obtained a minimum fractional ownership interest 
in a program aircraft, the flight hours used during that term by the 
owner on program aircraft must not exceed the total hours associated 
with the fractional owner's share of ownership.
    (c) No person may sell or lease an aircraft interest in a fractional 
ownership program that is smaller than that prescribed in the definition 
of ``minimum fractional ownership interest'' in Sec. 91.1001(b)(10) 
unless flights associated with that interest are operated under part 121 
or 135 of this chapter and are conducted by an air carrier or commercial 
operator certificated under part 119 of this chapter.



Sec. 91.1007  Flights conducted under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter.

    (a) Except as provided in Sec. 91.501(b), when a nonprogram 
aircraft is used to substitute for a program flight, the flight must be 
operated in compliance with part 121 or part 135 of this chapter, as 
applicable.
    (b) A program manager who holds a certificate under part 119 of this 
chapter may conduct a flight for the use of a fractional owner under 
part 121 or part 135 of this chapter if the aircraft is listed on that 
certificate holder's operations specifications for part 121 or part 135, 
as applicable.
    (c) The fractional owner must be informed when a flight is being 
conducted as a program flight or is being conducted under part 121 or 
part 135 of this chapter.

                           Operational Control



Sec. 91.1009  Clarification of operational control.

    (a) An owner is in operational control of a program flight when the 
owner--
    (1) Has the rights and is subject to the limitations set forth in 
Sec. Sec. 91.1003 through 91.1013;
    (2) Has directed that a program aircraft carry passengers or 
property designated by that owner; and
    (3) The aircraft is carrying those passengers or property.
    (b) An owner is not in operational control of a flight in the 
following circumstances:
    (1) A program aircraft is used for a flight for administrative 
purposes such as demonstration, positioning, ferrying, maintenance, or 
crew training, and no passengers or property designated by such owner 
are being carried; or
    (2) The aircraft being used for the flight is being operated under 
part 121 or 135 of this chapter.



Sec. 91.1011  Operational control responsibilities and delegation.

    (a) Each owner in operational control of a program flight is 
ultimately responsible for safe operations and for complying with all 
applicable requirements of this chapter, including those related to 
airworthiness and operations in connection with the flight. Each owner 
may delegate some or all of the performance of the tasks associated with 
carrying out this responsibility to the program manager, and may rely on 
the program manager for aviation expertise and program management 
services. When the owner delegates performance of tasks to the program 
manager or relies on the program manager's expertise, the owner and the 
program manager are jointly and individually responsible for compliance.
    (b) The management specifications, authorizations, and approvals 
required by this subpart are issued to, and in the sole name of, the 
program manager on behalf of the fractional owners collectively. The 
management specifications, authorizations, and approvals will not be 
affected by any change in ownership of a program aircraft, as long as 
the aircraft remains a program aircraft in the identified program.



Sec. 91.1013  Operational control briefing and acknowledgment.

    (a) Upon the signing of an initial program management services 
contract, or a renewal or extension of a program management services 
contract, the program manager must brief the fractional owner on the 
owner's operational control responsibilities, and the owner must review 
and sign an acknowledgment of these operational

[[Page 777]]

control responsibilities. The acknowledgment must be included with the 
program management services contract. The acknowledgment must define 
when a fractional owner is in operational control and the owner's 
responsibilities and liabilities under the program. These include:
    (1) Responsibility for compliance with the management specifications 
and all applicable regulations.
    (2) Enforcement actions for any noncompliance.
    (3) Liability risk in the event of a flight-related occurrence that 
causes personal injury or property damage.
    (b) The fractional owner's signature on the acknowledgment will 
serve as the owner's affirmation that the owner has read, understands, 
and accepts the operational control responsibilities described in the 
acknowledgment.
    (c) Each program manager must ensure that the fractional owner or 
owner's representatives have access to the acknowledgments for such 
owner's program aircraft. Each program manager must ensure that the FAA 
has access to the acknowledgments for all program aircraft.

                           Program Management



Sec. 91.1014  Issuing or denying management specifications.

    (a) A person applying to the Administrator for management 
specifications under this subpart must submit an application--
    (1) In a form and manner prescribed by the Administrator; and
    (2) Containing any information the Administrator requires the 
applicant to submit.
    (b) Management specifications will be issued to the program manager 
on behalf of the fractional owners if, after investigation, the 
Administrator finds that the applicant:
    (1) Meets the applicable requirements of this subpart; and
    (2) Is properly and adequately equipped in accordance with the 
requirements of this chapter and is able to conduct safe operations 
under appropriate provisions of part 91 of this chapter and management 
specifications issued under this subpart.
    (c) An application for management specifications will be denied if 
the Administrator finds that the applicant is not properly or adequately 
equipped or is not able to conduct safe operations under this part.



Sec. 91.1015  Management specifications.

    (a) Each person conducting operations under this subpart or 
furnishing fractional ownership program management services to 
fractional owners must do so in accordance with management 
specifications issued by the Administrator to the fractional ownership 
program manager under this subpart. Management specifications must 
include:
    (1) The current list of all fractional owners and types of aircraft, 
registration markings and serial numbers;
    (2) The authorizations, limitations, and certain procedures under 
which these operations are to be conducted,
    (3) Certain other procedures under which each class and size of 
aircraft is to be operated;
    (4) Authorization for an inspection program approved under Sec. 
91.1109, including the type of aircraft, the registration markings and 
serial numbers of each aircraft to be operated under the program. No 
person may conduct any program flight using any aircraft not listed.
    (5) Time limitations, or standards for determining time limitations, 
for overhauls, inspections, and checks for airframes, engines, 
propellers, rotors, appliances, and emergency equipment of aircraft.
    (6) The specific location of the program manager's principal base of 
operations and, if different, the address that will serve as the primary 
point of contact for correspondence between the FAA and the program 
manager and the name and mailing address of the program manager's agent 
for service;
    (7) Other business names the program manager may use;
    (8) Authorization for the method of controlling weight and balance 
of aircraft;
    (9) Any authorized deviation and exemption granted from any 
requirement of this chapter; and
    (10) Any other information the Administrator determines is 
necessary.
    (b) The program manager may keep the current list of all fractional 
owners

[[Page 778]]

required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section at its principal base of 
operation or other location approved by the Administrator and referenced 
in its management specifications. Each program manager shall make this 
list of owners available for inspection by the Administrator.
    (c) Management specifications issued under this subpart are 
effective unless--
    (1) The management specifications are amended as provided in Sec. 
91.1017; or
    (2) The Administrator suspends or revokes the management 
specifications.
    (d) At least 30 days before it proposes to establish or change the 
location of its principal base of operations, its main operations base, 
or its main maintenance base, a program manager must provide written 
notification to the Flight Standards office that issued the program 
manager's management specifications.
    (e) Each program manager must maintain a complete and separate set 
of its management specifications at its principal base of operations, or 
at a place approved by the Administrator, and must make its management 
specifications available for inspection by the Administrator and the 
fractional owner(s) to whom the program manager furnishes its services 
for review and audit.
    (f) Each program manager must insert pertinent excerpts of its 
management specifications, or references thereto, in its program manual 
and must--
    (1) Clearly identify each such excerpt as a part of its management 
specifications; and
    (2) State that compliance with each management specifications 
requirement is mandatory.
    (g) Each program manager must keep each of its employees and other 
persons who perform duties material to its operations informed of the 
provisions of its management specifications that apply to that 
employee's or person's duties and responsibilities.
    (h) A program manager may obtain approval to provide a temporary 
document verifying a flightcrew member's airman certificate and medical 
certificate privileges under an approved certificate verification plan 
set forth in the program manager's management specifications. A document 
provided by the program manager may be carried as an airman certificate 
or medical certificate on flights within the United States for up to 72 
hours.

[Docket No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018; Amdt. 60-
6, 83 FR 30282, June 27, 2018]



Sec. 91.1017  Amending program manager's management specifications.

    (a) The Administrator may amend any management specifications issued 
under this subpart if--
    (1) The Administrator determines that safety and the public interest 
require the amendment of any management specifications; or
    (2) The program manager applies for the amendment of any management 
specifications, and the Administrator determines that safety and the 
public interest allows the amendment.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, when the 
Administrator initiates an amendment of a program manager's management 
specifications, the following procedure applies:
    (1) The Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's 
management specifications will notify the program manager in writing of 
the proposed amendment.
    (2) The Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's 
management specifications will set a reasonable period (but not less 
than 7 days) within which the program manager may submit written 
information, views, and arguments on the amendment.
    (3) After considering all material presented, the Flight Standards 
office that issued the program manager's management specifications will 
notify the program manager of--
    (i) The adoption of the proposed amendment,
    (ii) The partial adoption of the proposed amendment, or
    (iii) The withdrawal of the proposed amendment.
    (4) If the Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's 
management specifications issues an amendment of the management 
specifications, it becomes effective not less

[[Page 779]]

than 30 days after the program manager receives notice of it unless--
    (i) The Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's 
management specifications finds under paragraph (e) of this section that 
there is an emergency requiring immediate action with respect to safety; 
or
    (ii) The program manager petitions for reconsideration of the 
amendment under paragraph (d) of this section.
    (c) When the program manager applies for an amendment to its 
management specifications, the following procedure applies:
    (1) The program manager must file an application to amend its 
management specifications--
    (i) At least 90 days before the date proposed by the applicant for 
the amendment to become effective, unless a shorter time is approved, in 
cases such as mergers, acquisitions of operational assets that require 
an additional showing of safety (for example, proving tests or 
validation tests), and resumption of operations following a suspension 
of operations as a result of bankruptcy actions.
    (ii) At least 15 days before the date proposed by the applicant for 
the amendment to become effective in all other cases.
    (2) The application must be submitted to the Flight Standards office 
that issued the program manager's management specifications in a form 
and manner prescribed by the Administrator.
    (3) After considering all material presented, the Flight Standards 
office that issued the program manager's management specifications will 
notify the program manager of--
    (i) The adoption of the applied for amendment;
    (ii) The partial adoption of the applied for amendment; or
    (iii) The denial of the applied for amendment. The program manager 
may petition for reconsideration of a denial under paragraph (d) of this 
section.
    (4) If the Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's 
management specifications approves the amendment, following coordination 
with the program manager regarding its implementation, the amendment is 
effective on the date the Administrator approves it.
    (d) When a program manager seeks reconsideration of a decision of 
the Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's management 
specifications concerning the amendment of management specifications, 
the following procedure applies:
    (1) The program manager must petition for reconsideration of that 
decision within 30 days of the date that the program manager receives a 
notice of denial of the amendment of its management specifications, or 
of the date it receives notice of an FAA-initiated amendment of its 
management specifications, whichever circumstance applies.
    (2) The program manager must address its petition to the Executive 
Director, Flight Standards Service.
    (3) A petition for reconsideration, if filed within the 30-day 
period, suspends the effectiveness of any amendment issued by the Flight 
Standards office that issued the program manager's management 
specifications unless that office has found, under paragraph (e) of this 
section, that an emergency exists requiring immediate action with 
respect to safety.
    (4) If a petition for reconsideration is not filed within 30 days, 
the procedures of paragraph (c) of this section apply.
    (e) If the Flight Standards office that issued the program manager's 
management specifications finds that an emergency exists requiring 
immediate action with respect to safety that makes the procedures set 
out in this section impracticable or contrary to the public interest--
    (1) The Flight Standards office amends the management specifications 
and makes the amendment effective on the day the program manager 
receives notice of it; and
    (2) In the notice to the program manager, the Flight Standards 
office will articulate the reasons for its finding that an emergency 
exists requiring immediate action with respect to safety

[[Page 780]]

or that makes it impracticable or contrary to the public interest to 
stay the effectiveness of the amendment.

[Docket No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 91.1019  Conducting tests and inspections.

    (a) At any time or place, the Administrator may conduct an 
inspection or test, other than an en route inspection, to determine 
whether a program manager under this subpart is complying with title 49 
of the United States Code, applicable regulations, and the program 
manager's management specifications.
    (b) The program manager must--
    (1) Make available to the Administrator at the program manager's 
principal base of operations, or at a place approved by the 
Administrator, the program manager's management specifications; and
    (2) Allow the Administrator to make any test or inspection, other 
than an en route inspection, to determine compliance respecting any 
matter stated in paragraph (a) of this section.
    (c) Each employee of, or person used by, the program manager who is 
responsible for maintaining the program manager's records required by or 
necessary to demonstrate compliance with this subpart must make those 
records available to the Administrator.
    (d) The Administrator may determine a program manager's continued 
eligibility to hold its management specifications on any grounds listed 
in paragraph (a) of this section, or any other appropriate grounds.
    (e) Failure by any program manager to make available to the 
Administrator upon request, the management specifications, or any 
required record, document, or report is grounds for suspension of all or 
any part of the program manager's management specifications.



Sec. 91.1021  Internal safety reporting and incident/accident response.

    (a) Each program manager must establish an internal anonymous safety 
reporting procedure that fosters an environment of safety without any 
potential for retribution for filing the report.
    (b) Each program manager must establish procedures to respond to an 
aviation incident/accident.



Sec. 91.1023  Program operating manual requirements.

    (a) Each program manager must prepare and keep current a program 
operating manual setting forth procedures and policies acceptable to the 
Administrator. The program manager's management, flight, ground, and 
maintenance personnel must use this manual to conduct operations under 
this subpart. However, the Administrator may authorize a deviation from 
this paragraph if the Administrator finds that, because of the limited 
size of the operation, part of the manual is not necessary for guidance 
of management, flight, ground, or maintenance personnel.
    (b) Each program manager must maintain at least one copy of the 
manual at its principal base of operations.
    (c) No manual may be contrary to any applicable U.S. regulations, 
foreign regulations applicable to the program flights in foreign 
countries, or the program manager's management specifications.
    (d) The program manager must make a copy of the manual, or 
appropriate portions of the manual (and changes and additions), 
available to its maintenance and ground operations personnel and must 
furnish the manual to--
    (1) Its crewmembers; and
    (2) Representatives of the Administrator assigned to the program 
manager.
    (e) Each employee of the program manager to whom a manual or 
appropriate portions of it are furnished under paragraph (d)(1) of this 
section must keep it up-to-date with the changes and additions furnished 
to them.
    (f) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, the 
appropriate parts of the manual must be carried on each aircraft when 
away from the principal operations base. The appropriate parts must be 
available for use by ground or flight personnel.
    (g) For the purpose of complying with paragraph (d) of this section, 
a

[[Page 781]]

program manager may furnish the persons listed therein with all or part 
of its manual in printed form or other form, acceptable to the 
Administrator, that is retrievable in the English language. If the 
program manager furnishes all or part of the manual in other than 
printed form, it must ensure there is a compatible reading device 
available to those persons that provides a legible image of the 
maintenance information and instructions, or a system that is able to 
retrieve the maintenance information and instructions in the English 
language.
    (h) If a program manager conducts aircraft inspections or 
maintenance at specified facilities where the approved aircraft 
inspection program is available, the program manager is not required to 
ensure that the approved aircraft inspection program is carried aboard 
the aircraft en route to those facilities.
    (i) Program managers that are also certificated to operate under 
part 121 or 135 of this chapter may be authorized to use the operating 
manual required by those parts to meet the manual requirements of 
subpart K, provided:
    (1) The policies and procedures are consistent for both operations, 
or
    (2) When policies and procedures are different, the applicable 
policies and procedures are identified and used.



Sec. 91.1025  Program operating manual contents.

    Each program operating manual must have the date of the last 
revision on each revised page. Unless otherwise authorized by the 
Administrator, the manual must include the following:
    (a) Procedures for ensuring compliance with aircraft weight and 
balance limitations;
    (b) Copies of the program manager's management specifications or 
appropriate extracted information, including area of operations 
authorized, category and class of aircraft authorized, crew complements, 
and types of operations authorized;
    (c) Procedures for complying with accident notification 
requirements;
    (d) Procedures for ensuring that the pilot in command knows that 
required airworthiness inspections have been made and that the aircraft 
has been approved for return to service in compliance with applicable 
maintenance requirements;
    (e) Procedures for reporting and recording mechanical irregularities 
that come to the attention of the pilot in command before, during, and 
after completion of a flight;
    (f) Procedures to be followed by the pilot in command for 
determining that mechanical irregularities or defects reported for 
previous flights have been corrected or that correction of certain 
mechanical irregularities or defects have been deferred;
    (g) Procedures to be followed by the pilot in command to obtain 
maintenance, preventive maintenance, and servicing of the aircraft at a 
place where previous arrangements have not been made by the program 
manager or owner, when the pilot is authorized to so act for the 
operator;
    (h) Procedures under Sec. 91.213 for the release of, and 
continuation of flight if any item of equipment required for the 
particular type of operation becomes inoperative or unserviceable en 
route;
    (i) Procedures for refueling aircraft, eliminating fuel 
contamination, protecting from fire (including electrostatic 
protection), and supervising and protecting passengers during refueling;
    (j) Procedures to be followed by the pilot in command in the 
briefing under Sec. 91.1035.
    (k) Procedures for ensuring compliance with emergency procedures, 
including a list of the functions assigned each category of required 
crewmembers in connection with an emergency and emergency evacuation 
duties;
    (l) The approved aircraft inspection program, when applicable;
    (m) Procedures for the evacuation of persons who may need the 
assistance of another person to move expeditiously to an exit if an 
emergency occurs;
    (n) Procedures for performance planning that take into account take 
off, landing and en route conditions;
    (o) An approved Destination Airport Analysis, when required by Sec. 
91.1037(c), that includes the following elements, supported by aircraft 
performance data supplied by the aircraft manufacturer

[[Page 782]]

for the appropriate runway conditions--
    (1) Pilot qualifications and experience;
    (2) Aircraft performance data to include normal, abnormal and 
emergency procedures as supplied by the aircraft manufacturer;
    (3) Airport facilities and topography;
    (4) Runway conditions (including contamination);
    (5) Airport or area weather reporting;
    (6) Appropriate additional runway safety margins, if required;
    (7) Airplane inoperative equipment;
    (8) Environmental conditions; and
    (9) Other criteria that affect aircraft performance.
    (p) A suitable system (which may include a coded or electronic 
system) that provides for preservation and retrieval of maintenance 
recordkeeping information required by Sec. 91.1113 in a manner 
acceptable to the Administrator that provides--
    (1) A description (or reference to date acceptable to the 
Administrator) of the work performed:
    (2) The name of the person performing the work if the work is 
performed by a person outside the organization of the program manager; 
and
    (3) The name or other positive identification of the individual 
approving the work.
    (q) Flight locating and scheduling procedures; and
    (r) Other procedures and policy instructions regarding program 
operations that are issued by the program manager or required by the 
Administrator.



Sec. 91.1027  Recordkeeping.

    (a) Each program manager must keep at its principal base of 
operations or at other places approved by the Administrator, and must 
make available for inspection by the Administrator all of the following:
    (1) The program manager's management specifications.
    (2) A current list of the aircraft used or available for use in 
operations under this subpart, the operations for which each is equipped 
(for example, RNP5/10, RVSM.).
    (3) An individual record of each pilot used in operations under this 
subpart, including the following information:
    (i) The full name of the pilot.
    (ii) The pilot certificate (by type and number) and ratings that the 
pilot holds.
    (iii) The pilot's aeronautical experience in sufficient detail to 
determine the pilot's qualifications to pilot aircraft in operations 
under this subpart.
    (iv) The pilot's current duties and the date of the pilot's 
assignment to those duties.
    (v) The effective date and class of the medical certificate that the 
pilot holds.
    (vi) The date and result of each of the initial and recurrent 
competency tests and proficiency checks required by this subpart and the 
type of aircraft flown during that test or check.
    (vii) The pilot's flight time in sufficient detail to determine 
compliance with the flight time limitations of this subpart.
    (viii) The pilot's check pilot authorization, if any.
    (ix) Any action taken concerning the pilot's release from employment 
for physical or professional disqualification; and
    (x) The date of the satisfactory completion of initial, transition, 
upgrade, and differences training and each recurrent training phase 
required by this subpart.
    (4) An individual record for each flight attendant used in 
operations under this subpart, including the following information:
    (i) The full name of the flight attendant, and
    (ii) The date and result of training required by Sec. 91.1063, as 
applicable.
    (5) A current list of all fractional owners and associated aircraft. 
This list or a reference to its location must be included in the 
management specifications and should be of sufficient detail to 
determine the minimum fractional ownership interest of each aircraft.
    (b) Each program manager must keep each record required by paragraph 
(a)(2) of this section for at least 6 months, and must keep each record 
required by paragraphs (a)(3) and (a)(4) of this section for at least 12 
months.

[[Page 783]]

When an employee is no longer employed or affiliated with the program 
manager or fractional owner, each record required by paragraphs (a)(3) 
and (a)(4) of this section must be retained for at least 12 months.
    (c) Each program manager is responsible for the preparation and 
accuracy of a load manifest in duplicate containing information 
concerning the loading of the aircraft. The manifest must be prepared 
before each takeoff and must include--
    (1) The number of passengers;
    (2) The total weight of the loaded aircraft;
    (3) The maximum allowable takeoff weight for that flight;
    (4) The center of gravity limits;
    (5) The center of gravity of the loaded aircraft, except that the 
actual center of gravity need not be computed if the aircraft is loaded 
according to a loading schedule or other approved method that ensures 
that the center of gravity of the loaded aircraft is within approved 
limits. In those cases, an entry must be made on the manifest indicating 
that the center of gravity is within limits according to a loading 
schedule or other approved method;
    (6) The registration number of the aircraft or flight number;
    (7) The origin and destination; and
    (8) Identification of crewmembers and their crew position 
assignments.
    (d) The pilot in command of the aircraft for which a load manifest 
must be prepared must carry a copy of the completed load manifest in the 
aircraft to its destination. The program manager must keep copies of 
completed load manifest for at least 30 days at its principal operations 
base, or at another location used by it and approved by the 
Administrator.
    (e) Each program manager is responsible for providing a written 
document that states the name of the entity having operational control 
on that flight and the part of this chapter under which the flight is 
operated. The pilot in command of the aircraft must carry a copy of the 
document in the aircraft to its destination. The program manager must 
keep a copy of the document for at least 30 days at its principal 
operations base, or at another location used by it and approved by the 
Administrator.
    (f) Records may be kept either in paper or other form acceptable to 
the Administrator.
    (g) Program managers that are also certificated to operate under 
part 121 or 135 of this chapter may satisfy the recordkeeping 
requirements of this section and of Sec. 91.1113 with records 
maintained to fulfill equivalent obligations under part 121 or 135 of 
this chapter.

[Docket No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2016-9154, Amdt. 91-348, 82 FR 39664, Aug. 22, 2017]



Sec. 91.1029  Flight scheduling and locating requirements.

    (a) Each program manager must establish and use an adequate system 
to schedule and release program aircraft.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, each 
program manager must have adequate procedures established for locating 
each flight, for which a flight plan is not filed, that--
    (1) Provide the program manager with at least the information 
required to be included in a VFR flight plan;
    (2) Provide for timely notification of an FAA facility or search and 
rescue facility, if an aircraft is overdue or missing; and
    (3) Provide the program manager with the location, date, and 
estimated time for reestablishing radio or telephone communications, if 
the flight will operate in an area where communications cannot be 
maintained.
    (c) Flight locating information must be retained at the program 
manager's principal base of operations, or at other places designated by 
the program manager in the flight locating procedures, until the 
completion of the flight.
    (d) The flight locating requirements of paragraph (b) of this 
section do not apply to a flight for which an FAA flight plan has been 
filed and the flight plan is canceled within 25 nautical miles of the 
destination airport.



Sec. 91.1031  Pilot in command or second in command: Designation required.

    (a) Each program manager must designate a--

[[Page 784]]

    (1) Pilot in command for each program flight; and
    (2) Second in command for each program flight requiring two pilots.
    (b) The pilot in command, as designated by the program manager, must 
remain the pilot in command at all times during that flight.



Sec. 91.1033  Operating information required.

    (a) Each program manager must, for all program operations, provide 
the following materials, in current and appropriate form, accessible to 
the pilot at the pilot station, and the pilot must use them--
    (1) A cockpit checklist;
    (2) For multiengine aircraft or for aircraft with retractable 
landing gear, an emergency cockpit checklist containing the procedures 
required by paragraph (c) of this section, as appropriate;
    (3) At least one set of pertinent aeronautical charts; and
    (4) For IFR operations, at least one set of pertinent navigational 
en route, terminal area, and instrument approach procedure charts.
    (b) Each cockpit checklist required by paragraph (a)(1) of this 
section must contain the following procedures:
    (1) Before starting engines;
    (2) Before takeoff;
    (3) Cruise;
    (4) Before landing;
    (5) After landing; and
    (6) Stopping engines.
    (c) Each emergency cockpit checklist required by paragraph (a)(2) of 
this section must contain the following procedures, as appropriate:
    (1) Emergency operation of fuel, hydraulic, electrical, and 
mechanical systems.
    (2) Emergency operation of instruments and controls.
    (3) Engine inoperative procedures.
    (4) Any other emergency procedures necessary for safety.



Sec. 91.1035  Passenger awareness.

    (a) Prior to each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft 
carrying passengers on a program flight must ensure that all passengers 
have been orally briefed on--
    (1) Smoking: Each passenger must be briefed on when, where, and 
under what conditions smoking is prohibited. This briefing must include 
a statement, as appropriate, that the regulations require passenger 
compliance with lighted passenger information signs and no smoking 
placards, prohibit smoking in lavatories, and require compliance with 
crewmember instructions with regard to these items;
    (2) Use of safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and child restraint 
systems: Each passenger must be briefed on when, where and under what 
conditions it is necessary to have his or her safety belt and, if 
installed, his or her shoulder harness fastened about him or her, and if 
a child is being transported, the appropriate use of child restraint 
systems, if available. This briefing must include a statement, as 
appropriate, that the regulations require passenger compliance with the 
lighted passenger information sign and/or crewmember instructions with 
regard to these items;
    (3) The placement of seat backs in an upright position before 
takeoff and landing;
    (4) Location and means for opening the passenger entry door and 
emergency exits;
    (5) Location of survival equipment;
    (6) Ditching procedures and the use of flotation equipment required 
under Sec. 91.509 for a flight over water;
    (7) The normal and emergency use of oxygen installed in the 
aircraft; and
    (8) Location and operation of fire extinguishers.
    (b) Prior to each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft 
carrying passengers on a program flight must ensure that each person who 
may need the assistance of another person to move expeditiously to an 
exit if an emergency occurs and that person's attendant, if any, has 
received a briefing as to the procedures to be followed if an evacuation 
occurs. This paragraph does not apply to a person who has been given a 
briefing before a previous leg of that flight in the same aircraft.
    (c) Prior to each takeoff, the pilot in command must advise the 
passengers of the name of the entity in operational control of the 
flight.

[[Page 785]]

    (d) The oral briefings required by paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of 
this section must be given by the pilot in command or another 
crewmember.
    (e) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section may 
be delivered by means of an approved recording playback device that is 
audible to each passenger under normal noise levels.
    (f) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section must 
be supplemented by printed cards that must be carried in the aircraft in 
locations convenient for the use of each passenger. The cards must--
    (1) Be appropriate for the aircraft on which they are to be used;
    (2) Contain a diagram of, and method of operating, the emergency 
exits; and
    (3) Contain other instructions necessary for the use of emergency 
equipment on board the aircraft.



Sec. 91.1037  Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine 
powered; Limitations; Destination and alternate airports.

    (a) No program manager or any other person may permit a turbine 
engine powered large transport category airplane on a program flight to 
take off that airplane at a weight that (allowing for normal consumption 
of fuel and oil in flight to the destination or alternate airport) the 
weight of the airplane on arrival would exceed the landing weight in the 
Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the destination or alternate 
airport and the ambient temperature expected at the time of landing.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no program 
manager or any other person may permit a turbine engine powered large 
transport category airplane on a program flight to take off that 
airplane unless its weight on arrival, allowing for normal consumption 
of fuel and oil in flight (in accordance with the landing distance in 
the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the destination airport 
and the wind conditions expected there at the time of landing), would 
allow a full stop landing at the intended destination airport within 60 
percent of the effective length of each runway described below from a 
point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane 
and the runway. For the purpose of determining the allowable landing 
weight at the destination airport, the following is assumed:
    (1) The airplane is landed on the most favorable runway and in the 
most favorable direction, in still air.
    (2) The airplane is landed on the most suitable runway considering 
the probable wind velocity and direction and the ground handling 
characteristics of that airplane, and considering other conditions such 
as landing aids and terrain.
    (c) A program manager or other person flying a turbine engine 
powered large transport category airplane on a program flight may permit 
that airplane to take off at a weight in excess of that allowed by 
paragraph (b) of this section if all of the following conditions exist:
    (1) The operation is conducted in accordance with an approved 
Destination Airport Analysis in that person's program operating manual 
that contains the elements listed in Sec. 91.1025(o).
    (2) The airplane's weight on arrival, allowing for normal 
consumption of fuel and oil in flight (in accordance with the landing 
distance in the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the 
destination airport and the wind conditions expected there at the time 
of landing), would allow a full stop landing at the intended destination 
airport within 80 percent of the effective length of each runway 
described below from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the 
obstruction clearance plane and the runway. For the purpose of 
determining the allowable landing weight at the destination airport, the 
following is assumed:
    (i) The airplane is landed on the most favorable runway and in the 
most favorable direction, in still air.
    (ii) The airplane is landed on the most suitable runway considering 
the probable wind velocity and direction and the ground handling 
characteristics of that airplane, and considering other conditions such 
as landing aids and terrain.
    (3) The operation is authorized by management specifications.

[[Page 786]]

    (d) No program manager or other person may select an airport as an 
alternate airport for a turbine engine powered large transport category 
airplane unless (based on the assumptions in paragraph (b) of this 
section) that airplane, at the weight expected at the time of arrival, 
can be brought to a full stop landing within 80 percent of the effective 
length of the runway from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the 
obstruction clearance plane and the runway.
    (e) Unless, based on a showing of actual operating landing 
techniques on wet runways, a shorter landing distance (but never less 
than that required by paragraph (b) or (c) of this section) has been 
approved for a specific type and model airplane and included in the 
Airplane Flight Manual, no person may take off a turbojet airplane when 
the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of 
them, indicate that the runways at the destination or alternate airport 
may be wet or slippery at the estimated time of arrival unless the 
effective runway length at the destination airport is at least 115 
percent of the runway length required under paragraph (b) or (c) of this 
section.



Sec. 91.1039  IFR takeoff, approach and landing minimums.

    (a) No pilot on a program aircraft operating a program flight may 
begin an instrument approach procedure to an airport unless--
    (1) Either that airport or the alternate airport has a weather 
reporting facility operated by the U.S. National Weather Service, a 
source approved by the U.S. National Weather Service, or a source 
approved by the Administrator; and
    (2) The latest weather report issued by the weather reporting 
facility includes a current local altimeter setting for the destination 
airport. If no local altimeter setting is available at the destination 
airport, the pilot must obtain the current local altimeter setting from 
a source provided by the facility designated on the approach chart for 
the destination airport.
    (b) For flight planning purposes, if the destination airport does 
not have a weather reporting facility described in paragraph (a)(1) of 
this section, the pilot must designate as an alternate an airport that 
has a weather reporting facility meeting that criteria.
    (c) The MDA or Decision Altitude and visibility landing minimums 
prescribed in part 97 of this chapter or in the program manager's 
management specifications are increased by 100 feet and \1/2\ mile 
respectively, but not to exceed the ceiling and visibility minimums for 
that airport when used as an alternate airport, for each pilot in 
command of a turbine-powered aircraft who has not served at least 100 
hours as pilot in command in that type of aircraft.
    (d) No person may take off an aircraft under IFR from an airport 
where weather conditions are at or above takeoff minimums but are below 
authorized IFR landing minimums unless there is an alternate airport 
within one hour's flying time (at normal cruising speed, in still air) 
of the airport of departure.
    (e) Except as provided in Sec. 91.176 of this chapter, each pilot 
making an IFR takeoff or approach and landing at an airport must comply 
with applicable instrument approach procedures and takeoff and landing 
weather minimums prescribed by the authority having jurisdiction over 
the airport. In addition, no pilot may take off at that airport when the 
visibility is less than 600 feet, unless otherwise authorized in the 
program manager's management specifications for EFVS operations.

[Docket No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 91-345, 81 FR 90175, Dec. 13, 2016]



Sec. 91.1041  Aircraft proving and validation tests.

    (a) No program manager may permit the operation of an aircraft, 
other than a turbojet aircraft, for which two pilots are required by the 
type certification requirements of this chapter for operations under 
VFR, if it has not previously proved such an aircraft in operations 
under this part in at least 25 hours of proving tests acceptable to the 
Administrator including--
    (1) Five hours of night time, if night flights are to be authorized;

[[Page 787]]

    (2) Five instrument approach procedures under simulated or actual 
conditions, if IFR flights are to be authorized; and
    (3) Entry into a representative number of en route airports as 
determined by the Administrator.
    (b) No program manager may permit the operation of a turbojet 
airplane if it has not previously proved a turbojet airplane in 
operations under this part in at least 25 hours of proving tests 
acceptable to the Administrator including--
    (1) Five hours of night time, if night flights are to be authorized;
    (2) Five instrument approach procedures under simulated or actual 
conditions, if IFR flights are to be authorized; and
    (3) Entry into a representative number of en route airports as 
determined by the Administrator.
    (c) No program manager may carry passengers in an aircraft during 
proving tests, except those needed to make the tests and those 
designated by the Administrator to observe the tests. However, pilot 
flight training may be conducted during the proving tests.
    (d) Validation testing is required to determine that a program 
manager is capable of conducting operations safely and in compliance 
with applicable regulatory standards. Validation tests are required for 
the following authorizations:
    (1) The addition of an aircraft for which two pilots are required 
for operations under VFR or a turbojet airplane, if that aircraft or an 
aircraft of the same make or similar design has not been previously 
proved or validated in operations under this part.
    (2) Operations outside U.S. airspace.
    (3) Class II navigation authorizations.
    (4) Special performance or operational authorizations.
    (e) Validation tests must be accomplished by test methods acceptable 
to the Administrator. Actual flights may not be required when an 
applicant can demonstrate competence and compliance with appropriate 
regulations without conducting a flight.
    (f) Proving tests and validation tests may be conducted 
simultaneously when appropriate.
    (g) The Administrator may authorize deviations from this section if 
the Administrator finds that special circumstances make full compliance 
with this section unnecessary.



Sec. 91.1043  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.1045  Additional equipment requirements.

    No person may operate a program aircraft on a program flight unless 
the aircraft is equipped with the following--
    (a) Airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than 30 
seats or a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds:
    (1) A cockpit voice recorder as required by Sec. 121.359 of this 
chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section.
    (2) A flight recorder as required by Sec. 121.343 or Sec. 121.344 
of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section.
    (3) A terrain awareness and warning system as required by Sec. 
121.354 of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that 
section.
    (4) A traffic alert and collision avoidance system as required by 
Sec. 121.356 of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in 
that section.
    (5) Airborne weather radar as required by Sec. 121.357 of this 
chapter, as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section.
    (b) Airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of 30 seats or 
fewer, excluding each crewmember, and a payload capacity of 7,500 pounds 
or less, and any rotorcraft (as applicable):
    (1) A cockpit voice recorder as required by Sec. 135.151 of this 
chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section.
    (2) A flight recorder as required by Sec. 135.152 of this chapter 
as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section.
    (3) A terrain awareness and warning system as required by Sec. 
135.154 of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that 
section.
    (4) A traffic alert and collision avoidance system as required by 
Sec. 135.180 of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in 
that section.
    (5) As applicable to the aircraft specified in that section, either:

[[Page 788]]

    (i) Airborne thunderstorm detection equipment as required by Sec. 
135.173 of this chapter; or
    (ii) Airborne weather radar as required by Sec. 135.175 of this 
chapter.



Sec. 91.1047  Drug and alcohol misuse education program.

    (a) Each program manager must provide each direct employee 
performing flight crewmember, flight attendant, flight instructor, or 
aircraft maintenance duties with drug and alcohol misuse education.
    (b) No program manager may use any contract employee to perform 
flight crewmember, flight attendant, flight instructor, or aircraft 
maintenance duties for the program manager unless that contract employee 
has been provided with drug and alcohol misuse education.
    (c) Program managers must disclose to their owners and prospective 
owners the existence of a company drug and alcohol misuse testing 
program. If the program manager has implemented a company testing 
program, the program manager's disclosure must include the following:
    (1) Information on the substances that they test for, for example, 
alcohol and a list of the drugs;
    (2) The categories of employees tested, the types of tests, for 
example, pre-employment, random, reasonable cause/suspicion, post 
accident, return to duty and follow-up; and
    (3) The degree to which the program manager's company testing 
program is comparable to the federally mandated drug and alcohol testing 
program required under part 120 of this chapter regarding the 
information in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section.
    (d) If a program aircraft is operated on a program flight into an 
airport at which no maintenance personnel are available that are subject 
to the requirements of paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section and 
emergency maintenance is required, the program manager may use persons 
not meeting the requirements of paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section to 
provide such emergency maintenance under both of the following 
conditions:
    (1) The program manager must notify the Drug Abatement Program 
Division, AAM-800, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591 in 
writing within 10 days after being provided emergency maintenance in 
accordance with this paragraph. The program manager must retain copies 
of all such written notifications for two years.
    (2) The aircraft must be reinspected by maintenance personnel who 
meet the requirements of paragraph (a) or (b) of this section when the 
aircraft is next at an airport where such maintenance personnel are 
available.
    (e) For purposes of this section, emergency maintenance means 
maintenance that--
    (1) Is not scheduled, and
    (2) Is made necessary by an aircraft condition not discovered prior 
to the departure for that location.
    (f) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, drug and 
alcohol misuse education conducted under an FAA-approved drug and 
alcohol misuse prevention program may be used to satisfy these 
requirements.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by 
Amdt. 91-307, 74 FR 22653, May 14, 2009]



Sec. 91.1049  Personnel.

    (a) Each program manager and each fractional owner must use in 
program operations on program aircraft flight crews meeting Sec. 
91.1053 criteria and qualified under the appropriate regulations. The 
program manager must provide oversight of those crews.
    (b) Each program manager must employ (either directly or by 
contract) an adequate number of pilots per program aircraft. Flight crew 
staffing must be determined based on the following factors, at a 
minimum:
    (1) Number of program aircraft.
    (2) Program manager flight, duty, and rest time considerations, and 
in all cases within the limits set forth in Sec. Sec. 91.1057 through 
91.1061.
    (3) Vacations.
    (4) Operational efficiencies.
    (5) Training.
    (6) Single pilot operations, if authorized by deviation under 
paragraph (d) of this section.
    (c) Each program manager must publish pilot and flight attendant 
duty schedules sufficiently in advance to follow the flight, duty, and 
rest time

[[Page 789]]

limits in Sec. Sec. 91.1057 through 91.1061 in program operations.
    (d) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, when any 
program aircraft is flown in program operations with passengers onboard, 
the crew must consist of at least two qualified pilots employed or 
contracted by the program manager or the fractional owner.
    (e) The program manager must ensure that trained and qualified 
scheduling or flight release personnel are on duty to schedule and 
release program aircraft during all hours that such aircraft are 
available for program operations.



Sec. 91.1050  Employment of former FAA employees.

    (a) Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, no 
fractional owner or fractional ownership program manager may knowingly 
employ or make a contractual arrangement which permits an individual to 
act as an agent or representative of the fractional owner or fractional 
ownership program manager in any matter before the Federal Aviation 
Administration if the individual, in the preceding 2 years--
    (1) Served as, or was directly responsible for the oversight of, a 
Flight Standards Service aviation safety inspector; and
    (2) Had direct responsibility to inspect, or oversee the inspection 
of, the operations of the fractional owner or fractional ownership 
program manager.
    (b) For the purpose of this section, an individual shall be 
considered to be acting as an agent or representative of a fractional 
owner or fractional ownership program manager in a matter before the 
agency if the individual makes any written or oral communication on 
behalf of the fractional owner or fractional ownership program manager 
to the agency (or any of its officers or employees) in connection with a 
particular matter, whether or not involving a specific party and without 
regard to whether the individual has participated in, or had 
responsibility for, the particular matter while serving as a Flight 
Standards Service aviation safety inspector.
    (c) The provisions of this section do not prohibit a fractional 
owner or fractional ownership program manager from knowingly employing 
or making a contractual arrangement which permits an individual to act 
as an agent or representative of the fractional owner or fractional 
ownership program manager in any matter before the Federal Aviation 
Administration if the individual was employed by the fractional owner or 
fractional ownership program manager before October 21, 2011.

[Doc. No. FAA-2008-1154, 76 FR 52235, Aug. 22, 2011]



Sec. 91.1051  Pilot safety background check.

    Within 90 days of an individual beginning service as a pilot, the 
program manager must request the following information:
    (a) FAA records pertaining to--
    (1) Current pilot certificates and associated type ratings.
    (2) Current medical certificates.
    (3) Summaries of legal enforcement actions resulting in a finding by 
the Administrator of a violation.
    (b) Records from all previous employers during the five years 
preceding the date of the employment application where the applicant 
worked as a pilot. If any of these firms are in bankruptcy, the records 
must be requested from the trustees in bankruptcy for those employees. 
If the previous employer is no longer in business, a documented good 
faith effort must be made to obtain the records. Records from previous 
employers must include, as applicable--
    (1) Crew member records.
    (2) Drug testing--collection, testing, and rehabilitation records 
pertaining to the individual.
    (3) Alcohol misuse prevention program records pertaining to the 
individual.
    (4) The applicant's individual record that includes certifications, 
ratings, aeronautical experience, effective date and class of the 
medical certificate.

    Effective Date Note: By Docket No.: FAA-2020-0246; Amdt. No. 91-363, 
86 FR 31060, June 10, 2021, Sec. 91.1051 was removed, effective Sept. 
9, 2024.



Sec. 91.1053  Crewmember experience.

    (a) No program manager or owner may use any person, nor may any 
person serve, as a pilot in command or

[[Page 790]]

second in command of a program aircraft, or as a flight attendant on a 
program aircraft, in program operations under this subpart unless that 
person has met the applicable requirements of part 61 of this chapter 
and has the following experience and ratings:
    (1) Total flight time for all pilots:
    (i) Pilot in command--A minimum of 1,500 hours.
    (ii) Second in command--A minimum of 500 hours.
    (2) For multi-engine turbine-powered fixed-wing and powered-lift 
aircraft, the following FAA certification and ratings requirements:
    (i) Pilot in command--Airline transport pilot and applicable type 
ratings.
    (ii) Second in command--Commercial pilot and instrument ratings.
    (iii) Flight attendant (if required or used)--Appropriately trained 
personnel.
    (3) For all other aircraft, the following FAA certification and 
rating requirements:
    (i) Pilot in command--Commercial pilot and instrument ratings.
    (ii) Second in command--Commercial pilot and instrument ratings.
    (iii) Flight attendant (if required or used)--Appropriately trained 
personnel.
    (b) The Administrator may authorize deviations from paragraph (a)(1) 
of this section if the Flight Standards office that issued the program 
manager's management specifications finds that the crewmember has 
comparable experience, and can effectively perform the functions 
associated with the position in accordance with the requirements of this 
chapter. Grants of deviation under this paragraph may be granted after 
consideration of the size and scope of the operation, the qualifications 
of the intended personnel and the circumstances set forth in Sec. 
91.1055(b)(1) through (3). The Administrator may, at any time, terminate 
any grant of deviation authority issued under this paragraph.

[Docket No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 91.1055  Pilot operating limitations and pairing requirement.

    (a) If the second in command of a fixed-wing program aircraft has 
fewer than 100 hours of flight time as second in command flying in the 
aircraft make and model and, if a type rating is required, in the type 
aircraft being flown, and the pilot in command is not an appropriately 
qualified check pilot, the pilot in command shall make all takeoffs and 
landings in any of the following situations:
    (1) Landings at the destination airport when a Destination Airport 
Analysis is required by Sec. 91.1037(c); and
    (2) In any of the following conditions:
    (i) The prevailing visibility for the airport is at or below \3/4\ 
mile.
    (ii) The runway visual range for the runway to be used is at or 
below 4,000 feet.
    (iii) The runway to be used has water, snow, slush, ice or similar 
contamination that may adversely affect aircraft performance.
    (iv) The braking action on the runway to be used is reported to be 
less than ``good.''
    (v) The crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess 
of 15 knots.
    (vi) Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport.
    (vii) Any other condition in which the pilot in command determines 
it to be prudent to exercise the pilot in command's authority.
    (b) No program manager may release a program flight under this 
subpart unless, for that aircraft make or model and, if a type rating is 
required, for that type aircraft, either the pilot in command or the 
second in command has at least 75 hours of flight time, either as pilot 
in command or second in command. The Administrator may, upon application 
by the program manager, authorize deviations from the requirements of 
this paragraph by an appropriate amendment to the management 
specifications in any of the following circumstances:
    (1) A newly authorized program manager does not employ any pilots 
who meet the minimum requirements of this paragraph.
    (2) An existing program manager adds to its fleet a new category and

[[Page 791]]

class aircraft not used before in its operation.
    (3) An existing program manager establishes a new base to which it 
assigns pilots who will be required to become qualified on the aircraft 
operated from that base.
    (c) No person may be assigned in the capacity of pilot in command in 
a program operation to more than two aircraft types that require a 
separate type rating.



Sec. 91.1057  Flight, duty and rest time requirements: All crewmembers.

    (a) For purposes of this subpart--
    Augmented flight crew means at least three pilots.
    Calendar day means the period of elapsed time, using Coordinated 
Universal Time or local time that begins at midnight and ends 24 hours 
later at the next midnight.
    Duty period means the period of elapsed time between reporting for 
an assignment involving flight time and release from that assignment by 
the program manager. All time between these two points is part of the 
duty period, even if flight time is interrupted by nonflight-related 
duties. The time is calculated using either Coordinated Universal Time 
or local time to reflect the total elapsed time.
    Extension of flight time means an increase in the flight time 
because of circumstances beyond the control of the program manager or 
flight crewmember (such as adverse weather) that are not known at the 
time of departure and that prevent the flightcrew from reaching the 
destination within the planned flight time.
    Flight attendant means an individual, other than a flight 
crewmember, who is assigned by the program manager, in accordance with 
the required minimum crew complement under the program manager's 
management specifications or in addition to that minimum complement, to 
duty in an aircraft during flight time and whose duties include but are 
not necessarily limited to cabin-safety-related responsibilities.
    Multi-time zone flight means an easterly or westerly flight or 
multiple flights in one direction in the same duty period that results 
in a time zone difference of 5 or more hours and is conducted in a 
geographic area that is south of 60 degrees north latitude and north of 
60 degrees south latitude.
    Reserve status means that status in which a flight crewmember, by 
arrangement with the program manager: Holds himself or herself fit to 
fly to the extent that this is within the control of the flight 
crewmember; remains within a reasonable response time of the aircraft as 
agreed between the flight crewmember and the program manager; and 
maintains a ready means whereby the flight crewmember may be contacted 
by the program manager. Reserve status is not part of any duty period or 
rest period.
    Rest period means a period of time required pursuant to this subpart 
that is free of all responsibility for work or duty prior to the 
commencement of, or following completion of, a duty period, and during 
which the flight crewmember or flight attendant cannot be required to 
receive contact from the program manager. A rest period does not include 
any time during which the program manager imposes on a flight crewmember 
or flight attendant any duty or restraint, including any actual work or 
present responsibility for work should the occasion arise.
    Standby means that portion of a duty period during which a flight 
crewmember is subject to the control of the program manager and holds 
himself or herself in a condition of readiness to undertake a flight. 
Standby is not part of any rest period.
    (b) A program manager may assign a crewmember and a crewmember may 
accept an assignment for flight time only when the applicable 
requirements of this section and Sec. Sec. 91.1059-91.1062 are met.
    (c) No program manager may assign any crewmember to any duty during 
any required rest period.
    (d) Time spent in transportation, not local in character, that a 
program manager requires of a crewmember and provides to transport the 
crewmember to an airport at which he or she is to serve on a flight as a 
crewmember, or from an airport at which he or she was relieved from duty 
to return to his or her home station, is not considered part of a rest 
period.

[[Page 792]]

    (e) A flight crewmember may continue a flight assignment if the 
flight to which he or she is assigned would normally terminate within 
the flight time limitations, but because of circumstances beyond the 
control of the program manager or flight crewmember (such as adverse 
weather conditions), is not at the time of departure expected to reach 
its destination within the planned flight time. The extension of flight 
time under this paragraph may not exceed the maximum time limits set 
forth in Sec. 91.1059.
    (f) Each flight assignment must provide for at least 10 consecutive 
hours of rest during the 24-hour period that precedes the completion 
time of the assignment.
    (g) The program manager must provide each crewmember at least 13 
rest periods of at least 24 consecutive hours each in each calendar 
quarter.
    (h) A flight crewmember may decline a flight assignment if, in the 
flight crewmember's determination, to do so would not be consistent with 
the standard of safe operation required under this subpart, this part, 
and applicable provisions of this title.
    (i) Any rest period required by this subpart may occur concurrently 
with any other rest period.
    (j) If authorized by the Administrator, a program manager may use 
the applicable unscheduled flight time limitations, duty period 
limitations, and rest requirements of part 121 or part 135 of this 
chapter instead of the flight time limitations, duty period limitations, 
and rest requirements of this subpart.



Sec. 91.1059  Flight time limitations and rest requirements:
One or two pilot crews.

    (a) No program manager may assign any flight crewmember, and no 
flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for flight time as a member 
of a one- or two-pilot crew if that crewmember's total flight time in 
all commercial flying will exceed--
    (1) 500 hours in any calendar quarter;
    (2) 800 hours in any two consecutive calendar quarters;
    (3) 1,400 hours in any calendar year.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, during any 
24 consecutive hours the total flight time of the assigned flight, when 
added to any commercial flying by that flight crewmember, may not 
exceed--
    (1) 8 hours for a flight crew consisting of one pilot; or
    (2) 10 hours for a flight crew consisting of two pilots qualified 
under this subpart for the operation being conducted.
    (c) No program manager may assign any flight crewmember, and no 
flight crewmember may accept an assignment, if that crewmember's flight 
time or duty period will exceed, or rest time will be less than--

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                 Normal duty                   Extension of flight time
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(1) Minimum Rest Immediately Before      10 Hours..................  10 Hours.
 Duty.
(2) Duty Period........................  Up to 14 Hours............  Up to 14 Hours.
(3) Flight Time For 1 Pilot............  Up to 8 Hours.............  Exceeding 8 Hours up to 9 Hours.
(4) Flight Time For 2 Pilots...........  Up to 10 Hours............  Exceeding 10 Hours up to 12 Hours.
(5) Minimum After Duty Rest............  10 Hours..................  12 Hours.
(6) Minimum After Duty Rest Period for   14 Hours..................  18 Hours.
 Multi-Time Zone Flights.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------



Sec. 91.1061  Augmented flight crews.

    (a) No program manager may assign any flight crewmember, and no 
flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for flight time as a member 
of an augmented crew if that crewmember's total flight time in all 
commercial flying will exceed--
    (1) 500 hours in any calendar quarter;
    (2) 800 hours in any two consecutive calendar quarters;
    (3) 1,400 hours in any calendar year.
    (b) No program manager may assign any pilot to an augmented crew, 
unless the program manager ensures:
    (1) Adequate sleeping facilities are installed on the aircraft for 
the pilots.
    (2) No more than 8 hours of flight deck duty is accrued in any 24 
consecutive hours.
    (3) For a three-pilot crew, the crew must consist of at least the 
following:

[[Page 793]]

    (i) A pilot in command (PIC) who meets the applicable flight 
crewmember requirements of this subpart and Sec. 61.57 of this chapter.
    (ii) A PIC qualified pilot who meets the applicable flight 
crewmember requirements of this subpart and Sec. 61.57(c) and (d) of 
this chapter.
    (iii) A second in command (SIC) who meets the SIC qualifications of 
this subpart. For flight under IFR, that person must also meet the 
recent instrument experience requirements of part 61 of this chapter.
    (4) For a four-pilot crew, at least three pilots who meet the 
conditions of paragraph (b)(3) of this section, plus a fourth pilot who 
meets the SIC qualifications of this subpart. For flight under IFR, that 
person must also meet the recent instrument experience requirements of 
part 61 of this chapter.
    (c) No program manager may assign any flight crewmember, and no 
flight crewmember may accept an assignment, if that crewmember's flight 
time or duty period will exceed, or rest time will be less than--

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                    3-Pilot crew                         4-Pilot crew
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(1) Minimum Rest Immediately Before     10 Hours...........................  10 Hours
 Duty.
(2) Duty Period.......................  Up to 16 Hours.....................  Up to 18 Hours
(3) Flight Time.......................  Up to 12 Hours.....................  Up to 16 Hours
(4) Minimum After Duty Rest...........  12 Hours...........................  18 Hours
(5) Minimum After Duty Rest Period for  18 hours...........................  24 hours
 Multi-Time Zone Flights.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------



Sec. 91.1062  Duty periods and rest requirements: Flight attendants.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a program 
manager may assign a duty period to a flight attendant only when the 
assignment meets the applicable duty period limitations and rest 
requirements of this paragraph.
    (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(4), (a)(5), and (a)(6) of 
this section, no program manager may assign a flight attendant to a 
scheduled duty period of more than 14 hours.
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a flight 
attendant scheduled to a duty period of 14 hours or less as provided 
under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be given a scheduled rest 
period of at least 9 consecutive hours. This rest period must occur 
between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the commencement 
of the subsequent duty period.
    (3) The rest period required under paragraph (a)(2) of this section 
may be scheduled or reduced to 8 consecutive hours if the flight 
attendant is provided a subsequent rest period of at least 10 
consecutive hours; this subsequent rest period must be scheduled to 
begin no later than 24 hours after the beginning of the reduced rest 
period and must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty 
period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period.
    (4) A program manager may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled 
duty period of more than 14 hours, but no more than 16 hours, if the 
program manager has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty 
period at least one flight attendant in addition to the minimum flight 
attendant complement required for the flight or flights in that duty 
period under the program manager's management specifications.
    (5) A program manager may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled 
duty period of more than 16 hours, but no more than 18 hours, if the 
program manager has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty 
period at least two flight attendants in addition to the minimum flight 
attendant complement required for the flight or flights in that duty 
period under the program manager's management specifications.
    (6) A program manager may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled 
duty period of more than 18 hours, but no more than 20 hours, if the 
scheduled duty period includes one or more flights that land or take off 
outside the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia, and if 
the program manager has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty 
period at least three flight attendants in addition to the minimum 
flight attendant complement required

[[Page 794]]

for the flight or flights in that duty period under the program 
manager's management specifications.
    (7) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, a flight 
attendant scheduled to a duty period of more than 14 hours but no more 
than 20 hours, as provided in paragraphs (a)(4), (a)(5), and (a)(6) of 
this section, must be given a scheduled rest period of at least 12 
consecutive hours. This rest period must occur between the completion of 
the scheduled duty period and the commencement of the subsequent duty 
period.
    (8) The rest period required under paragraph (a)(7) of this section 
may be scheduled or reduced to 10 consecutive hours if the flight 
attendant is provided a subsequent rest period of at least 14 
consecutive hours; this subsequent rest period must be scheduled to 
begin no later than 24 hours after the beginning of the reduced rest 
period and must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty 
period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period.
    (9) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(4), (a)(5), and (a)(6) of this 
section, if a program manager elects to reduce the rest period to 10 
hours as authorized by paragraph (a)(8) of this section, the program 
manager may not schedule a flight attendant for a duty period of more 
than 14 hours during the 24-hour period commencing after the beginning 
of the reduced rest period.
    (b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a program manager 
may apply the flight crewmember flight time and duty limitations and 
rest requirements of this part to flight attendants for all operations 
conducted under this part provided that the program manager establishes 
written procedures that--
    (1) Apply to all flight attendants used in the program manager's 
operation;
    (2) Include the flight crewmember rest and duty requirements of 
Sec. Sec. 91.1057, 91.1059, and 91.1061, as appropriate to the 
operation being conducted, except that rest facilities on board the 
aircraft are not required;
    (3) Include provisions to add one flight attendant to the minimum 
flight attendant complement for each flight crewmember who is in excess 
of the minimum number required in the aircraft type certificate data 
sheet and who is assigned to the aircraft under the provisions of Sec. 
91.1061; and
    (4) Are approved by the Administrator and described or referenced in 
the program manager's management specifications.



Sec. 91.1063  Testing and training: Applicability and terms used.

    (a) Sections 91.1065 through 91.1107:
    (1) Prescribe the tests and checks required for pilots and flight 
attendant crewmembers and for the approval of check pilots in operations 
under this subpart;
    (2) Prescribe the requirements for establishing and maintaining an 
approved training program for crewmembers, check pilots and instructors, 
and other operations personnel employed or used by the program manager 
in program operations;
    (3) Prescribe the requirements for the qualification, approval and 
use of aircraft simulators and flight training devices in the conduct of 
an approved training program; and
    (4) Permits training center personnel authorized under part 142 of 
this chapter who meet the requirements of Sec. 91.1075 to conduct 
training, testing and checking under contract or other arrangements to 
those persons subject to the requirements of this subpart.
    (b) If authorized by the Administrator, a program manager may comply 
with the applicable training and testing sections of part 121, subparts 
N and O of this chapter instead of Sec. Sec. 91.1065 through 91.1107, 
provided that the following additional limitations and allowances apply 
to program managers so authorized:
    (1) Operating experience and operations familiarization. Program 
managers are not required to comply with the operating experience 
requirements of Sec. 121.434 or the operations familiarization 
requirements of Sec. 121.435 of this chapter.
    (2) Upgrade training. (i) Each program manager must include in 
upgrade ground training for pilots, instruction in at least the subjects 
identified in Sec. 121.419(a) of this chapter, as applicable to their 
assigned duties; and, for pilots serving in crews of two or more pilots,

[[Page 795]]

beginning on April 27, 2022, instruction and facilitated discussion in 
the subjects identified in Sec. 121.419(c) of this chapter.
    (ii) Each program manager must include in upgrade flight training 
for pilots, flight training for the maneuvers and procedures required in 
Sec. 121.424(a), (c), (e), and (f) of this chapter; and, for pilots 
serving in crews of two or more pilots, beginning on April 27, 2022, the 
flight training required in Sec. 121.424(b) of this chapter.
    (3) Initial and recurrent leadership and command and mentoring 
training. Program managers are not required to include leadership and 
command training in Sec. Sec. 121.409(b)(2)(ii)(B)(6), 121.419(c)(1), 
121.424(b) and 121.427(d)(1) of this chapter, and mentoring training in 
Sec. Sec. 121.419(c)(2) and 121.427(d)(1) of this chapter in initial 
and recurrent training for pilots in command who serve in operations 
that use only one pilot.
    (4) One-time leadership and command and mentoring training. Section 
121.429 of this chapter does not apply to program managers conducting 
operations under this subpart when those operations use only one pilot.
    (c) If authorized by the Administrator, a program manager may comply 
with the applicable training and testing sections of subparts G and H of 
part 135 of this chapter instead of Sec. Sec. 91.1065 through 91.1107, 
except for the operating experience requirements of Sec. 135.244 of 
this chapter.
    (d) For the purposes of this subpart, the following terms and 
definitions apply:
    (1) Initial training. The training required for crewmembers who have 
not qualified and served in the same capacity on an aircraft.
    (2) Transition training. The training required for crewmembers who 
have qualified and served in the same capacity on another aircraft.
    (3) Upgrade training. The training required for crewmembers who have 
qualified and served as second in command on a particular aircraft type, 
before they serve as pilot in command on that aircraft.
    (4) Differences training. The training required for crewmembers who 
have qualified and served on a particular type aircraft, when the 
Administrator finds differences training is necessary before a 
crewmember serves in the same capacity on a particular variation of that 
aircraft.
    (5) Recurrent training. The training required for crewmembers to 
remain adequately trained and currently proficient for each aircraft 
crewmember position, and type of operation in which the crewmember 
serves.
    (6) In flight. The maneuvers, procedures, or functions that will be 
conducted in the aircraft.
    (7) Training center. An organization governed by the applicable 
requirements of part 142 of this chapter that conducts training, 
testing, and checking under contract or other arrangement to program 
managers subject to the requirements of this subpart.
    (8) Requalification training. The training required for crewmembers 
previously trained and qualified, but who have become unqualified 
because of not having met within the required period any of the 
following:
    (i) Recurrent crewmember training requirements of Sec. 91.1107.
    (ii) Instrument proficiency check requirements of Sec. 91.1069.
    (iii) Testing requirements of Sec. 91.1065.
    (iv) Recurrent flight attendant testing requirements of Sec. 
91.1067.

[Docket No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-144, 85 FR 10920, Feb. 25, 2020]



Sec. 91.1065  Initial and recurrent pilot testing requirements.

    (a) No program manager or owner may use a pilot, nor may any person 
serve as a pilot, unless, since the beginning of the 12th month before 
that service, that pilot has passed either a written or oral test (or a 
combination), given by the Administrator or an authorized check pilot, 
on that pilot's knowledge in the following areas--
    (1) The appropriate provisions of parts 61 and 91 of this chapter 
and the management specifications and the operating manual of the 
program manager;
    (2) For each type of aircraft to be flown by the pilot, the aircraft 
powerplant, major components and systems, major appliances, performance 
and operating limitations, standard and emergency operating procedures, 
and

[[Page 796]]

the contents of the accepted operating manual or equivalent, as 
applicable;
    (3) For each type of aircraft to be flown by the pilot, the method 
of determining compliance with weight and balance limitations for 
takeoff, landing and en route operations;
    (4) Navigation and use of air navigation aids appropriate to the 
operation or pilot authorization, including, when applicable, instrument 
approach facilities and procedures;
    (5) Air traffic control procedures, including IFR procedures when 
applicable;
    (6) Meteorology in general, including the principles of frontal 
systems, icing, fog, thunderstorms, and windshear, and, if appropriate 
for the operation of the program manager, high altitude weather;
    (7) Procedures for--
    (i) Recognizing and avoiding severe weather situations;
    (ii) Escaping from severe weather situations, in case of inadvertent 
encounters, including low-altitude windshear (except that rotorcraft 
aircraft pilots are not required to be tested on escaping from low-
altitude windshear); and
    (iii) Operating in or near thunderstorms (including best penetration 
altitudes), turbulent air (including clear air turbulence), icing, hail, 
and other potentially hazardous meteorological conditions; and
    (8) New equipment, procedures, or techniques, as appropriate.
    (b) No program manager or owner may use a pilot, nor may any person 
serve as a pilot, in any aircraft unless, since the beginning of the 
12th month before that service, that pilot has passed a competency check 
given by the Administrator or an authorized check pilot in that class of 
aircraft, if single-engine aircraft other than turbojet, or that type of 
aircraft, if rotorcraft, multiengine aircraft, or turbojet airplane, to 
determine the pilot's competence in practical skills and techniques in 
that aircraft or class of aircraft. The extent of the competency check 
will be determined by the Administrator or authorized check pilot 
conducting the competency check. The competency check may include any of 
the maneuvers and procedures currently required for the original 
issuance of the particular pilot certificate required for the operations 
authorized and appropriate to the category, class and type of aircraft 
involved. For the purposes of this paragraph, type, as to an airplane, 
means any one of a group of airplanes determined by the Administrator to 
have a similar means of propulsion, the same manufacturer, and no 
significantly different handling or flight characteristics. For the 
purposes of this paragraph, type, as to a rotorcraft, means a basic make 
and model.
    (c) The instrument proficiency check required by Sec. 91.1069 may 
be substituted for the competency check required by this section for the 
type of aircraft used in the check.
    (d) For the purpose of this subpart, competent performance of a 
procedure or maneuver by a person to be used as a pilot requires that 
the pilot be the obvious master of the aircraft, with the successful 
outcome of the maneuver never in doubt.
    (e) The Administrator or authorized check pilot certifies the 
competency of each pilot who passes the knowledge or flight check in the 
program manager's pilot records.
    (f) All or portions of a required competency check may be given in 
an aircraft simulator or other appropriate training device, if approved 
by the Administrator.
    (g) If the program manager is authorized to conduct EFVS operations, 
the competency check in paragraph (b) of this section must include tasks 
appropriate to the EFVS operations the certificate holder is authorized 
to conduct.

[Docket No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 91-345, 81 FR 90175, Dec. 13, 2016]



Sec. 91.1067  Initial and recurrent flight attendant crewmember testing requirements.

    No program manager or owner may use a flight attendant crewmember, 
nor may any person serve as a flight attendant crewmember unless, since 
the beginning of the 12th month before that service, the program manager 
has determined by appropriate initial and recurrent testing that the 
person is

[[Page 797]]

knowledgeable and competent in the following areas as appropriate to 
assigned duties and responsibilities--
    (a) Authority of the pilot in command;
    (b) Passenger handling, including procedures to be followed in 
handling deranged persons or other persons whose conduct might 
jeopardize safety;
    (c) Crewmember assignments, functions, and responsibilities during 
ditching and evacuation of persons who may need the assistance of 
another person to move expeditiously to an exit in an emergency;
    (d) Briefing of passengers;
    (e) Location and operation of portable fire extinguishers and other 
items of emergency equipment;
    (f) Proper use of cabin equipment and controls;
    (g) Location and operation of passenger oxygen equipment;
    (h) Location and operation of all normal and emergency exits, 
including evacuation slides and escape ropes; and
    (i) Seating of persons who may need assistance of another person to 
move rapidly to an exit in an emergency as prescribed by the program 
manager's operations manual.



Sec. 91.1069  Flight crew: Instrument proficiency check requirements.

    (a) No program manager or owner may use a pilot, nor may any person 
serve, as a pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR unless, since the 
beginning of the 6th month before that service, that pilot has passed an 
instrument proficiency check under this section administered by the 
Administrator or an authorized check pilot.
    (b) No program manager or owner may use a pilot, nor may any person 
serve, as a second command pilot of an aircraft under IFR unless, since 
the beginning of the 12th month before that service, that pilot has 
passed an instrument proficiency check under this section administered 
by the Administrator or an authorized check pilot.
    (c) No pilot may use any type of precision instrument approach 
procedure under IFR unless, since the beginning of the 6th month before 
that use, the pilot satisfactorily demonstrated that type of approach 
procedure. No pilot may use any type of nonprecision approach procedure 
under IFR unless, since the beginning of the 6th month before that use, 
the pilot has satisfactorily demonstrated either that type of approach 
procedure or any other two different types of nonprecision approach 
procedures. The instrument approach procedure or procedures must include 
at least one straight-in approach, one circling approach, and one missed 
approach. Each type of approach procedure demonstrated must be conducted 
to published minimums for that procedure.
    (d) The instrument proficiency checks required by paragraphs (a) and 
(b) of this section consists of either an oral or written equipment test 
(or a combination) and a flight check under simulated or actual IFR 
conditions. The equipment test includes questions on emergency 
procedures, engine operation, fuel and lubrication systems, power 
settings, stall speeds, best engine-out speed, propeller and 
supercharger operations, and hydraulic, mechanical, and electrical 
systems, as appropriate. The flight check includes navigation by 
instruments, recovery from simulated emergencies, and standard 
instrument approaches involving navigational facilities which that pilot 
is to be authorized to use.
    (e) Each pilot taking the instrument proficiency check must show 
that standard of competence required by Sec. 91.1065(d).
    (1) The instrument proficiency check must--
    (i) For a pilot in command of an aircraft requiring that the PIC 
hold an airline transport pilot certificate, include the procedures and 
maneuvers for an airline transport pilot certificate in the particular 
type of aircraft, if appropriate; and
    (ii) For a pilot in command of a rotorcraft or a second in command 
of any aircraft requiring that the SIC hold a commercial pilot 
certificate include the procedures and maneuvers for a commercial pilot 
certificate with an instrument rating and, if required, for the 
appropriate type rating.
    (2) The instrument proficiency check must be given by an authorized 
check pilot or by the Administrator.
    (f) If the pilot is assigned to pilot only one type of aircraft, 
that pilot

[[Page 798]]

must take the instrument proficiency check required by paragraph (a) of 
this section in that type of aircraft.
    (g) If the pilot in command is assigned to pilot more than one type 
of aircraft, that pilot must take the instrument proficiency check 
required by paragraph (a) of this section in each type of aircraft to 
which that pilot is assigned, in rotation, but not more than one flight 
check during each period described in paragraph (a) of this section.
    (h) If the pilot in command is assigned to pilot both single-engine 
and multiengine aircraft, that pilot must initially take the instrument 
proficiency check required by paragraph (a) of this section in a 
multiengine aircraft, and each succeeding check alternately in single-
engine and multiengine aircraft, but not more than one flight check 
during each period described in paragraph (a) of this section.
    (i) All or portions of a required flight check may be given in an 
aircraft simulator or other appropriate training device, if approved by 
the Administrator.



Sec. 91.1071  Crewmember: Tests and checks, grace provisions, 
training to accepted standards.

    (a) If a crewmember who is required to take a test or a flight check 
under this subpart, completes the test or flight check in the month 
before or after the month in which it is required, that crewmember is 
considered to have completed the test or check in the month in which it 
is required.
    (b) If a pilot being checked under this subpart fails any of the 
required maneuvers, the person giving the check may give additional 
training to the pilot during the course of the check. In addition to 
repeating the maneuvers failed, the person giving the check may require 
the pilot being checked to repeat any other maneuvers that are necessary 
to determine the pilot's proficiency. If the pilot being checked is 
unable to demonstrate satisfactory performance to the person conducting 
the check, the program manager may not use the pilot, nor may the pilot 
serve, as a flight crewmember in operations under this subpart until the 
pilot has satisfactorily completed the check. If a pilot who 
demonstrates unsatisfactory performance is employed as a pilot for a 
certificate holder operating under part 121, 125, or 135 of this 
chapter, he or she must notify that certificate holder of the 
unsatisfactory performance.



Sec. 91.1073  Training program: General.

    (a) Each program manager must have a training program and must:
    (1) Establish, obtain the appropriate initial and final approval of, 
and provide a training program that meets this subpart and that ensures 
that each crewmember, including each flight attendant if the program 
manager uses a flight attendant crewmember, flight instructor, check 
pilot, and each person assigned duties for the carriage and handling of 
hazardous materials (as defined in 49 CFR 171.8) is adequately trained 
to perform these assigned duties.
    (2) Provide adequate ground and flight training facilities and 
properly qualified ground instructors for the training required by this 
subpart.
    (3) Provide and keep current for each aircraft type used and, if 
applicable, the particular variations within the aircraft type, 
appropriate training material, examinations, forms, instructions, and 
procedures for use in conducting the training and checks required by 
this subpart.
    (4) Provide enough flight instructors, check pilots, and simulator 
instructors to conduct required flight training and flight checks, and 
simulator training courses allowed under this subpart.
    (b) Whenever a crewmember who is required to take recurrent training 
under this subpart completes the training in the month before, or the 
month after, the month in which that training is required, the 
crewmember is considered to have completed it in the month in which it 
was required.
    (c) Each instructor, supervisor, or check pilot who is responsible 
for a particular ground training subject, segment of flight training, 
course of training, flight check, or competence check under this subpart 
must certify as to the proficiency and knowledge of the crewmember, 
flight instructor, or check pilot concerned upon completion of that 
training or check. That certification must be made a part of the

[[Page 799]]

crewmember's record. When the certification required by this paragraph 
is made by an entry in a computerized recordkeeping system, the 
certifying instructor, supervisor, or check pilot, must be identified 
with that entry. However, the signature of the certifying instructor, 
supervisor, or check pilot is not required for computerized entries.
    (d) Training subjects that apply to more than one aircraft or 
crewmember position and that have been satisfactorily completed during 
previous training while employed by the program manager for another 
aircraft or another crewmember position, need not be repeated during 
subsequent training other than recurrent training.
    (e) Aircraft simulators and other training devices may be used in 
the program manager's training program if approved by the Administrator.
    (f) Each program manager is responsible for establishing safe and 
efficient crew management practices for all phases of flight in program 
operations including crew resource management training for all 
crewmembers used in program operations.
    (g) If an aircraft simulator has been approved by the Administrator 
for use in the program manager's training program, the program manager 
must ensure that each pilot annually completes at least one flight 
training session in an approved simulator for at least one program 
aircraft. The training session may be the flight training portion of any 
of the pilot training or check requirements of this subpart, including 
the initial, transition, upgrade, requalification, differences, or 
recurrent training, or the accomplishment of a competency check or 
instrument proficiency check. If there is no approved simulator for that 
aircraft type in operation, then all flight training and checking must 
be accomplished in the aircraft.



Sec. 91.1075  Training program: Special rules.

    Other than the program manager, only the following are eligible 
under this subpart to conduct training, testing, and checking under 
contract or other arrangement to those persons subject to the 
requirements of this subpart.
    (a) Another program manager operating under this subpart:
    (b) A training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter to 
conduct training, testing, and checking required by this subpart if the 
training center--
    (1) Holds applicable training specifications issued under part 142 
of this chapter;
    (2) Has facilities, training equipment, and courseware meeting the 
applicable requirements of part 142 of this chapter;
    (3) Has approved curriculums, curriculum segments, and portions of 
curriculum segments applicable for use in training courses required by 
this subpart; and
    (4) Has sufficient instructors and check pilots qualified under the 
applicable requirements of Sec. Sec. 91.1089 through 91.1095 to conduct 
training, testing, and checking to persons subject to the requirements 
of this subpart.
    (c) A part 119 certificate holder operating under part 121 or part 
135 of this chapter.
    (d) As authorized by the Administrator, a training center that is 
not certificated under part 142 of this chapter.



Sec. 91.1077  Training program and revision: Initial and final approval.

    (a) To obtain initial and final approval of a training program, or a 
revision to an approved training program, each program manager must 
submit to the Administrator--
    (1) An outline of the proposed or revised curriculum, that provides 
enough information for a preliminary evaluation of the proposed training 
program or revision; and
    (2) Additional relevant information that may be requested by the 
Administrator.
    (b) If the proposed training program or revision complies with this 
subpart, the Administrator grants initial approval in writing after 
which the program manager may conduct the training under that program. 
The Administrator then evaluates the effectiveness of the training 
program and advises the

[[Page 800]]

program manager of deficiencies, if any, that must be corrected.
    (c) The Administrator grants final approval of the proposed training 
program or revision if the program manager shows that the training 
conducted under the initial approval in paragraph (b) of this section 
ensures that each person who successfully completes the training is 
adequately trained to perform that person's assigned duties.
    (d) Whenever the Administrator finds that revisions are necessary 
for the continued adequacy of a training program that has been granted 
final approval, the program manager must, after notification by the 
Administrator, make any changes in the program that are found necessary 
by the Administrator. Within 30 days after the program manager receives 
the notice, it may file a petition to reconsider the notice with the 
Administrator. The filing of a petition to reconsider stays the notice 
pending a decision by the Administrator. However, if the Administrator 
finds that there is an emergency that requires immediate action in the 
interest of safety, the Administrator may, upon a statement of the 
reasons, require a change effective without stay.



Sec. 91.1079  Training program: Curriculum.

    (a) Each program manager must prepare and keep current a written 
training program curriculum for each type of aircraft for each 
crewmember required for that type aircraft. The curriculum must include 
ground and flight training required by this subpart.
    (b) Each training program curriculum must include the following:
    (1) A list of principal ground training subjects, including 
emergency training subjects, that are provided.
    (2) A list of all the training devices, mock-ups, systems trainers, 
procedures trainers, or other training aids that the program manager 
will use.
    (3) Detailed descriptions or pictorial displays of the approved 
normal, abnormal, and emergency maneuvers, procedures and functions that 
will be performed during each flight training phase or flight check, 
indicating those maneuvers, procedures and functions that are to be 
performed during the inflight portions of flight training and flight 
checks.



Sec. 91.1081  Crewmember training requirements.

    (a) Each program manager must include in its training program the 
following initial and transition ground training as appropriate to the 
particular assignment of the crewmember:
    (1) Basic indoctrination ground training for newly hired crewmembers 
including instruction in at least the--
    (i) Duties and responsibilities of crewmembers as applicable;
    (ii) Appropriate provisions of this chapter;
    (iii) Contents of the program manager's management specifications 
(not required for flight attendants); and
    (iv) Appropriate portions of the program manager's operating manual.
    (2) The initial and transition ground training in Sec. Sec. 91.1101 
and 91.1105, as applicable.
    (3) Emergency training in Sec. 91.1083.
    (b) Each training program must provide the initial and transition 
flight training in Sec. 91.1103, as applicable.
    (c) Each training program must provide recurrent ground and flight 
training as provided in Sec. 91.1107.
    (d) Upgrade training in Sec. Sec. 91.1101 and 91.1103 for a 
particular type aircraft may be included in the training program for 
crewmembers who have qualified and served as second in command on that 
aircraft.
    (e) In addition to initial, transition, upgrade and recurrent 
training, each training program must provide ground and flight training, 
instruction, and practice necessary to ensure that each crewmember--
    (1) Remains adequately trained and currently proficient for each 
aircraft, crewmember position, and type of operation in which the 
crewmember serves; and
    (2) Qualifies in new equipment, facilities, procedures, and 
techniques, including modifications to aircraft.



Sec. 91.1083  Crewmember emergency training.

    (a) Each training program must provide emergency training under this 
section for each aircraft type, model, and configuration, each 
crewmember, and

[[Page 801]]

each kind of operation conducted, as appropriate for each crewmember and 
the program manager.
    (b) Emergency training must provide the following:
    (1) Instruction in emergency assignments and procedures, including 
coordination among crewmembers.
    (2) Individual instruction in the location, function, and operation 
of emergency equipment including--
    (i) Equipment used in ditching and evacuation;
    (ii) First aid equipment and its proper use; and
    (iii) Portable fire extinguishers, with emphasis on the type of 
extinguisher to be used on different classes of fires.
    (3) Instruction in the handling of emergency situations including--
    (i) Rapid decompression;
    (ii) Fire in flight or on the surface and smoke control procedures 
with emphasis on electrical equipment and related circuit breakers found 
in cabin areas;
    (iii) Ditching and evacuation;
    (iv) Illness, injury, or other abnormal situations involving 
passengers or crewmembers; and
    (v) Hijacking and other unusual situations.
    (4) Review and discussion of previous aircraft accidents and 
incidents involving actual emergency situations.
    (c) Each crewmember must perform at least the following emergency 
drills, using the proper emergency equipment and procedures, unless the 
Administrator finds that, for a particular drill, the crewmember can be 
adequately trained by demonstration:
    (1) Ditching, if applicable.
    (2) Emergency evacuation.
    (3) Fire extinguishing and smoke control.
    (4) Operation and use of emergency exits, including deployment and 
use of evacuation slides, if applicable.
    (5) Use of crew and passenger oxygen.
    (6) Removal of life rafts from the aircraft, inflation of the life 
rafts, use of lifelines, and boarding of passengers and crew, if 
applicable.
    (7) Donning and inflation of life vests and the use of other 
individual flotation devices, if applicable.
    (d) Crewmembers who serve in operations above 25,000 feet must 
receive instruction in the following:
    (1) Respiration.
    (2) Hypoxia.
    (3) Duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen at 
altitude.
    (4) Gas expansion.
    (5) Gas bubble formation.
    (6) Physical phenomena and incidents of decompression.



Sec. 91.1085  Hazardous materials recognition training.

    No program manager may use any person to perform, and no person may 
perform, any assigned duties and responsibilities for the handling or 
carriage of hazardous materials (as defined in 49 CFR 171.8), unless 
that person has received training in the recognition of hazardous 
materials.



Sec. 91.1087  Approval of aircraft simulators and other training devices.

    (a) Training courses using aircraft simulators and other training 
devices may be included in the program manager's training program if 
approved by the Administrator.
    (b) Each aircraft simulator and other training device that is used 
in a training course or in checks required under this subpart must meet 
the following requirements:
    (1) It must be specifically approved for--
    (i) The program manager; and
    (ii) The particular maneuver, procedure, or crewmember function 
involved.
    (2) It must maintain the performance, functional, and other 
characteristics that are required for approval.
    (3) Additionally, for aircraft simulators, it must be--
    (i) Approved for the type aircraft and, if applicable, the 
particular variation within type for which the training or check is 
being conducted; and
    (ii) Modified to conform with any modification to the aircraft being 
simulated that changes the performance, functional, or other 
characteristics required for approval.
    (c) A particular aircraft simulator or other training device may be 
used by more than one program manager.

[[Page 802]]

    (d) In granting initial and final approval of training programs or 
revisions to them, the Administrator considers the training devices, 
methods, and procedures listed in the program manager's curriculum under 
Sec. 91.1079.



Sec. 91.1089  Qualifications: Check pilots (aircraft) and check pilots (simulator).

    (a) For the purposes of this section and Sec. 91.1093:
    (1) A check pilot (aircraft) is a person who is qualified to conduct 
flight checks in an aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight 
training device for a particular type aircraft.
    (2) A check pilot (simulator) is a person who is qualified to 
conduct flight checks, but only in a flight simulator, in a flight 
training device, or both, for a particular type aircraft.
    (3) Check pilots (aircraft) and check pilots (simulator) are those 
check pilots who perform the functions described in Sec. 91.1073(a)(4) 
and (c).
    (b) No program manager may use a person, nor may any person serve as 
a check pilot (aircraft) in a training program established under this 
subpart unless, with respect to the aircraft type involved, that 
person--
    (1) Holds the pilot certificates and ratings required to serve as a 
pilot in command in operations under this subpart;
    (2) Has satisfactorily completed the training phases for the 
aircraft, including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a 
pilot in command in operations under this subpart;
    (3) Has satisfactorily completed the proficiency or competency 
checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations 
under this subpart;
    (4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training 
requirements of Sec. 91.1093;
    (5) Holds at least a Class III medical certificate unless serving as 
a required crewmember, in which case holds a Class I or Class II medical 
certificate as appropriate; and
    (6) Has been approved by the Administrator for the check pilot 
duties involved.
    (c) No program manager may use a person, nor may any person serve as 
a check pilot (simulator) in a training program established under this 
subpart unless, with respect to the aircraft type involved, that person 
meets the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, or--
    (1) Holds the applicable pilot certificates and ratings, except 
medical certificate, required to serve as a pilot in command in 
operations under this subpart;
    (2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases for 
the aircraft, including recurrent training, that are required to serve 
as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart;
    (3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency or 
competency checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command in 
operations under this subpart;
    (4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training 
requirements of Sec. 91.1093; and
    (5) Has been approved by the Administrator for the check pilot 
(simulator) duties involved.
    (d) Completion of the requirements in paragraphs (b)(2), (3), and 
(4) or (c)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, as applicable, must be 
entered in the individual's training record maintained by the program 
manager.
    (e) A check pilot who does not hold an appropriate medical 
certificate may function as a check pilot (simulator), but may not serve 
as a flightcrew member in operations under this subpart.
    (f) A check pilot (simulator) must accomplish the following--
    (1) Fly at least two flight segments as a required crewmember for 
the type, class, or category aircraft involved within the 12-month 
period preceding the performance of any check pilot duty in a flight 
simulator; or
    (2) Before performing any check pilot duty in a flight simulator, 
satisfactorily complete an approved line-observation program within the 
period prescribed by that program.
    (g) The flight segments or line-observation program required in 
paragraph (f) of this section are considered to be completed in the 
month required if completed in the month before or the month after the 
month in which they are due.

[[Page 803]]



Sec. 91.1091  Qualifications: Flight instructors (aircraft)
and flight instructors (simulator).

    (a) For the purposes of this section and Sec. 91.1095:
    (1) A flight instructor (aircraft) is a person who is qualified to 
instruct in an aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training 
device for a particular type, class, or category aircraft.
    (2) A flight instructor (simulator) is a person who is qualified to 
instruct in a flight simulator, in a flight training device, or in both, 
for a particular type, class, or category aircraft.
    (3) Flight instructors (aircraft) and flight instructors (simulator) 
are those instructors who perform the functions described in Sec. 
91.1073(a)(4) and (c).
    (b) No program manager may use a person, nor may any person serve as 
a flight instructor (aircraft) in a training program established under 
this subpart unless, with respect to the type, class, or category 
aircraft involved, that person--
    (1) Holds the pilot certificates and ratings required to serve as a 
pilot in command in operations under this subpart or part 121 or 135 of 
this chapter;
    (2) Has satisfactorily completed the training phases for the 
aircraft, including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a 
pilot in command in operations under this subpart;
    (3) Has satisfactorily completed the proficiency or competency 
checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations 
under this subpart;
    (4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training 
requirements of Sec. 91.1095; and
    (5) Holds at least a Class III medical certificate.
    (c) No program manager may use a person, nor may any person serve as 
a flight instructor (simulator) in a training program established under 
this subpart, unless, with respect to the type, class, or category 
aircraft involved, that person meets the provisions of paragraph (b) of 
this section, or--
    (1) Holds the pilot certificates and ratings, except medical 
certificate, required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under 
this subpart or part 121 or 135 of this chapter;
    (2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases for 
the aircraft, including recurrent training, that are required to serve 
as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart;
    (3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency or 
competency checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command in 
operations under this subpart; and
    (4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training 
requirements of Sec. 91.1095.
    (d) Completion of the requirements in paragraphs (b)(2), (3), and 
(4) or (c)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, as applicable, must be 
entered in the individual's training record maintained by the program 
manager.
    (e) A pilot who does not hold a medical certificate may function as 
a flight instructor in an aircraft if functioning as a non-required 
crewmember, but may not serve as a flightcrew member in operations under 
this subpart.
    (f) A flight instructor (simulator) must accomplish the following--
    (1) Fly at least two flight segments as a required crewmember for 
the type, class, or category aircraft involved within the 12-month 
period preceding the performance of any flight instructor duty in a 
flight simulator; or
    (2) Satisfactorily complete an approved line-observation program 
within the period prescribed by that program preceding the performance 
of any flight instructor duty in a flight simulator.
    (g) The flight segments or line-observation program required in 
paragraph (f) of this section are considered completed in the month 
required if completed in the month before, or in the month after, the 
month in which they are due.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by 
Amdt. 91-322, 76 FR 31823, June 2, 2011]



Sec. 91.1093  Initial and transition training and checking: Check
pilots (aircraft), check pilots (simulator).

    (a) No program manager may use a person nor may any person serve as 
a check pilot unless--
    (1) That person has satisfactorily completed initial or transition 
check pilot training; and

[[Page 804]]

    (2) Within the preceding 24 months, that person satisfactorily 
conducts a proficiency or competency check under the observation of an 
FAA inspector or an aircrew designated examiner employed by the program 
manager. The observation check may be accomplished in part or in full in 
an aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device.
    (b) The observation check required by paragraph (a)(2) of this 
section is considered to have been completed in the month required if 
completed in the month before or the month after the month in which it 
is due.
    (c) The initial ground training for check pilots must include the 
following:
    (1) Check pilot duties, functions, and responsibilities.
    (2) The applicable provisions of the Code of Federal Regulations and 
the program manager's policies and procedures.
    (3) The applicable methods, procedures, and techniques for 
conducting the required checks.
    (4) Proper evaluation of student performance including the detection 
of--
    (i) Improper and insufficient training; and
    (ii) Personal characteristics of an applicant that could adversely 
affect safety.
    (5) The corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory checks.
    (6) The approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing 
the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures in the aircraft.
    (d) The transition ground training for a check pilot must include 
the approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the 
required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures applicable to the 
aircraft to which the check pilot is in transition.
    (e) The initial and transition flight training for a check pilot 
(aircraft) must include the following--
    (1) The safety measures for emergency situations that are likely to 
develop during a check;
    (2) The potential results of improper, untimely, or nonexecution of 
safety measures during a check;
    (3) Training and practice in conducting flight checks from the left 
and right pilot seats in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency 
procedures to ensure competence to conduct the pilot flight checks 
required by this subpart; and
    (4) The safety measures to be taken from either pilot seat for 
emergency situations that are likely to develop during checking.
    (f) The requirements of paragraph (e) of this section may be 
accomplished in full or in part in flight, in a flight simulator, or in 
a flight training device, as appropriate.
    (g) The initial and transition flight training for a check pilot 
(simulator) must include the following:
    (1) Training and practice in conducting flight checks in the 
required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence 
to conduct the flight checks required by this subpart. This training and 
practice must be accomplished in a flight simulator or in a flight 
training device.
    (2) Training in the operation of flight simulators, flight training 
devices, or both, to ensure competence to conduct the flight checks 
required by this subpart.



Sec. 91.1095  Initial and transition training and checking:
Flight instructors (aircraft), flight instructors (simulator).

    (a) No program manager may use a person nor may any person serve as 
a flight instructor unless--
    (1) That person has satisfactorily completed initial or transition 
flight instructor training; and
    (2) Within the preceding 24 months, that person satisfactorily 
conducts instruction under the observation of an FAA inspector, a 
program manager check pilot, or an aircrew designated examiner employed 
by the program manager. The observation check may be accomplished in 
part or in full in an aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight 
training device.
    (b) The observation check required by paragraph (a)(2) of this 
section is considered to have been completed in the month required if 
completed in the month before, or the month after, the month in which it 
is due.

[[Page 805]]

    (c) The initial ground training for flight instructors must include 
the following:
    (1) Flight instructor duties, functions, and responsibilities.
    (2) The applicable Code of Federal Regulations and the program 
manager's policies and procedures.
    (3) The applicable methods, procedures, and techniques for 
conducting flight instruction.
    (4) Proper evaluation of student performance including the detection 
of--
    (i) Improper and insufficient training; and
    (ii) Personal characteristics of an applicant that could adversely 
affect safety.
    (5) The corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory training 
progress.
    (6) The approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing 
the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures in the aircraft.
    (7) Except for holders of a flight instructor certificate--
    (i) The fundamental principles of the teaching-learning process;
    (ii) Teaching methods and procedures; and
    (iii) The instructor-student relationship.
    (d) The transition ground training for flight instructors must 
include the approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing 
the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures applicable to 
the type, class, or category aircraft to which the flight instructor is 
in transition.
    (e) The initial and transition flight training for flight 
instructors (aircraft) must include the following--
    (1) The safety measures for emergency situations that are likely to 
develop during instruction;
    (2) The potential results of improper or untimely safety measures 
during instruction;
    (3) Training and practice from the left and right pilot seats in the 
required normal, abnormal, and emergency maneuvers to ensure competence 
to conduct the flight instruction required by this subpart; and
    (4) The safety measures to be taken from either the left or right 
pilot seat for emergency situations that are likely to develop during 
instruction.
    (f) The requirements of paragraph (e) of this section may be 
accomplished in full or in part in flight, in a flight simulator, or in 
a flight training device, as appropriate.
    (g) The initial and transition flight training for a flight 
instructor (simulator) must include the following:
    (1) Training and practice in the required normal, abnormal, and 
emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the flight 
instruction required by this subpart. These maneuvers and procedures 
must be accomplished in full or in part in a flight simulator or in a 
flight training device.
    (2) Training in the operation of flight simulators, flight training 
devices, or both, to ensure competence to conduct the flight instruction 
required by this subpart.



Sec. 91.1097  Pilot and flight attendant crewmember training programs.

    (a) Each program manager must establish and maintain an approved 
pilot training program, and each program manager who uses a flight 
attendant crewmember must establish and maintain an approved flight 
attendant training program, that is appropriate to the operations to 
which each pilot and flight attendant is to be assigned, and will ensure 
that they are adequately trained to meet the applicable knowledge and 
practical testing requirements of Sec. Sec. 91.1065 through 91.1071.
    (b) Each program manager required to have a training program by 
paragraph (a) of this section must include in that program ground and 
flight training curriculums for--
    (1) Initial training;
    (2) Transition training;
    (3) Upgrade training;
    (4) Differences training;
    (5) Recurrent training; and
    (6) Requalification training.
    (c) Each program manager must provide current and appropriate study 
materials for use by each required pilot and flight attendant.
    (d) The program manager must furnish copies of the pilot and flight 
attendant crewmember training program, and all changes and additions, to 
the assigned representative of the Administrator. If the program manager 
uses training facilities of other persons, a

[[Page 806]]

copy of those training programs or appropriate portions used for those 
facilities must also be furnished. Curricula that follow FAA published 
curricula may be cited by reference in the copy of the training program 
furnished to the representative of the Administrator and need not be 
furnished with the program.



Sec. 91.1099  Crewmember initial and recurrent training requirements.

    No program manager may use a person, nor may any person serve, as a 
crewmember in operations under this subpart unless that crewmember has 
completed the appropriate initial or recurrent training phase of the 
training program appropriate to the type of operation in which the 
crewmember is to serve since the beginning of the 12th month before that 
service.



Sec. 91.1101  Pilots: Initial, transition, and upgrade ground training.

    Initial, transition, and upgrade ground training for pilots must 
include instruction in at least the following, as applicable to their 
duties:
    (a) General subjects--
    (1) The program manager's flight locating procedures;
    (2) Principles and methods for determining weight and balance, and 
runway limitations for takeoff and landing;
    (3) Enough meteorology to ensure a practical knowledge of weather 
phenomena, including the principles of frontal systems, icing, fog, 
thunderstorms, windshear and, if appropriate, high altitude weather 
situations;
    (4) Air traffic control systems, procedures, and phraseology;
    (5) Navigation and the use of navigational aids, including 
instrument approach procedures;
    (6) Normal and emergency communication procedures;
    (7) Visual cues before and during descent below Decision Altitude or 
MDA; and
    (8) Other instructions necessary to ensure the pilot's competence.
    (b) For each aircraft type--
    (1) A general description;
    (2) Performance characteristics;
    (3) Engines and propellers;
    (4) Major components;
    (5) Major aircraft systems (that is, flight controls, electrical, 
and hydraulic), other systems, as appropriate, principles of normal, 
abnormal, and emergency operations, appropriate procedures and 
limitations;
    (6) Knowledge and procedures for--
    (i) Recognizing and avoiding severe weather situations;
    (ii) Escaping from severe weather situations, in case of inadvertent 
encounters, including low-altitude windshear (except that rotorcraft 
pilots are not required to be trained in escaping from low-altitude 
windshear);
    (iii) Operating in or near thunderstorms (including best penetration 
altitudes), turbulent air (including clear air turbulence), inflight 
icing, hail, and other potentially hazardous meteorological conditions; 
and
    (iv) Operating airplanes during ground icing conditions, (that is, 
any time conditions are such that frost, ice, or snow may reasonably be 
expected to adhere to the aircraft), if the program manager expects to 
authorize takeoffs in ground icing conditions, including:
    (A) The use of holdover times when using deicing/anti-icing fluids;
    (B) Airplane deicing/anti-icing procedures, including inspection and 
check procedures and responsibilities;
    (C) Communications;
    (D) Airplane surface contamination (that is, adherence of frost, 
ice, or snow) and critical area identification, and knowledge of how 
contamination adversely affects airplane performance and flight 
characteristics;
    (E) Types and characteristics of deicing/anti-icing fluids, if used 
by the program manager;
    (F) Cold weather preflight inspection procedures;
    (G) Techniques for recognizing contamination on the airplane;
    (7) Operating limitations;
    (8) Fuel consumption and cruise control;
    (9) Flight planning;
    (10) Each normal and emergency procedure; and
    (11) The approved Aircraft Flight Manual or equivalent.

[[Page 807]]



Sec. 91.1103  Pilots: Initial, transition, upgrade, requalification,
and differences flight training.

    (a) Initial, transition, upgrade, requalification, and differences 
training for pilots must include flight and practice in each of the 
maneuvers and procedures contained in each of the curriculums that are a 
part of the approved training program.
    (b) The maneuvers and procedures required by paragraph (a) of this 
section must be performed in flight, except to the extent that certain 
maneuvers and procedures may be performed in an aircraft simulator, or 
an appropriate training device, as allowed by this subpart.
    (c) If the program manager's approved training program includes a 
course of training using an aircraft simulator or other training device, 
each pilot must successfully complete--
    (1) Training and practice in the simulator or training device in at 
least the maneuvers and procedures in this subpart that are capable of 
being performed in the aircraft simulator or training device; and
    (2) A flight check in the aircraft or a check in the simulator or 
training device to the level of proficiency of a pilot in command or 
second in command, as applicable, in at least the maneuvers and 
procedures that are capable of being performed in an aircraft simulator 
or training device.



Sec. 91.1105  Flight attendants: Initial and transition ground training.

    Initial and transition ground training for flight attendants must 
include instruction in at least the following--
    (a) General subjects--
    (1) The authority of the pilot in command; and
    (2) Passenger handling, including procedures to be followed in 
handling deranged persons or other persons whose conduct might 
jeopardize safety.
    (b) For each aircraft type--
    (1) A general description of the aircraft emphasizing physical 
characteristics that may have a bearing on ditching, evacuation, and 
inflight emergency procedures and on other related duties;
    (2) The use of both the public address system and the means of 
communicating with other flight crewmembers, including emergency means 
in the case of attempted hijacking or other unusual situations; and
    (3) Proper use of electrical galley equipment and the controls for 
cabin heat and ventilation.



Sec. 91.1107  Recurrent training.

    (a) Each program manager must ensure that each crewmember receives 
recurrent training and is adequately trained and currently proficient 
for the type aircraft and crewmember position involved.
    (b) Recurrent ground training for crewmembers must include at least 
the following:
    (1) A quiz or other review to determine the crewmember's knowledge 
of the aircraft and crewmember position involved.
    (2) Instruction as necessary in the subjects required for initial 
ground training by this subpart, as appropriate, including low-altitude 
windshear training and training on operating during ground icing 
conditions, as prescribed in Sec. 91.1097 and described in Sec. 
91.1101, and emergency training.
    (c) Recurrent flight training for pilots must include, at least, 
flight training in the maneuvers or procedures in this subpart, except 
that satisfactory completion of the check required by Sec. 91.1065 
within the preceding 12 months may be substituted for recurrent flight 
training.



Sec. 91.1109  Aircraft maintenance: Inspection program.

    Each program manager must establish an aircraft inspection program 
for each make and model program aircraft and ensure each aircraft is 
inspected in accordance with that inspection program.
    (a) The inspection program must be in writing and include at least 
the following information:
    (1) Instructions and procedures for the conduct of inspections for 
the particular make and model aircraft, including necessary tests and 
checks. The instructions and procedures must set forth in detail the 
parts and areas

[[Page 808]]

of the airframe, engines, propellers, rotors, and appliances, including 
survival and emergency equipment required to be inspected.
    (2) A schedule for performing the inspections that must be 
accomplished under the inspection program expressed in terms of the time 
in service, calendar time, number of system operations, or any 
combination thereof.
    (3) The name and address of the person responsible for scheduling 
the inspections required by the inspection program. A copy of the 
inspection program must be made available to the person performing 
inspections on the aircraft and, upon request, to the Administrator.
    (b) Each person desiring to establish or change an approved 
inspection program under this section must submit the inspection program 
for approval to the Flight Standards office that issued the program 
manager's management specifications. The inspection program must be 
derived from one of the following programs:
    (1) An inspection program currently recommended by the manufacturer 
of the aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, and survival 
and emergency equipment;
    (2) An inspection program that is part of a continuous airworthiness 
maintenance program currently in use by a person holding an air carrier 
or operating certificate issued under part 119 of this chapter and 
operating that make and model aircraft under part 121 or 135 of this 
chapter;
    (3) An aircraft inspection program approved under Sec. 135.419 of 
this chapter and currently in use under part 135 of this chapter by a 
person holding a certificate issued under part 119 of this chapter; or
    (4) An airplane inspection program approved under Sec. 125.247 of 
this chapter and currently in use under part 125 of this chapter.
    (5) An inspection program that is part of the program manager's 
continuous airworthiness maintenance program under Sec. Sec. 91.1411 
through 91.1443.
    (c) The Administrator may require revision of the inspection program 
approved under this section in accordance with the provisions of Sec. 
91.415.

[Docket No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 91.1111  Maintenance training.

    The program manager must ensure that all employees who are 
responsible for maintenance related to program aircraft undergo 
appropriate initial and annual recurrent training and are competent to 
perform those duties.



Sec. 91.1113  Maintenance recordkeeping.

    Each fractional ownership program manager must keep (using the 
system specified in the manual required in Sec. 91.1025) the records 
specified in Sec. 91.417(a) for the periods specified in Sec. 
91.417(b).



Sec. 91.1115  Inoperable instruments and equipment.

    (a) No person may take off an aircraft with inoperable instruments 
or equipment installed unless the following conditions are met:
    (1) An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft.
    (2) The program manager has been issued management specifications 
authorizing operations in accordance with an approved Minimum Equipment 
List. The flight crew must have direct access at all times prior to 
flight to all of the information contained in the approved Minimum 
Equipment List through printed or other means approved by the 
Administrator in the program manager's management specifications. An 
approved Minimum Equipment List, as authorized by the management 
specifications, constitutes an approved change to the type design 
without requiring recertification.
    (3) The approved Minimum Equipment List must:
    (i) Be prepared in accordance with the limitations specified in 
paragraph (b) of this section.
    (ii) Provide for the operation of the aircraft with certain 
instruments and equipment in an inoperable condition.

[[Page 809]]

    (4) Records identifying the inoperable instruments and equipment and 
the information required by (a)(3)(ii) of this section must be available 
to the pilot.
    (5) The aircraft is operated under all applicable conditions and 
limitations contained in the Minimum Equipment List and the management 
specifications authorizing use of the Minimum Equipment List.
    (b) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in 
the Minimum Equipment List:
    (1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or 
otherwise required by the airworthiness requirements under which the 
airplane is type certificated and that are essential for safe operations 
under all operating conditions.
    (2) Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive 
to be in operable condition unless the airworthiness directive provides 
otherwise.
    (3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations by 
this part.
    (c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(3) of this section, an 
aircraft with inoperable instruments or equipment may be operated under 
a special flight permit under Sec. Sec. 21.197 and 21.199 of this 
chapter.
    (d) A person authorized to use an approved Minimum Equipment List 
issued for a specific aircraft under part 121, 125, or 135 of this 
chapter must use that Minimum Equipment List to comply with this 
section.



Sec. 91.1411  Continuous airworthiness maintenance program
use by fractional ownership program manager.

    Fractional ownership program aircraft may be maintained under a 
continuous airworthiness maintenance program (CAMP) under Sec. Sec. 
91.1413 through 91.1443. Any program manager who elects to maintain the 
program aircraft using a continuous airworthiness maintenance program 
must comply with Sec. Sec. 91.1413 through 91.1443.



Sec. 91.1413  CAMP: Responsibility for airworthiness.

    (a) For aircraft maintained in accordance with a Continuous 
Airworthiness Maintenance Program, each program manager is primarily 
responsible for the following:
    (1) Maintaining the airworthiness of the program aircraft, including 
airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, rotors, appliances, and parts.
    (2) Maintaining its aircraft in accordance with the requirements of 
this chapter.
    (3) Repairing defects that occur between regularly scheduled 
maintenance required under part 43 of this chapter.
    (b) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP 
must--
    (1) Employ a Director of Maintenance or equivalent position. The 
Director of Maintenance must be a certificated mechanic with airframe 
and powerplant ratings who has responsibility for the maintenance 
program on all program aircraft maintained under a continuous 
airworthiness maintenance program. This person cannot also act as Chief 
Inspector.
    (2) Employ a Chief Inspector or equivalent position. The Chief 
Inspector must be a certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant 
ratings who has overall responsibility for inspection aspects of the 
CAMP. This person cannot also act as Director of Maintenance.
    (3) Have the personnel to perform the maintenance of program 
aircraft, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, rotors, 
appliances, emergency equipment and parts, under its manual and this 
chapter; or make arrangements with another person for the performance of 
maintenance. However, the program manager must ensure that any 
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration that is performed by 
another person is performed under the program manager's operating manual 
and this chapter.



Sec. 91.1415  CAMP: Mechanical reliability reports.

    (a) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP 
must report the occurrence or detection of each failure, malfunction, or 
defect in an aircraft concerning--
    (1) Fires during flight and whether the related fire-warning system 
functioned properly;

[[Page 810]]

    (2) Fires during flight not protected by related fire-warning 
system;
    (3) False fire-warning during flight;
    (4) An exhaust system that causes damage during flight to the 
engine, adjacent structure, equipment, or components;
    (5) An aircraft component that causes accumulation or circulation of 
smoke, vapor, or toxic or noxious fumes in the crew compartment or 
passenger cabin during flight;
    (6) Engine shutdown during flight because of flameout;
    (7) Engine shutdown during flight when external damage to the engine 
or aircraft structure occurs;
    (8) Engine shutdown during flight because of foreign object 
ingestion or icing;
    (9) Shutdown of more than one engine during flight;
    (10) A propeller feathering system or ability of the system to 
control overspeed during flight;
    (11) A fuel or fuel-dumping system that affects fuel flow or causes 
hazardous leakage during flight;
    (12) An unwanted landing gear extension or retraction or opening or 
closing of landing gear doors during flight;
    (13) Brake system components that result in loss of brake actuating 
force when the aircraft is in motion on the ground;
    (14) Aircraft structure that requires major repair;
    (15) Cracks, permanent deformation, or corrosion of aircraft 
structures, if more than the maximum acceptable to the manufacturer or 
the FAA; and
    (16) Aircraft components or systems that result in taking emergency 
actions during flight (except action to shut down an engine).
    (b) For the purpose of this section, during flight means the period 
from the moment the aircraft leaves the surface of the earth on takeoff 
until it touches down on landing.
    (c) In addition to the reports required by paragraph (a) of this 
section, each program manager must report any other failure, 
malfunction, or defect in an aircraft that occurs or is detected at any 
time if, in the manager's opinion, the failure, malfunction, or defect 
has endangered or may endanger the safe operation of the aircraft.
    (d) Each program manager must send each report required by this 
section, in writing, covering each 24-hour period beginning at 0900 
hours local time of each day and ending at 0900 hours local time on the 
next day to the Flight Standards office that issued the program 
manager's management specifications. Each report of occurrences during a 
24-hour period must be mailed or transmitted to that office within the 
next 72 hours. However, a report that is due on Saturday or Sunday may 
be mailed or transmitted on the following Monday and one that is due on 
a holiday may be mailed or transmitted on the next workday. For aircraft 
operated in areas where mail is not collected, reports may be mailed or 
transmitted within 72 hours after the aircraft returns to a point where 
the mail is collected.
    (e) The program manager must transmit the reports required by this 
section on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator, and 
must include as much of the following as is available:
    (1) The type and identification number of the aircraft.
    (2) The name of the program manager.
    (3) The date.
    (4) The nature of the failure, malfunction, or defect.
    (5) Identification of the part and system involved, including 
available information pertaining to type designation of the major 
component and time since last overhaul, if known.
    (6) Apparent cause of the failure, malfunction or defect (for 
example, wear, crack, design deficiency, or personnel error).
    (7) Other pertinent information necessary for more complete 
identification, determination of seriousness, or corrective action.
    (f) A program manager that is also the holder of a type certificate 
(including a supplemental type certificate), a Parts Manufacturer 
Approval, or a Technical Standard Order Authorization, or that is the 
licensee of a type certificate need not report a failure, malfunction, 
or defect under this section if the failure, malfunction, or defect has 
been reported by it under Sec. 21.3 of this chapter or under the 
accident

[[Page 811]]

reporting provisions of part 830 of the regulations of the National 
Transportation Safety Board.
    (g) No person may withhold a report required by this section even 
when not all information required by this section is available.
    (h) When the program manager receives additional information, 
including information from the manufacturer or other agency, concerning 
a report required by this section, the program manager must 
expeditiously submit it as a supplement to the first report and 
reference the date and place of submission of the first report.

[Docket No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 91.1417  CAMP: Mechanical interruption summary report.

    Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP 
must mail or deliver, before the end of the 10th day of the following 
month, a summary report of the following occurrences in multiengine 
aircraft for the preceding month to the Flight Standards office that 
issued the management specifications:
    (a) Each interruption to a flight, unscheduled change of aircraft en 
route, or unscheduled stop or diversion from a route, caused by known or 
suspected mechanical difficulties or malfunctions that are not required 
to be reported under Sec. 91.1415.
    (b) The number of propeller featherings in flight, listed by type of 
propeller and engine and aircraft on which it was installed. Propeller 
featherings for training, demonstration, or flight check purposes need 
not be reported.

[Docket No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 91.1423  CAMP: Maintenance organization.

    (a) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP 
that has its personnel perform any of its maintenance (other than 
required inspections), preventive maintenance, or alterations, and each 
person with whom it arranges for the performance of that work, must have 
an organization adequate to perform the work.
    (b) Each program manager who has personnel perform any inspections 
required by the program manager's manual under Sec. 91.1427(b) (2) or 
(3), (in this subpart referred to as required inspections), and each 
person with whom the program manager arranges for the performance of 
that work, must have an organization adequate to perform that work.
    (c) Each person performing required inspections in addition to other 
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, must organize the 
performance of those functions so as to separate the required inspection 
functions from the other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or 
alteration functions. The separation must be below the level of 
administrative control at which overall responsibility for the required 
inspection functions and other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or 
alterations is exercised.



Sec. 91.1425  CAMP: Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration programs.

    Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP 
must have an inspection program and a program covering other 
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations that ensures that--
    (a) Maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations performed by 
its personnel, or by other persons, are performed under the program 
manager's manual;
    (b) Competent personnel and adequate facilities and equipment are 
provided for the proper performance of maintenance, preventive 
maintenance, or alterations; and
    (c) Each aircraft released to service is airworthy and has been 
properly maintained for operation under this part.



Sec. 91.1427  CAMP: Manual requirements.

    (a) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP 
must put in the operating manual the chart or description of the program 
manager's organization required by Sec. 91.1423 and a list of persons 
with

[[Page 812]]

whom it has arranged for the performance of any of its required 
inspections, and other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or 
alterations, including a general description of that work.
    (b) Each program manager must put in the operating manual the 
programs required by Sec. 91.1425 that must be followed in performing 
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations of that program 
manager's aircraft, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, 
rotors, appliances, emergency equipment, and parts, and must include at 
least the following:
    (1) The method of performing routine and nonroutine maintenance 
(other than required inspections), preventive maintenance, or 
alterations.
    (2) A designation of the items of maintenance and alteration that 
must be inspected (required inspections) including at least those that 
could result in a failure, malfunction, or defect endangering the safe 
operation of the aircraft, if not performed properly or if improper 
parts or materials are used.
    (3) The method of performing required inspections and a designation 
by occupational title of personnel authorized to perform each required 
inspection.
    (4) Procedures for the reinspection of work performed under previous 
required inspection findings (buy-back procedures).
    (5) Procedures, standards, and limits necessary for required 
inspections and acceptance or rejection of the items required to be 
inspected and for periodic inspection and calibration of precision 
tools, measuring devices, and test equipment.
    (6) Procedures to ensure that all required inspections are 
performed.
    (7) Instructions to prevent any person who performs any item of work 
from performing any required inspection of that work.
    (8) Instructions and procedures to prevent any decision of an 
inspector regarding any required inspection from being countermanded by 
persons other than supervisory personnel of the inspection unit, or a 
person at the level of administrative control that has overall 
responsibility for the management of both the required inspection 
functions and the other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or 
alterations functions.
    (9) Procedures to ensure that maintenance (including required 
inspections), preventive maintenance, or alterations that are not 
completed because of work interruptions are properly completed before 
the aircraft is released to service.
    (c) Each program manager must put in the manual a suitable system 
(which may include an electronic or coded system) that provides for the 
retention of the following information--
    (1) A description (or reference to data acceptable to the 
Administrator) of the work performed;
    (2) The name of the person performing the work if the work is 
performed by a person outside the organization of the program manager; 
and
    (3) The name or other positive identification of the individual 
approving the work.
    (d) For the purposes of this part, the program manager must prepare 
that part of its manual containing maintenance information and 
instructions, in whole or in part, in a format acceptable to the 
Administrator, that is retrievable in the English language.



Sec. 91.1429  CAMP: Required inspection personnel.

    (a) No person who maintains an aircraft under a CAMP may use any 
person to perform required inspections unless the person performing the 
inspection is appropriately certificated, properly trained, qualified, 
and authorized to do so.
    (b) No person may allow any person to perform a required inspection 
unless, at the time the work was performed, the person performing that 
inspection is under the supervision and control of the chief inspector.
    (c) No person may perform a required inspection if that person 
performed the item of work required to be inspected.
    (d) Each program manager must maintain, or must ensure that each 
person with whom it arranges to perform required inspections maintains, 
a current listing of persons who have been trained, qualified, and 
authorized to conduct required inspections. The persons must be 
identified by name, occupational title, and the inspections

[[Page 813]]

that they are authorized to perform. The program manager (or person with 
whom it arranges to perform its required inspections) must give written 
information to each person so authorized, describing the extent of that 
person's responsibilities, authorities, and inspectional limitations. 
The list must be made available for inspection by the Administrator upon 
request.



Sec. 91.1431  CAMP: Continuing analysis and surveillance.

    (a) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP 
must establish and maintain a system for the continuing analysis and 
surveillance of the performance and effectiveness of its inspection 
program and the program covering other maintenance, preventive 
maintenance, and alterations and for the correction of any deficiency in 
those programs, regardless of whether those programs are carried out by 
employees of the program manager or by another person.
    (b) Whenever the Administrator finds that the programs described in 
paragraph (a) of this section does not contain adequate procedures and 
standards to meet this part, the program manager must, after 
notification by the Administrator, make changes in those programs 
requested by the Administrator.
    (c) A program manager may petition the Administrator to reconsider 
the notice to make a change in a program. The petition must be filed 
with the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service, within 30 days 
after the program manager receives the notice. Except in the case of an 
emergency requiring immediate action in the interest of safety, the 
filing of the petition stays the notice pending a decision by the 
Administrator.

[Docket No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 91.1433  CAMP: Maintenance and preventive maintenance training program.

    Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP or 
a person performing maintenance or preventive maintenance functions for 
it must have a training program to ensure that each person (including 
inspection personnel) who determines the adequacy of work done is fully 
informed about procedures and techniques and new equipment in use and is 
competent to perform that person's duties.



Sec. 91.1435  CAMP: Certificate requirements.

    (a) Except for maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, and 
required inspections performed by repair stations located outside the 
United States certificated under the provisions of part 145 of this 
chapter, each person who is directly in charge of maintenance, 
preventive maintenance, or alterations for a CAMP, and each person 
performing required inspections for a CAMP must hold an appropriate 
airman certificate.
    (b) For the purpose of this section, a person ``directly in charge'' 
is each person assigned to a position in which that person is 
responsible for the work of a shop or station that performs maintenance, 
preventive maintenance, alterations, or other functions affecting 
airworthiness. A person who is directly in charge need not physically 
observe and direct each worker constantly but must be available for 
consultation and decision on matters requiring instruction or decision 
from higher authority than that of the person performing the work.



Sec. 91.1437  CAMP: Authority to perform and approve maintenance.

    A program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP may 
employ maintenance personnel, or make arrangements with other persons to 
perform maintenance and preventive maintenance as provided in its 
maintenance manual. Unless properly certificated, the program manager 
may not perform or approve maintenance for return to service.



Sec. 91.1439  CAMP: Maintenance recording requirements.

    (a) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP 
must keep (using the system specified in the manual required in Sec. 
91.1427) the

[[Page 814]]

following records for the periods specified in paragraph (b) of this 
section:
    (1) All the records necessary to show that all requirements for the 
issuance of an airworthiness release under Sec. 91.1443 have been met.
    (2) Records containing the following information:
    (i) The total time in service of the airframe, engine, propeller, 
and rotor.
    (ii) The current status of life-limited parts of each airframe, 
engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
    (iii) The time since last overhaul of each item installed on the 
aircraft that are required to be overhauled on a specified time basis.
    (iv) The identification of the current inspection status of the 
aircraft, including the time since the last inspections required by the 
inspection program under which the aircraft and its appliances are 
maintained.
    (v) The current status of applicable airworthiness directives, 
including the date and methods of compliance, and, if the airworthiness 
directive involves recurring action, the time and date when the next 
action is required.
    (vi) A list of current major alterations and repairs to each 
airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
    (b) Each program manager must retain the records required to be kept 
by this section for the following periods:
    (1) Except for the records of the last complete overhaul of each 
airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance the records specified 
in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be retained until the work is 
repeated or superseded by other work or for one year after the work is 
performed.
    (2) The records of the last complete overhaul of each airframe, 
engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance must be retained until the work 
is superseded by work of equivalent scope and detail.
    (3) The records specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section must 
be retained as specified unless transferred with the aircraft at the 
time the aircraft is sold.
    (c) The program manager must make all maintenance records required 
to be kept by this section available for inspection by the Administrator 
or any representative of the National Transportation Safety Board.



Sec. 91.1441  CAMP: Transfer of maintenance records.

    When a U.S.-registered fractional ownership program aircraft 
maintained under a CAMP is removed from the list of program aircraft in 
the management specifications, the program manager must transfer to the 
purchaser, at the time of the sale, the following records of that 
aircraft, in plain language form or in coded form that provides for the 
preservation and retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the 
Administrator:
    (a) The records specified in Sec. 91.1439(a)(2).
    (b) The records specified in Sec. 91.1439(a)(1) that are not 
included in the records covered by paragraph (a) of this section, except 
that the purchaser may allow the program manager to keep physical 
custody of such records. However, custody of records by the program 
manager does not relieve the purchaser of its responsibility under Sec. 
91.1439(c) to make the records available for inspection by the 
Administrator or any representative of the National Transportation 
Safety Board.



Sec. 91.1443  CAMP: Airworthiness release or aircraft maintenance log entry.

    (a) No program aircraft maintained under a CAMP may be operated 
after maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations are performed 
unless qualified, certificated personnel employed by the program manager 
prepare, or cause the person with whom the program manager arranges for 
the performance of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or 
alterations, to prepare--
    (1) An airworthiness release; or
    (2) An appropriate entry in the aircraft maintenance log.
    (b) The airworthiness release or log entry required by paragraph (a) 
of this section must--
    (1) Be prepared in accordance with the procedure in the program 
manager's manual;
    (2) Include a certification that--
    (i) The work was performed in accordance with the requirements of 
the program manager's manual;
    (ii) All items required to be inspected were inspected by an 
authorized person

[[Page 815]]

who determined that the work was satisfactorily completed;
    (iii) No known condition exists that would make the aircraft 
unairworthy;
    (iv) So far as the work performed is concerned, the aircraft is in 
condition for safe operation; and
    (3) Be signed by an authorized certificated mechanic.
    (c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(3) of this section, after 
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations performed by a 
repair station certificated under the provisions of part 145 of this 
chapter, the approval for return to service or log entry required by 
paragraph (a) of this section may be signed by a person authorized by 
that repair station.
    (d) Instead of restating each of the conditions of the certification 
required by paragraph (b) of this section, the program manager may state 
in its manual that the signature of an authorized certificated mechanic 
or repairman constitutes that certification.



        Subpart L_Continued Airworthiness and Safety Improvements

    Source: Amdt. 91-297, 72 FR 63410, Nov. 8, 2007, unless otherwise 
noted.



Sec. 91.1501  Purpose and definition.

    (a) This subpart requires operators to support the continued 
airworthiness of each airplane. These requirements may include, but are 
not limited to, revising the inspection program, incorporating design 
changes, and incorporating revisions to Instructions for Continued 
Airworthiness.
    (b) [Reserved]

[Amdt. 91-297, 72 FR 63410, Nov. 8, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-
0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 91.1503  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.1505  Repairs assessment for pressurized fuselages.

    (a) No person may operate an Airbus Model A300 (excluding the -600 
series), British Aerospace Model BAC 1-11, Boeing Model 707, 720, 727, 
737 or 747, McDonnell Douglas Model DC-8, DC-9/MD-80 or DC-10, Fokker 
Model F28, or Lockheed Model L-1011 airplane beyond applicable flight 
cycle implementation time specified below, or May 25, 2001, whichever 
occurs later, unless repair assessment guidelines applicable to the 
fuselage pressure boundary (fuselage skin, door skin, and bulkhead webs) 
are incorporated within its inspection program. The repair assessment 
guidelines must be approved by the responsible Aircraft Certification 
Service office for the type certificate for the affected airplane.
    (1) For the Airbus Model A300 (excluding the -600 series), the 
flight cycle implementation time is:
    (i) Model B2: 36,000 flights.
    (ii) Model B4-100 (including Model B4-2C): 30,000 flights above the 
window line, and 36,000 flights below the window line.
    (iii) Model B4-200: 25,500 flights above the window line, and 34,000 
flights below the window line.
    (2) For all models of the British Aerospace BAC 1-11, the flight 
cycle implementation time is 60,000 flights.
    (3) For all models of the Boeing 707, the flight cycle 
implementation time is 15,000 flights.
    (4) For all models of the Boeing 720, the flight cycle 
implementation time is 23,000 flights.
    (5) For all models of the Boeing 727, the flight cycle 
implementation time is 45,000 flights.
    (6) For all models of the Boeing 737, the flight cycle 
implementation time is 60,000 flights.
    (7) For all models of the Boeing 747, the flight cycle 
implementation time is 15,000 flights.
    (8) For all models of the McDonnell Douglas DC-8, the flight cycle 
implementation time is 30,000 flights.
    (9) For all models of the McDonnell Douglas DC-9/MD-80, the flight 
cycle implementation time is 60,000 flights.
    (10) For all models of the McDonnell Douglas DC-10, the flight cycle 
implementation time is 30,000 flights.
    (11) For all models of the Lockheed L-1011, the flight cycle 
implementation time is 27,000 flights.
    (12) For the Fokker F-28 Mark 1000, 2000, 3000, and 4000, the flight 
cycle implementation time is 60,000 flights.

[[Page 816]]

    (b) [Reserved]

[Doc. No. 29104, 65 FR 24125, Apr. 25, 2000; 65 FR 35703, June 5, 2000; 
65 FR 50744, Aug. 21, 2000, as amended by Amdt. 91-266, 66 FR 23130, May 
7, 2001; Amdt. 91-277, 67 FR 72834, Dec. 9, 2002; Amdt. 91-283, 69 FR 
45941, July 30, 2004. Redesignated and amended by Amdt. 91-297, 72 FR 
63410, Nov. 8, 2007; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9171, 
Mar. 5, 2018]



Sec. 91.1507  Fuel tank system inspection program.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, this 
section applies to transport category, turbine-powered airplanes with a 
type certificate issued after January 1, 1958, that, as a result of 
original type certification or later increase in capacity, have--
    (1) A maximum type-certificated passenger capacity of 30 or more, or
    (2) A maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or more.
    (b) For each airplane on which an auxiliary fuel tank is installed 
under a field approval, before June 16, 2008, the operator must submit 
to the responsible Aircraft Certification Service Office proposed 
maintenance instructions for the tank that meet the requirements of 
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 88 (SFAR 88) of this chapter.
    (c) After December 16, 2008, no operator may operate an airplane 
identified in paragraph (a) of this section unless the inspection 
program for that airplane has been revised to include applicable 
inspections, procedures, and limitations for fuel tank systems.
    (d) The proposed fuel tank system inspection program revisions 
specified in paragraph (c) of this section must be based on fuel tank 
system Instructions for Continued Airworthiness (ICA) that have been 
developed in accordance with the applicable provisions of SFAR 88 of 
this chapter or Sec. 25.1529 and part 25, Appendix H, of this chapter, 
in effect on June 6, 2001 (including those developed for auxiliary fuel 
tanks, if any, installed under supplemental type certificates or other 
design approval) and that have been approved by the responsible Aircraft 
Certification Service Office.
    (e) After December 16, 2008, before returning an airplane to service 
after any alterations for which fuel tank ICA are developed under SFAR 
88, or under Sec. 25.1529 in effect on June 6, 2001, the operator must 
include in the inspection program for the airplane inspections and 
procedures for the fuel tank system based on those ICA.
    (f) The fuel tank system inspection program changes identified in 
paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section and any later fuel tank system 
revisions must be submitted to the Flight Standards office responsible 
for review and approval.
    (g) This section does not apply to the following airplane models:
    (1) Bombardier CL-44
    (2) Concorde
    (3) deHavilland D.H. 106 Comet 4C
    (4) VFW-Vereinigte Flugtechnische Werk VFW-614
    (5) Illyushin Aviation IL 96T
    (6) Bristol Aircraft Britannia 305
    (7) Handley Page Herald Type 300
    (8) Avions Marcel Dassault--Breguet Aviation Mercure 100C
    (9) Airbus Caravelle
    (10) Lockheed L-300

[Amdt. 91-297, 72 FR 63410, Nov. 8, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-
0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018]



             Subpart M_Special Federal Aviation Regulations



Sec. 91.1603  Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 112
--Prohibition Against Certain Flights in the Tripoli Flight 
Information Region (FIR) (HLLL).

    (a) Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) 
applies to the following persons:
    (1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators;
    (2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate 
issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-
registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and
    (3) All operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except when the 
operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.
    (b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) 
of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section 
may conduct flight operations in the following specified areas:

[[Page 817]]

    (1) The territory and airspace of Libya.
    (2) Any portion of the Tripoli FIR (HLLL) that is outside the 
territory and airspace of Libya at altitudes below Flight Level (FL) 
300.
    (c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons 
described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting the following 
flight operations in the Tripoli FIR (HLLL):
    (1) Overflights of those portions of the Tripoli FIR (HLLL) that are 
outside the territory and airspace of Libya that occur at altitudes at 
or above Flight Level (FL) 300; or
    (2) Flight operations in the Tripoli FIR (HLLL) that are conducted 
under a contract, grant, or cooperative agreement with a department, 
agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. Government (or under a 
subcontract between the prime contractor of the department, agency, or 
instrumentality and the person described in paragraph (a) of this 
section), with the approval of the FAA, or under an exemption issued by 
the FAA. The FAA will consider requests for approval or exemption in a 
timely manner, with the order of preference being: First, for those 
operations in support of U.S. Government-sponsored activities; second, 
for those operations in support of government-sponsored activities of a 
foreign country with the support of a U.S. Government department, 
agency, or instrumentality; and third, for all other operations.
    (d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate 
decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command 
of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by 
that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators 
that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR part 119, 121, 125, or 
135, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of 
the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, 
submit to the responsible Flight Standards Office a complete report of 
the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a 
description of the deviation and the reasons for it.
    (e) Expiration. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) will 
remain in effect until March 20, 2023. The FAA may amend, rescind, or 
extend this SFAR, as necessary.

[Docket No FAA-2011-0246; Amdt. No.91-321E, 85 FR 45091, July 27, 2020]



Sec. 91.1605  Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 77--Prohibition
Against Certain Flights in the Baghdad Flight Information Region (FIR) (ORBB).

    (a) Applicability. This section applies to the following persons:
    (1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators;
    (2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate 
issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-
registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and
    (3) All operators of civil aircraft registered in the United States, 
except when the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.
    (b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) 
of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section 
may conduct flight operations in the Baghdad Flight Information Region 
(FIR) (ORBB) at altitudes below Flight Level (FL) 320.
    (c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons 
described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight 
operations in the Baghdad FIR (ORBB) at altitudes below FL320, provided 
that such flight operations occur under a contract, grant, or 
cooperative agreement with a department, agency, or instrumentality of 
the U.S. Government (or under a subcontract between the prime contractor 
of the department, agency, or instrumentality, and the person described 
in paragraph (a) of this section) with the approval of the FAA, or under 
an exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will consider requests for 
approval or exemption in a timely manner, with the order of preference 
being: first, for those operations in support of U.S. Government-
sponsored activities; second, for those operations in support of 
government-sponsored activities of a foreign country with the support of 
a U.S. Government department, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for 
all other operations.

[[Page 818]]

    (d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate 
decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command 
of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by 
that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators 
that are subject to the requirements of part 119, 121, 125, or 135 of 
this chapter, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 
days of the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal 
holidays, submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a complete 
report of the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, 
including a description of the deviation and the reasons for it.
    (e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until October 26, 
2024. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR, as necessary.

[Docket No. FAA-2018-0927, Amdt. No. 91-353A, 85 FR 65693, Oct. 16, 
2020, as amended by Amdt. No. 91-353B, 87 FR 57390, Sept. 20, 2022]



Sec. 91.1607  Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 113--Prohibition
Against Certain Flights in Specified Areas of the Dnipro Flight Information
Region (FIR) 
          (UKDV).

    (a) Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) 
applies to the following persons:
    (1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators;
    (2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate 
issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-
registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and
    (3) All operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except when the 
operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.
    (b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) 
of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section 
may conduct flight operations in the Dnipro FIR (UKDV) from the surface 
to unlimited, east of a line drawn direct from ABDAR (471802N 351732E) 
along airway M853 to NIKAD (485946N 355519E), then along airway N604 to 
GOBUN (501806N 373824E). This prohibition applies to airways M853 and 
N604. This prohibition extends from the surface to unlimited and 
includes that portion of the Kyiv Upper Information Region (UIR) (UKBU) 
airspace within the lateral limits set forth in this paragraph (b) from 
the upper boundaries of the Dnipro FIR to unlimited.
    (c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons 
described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight 
operations in the specified areas described in paragraph (b) of this 
section, under the following circumstances:
    (1) Operations are permitted to the extent necessary to take off 
from and land at the following three airports, subject to the approval 
of, and in accordance with the conditions established by, the 
appropriate authorities of Ukraine:
    (i) Kharkiv International Airport (UKHH);
    (ii) Dnipro International Airport (UKDD); and
    (iii) Zaporizhzhia International Airport (UKDE).
    (2) Operations are permitted provided that they are conducted under 
a contract, grant, or cooperative agreement with a department, agency, 
or instrumentality of the U.S. Government (or under a subcontract 
between the prime contractor of the department, agency, or 
instrumentality of the U.S. Government and the person described in 
paragraph (a) of this section) with the approval of the FAA, or under an 
exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will consider requests for approval 
or exemption in a timely manner, with the order of preference being: 
First, for those operations in support of U.S. Government-sponsored 
activities; second, for those operations in support of government-
sponsored activities of a foreign country with the support of a U.S. 
Government department, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for all 
other operations.
    (d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate 
decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command 
of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by 
that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators 
that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR part 119, 121, 125, or 
135, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of 
the deviation, excluding Saturdays,

[[Page 819]]

Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the responsible Flight 
Standards office a complete report of the operations of the aircraft 
involved in the deviation, including a description of the deviation and 
the reasons for it.
    (e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until October 27, 
2023. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR as necessary.

[86 FR 55491, Oct. 6, 2021]



Sec. 91.1609  Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 114--Prohibition 
Against Certain Flights in the Damascus Flight Information Region
(FIR) (OSTT).

    (a) Applicability. This section applies to the following persons:
    (1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators;
    (2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate 
issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-
registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and
    (3) All operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except when the 
operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.
    (b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) 
of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section 
may conduct flight operations in the Damascus Flight Information Region 
(FIR) (OSTT).
    (c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons 
described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight 
operations in the Damascus Flight Information Region (FIR) (OSTT), 
provided that such flight operations are conducted under a contract, 
grant, or cooperative agreement with a department, agency, or 
instrumentality of the U.S. government (or under a subcontract between 
the prime contractor of the department, agency, or instrumentality and 
the person described in paragraph (a) of this section) with the approval 
of the FAA, or under an exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will 
consider requests for approval or exemption in a timely manner, with the 
order of preference being: First, for those operations in support of 
U.S. government-sponsored activities; second, for those operations in 
support of government-sponsored activities of a foreign country with the 
support of a U.S. government department, agency, or instrumentality; and 
third, for all other operations.
    (d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate 
decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command 
of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by 
that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators 
that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR part 119, 121, 125, or 
135, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of 
the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, 
submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a complete report of 
the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a 
description of the deviation and the reasons for it.
    (e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until December 30, 
2023. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR, as necessary.

[Docket FAA-2017-0768, Amdt. 91-348, 82 FR 40949, Aug. 29, 2017; Amdt. 
91-348A, 82 FR 42592, Sept. 11, 2017, as amended by Amdt. No. 91-348B, 
83 FR 63414, Dec. 10, 2018; Amdt. No. 91-348C; 85 FR 75845, Nov. 27, 
2020]



Sec. 91.1611  Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 115--Prohibition
Against Certain Flights in Specified Areas of the Sanaa Flight
Information Region (FIR) 
          (OYSC).

    (a) Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) 
applies to the following persons:
    (1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators;
    (2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate 
issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-
registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and
    (3) All operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except when the 
operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.
    (b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) 
of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section 
may conduct flight operations in the portion of the Sanaa Flight 
Information Region (FIR) (OYSC) that is west of a line drawn direct from 
KAPET (163322N 0530614E) to NODMA (152603N 0533359E), northwest of a 
line drawn direct from NODMA to

[[Page 820]]

ORBAT (140638N 0503924E) then from ORBAT to PAKER (115500N 0463500E), 
north of a line drawn direct from PAKER to PARIM (123142N 0432712E), and 
east of a line drawn direct from PARIM to RIBOK (154700N 0415230E). Use 
of jet route UN303 is not authorized.
    (c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons 
described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight 
operations in the Sanaa FIR (OYSC) under the following circumstances:
    (1) Flight operations may be conducted in the Sanaa FIR (OYSC) in 
that airspace east of a line drawn direct from KAPET (163322N 0530614E) 
to NODMA (152603N 0533359E), southeast of a line drawn direct from NODMA 
to ORBAT (140638N 0503924E) then from ORBAT to PAKER (115500N 0463500E), 
south of a line drawn direct from PAKER to PARIM (123142N 0432712E), and 
west of a line drawn direct from PARIM to RIBOK (154700N 0415230E). Use 
of jet routes UT702 and M999 are authorized. All flight operations 
conducted under this subparagraph must be conducted subject to the 
approval of, and in accordance with the conditions established by, the 
appropriate authorities of Yemen.
    (2) Flight operations may be conducted in the Sanaa FIR (OYSC) in 
that airspace west of a line drawn direct from KAPET (163322N 0530614E) 
to NODMA (152603N 0533359E), northwest of a line drawn direct from NODMA 
to ORBAT (140638N 0503924E) then from ORBAT to PAKER (115500N 0463500E), 
north of a line drawn direct from PAKER to PARIM (123142N 0432712E), and 
east of a line drawn direct from PARIM to RIBOK (154700N 0415230E) if 
such flight operations are conducted under a contract, grant, or 
cooperative agreement with a department, agency, or instrumentality of 
the U.S. Government (or under a subcontract between the prime contractor 
of the U.S. Government department, agency, or instrumentality and the 
person subject to paragraph (a)), with the approval of the FAA, or under 
an exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will consider requests for 
approval or exemption in a timely manner, with the order of preference 
being: First, for those operations in support of U.S. Government-
sponsored activities; second, for those operations in support of 
government-sponsored activities of a foreign country with the support of 
a U.S. government department, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for 
all other operations.
    (d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate 
decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command 
of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by 
that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators 
that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR part 119, 121, 125, or 
135, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of 
the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, 
submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a complete report of 
the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a 
description of the deviation and the reasons for it.
    (e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until January 7, 
2025. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR, as necessary.

[Amdt. 91-340B, 84 FR 67665, Dec. 11, 2019, as amended by Amdt. 91-340C, 
86 FR 69173, Dec. 7, 2021]



Sec. 91.1613  Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 107--Prohibition
Against Certain Flights in the Territory and Airspace of Somalia.

    (a) Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) 
applies to the following persons:
    (1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators;
    (2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate 
issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-
registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and
    (3) All operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except when the 
operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.
    (b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) 
of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section 
may conduct flight operations in the territory and airspace of Somalia 
at altitudes below Flight Level (FL) 260.

[[Page 821]]

    (c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons 
described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight 
operations in the territory and airspace of Somalia under the following 
circumstances:
    (1) Overflights of Somalia may be conducted at altitudes at or above 
FL260 subject to the approval of, and in accordance with the conditions 
established by, the appropriate authorities of Somalia.
    (2) Aircraft departing from Djibouti Ambouli International Airport 
(International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) code: HDAM) may 
operate overwater in the territory and airspace of Somalia at altitudes 
below FL260 only to the extent necessary to permit a climb during 
takeoff if the operator of that aircraft:
    (i) Receives any necessary approval from the appropriate authorities 
of Djibouti;
    (ii) Conducts operations that comply with applicable conditions 
established by the appropriate authorities of Djibouti and air traffic 
control instructions; and
    (iii) Is either on a published instrument procedure or under the 
direction of air traffic control.
    (3) Aircraft descending into Djibouti Ambouli International Airport 
(HDAM) may operate overwater at altitudes below FL260 in the territory 
and airspace of Somalia only to the extent necessary to permit descent 
for landing at Djibouti Ambouli International Airport (HDAM), if the 
operator of that aircraft:
    (i) Receives any necessary approval from the appropriate authorities 
of Djibouti;
    (ii) Conducts operations that comply with applicable conditions 
established by the appropriate authorities of Djibouti and air traffic 
control instructions; and
    (iii) Is either on a published instrument procedure or under the 
direction of air traffic control.
    (4) Flight operations may be conducted in the territory and airspace 
of Somalia at altitudes below FL260 if such flight operations are 
conducted under a contract, grant, or cooperative agreement with a 
department, agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. Government (or under 
a subcontract between the prime contractor of the U.S. Government 
department, agency, or instrumentality and the person described in 
paragraph (a) of this section) with the approval of the FAA or under an 
exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will consider requests for approval 
or exemption in a timely manner, with the order of preference being: 
First, for those operations in support of U.S. Government-sponsored 
activities; second, for those operations in support of government-
sponsored activities of a foreign country with the support of a U.S. 
Government department, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for all 
other operations.
    (d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate 
decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command 
of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by 
that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators 
that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR part 119, 121, 125, or 
135, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of 
the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, 
submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a complete report of 
the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a 
description of the deviation and the reasons for it.
    (e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until January 7, 
2027. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR, as necessary.

[Docket FAA-2007-27602, Amdt.91-339, 81 FR 726, Jan. 7, 2016, as amended 
by Amdt. 91-339A, 82 FR 58550, Dec. 13, 2017; Docket FAA-2018-0119, 
Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018; Amdt. 91-339B, 84 FR 67671, Dec. 
11, 2019; Docket No. FAA-2007-27602; Amdt. No. 91-339C, 87 FR 79245, 
Dec. 27, 2022]



Sec. 91.1615  Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 79--Prohibition
Against Certain Flights in the Pyongyang Flight Information Region (FIR) (ZKKP).

    (a) Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) 
applies to the following persons:
    (1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators;
    (2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate 
issued by

[[Page 822]]

the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-registered aircraft 
for a foreign air carrier; and
    (3) All operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except when the 
operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.
    (b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) 
of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section 
may conduct flight operations in the Pyongyang Flight Information Region 
(FIR) (ZKKP).
    (c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons 
described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight 
operations in the Pyongyang Flight Information Region (FIR) (ZKKP), 
provided that such flight operations are conducted under a contract, 
grant, or cooperative agreement with a department, agency, or 
instrumentality of the U.S. government (or under a subcontract between 
the prime contractor of the department, agency, or instrumentality and 
the person described in paragraph (a) of this section) with the approval 
of the FAA, or under an exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will 
consider requests for approval or exemption in a timely manner, with the 
order of preference being: First, for those operations in support of 
U.S. government-sponsored activities; second, for those operations in 
support of government-sponsored activities of a foreign country with the 
support of a U.S. Government department, agency, or instrumentality; and 
third, for all other operations.
    (d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate 
decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command 
of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by 
that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators 
that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR part 119, 121, 125, or 
135, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of 
the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, 
submit to the responsible Flight Standards Office a complete report of 
the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a 
description of the deviation and the reasons for it.
    (e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until September 18, 
2023. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR, as necessary.

[Docket No. FAA-2018-0838, Amdt. No. 91-352, 83 FR 47064, Sept. 18, 
2018, as amended by Amdt. No. 91-352A, 85 FR 55377, Sept. 8, 2020]



Sec. 91.1617  Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 117--Prohibition
Against Certain Flights in the Tehran Flight Information Region (FIR)
(OIIX).

    (a) Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) 
applies to the following persons:
    (1) All U.S. air carriers and U.S. commercial operators;
    (2) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate 
issued by the FAA, except when such persons are operating U.S.-
registered aircraft for a foreign air carrier; and
    (3) All operators of U.S.-registered civil aircraft, except when the 
operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.
    (b) Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) 
of this section, no person described in paragraph (a) of this section 
may conduct flight operations in the Tehran Flight Information Region 
(FIR) (OIIX).
    (c) Permitted operations. This section does not prohibit persons 
described in paragraph (a) of this section from conducting flight 
operations in the Tehran FIR (OIIX), provided that such flight 
operations are conducted under a contract, grant, or cooperative 
agreement with a department, agency, or instrumentality of the U.S. 
Government (or under a subcontract between the prime contractor of the 
department, agency, or instrumentality and the person described in 
paragraph (a) of this section) with the approval of the FAA, or under an 
exemption issued by the FAA. The FAA will consider requests for approval 
or exemption in a timely manner, with the order of preference being: 
First, for those operations in support of U.S. Government-sponsored 
activities; second, for those operations in support of government-
sponsored activities of a foreign country with the support of a U.S. 
Government department, agency, or instrumentality; and third, for all 
other operations.

[[Page 823]]

    (d) Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate 
decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command 
of an aircraft may deviate from this section to the extent required by 
that emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators 
that are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR parts 119, 121, 125, or 
135, each person who deviates from this section must, within 10 days of 
the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, 
submit to the responsible Flight Standards Office a complete report of 
the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a 
description of the deviation and the reasons for it.
    (e) Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until October 31, 
2024. The FAA may amend, rescind, or extend this SFAR, as necessary.

[Docket No. FAA-2020-0874, Amdt. No. 91-359, 85 FR 68440, Oct. 29, 2020, 
as amended by Amdt. No. 91-359A, 87 FR 57834, Sept. 20, 2022]



  Subpart N_Mitsubishi MU	2B Series Special Training, Experience, and 
                         Operating Requirements

    Source: Docket FAA-2006-24981, Amdt. 91-344, 81 FR 61591, Sept. 7, 
2016, unless otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.1701  Applicability.

    (a) On and after November 7, 2016, all training conducted in an MU-
2B must follow an approved MU-2B training program that meets the 
standards of this subpart.
    (b) This subpart applies to all persons who operate a Mitsubishi MU-
2B series airplane, including those who act as pilot in command, act as 
second-in-command, or other persons who manipulate the controls while 
under the supervision of a pilot in command.
    (c) This subpart also applies to those persons who provide pilot 
training for a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane. The requirements in 
this subpart are in addition to the requirements of parts 61, 91, and 
135 of this chapter.



Sec. 91.1703  Compliance and eligibility.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person 
may manipulate the controls, act as PIC, act as second-in-command, or 
provide pilot training for a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane unless 
that person meets the requirements of this subpart.
    (b) A person who does not meet the requirements of this subpart may 
manipulate the controls of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane if a pilot 
in command who meets the requirements of this subpart is occupying a 
pilot station, no passengers or cargo are carried on board the airplane, 
and the flight is being conducted for one of the following reasons--
    (1) The pilot in command is providing pilot training to the 
manipulator of the controls;
    (2) The pilot in command is conducting a maintenance test flight 
with a second pilot or certificated mechanic; or
    (3) The pilot in command is conducting simulated instrument flight 
and is using a safety pilot other than the pilot in command who 
manipulates the controls for the purposes of Sec. 91.109(b).
    (c) A person is required to complete Initial/transition training if 
that person has fewer than--
    (1) 50 hours of documented flight time manipulating the controls 
while serving as pilot in command of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane 
in the preceding 24 months; or
    (2) 500 hours of documented flight time manipulating the controls 
while serving as pilot in command of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane.
    (d) A person is eligible to receive Requalification training in lieu 
of Initial/transition training if that person has at least--
    (1) 50 hours of documented flight time manipulating the controls 
while serving as pilot in command of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane 
in the preceding 24 months; or
    (2) 500 hours of documented flight time manipulating the controls 
while serving as pilot in command of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane.
    (e) A person is required to complete Recurrent training within the 
preceding 12 months. Successful completion of Initial/transition or 
Requalification training within the preceding 12 months satisfies the 
requirement of

[[Page 824]]

Recurrent training. A person must successfully complete Initial/
transition training or Requalification training before being eligible to 
receive Recurrent training.
    (f) Successful completion of Initial/transition training or 
Requalification training is a one-time requirement. A person may elect 
to retake Initial/transition training or Requalification training in 
lieu of Recurrent training.
    (g) A person is required to complete Differences training in 
accordance with an FAA approved MU-2B training program if that person 
operates more than one MU-2B model as specified in Sec. 91.1707(c).



Sec. 91.1705  Required pilot training.

    (a) Except as provided in Sec. 91.1703(b), no person may manipulate 
the controls, act as pilot in command, or act as second-in-command of a 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane for the purpose of flight unless--
    (1) The requirements for ground and flight training on Initial/
transition, Requalification, Recurrent, and Differences training have 
been completed in accordance with an FAA approved MU-2B training program 
that meets the standards of this subpart; and
    (2) That person's logbook has been endorsed in accordance with 
paragraph (f) of this section.
    (b) Except as provided in Sec. 91.1703(b), no person may manipulate 
the controls, act as pilot in command, or act as second-in-command, of a 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane for the purpose of flight unless--
    (1) That person satisfactorily completes, if applicable, annual 
Recurrent pilot training on the Special Emphasis Items, and all items 
listed in the Training Course Final Phase Check in accordance with an 
FAA approved MU-2B training program that meets the standards of this 
subpart; and
    (2) That person's logbook has been endorsed in accordance with 
paragraph (f) of this section.
    (c) Satisfactory completion of the competency check required by 
Sec. 135.293 of this chapter within the preceding 12 calendar months 
may not be substituted for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane annual 
recurrent flight training of this section.
    (d) Satisfactory completion of a Federal Aviation Administration 
sponsored pilot proficiency program, as described in Sec. 61.56(e) of 
this chapter may not be substituted for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series 
airplane annual recurrent flight training of this section.
    (e) If a person complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) or 
(b) of this section in the calendar month before or the calendar month 
after the month in which compliance with these paragraphs are required, 
that person is considered to have accomplished the training requirement 
in the month the training is due.
    (f) The endorsement required under paragraph (a) and (b) of this 
section must be made by--
    (1) A certificated flight instructor or a simulator instructor 
authorized by a Training Center certificated under part 142 of this 
chapter and meeting the qualifications of Sec. 91.1713; or
    (2) For persons operating the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane for a 
14 CFR part 119 certificate holder within the last 12 calendar months, 
the part 119 certificate holder's flight instructor if authorized by the 
FAA and if that flight instructor meets the requirements of Sec. 
91.1713.
    (g) All training conducted for a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane 
must be completed in accordance with an MU-2B series airplane checklist 
that has been accepted by the Federal Aviation Administration's MU-2B 
Flight Standardization Board or the applicable MU-2B series checklist 
(incorporated by reference, see Sec. 91.1721).
    (h) MU-2B training programs must contain ground training and flight 
training sufficient to ensure pilot proficiency for the safe operation 
of MU-2B aircraft, including:
    (1) A ground training curriculum sufficient to ensure pilot 
knowledge of MU-2B aircraft, aircraft systems, and procedures, necessary 
for safe operation; and
    (2) Flight training curriculum including flight training maneuver 
profiles sufficient in number and detail to ensure pilot proficiency in 
all MU-2B operations for each MU-2B model in correlation with MU-2B 
limitations, procedures, aircraft performance, and MU-

[[Page 825]]

2B Cockpit Checklist procedures applicable to the MU-2B model being 
trained. A MU-2B training program must contain, at a minimum, the 
following flight training maneuver profiles applicable to the MU-2B 
model being trained:
    (i) Normal takeoff with 5- and 20- degrees flaps;
    (ii) Takeoff engine failure with 5- and 20- degrees flaps;
    (iii) Takeoff engine failure on runway or rejected takeoff;
    (iv) Takeoff engine failure after liftoff--unable to climb (may be 
completed in classroom or flight training device only);
    (v) Steep turns;
    (vi) Slow flight maneuvers;
    (vii) One engine inoperative maneuvering with loss of directional 
control;
    (viii) Approach to stall in clean configuration and with wings 
level;
    (ix) Approach to stall in takeoff configuration with 15- to 30- 
degrees bank;
    (x) Approach to stall in landing configuration with gear down and 
40-degrees of flaps;
    (xi) Accelerated stall with no flaps;
    (xii) Emergency descent at low speed;
    (xiii) Emergency descent at high speed;
    (xiv) Unusual attitude recovery with the nose high;
    (xv) Unusual attitude recovery with the nose low;
    (xvi) Normal landing with 20- and 40- degrees flaps;
    (xvii) Go around and rejected landing;
    (xviii) No flap or 5- degrees flaps landing;
    (xix) One engine inoperative landing with 5- and 20- degrees flaps;
    (xx) Crosswind landing;
    (xxi) Instrument landing system (ILS) and missed approach ;
    (xxii) Two engine missed approach;
    (xxiii) One engine inoperative ILS and missed approach;
    (xxiv) One engine inoperative missed approach;
    (xxv) Non-precision and missed approach;
    (xxvi) Non-precision continuous descent final approach and missed 
approach;
    (xxvii) One engine inoperative non-precision and missed approach;
    (xxviii) One engine inoperative non-precision CDFA and missed 
approach;
    (xxix) Circling approach at weather minimums;
    (xxx) One engine inoperative circling approach at weather minimums.
    (3) Flight training must include a final phase check sufficient to 
document pilot proficiency in the flight training maneuver profiles at 
the completion of training; and
    (4) Differences training for applicable MU-2B model variants 
sufficient to ensure pilot proficiency in each model operated. Current 
MU-2B differences requirements are specified in Sec. 91.1707(c). A 
person must complete Differences training if a person operates more than 
one MU-2B model as specified in Sec. 91.1707(c). Differences training 
between the factory type design K and M models of the MU-2B airplane, 
and the factory type design J and L models of the MU-2B airplane, may be 
accomplished with Level A training. All other factory type design 
differences training must be accomplished with Level B training unless 
otherwise specified in Sec. 91.1707(c) . A Level A or B differences 
training is not a recurring annual requirement. Once a person has 
completed Initial Level A or B Differences training between the 
applicable different models, no additional differences training between 
those models is required.
    (5) Icing training sufficient to ensure pilot knowledge and safe 
operation of the MU-2B aircraft in icing conditions as established by 
the FAA;
    (6) Ground and flight training programs must include training hours 
identified by Sec. 91.1707(a) for ground instruction, Sec. 91.1707(b) 
for flight instruction, and Sec. 91.1707(c) for differences training.
    (i) No training credit is given for second-in-command training and 
no credit is given for right seat time under this program. Only the sole 
manipulator of the controls of the MU-2B airplane, flight training 
device, or Level C or D simulator can receive training credit under this 
program;
    (ii) An MU-2B airplane must be operated in accordance with an FAA 
approved MU-2B training program that meets the standards of this subpart 
and the training hours in Sec. 91.1707.

[[Page 826]]

    (7) Endorsements given for compliance with paragraph (f) of this 
section must be appropriate to the content of that specific MU-2B 
training program's compliance with standards of this subpart.



Sec. 91.1707  Training program hours.

    (a) Ground instruction hours are listed in the following table:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Initial/transition           Requalification        Recurrent
------------------------------------------------------------------------
20 hours........................  12 hours..........  8 hours.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (b) Flight instruction hours are listed in the following table:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Initial/transition           Requalification        Recurrent
------------------------------------------------------------------------
12 hours with a minimum of 6      8 hours level C or  4 hours at level
 hours at level E.                 level E.            E, or 6 hours at
                                                       level C.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (c) Differences training hours are listed in the following table:

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
 
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2 factory type design models concurrently........  1.5 hours required at level B.
More than 2 factory type design models             3 hours at level B.
 concurrently.
Each additional factory type design model added    1.5 hours at level B.
 separately.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (d) Definitions of levels of training as used in this subpart:
    (1) LEVEL A Training--Training that is conducted through self-
instruction by the pilot.
    (2) LEVEL B Training--Training that is conducted in the classroom 
environment with the aid of a qualified instructor who meets the 
requirements of this subpart.
    (3) LEVEL C Training--Training that is accomplished in an FAA-
approved Level 5 or 6 flight training device. In addition to the basic 
FTD requirements, the FTD must be representative of the MU-2B cockpit 
controls and be specifically approved by the FAA for the MU-2B airplane.
    (4) Level E Training--Training that must be accomplished in the MU-
2B airplane, Level C simulator, or Level D simulator.



Sec. 91.1709  Training program approval.

    To obtain approval for an MU-2B training program, training providers 
must submit a proposed training program to the Administrator.
    (a) Only training programs approved by the Administrator may be used 
to satisfy the standards of this subpart.
    (b) For part 91 training providers, training programs will be 
approved for 24 months, unless sooner superseded or rescinded.
    (c) The Administrator may require revision of an approved MU-2B 
training program at any time.
    (d) A training provider must present its approved training program 
and FAA approval documentation to any representative of the 
Administrator, upon request.



Sec. 91.1711  Aeronautical experience.

    No person may act as a pilot in command of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series 
airplane for the purpose of flight unless that person holds an airplane 
category and multi-engine land class rating, and has logged a minimum of 
100 flight hours of PIC time in multi-engine airplanes.



Sec. 91.1713  Instruction, checking, and evaluation.

    (a) Flight Instructor (Airplane). No flight instructor may provide 
instruction or conduct a flight review in a Mitsubishi MU-2B series 
airplane unless that flight instructor
    (1) Meets the pilot training and documentation requirements of Sec. 
91.1705 before giving flight instruction in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series 
airplane;
    (2) Meets the currency requirements of Sec. Sec. 91.1715(a) and 
91.1715(c)
    (3) Has a minimum total pilot time of 2,000 pilot-in-command hours 
and 800 pilot-in-command hours in multiengine airplanes; and
    (4) Has:
    (i) 300 pilot-in-command hours in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series 
airplane, 50 hours of which must have been within the preceding 12 
months; or

[[Page 827]]

    (ii) 100 pilot-in-command hours in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series 
airplane, 25 hours of which must have been within the preceding 12 
months, and 300 hours providing instruction in a FAA-approved Mitsubishi 
MU-2B simulator or FAA-approved Mitsubishi MU-2B flight training device, 
25 hours of which must have been within the preceding 12 months.
    (b) Flight Instructor (Simulator/Flight Training Device). No flight 
instructor may provide instruction for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series 
airplane unless that instructor meets the requirements of this 
paragraph--
    (1) Each flight instructor who provides flight training for the 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane must meet the pilot training and 
documentation requirements of Sec. 91.1705 before giving flight 
instruction for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane;
    (2) Each flight instructor who provides flight training for the 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane must meet the currency requirements of 
Sec. 91.1715(c) before giving flight instruction for the Mitsubishi MU-
2B series airplane;
    (3) Each flight instructor who provides flight training for the 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane must have:
    (i) A minimum total pilot time of 2000 pilot-in-command hours and 
800 pilot-in-command hours in multiengine airplanes; and
    (ii) Within the preceding 12 months, either 50 hours of Mitsubishi 
MU-2B series airplane pilot-in-command experience or 50 hours providing 
simulator or flight training device instruction for the Mitsubishi MU-
2B.
    (c) Checking and evaluation. No person may provide checking or 
evaluation for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane unless that person 
meets the requirements of this paragraph--
    (1) For the purpose of checking, designated pilot examiners, 
training center evaluators, and check airmen must have completed the 
appropriate training in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane in 
accordance with Sec. 91.1705;
    (2) For checking conducted in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane, 
each designated pilot examiner and check airman must have 100 hours 
pilot-in-command flight time in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane and 
maintain currency in accordance with Sec. 91.1715.



Sec. 91.1715  Currency requirements and flight review.

    (a) The takeoff and landing currency requirements of Sec. 61.57 of 
this chapter must be maintained in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane. 
Takeoff and landings in other multiengine airplanes do not meet the 
takeoff and landing currency requirements for the Mitsubishi MU-2B 
series plane. Takeoff and landings in either the short-body or long-body 
Mitsubishi MU-2B model airplane may be credited toward takeoff and 
landing currency for both Mitsubishi MU-2B model groups.
    (b) Instrument experience obtained in other category and class of 
aircraft may be used to satisfy the instrument currency requirements of 
Sec. 61.57 of this chapter for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane.
    (c) Satisfactory completion of a flight review to satisfy the 
requirements of Sec. 61.56 of this chapter is valid for operation of a 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane only if that flight review is conducted 
in a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane or an MU-2B Simulator approved for 
landings with an approved course conducted under part 142 of this 
chapter. The flight review for Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplanes must 
include the Special Emphasis Items, and all items listed in the Training 
Course Final Phase Check in accordance with an approved MU-2B Training 
Program.
    (d) A person who successfully completes the Initial/transition, 
Requalification, or Recurrent training requirements under Sec. 91.1705 
of this chapter also meet the requirements of Sec. 61.56 of this 
chapter and need not accomplish a separate flight review provided that 
at least 1 hour of the flight training was conducted in the Mitsubishi 
MU-2B series airplane or an MU-2B Simulator approved for landings with 
an approved course conducted under part 142 of this chapter.

[Docket FAA-2006-24981, Amdt. 91-344, 81 FR 61591, Sept. 7, 2016; Amdt. 
91-344A, 82 FR 21472, May 9, 2017]

[[Page 828]]



Sec. 91.1717  Operating requirements.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person 
may operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B airplane in single pilot operations 
unless that airplane has a functional autopilot.
    (b) A person may operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B airplane in single pilot 
operations without a functional autopilot when--
    (1) Operating under day visual flight rule requirements; or
    (2) Authorized under a FAA approved minimum equipment list for that 
airplane, operating under instrument flight rule requirements in daytime 
visual meteorological conditions.
    (c) No person may operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane unless 
a copy of the appropriate Mitsubishi Heavy Industries MU-2B Airplane 
Flight Manual is carried on board the airplane and is accessible during 
each flight at the pilot station.
    (d) No person may operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane unless 
an MU-2B series airplane checklist, appropriate for the model being 
operated and accepted by the Federal Aviation Administration MU-2B 
Flight Standardization Board, is accessible for each flight at the pilot 
station and is used by the flight crewmembers when operating the 
airplane.
    (e) No person may operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane 
contrary to the standards of this subpart.
    (f) If there are any differences between the training and operating 
requirements of this subpart and the MU-2B Airplane Flight Manual's 
procedures sections (Normal, Abnormal, and Emergency) and the MU-2B 
airplane series checklist incorporated by reference in Sec. 91.1721, 
the person operating the airplane must operate the airplane in 
accordance with the training specified in this subpart.



Sec. 91.1719  Credit for prior training.

    Initial/transition, requalification, recurrent or Level B 
differences training conducted prior to November 7, 2016, compliant with 
SFAR No. 108, Section 3 of this part, is considered to be compliant with 
this subpart, if the student met the eligibility requirements for the 
applicable category of training and the student's instructor met the 
experience requirements of this subpart.



Sec. 91.1721  Incorporation by reference.

    (a) The Mitsubishi Heavy Industries MU-2B Cockpit Checklists are 
incorporated by reference into this part. The Director of the Federal 
Register approved this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 
U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved material is available for 
inspection at U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Management 
Facility, Room W 12-140, West Building Ground Floor, 1200 New Jersey 
Ave. SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001, or at the National Archives and 
Records Administration, call 202-741-6030, or go to: http://
www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/
ibr_locations.html.
    (b) Mitsubishi Heavy Industries America, Inc., 4951 Airport Parkway, 
Suite 530, Addison, TX 75001.
    (1) Mitsubishi Heavy Industries MU-2B Checklists:
    (i) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-60, Type Certificate A10SW, MHI 
Document No. YET06220C, accepted by FSB on February 12, 2007.
    (ii) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-40, Type Certificate A10SW, MHI 
Document No. YET06256A, accepted by FSB on February 12, 2007.
    (iii) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-36A, Type Certificate A10SW, 
MHI Document No. YET06257B, accepted by FSB on February 12, 2007.
    (iv) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-36, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI 
Document No. YET06252B, accepted by FSB on February 12, 2007.
    (v) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-35, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI 
Document No. YET06251B, accepted by FSB on February 12, 2007.
    (vi) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-30, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI 
Document No. YET06250A, accepted by FSB on March 2, 2007.
    (vii) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-26A, Type Certificate A10SW, 
MHI Document No. YET06255A, accepted by FSB on February 12, 2007.
    (viii) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-26, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI 
Document No. YET06249A, accepted by FSB on March 2, 2007.

[[Page 829]]

    (ix) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-26, Type Certificate A10SW, MHI 
Document No. YET06254A, accepted by FSB on March 2, 2007.
    (x) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-25, Type Certificate A10SW, MHI 
Document No. YET06253A, accepted by FSB on March 2, 2007.
    (xi) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-25, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI 
Document No. YET06248A, accepted by FSB on March 2, 2007.
    (xii) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-20, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI 
Document No. YET06247A, accepted by FSB on February 12, 2007.
    (xiii)-(xiv) [Reserved]
    (xv) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-15, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI 
Document No. YET06246A, accepted by FSB on March 2, 2007.
    (xvi) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B-10, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI 
Document No. YET06245A, accepted by FSB on March 2, 2007.
    (xvii) Cockpit Checklist, Model MU-2B, Type Certificate A2PC, MHI 
Document No. YET06244A, accepted by FSB on March 2, 2007.
    (2) [Reserved]

[Docket FAA-2006-24981, Amdt. 91-344, 81 FR 61591, Sept. 7, 2016; Amdt. 
91-344A, 82 FR 21472, May 9, 2017]





Sec. Appendix A to Part 91--Category II Operations: Manual, Instruments, 
                       Equipment, and Maintenance

                          1. Category II Manual

    (a) Application for approval. An applicant for approval of a 
Category II manual or an amendment to an approved Category II manual 
must submit the proposed manual or amendment to the responsible Flight 
Standards office. If the application requests an evaluation program, it 
must include the following:
    (1) The location of the aircraft and the place where the 
demonstrations are to be conducted; and
    (2) The date the demonstrations are to commence (at least 10 days 
after filing the application).
    (b) Contents. Each Category II manual must contain:
    (1) The registration number, make, and model of the aircraft to 
which it applies;
    (2) A maintenance program as specified in section 4 of this 
appendix; and
    (3) The procedures and instructions related to recognition of 
decision height, use of runway visual range information, approach 
monitoring, the decision region (the region between the middle marker 
and the decision height), the maximum permissible deviations of the 
basic ILS indicator within the decision region, a missed approach, use 
of airborne low approach equipment, minimum altitude for the use of the 
autopilot, instrument and equipment failure warning systems, instrument 
failure, and other procedures, instructions, and limitations that may be 
found necessary by the Administrator.

                  2. Required Instruments and Equipment

    The instruments and equipment listed in this section must be 
installed in each aircraft operated in a Category II operation. This 
section does not require duplication of instruments and equipment 
required by Sec. 91.205 or any other provisions of this chapter.
    (a) Group I. (1) Two localizer and glide slope receiving systems. 
Each system must provide a basic ILS display and each side of the 
instrument panel must have a basic ILS display. However, a single 
localizer antenna and a single glide slope antenna may be used.
    (2) A communications system that does not affect the operation of at 
least one of the ILS systems.
    (3) A marker beacon receiver that provides distinctive aural and 
visual indications of the outer and the middle markers.
    (4) Two gyroscopic pitch and bank indicating systems.
    (5) Two gyroscopic direction indicating systems.
    (6) Two airspeed indicators.
    (7) Two sensitive altimeters adjustable for barometric pressure, 
each having a placarded correction for altimeter scale error and for the 
wheel height of the aircraft. After June 26, 1979, two sensitive 
altimeters adjustable for barometric pressure, having markings at 20-
foot intervals and each having a placarded correction for altimeter 
scale error and for the wheel height of the aircraft.
    (8) Two vertical speed indicators.
    (9) A flight control guidance system that consists of either an 
automatic approach coupler or a flight director system. A flight 
director system must display computed information as steering command in 
relation to an ILS localizer and, on the same instrument, either 
computed information as pitch command in relation to an ILS glide slope 
or basic ILS glide slope information. An automatic approach coupler must 
provide at least automatic steering in relation to an ILS localizer. The 
flight control guidance

[[Page 830]]

system may be operated from one of the receiving systems required by 
subparagraph (1) of this paragraph.
    (10) For Category II operations with decision heights below 150 feet 
either a marker beacon receiver providing aural and visual indications 
of the inner marker or a radio altimeter.
    (b) Group II. (1) Warning systems for immediate detection by the 
pilot of system faults in items (1), (4), (5), and (9) of Group I and, 
if installed for use in Category III operations, the radio altimeter and 
autothrottle system.
    (2) Dual controls.
    (3) An externally vented static pressure system with an alternate 
static pressure source.
    (4) A windshield wiper or equivalent means of providing adequate 
cockpit visibility for a safe visual transition by either pilot to 
touchdown and rollout.
    (5) A heat source for each airspeed system pitot tube installed or 
an equivalent means of preventing malfunctioning due to icing of the 
pitot system.

                  3. Instruments and Equipment Approval

    (a) General. The instruments and equipment required by section 2 of 
this appendix must be approved as provided in this section before being 
used in Category II operations. Before presenting an aircraft for 
approval of the instruments and equipment, it must be shown that since 
the beginning of the 12th calendar month before the date of submission--
    (1) The ILS localizer and glide slope equipment were bench checked 
according to the manufacturer's instructions and found to meet those 
standards specified in RTCA Paper 23-63/DO-117 dated March 14, 1963, 
``Standard Adjustment Criteria for Airborne Localizer and Glide Slope 
Receivers,'' which may be obtained from the RTCA Secretariat, 1425 K 
St., NW., Washington, DC 20005.
    (2) The altimeters and the static pressure systems were tested and 
inspected in accordance with appendix E to part 43 of this chapter; and
    (3) All other instruments and items of equipment specified in 
section 2(a) of this appendix that are listed in the proposed 
maintenance program were bench checked and found to meet the 
manufacturer's specifications.
    (b) Flight control guidance system. All components of the flight 
control guidance system must be approved as installed by the evaluation 
program specified in paragraph (e) of this section if they have not been 
approved for Category III operations under applicable type or 
supplemental type certification procedures. In addition, subsequent 
changes to make, model, or design of the components must be approved 
under this paragraph. Related systems or devices, such as the 
autothrottle and computed missed approach guidance system, must be 
approved in the same manner if they are to be used for Category II 
operations.
    (c) Radio altimeter. A radio altimeter must meet the performance 
criteria of this paragraph for original approval and after each 
subsequent alteration.
    (1) It must display to the flight crew clearly and positively the 
wheel height of the main landing gear above the terrain.
    (2) It must display wheel height above the terrain to an accuracy of 
plus or minus 5 feet or 5 percent, whichever is greater, under the 
following conditions:
    (i) Pitch angles of zero to plus or minus 5 degrees about the mean 
approach attitude.
    (ii) Roll angles of zero to 20 degrees in either direction.
    (iii) Forward velocities from minimum approach speed up to 200 
knots.
    (iv) Sink rates from zero to 15 feet per second at altitudes from 
100 to 200 feet.
    (3) Over level ground, it must track the actual altitude of the 
aircraft without significant lag or oscillation.
    (4) With the aircraft at an altitude of 200 feet or less, any abrupt 
change in terrain representing no more than 10 percent of the aircraft's 
altitude must not cause the altimeter to unlock, and indicator response 
to such changes must not exceed 0.1 seconds and, in addition, if the 
system unlocks for greater changes, it must reacquire the signal in less 
than 1 second.
    (5) Systems that contain a push-to-test feature must test the entire 
system (with or without an antenna) at a simulated altitude of less than 
500 feet.
    (6) The system must provide to the flight crew a positive failure 
warning display any time there is a loss of power or an absence of 
ground return signals within the designed range of operating altitudes.
    (d) Other instruments and equipment. All other instruments and items 
of equipment required by Sec. 2 of this appendix must be capable of 
performing as necessary for Category II operations. Approval is also 
required after each subsequent alteration to these instruments and items 
of equipment.
    (e) Evaluation program--(1) Application. Approval by evaluation is 
requested as a part of the application for approval of the Category II 
manual.
    (2) Demonstrations. Unless otherwise authorized by the 
Administrator, the evaluation program for each aircraft requires the 
demonstrations specified in this paragraph. At least 50 ILS approaches 
must be flown with at least five approaches on each of three different 
ILS facilities and no more than one half of the total approaches on any 
one ILS facility. All approaches shall be flown under simulated 
instrument conditions to a 100-foot decision height and 90 percent of 
the total approaches made must be successful. A successful approach is 
one in which--

[[Page 831]]

    (i) At the 100-foot decision height, the indicated airspeed and 
heading are satisfactory for a normal flare and landing (speed must be 
plus or minus 5 knots of programmed airspeed, but may not be less than 
computed threshold speed if autothrottles are used);
    (ii) The aircraft at the 100-foot decision height, is positioned so 
that the cockpit is within, and tracking so as to remain within, the 
lateral confines of the runway extended;
    (iii) Deviation from glide slope after leaving the outer marker does 
not exceed 50 percent of full-scale deflection as displayed on the ILS 
indicator;
    (iv) No unusual roughness or excessive attitude changes occur after 
leaving the middle marker; and
    (v) In the case of an aircraft equipped with an approach coupler, 
the aircraft is sufficiently in trim when the approach coupler is 
disconnected at the decision height to allow for the continuation of a 
normal approach and landing.
    (3) Records. During the evaluation program the following information 
must be maintained by the applicant for the aircraft with respect to 
each approach and made available to the Adninistrator upon request:
    (i) Each deficiency in airborne instruments and equipment that 
prevented the initiation of an approach.
    (ii) The reasons for discontinuing an approach, including the 
altitude above the runway at which it was discontinued.
    (iii) Speed control at the 100-foot decision height if auto 
throttles are used.
    (iv) Trim condition of the aircraft upon disconnecting the auto 
coupler with respect to continuation to flare and landing.
    (v) Position of the aircraft at the middle marker and at the 
decision height indicated both on a diagram of the basic ILS display and 
a diagram of the runway extended to the middle marker. Estimated 
touchdown point must be indicated on the runway diagram.
    (vi) Compatibility of flight director with the auto coupler, if 
applicable.
    (vii) Quality of overall system performance.
    (4) Evaluation. A final evaluation of the flight control guidance 
system is made upon successful completion of the demonstrations. If no 
hazardous tendencies have been displayed or are otherwise known to 
exist, the system is approved as installed.

                         4. Maintenance program

    (a) Each maintenance program must contain the following:
    (1) A list of each instrument and item of equipment specified in 
Sec. 2 of this appendix that is installed in the aircraft and approved 
for Category II operations, including the make and model of those 
specified in Sec. 2(a).
    (2) A schedule that provides for the performance of inspections 
under subparagraph (5) of this paragraph within 3 calendar months after 
the date of the previous inspection. The inspection must be performed by 
a person authorized by part 43 of this chapter, except that each 
alternate inspection may be replaced by a functional flight check. This 
functional flight check must be performed by a pilot holding a Category 
II pilot authorization for the type aircraft checked.
    (3) A schedule that provides for the performance of bench checks for 
each listed instrument and item of equipment that is specified in 
section 2(a) within 12 calendar months after the date of the previous 
bench check.
    (4) A schedule that provides for the performance of a test and 
inspection of each static pressure system in accordance with appendix E 
to part 43 of this chapter within 12 calendar months after the date of 
the previous test and inspection.
    (5) The procedures for the performance of the periodic inspections 
and functional flight checks to determine the ability of each listed 
instrument and item of equipment specified in section 2(a) of this 
appendix to perform as approved for Category II operations including a 
procedure for recording functional flight checks.
    (6) A procedure for assuring that the pilot is informed of all 
defects in listed instruments and items of equipment.
    (7) A procedure for assuring that the condition of each listed 
instrument and item of equipment upon which maintenance is performed is 
at least equal to its Category II approval condition before it is 
returned to service for Category II operations.
    (8) A procedure for an entry in the maintenance records required by 
Sec. 43.9 of this chapter that shows the date, airport, and reasons for 
each discontinued Category II operation because of a malfunction of a 
listed instrument or item of equipment.
    (b) Bench check. A bench check required by this section must comply 
with this paragraph.
    (1) It must be performed by a certificated repair station holding 
one of the following ratings as appropriate to the equipment checked:
    (i) An instrument rating.
    (ii) A radio rating.
    (2) It must consist of removal of an instrument or item of equipment 
and performance of the following:
    (i) A visual inspection for cleanliness, impending failure, and the 
need for lubrication, repair, or replacement of parts;
    (ii) Correction of items found by that visual inspection; and
    (iii) Calibration to at least the manufacturer's specifications 
unless otherwise specified in the approved Category II manual for the 
aircraft in which the instrument or item of equipment is installed.
    (c) Extensions. After the completion of one maintenance cycle of 12 
calendar months, a

[[Page 832]]

request to extend the period for checks, tests, and inspections is 
approved if it is shown that the performance of particular equipment 
justifies the requested extension.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34325, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-269, 
66 FR 41116, Aug. 6, 2001; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 91-350, 83 FR 
9172, Mar. 5, 2018]



                     Sec. Appendixes B--C [Reserved]



   Sec. Appendix D to Part 91--Airports/Locations: Special Operating 
                              Restrictions

    Section 1. Locations at which the requirements of Sec. 91.215(b)(2) 
and Sec. 91.225(d)(2) apply. The requirements of Sec. Sec. 
91.215(b)(2) and 91.225(d)(2) apply below 10,000 feet MSL within a 30-
nautical-mile radius of each location in the following list.

Atlanta, GA (Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport)
Baltimore, MD (Baltimore/Washington International Thurgood Marshall 
Airport)
Boston, MA (General Edward Lawrence Logan International Airport)
Camp Springs, MD (Joint Base Andrews)
Chantilly, VA (Washington Dulles International Airport)
Charlotte, NC (Charlotte/Douglas International Airport)
Chicago, IL (Chicago-O'Hare International Airport)
Cleveland, OH (Cleveland-Hopkins International Airport)
Covington, KY (Cincinnati/Northern Kentucky International Airport)
Dallas, TX (Dallas/Fort Worth International Airport)
Denver, CO (Denver International Airport)
Detroit, MI (Detroit Metropolitan Wayne County Airport)
Honolulu, HI (Honolulu International Airport)
Houston, TX (George Bush Intercontinental/Houston Airport)
Houston, TX (William P. Hobby Airport)
Kansas City, MO (Kansas City International Airport)
Las Vegas, NV (McCarran International Airport)
Los Angeles, CA (Los Angeles International Airport)
Memphis, TN (Memphis International Airport)
Miami, FL (Miami International Airport)
Minneapolis, MN (Minneapolis-St. Paul International/Wold-Chamberlain 
Airport)
Newark, NJ (Newark Liberty International Airport)
New Orleans, LA (Louis Armstrong New Orleans International Airport)
New York, NY (John F. Kennedy International Airport)
New York, NY (LaGuardia Airport)
Orlando, FL (Orlando International Airport)
Philadelphia, PA (Philadelphia International Airport)
Phoenix, AZ (Phoenix Sky Harbor International Airport)
Pittsburgh, PA (Pittsburgh International Airport)
St. Louis, MO (Lambert-St. Louis International Airport)
Salt Lake City, UT (Salt Lake City International Airport)
San Diego, CA (Miramar Marine Corps Air Station)
San Diego, CA (San Diego International Airport)
San Francisco, CA (San Francisco International Airport)
Seattle, WA (Seattle-Tacoma International Airport)
Tampa, FL (Tampa International Airport)
Washington, DC (Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport)

    Section 2. Airports at which the requirements of Sec. 
91.215(b)(5)(ii) apply. [Reserved]
    Section 3. Locations at which fixed-wing Special VFR operations are 
prohibited.
    The Special VFR weather minimums of Sec. 91.157 do not apply to the 
following airports:

Atlanta, GA (Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport)
Baltimore, MD (Baltimore/Washington International Thurgood Marshall 
Airport)
Boston, MA (General Edward Lawrence Logan International Airport)
Buffalo, NY (Greater Buffalo International Airport)
Camp Springs, MD (Joint Base Andrews)
Chicago, IL (Chicago-O'Hare International Airport)
Cleveland, OH (Cleveland-Hopkins International Airport)
Columbus, OH (Port Columbus International Airport)
Covington, KY (Cincinnati/Northern Kentucky International Airport)
Dallas, TX (Dallas/Fort Worth International Airport)
Dallas, TX (Dallas Love Field Airport)
Denver, CO (Denver International Airport)
Detroit, MI (Detroit Metropolitan Wayne County Airport)
Honolulu, HI (Honolulu International Airport)
Houston, TX (George Bush Intercontinental/Houston Airport)
Indianapolis, IN (Indianapolis International Airport)
Los Angeles, CA (Los Angeles International Airport)
Louisville, KY (Louisville International Airport-Standiford Field)
Memphis, TN (Memphis International Airport)
Miami, FL (Miami International Airport)
Minneapolis, MN (Minneapolis-St. Paul International/Wold-Chamberlain 
Airport)

[[Page 833]]

Newark, NJ (Newark Liberty International Airport)
New York, NY (John F. Kennedy International Airport)
New York, NY (LaGuardia Airport)
New Orleans, LA (Louis Armstrong New Orleans International Airport)
Philadelphia, PA (Philadelphia International Airport)
Pittsburgh, PA (Pittsburgh International Airport)
Portland, OR (Portland International Airport)
San Francisco, CA (San Francisco International Airport)
Seattle, WA (Seattle-Tacoma International Airport)
St. Louis, MO (Lambert-St. Louis International Airport)
Tampa, FL (Tampa International Airport)
Washington, DC (Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport)

    Section 4. Locations at which solo student, sport, and recreational 
pilot activity is not permitted.
    Pursuant to Sec. 91.131(b)(2), solo student, sport, and 
recreational pilot operations are not permitted at any of the following 
airports.

Atlanta, GA (Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport)
Boston, MA (General Edward Lawrence Logan International Airport)
Camp Springs, MD (Joint Base Andrews)
Chicago, IL (Chicago-O'Hare International Airport)
Dallas, TX (Dallas/Fort Worth International Airport)
Los Angeles, CA (Los Angeles International Airport)
Miami, FL (Miami International Airport)
Newark, NJ (Newark Liberty International Airport)
New York, NY (John F. Kennedy International Airport)
New York, NY (LaGuardia Airport)
San Francisco, CA (San Francisco International Airport)
Washington, DC (Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport)

[Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991]

    Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting appendix D 
to part 91, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the 
Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

    Effective Date Note: By Amdt. 91-236, 59 FR 2918, Jan. 19, 1994, as 
corrected by Amdt. 91-237, 59 FR 6547, Feb. 11, 1994, appendix D to part 
91 was amended in sections 1 and 3 in the Denver, CO, entry by revising 
``Stapleton'' to read ``Denver'' effective Mar. 9, 1994. By Amdt. 91-
238, 59 FR 10958, Mar. 9, 1994, the effective date was delayed to May 
15, 1994. By Amdt. 91-241, 59 FR 24916, May 13, 1994, the effective date 
was suspended indefinitely.



   Sec. Appendix E to Part 91--Airplane Flight Recorder Specifications

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                       Installed system
                                                          \1\ minimum      Sampling interval    Resolution \4\
           Parameters                    Range           accuracy (to        (per second)          read out
                                                        recovered data)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Relative Time (From Recorded on   8 hr minimum......  0.125% per
                                                       hour.
Indicated Airspeed..............  Vso to VD (KIAS)..  5% or 1
                                                       0 kts., whichever
                                                       is greater.
                                                       Resolution 2 kts.
                                                       below 175 KIAS.
Altitude........................  -1,000 ft. to max   100 to 7
                                                       00 ft. (see Table
                                                       1, TSO C51-a).
Magnetic Heading................  360[deg]..........  5[deg].
Vertical Acceleration...........  -3g to + 6g.......  0.2g in          where peaks, ref.
                                                       addition to 0   recorded).
                                                       .3g maximum datum.
Longitudinal Acceleration.......  1.0g.            eq>1.5% max.
                                                       range excluding
                                                       datum error of
                                                       5%.
Pitch Attitude..................  100% of usable....  2[deg].
Roll Attitude...................  60[deg] or       eq>2[deg].
                                   100% of usable
                                   range, whichever
                                   is greater.
Stabilizer Trim Position, or....  Full Range........  3% unless
                                                       higher uniquely
                                                       required.
Pitch Control Position \5\......

[[Page 834]]

 
Engine Power, Each Engine:        Full Range........  3% unless
                                                       higher uniquely
                                                       required.
    Fan or N \1\ Speed or EPR or  Maximum Range.....  5%.
     for Aircraft Certification
     OR.
    Prop. speed and Torque        ..................  ..................  1 (prop Speed)....  1%\3\
     (Sample Once/Sec as Close                                            1 (torque)........  1% \3\
     together as Practicable).
Altitude Rate \2\ (need depends   8,000 fpm.       eq>10%.                                 12,000
                                                       Resolution 250
                                                       fpm below 12,000
                                                       ft. indicated.
Angle of Attack \2\ (need         -20[deg] to         2[deg].
                                   of usable range.
Radio Transmitter Keying          On/Off............  ..................  1.................
 (Discrete).
TE Flaps (Discrete or Analog)...  Each discrete       ..................  1.................
                                   position (U, D, T/
                                   O, AAP) OR.
LE Flaps (Discrete or Analog)...  Analog 0-100%       3%.
                                  Each discrete       ..................  1.................
                                   position (U, D, T/
                                   O, AAP) OR.
Thrust Reverser, Each Engine      Analog 0-100%       3[deg].
                                  Stowed or full
                                   reverse.
Spoiler/Speedbrake (Discrete)...  Stowed or out.....  ..................  1.................
Autopilot Engaged (Discrete)....  Engaged or          ..................  1.................
                                   Disengaged.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
\1\ When data sources are aircraft instruments (except altimeters) of acceptable quality to fly the aircraft the
  recording system excluding these sensors (but including all other characteristics of the recording system)
  shall contribute no more than half of the values in this column.
\2\ If data from the altitude encoding altimeter (100 ft. resolution) is used, then either one of these
  parameters should also be recorded. If however, altitude is recorded at a minimum resolution of 25 feet, then
  these two parameters can be omitted.
\3\ Per cent of full range.
\4\ This column applies to aircraft manufactured after October 11, 1991.
\5\ For Pitch Control Position only, for all aircraft manufactured on or after April 6, 2012, the sampling
  interval (per second) is 8. Each input must be recorded at this rate. Alternately sampling inputs
  (interleaving) to meet this sampling interval is prohibited.


[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34327, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-300, 
73 FR 12565, Mar. 7, 2008; 73 FR 15280, Mar. 21, 2008; Amdt. 91-313, 75 
FR 17046, Apr. 5, 2010; Amdt. 91-329, 78 FR 39971, July 3, 2013]



  Sec. Appendix F to Part 91--Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                       Installed system
                                                          \1\ minimum      Sampling interval   Resolution 3 read
           Parameters                    Range           accuracy (to        (per second)             out
                                                        recovered data)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Relative Time (From Recorded on   4 hr minimum......  0.125% per
                                                       hour.
Indicated Airspeed..............  VM in to VD (KIAS)  5% or 1
                                   with installed      0 kts., whichever
                                   pilot-static        is greater.
                                   system).
Altitude........................  -1,000 ft. to       100 to 7
                                                       00 ft. (see Table
                                                       1, TSO C51-a).
Magnetic Heading................  360[deg]..........  5[deg].
Vertical Acceleration...........  -3g to + 6g.......  0.2g in          where peaks, ref.
                                                       addition to 0   recorded).
                                                       .3g maximum datum.
Longitudinal Acceleration.......  1.0g.            eq>1.5% max.
                                                       range excluding
                                                       datum error of
                                                       5%.

[[Page 835]]

 
Pitch Attitude..................  100% of usable      2[deg].
Roll Attitude...................  60 or 100% of    eq>2[deg].
                                   usable range,
                                   whichever is
                                   greater.
Altitude Rate...................  8,000 fpm.       eq>10% Resolution                       12,000.
                                                       250 fpm below
                                                       12,000 ft.
                                                       indicated.
 
    Engine Power, Each Engine
 
Main Rotor Speed................  Maximum Range.....  5%.
Free or Power Turbine...........  Maximum Range.....  5%.
Engine Torque...................  Maximum Range.....  5%.
 
    Flight Control Hydraulic
            Pressure
 
Primary (Discrete)..............  High/Low..........  ..................  1.................
Secondary--if applicable          High/Low..........  ..................  1.................
 (Discrete).
Radio Transmitter Keying          On/Off............  ..................  1.................
 (Discrete).
Autopilot Engaged (Discrete)....  Engaged or          ..................  1.................
                                   Disengaged.
SAS Status-Engaged (Discrete)...  Engaged or          ..................  1.................
                                   Disengaged.
SAS Fault Status (Discrete).....  Fault/OK..........  ..................  1.................
 
         Flight Controls
 
Collective \4\..................  Full range........  3%.
Pedal Position \4\..............  Full range........  3%.
Lat. Cyclic \4\.................  Full range........  3%.
Long. Cyclic \4\................  Full range........  3%.
Controllable Stabilator Position  Full range........  3%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
\1\ When data sources are aircraft instruments (except altimeters) of acceptable quality to fly the aircraft the
  recording system excluding these sensors (but including all other characteristics of the recording system)
  shall contribute no more than half of the values in this column.
\2\ Per cent of full range.
\3\ This column applies to aircraft manufactured after October 11, 1991.
\4\ For all aircraft manufactured on or after April 6, 2012, the sampling interval per second is 4.


[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34328, Aug. 18, 1989; 54 FR 41211, Oct. 5, 1989; 
54 FR 53036, Dec. 26, 1989; Amdt. 91-300, 73 FR 12565, Mar. 7, 2008; 73 
FR 15280, Mar. 21, 2008; Amdt. 91-313, 75 FR 17046, Apr. 5, 2010]



 Sec. Appendix G to Part 91--Operations in Reduced Vertical Separation 
                         Minimum (RVSM) Airspace

                         Section 1. Definitions

    Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) Airspace. Within RVSM 
airspace, air traffic control (ATC) separates aircraft by a minimum of 
1,000 feet vertically between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive. Air-traffic 
control notifies operators of RVSM airspace by providing route planning 
information.
    RVSM Group Aircraft. Aircraft within a group of aircraft, approved 
as a group by the Administrator, in which each of the aircraft satisfy 
each of the following:
    (a) The aircraft have been manufactured to the same design, and have 
been approved under the same type certificate, amended type certificate, 
or supplemental type certificate.
    (b) The static system of each aircraft is installed in a manner and 
position that is the same as those of the other aircraft in the group. 
The same static source error correction is incorporated in each aircraft 
of the group.
    (c) The avionics units installed in each aircraft to meet the 
minimum RVSM equipment requirements of this appendix are:
    (1) Manufactured to the same manufacturer specification and have the 
same part number; or
    (2) Of a different manufacturer or part number, if the applicant 
demonstrates that the equipment provides equivalent system performance.
    RVSM Nongroup Aircraft. An aircraft that is approved for RVSM 
operations as an individual aircraft.

[[Page 836]]

    RVSM Flight envelope. An RVSM flight envelope includes the range of 
Mach number, weight divided by atmospheric pressure ratio, and altitudes 
over which an aircraft is approved to be operated in cruising flight 
within RVSM airspace. RVSM flight envelopes are defined as follows:
    (a) The full RVSM flight envelope is bounded as follows:
    (1) The altitude flight envelope extends from FL 290 upward to the 
lowest altitude of the following:
    (i) FL 410 (the RVSM altitude limit);
    (ii) The maximum certificated altitude for the aircraft; or
    (iii) The altitude limited by cruise thrust, buffet, or other flight 
limitations.
    (2) The airspeed flight envelope extends:
    (i) From the airspeed of the slats/flaps-up maximum endurance 
(holding) airspeed, or the maneuvering airspeed, whichever is lower;
    (ii) To the maximum operating airspeed (Vmo/
Mmo), or airspeed limited by cruise thrust buffet, or other 
flight limitations, whichever is lower.
    (3) All permissible gross weights within the flight envelopes 
defined in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition.
    (b) The basic RVSM flight envelope is the same as the full RVSM 
flight envelope except that the airspeed flight envelope extends:
    (1) From the airspeed of the slats/flaps-up maximum endurance 
(holding) airspeed, or the maneuver airspeed, whichever is lower;
    (2) To the upper Mach/airspeed boundary defined for the full RVSM 
flight envelope, or a specified lower value not less than the long-range 
cruise Mach number plus .04 Mach, unless further limited by available 
cruise thrust, buffet, or other flight limitations.

                      Section 2. Aircraft Approval

    (a) Except as specified in Section 9 of this appendix, an operator 
may be authorized to conduct RVSM operations if the Administrator finds 
that its aircraft comply with this section.
    (b) The applicant for authorization shall submit the appropriate 
data package for aircraft approval. The package must consist of at least 
the following:
    (1) An identification of the RVSM aircraft group or the nongroup 
aircraft;
    (2) A definition of the RVSM flight envelopes applicable to the 
subject aircraft;
    (3) Documentation that establishes compliance with the applicable 
RVSM aircraft requirements of this section; and
    (4) The conformity tests used to ensure that aircraft approved with 
the data package meet the RVSM aircraft requirements.
    (c) Altitude-keeping equipment: All aircraft. To approve an aircraft 
group or a nongroup aircraft, the Administrator must find that the 
aircraft meets the following requirements:
    (1) The aircraft must be equipped with two operational independent 
altitude measurement systems.
    (2) The aircraft must be equipped with at least one automatic 
altitude control system that controls the aircraft altitude--
    (i) Within a tolerance band of 65 feet about 
an acquired altitude when the aircraft is operated in straight and level 
flight under nonturbulent, nongust conditions; or
    (ii) Within a tolerance band of 130 feet under 
nonturbulent, nongust conditions for aircraft for which application for 
type certification occurred on or before April 9, 1997 that are equipped 
with an automatic altitude control system with flight management/
performance system inputs.
    (3) The aircraft must be equipped with an altitude alert system that 
signals an alert when the altitude displayed to the flight crew deviates 
from the selected altitude by more than:
    (i) 300 feet for aircraft for which 
application for type certification was made on or before April 9, 1997; 
or
    (ii) 200 feet for aircraft for which 
application for type certification is made after April 9, 1997.
    (d) Altimetry system error containment: Group aircraft for which 
application for type certification was made on or before April 9, 1997. 
To approve group aircraft for which application for type certification 
was made on or before April 9, 1997, the Administrator must find that 
the altimetry system error (ASE) is contained as follows:
    (1) At the point in the basic RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE 
reaches its largest absolute value, the absolute value may not exceed 80 
feet.
    (2) At the point in the basic RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE 
plus three standard deviations reaches its largest absolute value, the 
absolute value may not exceed 200 feet.
    (3) At the point in the full RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE 
reaches its largest absolute value, the absolute value may not exceed 
120 feet.
    (4) At the point in the full RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE 
plus three standard deviations reaches its largest absolute value, the 
absolute value may not exceed 245 feet.
    (5) Necessary operating restrictions. If the applicant demonstrates 
that its aircraft otherwise comply with the ASE containment 
requirements, the Administrator may establish an operating restriction 
on that applicant's aircraft to restrict the aircraft from operating in 
areas of the basic RVSM flight envelope where the absolute value of mean 
ASE exceeds 80 feet, and/or the absolute value of mean ASE plus three 
standard deviations exceeds 200 feet; or from operating in areas of the 
full RVSM flight envelope where

[[Page 837]]

the absolute value of the mean ASE exceeds 120 feet and/or the absolute 
value of the mean ASE plus three standard deviations exceeds 245 feet.
    (e) Altimetry system error containment: Group aircraft for which 
application for type certification is made after April 9, 1997. To 
approve group aircraft for which application for type certification is 
made after April 9, 1997, the Administrator must find that the altimetry 
system error (ASE) is contained as follows:
    (1) At the point in the full RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE 
reaches its largest absolute value, the absolute value may not exceed 80 
feet.
    (2) At the point in the full RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE 
plus three standard deviations reaches its largest absolute value, the 
absolute value may not exceed 200 feet.
    (f) Altimetry system error containment: Nongroup aircraft. To 
approve a nongroup aircraft, the Administrator must find that the 
altimetry system error (ASE) is contained as follows:
    (1) For each condition in the basic RVSM flight envelope, the 
largest combined absolute value for residual static source error plus 
the avionics error may not exceed 160 feet.
    (2) For each condition in the full RVSM flight envelope, the largest 
combined absolute value for residual static source error plus the 
avionics error may not exceed 200 feet.
    (g) Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) 
Compatibility With RVSM Operations: All aircraft. After March 31, 2002, 
unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, if you operate an 
aircraft that is equipped with TCAS II in RVSM airspace, it must be a 
TCAS II that meets TSO C-119b (Version 7.0), or a later version.
    (h) If the Administrator finds that the applicant's aircraft comply 
with this section, the Administrator notifies the applicant in writing.

                    Section 3. Operator Authorization

    (a) Except as specified in Section 9 of this appendix, authority for 
an operator to conduct flight in airspace where RVSM is applied is 
issued in operations specifications, a Letter of Authorization, or 
management specifications issued under subpart K of this part, as 
appropriate. To issue an RVSM authorization under this section, the 
Administrator must find that the operator's aircraft have been approved 
in accordance with Section 2 of this appendix and the operator complies 
with this section.
    (b) Except as specified in Section 9 of this appendix, an applicant 
seeking authorization to operate within RVSM airspace must apply in a 
form and manner prescribed by the Administrator. The application must 
include the following:
    (1) [Reserved]
    (2) For an applicant who operates under part 121 or 135 of this 
chapter or under subpart K of this part, initial and recurring pilot 
training requirements.
    (3) Policies and procedures: An applicant who operates under part 
121 or 135 of this chapter or under subpart K of this part must submit 
RVSM policies and procedures that will enable it to conduct RVSM 
operations safely.
    (c) In a manner prescribed by the Administrator, an operator seeking 
authorization under this section must provide evidence that:
    (1) It is capable to operate and maintain each aircraft or aircraft 
group for which it applies for approval to operate in RVSM airspace; and
    (2) Each pilot has knowledge of RVSM requirements, policies, and 
procedures sufficient for the conduct of operations in RVSM airspace.

                       Section 4. RVSM Operations

    (a) Each person requesting a clearance to operate within RVSM 
airspace shall correctly annotate the flight plan filed with air traffic 
control with the status of the operator and aircraft with regard to RVSM 
approval. Each operator shall verify RVSM applicability for the flight 
planned route through the appropriate flight planning information 
sources.
    (b) No person may show, on the flight plan filed with air traffic 
control, an operator or aircraft as approved for RVSM operations, or 
operate on a route or in an area where RVSM approval is required, 
unless:
    (1) The operator is authorized by the Administrator to perform such 
operations in accordance with Section 3 or Section 9 of this appendix, 
as applicable.
    (2) The aircraft--
    (i) Has been approved and complies with Section 2 this appendix; or
    (ii) Complies with Section 9 of this appendix.
    (3) Each pilot has knowledge of RVSM requirements, policies, and 
procedures sufficient for the conduct of operations in RVSM airspace.

                 Section 5. Deviation Authority Approval

    The Administrator may authorize an aircraft operator to deviate from 
the requirements of Sec. Sec. 91.180 or 91.706 for a specific flight in 
RVSM airspace if--
    (a) The operator submits a request in a time and manner acceptable 
to the Administrator; and
    (b) At the time of filing the flight plan for that flight, ATC 
determines that the aircraft may be provided appropriate separation and 
that the flight will not interfere with, or impose a burden on, RVSM 
operations.

[[Page 838]]

              Section 6. Reporting Altitude-Keeping Errors

    Each operator shall report to the Administrator each event in which 
the operator's aircraft has exhibited the following altitude-keeping 
performance:
    (a) Total vertical error of 300 feet or more;
    (b) Altimetry system error of 245 feet or more; or
    (c) Assigned altitude deviation of 300 feet or more.

              Section 7. Removal or Amendment of Authority

    The Administrator may prohibit or restrict an operator from 
conducting operations in RVSM airspace, if the Administrator determines 
that the operator is not complying, or is unable to comply, with this 
appendix or subpart H of this part. Examples of reasons for amendment, 
revocation, or restriction include, but are not limited to, an 
operator's:
    (a) Committing one or more altitude-keeping errors in RVSM airspace;
    (b) Failing to make an effective and timely response to identify and 
correct an altitude-keeping error; or
    (c) Failing to report an altitude-keeping error.

                     Section 8. Airspace Designation

    RVSM may be applied in all ICAO Flight Information Regions (FIRs).

  Section 9. Aircraft Equipped With Automatic Dependent Surveillance--
                              Broadcast Out

    An operator is authorized to conduct flight in airspace in which 
RVSM is applied provided:
    (a) The aircraft is equipped with the following:
    (1) Two operational independent altitude measurement systems.
    (2) At least one automatic altitude control system that controls the 
aircraft altitude--
    (i) Within a tolerance band of 65 feet about 
an acquired altitude when the aircraft is operated in straight and level 
flight under nonturbulent, nongust conditions; or
    (ii) Within a tolerance band of 130 feet under 
nonturbulent, nongust conditions for aircraft for which application for 
type certification occurred on or before April 9, 1997, that are 
equipped with an automatic altitude control system with flight 
management/performance system inputs.
    (3) An altitude alert system that signals an alert when the altitude 
displayed to the flightcrew deviates from the selected altitude by more 
than--
    (i) 300 feet for aircraft for which 
application for type certification was made on or before April 9, 1997; 
or
    (ii) 200 feet for aircraft for which 
application for type certification is made after April 9, 1997.
    (4) A TCAS II that meets TSO C-119b (Version 7.0), or a later 
version, if equipped with TCAS II, unless otherwise authorized by the 
Administrator.
    (5) Unless authorized by ATC or the foreign country where the 
aircraft is operated, an ADS-B Out system that meets the equipment 
performance requirements of Sec. 91.227 of this part. The aircraft must 
have its height-keeping performance monitored in a form and manner 
acceptable to the Administrator.
    (b) The altimetry system error (ASE) of the aircraft does not exceed 
200 feet when operating in RVSM airspace.

[Doc. No. 28870, 62 FR 17487, Apr. 9, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 91-261, 
65 FR 5942, Feb. 7, 2000; Amdt. 91-271, 66 FR 63895, Dec. 10, 2001; 
Amdt. 91-274, 68 FR 54584, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 91-276, 68 FR 70133, 
Dec. 17, 2003; Docket FAA-2015-1746, Amdt. 91-342, 81 FR 47017, July 20, 
2016; Docket FAA-2016-9154, Amdt. 91-348, 82 FR 39664, Aug. 22, 2017; 
FAA-2017-0782, Amdt. No. 91-354, 83 FR 65492, Dec. 21, 2018]



PART 93_SPECIAL AIR TRAFFIC RULES--Table of Contents



Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 60 [Note]

                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
93.1 Applicability.

Subparts B-C [Reserved]

               Subpart D_Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area

93.51 Applicability.
93.53 Description of area.
93.55 Subdivision of Terminal Area.
93.57 General rules: All segments.
93.59 General rules: International segment.
93.61 General rules: Lake Hood segment.
93.63 General rules: Merrill segment.
93.65 General rules: Elmendorf segment.
93.67 General rules: Bryant segment.
93.68 General rules: Seward Highway segment.
93.69 Special requirements, Lake Campbell and Sixmile Lake Airports.

Subpart E_Flight Restrictions in the Vicinity of Niagara Falls, New York

93.71 General operating procedures.

              Subpart F_Valparaiso, Florida, Terminal Area

93.80 Applicability.
93.81 Applicability and description of area.
93.83 Aircraft operations.

[[Page 839]]

     Subpart G_Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of Los Angeles 
                          International Airport

93.91 Applicability.
93.93 Description of area.
93.95 General operating procedures.
93.97 Operations in the SFRA.

  Subpart H_Mandatory Use of the New York North Shore Helicopter Route

93.101 Applicability
93.103 Helicopter operations.

Subpart I [Reserved]

          Subpart J_Lorain County Regional Airport Traffic Rule

93.117 Applicability.
93.119 Aircraft operations.

                 Subpart K_High Density Traffic Airports

93.121 Applicability.
93.123 High density traffic airports.
93.125 Arrival or departure reservation.
93.129 Additional operations.
93.130 Suspension of allocations.
93.133 Exceptions.

Subpart L [Reserved]

         Subpart M_Ketchikan International Airport Traffic Rule

93.151 Applicability.
93.152 Description of area.
93.153 Communications.
93.155 Aircraft operations.

      Subpart N_Pearson Field (Vancouver, WA) Airport Traffic Rule

93.161 Applicability.
93.162 Description of area.
93.163 Aircraft operations.

     Subpart O_Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of Luke AFB, AZ

93.175 Applicability.
93.176 Description of area.
93.177 Operations in the Special Air Traffic Rule Area.

Subparts P-R [Reserved]

Subpart S_Allocation of Commuter and Air Carrier IFR Operations at High 
                        Density Traffic Airports

93.211 Applicability.
93.213 Definitions and general provisions.
93.215 Initial allocation of slots.
93.217 Allocation of slots for international operations and applicable 
          limitations.
93.218 Slots for transborder service to and from Canada.
93.219 Allocation of slots for essential air service operations and 
          applicable limitations.
93.221 Transfer of slots.
93.223 Slot withdrawal.
93.224 Return of slots.
93.225 Lottery of available slots.
93.226 Allocation of slots in low-demand periods.
93.227 Slot use and loss.

    Subpart T_Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport Traffic Rules

93.251 Applicability.
93.253 Nonstop operations.

Subpart U_Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of Grand Canyon National 
                                Park, AZ

93.301 Applicability.
93.303 Definitions.
93.305 Flight-free zones and flight corridors.
93.307 Minimum flight altitudes.
93.309 General operating procedures.
93.311 Minimum terrain clearance.
93.313 Communications.
93.315 Requirements for commercial Special Flight Rules Area operations.
93.316 [Reserved]
93.317 Commercial Special Flight Rules Area operation curfew.
93.319 Commercial air tour limitations.
93.321 Transfer and termination of allocations.
93.323 [Reserved]
93.325 Quarterly reporting.

Appendix to Subpart U of Part 93--Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity 
          of the Grand Canyon National Park, AZ
Appendix A to Subpart U of Part 93--GCNP Quiet Aircraft Technology 
          Designation

  Subpart V_Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area

93.331 Purpose and applicability of this subpart.
93.333 Failure to comply with this subpart.
93.335 Definitions.
93.337 Requirements for operating in the DC SFRA.
93.339 Requirements for operating in the DC SFRA, including the DC FRZ.
93.341 Aircraft operations in the DC FRZ.
93.343 Requirements for aircraft operations to or from College Park 
          Airport, Potomac Airfield, or Washington Executive/Hyde Field 
          Airport.

[[Page 840]]

93.345 VFR outbound procedures for fringe airports.

    Subpart W_New York Class B Airspace Hudson River and East River 
                   Exclusion Special Flight Rules Area

93.350 Definitions.
93.351 General requirements for operating in the East River and/or 
          Hudson River Exclusions.
93.352 Hudson River Exclusion specific operating procedures.
93.353 East River Exclusion specific operating procedures.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40109, 40113, 
44502, 44514, 44701, 44715, 44719, 46301.



             Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 60

    Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 60, see part 91 of this 
chapter.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 93.1  Applicability.

    This part prescribes special air traffic rules for operating 
aircraft in certain areas described in this part, unless otherwise 
authorized by air traffic control.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]

Subparts B-C [Reserved]



               Subpart D_Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area

    Source: Docket No. 29029, 64 FR 14976, Mar. 29, 1999, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 93.51  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft 
operating in the Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]



Sec. 93.53  Description of area.

    The Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area is designated as that airspace 
extending upward from the surface to the upper limit of each of the 
segments described in Sec. 93.55. It is bounded by a line beginning at 
Point MacKenzie, extending westerly along the bank of Knik Arm to a 
point intersecting the 350[deg] bearing from the Anchorage International 
ATCT; thence north to intercept the 5.2-mile arc centered on the 
geographical center of Anchorage, Alaska, ATCT; thence counterclockwise 
along that arc to its intersection with a line bearing 180[deg] from the 
intersection of the new Seward Highway and International Airport Road; 
thence due north to O'Malley Road; thence east along O'Malley Road to 
its intersection with Lake Otis Parkway; thence northerly along Lake 
Otis Parkway to its intersection with Abbott Road; thence east along 
Abbott Road to its intersection with Abbott Loop Road; thence north to 
its intersection with Tudor Road; thence easterly along Tudor Road to 
its intersection with Muldoon Road; thence northerly along Muldoon Road 
to the intersection of the Glenn Highway; thence north and east along 
the Glenn Highway to Ski Bowl Road; thence southeast along the Ski Bowl 
Road to a point one-half mile south of the Glenn Highway; thence north 
and east one-half mile south of and parallel to the Glenn Highway to its 
intersection with a line one-half mile east of and parallel to the 
Bryant Airport Runway 16/34 extended centerline; thence northeast along 
a line one-half mile east of and parallel to Bryant Airport Runway 16/34 
extended centerline to lat. 61[deg]17[min]13[sec] N., long. 
149[deg]37[min]35[sec] W.; thence west along lat. 61[deg]17[min]13[sec] 
N., to long. 149[deg]43[min]08[sec] W.; thence north along long. 
149[deg]43[min]08[sec] W., to lat. 61[deg]17[min]30[sec] N.; thence to 
lat. 61[deg]17[min]58[sec] N., long 149[deg]44[min]08[sec] W.; thence to 
lat. 61[deg]19[min]10[sec] N., long. 149[deg]46[min]44[sec] W.; thence 
north along long. 149[deg]46[min]44[sec] W., to intercept the 4.7-mile 
radius arc centered on Elmendorf Air Force Base (AFB), Alaska; thence 
counterclockwise along the 4.7-mile radius arc to its intersection with 
the west bank of Knik Arm; thence southerly along the west bank of Knik 
Arm to the point of beginning.

[Doc. No. 29029, 64 FR 14976, Mar. 29, 1999; Amdt. 93-77, 64 FR 17439, 
Apr. 9, 1999]



Sec. 93.55  Subdivision of Terminal Area.

    The Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area is subdivided as follows:
    (a) International segment. That area from the surface to and 
including 4,100

[[Page 841]]

feet MSL, within a 5.2-mile radius of the Anchorage International ATCT; 
excluding that airspace east of the 350[deg] bearing from the Anchorage 
International ATCT and north of the 090[deg] bearing from the Anchorage 
International ATCT and east of a line bearing 180[deg] and 360[deg] from 
the intersection of the new Seward Highway and International Airport 
Road and the airspace extending upward from the surface to but not 
including 600 feet MSL, south of lat. 61[deg]08[min]28[sec] N.
    (b) Merrill segment. That area from the surface to and including 
2,500 feet MSL, within a line beginning at Point Noname; thence direct 
to the mouth of Ship Creek; thence direct to the intersection of the 
Glenn Highway and Muldoon Road; thence south along Muldoon Road to Tudor 
Road; thence west along Tudor Road to the new Seward Highway; thence 
direct to West Anchorage High School; thence direct to Point MacKenzie; 
thence via the north bank of Knik Arm to the point of beginning.
    (c) Lake Hood segment. That area from the surface to and including 
2,500 feet MSL, within a line beginning at Point MacKenzie; thence 
direct to West Anchorage High School; thence direct to the intersection 
of Tudor Road and the new Seward Highway; thence south along the new 
Seward Highway to the 090[deg] bearing from the Anchorage International 
ATCT; thence west direct to the Anchorage International ATCT; thence 
north along the 350[deg] bearing from the Anchorage International ATCT 
to the north bank of Knik arm; thence via the north bank of Knik Arm to 
the point of beginning.
    (d) Elmendorf segment. That area from the surface to and including 
3,000 feet MSL, within a line beginning at Point Noname; thence via the 
north bank of Knik Arm to the intersection of the 4.7-mile radius of 
Elmendorf AFB; thence clockwise along the 4.7-mile radius of Elmendorf 
AFB to long. 149[deg]46[min]44[sec] W.; thence south along long. 
149[deg]46[min]44[sec] W. to lat. 61[deg]19[min]10[sec] N.; thence to 
lat. 61[deg]17[min]58[sec] N., long. 149[deg]44[min]08[sec] W.; thence 
to lat. 61[deg]17[min]30[sec] N., long. 149[deg]43[min]08[sec] W.; 
thence south along long. 149[deg]43[min]08[sec] W. to the Glenn Highway; 
thence south and west along the Glenn Highway to Muldoon Road; thence 
direct to the mouth of Ship Creek; thence direct to the point of 
beginning.
    (e) Bryant segment. That area from the surface to and including 
2,000 feet MSL, within a line beginning at lat. 61[deg]17[min]13[sec] 
N., long. 149[deg]37[min]35[sec] W.; thence west along lat. 
61[deg]17[min]13[sec] N., to long. 149[deg]43[min]08[sec] W.; thence 
south along long. 149[deg]43[min]08[sec] W., to the Glenn Highway; 
thence north and east along the Glenn Highway to Ski Bowl Road; thence 
southeast along the Ski Bowl Road to a point one-half mile south of the 
Glenn Highway; thence north and east one-half mile south of and parallel 
to the Glenn Highway to its intersection with a line one-half mile east 
of and parallel to the Bryant Airport Runway 16/34 extended centerline; 
thence northeast along a line one-half mile east of and parallel to 
Bryant Airport runway 16/34 extended centerline to the point of 
beginning.
    (f) Seward Highway segment. That area from the surface to and 
including 4,100 feet MSL, within a line beginning at the intersection of 
a line bearing 180[deg] from the intersection of the new Seward Highway 
and International Airport Road, and O'Malley Road; thence east along 
O'Malley Road to its intersection with Lake Otis Park Way, lat. 
61[deg]07[min]23[sec] N., long 149[deg]50[min]03[sec] W.; thence 
northerly along Lake Otis Park Way to its intersection with Abbott Road, 
lat. 61[deg]08[min]14[sec] N., long. 149[deg]50[min]03[sec] W.; thence 
east along Abbott Road to its intersection with Abbott Loop Road, lat. 
61[deg]08[min]14[sec] N., long. 149[deg]48[min]16[sec] W.; thence due 
north to intersect with Tudor Road, lat. 61[deg]10[min]51[sec] N., long. 
149[deg]48[min]16[sec] W.; thence west along Tudor Road to its 
intersection with the new Seward Highway, lat. 61[deg]10[min]51[sec] N., 
long. 149[deg]51[min]38[sec] W.; thence south along the new Seward 
Highway to its intersection with a line bearing 180[deg] and 360[deg] 
from the intersection of the new Seward Highway and International 
Airport Road; thence south to the point of beginning.

[Doc. No. 29029, 64 FR 14976, Mar. 29, 1999; Amdt. 93-77, 64 FR 17439, 
Apr. 9, 1999]



Sec. 93.57  General rules: All segments.

    (a) Each person operating an aircraft to, from, or on an airport 
within the Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area shall operate that aircraft 
according to

[[Page 842]]

the rules set forth in this section and Sec. Sec. 93.59, 93.61, 93.63, 
93.65, 93.67, or 93.68 as applicable, unless otherwise authorized or 
required by ATC.
    (b) Each person operating an airplane within the Anchorage, Alaska 
Terminal Area shall conform to the flow of traffic depicted on the 
appropriate aeronautical charts.
    (c) Each person operating a helicopter shall operate it in a manner 
so as to avoid the flow of airplanes.
    (d) Except as provided in Sec. 93.65 (d) and (e), and Sec. 
93.67(b), each person operating an aircraft in the Anchorage, Alaska, 
Terminal Area shall operate that aircraft only within the designated 
segment containing the arrival or departure airport.
    (e) Except as provided in Sec. Sec. 93.63(d) and 93.67(b), each 
person operating an aircraft in the Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area 
shall maintain two-way radio communications with the ATCT serving the 
segment containing the arrival or departure airport.



Sec. 93.59  General rules: International segment.

    (a) No person may operate an aircraft at an altitude between 1,200 
feet MSL and 2,000 feet MSL in that portion of this segment lying north 
of the midchannel of Knik Arm.
    (b) Each person operating an airplane at a speed of more than 105 
knots within this segment (except that part described in paragraph (a) 
of this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 
1,600 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further 
descent.
    (c) Each person operating an airplane at a speed of 105 knots or 
less within this segment (except that part described in paragraph (a) of 
this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 900 
feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.



Sec. 93.61  General rules: Lake Hood segment.

    (a) No person may operate an aircraft at an altitude between 1,200 
feet MSL and 2,000 feet MSL in that portion of this segment lying north 
of the midchannel of Knik Arm.
    (b) Each person operating an airplane within this segment (except 
that part described in paragraph (a) of this section) shall operate that 
airplane at an altitude of at least 600 feet MSL until maneuvering for a 
safe landing requires further descent.



Sec. 93.63  General rules: Merrill segment.

    (a) No person may operate an aircraft at an altitude between 600 
feet MSL and 2,000 feet MSL in that portion of this segment lying north 
of the midchannel of Knik Arm.
    (b) Each person operating an airplane at a speed of more than 105 
knots within this segment (except for that part described in paragraph 
(a) of this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at 
least 1,200 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires 
further descent.
    (c) Each person operating an airplane at a speed of 105 knots or 
less within this segment (except for that part described in paragraph 
(a) of this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at 
least 900 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further 
descent.
    (d) Whenever the Merrill ATCT is not operating, each person 
operating an aircraft either in that portion of the Merrill segment 
north of midchannel of Knik Arm, or in the Seward Highway segment at or 
below 1200 feet MSL, shall contact Anchorage Approach Control for wake 
turbulence and other advisories. Aircraft operating within the remainder 
of the segment should self-announce intentions on the Merrill Field 
CTAF.



Sec. 93.65  General rules: Elmendorf segment.

    (a) Each person operating a turbine-powered aircraft within this 
segment shall operate that aircraft at an altitude of at least 1,700 
feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.
    (b) Each person operating an airplane (other than turbine-powered 
aircraft) at a speed of more than 105 knots within this segment shall 
operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,200 feet MSL until 
maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.

[[Page 843]]

    (c) Each person operating an airplane (other than turbine-powered 
aircraft) at a speed of 105 knots or less within the segment shall 
operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 800 feet MSL until 
maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.
    (d) A person landing or departing from Elmendorf AFB, may operate 
that aircraft at an altitude between 1,500 feet MSL and 1,700 feet MSL 
within that portion of the International and Lake Hood segments lying 
north of the midchannel of Knik Arm.
    (e) A person landing or departing from Elmendorf AFB, may operate 
that aircraft at an altitude between 900 feet MSL and 1,700 feet MSL 
within that portion of the Merrill segment lying north of the midchannel 
of Knik Arm.
    (f) A person operating in VFR conditions, at or below 600 feet MSL, 
north of a line beginning at the intersection of Farrell Road and the 
long. 149[deg]43[min]08[sec] W.; thence west along Farrell Road to the 
east end of Sixmile Lake; thence west along a line bearing on the middle 
of Lake Lorraine to the northwest bank of Knik Arm; is not required to 
establish two-way radio communications with ATC.

[Doc. No. 29029, 64 FR 14977, Mar. 29, 1999; Amdt. 93-77, 64 FR 17439, 
Apr. 9, 1999]



Sec. 93.67  General rules: Bryant segment.

    (a) Each person operating an airplane to or from the Bryant Airport 
shall conform to the flow of traffic shown on the appropriate 
aeronautical charts, and while in the traffic pattern, shall operate 
that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet MSL until 
maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.
    (b) Each person operating an aircraft within the Bryant segment 
should self-announce intentions on the Bryant Airport CTAF.



Sec. 93.68  General rules: Seward Highway segment.

    (a) Each person operating an airplane in the Seward Highway segment 
shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet MSL 
unless maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.
    (b) Each person operating an aircraft at or below 1,200 feet MSL 
that will transition to or from the Lake Hood or Merrill segment shall 
contact the appropriate ATCT prior to entering the Seward Highway 
segment. All other persons operating an airplane at or below 1,200 feet 
MSL in this segment shall contact Anchorage Approach Control.
    (c) At all times, each person operating an aircraft above 1,200 MSL 
shall contact Anchorage Approach Control prior to entering the Seward 
Highway segment.



Sec. 93.69  Special requirements, Lake Campbell and Sixmile Lake Airports.

    Each person operating an aircraft to or from Lake Campbell or 
Sixmile Lake Airport shall conform to the flow of traffic for the Lake 
operations that are depicted on the appropriate aeronautical charts.



Subpart E_Flight Restrictions in the Vicinity of Niagara Falls, New York



Sec. 93.71  General operating procedures.

    (a) Flight restrictions are in effect below 3,500 feet MSL in the 
airspace above Niagara Falls, New York, west of a line from latitude 
43[deg]06[min]33[sec] N., longitude 79[deg]03[min]30[sec] W. (the 
Whirlpool Rapids Bridge) to latitude 43[deg]04[min]47[sec] N., longitude 
79[deg]02[min]44[sec] W. (the Niagara River Inlet) to latitude 
43[deg]04[min]29[sec] N., longitude 79[deg]03[min]30[sec] W. (the 
International Control Dam) to the United States/Canadian Border and 
thence along the border to the point of origin.
    (b) No flight is authorized below 3,500 feet MSL in the area 
described in paragraph (a) of this section, except for aircraft 
operations conducted directly to or from an airport/heliport within the 
area, aircraft operating on an ATC-approved IFR flight plan, aircraft 
operating the Scenic Falls Route pursuant to approval of Transport 
Canada, aircraft carrying law enforcement officials, or aircraft 
carrying properly accredited news representatives for which a flight 
plan has been filed with Buffalo NY (BUF) Automated Flight Service 
Station (AFSS).
    (c) Check with Transport Canada for flight restrictions in Canadian 
airspace. Commercial air tour operations

[[Page 844]]

approved by Transport Canada will be conducting a north/south orbit of 
the Niagara Falls area below 3,500 feet MSL over the Niagara River.
    (d) The minimum altitude for VFR flight over the Scenic Falls area 
is 3,500 feet MSL.
    (e) Comply with the following procedures when conducting flight over 
the area described in paragraph (a) of this section:
    (1) Fly a clockwise pattern;
    (2) Do not proceed north of the Rainbow Bridge;
    (3) Prior to joining the pattern, broadcast flight intentions on 
frequency 122.05 Mhz, giving altitude and position, and monitor the 
frequency while in the pattern;
    (4) Use the Niagara Falls airport altimeter setting. Contact Niagara 
Falls Airport Traffic Control Tower to obtain the current altimeter 
setting, to facilitate the exchange of traffic advisories/restrictions, 
and to reduce the risk of midair collisions between aircraft operating 
in the vicinity of the Falls. If the Control Tower is closed, use the 
appropriate Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) Frequency;
    (5) Do not exceed 130 knots;
    (6) Anticipate heavy congestion of VFR traffic at or above 3,500 
feet MSL; and
    (7) Use caution to avoid high-speed civil and military aircraft 
transiting the area to or from Niagara Falls Airport.
    (f) These procedures do not relieve pilots from the requirements of 
Sec. 91.113 of this chapter to see and avoid other aircraft.
    (g) Flight following, to and from the area, is available through 
Buffalo Approach.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]



              Subpart F_Valparaiso, Florida, Terminal Area



Sec. 93.80  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft 
operating in the Valparaiso, Florida, Terminal Area.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]



Sec. 93.81  Applicability and description of area.

    The Valparaiso, Florida Terminal Area is designated as follows:
    (a) North-South Corridor. The North-South Corridor includes the 
airspace extending upward from the surface up to, but not including, 
18,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at:

Latitude 30[deg]42[min]51[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]38[min]02[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]43[min]18[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]27[min]37[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]37[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]27[min]37[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]37[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]25[min]30[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]33[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]25[min]30[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]33[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]25[min]00[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]25[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]25[min]00[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]25[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]38[min]12[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]29[min]02[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]38[min]02[sec] W.; 
to point of beginning.

    (b) East-West Corridor--The East-West Corridor is divided into three 
sections to accommodate the different altitudes as portions of the 
corridor underlie restricted areas R-2915C, R-2919B, and R-2914B.
    (1) The west section would include that airspace extending upward 
from the surface to but not including 8,500 feet MSL, bounded by a line 
beginning at: Latitude 30[deg]22[min]47[sec] N., Longitude 
86[deg]51[min]30[sec] W.: then along the shoreline to Latitude 
30[deg]23[min]46[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]38[min]15[sec] W.; to 
Latitude 30[deg]20[min]51[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]38[min]50[sec] W.; 
then 3 NM from and parallel to the shoreline to Latitude 
30[deg]19[min]31[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]51[min]30[sec] W.; to the 
beginning.
    (2) The center section would include that airspace extending upward 
from the surface to but not including 18,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line 
beginning at:

Latitude 30[deg]25[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]38[min]12[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]25[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]25[min]00[sec] W.; 
to

[[Page 845]]

Latitude 30[deg]25[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]22[min]26[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]19[min]46[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]23[min]45[sec] W.; 
then 3 NM from and parallel to the shoreline to Latitude 
30[deg]20[min]51[sec] N.,
Longitude 86[deg]38[min]50[sec] W.; to Latitude 30[deg]23[min]46[sec] 
N.,
Longitude 86[deg]38[min]15[sec] W.; to the beginning.

    (3) The east section would include that airspace extending upward 
from the surface to but not including 8,500 feet MSL, bounded by a line 
beginning at:

Latitude 30[deg]25[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]22[min]26[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]22[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]08[min]00[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]19[min]16[sec] N., Longitude 85[deg]56[min]00[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]11[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 85[deg]56[min]00[sec] W.; 
then 3 NM from and parallel to the shoreline to Latitude 
30[deg]19[min]46[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]23[min]45[sec] W.; to the 
beginning.

[Amdt. 93-70, 59 FR 46154, Sept. 6, 1994, as amended by Amdt. 93-82, 68 
FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]



Sec. 93.83  Aircraft operations.

    (a) North-South Corridor. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC 
(including the Eglin Radar Control Facility), no person may operate an 
aircraft in flight within the North-South Corridor designated in Sec. 
93.81(b)(1) unless--
    (1) Before operating within the corridor, that person obtains a 
clearance from the Eglin Radar Control Facility or an appropriate FAA 
ATC facility; and
    (2) That person maintains two-way radio communication with the Eglin 
Radar Control Facility or an appropriate FAA ATC facility while within 
the corridor.
    (b) East-West Corridor. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC 
(including the Eglin Radar Control Facility), no person may operate an 
aircraft in flight within the East-West Corridor designated in Sec. 
93.81(b)(2) unless--
    (1) Before operating within the corridor, that person establishes 
two-way radio communications with Eglin Radar Control Facility or an 
appropriate FAA ATC facility and receives an ATC advisory concerning 
operations being conducted therein; and
    (2) That person maintains two-way radio communications with the 
Eglin Radar Control Facility or an appropriate FAA ATC facility while 
within the corridor.

[Amdt. 93-70, 59 FR 46155, Sept. 6, 1994]



     Subpart G_Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of Los Angeles 
                          International Airport

    Source: Docket No. FAA-2002-14149, 68 FR 41214, July 10, 2003, 
unless otherwise noted.



Sec. 93.91  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft 
conducting VFR operations in the Los Angeles, California Special Flight 
Rules Area.



Sec. 93.93  Description of area.

    The Los Angeles Special Flight Rules Area is designated as that part 
of Area A of the Los Angeles Class B airspace area at 3,500 feet above 
mean sea level (MSL) and at 4,500 feet MSL, beginning at Ballona Creek/
Pacific Ocean (lat. 33[deg]57[min]42[sec] N, long. 
118[deg]27[min]23[sec] W), then eastbound along Manchester Blvd. to the 
intersection of Manchester/405 Freeway (lat. 33[deg]57[min]42[sec] N, 
long. 118[deg]22[min]10[sec] W), then southbound along the 405 Freeway 
to the intersection of the 405 Freeway/lmperial Highway (lat. 
33[deg]55[min]51[sec] N, long. 118[deg]22[min]06[sec] W), then westbound 
along Imperial Highway to the intersection of Imperial Highway/Pacific 
Ocean (lat. 33[deg]55[min]51[sec] N, long. 118[deg]26[min]05[sec] W), 
then northbound along the shoreline to the point of beginning.



Sec. 93.95  General operating procedures.

    Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may 
operate an aircraft in the airspace described in Sec. 93.93 unless the 
operation is conducted in accordance with the following procedures:
    (a) The flight must be conducted under VFR and only when operation 
may be conducted in compliance with Sec. 91.155(a) of this chapter.
    (b) The aircraft must be equipped as specified in Sec. 91.215(b) of 
this chapter replying on code 1201 prior to entering and while operating 
in this area.
    (c) The pilot shall have a current Los Angeles Terminal Area Chart 
in the aircraft.
    (d) The pilot shall operate on the Santa Monica very high frequency

[[Page 846]]

omni-directional radio range (VOR) 132[deg] radial.
    (e) Aircraft navigating in a southeasterly direction shall be in 
level flight at 3,500 feet MSL.
    (f) Aircraft navigating in a northwesterly direction shall be in 
level flight at 4,500 feet MSL.
    (g) Indicated airspeed shall not exceed 140 knots.
    (h) Anti-collision lights and aircraft position/navigation lights 
shall be on. Use of landing lights is recommended.
    (i) Turbojet aircraft are prohibited from VFR operations in this 
area.



Sec. 93.97  Operations in the SFRA.

    Notwithstanding the provisions of Sec. 91.131(a) of this chapter, 
an air traffic control authorization is not required in the Los Angeles 
Special Flight Rules Area for operations in compliance with Sec. 93.95. 
All other provisions of Sec. 91.131 of this chapter apply to operations 
in the Los Angeles Special Flight Rules Area.



  Subpart H_Mandatory Use of the New York North Shore Helicopter Route

    Source: Docket Nos. FAA-2020-0772 and FAA-2018-0954, Amdt. 93-103, 
85 FR 47899, Aug. 7, 2020, unless otherwise noted.

    Effective Date Note: By Docket Nos. FAA-2020-0772 and FAA-2018-0954, 
Amdt. 93-103, 85 FR 47899, Aug. 7, 2020, subpart H to part 93 was 
revised, effective Aug. 5, 2020, through Aug. 5, 2022. By Docket No. 
FAA-2022-1029; Amdt. No. 93-103A; 87 FR 47921, Aug. 5, 2022, this 
amendment was extended to July 29, 2026.



Sec. 93.101  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes a special air traffic rule for civil 
helicopters operating VFR along the North Shore, Long Island, New York, 
between July 29, 2022, and July 29, 2026.

[Docket No. FAA-2022-1029; Amdt. No. 93-103; 87 FR 45642, July 31, 2022]

    Effective Date Note: By Docket No. FAA-2022-1029; Amdt. No. 93-103; 
87 FR 45642, July 31, 2022, Sec. 93.101 was revised, effective July 29, 
2022 through July 29, 2026.



Sec. 93.103  Helicopter operations.

    (a) Unless otherwise authorized, each person piloting a helicopter 
along Long Island, New York's northern shoreline between the VPLYD 
waypoint and Orient Point, shall utilize the North Shore Helicopter 
route and altitude, as published.
    (b) Pilots may deviate from the route and altitude requirements of 
paragraph (a) of this section when necessary for safety, weather 
conditions or transitioning to or from a destination or point of 
landing.

Subpart I [Reserved]



          Subpart J_Lorain County Regional Airport Traffic Rule



Sec. 93.117  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes a special air traffic rule for aircraft 
operating at the Lorain County Regional Airport, Lorain County, Ohio.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]



Sec. 93.119  Aircraft operations.

    Each person piloting an airplane landing at the Lorain County 
Regional Airport shall enter the traffic pattern north of the airport 
and shall execute a right traffic pattern for a landing to the southwest 
or a left traffic pattern for a landing to the northeast. Each person 
taking off from the airport shall execute a departure turn to the north 
as soon as practicable after take off.

[Doc. No. 8669, 33 FR 11749, Aug. 20, 1968]



                 Subpart K_High Density Traffic Airports



Sec. 93.121  Applicability.

    This subpart designates high density traffic airports and prescribes 
air traffic rules for operating aircraft, other than helicopters, to or 
from those airports.

[Doc. No. 9974, 35 FR 16592, Oct. 24, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 93-27, 
38 FR 29464, Oct. 25, 1973]



Sec. 93.123  High density traffic airports.

    (a) Each of the following airports is designated as a high density 
traffic airport and, except as provided in Sec. 93.129 and paragraph 
(b) of this section, or unless otherwise authorized by ATC, is

[[Page 847]]

limited to the hourly number of allocated IFR operations (takeoffs and 
landings) that may be reserved for the specified classes of users for 
that airport:

                         IFR Operations per Hour

                                 Airport
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                 Ronald
                              LaGuardia               O'Hare     Reagan
        Class of user          \4\, \5\    Newark   \2\, \3\,   National
                                                       \5\        \1\
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Air carriers................        48         40        120         37
Commuters...................        14         10         25         11
Other.......................         6         10         10         12
------------------------------------------------------------------------


                             John F. Kennedy
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                Air carriers    Commuters       Other
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1500..........................           69            15             2
1600..........................           74            12             2
1700..........................           80            13             0
1800..........................           75            10             2
1900..........................           63            12             2
------------------------------------------------------------------------
\1\ Washington National Airport operations are subject to modifications
  per Section 93.124.
\2\ The hour period in effect at O'Hare begins at 6:45 a.m. and
  continues in 30-minute increments until 9:15 p.m.
\3\ Operations at O'Hare International Airport shall not--
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of the note, exceed 62 for air
  carriers and 13 for commuters and 5 for ``other'' during any 30-minute
  period beginning at 6:45 a.m. and continuing every 30 minutes
  thereafter.
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of the note, exceed more than
  120 for air carriers, 25 for commuters, and 10 for ``other'' in any
  two consecutive 30-minute periods.
(c) For the hours beginning at 6:45 a.m., 7:45 a.m., 11:45 a.m., 7:45
  p.m. and 8:45 p.m., the hourly limitations shall be 105 for air
  carriers, 40 for commuters and 10 for ``other,'' and the 30-minute
  limitations shall be 55 for air carriers, 20 for commuters and 5 for
  ``other.'' For the hour beginning at 3:45 p.m., the hourly limitations
  shall be 115 for air carriers, 30 for commuters and 10 for ``others'',
  and the 30-minute limitations shall be 60 for air carriers, 15 for
  commuters and 5 for ``other.''
\4\ Operations at LaGuardia Airport shall not--
(a) Exceed 26 for air carriers, 7 for commuters and 3 for ``other''
  during any 30-minute period.
(b) Exceed 48 for air carriers, 14 for commuters, and 6 for ``other'' in
  any two consecutive 30-minute periods.
\5\ Pursuant to bilateral agreement, 14 slots at LaGuardia and 24 slots
  at O'Hare are allocated to the Canadian carriers. These slots are
  excluded from the hourly quotas set forth in Sec. 93.123 above.

    (b) The following exceptions apply to the allocations of 
reservations prescribed in paragraph (a) Of this section.
    (1) The allocations of reservations among the several classes of 
users do not apply from 12 midnight to 6 a.m. local time, but the total 
hourly limitation remains applicable.
    (2) [Reserved]
    (3) The allocation of 37 IFR reservations per hour for air carriers 
except commuters at Washington National Airport does not include charter 
flights, or other nonscheduled flights of scheduled or supplemental air 
carriers. These flights may be conducted without regard to the 
limitation of 37 IFR reservations per hour.
    (4) The allocation of IFR reservations for air carriers except 
commuters at LaGuardia, Newark, O'Hare, and Washington National Airports 
does not include extra sections of scheduled flights. The allocation of 
IFR reservations for scheduled commuters at Washington National Airport 
does not include extra sections of scheduled flights. These flights may 
be conducted without regard to the limitation upon the hourly IFR 
reservations at those airports.
    (5) Any reservation allocated to, but not taken by, air carrier 
operations (except commuters) is available for a scheduled commuter 
operation.
    (6) Any reservation allocated to, but not taken by, air carrier 
operations (except commuters) or scheduled commuter operations is 
available for other operations.
    (c) For purposes of this subpart--
    (1) The number of operations allocated to air carriers except 
commuters, as used in paragraph (a) of this section refers to the number 
of operations conducted by air carriers with turboprop and reciprocating 
engine aircraft having a certificated maximum passenger seating capacity 
of 75 or more or with turbojet powered aircraft having a certificated 
maximum passenger seating capacity of 56 or more, or, if used for cargo 
service in air transportation, with any aircraft having a maximum 
payload capacity of 18,000 pounds or more.
    (2) The number of operations allocated to scheduled commuters, as 
used in paragraph (a) of this section, refers to the number of 
operations conducted by air carriers with turboprop and reciprocating 
engine aircraft having a certificated maximum passenger seating capacity 
of less than 75 or by turbojet aircraft having a certificated maximum 
passenger seating capacity of less than 56, or if used for cargo service 
in air transportation, with any aircraft having a maximum payload 
capacity of less than 18,000 pounds. For purposes of aircraft operations 
at Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport, the term ``commuters'' 
means

[[Page 848]]

aircraft operations using aircraft having a certificated maximum seating 
capacity of 76 or less.
    (3) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (c)(2) of this 
section, a limited number of operations allocated for ``scheduled 
commuters'' under paragraph (a) of this section may be conducted with 
aircraft described in Sec. 93.221(e) of this part pursuant to the 
requirements of Sec. 93.221(e).

[Doc. No. 9113, 34 FR 2603, Feb. 26, 1969, as amended by Amdt. 93-37, 45 
FR 62408, Sept. 18, 1980; Amdt. 93-44, 46 FR 58048, Nov. 27, 1981; Amdt. 
93-46, 49 FR 8244, Mar. 6, 1984; Amdt. 93-57, 54 FR 34906, Aug. 22, 
1989; 54 FR 37303, Sept. 8, 1989; Amdt. 93-59, 54 FR 39843, Sept. 28, 
1989; Amdt. 93-62, 56 FR 41207, Aug. 19, 1991; Amdt. 93-78, 64 FR 53564, 
Oct. 1, 1999; Amdt. 93-84, 70 FR 29063, May 19, 2005]



Sec. 93.125  Arrival or departure reservation.

    Except between 12 Midnight and 6 a.m. local time, no person may 
operate an aircraft to or from an airport designated as a high density 
traffic airport unless he has received, for that operation, an arrival 
or departure reservation from ATC.

[Doc. No. 9974, 37 FR 22794, Oct. 25, 1972]



Sec. 93.129  Additional operations.

    (a) IFR. The operator of an aircraft may take off or land the 
aircraft under IFR at a designated high density traffic airport without 
regard to the maximum number of operations allocated for that airport if 
the operation is not a scheduled operation to or from a high density 
airport and he obtains a departure or arrival reservation, as 
appropriate, from ATC. The reservation is granted by ATC whenever the 
aircraft may be accommodated without significant additional delay to the 
operations allocated for the airport for which the reservations is 
requested.
    (b) VFR. The operator of an aircraft may take off and land the 
aircraft under VFR at a designated high density traffic airport without 
regard to the maximum number of operations allocated for that airport if 
the operation is not a scheduled operation to or from a high density 
airport and he obtains a departure or arrival reservation, as 
appropriate, from ATC. The reservation is granted by ATC whenever the 
aircraft may be accommodated without significant additional delay to the 
operations allocated for the airport for which the reservation is 
requested and the ceiling reported at the airport is at least 1,000 feet 
and the ground visibility reported at the airport is at least 3 miles.
    (c) For the purpose of this section a scheduled operation to or from 
the high density airport is any operation regularly conducted by an air 
carrier or commuter between a high density airport and another point 
regularly served by that operator unless the service is conducted 
pursuant to irregular charter or hiring of aircraft or is a nonpassenger 
flight.
    (d) An aircraft operator must obtain an IFR reservation in 
accordance with procedures established by the Administrator. For IFR 
flights to or from a high density airport, reservations for takeoff and 
arrival shall be obtained prior to takeoff.

[Doc. No. 9113, 34 FR 2603, Feb. 26, 1969, as amended by Amdt. 93-25, 37 
FR 22794, Oct. 25, 1972; Amdt. 93-44, 46 FR 58049, Nov. 27, 1981; Amdt. 
93-46, 49 FR 8244, Mar. 6, 1984]



Sec. 93.130  Suspension of allocations.

    The Administrator may suspend the effectiveness of any allocation 
prescribed in Sec. 93.123 and the reservation requirements prescribed 
in Sec. 93.125 if he finds such action to be consistent with the 
efficient use of the airspace. Such suspension may be terminated 
whenever the Administrator determines that such action is necessary for 
the efficient use of the airspace.

[Doc. No. 9974, 35 FR 16592, Oct. 24, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 93-21, 
35 FR 16636, Oct. 27, 1970; Amdt. 93-27, 38 FR 29464, Oct. 25, 1973]



Sec. 93.133  Exceptions.

    Except as provided in Sec. 93.130, the provisions of Sec. Sec. 
93.123 and 93.125 do not apply to--
    (a) The Newark Airport, Newark, NJ;
    (b) The Kennedy International Airport, New York, NY, except during 
the hours from 3 p.m. through 7:59 p.m., local time; and
    (c) O'Hare International Airport from 9:15 p.m. to 6:44 a.m., local 
time.

[Doc. No. 24471, 49 FR 8244, Mar. 6, 1984]

[[Page 849]]

Subpart L [Reserved]



         Subpart M_Ketchikan International Airport Traffic Rule

    Source: Docket No. 14687, 41 FR 14879, Apr. 8, 1976, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 93.151  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes a special air traffic rule for aircraft 
conducting VFR operations in the vicinity of the Ketchikan International 
Airport or Ketchikan Harbor, Alaska.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]



Sec. 93.152  Description of area.

    Within that airspace below 3,000 feet MSL within the lateral 
boundary of the surface area of the Ketchikan Class E airspace 
regardless of whether that airspace is in effect.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]



Sec. 93.153  Communications.

    (a) When the Ketchikan Flight Service Station is in operation, no 
person may operate an aircraft within the airspace specified in Sec. 
93.151, or taxi onto the runway at Ketchikan International Airport, 
unless that person has established two-way radio communications with the 
Ketchikan Flight Service Station for the purpose of receiving traffic 
advisories and continues to monitor the advisory frequency at all times 
while operating within the specified airspace.
    (b) When the Ketchikan Flight Service Station is not in operation, 
no person may operate an aircraft within the airspace specified in Sec. 
93.151, or taxi onto the runway at Ketchikan International Airport, 
unless that person continuously monitors and communicates, as 
appropriate, on the designated common traffic advisory frequency as 
follows:
    (1) For inbound flights. Announces position and intentions when no 
less than 10 miles from Ketchikan International Airport, and monitors 
the designated frequency until clear of the movement area on the airport 
or Ketchikan Harbor.
    (2) For departing flights. Announces position and intentions prior 
to taxiing onto the active runway on the airport or onto the movement 
area of Ketchikan Harbor and monitors the designated frequency until 
outside the airspace described in Sec. 93.151 and announces position 
and intentions upon departing that airspace.
    (c) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this 
section, if two-way radio communications failure occurs in flight, a 
person may operate an aircraft within the airspace specified in Sec. 
93.151, and land, if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR 
weather minimums.

[Doc. No. 26653, 56 FR 48094, Sept. 23, 1991]



Sec. 93.155  Aircraft operations.

    (a) When an advisory is received from the Ketchikan Flight Service 
Station stating that an aircraft is on final approach to the Ketchikan 
International Airport, no person may taxi onto the runway of that 
airport until the approaching aircraft has landed and has cleared the 
runway.
    (b) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating a 
large airplane or a turbine engine powered airplane shall--
    (1) When approaching to land at the Ketchikan International Airport, 
maintain an altitude of at least 900 feet MSL until within three miles 
of the airport; and
    (2) After takeoff from the Ketchikan International Airport, maintain 
runway heading until reaching an altitude of 900 feet MSL.



      Subpart N_Pearson Field (Vancouver, WA) Airport Traffic Rule

    Source: Docket FAA-2015-3980, Amdt. 93-100, 81 FR 62806, Sept. 12, 
2016, unless otherwise noted.



Sec. 93.161  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft 
conducting VFR operations in the vicinity of the Pearson Field Airport 
in Vancouver, Washington.

[[Page 850]]



Sec. 93.162  Description of area.

    The Pearson Field Airport Special Flight Rules Area is designated as 
that airspace extending upward from the surface to but not including 
1,100 feet MSL in an area bounded by a line beginning at the point where 
the 019[deg] bearing from Pearson Field intersects the 5-mile arc from 
Portland International Airport extending southeast to a point 1\1/2\ 
miles east of Pearson Field on the extended centerline of Runway 8/26, 
thence south to the north shore of the Columbia River, thence west via 
the north shore of the Columbia River to the 5-mile arc from Portland 
International Airport, thence clockwise via the 5-mile arc to point of 
beginning.



Sec. 93.163  Aircraft operations.

    (a) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an 
aircraft within the airspace described in Sec. 93.162, or taxi onto the 
runway at Pearson Field, unless-
    (1) That person establishes two-way radio communications with 
Pearson Advisory on the common traffic advisory frequency for the 
purpose of receiving air traffic advisories and continues to monitor the 
frequency at all times while operating within the specified airspace.
    (2) That person has obtained the Pearson Field weather prior to 
establishing two-way communications with Pearson Advisory.
    (b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, 
if two-way radio communications failure occurs in flight, a person may 
operate an aircraft within the airspace described in Sec. 93.162, and 
land, if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums. 
If two-way radio communications failure occurs while in flight under 
IFR, the pilot must comply with Sec. 91.185.
    (c) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, persons operating an 
aircraft within the airspace described in Sec. 93.162 must--
    (1) When operating over the runway or extended runway centerline of 
Pearson Field Runway 8/26 maintain an altitude at or below 700 feet 
above mean sea level.
    (2) Remain outside Portland Class C Airspace.
    (3) Make a right traffic pattern when operating to/from Pearson 
Field Runway 26.



     Subpart O_Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of Luke AFB, AZ

    Source: 74 FR 69278, Dec. 31, 2009, unless otherwise noted.



Sec. 93.175  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes a Special Air Traffic Rule for aircraft 
conducting VFR operations in the vicinity of Luke Air Force Base, AZ.



Sec. 93.176  Description of area.

    The Luke Air Force Base, Arizona Terminal Area is designated during 
official daylight hours Monday through Friday while Luke pilot flight 
training is underway, as broadcast on the local Automatic Terminal 
Information Service (ATIS), and other times by Notice to Airmen (NOTAM), 
as follows:
    (a) East Sector:
    (1) South section includes airspace extending from 3,000 feet MSL to 
the base of the overlaying Phoenix Class B airspace bounded by a line 
beginning at: Lat. 33[deg]23[min]56[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]28[min]37[sec] 
W; to Lat. 33[deg]22[min]32[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]37[min]14[sec] W; to 
Lat. 33[deg]25[min]39[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]37[min]29[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]31[min]55[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]30[min]32[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]28[min]00[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]28[min]41[sec] W; to point of 
beginning.
    (2) South section lower includes airspace extending from 2,100 feet 
MSL to the base of the overlaying Phoenix Class B airspace, excluding 
the Luke Class D airspace area bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 
33[deg]28[min]00[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]28[min]41[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]23[min]56[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]28[min]37[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]27[min]53[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]24[min]12[sec] W; to point of 
beginning.
    (3) Center section includes airspace extending from surface to the 
base of the overlaying Phoenix Class B airspace, excluding the Luke 
Class D airspace area bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 
33[deg]42[min]22[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]19[min]16[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]38[min]40[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]14[min]03[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]27[min]53[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]24[min]12[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]28[min]00[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]28[min]41[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]31[min]55[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]30[min]32[sec] W; to point of 
beginning.

[[Page 851]]

    (4) The north section includes that airspace extending upward from 
3,000 feet MSL to 4,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 
33[deg]42[min]22[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]19[min]16[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]46[min]58[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]16[min]41[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]44[min]48[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]10[min]59[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]38[min]40[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]14[min]03[sec] W; to point of 
beginning.
    (b) West Sector:
    (1) The north section includes that airspace extending upward from 
3,000 feet MSL to 6,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 
33[deg]51[min]52[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]37[min]54[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]49[min]34[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]23[min]34[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]46[min]58[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]16[min]41[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]42[min]22[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]19[min]16[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]39[min]27[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]22[min]27[sec] W; to point of 
beginning.
    (2) The south section includes that airspace extending upward from 
the surface to 6,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at: Lat. 
33[deg]39[min]27[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]22[min]27[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]38[min]06[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]23[min]51[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]38[min]07[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]28[min]50[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]39[min]34[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]31[min]39[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]39[min]32[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]37[min]36[sec] W; to Lat. 
33[deg]51[min]52[sec] N; Long. 112[deg]37[min]54[sec] W; to point of 
beginning.



Sec. 93.177  Operations in the Special Air Traffic Rule Area.

    (a) Unless otherwise authorized by Air Traffic Control (ATC), no 
person may operate an aircraft in flight within the Luke Terminal Area 
designated in Sec. 93.176 unless--
    (1) Before operating within the Luke Terminal area, that person 
establishes radio contact with the Luke RAPCON; and
    (2) That person maintains two-way radio communication with the Luke 
RAPCON or an appropriate ATC facility while within the designated area.
    (b) Requests for deviation from the provisions of this section apply 
only to aircraft not equipped with an operational radio. The request 
must be submitted at least 24 hours before the proposed operation to 
Luke RAPCON.

Subparts P-R [Reserved]



Subpart S_Allocation of Commuter and Air Carrier IFR Operations at High 
                        Density Traffic Airports

    Source: Docket No. 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 93.211  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart prescribes rules applicable to the allocation and 
withdrawal of IFR operational authority (takeoffs and landings) to 
individual air carriers and commuter operators at the High Density 
Traffic Airports identified in subpart K of this part except for Newark 
Airport.
    (b) This subpart also prescribes rules concerning the transfer of 
allocated IFR operational authority and the use of that authority once 
allocated.



Sec. 93.213  Definitions and general provisions.

    (a) For purposes of this subpart--
    (1) New entrant carrier means a commuter operator or air carrier 
which does not hold a slot at a particular airport and has never sold or 
given up a slot at that airport after December 16, 1985.
    (2) Slot means the operational authority to conduct one IFR landing 
or takeoff operation each day during a specific hour or 30 minute period 
at one of the High Density Traffic Airports, as specified in subpart K 
of this part.
    (3) Summer season means the period of time from the first Sunday in 
April until the last Sunday in October.
    (4) Winter season means the period of time from the last Sunday in 
October until the first Sunday in April.
    (5) Limited incumbent carrier means an air carrier or commuter 
operator that holds or operates fewer than 12 air carrier or commuter 
slots, in any combination, at a particular airport, not including 
international slots, Essential Air Service Program slots, or slots 
between the hours of 2200 and 0659 at Washington National Airport or 
LaGuardia Airport. However, for the purposes of this paragraph (a)(5), 
the carrier is considered to hold the number of slots at that airport 
that the carrier has, since December 16, 1985:
    (i) Returned to the FAA;

[[Page 852]]

    (ii) Had recalled by the FAA under Sec. 93.227(a); or
    (iii) Transferred to another party other than by trade for one or 
more slots at the same airport.
    (b) The definitions specified in subpart K of this part also apply 
to this subpart.
    (c) For purposes of this subpart, if an air carrier, commuter 
operator, or other person has more than a 50-percent ownership or 
control of one or more other air carriers, commuter operators, or other 
persons, they shall be considered to be a single air carrier, commuter 
operator, or person. In addition, if a single company has more than a 
50-percent ownership or control of two or more air carriers and/or 
commuter operators or any combination thereof, those air carriers and/or 
commuter operators shall be considered to be a single operator. A single 
operator may be considered to be both an air carrier and commuter 
operator for purposes of this subpart.

[Doc. No. 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 
51 FR 21717, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-57, 54 FR 34906, Aug. 22, 1989; 54 
FR 37303, Sept. 8, 1989; Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37314, Aug. 18, 1992]



Sec. 93.215  Initial allocation of slots.

    (a) Each air carrier and commuter operator holding a permanent slot 
on December 16, 1985, as evidenced by the records of the air carrier and 
commuter operator scheduling committees, shall be allocated those slots 
subject to withdrawal under the provisions of this subpart. The Chief 
Counsel of the FAA shall be the final decisionmaker for initial 
allocation determinations.
    (b) Any permanent slot whose use on December 16, 1985 is divided 
among different operators, by day of the week, or otherwise, as 
evidenced by records of the scheduling committees, shall be allocated in 
conformity with those records. The Chief Counsel of the FAA shall be the 
final decisionmaker for these determinations.
    (c) A carrier may permanently designate a slot it holds at Kennedy 
International Airport as a seasonal slot, to be held by the carrier only 
during the corresponding season in future years, if it notifies the FAA 
(at the address specified in Sec. 93.225(e)), in writing, the preceding 
winter seasons or by October 15 of the preceding year for summer 
seasons.
    (d) Within 30 days after December 16, 1985, each U.S. air carrier 
and commuter operator must notify the office specified in Sec. 
93.221(a)(1), in writing, of those slots used for operations described 
in Sec. 93.217(a)(1) on December 16, 1985.
    (e) Any slot not held by an operator on December 16, 1985 shall be 
allocated in accordance with the provisions of Sec. Sec. 93.217, 93.219 
or 93.225 of this subpart.

[Doc. No. 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 
51 FR 21717, June 13, 1986]



Sec. 93.217  Allocation of slots for international operations and applicable limitations.

    (a) Any air carrier of commuter operator having the authority to 
conduct international operations shall be provided slots for those 
operations, excluding transborder service solely between HDR airports 
and Canada, subject to the following conditions and the other provisions 
of this section:
    (1) The slot may be used only for a flight segment in which either 
the takeoff or landing is at a foreign point or, for foreign operators, 
the flight segment is a continuation of a flight that begins or ends at 
a foreign point. Slots may be obtained and used under this section only 
for operations at Kennedy and O'Hare airports unless otherwise required 
by bilateral agreement and only for scheduled service unless the 
requesting carrier qualifies for the slot on the basis of historic 
seasonal operations, under Sec. 93.217(a)(5).
    (2) Slots used for an operation described in paragraph (a)(1) of 
this section may not be bought, sold, leased, or otherwise transferred, 
except that such a slot may be traded to another slot-holder on a one-
for-one basis for a slot at the same airport in a different hour or 
half-hour period if the trade is for the purpose of conducting such an 
operation in a different hour or half-hour period.
    (3) Slots used for operations described in paragraph (a)(1) of this 
section must be returned to the FAA if the slot will not be used for 
such operations for more than a 2-week period.

[[Page 853]]

    (4) Each air carrier or commuter operator having a slot that is used 
for operations described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section but is not 
used every day of the week shall notify the office specified in Sec. 
93.221(a)(1) in writing of those days on which the slots will not be 
used.
    (5) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(10) of this section, at 
Kennedy and O'Hare Airports, a slot shall be allocated, upon request, 
for seasonal international operations, including charter operations, if 
the Chief Counsel of the FAA determines that the slot had been 
permanently allocated to and used by the requesting carrier in the same 
hour and for the same time period during the corresponding season of the 
preceding year. Requests for such slots must be submitted to the office 
specified in Sec. 93.221(a)(1), by the deadline published in a Federal 
Register notice for each season. For operations during the 1986 summer 
season, requests under this paragraph must have been submitted to the 
FAA on or before February 1, 1986. Each carrier requesting a slot under 
this paragraph must submit its entire international schedule at the 
relevant airport for the particular season, noting which requests are in 
addition to or changes from the previous year.
    (6) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(10) of this section, 
additional slots shall be allocated at O'Hare Airport for international 
scheduled air carrier and commuter operations (beyond those slots 
allocated under Sec. Sec. 93.215 and 93.217(a)(5) if a request is 
submitted to the office specified in Sec. 93.221(a)(1) and filed by the 
deadline published in a Federal Register notice for each season. These 
slots will be allocated at the time requested unless a slot is available 
within one hour of the requested time, in which case the unallocated 
slots will be used to satisfy the request.
    (7) If required by bilateral agreement, additional slots shall be 
allocated at LaGuardia Airport for international scheduled passenger 
operations within the hour requested.
    (8) To the extent vacant slots are available, additional slots 
during the high density hours shall be allocated at Kennedy Airport for 
new international scheduled air carrier and commuter operations (beyond 
those operations for which slots have been allocated under Sec. Sec. 
93.215 and 93.217(a)(5)), if a request is submitted to the office 
specified in Sec. 93.221(a)(1) by the deadline published in a Federal 
Register notice for each season. In addition, slots may be withdrawn 
from domestic operations for operations at Kennedy Airport under this 
paragraph if required by international obligations.
    (9) In determining the hour in which a slot request under Sec. Sec. 
93.217(a)(6) and 93.217(a)(8) will be granted, the following will be 
taken into consideration, among other things:
    (i) The availability of vacant slot times;
    (ii) International obligations;
    (iii) Airport terminal capacity, including facilities and personnel 
of the U.S. Customs Service and the U.S. Immigration and Naturalization 
Service;
    (iv) The extent and regularity of intended use of a slot; and
    (v) Schedule constraints of carriers requesting slots.
    (10) At O'Hare Airport, a slot will not be allocated under this 
section to a carrier holding or operating 100 or more permanent slots on 
the previous May 15 for a winter season or October 15 for a summer 
season unless:
    (i) Allocation of the slot does not result in a total allocation to 
that carrier under this section that exceeds the number of slots 
allocated to and scheduled by that carrier under this section on 
February 23, 1990, and as reduced by the number of slots reclassified 
under Sec. 93.218, and does not exceed by more than 2 the number of 
slots allocated to and scheduled by that carrier during any half hour of 
that day, or
    (ii) Notwithstanding the number of slots allocated under paragraph 
(a)(10)(i) of this section, a slot is available for allocation without 
withdrawal of a permanent slot from any carrier.
    (b) If a slot allocated under Sec. 93.215 was scheduled for an 
operation described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section on December 16, 
1985, its use shall be subject to the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) 
through (a)(4) of this section. The requirements also apply to slots 
used for international operations at LaGuardia Airport.

[[Page 854]]

    (c) If a slot is offered to a carrier in other than the hour 
requested, the carrier shall have 14 days after the date of the offer to 
accept the newly offered slot. Acceptance must be in writing and sent to 
the office specified in Sec. 93.221(a)(1) and must repeat the certified 
statements required by paragraph (e) of this section.
    (d) The Office of the Secretary of Transportation reserves the right 
not to apply the provisions of this section, concerning the allocation 
of slots, to any foreign air carrier or commuter operator of a country 
that provides slots to U.S. air carriers and commuter operators on a 
basis more restrictive than provided by this subpart. Decisions not to 
apply the provisions of this section will be made by the Office of the 
Secretary of Transportation.
    (e) Each request for slots under this section shall state the 
airport, days of the week and time of the day of the desired slots and 
the period of time the slots are to be used. Each request shall identify 
whether the slot is requested under paragraph (a)(5), (6), or (8) and 
identify any changes from the previous year if requested under both 
paragraphs. The request must be accompanied by a certified statement 
signed by an officer of the operator indicating that the operator has or 
has contracted for aircraft capable of being utilized in using the slots 
requested and that the operator has bona fide plans to use the requested 
slots for operations described in paragraph (a).

[Doc. No. 24105, 51 FR 21717, June 13, 1986, as amended by Amdt. 93-61, 
55 FR 53243, Dec. 27, 1990; 56 FR 1059, Jan. 10, 1991; Amdt. 93-78, 64 
FR 53565, Oct. 1, 1999]



Sec. 93.218  Slots for transborder service to and from Canada.

    (a) Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, international 
slots identified by U.S. carriers for international operations in 
December 1985 and the equivalent number of international slots held as 
of February 24, 1998, will be domestic slots. The Chief Counsel of the 
FAA shall be the final decisionmaker for these determinations.
    (b) Canadian carriers shall have a guaranteed base level of slots of 
42 slots at LaGuardia, 36 slots at O'Hare for the Sumner season, and 32 
slots at O'Hare in the Winter season.
    (c) Any modification to the slot base by the Government of Canada or 
the Canadian carriers that results in a decrease of the guaranteed base 
in paragraph (b) of this section shall permanently modify the base 
number of slots.

[Doc. No. FAA-1999-4971, 64 FR 53565, Oct. 1, 1999]



Sec. 93.219  Allocation of slots for essential air service operations
and applicable limitations.

    Whenever the Office of the Secretary of Transportation determines 
that slots are needed for operations to or from a High Density Traffic 
Airport under the Department of Transportation's Essential Air Service 
(EAS) Program, those slots shall be provided to the designated air 
carrier or commuter operator subject to the following limitations:
    (a) Slots obtained under this section may not be bought, sold, 
leased or otherwise transferred, except that such slots may be traded 
for other slots on a one-for-one basis at the same airport.
    (b) Any slot obtained under this section must be returned to the FAA 
if it will not be used for EAS purposes for more than a 2-week period. A 
slot returned under this paragraph may be reallocated to the operator 
which returned it upon request to the FAA office specified in Sec. 
93.221(a)(1) if that slot has not been reallocated to an operator to 
provide substitute essential air service.
    (c) Slots shall be allocated for EAS purposes in a time period 
within 90 minutes of the time period requested.
    (d) The Department will not honor requests for slots for EAS 
purposes to a point if the requesting carrier has previously traded away 
or sold slots it had used or obtained for use in providing essential air 
service to that point.
    (e) Slots obtained under Civil Aeronautics Board Order No. 84-11-40 
shall be considered to have been obtained under this section.



Sec. 93.221  Transfer of slots.

    (a) Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, effective April 1, 
1986, slots may be bought, sold or leased for

[[Page 855]]

any consideration and any time period and they may be traded in any 
combination for slots at the same airport or any other high density 
traffic airport. Transfers, including leases, shall comply with the 
following conditions:
    (1) Requests for confirmation must be submitted in writing to Slot 
Administration Office, AGC-230, Office of the Chief Counsel, Federal 
Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 
20591, in a format to be prescribed by the Administrator. Requests will 
provide the names of the transferor and recipient; business address and 
telephone number of the persons representing the transferor and 
recipient; whether the slot is to be used for an arrival or departure; 
the date the slot was acquired by the transferor; the section of this 
subpart under which the slot was allocated to the transferor; whether 
the slot has been used by the transferor for international or essential 
air service operations; and whether the slot will be used by the 
recipient for international or essential air service operations. After 
withdrawal priorities have been established under Sec. 93.223 of this 
part, the requests must include the slot designations of the transferred 
slots as described in Sec. 93.223(b)(5).
    (2) The slot transferred must come from the transferor's then-
current FAA-approved base.
    (3) Written evidence of each transferor's consent to the transfer 
must be provided to the FAA.
    (4) The recipient of a transferred slot may not use the slot until 
written confirmation has been received from the FAA.
    (5)(i) Until a slot obtained by a new entrant or limited incumbent 
carrier in a lottery held under Sec. 93.225 after June 1, 1991, has 
been used by the carrier that obtained it for a continuous 24-month 
period after the lottery in accordance with Sec. 93.227(a), that slot 
may be transferred only by trade for one or more slots at the same 
airport or to other new entrant or limited incumbent carriers under 
Sec. 93.221(a)(5)(iii). This transfer restriction shall apply to the 
same extent to any slot or slots acquired by trading the slot obtained 
in a lottery. To remove the transfer restriction, documentation of 24 
months' continuous use must be submitted to the FAA Office of the Chief 
Counsel.
    (ii) Failure to use a slot acquired by trading a slot obtained in a 
lottery for a continuous 24-month period after the lottery, shall void 
all trades involving the lottery slot, which shall be returned to the 
FAA. All use of the lottery slot shall be counted toward fulfilling the 
minimum use requirements under Sec. 93.227(a) applicable to the slot or 
slots for which the lottery slot was traded, including subsequent 
trades.
    (iii) Slots obtained by new entrant or limited incumbent carriers in 
a lottery may be sold, leased, or otherwise transferred to another 
entrant or limited incumbent carrier after a minimum of 60 days of use 
by the obtaining carrier. The transfer restrictions of Sec. 
93.221(a)(5)(i) shall continue to apply to the slot until documentation 
of 24 months' continuous use has been submitted and the transfer 
restriction removed.
    (6) The Office of the Secretary of Transportation must determine 
that the transfer will not be injurious to the essential air service 
program.
    (b) A record of each slot transfer shall be kept on file by the 
office specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and will be made 
available to the public upon request.
    (c) Any person may buy or sell slots and any air carrier or commuter 
may use them. Notwithstanding Sec. 93.123, air carrier slots may be 
used with aircraft of the kind described in Sec. 93.123 (c)(1) or 
(c)(2) but commuter slots may only be used with aircraft of the kind 
described in Sec. 93.0123(c)(2).
    (d) Air carriers and commuter operators considered to be a single 
operator under the provisions of Sec. 93.213(c) of this subpart but 
operating under separate names shall report transfers of slots between 
them.
    (e) Notwithstanding Sec. 93.123(c)(2) of this part, a commuter slot 
at O'Hare International Airport may be used with an aircraft described 
in Sec. 93.123(c)(1) of this part on the following conditions:
    (1) Air carrier aircraft that may be operated under this paragraph 
are limited to aircraft:
    (i) Having an actual seating configuration of 110 or fewer 
passengers; and

[[Page 856]]

    (ii) Having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of less than 
126,000 pounds.
    (2) No more than 50 percent of the total number of commuter slots 
held by a slot holder at O'Hare International Airport may be used with 
aircraft described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
    (3) An air carrier or commuter operator planning to operate an 
aircraft described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section in a commuter 
slot shall notify ATC at least 75 days in advance of the planned start 
date of such operation. The notice shall include the slot number, 
proposed time of operation, aircraft type, aircraft series, actual 
aircraft seating configuration, and planned start date. ATC will approve 
or disapprove the proposed operation no later than 45 days prior to the 
planned start date. If an operator does not initiate operation of a 
commuter slot under this section within 30 days of the planned start 
date first submitted to the FAA, the ATC approval for that operation 
will expire. That operator may file a new or revised notice for the same 
half-hour slot time.
    (4) An operation may not be conducted under paragraph (e)(1) of this 
section unless a gate is available for that operation without planned 
waiting time.
    (5) For the purposes of this paragraph (e), notice to ATC shall be 
submitted in writing to: Director, Air Traffic System Management, ATM-1, 
Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., 
Washington, DC 20591.

[Doc. No. 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 
51 FR 21717, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-58, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; 
Amdt. 93-62, 56 FR 41208, Aug. 19, 1991; Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37314, Aug. 
18, 1992; Amdt. 93-68, 58 FR 39616, July 23, 1993]



Sec. 93.223  Slot withdrawal.

    (a) Slots do not represent a property right but represent an 
operating privilege subject to absolute FAA control. Slots may be 
withdrawn at any time to fulfill the Department's operational needs, 
such as providing slots for international or essential air service 
operations or eliminating slots. Before withdrawing any slots under this 
section to provide them for international operations, essential air 
services or other operational needs, those slots returned under Sec. 
93.224 of this part and those recalled by the agency under Sec. 93.227 
will be allocated.
    (b) Separate slot pools shall be established for air carriers and 
commuter operators at each airport. The FAA shall assign, by random 
lottery, withdrawal priority numbers for the recall priority of slots at 
each airport. Each additional permanent slot, if any, will be assigned 
the next higher number for air carrier or commuter slots, as 
appropriate, at each airport. Each slot shall be assigned a designation 
consisting of the applicable withdrawal priority number; the airport 
code; a code indicating whether the slot is an air carrier or commuter 
operator slot; and the time period of the slot. The designation shall 
also indicate, as appropriate, if the slot is daily or for certain days 
of the week only; is limited to arrivals or departures; is allocated for 
international operations or for EAS purposes; and, at Kennedy 
International Airport, is a summer or winter slot.
    (c) Whenever slots must be withdrawn, they will be withdrawn in 
accordance with the priority list established under paragraph (b) of 
this section, except:
    (1) Slots obtained in a lottery held pursuant to Sec. 93.225 of 
this part shall be subject to withdrawal pursuant to paragraph (i) of 
that section, and
    (2) Slots necessary for international and essential air service 
operations shall be exempt from withdrawal for use for other 
international or essential air service operations.
    (3) Except as provided in Sec. 93.227(a), the FAA shall not 
withdraw slots held at an airport by an air carrier or commuter operator 
holding and operating 12 or fewer slots at that airport (excluding slots 
used for operations described in Sec. 93.212(a)(1)), if withdrawal 
would reduce the number of slots held below the number of slots 
operated.
    (4) No slot comprising the guaranteed base of slots, as defined in 
section 93.318(b), shall be withdrawn for use for international 
operations or for new entrants.
    (d) The following withdrawal priority rule shall be used to permit 
application

[[Page 857]]

of the one-for-one trade provisions for international and essential air 
service slots and the slot withdrawal provisions where the slots are 
needed for other than international or essential air service operations. 
If an operator has more than one slot in a specific time period in which 
it also has a slot being used for international or essential air service 
operations, the international and essential air service slots will be 
considered to be those with the lowest withdrawal priority.
    (e) The operator(s) using each slot to be withdrawn shall be 
notified by the FAA of the withdrawal and shall cease operations using 
that slot on the date indicated in the notice. Generally, the FAA will 
provide at least 30 days after notification for the operator to cease 
operations unless exigencies require a shorter time period.
    (f) For 24 months following a lottery held after June 1, 1991, a 
slot acquired in that lottery shall be withdrawn by the FAA upon the 
sale, merger, or acquisition of more than 50 percent ownership or 
control of the carrier using that slot or one acquired by trade of that 
slot, if the resulting total of slots held or operated at the airport by 
the surviving entity would exceed 12 slots.

[Doc. No. 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 
51 FR 21718, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-57, 54 FR 34906, Aug. 22, 1989; 
Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37314, Aug. 18, 1992; Amdt. 93-78, 64 FR 53565, Oct. 
1, 1999]



Sec. 93.224  Return of slots.

    (a) Whenever a slot is required to be returned under this subpart, 
the holder must notify the office specified in Sec. 93.221(a)(1) in 
writing of the date after which the slot will not be used.
    (b) Slots may be voluntarily returned for use by other operators by 
notifying the office specified in Sec. 93.221(a)(1) in writing.



Sec. 93.225  Lottery of available slots.

    (a) Whenever the FAA determines that sufficient slots have become 
available for distribution for purposes other than international or 
essential air service operations, but generally not more than twice a 
year, they shall be allocated in accordance with the provisions of this 
section.
    (b) A random lottery shall be held to determine the order of slot 
selection.
    (c) Slot allocation lotteries shall be held on an airport-by-airport 
basis with separate lotteries for air carrier and commuter operator 
slots. The slots to be allocated in each lottery will be each 
unallocated slot not necessary for international or Essential Air 
Service Program operations, including any slot created by an increase in 
the operating limits set forth in Sec. 93.123(a).
    (d) The FAA shall publish a notice in the Federal Register 
announcing any lottery dates. The notice may include special procedures 
to be in effect for the lotteries.
    (e) Participation in a lottery is open to each U.S. air carrier or 
commuter operator operating at the airport and providing scheduled 
passenger service at the airport, as well as where provided for by 
bilateral agreement. Any U.S. carrier, or foreign air carrier where 
provided for by bilateral agreement, that is not operating scheduled 
service at the airport and has not failed to operate slots obtained in 
the previous lottery, or slots traded for those obtained by lottery, but 
wishes to initiate scheduled passenger service at the airport, shall be 
included in the lottery if that operator notifies, in writing, the Slot 
Administration Office, AGC-230, Office of the Chief Counsel, Federal 
Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 
20591. The notification must be received 15 days prior to the lottery 
date and state whether there is any common ownership or control of, by, 
or with any other air carrier or commuter operator as defined in Sec. 
93.213(c). New entrant and limited incumbent carriers will be permitted 
to complete their selections before participation by other incumbent 
carriers is initiated.
    (f) At the lottery, each operator must make its selection within 5 
minutes after being called or it shall lose its turn. If capacity still 
remains after each operator has had an opportunity to select slots, the 
allocation sequence will be repeated in the same order. An operator may 
select any two slots available at the airport during each sequence, 
except that new entrant carriers may select four slots, if available, in 
the first sequence.

[[Page 858]]

    (g) To select slots during a slot lottery session, a carrier must 
have appropriate economic authority for scheduled passenger service 
under Title IV of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 
U.S.C. App. 1371 et seq.), and must hold FAA operating authority under 
part 121 or part 135 of this chapter as appropriate for the slots the 
operator seeks to select.
    (h) During the first selection sequence, 25 percent of the slots 
available but no less than two slots shall be reserved for selection by 
new entrant carriers. If new entrant carriers do not select all of the 
slots set aside for new entrant carriers, limited incumbent carriers may 
select the remaining slots. If every participating new entrant carrier 
and limited incumbent carrier has ceased selection of available slots or 
has obtained 12 slots at that airport, other incumbent carriers may 
participate in selecting the remaining slots; however, slots selected by 
non-limited incumbent carriers will be allocated only until the date of 
the next lottery.
    (i) Slots obtained under this section shall retain their withdrawal 
priority as established under Sec. 93.223. If the slot is newly 
created, a withdrawal priority shall be assigned. That priority number 
shall be higher than any other slot assigned a withdrawal number 
previously.

[Doc. No. 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 
51 FR 21718, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-58, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; 
Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37314, Aug. 18, 1992; 57 FR 47993, Oct. 21, 1992; 
Amdt. 93-78, 64 FR 53565, Oct. 1, 1999]



Sec. 93.226  Allocation of slots in low-demand periods.

    (a) If there are available slots in the following time periods and 
there are no pending requests for international or EAS operations at 
these times, FAA will allocate slots upon request on a first-come, 
first-served basis, as set forth in this section:
    (1) Any period for which a slot is available less than 5 days per 
week.
    (2) Any time period for which a slot is available for less than a 
full season.
    (3) For LaGuardia and Washington National Airports:
    (i) 6:00 a.m.-6:59 a.m.
    (ii) 10:00 p.m.-midnight.
    (b) Slots will be allocated only to operators with the economic and 
operating authority and aircraft required to use the slots.
    (c) Requests for allocations under this section shall be submitted 
in writing to the address listed in Sec. 93.221(a)(1) and shall 
identify the request as made under this section.
    (d) The FAA may deny requests made under this section after a 
determination that all remaining slots in a particular category should 
be distributed by lottery.
    (e) Slots may be allocated on a seasonal or temporary basis under 
this provision.

[Doc. No. 24105, 51 FR 21718, June 13, 1986]



Sec. 93.227  Slot use and loss.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), (d), (g), and (l) of 
this section, any slot not utilized 80 percent of the time over a 2-
month period shall be recalled by the FAA.
    (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to slots obtained 
under Sec. 93.225 of this part during:
    (1) The first 90 days after they are allocated to a new entrant 
carrier; or
    (2) The first 60 days after they are allocated to a limited 
incumbent or other incumbent carrier.
    (c) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to slots of an 
operator forced by a strike to cease operations using those slots.
    (d) In the case of a carrier that files for protection under the 
Federal bankruptcy laws and has not received a Notice of Withdrawal from 
the FAA for the subject slot or slots, paragraph (a) of this section 
does not apply:
    (1) During a period after the initial petition in bankruptcy, to any 
slot held or operated by that carrier, for:
    (i) 60 days after the carrier files the initial petition in 
bankruptcy; and
    (ii) 30 days after the carrier, in anticipation of transferring 
slots, submits information to a Federal government agency in connection 
with a statutory antitrust, economic impact, or similar review of the 
transfer, provided that the information is submitted more than 30 days 
after filing the initial petition in bankruptcy, and provided further 
that any slot to be transferred has

[[Page 859]]

not become subject to withdrawal under any other provision of this Sec. 
93.227; and
    (2) During a period after a carrier ceases operations at an airport, 
to any slot held or operated by that carrier at that airport, for:
    (i) 30 days after the carrier ceases operations at that airport, 
provided that the slot has not become subject to withdrawal under any 
other provision of this Sec. 93.227; and
    (ii) 30 days after the parties to a proposed transfer of any such 
slot comply with requests for additional information by a Federal 
government agency in connection with an antitrust, economic impact, or 
similar investigation of the transfer, provided that--
    (A) The original notice of the transfer is filed with the Federal 
agency within 30 days after the carrier ceases operation at the airport;
    (B) The request for additional information is made within 10 days of 
the filing of the notice by the carrier;
    (C) The carrier submits the additional information to the Federal 
agency within 15 days of the request by such agency; and
    (D) Any slot to be transferred has not become subject to withdrawal 
under any other provision of this Sec. 93.227.
    (e) Persons having slots withdrawn pursuant to paragraph (a) of this 
section must cease all use of those slots upon receipt of notice from 
the FAA.
    (f) Persons holding slots but not using them pursuant to the 
provisions of paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) may lease those slots for use 
by others. A slot obtained in a lottery may not be leased after the 
expiration of the applicable time period specified in paragraph (b) of 
this section unless it has been operated for a 2-month period at least 
65 percent of the time by the operator which obtained it in the lottery.
    (g) This section does not apply to slots used for the operations 
described in Sec. 93.217(a)(1) except that a U.S. air carrier or 
commuter operator required to file a report under paragraph (i) of this 
section shall include all slots operated at the airport, including slots 
described in Sec. 93.217(a)(1).
    (h) Within 30 days after an operator files for protection under the 
Federal bankruptcy laws, the FAA shall recall any slots of that 
operator, if--(1) the slots were formerly used for essential air service 
and (2) the Office of the Secretary of Transportation determines those 
slots are required to provide substitute essential air service to or 
from the same points.
    (i) Every air carrier and commuter operator or other person holding 
a slot at a high density airport shall, within 14 days after the last 
day of the 2-month period beginning January 1, 1986, and every 2 months 
thereafter, forward, in writing, to the address identified in Sec. 
93.221(a)(1), a list of all slots held by the air carrier, commuter 
operator or other person along with a listing of which air carrier or 
commuter operator actually operated the slot for each day of the 2-month 
period. The report shall identify the flight number for which the slot 
was used and the equipment used, and shall identify the flight as an 
arrival or departure. The report shall identify any common ownership or 
control of, by, or with any other carrier as defined in Sec. 93.213(c) 
of this subpart. The report shall be signed by a senior official of the 
air carrier or commuter operator. If the slot is held by an ``other 
person,'' the report must be signed by an official representative.
    (j) The Chief Counsel of the FAA may waive the requirements of 
paragraph (a) of this section in the event of a highly unusual and 
unpredictable condition which is beyond the control of the slot-holder 
and which exists for a period of 9 or more days. Examples of conditions 
which could justify waiver under this paragraph are weather conditions 
which result in the restricted operation of an airport for an extended 
period of time or the grounding of an aircraft type.
    (k) The Chief Counsel of the FAA may, upon request, grant a waiver 
from the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section for a slot used 
for the domestic segment of an intercontinental all-cargo flight. To 
qualify for a waiver, a carrier must operate the slot a substantial 
percentage of the time and must return the slot to the FAA in advance 
for the time periods it will not be used.
    (l) The FAA will treat as used any slot held by a carrier at a High 
Density

[[Page 860]]

Traffic Airport on Thanksgiving Day, the Friday following Thanksgiving 
Day, and the period from December 24 through the first Saturday in 
January.

[Doc. No. 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 
51 FR 21718, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37315, Aug. 18, 1992; 
Amdt. 93-71, 59 FR 58771, Nov. 15, 1994]



    Subpart T_Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport Traffic Rules

    Source: Docket No. 25143, 51 FR 43587, Dec. 3, 1986; Amdt. 93-82, 68 
FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003, unless otherwise noted.



Sec. 93.251  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes rules applicable to the operation of 
aircraft to or from Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport.



Sec. 93.253  Nonstop operations.

    No person may operate an aircraft nonstop in air transportation 
between Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport and another airport 
that is more than 1,250 miles away from Ronald Reagan Washington 
National Airport.



Subpart U_Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of Grand Canyon National 
                                Park, AZ

    Source: By Docket No. 28537, 61 FR 69330, Dec. 31, 1996, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 93.301  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes special operating rules for all persons 
operating aircraft in the following airspace, designated as the Grand 
Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area: That airspace extending 
from the surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL within an area 
bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 35[deg]55[min]12[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]04[min]05[sec] W.; east to Lat. 35[deg]55[min]30[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]45[min]00[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]59[min]02[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]36[min]03[sec] W.; north to Lat. 36[deg]15[min]30[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]36[min]06[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]24[min]49[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]47[min]45[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]52[min]23[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]33[min]10[sec] W.; west-northwest to Lat. 36[deg]53[min]37[sec] 
N., Long. 111[deg]38[min]29[sec] W.; southwest to Lat. 
36[deg]35[min]02[sec] N., Long. 111[deg]53[min]28[sec] W.; to Lat. 
36[deg]21[min]30[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]00[min]03[sec] W.; west-
northwest to Lat. 36[deg]30[min]30[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]35[min]59[sec] 
W.; southwest to Lat. 36[deg]24[min]46[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]51[min]10[sec] W., thence west along the boundary of Grand 
Canyon National Park (GCNP) to Lat. 36[deg]14[min]08[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]10[min]07[sec] W.; west-southwest to Lat. 36[deg]09[min]30[sec] 
N., Long. 114[deg]03[min]03[sec] W.; southeast to Lat. 
36[deg]05[min]11[sec] N., Long. 113[deg]58[min]46[sec] W.; thence south 
along the boundary of GCNP to Lat. 35[deg]58[min]23[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]54[min]14[sec] W.; north to Lat. 36[deg]00[min]10[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]53[min]48[sec] W.; northeast to Lat. 36[deg]02[min]14[sec] N., 
Long. 113[deg]50[min]16[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]02[min]17[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]53[min]48[sec] W.; northeast to Lat. 36[deg]02[min]14[sec] N., 
Long. 113[deg]50[min]16[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]02[min]17[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]49[min]11[sec] W.; southeast to Lat. 36[deg]01[min]22[sec] N., 
Long. 113[deg]48[min]21[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]59[min]15[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]47[min]13[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]57[min]51[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]46[min]01[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]57[min]45[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]45[min]23[sec] W.; southwest to Lat. 35[deg]54[min]48[sec] N., 
Long. 113[deg]50[min]24[sec] W.; southeast to Lat. 35[deg]41[min]01[sec] 
N., Long. 113[deg]35[min]27[sec] W.; thence clockwise via the 4.2-
nautical mile radius of the Peach Springs VORTAC to Lat. 
36[deg]38[min]53[sec] N., Long. 113[deg]27[min]49[sec] W.; northeast to 
Lat. 35[deg]42[min]58[sec] N., Long. 113[deg]10[min]57[sec] W.; north to 
Lat. 35[deg]57[min]51[sec] N., Long. 113[deg]11[min]06[sec] W.; east to 
Lat. 35[deg]57[min]44[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]14[min]04[sec] W.; thence 
clockwise via the 4.3-nautical mile radius of the Grand Canyon National 
Park Airport reference point (Lat. 35[deg]57[min]08[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]08[min]49[sec] W.) to the point of origin.

[Doc. No. 5926, 65 FR 17742, Apr. 4, 2000]



Sec. 93.303  Definitions.

    For the purposes of this subpart:
    Allocation means authorization to conduct a commercial air tour in 
the Grand Canyon National Park (GCNP) Special Flight Rules Area (SFRA).
    Commercial air tour means any flight conducted for compensation or 
hire in a powered aircraft where a purpose of the flight is sightseeing. 
If the operator of a flight asserts that the flight is not a commercial 
air tour, factors that can be considered by the Administrator in making 
a determination of whether the flight is a commercial air tour include, 
but are not limited to--
    (1) Whether there was a holding out to the public of willingness to 
conduct a sightseeing flight for compensation or hire;

[[Page 861]]

    (2) Whether a narrative was provided that referred to areas or 
points of interest on the surface;
    (3) The area of operation;
    (4) The frequency of flights;
    (5) The route of flight;
    (6) The inclusion of sightseeing flights as part of any travel 
arrangement package; or
    (7) Whether the flight in question would or would not have been 
canceled based on poor visibility of the surface.
    Commercial Special Flight Rules Area Operation means any portion of 
any flight within the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules 
Area that is conducted by a certificate holder that has operations 
specifications authorizing flights within the Grand Canyon National Park 
Special Flight Rules Area. This term does not include operations 
conducted under an FAA Form 7711-1, Certificate of Waiver or 
Authorization. For more information on commercial special flight rules 
area operations, see ``Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules 
Area (GCNP SFRA) Procedures Manual,'' which is available online or from 
the responsible Flight Standards Office.
    GCNP quiet aircraft technology designation means an aircraft that is 
subject to Sec. 93.301 and has been shown to comply with the noise 
limit specified in appendix A of this part.
    Number of passenger seats means the number of passenger seats for 
which an individual aircraft is configured.
    Park means Grand Canyon National Park.
    Special Flight Rules Area means the Grand Canyon National Park 
Special Flight Rules Area.

[65 FR 17732, Apr. 4, 2000, as amended at 70 FR 16092, Mar. 29, 2005; 
Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48212, Sept. 24, 2018]



Sec. 93.305  Flight-free zones and flight corridors.

    Except in an emergency or if otherwise necessary for safety of 
flight, or unless otherwise authorized by the responsible Flight 
Standards Office for a purpose listed in Sec. 93.309, no person may 
operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area within the 
following flight-free zones:
    (a) Desert View Flight-free Zone. That airspace extending from the 
surface up to but not including 14,500 feet MSL within an area bounded 
by a line beginning at Lat. 35[deg]59[min]58[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]52[min]47[sec] W.; thence east to Lat. 36[deg]00[min]00[sec] N., 
Long. 111[deg]51[min]04[sec] W.; thence north to 36[deg]00[min]24[sec] 
N., Long. 111[deg]51[min]04[sec] W.; thence east to 
36[deg]00[min]24[sec] N., Long. 111[deg]45[min]44[sec] W.; thence north 
along the GCNP boundary to Lat. 36[deg]14[min]05[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]48[min]34[sec] W.; thence southwest to Lat. 
36[deg]12[min]06[sec] N., Long. 111[deg]51[min]14[sec] W.; to the point 
of origin; but not including the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL 
within 1 nautical mile of the western boundary of the zone. The corridor 
to the west between the Desert View and Bright Angel Flight-free Zones, 
is designated the ``Zuni Point Corridor.'' This corridor is 2 nautical 
miles wide for commercial air tour flights and 4 nautical miles wide for 
transient and general aviation operations.
    (b) Bright Angel Flight-free Zone. That airspace extending from the 
surface up to but not including 14,500 feet MSL within an area bounded 
by a line beginning at Lat. 35[deg]58[min]39[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]55[min]43[sec] W.; north to Lat. 36[deg]12[min]41[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]53[min]54[sec] W.; northwest to Lat. 36[deg]18[min]18[sec] N., 
Long. 111[deg]58[min]15[sec] W.; thence west along the GCNP boundary to 
Lat. 36[deg]20[min]11[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]06[min]25[sec] W.; south-
southwest to Lat. 36[deg]09[min]31[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]11[min]15[sec] 
W.; to Lat. 36[deg]04[min]16[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]17[min]20[sec] W.; 
thence southeast along the GCNP boundary to Lat. 36[deg]01[min]54[sec] 
N., Long. 112[deg]11[min]24[sec] W.; thence clockwise via the 4.3-
nautical mile radius of the Grand Canyon National Park Airport reference 
point (Lat. 35[deg]57[min]08[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]08[min]49[sec] W.) 
to Lat. 35[deg]59[min]37[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]04[min]29[sec] W.; 
thence east along the GCNP boundary to the point of origin; but not 
including the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 1 nautical 
mile of the eastern boundary or the airspace at and above 10,500 feet 
MSL within 2 nautical miles of the northwestern boundary. The corridor 
to the east, between this flight-free zone and the Desert View Flight-
free Zone, is designated the ``Zuni Point Corridor.'' The corridor to 
the west, between the Bright Angel and Toroweap/Shinumo Flight-free 
Zones, is designated the ``Dragon Corridor.'' This corridor is 2 
nautical miles wide for commercial air tour flights and 4 nautical miles 
wide

[[Page 862]]

for transient and general aviation operations. The Bright Angel Flight-
free Zone does not include the following airspace designated as the 
Bright Angel Corridor: That airspace one-half nautical mile on either 
side of a line extending from Lat. 36[deg]14[min]57[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]08[min]45[sec] W. and Lat. 36[deg]15[min]01[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]55[min]39[sec] W.
    (c) Toroweap/Shinumo Flight-free Zone. That airspace extending from 
the surface up to but not including 14,500 feet MSL within an area 
bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 36[deg]05[min]44[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]19[min]27[sec] W.; north-northeast to Lat. 36[deg]10[min]49[sec] 
N., Long. 112[deg]13[min]19[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]21[min]02[sec] N., 
Long. 112[deg]08[min]47[sec] W.; thence west and south along the GCNP 
boundary to Lat 36[deg]10[min]58[sec] N., Long. 113[deg]08[min]35[sec] 
W.; south to Lat. 36[deg]10[min]12[sec] N., Long. 113[deg]08[min]34[sec] 
W.; thence in an easterly direction along the park boundary to the point 
of origin; but not including the following airspace designated as the 
``Tuckup Corridor'': at or above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 nautical miles 
either side of a line extending between Lat. 36[deg]24[min]42[sec] N., 
Long. 112[deg]48[min]47[sec] W. and Lat. 36[deg]14[min]17[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]48[min]31[sec] W. The airspace designated as the ``Fossil Canyon 
Corridor'' is also excluded from the Toroweap/Shinumo Flight-free Zone 
at or above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 nautical miles either side of a 
line extending between Lat. 36[deg]16[min]26[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]34[min]35[sec] W. and Lat. 36[deg]22[min]51[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]18[min]18[sec] W. The Fossil Canyon Corridor is to be used for 
transient and general aviation operations only.
    (d) Sanup Flight-free Zone. That airspace extending from the surface 
up to but not including 8,000 feet MSL within an area bounded by a line 
beginning at Lat. 35[deg]59[min]32[sec] N., Long. 113[deg]20[min]28[sec] 
W.; west to Lat. 36[deg]00[min]55[sec] N., Long. 113[deg]42[min]09[sec] 
W.; southeast to Lat. 35[deg]59[min]57[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]41[min]09[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]59[min]09[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]40[min]53[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]58[min]45[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]40[min]15[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]57[min]52[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]39[min]34[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]56[min]44[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]39[min]07[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]56[min]04[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]39[min]20[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]55[min]02[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]40[min]43[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]54[min]47[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]40[min]51[sec] W.; southeast to Lat. 35[deg]50[min]16[sec] N., 
Long. 113[deg]37[min]13[sec] W.; thence along the park boundary to the 
point of origin.

[Doc. No. 28537, 61 FR 69330, Dec. 31, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 93-80, 
65 FR 17742, Apr. 4, 2000; Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48212, Sept. 24, 2018]



Sec. 93.307  Minimum flight altitudes.

    Except in an emergency, or if otherwise necessary for safety of 
flight, or unless otherwise authorized by the responsible Flight 
Standards Office for a purpose listed in Sec. 93.309, no person may 
operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area at an altitude 
lower than the following:
    (a) Minimum sector altitudes--(1) Commercial air tours--(i) Marble 
Canyon Sector. Lees Ferry to Boundary Ridge: 6,000 feet MSL.
    (ii) Supai Sector. Boundary Ridge to Supai Point: 7,500 feet MSL.
    (iii) Diamond Creek Sector. Supai Point to Diamond Creek: 6,500 feet 
MSL.
    (iv) Pearce Ferry Sector. Diamond Creek to the Grand Wash Cliffs: 
5,000 feet MSL.
    (2) Transient and general aviation operations--(i) Marble Canyon 
Sector. Lees Ferry to Boundary Ridge: 8,000 feet MSL.
    (ii) Supai Sector. Boundary Ridge to Supai Point: 10,000 feet MSL.
    (iii) Diamond Creek Sector. Supai Point to Diamond Creek: 9,000 feet 
MSL.
    (iv) Pearce Ferry Sector. Diamond Creek to the Grand Wash Cliffs: 
8,000 feet MSL.
    (b) Minimum corridor altitudes--(1) Commercial air tours--(i) Zuni 
Point Corridors. 7,500 feet MSL.
    (ii) Dragon Corridor. 7,500 feet MSL.
    (2) Transient and general aviation operations--(i) Zuni Point 
Corridor. 10,500 feet MSL.
    (ii) Dragon Corridor. 10,500 feet MSL.
    (iii) Tuckup Corridor. 10,500 feet MSL.
    (iv) Fossil Canyon Corridor. 10,500 feet

[Doc. No. 28537, 61 FR 69330, Dec. 31, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 93-80, 
65 FR 17742, 17743, Apr. 4, 2000; Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48212, Sept. 24, 
2018]



Sec. 93.309  General operating procedures.

    Except in an emergency, no person may operate an aircraft in the 
Special Flight Rules Area unless the operation is conducted in 
accordance with the following procedures. (Note: The following 
procedures do not relieve the pilot from see-and-avoid responsibility or 
compliance with the minimum safe

[[Page 863]]

altitude requirements specified in Sec. 91.119 of this chapter.):
    (a) Unless necessary to maintain a safe distance from other aircraft 
or terrain remain clear of the flight-free zones described in Sec. 
93.305;
    (b) Unless necessary to maintain a safe distance from other aircraft 
or terrain, proceed through the Zuni Point, Dragon, Tuckup, and Fossil 
Canyon Flight Corridors described in Sec. 93.305 at the following 
altitudes unless otherwise authorized in writing by the responsible 
Flight Standards Office:
    (1) Northbound. 11,500 or 13,500 feet MSL.
    (2) Southbound. 10,500 or 12,500 feet MSL.
    (c) For operation in the flight-free zones described in Sec. 
93.305, or flight below the altitudes listed in Sec. 93.307, is 
authorized in writing by the responsible Flight Standards Office and is 
conducted in compliance with the conditions contained in that 
authorization. Normally authorization will be granted for operation in 
the areas described in Sec. 93.305 or below the altitudes listed in 
Sec. 93.307 only for operations of aircraft necessary for law 
enforcement, firefighting, emergency medical treatment/evacuation of 
persons in the vicinity of the Park; for support of Park maintenance or 
activities; or for aerial access to and maintenance of other property 
located within the Special Flight Rules Area. Authorization may be 
issued on a continuing basis;
    (d) Is conducted in accordance with a specific authorization to 
operate in that airspace incorporated in the operator's operations 
specifications and approved by the responsible Flight Standards Office 
in accordance with the provisions of this subpart;
    (e) Is a search and rescue mission directed by the U.S. Air Force 
Rescue Coordination Center;
    (f) Is conducted within 3 nautical miles of Grand Canyon Bar Ten 
Airstrip, Pearce Ferry Airstrip, Cliff Dwellers Airstrip, Marble Canyon 
Airstrip, or Tuweep Airstrip at an altitude less than 3,000 feet above 
airport elevation, for the purpose of landing at or taking off from that 
facility; or
    (g) Is conducted under an instrument flight rules (IFR) clearance 
and the pilot is acting in accordance with ATC instructions. An IFR 
flight plan may not be filed on a route or at an altitude that would 
require operation in an area described in Sec. 93.305.

[Doc. No. 28537, 61 FR 69330, Dec. 31, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 93-80, 
65 FR 17742, 17743, Apr. 4, 2000; Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48212, Sept. 24, 
2018]



Sec. 93.311  Minimum terrain clearance.

    Except in an emergency, when necessary for takeoff or landing, or 
unless otherwise authorized by the responsible Flight Standards Office 
for a purpose listed in Sec. 93.309(c), no person may operate an 
aircraft within 500 feet of any terrain or structure located between the 
north and south rims of the Grand Canyon.

[Docket No. FAA-2018-0851, Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48212, Sept. 24, 2018]



Sec. 93.313  Communications.

    Except when in contact with the Grand Canyon National Park Airport 
Traffic Control Tower during arrival or departure or on a search and 
rescue mission directed by the U.S. Air Force Rescue Coordination 
Center, no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules 
Area unless he monitors the appropriate frequency continuously while in 
that airspace.



Sec. 93.315  Requirements for commercial Special Flight Rules Area operations.

    Each person conducting commercial Special Flight Rules Area 
operations must be certificated in accordance with Part 119 for Part 135 
or 121 operations and hold appropriate Grand Canyon National Park 
Special Flight Rules Area operations specifications.

[65 FR 17732, Apr. 4, 2000]



Sec. 93.316  [Reserved]



Sec. 93.317  Commercial Special Flight Rules Area operation curfew.

    Unless otherwise authorized by the responsible Flight Standards 
Office, no person may conduct a commercial Special Flight Rules Area 
operation in the Dragon and Zuni Point corridors during the following 
flight-free periods:
    (a) Summer season (May 1-September 30)-6 p.m. to 8 a.m. daily; and

[[Page 864]]

    (b) Winter season (October 1-April 30)-5 p.m. to 9 a.m. daily.

[65 FR 17732, Apr. 4, 2000, as amended by Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48213, 
Sept. 24, 2018]



Sec. 93.319  Commercial air tour limitations.

    (a) Unless excepted under paragraph (f) or (g) of this section, no 
certificate holder certificated in accordance with part 119 for part 121 
or 135 operations may conduct more commercial air tours in the Grand 
Canyon National Park in any calendar year than the number of allocations 
specified on the certificate holder's operations specifications.
    (b) The Administrator determines the number of initial allocations 
for each certificate holder based on the total number of commercial air 
tours conducted by the certificate holder and reported to the FAA during 
the period beginning on May 1, 1997 and ending on April 30, 1998, unless 
excepted under paragraph (g).
    (c) Certificate holders who conducted commercial air tours during 
the base year and reported them to the FAA receive an initial 
allocation.
    (d) A certificate holder must use one allocation for each flight 
that is a commercial air tour, unless excepted under paragraph (f) or 
(g) of this section.
    (e) Each certificate holder's operation specifications will identify 
the following information, as applicable:
    (1) Total SFRA allocations; and
    (2) Dragon corridor and Zuni Point corridor allocations.
    (f) Certificate holders satisfying the requirements of Sec. 93.315 
of this subpart are not required to use a commercial air tour allocation 
for each commercial air tour flight in the GCNP SFRA provided the 
following conditions are satisfied:
    (1) The certificate holder conducts its operations in conformance 
with the routes and airspace authorizations as specified in its Grand 
Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area operations 
specifications;
    (2) The certificate holder must have executed a written contract 
with the Hualapai Indian Nation which grants the certificate holder a 
trespass permit and specifies the maximum number of flights to be 
permitted to land at Grand Canyon West Airport and at other sites 
located in the vicinity of that airport and operates in compliance with 
that contract; and
    (3) The certificate holder must have a valid operations 
specification that authorizes the certificate holder to conduct the 
operations specified in the contract with the Hualapai Indian Nation and 
specifically approves the number of operations that may transit the 
Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area under this 
exception.
    (g) Certificate holders conducting commercial air tours at or above 
14,500 feet MSL but below 18,000 feet MSL who did not receive initial 
allocations in 1999 because they were not required to report during the 
base year may operate without an allocation when conducting air tours at 
those altitudes. Certificate holders conducting commercial air tours in 
the area affected by the eastward shift of the SFRA who did not receive 
initial allocations in 1999 because they were not required to report 
during the base year may continue to operate on the specified routes 
without an allocation in the area bounded by longitude line 111 degrees 
42 minutes east and longitude line 111 degrees 36 minutes east. This 
exception does not include operation in the Zuni Point corridor.

[65 FR 17732, Apr. 4, 2000]



Sec. 93.321  Transfer and termination of allocations.

    (a) Allocations are not a property interest; they are an operating 
privilege subject to absolute FAA control.
    (b) Allocations are subject to the following conditions:
    (1) The Administrator will re-authorize and re-distribute 
allocations no earlier than two years from the effective date of this 
rule.
    (2) Allocations that are held by the FAA at the time of reallocation 
may be distributed among remaining certificate holders, proportionate to 
the size of each certificate holder's allocation.
    (3) The aggregate SFRA allocations will not exceed the number of 
operations reported to the FAA for the base year beginning on May 1, 
1997 and ending on April 30, 1998, except as adjusted to incorporate 
operations occurring for

[[Page 865]]

the base year of April 1, 2000 and ending on March 31, 2001, that 
operate at or above 14,500 feet MSL and below 18,000 feet MSL and 
operations in the area affected by the eastward shift of the SFRA 
bounded by longitude line 111 degrees 42 minutes east to longitude 111 
degrees 36 minutes east.
    (4) Allocations may be transferred among Part 135 or Part 121 
certificate holders, subject to all of the following:
    (i) Such transactions are subject to all other applicable 
requirements of this chapter.
    (ii) Allocations authorizing commercial air tours outside the Dragon 
and Zuni Point corridors may not be transferred into the Dragon and Zuni 
Point corridors. Allocations authorizing commercial air tours within the 
Dragon and Zuni Point corridors may be transferred outside of the Dragon 
and Zuni Point corridors.
    (iii) A certificate holder must notify in writing the responsible 
Flight Standards Office within 10 calendar days of a transfer of 
allocations. This notification must identify the parties involved, the 
type of transfer (permanent or temporary) and the number of allocations 
transferred. Permanent transfers are not effective until the responsible 
Flight Standards Office reissues the operations specifications 
reflecting the transfer. Temporary transfers are effective upon 
notification.
    (5) An allocation will revert to the FAA upon voluntary cessation of 
commercial air tours within the SFRA for any consecutive 180-day period 
unless the certificate holder notifies the FSDO in writing, prior to the 
expiration of the 180-day time period, of the following: the reason why 
the certificate holder has not conducted any commercial air tours during 
the consecutive 180-day period; and the date the certificate holder 
intends on resuming commercial air tours operations. The FSDO will 
notify the certificate holder of any extension to the consecutive 180-
days. A certificate holder may be granted one extension.
    (6) The FAA retains the right to re-distribute, reduce, or revoke 
allocations based on:
    (i) Efficiency of airspace;
    (ii) Voluntary surrender of allocations;
    (iii) Involuntary cessation of operations; and
    (iv) Aviation safety.

[65 FR 17733, Apr. 4, 2000 as amended by Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48213, 
Sept. 24, 2018]



Sec. 93.323  [Reserved



Sec. 93.325  Quarterly reporting.

    (a) Each certificate holder must submit in writing, within 30 days 
of the end of each calendar quarter, the total number of commercial SFRA 
operations conducted for that quarter. Quarterly reports must be filed 
with the responsible Flight Standards Office.
    (b) Each quarterly report must contain the following information.
    (1) Make and model of aircraft;
    (2) Identification number (registration number) for each aircraft;
    (3) Departure airport for each segment flown;
    (4) Departure date and actual Universal Coordinated Time, as 
applicable for each segment flown;
    (5) Type of operation; and
    (6) Route(s) flown.

[65 FR 17733, Apr. 4, 2000 as amended by Amdt. 93-102, 83 FR 48213, 
Sept. 24, 2018]

[[Page 866]]



   Sec. Appendix to Subpart U of Part 93--Special Flight Rules in the 
             Vicinity of the Grand Canyon National Park, AZ
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.001



Sec. Appendix A to Subpart U of Part 93--GCNP Quiet Aircraft Technology 
                               Designation

    This appendix contains procedures for determining the GCNP quiet 
aircraft technology designation status for each aircraft subject to 
Sec. 93.301 determined during the noise certification process as 
prescribed under part 36 of this chapter. Where no certificated noise 
level is available, the Administrator may approve an alternative 
measurement procedure.
    Aircraft Noise Limit for GCNP Quiet Aircraft Technology Designation

[[Page 867]]

    A. For helicopters with a flyover noise level obtained in accordance 
with the measurement procedures prescribed in Appendix H of 14 CFR part 
36, the limit is 80 dB for helicopters having a seating configuration of 
two or fewer passenger seats, increasing at 3 dB per doubling of the 
number of passenger seats for helicopters having a seating configuration 
of three or more passenger seats. The noise limit for helicopters with 
three or more passenger seats can be calculated by the formula:

EPNL(H) = 80 + 10log( PAX seats/2) dB

    B. For helicopters with a flyover noise level obtained in accordance 
with the measurement procedures prescribed in Appendix J of 14 CFR part 
36, the limit is 77 dB for helicopters having a seating configuration of 
two or fewer passenger seats, increasing at 3 dB per doubling of the 
number of passenger seats for helicopters having a seating configuration 
of three or more passenger seats. The noise limit for helicopters with 
three or more passenger seats can be calculated by the formula:

SEL(J) = 77 + 10log( PAX seats/2) dB

    C. For propeller-driven airplanes with a measured flyover noise 
level obtained in accordance with the measurement procedures prescribed 
in Appendix F of 14 CFR part 36 without the performance correction 
defined in Sec. F35.201(c), the limit is 69 dB for airplanes having a 
seating configuration of two or fewer passenger seats, increasing at 3 
dB per doubling of the number of passenger seats for airplanes having a 
seating configuration of three or more passenger seats. The noise limit 
for propeller-driven airplanes with three or more passenger seats can be 
calculated by the formula:

LAmax(F) = 69 + 10log( PAX seats/2) dB

    D. In the event that a flyover noise level is not available in 
accordance with Appendix F of 14 CFR part 36, the noise limit for 
propeller-driven airplanes with a takeoff noise level obtained in 
accordance with the measurement procedures prescribed in Appendix G is 
74 dB or 77 dB, depending on 14 CFR part 36 amendment level, for 
airplanes having a seating configuration of two or fewer passenger 
seats, increasing at 3 dB per doubling of the number of passenger seats 
for airplanes having a seating configuration of three or more passenger 
seats. The noise limit for propeller-driven airplanes with three or more 
passenger seats can be calculated by the formula:

LAmax(G) = 74 + 10log( PAX seats/2) dB for certifications obtained 
          under 14 CFR part 36, Amendment 21 or earlier;

LAmax(G) = 77 + 10log( PAX seats/2) dB for certifications obtained 
          under 14 CFR part 36, Amendment 22 or later.

[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14715, 70 FR 16092, Mar. 29, 2005]



  Subpart V_Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area

    Source: Docket No. FAA-2004-17005, 73 FR 76213, Dec. 16, 2008, 
unless otherwise noted.



Sec. 93.331  Purpose and applicability of this subpart.

    This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft 
operating in the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area. Because 
identification and control of aircraft is required for reasons of 
national security, the areas described in this subpart constitute 
national defense airspace. The purpose of establishing this area is to 
facilitate the tracking of, and communication with, aircraft to deter 
persons who would use an aircraft as a weapon, or as a means of 
delivering weapons, to conduct an attack on persons, property, or 
buildings in the area. This subpart applies to pilots conducting any 
type of flight operations in the airspace designated as the Washington, 
DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area (DC SFRA) (as defined in 
Sec. 93.335), which includes the airspace designated as the Washington, 
DC Metropolitan Area Flight Restricted Zone (DC FRZ) (as defined in 
Sec. 93.335).



Sec. 93.333  Failure to comply with this subpart.

    (a) Any violation. The FAA may take civil enforcement action against 
a pilot for violations, whether inadvertent or intentional, including 
imposition of civil penalties and suspension or revocation of airmen's 
certificates.
    (b) Knowing or willful violations. The DC FRZ and DC SFRA were 
established for reasons of national security under the provisions of 49 
U.S.C. 40103(b)(3). Areas established by the FAA under that authority 
constitute ``national defense airspace'' as that term is used in 49 
U.S.C. 46307. In addition to being subject to the provisions of 
paragraph

[[Page 868]]

(a) of this section, persons who knowingly or willfully violate national 
defense airspace established pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 40103(b)(3) may be 
subject to criminal prosecution.



Sec. 93.335  Definitions.

    For purposes of this subpart--
    DC FRZ flight plan is a flight plan filed for the sole purpose of 
complying with the requirements for VFR operations into, out of, and 
through the DC FRZ. This flight plan is separate and distinct from a 
standard VFR flight plan, and does not include search and rescue 
services.
    DC SFRA flight plan is a flight plan filed for the sole purpose of 
complying with the requirements for VFR operations into, out of, and 
through the DC SFRA. This flight plan is separate and distinct from a 
standard VFR flight plan, and does not include search and rescue 
services.
    Fringe airports are the following airports located near the outer 
boundary of the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules 
Area: Barnes (MD47), Flying M Farms (MD77), Mountain Road (MD43), 
Robinson (MD14), and Skyview (51VA).
    Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Flight Restricted Zone (DC FRZ) is 
an area bounded by a line beginning at the Washington VOR/DME (DCA) 
311[deg] radial at 15 nautical miles (NM) (Lat. 38[deg]59[min]31[sec] 
N., Long. 077[deg]18[min]30[sec] W.); then clockwise along the DCA 15 
nautical mile arc to the DCA 002[deg] radial at 15 NM (Lat. 
39[deg]06[min]28[sec] N., Long 077[deg]04[min]32[sec] W.); then 
southeast via a line drawn to the DCA 049[deg] radial at 14 NM (Lat. 
39[deg]02[min]18[sec] N., Long. 076[deg]50[min]38[sec] W.); thence south 
via a line drawn to the DCA 064[deg] radial at 13 NM (Lat. 
38[deg]59[min]01[sec] N., Long. 076[deg]48[min]32[sec] W.); thence 
clockwise along the 13 NM arc to the DCA 276[deg] radial at 13 NM 
(Lat.38[deg]50[min]53[sec] N., Long 077[deg]18[min]48[sec] W.); thence 
north to the point of beginning, excluding the airspace within a one 
nautical mile radius of the Freeway Airport, W00, Mitchellville, MD from 
the surface up to but not including flight level (FL) 180. The DC FRZ is 
within and part of the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area SFRA.
    Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area (DC SFRA) 
is an area of airspace over the surface of the earth where the ready 
identification, location, and control of aircraft is required in the 
interests of national security. Specifically, the DC SFRA is that 
airspace, from the surface to, but not including, FL 180, within a 30-
mile radius of Lat. 38[deg]51[min]34[sec] N., Long. 
077[deg]02[min]11[sec] W., or the DCA VOR/DME. The DC SFRA includes the 
DC FRZ.

[Doc. No. FAA-2004-17005, 73 FR 76213, Dec. 16, 2008; Amdt. 93-91, 73 FR 
79314, Dec. 29, 2008]



Sec. 93.337  Requirements for operating in the DC SFRA.

    A pilot conducting any type of flight operation in the DC SFRA must 
comply with the restrictions listed in this subpart and all special 
instructions issued by the FAA in the interest of national security. 
Those special instructions may be issued in any manner the FAA considers 
appropriate, including a NOTAM. Additionally, a pilot must comply with 
all of the applicable requirements of this chapter.



Sec. 93.339  Requirements for operating in the DC SFRA, including the DC FRZ.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and 
in Sec. 93.345, or unless authorized by Air Traffic Control, no pilot 
may operate an aircraft, including an ultralight vehicle or any civil 
aircraft or public aircraft, in the DC SFRA, including the DC FRZ, 
unless--
    (1) The aircraft is equipped with an operable two-way radio capable 
of communicating with Air Traffic Control on appropriate radio 
frequencies;
    (2) Before operating an aircraft in the DC SFRA, including the DC 
FRZ, the pilot establishes two-way radio communications with the 
appropriate Air Traffic Control facility and maintains such 
communications while operating the aircraft in the DC SFRA, including 
the DC FRZ;
    (3) The aircraft is equipped with an operating automatic altitude 
reporting transponder;
    (4) Before operating an aircraft in the DC SFRA, including the DC 
FRZ, the pilot obtains and transmits a discrete transponder code from 
Air Traffic Control, and the aircraft's transponder continues to 
transmit the assigned

[[Page 869]]

code while operating within the DC SFRA;
    (5) For VFR operations, the pilot must file and activate a DC FRZ or 
DC SFRA flight plan by obtaining a discrete transponder code. The flight 
plan is closed upon landing at an airport within the DC SFRA or when the 
aircraft exits the DC SFRA;
    (6) Before operating the aircraft into, out of, or through the 
Washington, DC Tri-Area Class B Airspace Area, the pilot receives a 
specific Air Traffic Control clearance to operate in the Class B 
airspace area; and
    (7) Before operating the aircraft into, out of, or through Class D 
airspace area that is within the DC SFRA, the pilot complies with Sec. 
91.129 of this chapter.
    (b) Paragraph (a)(5) of this section does not apply to operators of 
Department of Defense aircraft, law enforcement operations, or lifeguard 
or air ambulance operations under an FAA/TSA airspace authorization, if 
the flight crew is in contact with Air Traffic Control and is 
transmitting an Air Traffic Control-assigned discrete transponder code.
    (c) When operating an aircraft in the VFR traffic pattern at an 
airport within the DC SFRA (but not within the DC FRZ) that does not 
have an airport traffic control tower, a pilot must--
    (1) File a DC SFRA flight plan for traffic pattern work;
    (2) Communicate traffic pattern position via the published Common 
Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF);
    (3) Monitor VHF frequency 121.5 or UHF frequency 243.0, if the 
aircraft is suitably equipped;
    (4) Obtain and transmit the Air Traffic Control-assigned discrete 
transponder code; and
    (5) When exiting the VFR traffic pattern, comply with paragraphs 
(a)(1) through (a)(7) of this section.
    (d) When operating an aircraft in the VFR traffic pattern at an 
airport within the DC SFRA (but not within the DC FRZ) that has an 
operating airport traffic control tower, a pilot must--
    (1) Before departure or before entering the traffic pattern, request 
to remain in the traffic pattern;
    (2) Remain in two-way radio communications with the tower. If the 
aircraft is suitably equipped, the pilot must also monitor VHF frequency 
121.5 or UHF frequency 243.0;
    (3) Continuously operate the aircraft transponder on code 1234 
unless Air Traffic Control assigns a different code; and
    (4) Before exiting the traffic pattern, comply with paragraphs 
(a)(1) through (a)(7) of this section.
    (e) Pilots must transmit the assigned transponder code. No pilot may 
use transponder code 1200 while in the DC SFRA.



Sec. 93.341  Aircraft operations in the DC FRZ.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no pilot 
may conduct any flight operation under part 91, 101, 103, 105, 125, 133, 
135, or 137 of this chapter in the DC FRZ, unless the specific flight is 
operating under an FAA/TSA authorization.
    (b) Department of Defense (DOD) operations, law enforcement 
operations, and lifeguard or air ambulance operations under an FAA/TSA 
airspace authorization are excepted from the prohibition in paragraph 
(a) of this section if the pilot is in contact with Air Traffic Control 
and operates the aircraft transponder on an Air Traffic Control-assigned 
beacon code.
    (c) The following aircraft operations are permitted in the DC FRZ:
    (1) Aircraft operations under the DCA Access Standard Security 
Program (DASSP) (49 CFR part 1562) with a Transportation Security 
Administration (TSA) flight authorization.
    (2) Law enforcement and other U.S. Federal aircraft operations with 
prior FAA approval.
    (3) Foreign-operated military and state aircraft operations with a 
State Department-authorized diplomatic clearance, with State Department 
notification to the FAA and TSA.
    (4) Federal, State, Federal DOD contract, local government agency 
aircraft operations and part 121, 129 or 135 air carrier flights with 
TSA-approved full aircraft operator standard security programs/
procedures, if operating with DOD permission and notification to the FAA 
and the National Capital Regional Coordination Center (NCRCC). These 
flights may land and depart Andrews

[[Page 870]]

Air Force Base, MD, with prior permission, if required.
    (5) Aircraft operations maintaining radio contact with Air Traffic 
Control and continuously transmitting an Air Traffic Control-assigned 
discrete transponder code. The pilot must monitor VHF frequency 121.5 or 
UHF frequency 243.0.
    (d) Before departing from an airport within the DC FRZ, or before 
entering the DC FRZ, all aircraft, except DOD, law enforcement, and 
lifeguard or air ambulance aircraft operating under an FAA/TSA airspace 
authorization must file and activate an IFR or a DC FRZ flight plan and 
transmit a discrete transponder code assigned by an Air Traffic Control 
facility. Aircraft must transmit the discrete transponder code at all 
times while in the DC FRZ or DC SFRA.

[Docket No. FAA-2004-17005, 73 FR 76213, Dec. 16, 2008, as amended by 
Amdt. No. 93-91A, 83 FR 13411, Mar. 29, 2018]



Sec. 93.343  Requirements for aircraft operations to or from 
College Park Airport, Potomac Airfield, or Washington Executive/
Hyde Field Airport.

    (a) A pilot may not operate an aircraft to or from College Park 
Airport, MD, Potomac Airfield, MD, or Washington Executive/Hyde Field 
Airport, MD unless--
    (1) The aircraft and its crew and passengers comply with security 
rules issued by the TSA in 49 CFR part 1562, subpart A;
    (2) Before departing, the pilot files an IFR or DC FRZ flight plan 
with the Washington Air Route Traffic Control Center for each departure 
and arrival from/to College Park, Potomac Airfield, and Washington 
Executive/Hyde Field airports, whether or not the aircraft makes an 
intermediate stop;
    (3) When filing a flight plan with the Washington Air Route Traffic 
Control Center, the pilot identifies himself or herself by providing the 
assigned pilot identification code. The Washington Air Route Traffic 
Control Center will accept the flight plan only after verifying the 
code; and
    (4) The pilot complies with the applicable IFR or VFR egress 
procedures in paragraph (b), (c) or (d) of this section.
    (b) If using IFR procedures, a pilot must--
    (1) Obtain an Air Traffic Control clearance from the Potomac TRACON; 
and
    (2) Comply with Air Traffic Control departure instructions from 
Washington Executive/Hyde Field, Potomac Airport, or College Park 
Airport. The pilot must then proceed on the Air Traffic Control-assigned 
course and remain clear of the DC FRZ.
    (c) If using VFR egress procedures, a pilot must--
    (1) Depart as instructed by Air Traffic Control and expect a heading 
directly out of the DC FRZ until the pilot establishes two-way radio 
communication with Potomac Approach; and
    (2) Operate as assigned by Air Traffic Control until clear of the DC 
FRZ, the DC SFRA, and the Class B or Class D airspace area.
    (d) If using VFR ingress procedures, the aircraft must remain 
outside the DC SFRA until the pilot establishes communications with Air 
Traffic Control and receives authorization for the aircraft to enter the 
DC SFRA.
    (e) VFR arrivals:
    (1) If landing at College Park Airport a pilot may receive routing 
via the vicinity of Freeway Airport; or
    (2) If landing at Washington Executive/Hyde Field or Potomac 
Airport, the pilot may receive routing via the vicinity of Maryland 
Airport or the Nottingham VORTAC.

[Docket No. FAA-2004-17005, 73 FR 76213, Dec. 16, 2008, as amended by 
Amdt. No. 93-91A, 83 FR 13411, Mar. 29, 2018]



Sec. 93.345  VFR outbound procedures for fringe airports.

    (a) A pilot may depart from a fringe airport as defined in Sec. 
93.335 without filing a flight plan or communicating with Air Traffic 
Control, unless requested, provided:
    (1) The aircraft's transponder transmits code 1205;
    (2) The pilot exits the DC SFRA by the most direct route before 
proceeding on course; and
    (3) The pilot monitors VHF frequency 121.5 or UHF frequency 243.0.
    (b) No pilot may operate an aircraft arriving at a fringe airport or 
transit

[[Page 871]]

the DC SFRA unless that pilot complies with the DC SFRA operating 
procedures in this subpart.



    Subpart W_New York Class B Airspace Hudson River and East River 
                   Exclusion Special Flight Rules Area

    Source: 74 FR 59910, Nov. 19, 2009, unless otherwise noted.



Sec. 93.350  Definitions.

    For the purposes of this subpart only the following definitions 
apply:
    (a) Local operation. Any aircraft within the Hudson River Exclusion 
that is conducting an operation other than as described in paragraph (b) 
of this section. Local operations include but are not limited to 
operations for sightseeing, electronic news gathering, and law 
enforcement.
    (b) Transient operation. Aircraft transiting the entire length of 
the Hudson River Class B Exclusion, as defined in paragraph (d) of this 
section, from one end to the other.
    (c) New York Class B airspace East River Exclusion is that airspace 
below 1,500 feet MSL between the east and west banks of, and overlying, 
the East River beginning at lat. 40[deg]38[min]39[sec] N., long. 
74[deg]02[min]03[sec] W., thence north along a line drawn direct to the 
southwestern tip of Governors Island, thence north along a line direct 
to the southwest tip of Manhattan Island, thence north along the west 
bank of the East River to the LGA VOR/DME 6-mile arc, thence 
counterclockwise along the 6-mile arc to the east bank of the East 
River, thence south along the east bank of the East River to the point 
of beginning at lat. 40[deg]38[min]39[sec] N., long 
74[deg]02[min]03[sec] W.; and that airspace 1,100 feet MSL and below 
between the east and west banks of, and overlying the East River, from 
the LGA VOR/DME 6-mile arc to the north tip of Roosevelt Island.
    (d) New York Class B airspace Hudson River Exclusion is that area 
from the surface up to but not including the overlying floor of the New 
York Class B airspace area, between the east and west banks of, and 
overlying, the Hudson River within the area beginning north of LaGuardia 
Airport on the west bank of the Hudson River at lat. 
40[deg]57[min]45[sec] N., long. 73[deg]54[min]48[sec] W. (near Alpine 
Tower), thence south along the west bank of the Hudson River to 
intersect the Colts Neck VOR/DME 012[deg] radial, thence southwest along 
the Colts Neck 012[deg] radial to the Hudson River shoreline, thence 
south along the shoreline to the Verrazano-Narrows Bridge, thence east 
along the Bridge to the east bank of the Hudson River, thence north 
along the east bank of the Hudson River to lat. 40[deg]38[min]39[sec] 
N., long. 74[deg]02[min]03[sec] W., thence north along a line drawn 
direct to the southwesternmost point of Governors Island, thence north 
along a line drawn direct to the southwest tip of Manhattan Island, 
thence north along the east bank of the Hudson River to the LGA VOR/DME 
11-mile arc, north of LaGuardia Airport, thence counterclockwise along 
the 11-mile arc to lat. 40[deg]57[min]54[sec] N., long. 
73[deg]54[min]23[sec] W., thence to the point of beginning.



Sec. 93.351  General requirements for operating in the East 
River and/or Hudson River Exclusions.

    Pilots must adhere to the following requirements:
    (a) Maintain an indicated airspeed not to exceed 140 knots.
    (b) Anti-collision lights and aircraft position/navigation lights 
shall be on, if equipped. Use of landing lights is recommended.
    (c) Self announce position on the appropriate radio frequency for 
the East River or Hudson River as depicted on the New York VFR Terminal 
Area Chart (TAC) and/or New York Helicopter Route Chart.
    (d) Have a current New York TAC chart and/or New York Helicopter 
Route Chart in the aircraft and be familiar with the information 
contained therein.



Sec. 93.352  Hudson River Exclusion specific operating procedures.

    In addition to the requirements in Sec. 93.351, the following 
procedures apply:
    (a) Pilots must self announce, at the charted mandatory reporting 
points, the following information: aircraft type, current position, 
direction of flight, and altitude.

[[Page 872]]

    (b) Pilots must fly along the west shoreline of the Hudson River 
when southbound, and along the east shoreline of the Hudson River when 
northbound; while remaining within the boundaries of the Hudson River 
Exclusion as defined in Sec. 93.350(d).
    (c) Aircraft transiting the area within the Hudson River Exclusion 
in accordance with Sec. 93.350(b) must transit the Hudson River 
Exclusion at or above an altitude of 1,000 feet MSL up to, but not 
including, the floor of the overlying Class B airspace.



Sec. 93.353  East River Exclusion specific operating procedures.

    No person may operate an airplane in the East River Exclusion 
extending from the southwestern tip of Governors Island to the north tip 
of Roosevelt Island except:
    (a) Seaplanes landing on or taking off from the river; or
    (b) Airplanes authorized by ATC. Pilots must contact LaGuardia 
Airport Traffic Control Tower prior to Governors Island for 
authorization.



PART 95_IFR ALTITUDES--Table of Contents



Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97 [Note]

                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
95.1 Applicability.
95.3 Symbols.

                 Subpart B_Designated Mountainous Areas

95.11 General.
95.13 Eastern United States Mountainous Area.
95.15 Western United States Mountainous Area.
95.17 Alaska Mountainous Area.
95.19 Hawaii Mountainous Area.
95.21 Puerto Rico Mountainous Area.

      Subpart C_En Route IFR Altitudes Over Particular Routes and 
                              Intersections

95.31 General.

                       Subpart D_Changeover Points

95.8001 General.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40103, 40113, and 14 CFR 11.49(b)(2).



             Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97

    Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 97, see part 91 of this 
chapter.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 95.1  Applicability.

    (a) This part prescribes altitudes governing the operation of 
aircraft under IFR on ATS routes, or other direct routes for which an 
MEA is designated in this part. In addition, it designates mountainous 
areas and changeover points.
    (b) The MAA is the highest altitude on an ATS route, or other direct 
route for which an MEA is designated, at which adequate reception of VOR 
signals is assured.
    (c) The MCA applies to the operation of an aircraft proceeding to a 
higher minimum en route altitude when crossing specified fixes.
    (d) The MEA is the minimum en route IFR altitude on an ATS route, 
ATS route segment, or other direct route. The MEA applies to the entire 
width of the ATS route, ATS route segment, or other direct route between 
fixes defining that route. Unless otherwise specified, an MEA prescribed 
for an off airway route or route segment applies to the airspace 4 
nautical miles on each side of a direct course between the navigation 
fixes defining that route or route segment.
    (e) The MOCA assures obstruction clearance on an ATS route, ATS 
route segment, or other direct route, and adequate reception of VOR 
navigation signals within 22 nautical miles of a VOR station used to 
define the route.
    (f) The MRA applies to the operation of an aircraft over an 
intersection defined by ground-based navigation aids. The MRA is the 
lowest altitude at which the intersection can be determined using the 
ground-based navigation aids.
    (g) The changeover point (COP) applies to operation of an aircraft 
along a Federal airway, jet route, or other direct route; for which an 
MEA is designated in this part. It is the point for transfer of the 
airborne navigation reference from the ground-based navigation aid 
behind the aircraft to the next

[[Page 873]]

appropriate ground-based navigation aid to ensure continuous reception 
of signals.

[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14698, 68 FR 16947, Apr. 8, 2003]



Sec. 95.3  Symbols.

    For the purposes of this part--
    (a) COP means changeover point.
    (b) L means compass locator;
    (c) LF/MF means low frequency, medium frequency;
    (d) LFR means low frequency radio range;
    (e) VOR-E means VOR and distance measuring equipment; and
    (f) Z means a very high frequency location marker.

[Doc. No. 1580, 28 FR 6718, June 29, 1963, as amended by Amdt. 95-118, 
29 FR 13166, Sept. 23, 1964]



                 Subpart B_Designated Mountainous Areas



Sec. 95.11  General.

    The areas described in this subpart are designated mountainous 
areas.

[Doc. No. 1580, 28 FR 6718, June 29, 1963]



Sec. 95.13  Eastern United States Mountainous Area.

    All of the following area excluding those portions specified in the 
exceptions.
    (a) Area.

[[Page 874]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.005

    Beginning at latitude 47[deg]10[min] N., longitude 67[deg]55[min] 
W.; thence west and south along the Canadian Border to latitude 
45[deg]00[min] N., longitude 74[deg]15[min] W.; thence to latitude 
44[deg]20[min] N., longitude 75[deg]30[min] W.; thence to latitude 
43[deg]05[min] N., longitude 75[deg]30[min] W.; thence to latitude 
42[deg]57[min] N., longitude 77[deg]30[min] W.; thence to latitude 
42[deg]52[min] N., longitude 78[deg]42[min] W.; thence to

[[Page 875]]

latitude 42[deg]26[min] N., longitude 79[deg]13[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 42[deg]05[min] N., longitude 80[deg]00[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 40[deg]50[min] N., longitude 80[deg]00[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 40[deg]26[min] N., longitude 79[deg]54[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 38[deg]25[min] N., longitude 81[deg]46[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 36[deg]00[min] N., longitude 86[deg]00[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 33[deg]37[min] N., longitude 86[deg]45[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 32[deg]30[min] N., longitude 86[deg]25[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 33[deg]22[min] N., longitude 85[deg]00[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 36[deg]35[min] N., longitude 79[deg]20[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 40[deg]11[min] N., longitude 76[deg]24[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 41[deg]24[min] N., longitude 74[deg]30[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 41[deg]43[min] N., longitude 72[deg]40[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 42[deg]13[min] N., longitude 72[deg]44[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 43[deg]12[min] N., longitude 71[deg]30[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 43[deg]45[min] N., longitude 70[deg]30[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 45[deg]00[min] N., longitude 69[deg]30[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 47[deg]10[min] N., longitude 67[deg]55[min] W., point of 
beginning.

    (b) Exceptions. The area bounded by the following coordinates:

    Beginning at latitude 45[deg]00[min] N., longitude 73[deg]26[min] 
W.; thence to latitude 44[deg]32[min] N., longitude 73[deg]04[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 42[deg]51[min] N., longitude 73[deg]41[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 41[deg]38[min] N., longitude 73[deg]46[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 41[deg]16[min] N., longitude 73[deg]50[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 41[deg]17[min] N., longitude 74[deg]00[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 41[deg]25[min] N., longitude 73[deg]58[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 41[deg]26[min] N., longitude 74[deg]01[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 41[deg]37[min] N., longitude 73[deg]58[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 42[deg]41[min] N., longitude 73[deg]55[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 43[deg]02[min] N., longitude 76[deg]15[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 43[deg]17[min] N., longitude 75[deg]21[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 42[deg]59[min] N., longitude 74[deg]43[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 42[deg]52[min] N., longitude 73[deg]53[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 44[deg]30[min] N., longitude 73[deg]18[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 45[deg]00[min] N., longitude 73[deg]39[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 45[deg]00[min] N., longitude 73[deg]26[min] W., point 
of beginning.

[21 FR 2750, Apr. 28, 1956. Redesignated by Amdt. 1-1, 28 FR 6718, June 
29, 1963, as amended at 73 FR 63885, Oct. 28, 2008]



Sec. 95.15  Western United States Mountainous Area.

    All of the following area excluding that portion specified in the 
exceptions:
    (a) Area. From the Pacific coastline of the United States, eastward 
along the Canadian and Mexican borders, to the following coordinates:

    Beginning at latitude 49[deg]00[min] N., longitude 108[deg]00[min] 
W.; thence to latitude 46[deg]45[min] N., longitude 104[deg]00[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 44[deg]06[min] N., longitude 103[deg]15[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 43[deg]00[min] N., longitude 103[deg]15[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 41[deg]52[min] N., longitude 103[deg]39[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 35[deg]11[min] N., longitude 103[deg]39[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 33[deg]17[min] N., longitude 104[deg]27[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 32[deg]17[min] N., longitude 104[deg]14[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 29[deg]48[min] N., longitude 102[deg]00[min] W.

    (b) Exceptions.

    (1) Beginning at latitude 35[deg]25[min] N., longitude 
119[deg]09[min] W.; thence to latitude 35[deg]29[min] N., longitude 
118[deg]58[min] W.; thence to latitude 36[deg]49[min] N., longitude 
119[deg]37[min] W.; thence to latitude 38[deg]30[min] N., longitude 
121[deg]24[min] W.; thence to latitude 39[deg]30[min] N., longitude 
121[deg]32[min] W.; thence to latitude 40[deg]08[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]08[min] W.; thence to latitude 40[deg]06[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]20[min] W.; thence to latitude 39[deg]05[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]12[min] W.; thence to latitude 38[deg]01[min] N., longitude 
121[deg]51[min] W.; thence to latitude 37[deg]37[min] N., longitude 
121[deg]12[min] W.; thence to latitude 37[deg]00[min] N., longitude 
120[deg]58[min] W.; thence to latitude 36[deg]14[min] N., longitude 
120[deg]11[min] W., point of beginning.
    (2) Beginning at latitude 49[deg]00[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]21[min] W.; thence to latitude 48[deg]34[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]21[min] W.; thence to latitude 48[deg]08[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]00[min] W.; thence to latitude 47[deg]12[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]00[min] W.; thence to latitude 46[deg]59[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]13[min] W.; thence to latitude 46[deg]52[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]16[min] W.; thence to latitude 46[deg]50[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]40[min] W.; thence to latitude 46[deg]35[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]48[min] W.; thence to latitude 46[deg]35[min] N., longitude 
123[deg]17[min] W.; thence to latitude 47[deg]15[min] N., longitude 
123[deg]17[min] W.; thence to latitude 47[deg]41[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]54[min] W.; thence to latitude 48[deg]03[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]48[min] W.; thence to latitude 48[deg]17[min] N., longitude 
123[deg]15[min] W.; thence North and East along the United States and 
Canada Boundary to latitude 49[deg]00[min] N., longitude 122[deg]21[min] 
W., point of beginning.

[21 FR 2750, Apr. 28, 1956. Redesignated by Amdt. 1-1, 28 FR 6718, June 
29, 1963, and amended by Amdt. 95-255, 40 FR 2579, Jan. 14, 1975]



Sec. 95.17  Alaska Mountainous Area.

    All of the following area excluding those portions specified in the 
exceptions:
    (a) Area. The State of Alaska.
    (b) Exceptions;
    (1) Fairbanks--Nenana Area. Beginning at latitude 64[deg]54[min] N, 
longitude 147[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 64[deg]50[min] N, 
longitude 151[deg]22[min] W, thence to latitude 63[deg]50[min] N, 
longitude 152[deg]50[min] W; thence to latitude 63[deg]30[min] N, 
longitude 152[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 63[deg]30[min] N, 
longitude 151[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 64[deg]05[min] N, 
longitude 150[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 64[deg]20[min] N, 
longitude 149[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 64[deg]07[min] N, 
longitude 146[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 63[deg]53[min] N, 
longitude 146[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 63[deg]53[min] N, 
longitude 145[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude

[[Page 876]]

64[deg]09[min] N, longitude 145[deg]16[min] W; thence to latitude 
64[deg]12[min] N, longitude 146[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 
64[deg]25[min] N, longitude 146[deg]37[min] W; thence to latitude 
64[deg]54[min] N, longitude 147[deg]00[min] W, point of beginning.
    (2) Anchorage--Homer Area. Beginning at latitude 61[deg]50[min] N, 
longitude 151[deg]12[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]24[min] N, 
longitude 150[deg]28[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]08[min] N, 
longitude 151[deg]47[min] W; thence to latitude 59[deg]49[min] N, 
longitude 152[deg]40[min] W; thence to latitude 59[deg]25[min] N, 
longitude 153[deg]10[min] W; thence to latitude 59[deg]00[min] N, 
longitude 153[deg]10[min] W; thence to latitude 59[deg]33[min] N, 
longitude 151[deg]28[min] W; thence to latitude 60[deg]31[min] N, 
longitude 150[deg]43[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]13[min] N, 
longitude 149[deg]39[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]37[min] N, 
longitude 149[deg]15[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]44[min] N, 
longitude 149[deg]48[min] W; thence to latitude 62[deg]23[min] N, 
longitude 149[deg]54[min] W; thence to latitude 62[deg]23[min] N, 
longitude 150[deg]14[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]50[min] N, 
longitude 151[deg]12[min] W, point of beginning.
    (3) King Salmon--Port Heiden Area. Beginning at latitude 
58[deg]49[min] N, longitude 159[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 
59[deg]40[min] N, longitude 157[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 
59[deg]40[min] N, longitude 155[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 
59[deg]50[min] N, longitude 154[deg]50[min] W; thence to latitude 
59[deg]35[min] N, longitude 154[deg]40[min] W; thence to latitude 
58[deg]57[min] N, longitude 156[deg]05[min] W; thence to latitude 
58[deg]00[min] N, longitude 156[deg]20[min] W; thence to latitude 
57[deg]00[min] N, longitude 158[deg]20[min] W; thence to latitude 
56[deg]43[min] N, longitude 158[deg]39[min] W; thence to latitude 
56[deg]27[min] N, longitude 160[deg]00[min] W; thence along the 
shoreline to latitude 58[deg]49[min] N, longitude 159[deg]30[min] W, 
point of beginning.
    (4) Bethel--Aniak Area. Beginning at latitude 63[deg]28[min] N, 
longitude 161[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 62[deg]40[min] N, 
longitude 163[deg]03[min] W; thence to latitude 62[deg]05[min] N, 
longitude 162[deg]38[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]51[min] N, 
longitude 160[deg]43[min] W; thence to latitude 62[deg]55[min] N, 
longitude 160[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 63[deg]00[min] N, 
longitude 158[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]45[min] N, 
longitude 159[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]34[min] N, 
longitude 159[deg]15[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]07[min] N, 
longitude 160[deg]20[min] W; thence to latitude 60[deg]25[min] N, 
longitude 160[deg]40[min] W; thence to latitude 59[deg]36[min] N, 
longitude 161[deg]49[min] W; thence along the shoreline to latitude 
63[deg]28[min] N, longitude 161[deg]30[min] W; point of beginning; and 
Nunivak Island.
    (5) North Slope Area. Beginning at a point where latitude 
69[deg]30[min] N intersects the northwest coast of Alaska and eastward 
along the 69[deg]30[min] parallel to latitude 69[deg]30[min] N, 
longitude 156[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 69[deg]10[min] N, 
longitude 153[deg]00[min] W; thence eastward along the 69[deg]10[min] N 
parallel to latitude 69[deg]10[min] N, longitude 149[deg]00[min] W; 
thence to latitude 69[deg]50[min] N, longitude 146[deg]00[min] W; thence 
eastward along the 69[deg]50[min] N parallel to latitude 69[deg]50[min] 
N, longitude 145[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 69[deg]35[min] N, 
longitude 141[deg]00[min] W; thence northward along the 141[deg]00[min] 
W Meridian to a point where the 141[deg]00[min] W Meridian intersects 
the northeast coastline of Alaska; thence westward along the northern 
coastline of Alaska to the intersection of latitude 69[deg]30[min] N; 
point of beginning .
    (6) Fort Yukon Area. Beginning at latitude 67[deg]20[min] N, 
longitude 144[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 66[deg]00[min] N, 
longitude 143[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 66[deg]05[min] N, 
longitude 149[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 66[deg]45[min] N, 
longitude 148[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 67[deg]00[min] N, 
longitude 147[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 67[deg]20[min] N, 
longitude 144[deg]00[min] W; point of beginning.
    (7) The islands of Saint Paul and Saint George, together known as 
the Pribilof Islands, in the Bering Sea.

[[Page 877]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR11FE05.004


[Doc. No. FAA-2004-19352, 70 FR 7360, Feb. 11, 2005]



Sec. 95.19  Hawaii Mountainous Area.

    The following islands of the State of Hawaii: Kauai, Oahu, Molokai, 
Lanai, Kehoolawe, Maui, and Hawaii.

[[Page 878]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.007


[Amdt. 88, 27 FR 4536, May 8, 1962. Redesignated by Amdt. 1-1, 28 FR 
6719, June 29, 1963]



Sec. 95.21  Puerto Rico Mountainous Area.

    The area bounded by the following coordinates:

    Beginning at latitude 18[deg]22[min] N., longitude 66[deg]58[min] 
W., thence to latitude 18[deg]19[min] N., longitude 66[deg]06[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 18[deg]20[min] N., longitude 65[deg]50[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 18[deg]20[min] N., longitude 65[deg]42[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 18[deg]03[min] N., longitude 65[deg]52[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 18[deg]02[min] N., longitude 65[deg]51[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 17[deg]59[min] N., longitude 65[deg]55[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 18[deg]05[min] N., longitude 66[deg]57[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 18[deg]11[min] N., longitude 67[deg]07[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 18[deg]22[min] N., longitude 66[deg]58[min] W.; the 
point of beginning.

[[Page 879]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.008


[Amdt. 88, 27 FR 4536, May 8, 1962; 27 FR 5603, June 13, 1962. 
Redesignated by Amdt. 1-1, 28 FR 6719, June 29, 1963]

[[Page 880]]



      Subpart C_En Route IFR Altitudes Over Particular Routes and 
                              Intersections

    Editorial Note: The prescribed IFR altitudes for flights over 
particular routes and intersections in this subpart were formerly 
carried as Sec. Sec. 610.11 through 610.6887 of this title and were 
transferred to part 95 as Sec. Sec. 95.41 through 95.6887, 
respectively, but are not carried in the Code of Federal Regulations. 
For Federal Register citations affecting these routes, see the List of 
CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the 
printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.



Sec. 95.31  General.

    This subpart prescribes IFR altitudes for flights along particular 
routes or route segments and over additional intersections not listed as 
a part of a route or route segment.

[Doc. No. 1580, 28 FR 6719, June 29, 1963]



                       Subpart D_Changeover Points

    Editorial Note: The prescribed COP's for Federal airways, jet 
routes, or other direct routes for which an MEA is designated in this 
part are not carried in the Code of Federal Regulations. For Federal 
Register citations affecting these routes see the List of CFR Sections 
Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed 
volume and at www.govinfo.gov.



Sec. 95.8001  General.

    This subpart prescribes COP's for Federal airways, jet routes, area 
navigation routes, or other direct routes for which an MEA is designated 
in this part. Unless otherwise specified the COP is midway between the 
navigation facilities or way points for straight route segments, or at 
the intersection of radials or courses forming a dogleg in the case of 
dogleg route segments.

[Doc. No. 10580, 35 FR 14610, Sept. 18, 1970]



PART 97_STANDARD INSTRUMENT PROCEDURES--Table of Contents



                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
97.1 Applicability.
97.3 Symbols and terms used in procedures.
97.5 Bearings, courses, tracks, headings, radials, miles.

                          Subpart B_Procedures

97.10 [Reserved]

                       Subpart C_TERPS Procedures

97.20 General.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 
40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, and 44721-44722.

    Source: Docket No. 1580, 28 FR 6719, June 29, 1963, unless otherwise 
noted.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 97.1  Applicability.

    (a) This part prescribes standard instrument approach procedures to 
civil airports in the United States and the weather minimums that apply 
to landings under IFR at those airports.
    (b) This part also prescribes obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) 
for certain civil airports in the United States and the weather minimums 
that apply to takeoffs under IFR at civil airports in the United States.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 97.3  Symbols and terms used in procedures.

    As used in the standard instrument procedures prescribed in this 
part--
    Aircraft approach category means a grouping of aircraft based on a 
speed of VREF, if specified, or if VREF is not specified, 1.3 
Vso at the maximum certificated landing weight. VREF, 
Vso, and the maximum certificated landing weight are those 
values as established for the aircraft by the certification authority of 
the country of registry. The categories are as follows--
    (1) Category A: Speed less than 91 knots.
    (2) Category B: Speed 91 knots or more but less than 121 knots.
    (3) Category C: Speed 121 knots or more but less than 141 knots.
    (4) Category D: Speed 141 knots or more but less than 166 knots.
    (5) Category E: Speed 166 knots or more.
    Approach procedure segments for which altitudes (minimum altitudes, 
unless otherwise specified) and paths are prescribed in procedures, are 
as follows--

[[Page 881]]

    (1) Initial approach is the segment between the initial approach fix 
and the intermediate fix or the point where the aircraft is established 
on the intermediate course or final approach course.
    (2) Initial approach altitude is the altitude (or altitudes, in high 
altitude procedure) prescribed for the initial approach segment of an 
instrument approach.
    (3) Intermediate approach is the segment between the intermediate 
fix or point and the final approach fix.
    (4) Final approach is the segment between the final approach fix or 
point and the runway, airport, or missed approach point.
    (5) Missed approach is the segment between the missed approach 
point, or point of arrival at decision altitude or decision height (DA/
DH), and the missed approach fix at the prescribed altitude.
    Ceiling means the minimum ceiling, expressed in feet above the 
airport elevation, required for takeoff or required for designating an 
airport as an alternate airport.
    Copter procedures means helicopter procedures, with applicable 
minimums as prescribed in Sec. 97.35. Helicopters may also use other 
procedures prescribed in subpart C of this part and may use the Category 
A minimum descent altitude (MDA), or decision altitude or decision 
height (DA/DH). For other than ``copter-only'' approaches, the required 
visibility minimum for Category I approaches may be reduced to one-half 
the published visibility minimum for Category A aircraft, but in no case 
may it be reduced to less than one-quarter mile prevailing visibility, 
or, if reported, 1,200 feet RVR. Reduction of visibility minima on 
Category II instrument approach procedures is prohibited.
    FAF means final approach fix.
    HAA means height above airport and is expressed in feet.
    HAL means height above landing and is the height of the DA/MDA above 
a designated helicopter landing area elevation used for helicopter 
instrument approach procedures and is expressed in feet.
    HAS means height above the surface and is the height of the DA/MDA 
above the highest terrain/surface within a 5,200-foot radius of the 
missed approach point used in helicopter instrument approach procedures 
and is expressed in feet above ground level (AGL).
    HAT means height above touchdown.
    HCH means helipoint crossing height and is the computed height of 
the vertical guidance path above the helipoint elevation at the 
helipoint expressed in feet.
    Helipoint means the aiming point for the final approach course. It 
is normally the center point of the touchdown and lift-off area (TLOF).
    Hold in lieu of PT means a holding pattern established under 
applicable FAA criteria, and used in lieu of a procedure turn to execute 
a course reversal.
    MAP means missed approach point.
    More than 65 knots means an aircraft that has a stalling speed of 
more than 65 knots (as established in an approved flight manual) at 
maximum certificated landing weight with full flaps, landing gear 
extended, and power off.
    MSA means minimum safe altitude, expressed in feet above mean sea 
level, depicted on an approach chart that provides at least 1,000 feet 
of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a certain distance from 
the specified navigation facility or fix.
    NA means not authorized.
    NOPT means no procedure turn required. Altitude prescribed applies 
only if procedure turn is not executed.
    Procedure turn means the maneuver prescribed when it is necessary to 
reverse direction to establish the aircraft on an intermediate or final 
approach course. The outbound course, direction of turn, distance within 
which the turn must be completed, and minimum altitude are specified in 
the procedure. However, the point at which the turn may be begun, and 
the type and rate of turn, is left to the discretion of the pilot.
    RA means radio altimeter setting height.
    RVV means runway visibility value.
    SIAP means standard instrument approach procedure.
    65 knots or less means an aircraft that has a stalling speed of 65 
knots or less (as established in an approved flight

[[Page 882]]

manual) at maximum certificated landing weight with full flaps, landing 
gear extended, and power off.
    T means nonstandard takeoff minimums or specified departure routes/
procedures or both.
    TDZ means touchdown zone.
    Visibility minimum means the minimum visibility specified for 
approach, landing, or takeoff, expressed in statute miles, or in feet 
where RVR is reported.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 97.5  Bearings, courses, tracks, headings, radials, miles.

    (a) All bearings, courses, tracks, headings, and radials in this 
part are magnetic, unless otherwise designated.
    (b) RVR values are stated in feet. Other visibility values are 
stated in statute miles. All other mileages are stated in nautical 
miles.

[Doc. No. 561, 32 FR 13912, Oct. 6, 1967, as amended by Amdt. 97-1336, 
72 FR 31680, June 7, 2007]



                          Subpart B_Procedures

    Editorial Note: The procedures set forth in this subpart were 
formerly carried as Sec. Sec. 609.100 through 609.500 of this title and 
were transferred to part 97 as Sec. Sec. 97.11 through 97.19, 
respectively, but are not carried in the Code of Federal Regulations. 
For Federal Register citations affecting these procedures, see the List 
of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of 
the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.



Sec. 97.10  [Reserved]



                       Subpart C_TERPS Procedures

    Source: Docket No. 8130, 32 FR 13912, Oct. 6, 1967, unless otherwise 
noted.

    Editorial Note: The procedures for Sec. Sec. 97.21 through 97.37, 
respectively, are not carried in the Code of Federal Regulations. For 
Federal Register citations affecting these procedures, see the List of 
CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the 
printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.



Sec. 97.20  General.

    (a) This subpart prescribes standard instrument approach procedures 
and takeoff minimums and obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) based on 
the criteria contained in FAA Order 8260.3, U.S. Standard for Terminal 
Instrument Procedures (TERPs), and other related Orders in the 8260 
series that also address instrument procedure design criteria.
    (b) Standard instrument approach procedures and associated 
supporting data adopted by the FAA are documented on FAA Forms 8260-3, 
8260-4, 8260-5. Takeoff minimums and obstacle departure procedures 
(ODPs) are documented on FAA Form 8260-15A. These forms are incorporated 
by reference. The Director of the Federal Register approved this 
incorporation by reference pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 
51. The standard instrument approach procedures and takeoff minimums and 
obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) are available for examination at 
the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New 
Jersey Avenue SE, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, 
DC 20590, and at Aeronautical Information Services, 1305 East-West 
Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910, or at the National Archives and 
Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of 
this material at NARA, email: [email protected], or go to http://
www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/
ibr_locations.html.
    (c) Standard instrument approach procedures and takeoff minimums and 
obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) are depicted on aeronautical charts 
published by the FAA. These charts are available from the FAA at https:/
/www.faa.gov/air_traffic/flight_info/aeronav/digital_products/.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31680, June 7, 2007, as amended by 
Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 97-1338, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018; Docket 
No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 97-1339, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022]



PART 99_SECURITY CONTROL OF AIR TRAFFIC--Table of Contents



                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
99.1 Applicability.
99.3 Definitions.

[[Page 883]]

99.5 Emergency situations.
99.7 Special security instructions.
99.9 Radio requirements.
99.11 ADIZ flight plan requirements.
99.12 [Reserved]
99.13 Transponder-on requirements.
99.15 Position reports.
99.17 Deviation from flight plans and ATC clearances and instructions.
99.19-99.31 [Reserved]

          Subpart B_Designated Air Defense Identification Zones

99.41 General.
99.43 Contiguous U.S. ADIZ.
99.45 Alaska ADIZ.
99.47 Guam ADIZ.
99.49 Hawaii ADIZ.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40101, 40103, 40106, 40113, 40120, 
44502, 44721.

    Source: Docket No. 25113, 53 FR 18217, May 20, 1988, unless 
otherwise noted.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 99.1  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart prescribes rules for operating all aircraft (except 
for Department of Defense and law enforcement aircraft) in a defense 
area, or into, within, or out of the United States through an Air 
Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ) designated in subpart B.
    (b) Except for Sec. Sec. 99.7, 99.13, and 99.15 this subpart does 
not apply to the operation of any aircraft-
    (1) Within the 48 contiguous States and the District of Columbia, or 
within the State of Alaska, on a flight which remains within 10 nautical 
miles of the point of departure;
    (2) Operating at true airspeed of less than 180 knots in the Hawaii 
ADIZ or over any island, or within 12 nautical miles of the coastline of 
any island, in the Hawaii ADIZ;
    (3) Operating at true airspeed of less than 180 knots in the Alaska 
ADIZ while the pilot maintains a continuous listening watch on the 
appropriate frequency; or
    (4) Operating at true airspeed of less than 180 knots in the Guam 
ADIZ.
    (c) An FAA ATC center may exempt the following operations from this 
subpart (except Sec. 99.7) on a local basis only, with the concurrence 
of the U.S. military commanders concerned, or pursuant to an agreement 
with a U.S. Federal security or intelligence agency:
    (1) Aircraft operations that are conducted wholly within the 
boundaries of an ADIZ and are not currently significant to the air 
defense system.
    (2) Aircraft operations conducted in accordance with special 
procedures prescribed by a U.S. military authority, or a U.S. Federal 
security or intelligence agency concerned.

[Doc. No. 25113, 53 FR 18217, May 20, 1988, as amended by Amdt. 99-14, 
53 FR 44182, Nov. 2, 1988; 66 FR 49822, Sept. 28, 2001; 69 FR 16755, 
Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.3  Definitions.

    Aeronautical facility means, for the purposes of this subpart, a 
communications facility where flight plans or position reports are 
normally filed during flight operations.
    Air defense identification zone (ADIZ) means an area of airspace 
over land or water in which the ready identification, location, and 
control of all aircraft (except for Department of Defense and law 
enforcement aircraft) is required in the interest of national security.
    Defense area means any airspace of the contiguous United States that 
is not an ADIZ in which the control of aircraft is required for reasons 
of national security.
    Defense visual flight rules (DVFR) means, for the purposes of this 
subpart, a flight within an ADIZ conducted by any aircraft (except for 
Department of Defense and law enforcement aircraft) in accordance with 
visual flight rules in part 91 of this title.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-10693, 66 FR 49822, Sept. 28, 2001, as amended at 69 
FR 16755, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.5  Emergency situations.

    In an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the 
safety of the flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft may deviate 
from the rules in this part to the extent required by that emergency. He 
shall report the reasons for the deviation to the communications 
facility where flight plans or position reports are normally filed 
(referred to in this part as ``an appropriate aeronautical facility'') 
as soon as possible.

[[Page 884]]



Sec. 99.7  Special security instructions.

    Each person operating an aircraft in an ADIZ or Defense Area must, 
in addition to the applicable rules of this part, comply with special 
security instructions issued by the Administrator in the interest of 
national security, pursuant to agreement between the FAA and the 
Department of Defense, or between the FAA and a U.S. Federal security or 
intelligence agency.

[69 FR 16756, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.9  Radio requirements.

    (a) A person who operates a civil aircraft into an ADIZ must have a 
functioning two-way radio, and the pilot must maintain a continuous 
listening watch on the appropriate aeronautical facility's frequency.
    (b) No person may operate an aircraft into, within, or whose 
departure point is within an ADIZ unless--
    (1) The person files a DVFR flight plan containing the time and 
point of ADIZ penetration, and
    (2) The aircraft departs within five minutes of the estimated 
departure time contained in the flight plan.
    (c) If the pilot operating an aircraft under DVFR in an ADIZ cannot 
maintain two-way radio communications, the pilot may proceed, in 
accordance with original DVFR flight plan, or land as soon as 
practicable. The pilot must report the radio failure to an appropriate 
aeronautical facility as soon as possible.
    (d) If a pilot operating an aircraft under IFR in an ADIZ cannot 
maintain two-way radio communications, the pilot must proceed in 
accordance with Sec. 91.185 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-10693, 66 FR 49822, Sept. 28, 2001, as amended at 69 
FR 16756, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.11  ADIZ flight plan requirements.

    (a) No person may operate an aircraft into, within, or from a 
departure point within an ADIZ, unless the person files, activates, and 
closes a flight plan with the appropriate aeronautical facility, or is 
otherwise authorized by air traffic control.
    (b) Unless ATC authorizes an abbreviated flight plan--
    (1) A flight plan for IFR flight must contain the information 
specified in Sec. 91.169; and
    (2) A flight plan for VFR flight must contain the information 
specified in Sec. 91.153(a) (1) through (6).
    (3) If airport of departure is within the Alaskan ADIZ and there is 
no facility for filing a flight plan then:
    (i) Immediately after takeoff or when within range of an appropriate 
aeronautical facility, comply with provisions of paragraph (b)(1) or 
(b)(2) as appropriate.
    (ii) Proceed according to the instructions issued by the appropriate 
aeronautical facility.
    (c) The pilot shall designate a flight plan for VFR flight as a DVFR 
flight plan.
    (d) The pilot in command of an aircraft for which a flight plan has 
been filed must file an arrival or completion notice with an appropriate 
aeronautical facility.

[Doc. No. 25113, 53 FR 18217, May 20, 1988; 53 FR 44182, Nov. 2, 1988, 
as amended by Amdt. 99-15, 54 FR 34331, Aug. 18, 1989; 66 FR 49822, 
Sept. 28, 2001; 69 FR 16756, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.12  [Reserved]



Sec. 99.13  Transponder-on requirements.

    (a) Aircraft transponder-on operation. Each person operating an 
aircraft into or out of the United States into, within, or across an 
ADIZ designated in subpart B of this part, if that aircraft is equipped 
with an operable radar beacon transponder, shall operate the 
transponder, including altitude encoding equipment if installed, and 
shall reply on the appropriate code or as assigned by ATC.
    (b) ATC transponder equipment and use. Effective September 7, 1990, 
unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate a civil 
aircraft into or out of the United States into, within, or across the 
contiguous U.S. ADIZ designated in subpart B of this part unless that 
aircraft is equipped with a coded radar beacon transponder.
    (c) ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment and use. 
Effective December 30, 1990, unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no 
person may operate a civil aircraft into or out of the United States 
into, within, or across

[[Page 885]]

the contiguous U.S. ADIZ unless that aircraft is equipped with a coded 
radar beacon transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting 
equipment having altitude reporting capability that automatically 
replies to interrogations by transmitting pressure altitude information 
in 100-foot increments.
    (d) Paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section do not apply to the 
operation of an aircraft which was not originally certificated with an 
engine-driven electrical system and which has not subsequently been 
certified with such a system installed, a balloon, or a glider.

[Doc. No. 24903, 55 FR 8395, Mar. 7, 1990. Redesignated at 69 FR 16756, 
Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.15  Position reports.

    (a) The pilot of an aircraft operating in or penetrating an ADIZ 
under IFR--
    (1) In controlled airspace, must make the position reports required 
in Sec. 91.183; and
    (2) In uncontrolled airspace, must make the position reports 
required in this section.
    (b) No pilot may operate an aircraft penetrating an ADIZ under DVFR 
unless--
    (1) The pilot reports to an appropriate aeronautical facility before 
penetration: the time, position, and altitude at which the aircraft 
passed the last reporting point before penetration and the estimated 
time of arrival over the next appropriate reporting point along the 
flight route;
    (2) If there is no appropriate reporting point along the flight 
route, the pilot reports at least 15 minutes before penetration: The 
estimated time, position, and altitude at which the pilot will 
penetrate; or
    (3) If the departure airport is within an ADIZ or so close to the 
ADIZ boundary that it prevents the pilot from complying with paragraphs 
(b)(1) or (2) of this section, the pilot must report immediately after 
departure: the time of departure, the altitude, and the estimated time 
of arrival over the first reporting point along the flight route.
    (c) In addition to any other reports as ATC may require, no pilot in 
command of a foreign civil aircraft may enter the United States through 
an ADIZ unless that pilot makes the reports required in this section or 
reports the position of the aircraft when it is not less that one hour 
and not more that 2 hours average direct cruising distance from the 
United States.

[69 FR 16756, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.17  Deviation from flight plans and ATC clearances and instructions.

    (a) No pilot may deviate from the provisions of an ATC clearance or 
ATC instruction except in accordance with Sec. 91.123 of this chapter.
    (b) No pilot may deviate from the filed IFR flight plan when 
operating an aircraft in uncontrolled airspace unless that pilot 
notifies an appropriate aeronautical facility before deviating.
    (c) No pilot may deviate from the filed DVFR flight plan unless that 
pilot notifies an appropriate aeronautical facility before deviating.

[69 FR 16756, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. Sec. 99.19-99.31  [Reserved]



          Subpart B_Designated Air Defense Identification Zones



Sec. 99.41  General.

    The airspace above the areas described in this subpart is 
established as an ADIZ. The lines between points described in this 
subpart are great circles except that the lines joining adjacent points 
on the same parallel of latitude are rhumb lines.

[69 FR 16756, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.43  Contiguous U.S. ADIZ.

    The area bounded by a line from 43[deg]15[min] N, 65[deg]55[min]W; 
44[deg]21[min] N; 67[deg]16[min]W; 43[deg]10[min] N; 69[deg]40[min]W; 
41[deg]05[min] N; 69[deg]40[min]W; 40[deg]32[min] N; 72[deg]15[min]W; 
39[deg]55[min] N; 73[deg]00[min]W; 39[deg]38[min] N; 73[deg]00[min]W; 
39[deg]36[min] N; 73[deg]40[min]W; 37[deg]00[min] N; 75[deg]30[min]W; 
36[deg]10[min] N; 75[deg]10[min]W; 35[deg]10[min] N; 75[deg]10[min]W; 
32[deg]00[min] N; 80[deg]30[min]W; 30[deg]30[min] N; 81[deg]00[min]W; 
26[deg]40[min] N; 79[deg]40[min]W; 25[deg]00[min] N; 80[deg]05[min]W; 
24[deg]25[min] N; 81[deg]15[min]W; 24[deg]20[min] N; 81[deg]45[min]W; 
24[deg]30[min] N; 82[deg]06[min]W; 24[deg]41[min] N; 82[deg]06[min]W; 
24[deg]43[min] N; 82[deg]00[min]W; 25[deg]00[min] N; 81[deg]30[min]W; 
25[deg]10[min] N; 81[deg]23[min]W; 25[deg]35[min] N; 81[deg]30[min]W; 
26[deg]15[min] N 82[deg]20[min]W; 27[deg]50[min] N; 83[deg]05[min]W; 
28[deg]55[min] N; 83[deg]30[min]W; 29[deg]42[min] N; 84[deg]00[min]W; 
29[deg]20[min] N; 85[deg]00[min]W; 30[deg]00[min] N; 87[deg]10[min]W; 
30[deg]00[min] N; 88[deg]30[min]W; 28[deg]45[min] N; 88[deg]55[min]W; 
28[deg]45[min] N; 90[deg]00[min]W; 29[deg]25[min] N; 94[deg]00[min]W; 
28[deg]20[min] N; 96[deg]00[min]W; 27[deg]30[min] N;

[[Page 886]]

97[deg]00[min]W; 26[deg]00[min] N; 97[deg]00[min]W; 25[deg]58[min] N; 
97[deg]07[min]W; westward along the U.S./Mexico border to 
32[deg]32[min]03[sec] N, 117[deg]07[min]25[sec] W; 32[deg]30[min] N; 
117[deg]25[min]W; 32[deg]35[min] N; 118[deg]30[min]W; 33[deg]05[min] N; 
119[deg]45[min]W; 33[deg]55[min] N; 120[deg]40[min]W; 34[deg]50[min] N; 
121[deg]10[min]W; 38[deg]50[min] N; 124[deg]00[min]W; 40[deg]00[min] N; 
124[deg]35[min]W; 40[deg]25[min] N; 124[deg]40[min]W; 42[deg]50[min] N; 
124[deg]50[min]W; 46[deg]15[min] N; 124[deg]30[min]W; 48[deg]30[min] N; 
125[deg]00[min]W; 48[deg]20[min] N; 128[deg]00[min]W; 48[deg]20[min] N; 
132[deg]00[min]W; 37[deg]42[min] N; 130[deg]40[min]W; 29[deg]00[min] N; 
124[deg]00[min]W; 30[deg]45[min] N; 120[deg]50[min]W; 32[deg]00[min] N; 
118[deg]24[min]W; 32[deg]30[min] N; 117[deg]20[min]W; 
32[deg]32[min]03[sec] N; 117[deg]07[min]25[sec] W; eastward along the 
U.S./Mexico border to 25[deg]58[min] N, 97[deg]07[min]W; 26[deg]00[min] 
N; 97[deg]00[min]W; 26[deg]00[min] N; 95[deg]00[min]W; 26[deg]30[min] N; 
95[deg]00[min]W; then via 26[deg]30[min] N; parallel to 26[deg]30[min] 
N; 84[deg]00[min]W; 24[deg]00[min] N; 83[deg]00[min]W; then Via 
24[deg]00[min] N; parallel to 24[deg]00[min] N; 79[deg]25[min]W; 
25[deg]40[min] N; 79[deg]25[min]W; 27[deg]30[min] N; 78[deg]50[min]W; 
30[deg]45[min] N; 74[deg]00[min]W; 39[deg]30[min] N; 63[deg]45[min]W; 
43[deg]00[min] N; 65[deg]48[min]W; to point of beginning.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-10693, 66 FR 49822, Sept. 28, 2001. Redesignated at 
69 FR 16756, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.45  Alaska ADIZ.

    The area is bounded by a line from 54[deg]00[min] N; 
136[deg]00[min]W; 56[deg]57[min] N; 144[deg]00[min]W; 57[deg]00[min] N; 
145[deg]00[min]W; 53[deg]00[min] N; 158[deg]00[min]W; 50[deg]00[min] N; 
169[deg]00[min]W; 50[deg]00[min] N; 180[deg]00[min]; 50[deg]00[min] N; 
170[deg]00[min]E; 53[deg]00[min] N; 170[deg]00[min]E; 
60[deg]00[min]00[sec] N; 180[deg]00[min]; 65[deg]00[min] N; 
169[deg]00[min]W; then along 169[deg]00[min]W; to 75[deg]00[min] N; 
169[deg]00[min]W; then along the 75[deg]00[min] N; parallel to 
75[deg]00[min] N, 141[deg]00[min]W; 69[deg]50[min] N; 141[deg]00[min]W 
71[deg]18[min] N; 156[deg]44[min]W; 68[deg]40[min] N; 167[deg]10[min]W; 
67[deg]00[min] N; 165[deg]00[min]W; 65[deg]40[min] N; 168[deg]15[min]W; 
63[deg]45[min] N; 165[deg]30[min]W; 61[deg]20[min] N; 166[deg]40[min]W; 
59[deg]00[min] N; 163[deg]00[min]W; then south along 163[deg]00[min]W to 
54[deg]00[min] N, 163[deg]00[min]W; 56[deg]30[min] N; 154[deg]00[min]W; 
59[deg]20[min] N; 146[deg]00[min]W; 59[deg]30[min] N; 140[deg]00[min]W; 
57[deg]00[min] N; 136[deg]00[min]W; 54[deg]35[min] N, 133[deg]00[min]W; 
to point of beginning.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-10693, 66 FR 49822, Sept. 28, 2001. Redesignated at 
69 FR 16756, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.47  Guam ADIZ.

    (a) Inner boundary. From a point 13[deg]52[min]07[sec] N, 
143[deg]59[min]16[sec] E, counterclockwise along the 50-nautical-mile 
radius arc of the NIMITZ VORTAC (located at 13[deg]27[min]11[sec] N, 
144[deg]43[min]51[sec] E); to a point 13[deg]02[min]08[sec] N, 
145[deg]28[min]17[sec] E; then to a point 14[deg]49[min]07[sec] N, 
146[deg]13[min]58[sec] E; counterclockwise along the 35-nautical-mile 
radius arc of the SAIPAN NDB (located at 15[deg]06[min]46[sec] N, 
145[deg]42[min]42[sec] E); to a point 15[deg]24[min]21[sec] N, 
145[deg]11[min]21[sec] E; then to the point of origin.
    (b) Outer boundary. The area bounded by a circle with a radius of 
250 NM centered at latitude 13[deg]32[min]41[sec] N, longitude 
144[deg]50[min]30[sec] E.

[Doc. No. 25113, 53 FR 18217, May 20, 1988. Redesignated at 69 FR 16756, 
Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.49  Hawaii ADIZ.

    (a) Outer boundary. The area included in the irregular octagonal 
figure formed by a line connecting 26[deg]30[min] N, 156[deg]00[min] W; 
26[deg]30[min] N, 161[deg]00[min] W; 24[deg]00[min] N, 164[deg]00[min] 
W; 20[deg]00[min] N, 164[deg]00[min] W; 17[deg]00[min] N, 
160[deg]00[min] W; 17[deg]00[min] N, 156[deg]00[min] W; 20[deg]00[min] 
N, 153[deg]00[min] W; 22[deg]00[min] N, 153[deg]00[min] W; to point of 
beginning.
    (b) Inner boundary. The inner boundary to follow a line connecting 
22[deg]30[min] N, 157[deg]00[min] W; 22[deg]30[min] N, 160[deg]00[min] 
W; 22[deg]00[min] N, 161[deg]00[min] W; 21[deg]00[min] N, 
161[deg]00[min] W; 20[deg]00[min] N, 160[deg]00[min] W; 20[deg]00[min] 
N, 156[deg]30[min] W; 21[deg]00[min] N, 155[deg]30[min] W; to point of 
beginning.

[Doc. No. 25113, 53 FR 18217, May 20, 1988. Redesignated at 69 FR 16756, 
Mar. 30, 2004]



PART 101_MOORED BALLOONS, KITES, AMATEUR ROCKETS,
AND UNMANNED FREE BALLOONS--Table of Contents



                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
101.1 Applicability.
101.3 Waivers.
101.5 Operations in prohibited or restricted areas.
101.7 Hazardous operations.

                   Subpart B_Moored Balloons and Kites

101.11 Applicability.
101.13 Operating limitations.
101.15 Notice requirements.
101.17 Lighting and marking requirements.
101.19 Rapid deflation device.

                        Subpart C_Amateur Rockets

101.21 Applicability.
101.22 Definitions.
101.23 General operating limitations.
101.25 Operating limitations for Class 2-High Power Rockets and Class 3-
          Advanced High Power Rockets.
101.27 ATC notification for all launches.
101.29 Information requirements.

                    Subpart D_Unmanned Free Balloons

101.31 Applicability.

[[Page 887]]

101.33 Operating limitations.
101.35 Equipment and marking requirements.
101.37 Notice requirements.
101.39 Balloon position reports.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40101 note, 40103, 40113-40114, 
45302, 44502, 44514, 44701-44702, 44721, 46308.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 101.1  Applicability.

    (a) This part prescribes rules governing the operation in the United 
States, of the following:
    (1) Except as provided for in Sec. 101.7, any balloon that is 
moored to the surface of the earth or an object thereon and that has a 
diameter of more than 6 feet or a gas capacity of more than 115 cubic 
feet.
    (2) Except as provided for in Sec. 101.7, any kite that weighs more 
than 5 pounds and is intended to be flown at the end of a rope or cable.
    (3) Any amateur rocket except aerial firework displays.
    (4) Except as provided for in Sec. 101.7, any unmanned free balloon 
that--
    (i) Carries a payload package that weighs more than four pounds and 
has a weight/size ratio of more than three ounces per square inch on any 
surface of the package, determined by dividing the total weight in 
ounces of the payload package by the area in square inches of its 
smallest surface;
    (ii) Carries a payload package that weighs more than six pounds;
    (iii) Carries a payload, of two or more packages, that weighs more 
than 12 pounds; or
    (iv) Uses a rope or other device for suspension of the payload that 
requires an impact force of more than 50 pounds to separate the 
suspended payload from the balloon.
    (b) For the purposes of this part, a gyroglider attached to a 
vehicle on the surface of the earth is considered to be a kite.

[Doc. No. 1580, 28 FR 6721, June 29, 1963, as amended by Amdt. 101-1, 29 
FR 46, Jan. 3, 1964; Amdt. 101-3, 35 FR 8213, May 26, 1970; Amdt. 101-8, 
73 FR 73781, Dec. 4, 2008; 74 FR 38092, July 31, 2009; Amdt. 101-9, 81 
FR 42208, June 28, 2016; Amdt. Nos. 101-10, 85 FR 79826, Dec. 11, 2020]



Sec. 101.3  Waivers.

    No person may conduct operations that require a deviation from this 
part except under a certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator.

[Doc. No. 1580, 28 FR 6721, June 29, 1963]



Sec. 101.5  Operations in prohibited or restricted areas.

    No person may operate a moored balloon, kite, amateur rocket, or 
unmanned free balloon in a prohibited or restricted area unless he has 
permission from the using or controlling agency, as appropriate.

[Doc. No. 1457, 29 FR 46, Jan. 3, 1964, as amended at 74 FR 38092, July 
31, 2009]



Sec. 101.7  Hazardous operations.

    (a) No person may operate any moored balloon, kite, amateur rocket, 
or unmanned free balloon in a manner that creates a hazard to other 
persons, or their property.
    (b) No person operating any moored balloon, kite, amateur rocket, or 
unmanned free balloon may allow an object to be dropped therefrom, if 
such action creates a hazard to other persons or their property.

(Sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))

[Doc. No. 12800, 39 FR 22252, June 21, 1974, as amended at 74 FR 38092, 
July 31, 2009]



                   Subpart B_Moored Balloons and Kites

    Source: Docket No. 1580, 28 FR 6722, June 29, 1963, unless otherwise 
noted.



Sec. 101.11  Applicability.

    This subpart applies to the operation of moored balloons and kites. 
However, a person operating a moored balloon or kite within a restricted 
area must comply only with Sec. 101.19 and with additional limitations 
imposed by the using or controlling agency, as appropriate.



Sec. 101.13  Operating limitations.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person 
may operate a moored balloon or kite--
    (1) Less than 500 feet from the base of any cloud;

[[Page 888]]

    (2) More than 500 feet above the surface of the earth;
    (3) From an area where the ground visibility is less than three 
miles; or
    (4) Within five miles of the boundary of any airport.
    (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to the operation of 
a balloon or kite below the top of any structure and within 250 feet of 
it, if that shielded operation does not obscure any lighting on the 
structure.



Sec. 101.15  Notice requirements.

    No person may operate an unshielded moored balloon or kite more than 
150 feet above the surface of the earth unless, at least 24 hours before 
beginning the operation, he gives the following information to the FAA 
ATC facility that is nearest to the place of intended operation:
    (a) The names and addresses of the owners and operators.
    (b) The size of the balloon or the size and weight of the kite.
    (c) The location of the operation.
    (d) The height above the surface of the earth at which the balloon 
or kite is to be operated.
    (e) The date, time, and duration of the operation.



Sec. 101.17  Lighting and marking requirements.

    (a) No person may operate a moored balloon or kite, between sunset 
and sunrise unless the balloon or kite, and its mooring lines, are 
lighted so as to give a visual warning equal to that required for 
obstructions to air navigation in the FAA publication ``Obstruction 
Marking and Lighting''.
    (b) No person may operate a moored balloon or kite between sunrise 
and sunset unless its mooring lines have colored pennants or streamers 
attached at not more than 50 foot intervals beginning at 150 feet above 
the surface of the earth and visible for at least one mile.

(Sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))

[Doc. No. 1580, 28 FR 6722, June 29, 1963, as amended by Amdt. 101-4, 39 
FR 22252, June 21, 1974]



Sec. 101.19  Rapid deflation device.

    No person may operate a moored balloon unless it has a device that 
will automatically and rapidly deflate the balloon if it escapes from 
its moorings. If the device does not function properly, the operator 
shall immediately notify the nearest ATC facility of the location and 
time of the escape and the estimated flight path of the balloon.



                       Subpart C_ Amateur Rockets



Sec. 101.21  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart applies to operating unmanned rockets. However, a 
person operating an unmanned rocket within a restricted area must comply 
with Sec. 101.25(g)(2)) and with any additional limitations imposed by 
the using or controlling agency.
    (b) A person operating an unmanned rocket other than an amateur 
rocket as defined in Sec. 1.1 of this chapter must comply with 14 CFR 
Chapter III.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27390, 73 FR 73781, Dec. 4, 2008, as amended by 
Docket No. FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. No. 101-9, 87 FR 75846, Dec. 9, 2022]



Sec. 101.22  Definitions.

    The following definitions apply to this subpart:
    (a) Class 1--Model Rocket means an amateur rocket that:
    (1) Uses no more than 125 grams (4.4 ounces) of propellant;
    (2) Uses a slow-burning propellant;
    (3) Is made of paper, wood, or breakable plastic;
    (4) Contains no substantial metal parts; and
    (5) Weighs no more than 1,500 grams (53 ounces), including the 
propellant.
    (b) Class 2--High-Power Rocket means an amateur rocket other than a 
model rocket that is propelled by a motor or motors having a combined 
total impulse of 40,960 Newton-seconds (9,208 pound-seconds) or less.
    (c) Class 3--Advanced High-Power Rocket means an amateur rocket 
other than a model rocket or high-power rocket.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27390, 73 FR 73781, Dec. 4, 2008]

[[Page 889]]



Sec. 101.23  General operating limitations.

    (a) You must operate an amateur rocket in such a manner that it:
    (1) Is launched on a suborbital trajectory;
    (2) When launched, must not cross into the territory of a foreign 
country unless an agreement is in place between the United States and 
the country of concern;
    (3) Is unmanned; and
    (4) Does not create a hazard to persons, property, or other 
aircraft.
    (b) The FAA may specify additional operating limitations necessary 
to ensure that air traffic is not adversely affected, and public safety 
is not jeopardized.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27390, 73 FR 73781, Dec. 4, 2008]



Sec. 101.25  Operating limitations for Class 2-High Power Rockets and
Class 3-Advanced High Power Rockets.

    When operating Class 2-High Power Rockets or Class 3-Advanced High 
Power Rockets, you must comply with the General Operating Limitations of 
Sec. 101.23. In addition, you must not operate Class 2-High Power 
Rockets or Class 3-Advanced High Power Rockets--
    (a) At any altitude where clouds or obscuring phenomena of more than 
five-tenths coverage prevails;
    (b) At any altitude where the horizontal visibility is less than 
five miles;
    (c) Into any cloud;
    (d) Between sunset and sunrise without prior authorization from the 
FAA;
    (e) Within 9.26 kilometers (5 nautical miles) of any airport 
boundary without prior authorization from the FAA;
    (f) In controlled airspace without prior authorization from the FAA;
    (g) Unless you observe the greater of the following separation 
distances from any person or property that is not associated with the 
operations:
    (1) Not less than one-quarter the maximum expected altitude;
    (2) 457 meters (1,500 ft.);
    (h) Unless a person at least eighteen years old is present, is 
charged with ensuring the safety of the operation, and has final 
approval authority for initiating high-power rocket flight; and
    (i) Unless reasonable precautions are provided to report and control 
a fire caused by rocket activities.

[74 FR 38092, July 31, 2009, as amended by Amdt. 101-8, 74 FR 47435, 
Sept. 16, 2009]



Sec. 101.27  ATC notification for all launches.

    No person may operate an unmanned rocket other than a Class 1--Model 
Rocket unless that person gives the following information to the FAA ATC 
facility nearest to the place of intended operation no less than 24 
hours before and no more than three days before beginning the operation:
    (a) The name and address of the operator; except when there are 
multiple participants at a single event, the name and address of the 
person so designated as the event launch coordinator, whose duties 
include coordination of the required launch data estimates and 
coordinating the launch event;
    (b) Date and time the activity will begin;
    (c) Radius of the affected area on the ground in nautical miles;
    (d) Location of the center of the affected area in latitude and 
longitude coordinates;
    (e) Highest affected altitude;
    (f) Duration of the activity;
    (g) Any other pertinent information requested by the ATC facility.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27390, 73 FR 73781, Dec. 4, 2008, as amended at Doc. 
No. FAA-2007-27390, 74 FR 31843, July 6, 2009]



Sec. 101.29  Information requirements.

    (a) Class 2--High-Power Rockets. When a Class 2--High-Power Rocket 
requires a certificate of waiver or authorization, the person planning 
the operation must provide the information below on each type of rocket 
to the FAA at least 45 days before the proposed operation. The FAA may 
request additional information if necessary to ensure the proposed 
operations can be safely conducted. The information shall include for 
each type of Class 2 rocket expected to be flown:
    (1) Estimated number of rockets,
    (2) Type of propulsion (liquid or solid), fuel(s) and oxidizer(s),

[[Page 890]]

    (3) Description of the launcher(s) planned to be used, including any 
airborne platform(s),
    (4) Description of recovery system,
    (5) Highest altitude, above ground level, expected to be reached,
    (6) Launch site latitude, longitude, and elevation, and
    (7) Any additional safety procedures that will be followed.
    (b) Class 3--Advanced High-Power Rockets. When a Class 3--Advanced 
High-Power Rocket requires a certificate of waiver or authorization the 
person planning the operation must provide the information below for 
each type of rocket to the FAA at least 45 days before the proposed 
operation. The FAA may request additional information if necessary to 
ensure the proposed operations can be safely conducted. The information 
shall include for each type of Class 3 rocket expected to be flown:
    (1) The information requirements of paragraph (a) of this section,
    (2) Maximum possible range,
    (3) The dynamic stability characteristics for the entire flight 
profile,
    (4) A description of all major rocket systems, including structural, 
pneumatic, propellant, propulsion, ignition, electrical, avionics, 
recovery, wind-weighting, flight control, and tracking,
    (5) A description of other support equipment necessary for a safe 
operation,
    (6) The planned flight profile and sequence of events,
    (7) All nominal impact areas, including those for any spent motors 
and other discarded hardware, within three standard deviations of the 
mean impact point,
    (8) Launch commit criteria,
    (9) Countdown procedures, and
    (10) Mishap procedures.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27390, 73 FR 73781, Dec. 4, 2008, as amended at Doc. 
No. FAA-2007-27390, 74 FR 31843, July 6, 2009]



                    Subpart D_Unmanned Free Balloons

    Source: Docket No. 1457, 29 FR 47, Jan. 3, 1964, unless otherwise 
noted.



Sec. 101.31  Applicability.

    This subpart applies to the operation of unmanned free balloons. 
However, a person operating an unmanned free balloon within a restricted 
area must comply only with Sec. 101.33 (d) and (e) and with any 
additional limitations that are imposed by the using or controlling 
agency, as appropriate.



Sec. 101.33  Operating limitations.

    No person may operate an unmanned free balloon--
    (a) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, below 2,000 feet above the 
surface within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, 
Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport;
    (b) At any altitude where there are clouds or obscuring phenomena of 
more than five-tenths coverage;
    (c) At any altitude below 60,000 feet standard pressure altitude 
where the horizontal visibility is less than five miles;
    (d) During the first 1,000 feet of ascent, over a congested area of 
a city, town, or settlement or an open-air assembly of persons not 
associated with the operation; or
    (e) In such a manner that impact of the balloon, or part thereof 
including its payload, with the surface creates a hazard to persons or 
property not associated with the operation.

[Doc. No. 1457, 29 FR 47, Jan. 3, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 101-5, 56 FR 
65662, Dec. 17, 1991]



Sec. 101.35  Equipment and marking requirements.

    (a) No person may operate an unmanned free balloon unless--
    (1) It is equipped with at least two payload cut-down systems or 
devices that operate independently of each other;
    (2) At least two methods, systems, devices, or combinations thereof, 
that function independently of each other, are employed for terminating 
the flight of the balloon envelope; and
    (3) The balloon envelope is equipped with a radar reflective 
device(s) or material that will present an echo to surface radar 
operating in the 200 MHz to 2700 MHz frequency range.


[[Page 891]]



The operator shall activate the appropriate devices required by 
paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section when weather conditions are 
less than those prescribed for operation under this subpart, or if a 
malfunction or any other reason makes the further operation hazardous to 
other air traffic or to persons and property on the surface.
    (b) No person may operate an unmanned free balloon below 60,000 feet 
standard pressure altitude between sunset and sunrise (as corrected to 
the altitude of operation) unless the balloon and its attachments and 
payload, whether or not they become separated during the operation, are 
equipped with lights that are visible for at least 5 miles and have a 
flash frequency of at least 40, and not more than 100, cycles per 
minute.
    (c) No person may operate an unmanned free balloon that is equipped 
with a trailing antenna that requires an impact force of more than 50 
pounds to break it at any point, unless the antenna has colored pennants 
or streamers that are attached at not more than 50 foot intervals and 
that are visible for at least one mile.
    (d) No person may operate between sunrise and sunset an unmanned 
free balloon that is equipped with a suspension device (other than a 
highly conspicuously colored open parachute) more than 50 feet along, 
unless the suspension device is colored in alternate bands of high 
conspicuity colors or has colored pennants or streamers attached which 
are visible for at least one mile.

(Sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))

[Doc. No. 1457, 29 FR 47, Jan. 3, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 101-2, 32 FR 
5254, Mar. 29, 1967; Amdt. 101-4, 39 FR 22252, June 21, 1974]



Sec. 101.37  Notice requirements.

    (a) Prelaunch notice: Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this 
section, no person may operate an unmanned free balloon unless, within 6 
to 24 hours before beginning the operation, he gives the following 
information to the FAA ATC facility that is nearest to the place of 
intended operation:
    (1) The balloon identification.
    (2) The estimated date and time of launching, amended as necessary 
to remain within plus or minus 30 minutes.
    (3) The location of the launching site.
    (4) The cruising altitude.
    (5) The forecast trajectory and estimated time to cruising altitude 
or 60,000 feet standard pressure altitude, whichever is lower.
    (6) The length and diameter of the balloon, length of the suspension 
device, weight of the payload, and length of the trailing antenna.
    (7) The duration of flight.
    (8) The forecast time and location of impact with the surface of the 
earth.
    (b) For solar or cosmic disturbance investigations involving a 
critical time element, the information in paragraph (a) of this section 
shall be given within 30 minutes to 24 hours before beginning the 
operation.
    (c) Cancellation notice: If the operation is canceled, the person 
who intended to conduct the operation shall immediately notify the 
nearest FAA ATC facility.
    (d) Launch notice: Each person operating an unmanned free balloon 
shall notify the nearest FAA or military ATC facility of the launch time 
immediately after the balloon is launched.



Sec. 101.39  Balloon position reports.

    (a) Each person operating an unmanned free balloon shall:
    (1) Unless ATC requires otherwise, monitor the course of the balloon 
and record its position at least every two hours; and
    (2) Forward any balloon position reports requested by ATC.
    (b) One hour before beginning descent, each person operating an 
unmanned free balloon shall forward to the nearest FAA ATC facility the 
following information regarding the balloon:
    (1) The current geographical position.
    (2) The altitude.
    (3) The forecast time of penetration of 60,000 feet standard 
pressure altitude (if applicable).
    (4) The forecast trajectory for the balance of the flight.
    (5) The forecast time and location of impact with the surface of the 
earth.
    (c) If a balloon position report is not recorded for any two-hour 
period of flight, the person operating an unmanned free balloon shall 
immediately notify the nearest FAA ATC facility.

[[Page 892]]

The notice shall include the last recorded position and any revision of 
the forecast trajectory. The nearest FAA ATC facility shall be notified 
immediately when tracking of the balloon is re-established.
    (d) Each person operating an unmanned free balloon shall notify the 
nearest FAA ATC facility when the operation is ended.



PART 103_ULTRALIGHT VEHICLES--Table of Contents



                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
103.1 Applicability.
103.3 Inspection requirements.
103.5 Waivers.
103.7 Certification and registration.

                        Subpart B_Operating Rules

103.9 Hazardous operations.
103.11 Daylight operations.
103.13 Operation near aircraft; right-of-way rules.
103.15 Operations over congested areas.
103.17 Operations in certain airspace.
103.19 Operations in prohibited or restricted areas.
103.20 Flight restrictions in the proximity of certain areas designated 
          by notice to airmen.
103.21 Visual reference with the surface.
103.23 Flight visibility and cloud clearance requirements.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40103-40104, 40113, 44701.

    Source: Docket No. 21631, 47 FR 38776, Sept. 2, 1982, unless 
otherwise noted.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 103.1  Applicability.

    This part prescribes rules governing the operation of ultralight 
vehicles in the United States. For the purposes of this part, an 
ultralight vehicle is a vehicle that:
    (a) Is used or intended to be used for manned operation in the air 
by a single occupant;
    (b) Is used or intended to be used for recreation or sport purposes 
only;
    (c) Does not have any U.S. or foreign airworthiness certificate; and
    (d) If unpowered, weighs less than 155 pounds; or
    (e) If powered:
    (1) Weighs less than 254 pounds empty weight, excluding floats and 
safety devices which are intended for deployment in a potentially 
catastrophic situation;
    (2) Has a fuel capacity not exceeding 5 U.S. gallons;
    (3) Is not capable of more than 55 knots calibrated airspeed at full 
power in level flight; and
    (4) Has a power-off stall speed which does not exceed 24 knots 
calibrated airspeed.



Sec. 103.3  Inspection requirements.

    (a) Any person operating an ultralight vehicle under this part 
shall, upon request, allow the Administrator, or his designee, to 
inspect the vehicle to determine the applicability of this part.
    (b) The pilot or operator of an ultralight vehicle must, upon 
request of the Administrator, furnish satisfactory evidence that the 
vehicle is subject only to the provisions of this part.



Sec. 103.5  Waivers.

    No person may conduct operations that require a deviation from this 
part except under a written waiver issued by the Administrator.



Sec. 103.7  Certification and registration.

    (a) Notwithstanding any other section pertaining to certification of 
aircraft or their parts or equipment, ultralight vehicles and their 
component parts and equipment are not required to meet the airworthiness 
certification standards specified for aircraft or to have certificates 
of airworthiness.
    (b) Notwithstanding any other section pertaining to airman 
certification, operators of ultralight vehicles are not required to meet 
any aeronautical knowledge, age, or experience requirements to operate 
those vehicles or to have airman or medical certificates.
    (c) Notwithstanding any other section pertaining to registration and 
marking of aircraft, ultralight vehicles are not required to be 
registered or to bear markings of any type.

[[Page 893]]



                        Subpart B_Operating Rules



Sec. 103.9  Hazardous operations.

    (a) No person may operate any ultralight vehicle in a manner that 
creates a hazard to other persons or property.
    (b) No person may allow an object to be dropped from an ultralight 
vehicle if such action creates a hazard to other persons or property.



Sec. 103.11  Daylight operations.

    (a) No person may operate an ultralight vehicle except between the 
hours of sunrise and sunset.
    (b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, ultralight 
vehicles may be operated during the twilight periods 30 minutes before 
official sunrise and 30 minutes after official sunset or, in Alaska, 
during the period of civil twilight as defined in the Air Almanac, if:
    (1) The vehicle is equipped with an operating anticollision light 
visible for at least 3 statute miles; and
    (2) All operations are conducted in uncontrolled airspace.



Sec. 103.13  Operation near aircraft; right-of-way rules.

    (a) Each person operating an ultralight vehicle shall maintain 
vigilance so as to see and avoid aircraft and shall yield the right-of-
way to all aircraft.
    (b) No person may operate an ultralight vehicle in a manner that 
creates a collision hazard with respect to any aircraft.
    (c) Powered ultralights shall yield the right-of-way to unpowered 
ultralights.



Sec. 103.15  Operations over congested areas.

    No person may operate an ultralight vehicle over any congested area 
of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of 
persons.



Sec. 103.17  Operations in certain airspace.

    No person may operate an ultralight vehicle within Class A, Class B, 
Class C, or Class D airspace or within the lateral boundaries of the 
surface area of Class E airspace designated for an airport unless that 
person has prior authorization from the ATC facility having jurisdiction 
over that airspace.

[Amdt. 103-17, 56 FR 65662, Dec. 17, 1991]



Sec. 103.19  Operations in prohibited or restricted areas.

    No person may operate an ultralight vehicle in prohibited or 
restricted areas unless that person has permission from the using or 
controlling agency, as appropriate.



Sec. 103.20  Flight restrictions in the proximity of certain
areas designated by notice to airmen.

    No person may operate an ultralight vehicle in areas designated in a 
Notice to Airmen under Sec. 91.137, Sec. 91.138, Sec. 91.141, Sec. 
91.143 or Sec. 91.145 of this chapter, unless authorized by:
    (a) Air Traffic Control (ATC); or
    (b) A Flight Standards Certificate of Waiver or Authorization issued 
for the demonstration or event.

[Doc. No. FAA-2000-8274, 66 FR 47378, Sept. 11, 2001]



Sec. 103.21  Visual reference with the surface.

    No person may operate an ultralight vehicle except by visual 
reference with the surface.



Sec. 103.23  Flight visibility and cloud clearance requirements.

    No person may operate an ultralight vehicle when the flight 
visibility or distance from clouds is less than that in the table found 
below. All operations in Class A, Class B, Class C, and Class D airspace 
or Class E airspace designated for an airport must receive prior ATC 
authorization as required in Sec. 103.17 of this part.

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                         Distance from
            Airspace               Flight visibility        clouds
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Class A.........................  Not applicable....  Not Applicable.
Class B.........................  3 statute miles...  Clear of Clouds.
Class C.........................  3 statute miles...  500 feet below.
                                                      1,000 feet above.
                                                      2,000 feet
                                                       horizontal.
Class D.........................  3 statute miles...  500 feet below.
                                                      1,000 feet above.
                                                      2,000 feet
                                                       horizontal.
Class E:
  Less than 10,000 feet MSL.....  3 statute miles...  500 feet below.
                                                      1,000 feet above.
                                                      2,000 feet
                                                       horizontal.

[[Page 894]]

 
  At or above 10,000 feet MSL...  5 statute miles...  1,000 feet below.
                                                      1,000 feet above.
                                                      1 statute mile
                                                       horizontal.
Class G:
  1,200 feet or less above the    1 statute mile....  Clear of clouds.
   surface (regardless of MSL
   altitude).
  More than 1,200 feet above the  1 statute mile....  500 feet below.
   surface but less than 10,000                       1,000 feet above.
   feet MSL.                                          2,000 feet
                                                       horizontal.
  More than 1,200 feet above the  5 statute miles...  1,000 feet below.
   surface and at or above                            1,000 feet above.
   10,000 feet MSL.                                   1 statute mile
                                                       horizontal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


[Amdt. 103-17, 56 FR 65662, Dec. 17, 1991]



PART 105_PARACHUTE OPERATIONS--Table of Contents



                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
105.1 Applicability.
105.3 Definitions.
105.5 General.
105.7 use of alcohol and drugs.
105.9 Inspections.

                        Subpart B_Operating Rules

105.13 Radio equipment and use requirements.
105.15 Information required and notice of cancellation or postponement 
          of a parachute operation.
105.17 Flight visibility and clearance from cloud requirements.
105.19 Parachute operations between sunset and sunrise.
105.21 Parachute operations over or into a congested area or an open-air 
          assembly of persons.
105.23 Parachute operations over or onto airports.
105.25 Parachute operations in designated airspace.

                Subpart C_Parachute Equipment and Packing

105.41 Applicability.
105.43 Use of single-harness, dual-parachute systems.
105.45 Use of tandem parachute systems.
105.47 Use of static lines.
105.49 Foreign parachutists and equipment.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113-40114, 44701-44702, 44721.

    Source: Docket No. FAA-1999-5483, 66 FR 23553, May 9, 2001, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 105.1  Applicability.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, 
this part prescribes rules governing parachute operations conducted in 
the United States.
    (b) This part does not apply to a parachute operation conducted--
    (1) In response to an in-flight emergency, or
    (2) To meet an emergency on the surface when it is conducted at the 
direction or with the approval of an agency of the United States, or of 
a State, Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, or a possession of the 
United States, or an agency or political subdivision thereof.
    (c) Sections 105.5, 105.9, 105.13, 105.15, 105.17, 105.19 through 
105.23, 105.25(a)(1) and 105.27 of this part do not apply to a parachute 
operation conducted by a member of an Armed Force--
    (1) Over or within a restricted area when that area is under the 
control of an Armed Force.
    (2) During military operations in uncontrolled airspace.



Sec. 105.3  Definitions.

    For the purposes of this part--
    Approved parachute means a parachute manufactured under a type 
certificate or a Technical Standard Order (C-23 series), or a personnel-
carrying U.S. military parachute (other than a high altitude, high 
speed, or ejection type) identified by a Navy Air Facility, an Army Air 
Field, and Air Force-Navy drawing number, an Army Air Field order 
number, or any other military designation or specification number.
    Automatic Activation Device means a self-contained mechanical or 
electro-mechanical device that is attached to the interior of the 
reserve parachute container, which automatically initiates parachute 
deployment of the reserve parachute at a pre-set altitude, time, 
percentage of terminal velocity, or combination thereof.
    Direct Supervision means that a certificated rigger personally 
observes a non-certificated person packing a main parachute to the 
extent necessary to

[[Page 895]]

ensure that it is being done properly, and takes responsibility for that 
packing.
    Drop Zone means any pre-determined area upon which parachutists or 
objects land after making an intentional parachute jump or drop. The 
center-point target of a drop zone is expressed in nautical miles from 
the nearest VOR facility when 30 nautical miles or less; or from the 
nearest airport, town, or city depicted on the appropriate Coast and 
Geodetic Survey World Aeronautical Chart or Sectional Aeronautical 
Chart, when the nearest VOR facility is more than 30 nautical miles from 
the drop zone.
    Foreign parachutist means a parachutist who is neither a U.S. 
citizen or a resident alien and is participating in parachute operations 
within the United States using parachute equipment not manufctured in 
the United States.
    Freefall means the portion of a parachute jump or drop between 
aircraft exit and parachute deployment in which the parachute is 
activated manually by the parachutist at the parachutist's discretion or 
automatically, or, in the case of an object, is activated automatically.
    Main parachute means a parachute worn as the primary parachute used 
or intended to be used in conjunction with a reserve parachute.
    Object means any item other than a person that descends to the 
surface from an aircraft in flight when a parachute is used or is 
intended to be used during all or part of the descent.
    Parachute drop means the descent of an object to the surface from an 
aircraft in flight when a parachute is used or intended to be used 
during all or part of that descent.
    Parachute jump means a parachute operation that involves the descent 
of one or more persons to the surface from an aircraft in flight when an 
aircraft is used or intended to be used during all or part of that 
descent.
    Parachute operation means the performance of all activity for the 
purpose of, or in support of, a parachute jump or a parachute drop. This 
parachute operation can involve, but is not limited to, the following 
persons: parachutist, parachutist in command and passenger in tandem 
parachute operations, drop zone or owner or operator, jump master, 
certificated parachute rigger, or pilot.
    Parachutist means a person who intends to exit an aircraft while in 
flight using a single-harness, dual parachute system to descend to the 
surface.
    Parachutist in command means the person responsible for the 
operation and safety of a tandem parachute operation.
    Passenger parachutist means a person who boards an aircraft, acting 
as other than the parachutist in command of a tandem parachute 
operation, with the intent of exiting the aircraft while in-flight using 
the forward harness of a dual harness tandem parachute system to descend 
to the surface.
    Pilot chute means a small parachute used to initiate and/or 
accelerate deployment of a main or reserve parachute.
    Ram-air parachute means a parachute with a canopy consisting of an 
upper and lower surface that is inflated by ram air entering through 
specially designed openings in the front of the canopy to form a gliding 
airfoil.
    Reserve parachute means an approved parachute worn for emergency use 
to be activated only upon failure of the main parachute or in any other 
emergency where use of the main parachute is impractical or use of the 
main parachute would increase risk.
    Single-harness, dual parachute system: means the combination of a 
main parachute, approved reserve parachute, and approved single person 
harness and dual-parachute container. This parachute system may have an 
operational automatic activation device installed.
    Tandem parachute operation: means a parachute operation in which 
more than one person simultaneously uses the same tandem parachute 
system while descending to the surface from an aircraft in flight.
    Tandem parachute system: means the combination of a main parachute, 
approved reserve parachute, and approved harness and dual parachute 
container, and a separate approved forward harness for a passenger 
parachutist. This parachute system must have an operational automatic 
activation device installed.

[[Page 896]]



Sec. 105.5  General.

    No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in command 
of an aircraft may allow a parachute operation to be conducted from an 
aircraft, if that operation creates a hazard to air traffic or to 
persons or property on the surface.



Sec. 105.7  Use of alcohol and drugs.

    No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in command 
of an aircraft may allow a person to conduct a parachute operation from 
that aircraft, if that person is or appears to be under the influence 
of--
    (a) Alcohol, or
    (b) Any drug that affects that person's faculties in any way 
contrary to safety.



Sec. 105.9  Inspections.

    The Administrator may inspect any parachute operation to which this 
part applies (including inspections at the site where the parachute 
operation is being conducted) to determine compliance with the 
regulations of this part.



                        Subpart B_Operating Rules



Sec. 105.13  Radio equipment and use requirements.

    (a) Except when otherwise authorized by air traffic control--
    (1) No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in 
command of an aircraft may allow a parachute operation to be conducted 
from that aircraft, in or into controlled airspace unless, during that 
flight--
    (i) The aircraft is equipped with a functioning two-way radio 
communication system appropriate to the air traffic control facilities 
being used; and
    (ii) Radio communications have been established between the aircraft 
and the air traffic control facility having jurisdiction over the 
affected airspace of the first intended exit altitude at least 5 minutes 
before the parachute operation begins. The pilot in command must 
establish radio communications to receive information regarding air 
traffic activity in the vicinity of the parachute operation.
    (2) The pilot in command of an aircraft used for any parachute 
operation in or into controlled airspace must, during each flight--
    (i) Continuously monitor the appropriate frequency of the aircraft's 
radio communications system from the time radio communications are first 
established between the aircraft and air traffic control, until the 
pilot advises air traffic control that the parachute operation has ended 
for that flight.
    (ii) Advise air traffic control when the last parachutist or object 
leaves the aircraft.
    (b) Parachute operations must be aborted if, prior to receipt of a 
required air traffic control authorization, or during any parachute 
operation in or into controlled airspace, the required radio 
communications system is or becomes inoperative.



Sec. 105.15  Information required and notice of cancellation 
or postponement of a parachute operation.

    (a) Each person requesting an authorization under Sec. Sec. 
105.21(b) and 105.25(a)(2) of this part and each person submitting a 
notification under Sec. 105.25(a)(3) of this part must provide the 
following information (on an individual or group basis):
    (1) The date and time the parachute operation will begin.
    (2) The radius of the drop zone around the target expressed in 
nautical miles.
    (3) The location of the center of the drop zone in relation to--
    (i) The nearest VOR facility in terms of the VOR radial on which it 
is located and its distance in nautical miles from the VOR facility when 
that facility is 30 nautical miles or less from the drop zone target; or
    (ii) the nearest airport, town, or city depicted on the appropriate 
Coast and Geodetic Survey World Aeronautical Chart or Sectional 
Aeronautical Chart, when the nearest VOR facility is more than 30 
nautical miles from the drop zone target.
    (4) Each altitude above mean sea level at which the aircraft will be 
operated when parachutists or objects exist the aircraft.
    (5) The duration of the intended parachute operation.
    (6) The name, address, and telephone number of the person who 
requests the

[[Page 897]]

authorization or gives notice of the parachute operation.
    (7) The registration number of the aircraft to be used.
    (8) The name of the air traffic control facility with jurisdiction 
of the airspace at the first intended exit altitude to be used for the 
parachute operation.
    (b) Each holder of a certificate of authorization issued under 
Sec. Sec. 105.21(b) and 105.25(b) of this part must present that 
certificate for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or any 
Federal, State, or local official.
    (c) Each person requesting an authorization under Sec. Sec. 
105.21(b) and 105.25(a)(2) of this part and each person submitting a 
notice under Sec. 105.25(a)(3) of this part must promptly notify the 
air traffic control facility having jurisdiction over the affected 
airspace if the proposed or scheduled parachute operation is canceled or 
postponed.



Sec. 105.17  Flight visibility and clearance from cloud requirements.

    No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in command 
of an aircraft may allow a parachute operation to be conducted from that 
aircraft--
    (a) Into or through a cloud, or
    (b) When the flight visibility or the distance from any cloud is 
less than that prescribed in the following table:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                        Flight
                                      visibility
              Altitude                 (statute    Distance from clouds
                                        miles)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1,200 feet or less above the surface           3  500 feet below, 1,000
 regardless of the MSL altitude.                   feet above, 2,000
                                                   feet horizontal.
More than 1,200 feet above the                 3  500 feet below, 1,000
 surface but less than 10,000 feet                 feet above, 2,000
 MSL.                                              feet horizontal.
More than 1,200 feet above the                 5  1,000 feet below,
 surface and at or above 10,000 feet               1,000 feet above, 1
 MSL.                                              mile horizontal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------



Sec. 105.19  Parachute operations between sunset and sunrise.

    (a) No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in 
command of an aircraft may allow a person to conduct a parachute 
operation from an aircraft between sunset and sunrise, unless the person 
or object descending from the aircraft displays a light that is visible 
for at least 3 statute miles.
    (b) The light required by paragraph (a) of this section must be 
displayed from the time that the person or object is under a properly 
functioning open parachute until that person or object reaches the 
surface.



Sec. 105.21  Parachute operations over or into a congested area
or an open-air assembly of persons.

    (a) No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in 
command of an aircraft may allow a parachute operation to be conducted 
from that aircraft, over or into a congested area of a city, town, or 
settlement, or an open-air assembly of persons unless a certificate of 
authorization for that parachute operation has been issued under this 
section. However, a parachutist may drift over a congested area or an 
open-air assembly of persons with a fully deployed and properly 
functioning parachute if that parachutist is at a sufficient altitude to 
avoid creating a hazard to persons or property on the surface.
    (b) An application for a certificate of authorization issued under 
this section must--
    (1) Be made in the form and manner prescribed by the Administrator, 
and
    (2) Contain the information required in Sec. 105.15(a) of this 
part.
    (c) Each holder of, and each person named as a participant in a 
certificate of authorization issued under this section must comply with 
all requirements contained in the certificate of authorization.
    (d) Each holder of a certificate of authorization issued under this 
section must present that certificate for inspection upon the request of 
the Administrator, or any Federal, State, or local official.



Sec. 105.23  Parachute operations over or onto airports.

    No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in command 
of an aircraft may allow a parachute operation to be conducted from that 
aircraft, over or onto any airport unless--
    (a) For airports with an operating control tower:

[[Page 898]]

    (1) Prior approval has been obtained from the management of the 
airport to conduct parachute operations over or on that airport.
    (2) Approval has been obtained from the control tower to conduct 
parachute operations over or onto that airport.
    (3) Two-way radio communications are maintained between the pilot of 
the aircraft involved in the parachute operation and the control tower 
of the airport over or onto which the parachute operation is being 
conducted.
    (b) For airports without an operating control tower, prior approval 
has been obtained from the management of the airport to conduct 
parachute operations over or on that airport.
    (c) A parachutist may drift over that airport with a fully deployed 
and properly functioning parachute if the parachutist is at least 2,000 
feet above that airport's traffic pattern, and avoids creating a hazard 
to air traffic or to persons and property on the ground.



Sec. 105.25  Parachute operations in designated airspace.

    (a) No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in 
command of an aircraft may allow a parachute operation to be conducted 
from that aircraft--
    (1) Over or within a restricted area or prohibited area unless the 
controlling agency of the area concerned has authorized that parachute 
operation;
    (2) Within or into a Class A, B, C, D airspace area without, or in 
violation of the requirements of, an air traffic control authorization 
issued under this section;
    (3) Except as provided in paragraph (c) and (d) of this section, 
within or into Class E or G airspace area unless the air traffic control 
facility having jurisdiction over the airspace at the first intended 
exit altitude is notified of the parachute operation no earlier than 24 
hours before or no later than 1 hour before the parachute operation 
begins.
    (b) Each request for a parachute operation authorization or 
notification required under this section must be submitted to the air 
traffic control facility having jurisdiction over the airspace at the 
first intended exit altitude and must include the information prescribed 
by Sec. 105.15(a) of this part.
    (c) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, air 
traffic control facilities may accept a written notification from an 
organization that conducts parachute operations and lists the scheduled 
series of parachute operations to be conducted over a stated period of 
time not longer than 12 calendar months. The notification must contain 
the information prescribed by Sec. 105.15(a) of this part, identify the 
responsible persons associated with that parachute operation, and be 
submitted at least 15 days, but not more than 30 days, before the 
parachute operation begins. The FAA may revoke the acceptance of the 
notification for any failure of the organization conducting the 
parachute operations to comply with its requirements.
    (d) Paragraph (a)(3) of this section does not apply to a parachute 
operation conducted by a member of an Armed Force within a restricted 
area that extends upward from the surface when that area is under the 
control of an Armed Force.



                Subpart C_Parachute Equipment and Packing



Sec. 105.41  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribed rules governing parachute equipment used in 
civil parachute operations.



Sec. 105.43  Use of single-harness, dual-parachute systems.

    No person may conduct a parachute operation using a single-harness, 
dual-parachute system, and no pilot in command of an aircraft may allow 
any person to conduct a parachute operation from that aircraft using a 
single-harness, dual-parachute system, unless that system has at least 
one main parachute, one approved reserve parachute, and one approved 
single person harness and container that are packed as follows:
    (a) The main parachute must have been packed within 180 days before 
the date of its use by a certificated parachute rigger, the person 
making the next jump with that parachute, or a

[[Page 899]]

non-certificated person under the direct supervision of a certificated 
parachute rigger.
    (b) The reserve parachute must have been packed by a certificated 
parachute rigger--
    (1) Within 180 days before the date of its use, if its canopy, 
shroud, and harness are composed exclusively of nylon, rayon, or similar 
synthetic fiber or material that is substantially resistant to damage 
from mold, mildew, and other fungi, and other rotting agents propagated 
in a moist environment; or
    (2) Within 60 days before the date of its use, if it is composed of 
any amount of silk, pongee, or other natural fiber, or material not 
specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
    (c) If installed, the automatic activation device must be maintained 
in accordance with manufacturer instructions for that automatic 
activation device.

[Doc. No. FAA-1999-5483, 66 FR 23553, May 9, 2001, as amended by Amdt. 
105-13, 73 FR 69531, Nov. 19, 2008]



Sec. 105.45  Use of tandem parachute systems.

    (a) No person may conduct a parachute operation using a tandem 
parachute system, and no pilot in command of an aircraft may allow any 
person to conduct a parachute operation from that aircraft using a 
tandem parachute system, unless--
    (1) One of the parachutists using the tandem parachute system is the 
parachutist in command, and meets the following requirements:
    (i) Has a minimum of 3 years of experience in parachuting, and must 
provide documentation that the parachutist--
    (ii) Has completed a minimum of 500 freefall parachute jumps using a 
ram-air parachute, and
    (iii) Holds a master parachute license issued by an organization 
recognized by the FAA, and
    (iv) Has successfully completed a tandem instructor course given by 
the manufacturer of the tandem parachute system used in the parachute 
operation or a course acceptable to the Administrator.
    (v) Has been certified by the appropriate parachute manufacturer or 
tandem course provider as being properly trained on the use of the 
specific tandem parachute system to be used.
    (2) The person acting as parachutist in command:
    (i) Has briefed the passenger parachutist before boarding the 
aircraft. The briefing must include the procedures to be used in case of 
an emergency with the aircraft or after exiting the aircraft, while 
preparing to exit and exiting the aircraft, freefall, operating the 
parachute after freefall, landing approach, and landing.
    (ii) Uses the harness position prescribed by the manufacturer of the 
tandem parachute equipment.
    (b) No person may make a parachute jump with a tandem parachute 
system unless--
    (1) The main parachute has been packed by a certificated parachute 
rigger, the parachutist in command making the next jump with that 
parachute, or a person under the direct supervision of a certificated 
parachute rigger.
    (2) The reserve parachute has been packed by a certificated 
parachute rigger in accordance with Sec. 105.43(b) of this part.
    (3) The tandem parachute system contains an operational automatic 
activation device for the reserve parachute, approved by the 
manufacturer of that tandem parachute system. The device must--
    (i) Have been maintained in accordance with manufacturer 
instructions, and
    (ii) Be armed during each tandem parachute operation.
    (4) The passenger parachutist is provided with a manual main 
parachute activation device and instructed on the use of that device, if 
required by the owner/operator.
    (5) The main parachute is equipped with a single-point release 
system.
    (6) The reserve parachute meets Technical Standard Order C23 
specifications.



Sec. 105.47  Use of static lines.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person 
may conduct a parachute operation using a static line attached to the 
aircraft and

[[Page 900]]

the main parachute unless an assist device, described and attached as 
follows, is used to aid the pilot chute in performing its function, or, 
if no pilot chute is used, to aid in the direct deployment of the main 
parachute canopy. The assist device must--
    (1) Be long enough to allow the main parachute container to open 
before a load is placed on the device.
    (2) Have a static load strength of--
    (i) At least 28 pounds but not more than 160 pounds if it is used to 
aid the pilot chute in performing its function; or
    (ii) At least 56 pounds but not more than 320 pounds if it is used 
to aid in the direct deployment of the main parachute canopy; and
    (3) Be attached as follows:
    (i) At one end, to the static line above the static-line pins or, if 
static-line pins are not used, above the static-line ties to the 
parachute cone.
    (ii) At the other end, to the pilot chute apex, bridle cord, or 
bridle loop, or, if no pilot chute is used, to the main parachute 
canopy.
    (b) No person may attach an assist device required by paragraph (a) 
of this section to any main parachute unless that person is a 
certificated parachute rigger or that person makes the next parachute 
jump with that parachute.
    (c) An assist device is not required for parachute operations using 
direct-deployed, ram-air parachutes.



Sec. 105.49  Foreign parachutists and equipment.

    (a) No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in 
command of an aircraft may allow a parachute operation to be conducted 
from that aircraft with an unapproved foreign parachute system unless--
    (1) The parachute system is worn by a foreign parachutist who is the 
owner of that system.
    (2) The parachute system is of a single-harness dual parachute type.
    (3) The parachute system meets the civil aviation authority 
requirements of the foreign parachutist's country.
    (4) All foreign non-approved parachutes deployed by a foreign 
parachutist during a parachute operation conducted under this section 
shall be packed as follows--
    (i) The main parachute must be packed by the foreign parachutist 
making the next parachute jump with that parachute, a certificated 
parachute rigger, or any other person acceptable to the Administrator.
    (ii) The reserve parachute must be packed in accordance with the 
foreign parachutist's civil aviation authority requirements, by a 
certificated parachute rigger, or any other person acceptable to the 
Administrator.

                           PART 106 [RESERVED]



PART 107_SMALL UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS--Table of Contents



                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
107.1 Applicability.
107.2 Applicability of certification procedures for products and 
          articles.
107.3 Definitions.
107.5 Falsification, reproduction, or alteration.
107.7 Inspection, testing, and demonstration of compliance.
107.9 Safety event reporting.

                        Subpart B_Operating Rules

107.11 Applicability.
107.12 Requirement for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS 
          rating.
107.13 Registration.
107.15 Condition for safe operation.
107.17 Medical condition.
107.19 Remote pilot in command.
107.21 In-flight emergency.
107.23 Hazardous operation.
107.25 Operation from a moving vehicle or aircraft.
107.27 Alcohol or drugs.
107.29 Operation at night.
107.31 Visual line of sight aircraft operation.
107.33 Visual observer.
107.35 Operation of multiple small unmanned aircraft.
107.36 Carriage of hazardous material.
107.37 Operation near aircraft; right-of-way rules.
107.39 Operation over human beings.
107.41 Operation in certain airspace.
107.43 Operation in the vicinity of airports.
107.45 Operation in prohibited or restricted areas.
107.47 Flight restrictions in the proximity of certain areas designated 
          by notice to airmen.
107.49 Preflight familiarization, inspection, and actions for aircraft 
          operation.

[[Page 901]]

107.51 Operating limitations for small unmanned aircraft.

                  Subpart C_Remote Pilot Certification

107.52 ATC transponder equipment prohibition.
107.53 Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out 
          prohibition.
107.56 Applicability.
107.57 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.
107.59 Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results.
107.61 Eligibility.
107.63 Issuance of a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating.
107.64 Temporary certificate.
107.65 Aeronautical knowledge recency.
107.67 Knowledge tests: General procedures and passing grades.
107.69 Knowledge tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.
107.71 Retesting after failure.
107.73 Knowledge and training.
107.74 Small unmanned aircraft system training.
107.77 Change of name or address.
107.79 Voluntary surrender of certificate.

                 Subpart D_Operations Over Human Beings

107.100 Applicability.
107.105 Limitations on operations over human beings.
107.110 Category 1 operations.
107.115 Category 2 operations: Operating requirements.
107.120 Category 2 operations: Eligibility of small unmanned aircraft 
          and other applicant requirements.
107.125 Category 3 operations: Operating requirements.
107.130 Category 3 operations: Eligibility of small unmanned aircraft 
          and other applicant requirements.
107.135 Labeling by remote pilot in command for Category 2 and 3 
          operations.
107.140 Category 4 operations.
107.145 Operations over moving vehicles.
107.150 Variable mode and variable configuration of small unmanned 
          aircraft.
107.155 Means of compliance.
107.160 Declaration of compliance.
107.165 Record retention.

                            Subpart E_Waivers

107.200 Waiver policy and requirements.
107.205 List of regulations subject to waiver.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40101 note, 40103(b), 44701(a)(5), 
46105(c), 46110, 44807.

    Source: Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 
2016, unless otherwise noted.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 107.1  Applicability.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this part 
applies to the registration, airman certification, and operation of 
civil small unmanned aircraft systems within the United States. This 
part also applies to the eligibility of civil small unmanned aircraft 
systems to operate over human beings in the United States.
    (b) This part does not apply to the following:
    (1) Air carrier operations;
    (2) Any aircraft subject to the provisions of 49 U.S.C. 44809;
    (3) Any operation that the holder of an exemption under section 333 
of Public Law 112-95 or 49 U.S.C. 44807 elects to conduct pursuant to 
the exemption, unless otherwise specified in the exemption; or
    (4) Any operation that a person elects to conduct under part 91 of 
this chapter with a small unmanned aircraft system that has been issued 
an airworthiness certificate.

[Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4381, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 107.2  Applicability of certification procedures for 
products and articles.

    The provisions of part 21 of this chapter do not apply to small 
unmanned aircraft systems operated under this part unless the small 
unmanned aircraft system will operate over human beings in accordance 
with Sec. 107.140.

[Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4381, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 107.3  Definitions.

    The following definitions apply to this part. If there is a conflict 
between the definitions of this part and definitions specified in Sec. 
1.1 of this chapter, the definitions in this part control for purposes 
of this part:
    Control station means an interface used by the remote pilot to 
control the flight path of the small unmanned aircraft.
    Corrective lenses means spectacles or contact lenses.
    Declaration of compliance means a record submitted to the FAA that 
certifies the small unmanned aircraft conforms to the Category 2 or 
Category 3

[[Page 902]]

requirements under subpart D of this part.
    Small unmanned aircraft means an unmanned aircraft weighing less 
than 55 pounds on takeoff, including everything that is on board or 
otherwise attached to the aircraft.
    Small unmanned aircraft system (small UAS) means a small unmanned 
aircraft and its associated elements (including communication links and 
the components that control the small unmanned aircraft) that are 
required for the safe and efficient operation of the small unmanned 
aircraft in the national airspace system.
    Unmanned aircraft means an aircraft operated without the possibility 
of direct human intervention from within or on the aircraft.
    Visual observer means a person who is designated by the remote pilot 
in command to assist the remote pilot in command and the person 
manipulating the flight controls of the small UAS to see and avoid other 
air traffic or objects aloft or on the ground.

[Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as 
amended by Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4381, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 107.5  Falsification, reproduction, or alteration.

    (a) No person may make or cause to be made--
    (1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false record or report that is 
required to be made, kept, or used to show compliance with any 
requirement under this part.
    (2) Any reproduction or alteration, for fraudulent purpose, of any 
certificate, rating, authorization, record or report under this part.
    (b) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under 
paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for any of the following:
    (1) Denial of an application for a remote pilot certificate or a 
certificate of waiver;
    (2) Denial of a declaration of compliance;
    (3) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, waiver, or 
declaration of compliance issued or accepted by the Administrator under 
this part and held by that person; or
    (4) A civil penalty.

[Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as 
amended by Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4381, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 107.7  Inspection, testing, and demonstration of compliance.

    (a) A remote pilot in command, owner, or person manipulating the 
flight controls of a small unmanned aircraft system must--
    (1) Have in that person's physical possession and readily accessible 
the remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating and identification 
when exercising the privileges of that remote pilot certificate.
    (2) Present his or her remote pilot certificate with a small UAS 
rating and identification that contains the information listed at Sec. 
107.67(b)(1) through (3) for inspection upon a request from--
    (i) The Administrator;
    (ii) An authorized representative of the National Transportation 
Safety Board;
    (iii) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer; or
    (iv) An authorized representative of the Transportation Security 
Administration.
    (3) Make available, upon request, to the Administrator any document, 
record, or report required to be kept under the regulations of this 
chapter.
    (b) The remote pilot in command, visual observer, owner, operator, 
or person manipulating the flight controls of a small unmanned aircraft 
system must, upon request, allow the Administrator to make any test or 
inspection of the small unmanned aircraft system, the remote pilot in 
command, the person manipulating the flight controls of a small unmanned 
aircraft system, and, if applicable, the visual observer to determine 
compliance with this part.
    (c) Any person holding an FAA-accepted declaration of compliance 
under subpart D of this part must, upon request, make available to the 
Administrator:
    (1) The declaration of compliance required under subpart D of this 
part; and

[[Page 903]]

    (2) Any other document, record, or report required to be kept under 
the regulations of this chapter.
    (d) Any person holding an FAA-accepted declaration of compliance 
under subpart D of this part must, upon request, allow the Administrator 
to inspect its facilities, technical data, and any manufactured small 
UAS and witness any tests necessary to determine compliance with that 
subpart.

[Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4381, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 107.9  Safety event reporting.

    No later than 10 calendar days after an operation that meets the 
criteria of either paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, a remote pilot 
in command must report to the FAA, in a manner acceptable to the 
Administrator, any operation of the small unmanned aircraft involving at 
least:
    (a) Serious injury to any person or any loss of consciousness; or
    (b) Damage to any property, other than the small unmanned aircraft, 
unless one of the following conditions is satisfied:
    (1) The cost of repair (including materials and labor) does not 
exceed $500; or
    (2) The fair market value of the property does not exceed $500 in 
the event of total loss.



                        Subpart B_Operating Rules



Sec. 107.11  Applicability.

    This subpart applies to the operation of all civil small unmanned 
aircraft systems subject to this part.



Sec. 107.12  Requirement for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person 
may manipulate the flight controls of a small unmanned aircraft system 
unless:
    (1) That person has a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS 
rating issued pursuant to subpart C of this part and satisfies the 
requirements of Sec. 107.65; or
    (2) That person is under the direct supervision of a remote pilot in 
command and the remote pilot in command has the ability to immediately 
take direct control of the flight of the small unmanned aircraft.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person 
may act as a remote pilot in command unless that person has a remote 
pilot certificate with a small UAS rating issued pursuant to Subpart C 
of this part and satisfies the requirements of Sec. 107.65.
    (c) The Administrator may, consistent with international standards, 
authorize an airman to operate a civil foreign-registered small unmanned 
aircraft without an FAA-issued remote pilot certificate with a small UAS 
rating.



Sec. 107.13  Registration.

    A person operating a civil small unmanned aircraft system for 
purposes of flight must comply with the provisions of Sec. 91.203(a)(2) 
of this chapter.



Sec. 107.15  Condition for safe operation.

    (a) No person may operate a civil small unmanned aircraft system 
unless it is in a condition for safe operation. Prior to each flight, 
the remote pilot in command must check the small unmanned aircraft 
system to determine whether it is in a condition for safe operation.
    (b) No person may continue flight of the small unmanned aircraft 
when he or she knows or has reason to know that the small unmanned 
aircraft system is no longer in a condition for safe operation.



Sec. 107.17  Medical condition.

    No person may manipulate the flight controls of a small unmanned 
aircraft system or act as a remote pilot in command, visual observer, or 
direct participant in the operation of the small unmanned aircraft if he 
or she knows or has reason to know that he or she has a physical or 
mental condition that would interfere with the safe operation of the 
small unmanned aircraft system.



Sec. 107.19  Remote pilot in command.

    (a) A remote pilot in command must be designated before or during 
the flight of the small unmanned aircraft.
    (b) The remote pilot in command is directly responsible for and is 
the final authority as to the operation of the small unmanned aircraft 
system.

[[Page 904]]

    (c) The remote pilot in command must ensure that the small unmanned 
aircraft will pose no undue hazard to other people, other aircraft, or 
other property in the event of a loss of control of the small unmanned 
aircraft for any reason.
    (d) The remote pilot in command must ensure that the small UAS 
operation complies with all applicable regulations of this chapter.
    (e) The remote pilot in command must have the ability to direct the 
small unmanned aircraft to ensure compliance with the applicable 
provisions of this chapter.

[Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as 
amended by Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 107.21  In-flight emergency.

    (a) In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the remote 
pilot in command may deviate from any rule of this part to the extent 
necessary to meet that emergency.
    (b) Each remote pilot in command who deviates from a rule under 
paragraph (a) of this section must, upon request of the Administrator, 
send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.



Sec. 107.23  Hazardous operation.

    No person may:
    (a) Operate a small unmanned aircraft system in a careless or 
reckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another; or
    (b) Allow an object to be dropped from a small unmanned aircraft in 
a manner that creates an undue hazard to persons or property.



Sec. 107.25  Operation from a moving vehicle or aircraft.

    No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft system--
    (a) From a moving aircraft; or
    (b) From a moving land or water-borne vehicle unless the small 
unmanned aircraft is flown over a sparsely populated area and is not 
transporting another person's property for compensation or hire.



Sec. 107.27  Alcohol or drugs.

    A person manipulating the flight controls of a small unmanned 
aircraft system or acting as a remote pilot in command or visual 
observer must comply with the provisions of Sec. Sec. 91.17 and 91.19 
of this chapter.



Sec. 107.29  Operation at night.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person 
may operate a small unmanned aircraft system at night unless--
    (1) The remote pilot in command of the small unmanned aircraft has 
completed an initial knowledge test or training, as applicable, under 
Sec. 107.65 after April 6, 2021; and
    (2) The small unmanned aircraft has lighted anti-collision lighting 
visible for at least 3 statute miles that has a flash rate sufficient to 
avoid a collision. The remote pilot in command may reduce the intensity 
of, but may not extinguish, the anti-collision lighting if he or she 
determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the 
interest of safety to do so.
    (b) No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft system during 
periods of civil twilight unless the small unmanned aircraft has lighted 
anti-collision lighting visible for at least 3 statute miles that has a 
flash rate sufficient to avoid a collision. The remote pilot in command 
may reduce the intensity of, but may not extinguish, the anti-collision 
lighting if he or she determines that, because of operating conditions, 
it would be in the interest of safety to do so.
    (c) For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section, civil twilight 
refers to the following:
    (1) Except for Alaska, a period of time that begins 30 minutes 
before official sunrise and ends at official sunrise;
    (2) Except for Alaska, a period of time that begins at official 
sunset and ends 30 minutes after official sunset; and
    (3) In Alaska, the period of civil twilight as defined in the Air 
Almanac.
    (d) After May 17, 2021, no person may operate a small unmanned 
aircraft system at night in accordance with a certificate of waiver 
issued prior to April 21, 2021 under Sec. 107.200. The certificates of 
waiver issued prior to March 16, 2021

[[Page 905]]

under Sec. 107.200 that authorize deviation from Sec. 107.29 terminate 
on May 17, 2021.

[Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as 
amended by Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021; 86 FR 13631, Mar. 
10, 2020]



Sec. 107.31  Visual line of sight aircraft operation.

    (a) With vision that is unaided by any device other than corrective 
lenses, the remote pilot in command, the visual observer (if one is 
used), and the person manipulating the flight control of the small 
unmanned aircraft system must be able to see the unmanned aircraft 
throughout the entire flight in order to:
    (1) Know the unmanned aircraft's location;
    (2) Determine the unmanned aircraft's attitude, altitude, and 
direction of flight;
    (3) Observe the airspace for other air traffic or hazards; and
    (4) Determine that the unmanned aircraft does not endanger the life 
or property of another.
    (b) Throughout the entire flight of the small unmanned aircraft, the 
ability described in paragraph (a) of this section must be exercised by 
either:
    (1) The remote pilot in command and the person manipulating the 
flight controls of the small unmanned aircraft system; or
    (2) A visual observer.



Sec. 107.33  Visual observer.

    If a visual observer is used during the aircraft operation, all of 
the following requirements must be met:
    (a) The remote pilot in command, the person manipulating the flight 
controls of the small unmanned aircraft system, and the visual observer 
must maintain effective communication with each other at all times.
    (b) The remote pilot in command must ensure that the visual observer 
is able to see the unmanned aircraft in the manner specified in Sec. 
107.31.
    (c) The remote pilot in command, the person manipulating the flight 
controls of the small unmanned aircraft system, and the visual observer 
must coordinate to do the following:
    (1) Scan the airspace where the small unmanned aircraft is operating 
for any potential collision hazard; and
    (2) Maintain awareness of the position of the small unmanned 
aircraft through direct visual observation.



Sec. 107.35  Operation of multiple small unmanned aircraft.

    A person may not manipulate flight controls or act as a remote pilot 
in command or visual observer in the operation of more than one unmanned 
aircraft at the same time.

[Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 107.36  Carriage of hazardous material.

    A small unmanned aircraft may not carry hazardous material. For 
purposes of this section, the term hazardous material is defined in 49 
CFR 171.8.



Sec. 107.37  Operation near aircraft; right-of-way rules.

    (a) Each small unmanned aircraft must yield the right of way to all 
aircraft, airborne vehicles, and launch and reentry vehicles. Yielding 
the right of way means that the small unmanned aircraft must give way to 
the aircraft or vehicle and may not pass over, under, or ahead of it 
unless well clear.
    (b) No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft so close to 
another aircraft as to create a collision hazard.



Sec. 107.39  Operation over human beings.

    No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft over a human being 
unless--
    (a) That human being is directly participating in the operation of 
the small unmanned aircraft;
    (b) That human being is located under a covered structure or inside 
a stationary vehicle that can provide reasonable protection from a 
falling small unmanned aircraft; or
    (c) The operation meets the requirements of at least one of the 
operational categories specified in subpart D of this part.

[Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 107.41  Operation in certain airspace.

    No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft in Class B, Class C, 
or

[[Page 906]]

Class D airspace or within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of 
Class E airspace designated for an airport unless that person has prior 
authorization from Air Traffic Control (ATC).



Sec. 107.43  Operation in the vicinity of airports.

    No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft in a manner that 
interferes with operations and traffic patterns at any airport, 
heliport, or seaplane base.



Sec. 107.45  Operation in prohibited or restricted areas.

    No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft in prohibited or 
restricted areas unless that person has permission from the using or 
controlling agency, as appropriate.



Sec. 107.47  Flight restrictions in the proximity of certain 
areas designated by notice to airmen.

    A person acting as a remote pilot in command must comply with the 
provisions of Sec. Sec. 91.137 through 91.145 and 99.7 of this chapter.



Sec. 107.49  Preflight familiarization, inspection, and actions 
for aircraft operation.

    Prior to flight, the remote pilot in command must:
    (a) Assess the operating environment, considering risks to persons 
and property in the immediate vicinity both on the surface and in the 
air. This assessment must include:
    (1) Local weather conditions;
    (2) Local airspace and any flight restrictions;
    (3) The location of persons and property on the surface; and
    (4) Other ground hazards.
    (b) Ensure that all persons directly participating in the small 
unmanned aircraft operation are informed about the operating conditions, 
emergency procedures, contingency procedures, roles and 
responsibilities, and potential hazards;
    (c) Ensure that all control links between ground control station and 
the small unmanned aircraft are working properly;
    (d) If the small unmanned aircraft is powered, ensure that there is 
enough available power for the small unmanned aircraft system to operate 
for the intended operational time;
    (e) Ensure that any object attached or carried by the small unmanned 
aircraft is secure and does not adversely affect the flight 
characteristics or controllability of the aircraft; and
    (f) If the operation will be conducted over human beings under 
subpart D of this part, ensure that the aircraft meets the requirements 
of Sec. 107.110, Sec. 107.120(a), Sec. 107.130(a), or Sec. 107.140, 
as applicable.

[Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as 
amended by Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 107.51  Operating limitations for small unmanned aircraft.

    A remote pilot in command and the person manipulating the flight 
controls of the small unmanned aircraft system must comply with all of 
the following operating limitations when operating a small unmanned 
aircraft system:
    (a) The groundspeed of the small unmanned aircraft may not exceed 87 
knots (100 miles per hour).
    (b) The altitude of the small unmanned aircraft cannot be higher 
than 400 feet above ground level, unless the small unmanned aircraft:
    (1) Is flown within a 400-foot radius of a structure; and
    (2) Does not fly higher than 400 feet above the structure's 
immediate uppermost limit.
    (c) The minimum flight visibility, as observed from the location of 
the control station must be no less than 3 statute miles. For purposes 
of this section, flight visibility means the average slant distance from 
the control station at which prominent unlighted objects may be seen and 
identified by day and prominent lighted objects may be seen and 
identified by night.
    (d) The minimum distance of the small unmanned aircraft from clouds 
must be no less than:
    (1) 500 feet below the cloud; and
    (2) 2,000 feet horizontally from the cloud.

[[Page 907]]



                  Subpart C_Remote Pilot Certification



Sec. 107.52  ATC transponder equipment prohibition.

    Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may 
operate a small unmanned aircraft system under this part with a 
transponder on.

[Amdt. No. 107-7, 86 FR 4513, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 107.53  Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast 
(ADS-B) Out prohibition.

    Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may 
operate a small unmanned aircraft system under this part with ADS-B Out 
equipment in transmit mode.

[Amdt. No. 107-7, 86 FR 4513, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 107.56  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the requirements for issuing a remote pilot 
certificate with a small UAS rating.

[ Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016. 
Redesignated by Amdt. No. 107-7, 86 FR 4513, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 107.57  Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.

    (a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or State statute 
relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, 
possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, 
or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for:
    (1) Denial of an application for a remote pilot certificate with a 
small UAS rating for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final 
conviction; or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of a remote pilot certificate with a 
small UAS rating.
    (b) Committing an act prohibited by Sec. 91.17(a) or Sec. 91.19(a) 
of this chapter is grounds for:
    (1) Denial of an application for a remote pilot certificate with a 
small UAS rating for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that 
act; or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of a remote pilot certificate with a 
small UAS rating.



Sec. 107.59  Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results.

    A refusal to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight 
of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer in 
accordance with Sec. 91.17(c) of this chapter, or a refusal to furnish 
or authorize the release of the test results requested by the 
Administrator in accordance with Sec. 91.17(c) or (d) of this chapter, 
is grounds for:
    (a) Denial of an application for a remote pilot certificate with a 
small UAS rating for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that 
refusal; or
    (b) Suspension or revocation of a remote pilot certificate with a 
small UAS rating.



Sec. 107.61  Eligibility.

    Subject to the provisions of Sec. Sec. 107.57 and 107.59, in order 
to be eligible for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating 
under this subpart, a person must:
    (a) Be at least 16 years of age;
    (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, the FAA may place such operating limitations on 
that applicant's certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of 
the small unmanned aircraft;
    (c) Not know or have reason to know that he or she has a physical or 
mental condition that would interfere with the safe operation of a small 
unmanned aircraft system; and
    (d) Demonstrate aeronautical knowledge by satisfying one of the 
following conditions, in a manner acceptable to the Administrator:
    (1) Pass an initial aeronautical knowledge test covering the areas 
of knowledge specified in Sec. 107.73; or
    (2) If a person holds a pilot certificate (other than a student 
pilot certificate) issued under part 61 of this chapter and meets the 
flight review requirements specified in Sec. 61.56, complete training 
covering the areas of knowledge specified in Sec. 107.74.

[Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as 
amended by Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021]

[[Page 908]]



Sec. 107.63  Issuance of a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating.

    An applicant for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating 
under this subpart must make the application in a form and manner 
acceptable to the Administrator.
    (a) The application must include either:
    (1) Evidence showing that the applicant passed an initial 
aeronautical knowledge test. If applying using a paper application, this 
evidence must be an airman knowledge test report showing passage of the 
knowledge test; or
    (2) If a person holds a pilot certificate (other than a student 
pilot certificate) issued under part 61 of this chapter and meets the 
flight review requirements specified in Sec. 61.56, a certificate of 
completion of an initial training course under this part that covers the 
areas of knowledge specified in Sec. 107.74.
    (b) If the application is being made pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of 
this section:
    (1) The application must be submitted to the responsible Flight 
Standards office, a designated pilot examiner, an airman certification 
representative for a pilot school, a certificated flight instructor, or 
other person authorized by the Administrator;
    (2) The person accepting the application submission must verify the 
identity of the applicant in a manner acceptable to the Administrator; 
and
    (3) The person making the application must, by logbook endorsement 
or other manner acceptable to the Administrator, show the applicant 
meets the flight review requirements specified in Sec. 61.56 of this 
chapter.

[Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as 
amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 107-2, 83 FR 9172, Mar. 5, 2018; 
Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021]]



Sec. 107.64  Temporary certificate.

    (a) A temporary remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating is 
issued for up to 120 calendar days, at which time a permanent 
certificate will be issued to a person whom the Administrator finds 
qualified under this part.
    (b) A temporary remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating 
expires:
    (1) On the expiration date shown on the certificate;
    (2) Upon receipt of the permanent certificate; or
    (3) Upon receipt of a notice that the certificate sought is denied 
or revoked.



Sec. 107.65  Aeronautical knowledge recency.

    A person may not exercise the privileges of a remote pilot in 
command with small UAS rating unless that person has accomplished one of 
the following in a manner acceptable to the Administrator within the 
previous 24 calendar months:
    (a) Passed an initial aeronautical knowledge test covering the areas 
of knowledge specified in Sec. 107.73;
    (b) Completed recurrent training covering the areas of knowledge 
specified in Sec. 107.73; or
    (c) If a person holds a pilot certificate (other than a student 
pilot certificate) issued under part 61 of this chapter and meets the 
flight review requirements specified in Sec. 61.56, completed training 
covering the areas of knowledge specified in Sec. 107.74.
    (d) A person who has passed a recurrent aeronautical knowledge test 
in a manner acceptable to the Administrator or who has satisfied the 
training requirement of paragraph (c) of this section prior to April 6, 
2021 within the previous 24 calendar months is considered to be in 
compliance with the requirement of paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, 
as applicable.

[Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021; 86 FR 13631, Mar. 10, 2021]



Sec. 107.67  Knowledge tests: General procedures and passing grades.

    (a) Knowledge tests prescribed by or under this part are given by 
persons and in the manner designated by the Administrator.
    (b) An applicant for a knowledge test must have proper 
identification at the time of application that contains the applicant's:
    (1) Photograph;
    (2) Signature;

[[Page 909]]

    (3) Date of birth, which shows the applicant meets or will meet the 
age requirements of this part for the certificate and rating sought 
before the expiration date of the airman knowledge test report; and
    (4) Permanent mailing address. If the applicant's permanent mailing 
address is a post office box number, then the applicant must also 
provide a current residential address.
    (c) The minimum passing grade for the knowledge test will be 
specified by the Administrator.



Sec. 107.69  Knowledge tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.

    (a) An applicant for a knowledge test may not:
    (1) Copy or intentionally remove any knowledge test;
    (2) Give to another applicant or receive from another applicant any 
part or copy of a knowledge test;
    (3) Give or receive assistance on a knowledge test during the period 
that test is being given;
    (4) Take any part of a knowledge test on behalf of another person;
    (5) Be represented by, or represent, another person for a knowledge 
test;
    (6) Use any material or aid during the period that the test is being 
given, unless specifically authorized to do so by the Administrator; and
    (7) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act 
prohibited by this paragraph.
    (b) An applicant who the Administrator finds has committed an act 
prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section is prohibited, for 1 year 
after the date of committing that act, from:
    (1) Applying for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued 
under this chapter; and
    (2) Applying for and taking any test under this chapter.
    (c) Any certificate or rating held by an applicant may be suspended 
or revoked if the Administrator finds that person has committed an act 
prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section.



Sec. 107.71  Retesting after failure.

    An applicant for a knowledge test who fails that test may not 
reapply for the test for 14 calendar days after failing the test.



Sec. 107.73  Knowledge and training.

    An initial aeronautical knowledge test and recurrent training covers 
the following areas of knowledge:
    (a) Applicable regulations relating to small unmanned aircraft 
system rating privileges, limitations, and flight operation;
    (b) Airspace classification, operating requirements, and flight 
restrictions affecting small unmanned aircraft operation;
    (c) Aviation weather sources and effects of weather on small 
unmanned aircraft performance;
    (d) Small unmanned aircraft loading;
    (e) Emergency procedures;
    (f) Crew resource management;
    (g) Radio communication procedures;
    (h) Determining the performance of the small unmanned aircraft;
    (i) Physiological effects of drugs and alcohol;
    (j) Aeronautical decision-making and judgment;
    (k) Airport operations;
    (l) Maintenance and preflight inspection procedures; and
    (m) Operation at night.

[Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4383, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 107.74  Small unmanned aircraft system training.

    Training for pilots who hold a pilot certificate (other than a 
student pilot certificate) issued under part 61 of this chapter and meet 
the flight review requirements specified in Sec. 61.56 covers the 
following areas of knowledge:
    (a) Applicable regulations relating to small unmanned aircraft 
system rating privileges, limitations, and flight operation;
    (b) Effects of weather on small unmanned aircraft performance;
    (c) Small unmanned aircraft loading;
    (d) Emergency procedures;
    (e) Crew resource management;
    (f) Determining the performance of the small unmanned aircraft;
    (g) Maintenance and preflight inspection procedures; and
    (h) Operation at night.

[Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4383, Jan. 15, 2021]



Sec. 107.77  Change of name or address.

    (a) Change of name. An application to change the name on a 
certificate issued

[[Page 910]]

under this subpart must be accompanied by the applicant's:
    (1) Remote pilot certificate with small UAS rating; and
    (2) A copy of the marriage license, court order, or other document 
verifying the name change.
    (b) The documents in paragraph (a) of this section will be returned 
to the applicant after inspection.
    (c) Change of address. The holder of a remote pilot certificate with 
small UAS rating issued under this subpart who has made a change in 
permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from that date, 
exercise the privileges of the certificate unless the holder has 
notified the FAA of the change in address using one of the following 
methods:
    (1) By letter to the FAA Airman Certification Branch, P.O. Box 
25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125 providing the new permanent mailing 
address, or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box 
number, then the holder's current residential address; or
    (2) By using the FAA Web site portal at www.faa.gov providing the 
new permanent mailing address, or if the permanent mailing address 
includes a post office box number, then the holder's current residential 
address.



Sec. 107.79  Voluntary surrender of certificate.

    (a) The holder of a certificate issued under this subpart may 
voluntarily surrender it for cancellation.
    (b) Any request made under paragraph (a) of this section must 
include the following signed statement or its equivalent: ``I 
voluntarily surrender my remote pilot certificate with a small UAS 
rating for cancellation. This request is made for my own reasons, with 
full knowledge that my certificate will not be reissued to me unless I 
again complete the requirements specified in Sec. Sec. 107.61 and 
107.63.''



                 Subpart D_Operations Over Human Beings

    Source: Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021



Sec. 107.100  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the eligibility and operating requirements 
for civil small unmanned aircraft to operate over human beings or over 
moving vehicles in the United States, in addition to those operations 
permitted by Sec. 107.39(a) and (b).



Sec. 107.105  Limitations on operations over human beings.

    Except as provided in Sec. Sec. 107.39(a) and (b) and 107.145, a 
remote pilot in command may conduct operations over human beings only in 
accordance with the following, as applicable: Sec. 107.110 for Category 
1 operations; Sec. Sec. 107.115 and 107.120 for Category 2 operations; 
Sec. Sec. 107.125 and 107.130 for Category 3 operations; or Sec. 
107.140 for Category 4 operations.



Sec. 107.110  Category 1 operations.

    To conduct Category 1 operations--
    (a) A remote pilot in command must use a small unmanned aircraft 
that--
    (1) Weighs 0.55 pounds or less on takeoff and throughout the 
duration of each operation under Category 1, including everything that 
is on board or otherwise attached to the aircraft; and
    (2) Does not contain any exposed rotating parts that would lacerate 
human skin upon impact with a human being.
    (b) No remote pilot in command may operate a small unmanned aircraft 
in sustained flight over open-air assemblies of human beings unless the 
operation meets the requirements of either Sec. 89.110 or Sec. 
89.115(a) of this chapter.

[Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021, as amended by 86 FR 62473, 
Nov. 10, 2021]



Sec. 107.115  Category 2 operations: Operating requirements.

    To conduct Category 2 operations--
    (a) A remote pilot in command must use a small unmanned aircraft 
that--
    (1) Is eligible for Category 2 operations pursuant to Sec. 
107.120(a);
    (2) Is listed on an FAA-accepted declaration of compliance as 
eligible for Category 2 operations in accordance with Sec. 107.160; and
    (3) Is labeled as eligible to conduct Category 2 operations in 
accordance with Sec. 107.120(b)(1).

[[Page 911]]

    (b) No remote pilot in command may operate a small unmanned aircraft 
in sustained flight over open-air assemblies of human beings unless the 
operation meets the requirements of either Sec. 89.110 or Sec. 
89.115(a) of this chapter.



Sec. 107.120  Category 2 operations: Eligibility of small
unmanned aircraft and other applicant requirements.

    (a) To be eligible for use in Category 2 operations, the small 
unmanned aircraft must be designed, produced, or modified such that it--
    (1) Will not cause injury to a human being that is equivalent to or 
greater than the severity of injury caused by a transfer of 11 foot-
pounds of kinetic energy upon impact from a rigid object;
    (2) Does not contain any exposed rotating parts that would lacerate 
human skin upon impact with a human being; and
    (3) Does not contain any safety defects.
    (b) The applicant for a declaration of compliance for a small 
unmanned aircraft that is eligible for use in Category 2 operations in 
accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, must meet all of the 
following requirements for the applicant's unmanned aircraft to be used 
in Category 2 operations:
    (1) Display a label on the small unmanned aircraft indicating 
eligibility to conduct Category 2 operations. The label must be in 
English and be legible, prominent, and permanently affixed to the small 
unmanned aircraft.
    (2) Have remote pilot operating instructions that apply to the 
operation of the small unmanned aircraft system. The applicant for a 
declaration of compliance must make available these instructions upon 
sale or transfer of the aircraft or use of the aircraft by someone other 
than the applicant who submitted a declaration of compliance pursuant to 
Sec. 107.160. Such instructions must address, at a minimum--
    (i) A system description that includes the required small unmanned 
aircraft system components, any system limitations, and the declared 
category or categories of operation;
    (ii) Modifications that will not change the ability of the small 
unmanned aircraft system to meet the requirements for the category or 
categories of operation the small unmanned aircraft system is eligible 
to conduct; and
    (iii) Instructions for how to verify and change the mode or 
configuration of the small unmanned aircraft system, if they are 
variable.
    (3) Maintain a product support and notification process. The 
applicant for a declaration of compliance must maintain product support 
and notification procedures to notify the public and the FAA of--
    (i) Any defect or condition that causes the small unmanned aircraft 
to no longer meet the requirements of this subpart; and
    (ii) Any identified safety defect that causes the small unmanned 
aircraft to exceed a low probability of casualty.



Sec. 107.125  Category 3 operations: Operating requirements.

    To conduct Category 3 operations, a remote pilot in command--
    (a) Must use a small unmanned aircraft that--
    (1) Is eligible for Category 3 operations pursuant to Sec. 
107.130(a);
    (2) Is listed on an FAA-accepted declaration of compliance as 
eligible for Category 3 operations in accordance with Sec. 107.160; and
    (3) Is labeled as eligible for Category 3 operations in accordance 
with Sec. 107.130(b)(1);
    (b) Must not operate the small unmanned aircraft over open-air 
assemblies of human beings; and
    (c) May only operate the small unmanned aircraft above any human 
being if operation meets one of the following conditions:
    (1) The operation is within or over a closed- or restricted-access 
site and all human beings located within the closed- or restricted-
access site must be on notice that a small unmanned aircraft may fly 
over them; or
    (2) The small unmanned aircraft does not maintain sustained flight 
over any human being unless that human being is--
    (i) Directly participating in the operation of the small unmanned 
aircraft; or
    (ii) Located under a covered structure or inside a stationary 
vehicle that

[[Page 912]]

can provide reasonable protection from a falling small unmanned 
aircraft.

[Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4382, Jan. 15, 2021, as amended by 86 FR 62473, 
Nov. 10, 2021]



Sec. 107.130  Category 3 operations: Eligibility of small unmanned aircraft and other applicant requirements.

    (a) To be eligible for use in Category 3 operations, the small 
unmanned aircraft must be designed, produced, or modified such that it--
    (1) Will not cause injury to a human being that is equivalent to or 
greater than the severity of the injury caused by a transfer of 25 foot-
pounds of kinetic energy upon impact from a rigid object;
    (2) Does not contain any exposed rotating parts that would lacerate 
human skin upon impact with a human being; and
    (3) Does not contain any safety defects.
    (b) The applicant for a declaration of compliance for a small 
unmanned aircraft that is eligible for use in Category 3 operations in 
accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, must meet all of the 
following requirements for the applicant's small unmanned aircraft to be 
used in Category 3 operations:
    (1) Display a label on the small unmanned aircraft indicating 
eligibility to conduct Category 3 operations. The label must be in 
English and be legible, prominent, and permanently affixed to the small 
unmanned aircraft.
    (2) Have remote pilot operating instructions that apply to the 
operation of the small unmanned aircraft system. The applicant for a 
declaration of compliance must make available these instructions upon 
sale or transfer of the aircraft or use of the aircraft by someone other 
than the applicant who submitted a declaration of compliance pursuant to 
Sec. 107.160. Such instructions must address, at a minimum--
    (i) A system description that includes the required small unmanned 
aircraft system components, any system limitations, and the declared 
category or categories of operation;
    (ii) Modifications that will not change the ability of the small 
unmanned aircraft system to meet the requirements for the category or 
categories of operation the small unmanned aircraft system is eligible 
to conduct; and
    (iii) Instructions for how to verify and change the mode or 
configuration of the small unmanned aircraft system, if they are 
variable.
    (3) Maintain a product support and notification process. The 
applicant for a declaration of compliance must maintain product support 
and notification procedures to notify the public and the FAA of--
    (i) Any defect or condition that causes the small unmanned aircraft 
to no longer meet the requirements of this subpart; and
    (ii) Any identified safety defect that causes the small unmanned 
aircraft to exceed a low probability of fatality.



Sec. 107.135  Labeling by remote pilot in command for Category
2 and 3 operations.

    If a Category 2 or Category 3 label affixed to a small unmanned 
aircraft is damaged, destroyed, or missing, a remote pilot in command 
must label the aircraft in English such that the label is legible, 
prominent, and will remain on the small unmanned aircraft for the 
duration of the operation before conducting operations over human 
beings. The label must correctly identify the category or categories of 
operation over human beings that the small unmanned aircraft is 
qualified to conduct in accordance with this subpart.



Sec. 107.140  Category 4 operations.

    (a) Remote pilot in command requirements. To conduct Category 4 
operations--
    (1) A remote pilot in command--
    (i) Must use a small unmanned aircraft that is eligible for Category 
4 operations pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section; and
    (ii) Must operate the small unmanned aircraft in accordance with all 
operating limitations that apply to the small unmanned aircraft, as 
specified by the Administrator.
    (2) No remote pilot in command may operate a small unmanned aircraft 
in sustained flight over open-air assemblies of human beings unless the 
operation meets the requirements of either Sec. 89.110 or Sec. 
89.115(a) of this chapter.

[[Page 913]]

    (b) Small unmanned aircraft requirements for Category 4. To be 
eligible to operate over human beings under this section, the small 
unmanned aircraft must--
    (1) Have an airworthiness certificate issued under part 21 of this 
chapter.
    (2) Be operated in accordance with the operating limitations 
specified in the approved Flight Manual or as otherwise specified by the 
Administrator. The operating limitations must not prohibit operations 
over human beings.
    (3) Have maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, or 
inspections performed in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this 
section.
    (c) Maintenance requirements for Category 4. The owner must (unless 
the owner enters into an agreement with an operator to meet the 
requirements of this paragraph (c), then the operator must) meet the 
requirements of this paragraph (c):
    (1) Ensure the person performing any maintenance, preventive 
maintenance, alterations, or inspections:
    (i) Uses the methods, techniques, and practices prescribed in the 
manufacturer's current maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued 
Airworthiness that are acceptable to the Administrator, or other 
methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Administrator;
    (ii) Has the knowledge, skill, and appropriate equipment to perform 
the work;
    (iii) Performs the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or 
alterations on the small unmanned aircraft in a manner using the 
methods, techniques, and practices prescribed in the manufacturer's 
current maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness 
prepared by its manufacturer, or other methods, techniques, and 
practices acceptable to the Administrator;
    (iv) Inspects the small unmanned aircraft in accordance with the 
manufacturer's instructions or other instructions acceptable to the 
Administrator; and
    (v) Performs the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations 
using parts of such a quality that the condition of the aircraft will be 
at least equal to its original or properly altered condition.
    (2) Maintain all records of maintenance, preventive maintenance, and 
alterations performed on the aircraft and ensure the records are 
documented in a manner acceptable to the Administrator. The records must 
contain the description of the work performed, the date the work was 
completed, and the name of the person who performed the work.
    (3) Maintain all records containing--
    (i) The status of life-limited parts that are installed on, or part 
of, the small unmanned aircraft;
    (ii) The inspection status of the aircraft; and
    (iii) The status of applicable airworthiness directives including 
the method of compliance, the airworthiness directive number, and 
revision date. If the airworthiness directive involves recurring action, 
the record must contain the time and date of the next required action.
    (4) Retain the records required under paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of 
this section, as follows:
    (i) The records documenting maintenance, preventive maintenance, or 
alterations performed must be retained for 1 year from when the work is 
completed or until the maintenance is repeated or superseded by other 
work.
    (ii) The records documenting the status of life-limited parts, 
compliance with airworthiness directives, and inspection status of the 
small unmanned aircraft must be retained and transferred with the 
aircraft upon change in ownership.
    (5) Ensure all records under paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this 
section are available for inspection upon request from the Administrator 
or any authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety 
Board (NTSB).
    (d) Compliance with parts 43 and 91 of this chapter. Compliance with 
part 43 and part 91, subpart E, of this chapter fulfills the 
requirements in paragraphs (b)(3) and (c) of this section.

[Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4383, Jan. 15, 2021; 86 FR 13633, Mar. 10, 2021]

[[Page 914]]



Sec. 107.145  Operations over moving vehicles.

    No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft over a human being 
located inside a moving vehicle unless the following conditions are met:
    (a) The operation occurs in accordance with Sec. 107.110 for 
Category 1 operations; Sec. 107.115 for Category 2 operations; Sec. 
107.125 for Category 3 operations; or Sec. 107.140 for Category 4 
operations.
    (b) For an operation under Category 1, Category 2, or Category 3, 
the small unmanned aircraft, throughout the operation--
    (1) Must remain within or over a closed- or restricted-access site, 
and all human beings located inside a moving vehicle within the closed- 
or restricted-access site must be on notice that a small unmanned 
aircraft may fly over them; or
    (2) Must not maintain sustained flight over moving vehicles.
    (c) For a Category 4 operation, the small unmanned aircraft must--
    (1) Have an airworthiness certificate issued under part 21 of this 
chapter.
    (2) Be operated in accordance with the operating limitations 
specified in the approved Flight Manual or as otherwise specified by the 
Administrator. The operating limitations must not prohibit operations 
over human beings located inside moving vehicles.



Sec. 107.150  Variable mode and variable configuration of 
small unmanned aircraft systems.

    A small unmanned aircraft system may be eligible for one or more 
categories of operation over human beings under this subpart, as long as 
a remote pilot in command cannot inadvertently switch between modes or 
configurations.



Sec. 107.155  Means of compliance.

    (a) Establishment of compliance. To meet the requirements of Sec. 
107.120(a) for operations in Category 2, or the requirements of Sec. 
107.130(a) for operations in Category 3, the means of compliance must 
consist of test, analysis, or inspection.
    (b) Required information. An applicant requesting FAA acceptance of 
a means of compliance must submit the following information to the FAA 
in a manner specified by the Administrator:
    (1) Procedures. Detailed description of the means of compliance, 
including applicable test, analysis, or inspection procedures to 
demonstrate how the small unmanned aircraft meets the requirements of 
Sec. 107.120(a) for operations in Category 2 or the requirements of 
Sec. 107.130(a) for operations in Category 3. The description should 
include conditions, environments, and methods, as applicable.
    (2) Compliance explanation. Explanation of how application of the 
means of compliance fulfills the requirements of Sec. 107.120(a) for 
operations in Category 2 or the requirements of Sec. 107.130(a) for 
operations in Category 3.
    (c) FAA acceptance. If the FAA determines the applicant has 
demonstrated compliance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, it 
will notify the applicant that it has accepted the means of compliance.
    (d) Rescission. (1) A means of compliance is subject to ongoing 
review by the Administrator. The Administrator may rescind its 
acceptance of a means of compliance if the Administrator determines that 
a means of compliance does not meet any or all of the requirements of 
this subpart.
    (2) The Administrator will publish a notice of rescission in the 
Federal Register.
    (e) Inapplicability of part 13, subpart D, of this chapter. Part 13, 
subpart D, of this chapter does not apply to the procedures of paragraph 
(a) of this section.



Sec. 107.160  Declaration of compliance.

    (a) Required information. In order for an applicant to declare a 
small unmanned aircraft is compliant with the requirements of this 
subpart for Category 2 or Category 3 operations, an applicant must 
submit a declaration of compliance for acceptance by the FAA, in a 
manner specified by the Administrator, that includes the following 
information:
    (1) Applicant's name;
    (2) Applicant's physical address;
    (3) Applicant's email address;
    (4) The small unmanned aircraft make and model name, and series, if 
applicable;

[[Page 915]]

    (5) The small unmanned aircraft serial number or range of serial 
numbers that are the subject of the declaration of compliance;
    (6) Whether the declaration of compliance is an initial declaration 
or an amended declaration;
    (7) If the declaration of compliance is an amended declaration, the 
reason for the re-submittal;
    (8) The accepted means of compliance the applicant used to fulfill 
requirements of Sec. 107.120(a) or Sec. 107.130(a) or both;
    (9) A declaration that the applicant--
    (i) Has demonstrated that the small unmanned aircraft, or specific 
configurations of that aircraft, satisfies Sec. 107.120(a) or Sec. 
107.130(a) or both, through the accepted means of compliance identified 
in paragraph (a)(8) of this section;
    (ii) Has verified that the unmanned aircraft does not contain any 
safety defects;
    (iii) Has satisfied Sec. 107.120(b)(3) or Sec. 107.130(b)(3), or 
both; and
    (iv) Will, upon request, allow the Administrator to inspect its 
facilities, technical data, and any manufactured small unmanned aircraft 
and witness any tests necessary to determine compliance with this 
subpart; and
    (10) Other information as required by the Administrator.
    (b) FAA acceptance. If the FAA determines the applicant has 
demonstrated compliance with the requirements of this subpart, it will 
notify the applicant that it has accepted the declaration of compliance.
    (c) Notification of a safety issue. Prior to initiating rescission 
proceedings pursuant to paragraphs (d)(1) through (3) of this section, 
the FAA will notify the applicant if a safety issue has been identified 
for the declaration of compliance.
    (d) Rescission. (1) No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft 
identified on a declaration of compliance that the FAA has rescinded 
pursuant to this subpart while that declaration of compliance is 
rescinded.
    (2) The FAA may rescind a declaration of compliance if any of the 
following conditions occur:
    (i) A small unmanned aircraft for which a declaration of compliance 
was accepted no longer complies with Sec. 107.120(a) or Sec. 
107.130(a);
    (ii) The FAA finds a declaration of compliance is in violation of 
Sec. 107.5(a); or
    (iii) The Administrator determines an emergency exists related to 
safety in accordance with the authority in 49 U.S.C. 46105.
    (3) If a safety issue identified under paragraph (c) of this section 
has not been resolved, the FAA may rescind the declaration of compliance 
as follows:
    (i) The FAA will issue a notice proposing to rescind the declaration 
of compliance. The notice will set forth the Agency's basis for the 
proposed rescission and provide the holder of the declaration of 
compliance with 30 calendar days from the date of issuance of the 
proposed notice to submit evidentiary information to refute the proposed 
notice.
    (ii) The holder of the declaration of compliance must submit 
information demonstrating how the small unmanned aircraft meets the 
requirements of this subpart within 30 calendar days from the date of 
issuance of the proposed notice.
    (iii) If the FAA does not receive the information required by 
paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section within 30 calendar days from the 
date of the issuance of the proposed notice, the FAA will issue a notice 
rescinding the declaration of compliance.
    (4) If the Administrator determines that an emergency exists in 
accordance with paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, the FAA will 
exercise its authority under 49 U.S.C. 46105(c) to issue an order 
rescinding a declaration of compliance without initiating the process in 
paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
    (e) Petition to reconsider the rescission of a declaration of 
compliance. A person subject to an order of rescission under paragraph 
(d)(3) of this section may petition the FAA to reconsider the rescission 
of a declaration of compliance by submitting a request to the FAA in a 
manner specified by the Administrator within 60 days of the date of 
issuance of the rescission.
    (1) A petition to reconsider the rescission of a declaration of 
compliance

[[Page 916]]

must demonstrate at least one of the following:
    (i) A material fact that was not present in the original response to 
the notification of the safety issue and an explanation for why it was 
not present in the original response;
    (ii) The FAA made a material factual error in the decision to 
rescind the declaration of compliance; or
    (iii) The FAA did not correctly interpret a law, regulation, or 
precedent.
    (2) Upon consideration of the information submitted under paragraph 
(e)(1) of this section, the FAA will issue a notice either affirming the 
rescission or withdrawing the rescission.
    (f) Inapplicability of part 13, subpart D, of this chapter. Part 13, 
subpart D, of this chapter does not apply to the procedures of 
paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.



Sec. 107.165  Record retention.

    (a) A person who submits a declaration of compliance under this 
subpart must retain and make available to the Administrator, upon 
request, the information described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section 
for the period of time described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
    (1) All supporting information used to demonstrate the small 
unmanned aircraft meets the requirements of Sec. Sec. 107.120(a), for 
operations in Category 2, and 107.130(a), for operations in Category 3.
    (2) The following time periods apply:
    (i) If the person who submits a declaration of compliance produces a 
small unmanned aircraft, that person must retain the information 
described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section for two years after the 
cessation of production of the small unmanned aircraft system for which 
the person declared compliance.
    (ii) If the person who submits a declaration of compliance designs 
or modifies a small unmanned aircraft, that person must retain the 
information described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section for two years 
after the person submitted the declaration of compliance.
    (b) A person who submits a means of compliance under this subpart 
must retain and make available to the Administrator, upon request, and 
for as long as the means of compliance remains accepted, the detailed 
description of the means of compliance and justification showing how the 
means of compliance meets the requirements of Sec. Sec. 107.120(a), for 
operations in Category 2, and 107.130(a), for operations in Category 3.



                            Subpart E_Waivers



Sec. 107.200  Waiver policy and requirements.

    (a) The Administrator may issue a certificate of waiver authorizing 
a deviation from any regulation specified in Sec. 107.205 if the 
Administrator finds that a proposed small UAS operation can safely be 
conducted under the terms of that certificate of waiver.
    (b) A request for a certificate of waiver must contain a complete 
description of the proposed operation and justification that establishes 
that the operation can safely be conducted under the terms of a 
certificate of waiver.
    (c) The Administrator may prescribe additional limitations that the 
Administrator considers necessary.
    (d) A person who receives a certificate of waiver issued under this 
section:
    (1) May deviate from the regulations of this part to the extent 
specified in the certificate of waiver; and
    (2) Must comply with any conditions or limitations that are 
specified in the certificate of waiver.



Sec. 107.205  List of regulations subject to waiver.

    A certificate of waiver issued pursuant to Sec. 107.200 may 
authorize a deviation from the following regulations of this part:
    (a) Section 107.25--Operation from a moving vehicle or aircraft. 
However, no waiver of this provision will be issued to allow the 
carriage of property of another by aircraft for compensation or hire.
    (b) Section 107.29(a)(2) and (b)--Anti-collision light required for 
operations at night and during periods of civil twilight.
    (c) Section 107.31--Visual line of sight aircraft operation. 
However, no waiver of this provision will be issued to allow

[[Page 917]]

the carriage of property of another by aircraft for compensation or 
hire.
    (d) Section 107.33--Visual observer.
    (e) Section 107.35--Operation of multiple small unmanned aircraft 
systems.
    (f) Section 107.37(a)--Yielding the right of way.
    (g) Section 107.39--Operation over people.
    (h) Section 107.41--Operation in certain airspace.
    (i) Section 107.51--Operating limitations for small unmanned 
aircraft.
    (j) Section 107.145--Operations over moving vehicles.

[Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 107-1, 81 FR 42209, June 28, 2016, as 
amended by Amdt. No. 107-8, 86 FR 4387, Jan. 15, 2021]

                        PARTS 108	109 [RESERVED]

[[Page 919]]



                              FINDING AIDS




  --------------------------------------------------------------------

  A list of CFR titles, subtitles, chapters, subchapters and parts and 
an alphabetical list of agencies publishing in the CFR are included in 
the CFR Index and Finding Aids volume to the Code of Federal Regulations 
which is published separately and revised annually.


  Table of CFR Titles and Chapters
  Alphabetical List of Agencies Appearing in the CFR
  List of CFR Sections Affected

[[Page 921]]



                    Table of CFR Titles and Chapters




                     (Revised as of January 1, 2023)

                      Title 1--General Provisions

         I  Administrative Committee of the Federal Register 
                (Parts 1--49)
        II  Office of the Federal Register (Parts 50--299)
       III  Administrative Conference of the United States (Parts 
                300--399)
        IV  Miscellaneous Agencies (Parts 400--599)
        VI  National Capital Planning Commission (Parts 600--699)

                    Title 2--Grants and Agreements

            Subtitle A--Office of Management and Budget Guidance 
                for Grants and Agreements
         I  Office of Management and Budget Governmentwide 
                Guidance for Grants and Agreements (Parts 2--199)
        II  Office of Management and Budget Guidance (Parts 200--
                299)
            Subtitle B--Federal Agency Regulations for Grants and 
                Agreements
       III  Department of Health and Human Services (Parts 300--
                399)
        IV  Department of Agriculture (Parts 400--499)
        VI  Department of State (Parts 600--699)
       VII  Agency for International Development (Parts 700--799)
      VIII  Department of Veterans Affairs (Parts 800--899)
        IX  Department of Energy (Parts 900--999)
         X  Department of the Treasury (Parts 1000--1099)
        XI  Department of Defense (Parts 1100--1199)
       XII  Department of Transportation (Parts 1200--1299)
      XIII  Department of Commerce (Parts 1300--1399)
       XIV  Department of the Interior (Parts 1400--1499)
        XV  Environmental Protection Agency (Parts 1500--1599)
     XVIII  National Aeronautics and Space Administration (Parts 
                1800--1899)
        XX  United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission (Parts 
                2000--2099)
      XXII  Corporation for National and Community Service (Parts 
                2200--2299)
     XXIII  Social Security Administration (Parts 2300--2399)
      XXIV  Department of Housing and Urban Development (Parts 
                2400--2499)
       XXV  National Science Foundation (Parts 2500--2599)
      XXVI  National Archives and Records Administration (Parts 
                2600--2699)

[[Page 922]]

     XXVII  Small Business Administration (Parts 2700--2799)
    XXVIII  Department of Justice (Parts 2800--2899)
      XXIX  Department of Labor (Parts 2900--2999)
       XXX  Department of Homeland Security (Parts 3000--3099)
      XXXI  Institute of Museum and Library Services (Parts 3100--
                3199)
     XXXII  National Endowment for the Arts (Parts 3200--3299)
    XXXIII  National Endowment for the Humanities (Parts 3300--
                3399)
     XXXIV  Department of Education (Parts 3400--3499)
      XXXV  Export-Import Bank of the United States (Parts 3500--
                3599)
     XXXVI  Office of National Drug Control Policy, Executive 
                Office of the President (Parts 3600--3699)
    XXXVII  Peace Corps (Parts 3700--3799)
     LVIII  Election Assistance Commission (Parts 5800--5899)
       LIX  Gulf Coast Ecosystem Restoration Council (Parts 5900--
                5999)
        LX  Federal Communications Commission (Parts 6000--6099)

                        Title 3--The President

         I  Executive Office of the President (Parts 100--199)

                           Title 4--Accounts

         I  Government Accountability Office (Parts 1--199)

                   Title 5--Administrative Personnel

         I  Office of Personnel Management (Parts 1--1199)
        II  Merit Systems Protection Board (Parts 1200--1299)
       III  Office of Management and Budget (Parts 1300--1399)
        IV  Office of Personnel Management and Office of the 
                Director of National Intelligence (Parts 1400--
                1499)
         V  The International Organizations Employees Loyalty 
                Board (Parts 1500--1599)
        VI  Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board (Parts 
                1600--1699)
      VIII  Office of Special Counsel (Parts 1800--1899)
        IX  Appalachian Regional Commission (Parts 1900--1999)
        XI  Armed Forces Retirement Home (Parts 2100--2199)
       XIV  Federal Labor Relations Authority, General Counsel of 
                the Federal Labor Relations Authority and Federal 
                Service Impasses Panel (Parts 2400--2499)
       XVI  Office of Government Ethics (Parts 2600--2699)
       XXI  Department of the Treasury (Parts 3100--3199)
      XXII  Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (Parts 3200--
                3299)
     XXIII  Department of Energy (Parts 3300--3399)
      XXIV  Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Parts 3400--
                3499)
       XXV  Department of the Interior (Parts 3500--3599)

[[Page 923]]

      XXVI  Department of Defense (Parts 3600--3699)
    XXVIII  Department of Justice (Parts 3800--3899)
      XXIX  Federal Communications Commission (Parts 3900--3999)
       XXX  Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation (Parts 4000--
                4099)
      XXXI  Farm Credit Administration (Parts 4100--4199)
    XXXIII  U.S. International Development Finance Corporation 
                (Parts 4300--4399)
     XXXIV  Securities and Exchange Commission (Parts 4400--4499)
      XXXV  Office of Personnel Management (Parts 4500--4599)
     XXXVI  Department of Homeland Security (Parts 4600--4699)
    XXXVII  Federal Election Commission (Parts 4700--4799)
        XL  Interstate Commerce Commission (Parts 5000--5099)
       XLI  Commodity Futures Trading Commission (Parts 5100--
                5199)
      XLII  Department of Labor (Parts 5200--5299)
     XLIII  National Science Foundation (Parts 5300--5399)
       XLV  Department of Health and Human Services (Parts 5500--
                5599)
      XLVI  Postal Rate Commission (Parts 5600--5699)
     XLVII  Federal Trade Commission (Parts 5700--5799)
    XLVIII  Nuclear Regulatory Commission (Parts 5800--5899)
      XLIX  Federal Labor Relations Authority (Parts 5900--5999)
         L  Department of Transportation (Parts 6000--6099)
       LII  Export-Import Bank of the United States (Parts 6200--
                6299)
      LIII  Department of Education (Parts 6300--6399)
       LIV  Environmental Protection Agency (Parts 6400--6499)
        LV  National Endowment for the Arts (Parts 6500--6599)
       LVI  National Endowment for the Humanities (Parts 6600--
                6699)
      LVII  General Services Administration (Parts 6700--6799)
     LVIII  Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System 
                (Parts 6800--6899)
       LIX  National Aeronautics and Space Administration (Parts 
                6900--6999)
        LX  United States Postal Service (Parts 7000--7099)
       LXI  National Labor Relations Board (Parts 7100--7199)
      LXII  Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (Parts 7200--
                7299)
     LXIII  Inter-American Foundation (Parts 7300--7399)
      LXIV  Merit Systems Protection Board (Parts 7400--7499)
       LXV  Department of Housing and Urban Development (Parts 
                7500--7599)
      LXVI  National Archives and Records Administration (Parts 
                7600--7699)
     LXVII  Institute of Museum and Library Services (Parts 7700--
                7799)
    LXVIII  Commission on Civil Rights (Parts 7800--7899)
      LXIX  Tennessee Valley Authority (Parts 7900--7999)
       LXX  Court Services and Offender Supervision Agency for the 
                District of Columbia (Parts 8000--8099)
      LXXI  Consumer Product Safety Commission (Parts 8100--8199)

[[Page 924]]

    LXXIII  Department of Agriculture (Parts 8300--8399)
     LXXIV  Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission 
                (Parts 8400--8499)
     LXXVI  Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board (Parts 
                8600--8699)
    LXXVII  Office of Management and Budget (Parts 8700--8799)
      LXXX  Federal Housing Finance Agency (Parts 9000--9099)
   LXXXIII  Special Inspector General for Afghanistan 
                Reconstruction (Parts 9300--9399)
    LXXXIV  Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Parts 9400--
                9499)
    LXXXVI  National Credit Union Administration (Parts 9600--
                9699)
     XCVII  Department of Homeland Security Human Resources 
                Management System (Department of Homeland 
                Security--Office of Personnel Management) (Parts 
                9700--9799)
    XCVIII  Council of the Inspectors General on Integrity and 
                Efficiency (Parts 9800--9899)
      XCIX  Military Compensation and Retirement Modernization 
                Commission (Parts 9900--9999)
         C  National Council on Disability (Parts 10000--10049)
        CI  National Mediation Board (Parts 10100--10199)
       CII  U.S. Office of Special Counsel (Parts 10200--10299)

                      Title 6--Domestic Security

         I  Department of Homeland Security, Office of the 
                Secretary (Parts 1--199)
         X  Privacy and Civil Liberties Oversight Board (Parts 
                1000--1099)

                         Title 7--Agriculture

            Subtitle A--Office of the Secretary of Agriculture 
                (Parts 0--26)
            Subtitle B--Regulations of the Department of 
                Agriculture
         I  Agricultural Marketing Service (Standards, 
                Inspections, Marketing Practices), Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 27--209)
        II  Food and Nutrition Service, Department of Agriculture 
                (Parts 210--299)
       III  Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, Department 
                of Agriculture (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Federal Crop Insurance Corporation, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 400--499)
         V  Agricultural Research Service, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 500--599)
        VI  Natural Resources Conservation Service, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 600--699)
       VII  Farm Service Agency, Department of Agriculture (Parts 
                700--799)
      VIII  Agricultural Marketing Service (Federal Grain 
                Inspection Service, Fair Trade Practices Program), 
                Department of Agriculture (Parts 800--899)

[[Page 925]]

        IX  Agricultural Marketing Service (Marketing Agreements 
                and Orders; Fruits, Vegetables, Nuts), Department 
                of Agriculture (Parts 900--999)
         X  Agricultural Marketing Service (Marketing Agreements 
                and Orders; Milk), Department of Agriculture 
                (Parts 1000--1199)
        XI  Agricultural Marketing Service (Marketing Agreements 
                and Orders; Miscellaneous Commodities), Department 
                of Agriculture (Parts 1200--1299)
       XIV  Commodity Credit Corporation, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 1400--1499)
        XV  Foreign Agricultural Service, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 1500--1599)
       XVI  [Reserved]
      XVII  Rural Utilities Service, Department of Agriculture 
                (Parts 1700--1799)
     XVIII  Rural Housing Service, Rural Business-Cooperative 
                Service, Rural Utilities Service, and Farm Service 
                Agency, Department of Agriculture (Parts 1800--
                2099)
        XX  [Reserved]
       XXV  Office of Advocacy and Outreach, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 2500--2599)
      XXVI  Office of Inspector General, Department of Agriculture 
                (Parts 2600--2699)
     XXVII  Office of Information Resources Management, Department 
                of Agriculture (Parts 2700--2799)
    XXVIII  Office of Operations, Department of Agriculture (Parts 
                2800--2899)
      XXIX  Office of Energy Policy and New Uses, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 2900--2999)
       XXX  Office of the Chief Financial Officer, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 3000--3099)
      XXXI  Office of Environmental Quality, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 3100--3199)
     XXXII  Office of Procurement and Property Management, 
                Department of Agriculture (Parts 3200--3299)
    XXXIII  Office of Transportation, Department of Agriculture 
                (Parts 3300--3399)
     XXXIV  National Institute of Food and Agriculture (Parts 
                3400--3499)
      XXXV  Rural Housing Service, Department of Agriculture 
                (Parts 3500--3599)
     XXXVI  National Agricultural Statistics Service, Department 
                of Agriculture (Parts 3600--3699)
    XXXVII  Economic Research Service, Department of Agriculture 
                (Parts 3700--3799)
   XXXVIII  World Agricultural Outlook Board, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 3800--3899)
       XLI  [Reserved]
      XLII  Rural Business-Cooperative Service and Rural Utilities 
                Service, Department of Agriculture (Parts 4200--
                4299)

[[Page 926]]

         L  Rural Business-Cooperative Service, and Rural 
                Utilities Service, Department of Agriculture 
                (Parts 5000--5099)

                    Title 8--Aliens and Nationality

         I  Department of Homeland Security (Parts 1--499)
         V  Executive Office for Immigration Review, Department of 
                Justice (Parts 1000--1399)

                 Title 9--Animals and Animal Products

         I  Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, Department 
                of Agriculture (Parts 1--199)
        II  Agricultural Marketing Service (Fair Trade Practices 
                Program), Department of Agriculture (Parts 200--
                299)
       III  Food Safety and Inspection Service, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 300--599)

                           Title 10--Energy

         I  Nuclear Regulatory Commission (Parts 0--199)
        II  Department of Energy (Parts 200--699)
       III  Department of Energy (Parts 700--999)
         X  Department of Energy (General Provisions) (Parts 
                1000--1099)
      XIII  Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board (Parts 1300--
                1399)
      XVII  Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board (Parts 1700--
                1799)
     XVIII  Northeast Interstate Low-Level Radioactive Waste 
                Commission (Parts 1800--1899)

                      Title 11--Federal Elections

         I  Federal Election Commission (Parts 1--9099)
        II  Election Assistance Commission (Parts 9400--9499)

                      Title 12--Banks and Banking

         I  Comptroller of the Currency, Department of the 
                Treasury (Parts 1--199)
        II  Federal Reserve System (Parts 200--299)
       III  Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Export-Import Bank of the United States (Parts 400--
                499)
         V  [Reserved]
        VI  Farm Credit Administration (Parts 600--699)
       VII  National Credit Union Administration (Parts 700--799)
      VIII  Federal Financing Bank (Parts 800--899)
        IX  (Parts 900--999) [Reserved]
         X  Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Parts 1000--
                1099)

[[Page 927]]

        XI  Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council 
                (Parts 1100--1199)
       XII  Federal Housing Finance Agency (Parts 1200--1299)
      XIII  Financial Stability Oversight Council (Parts 1300--
                1399)
       XIV  Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation (Parts 1400--
                1499)
        XV  Department of the Treasury (Parts 1500--1599)
       XVI  Office of Financial Research, Department of the 
                Treasury (Parts 1600--1699)
      XVII  Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight, 
                Department of Housing and Urban Development (Parts 
                1700--1799)
     XVIII  Community Development Financial Institutions Fund, 
                Department of the Treasury (Parts 1800--1899)

               Title 13--Business Credit and Assistance

         I  Small Business Administration (Parts 1--199)
       III  Economic Development Administration, Department of 
                Commerce (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Emergency Steel Guarantee Loan Board (Parts 400--499)
         V  Emergency Oil and Gas Guaranteed Loan Board (Parts 
                500--599)

                    Title 14--Aeronautics and Space

         I  Federal Aviation Administration, Department of 
                Transportation (Parts 1--199)
        II  Office of the Secretary, Department of Transportation 
                (Aviation Proceedings) (Parts 200--399)
       III  Commercial Space Transportation, Federal Aviation 
                Administration, Department of Transportation 
                (Parts 400--1199)
         V  National Aeronautics and Space Administration (Parts 
                1200--1299)
        VI  Air Transportation System Stabilization (Parts 1300--
                1399)

                 Title 15--Commerce and Foreign Trade

            Subtitle A--Office of the Secretary of Commerce (Parts 
                0--29)
            Subtitle B--Regulations Relating to Commerce and 
                Foreign Trade
         I  Bureau of the Census, Department of Commerce (Parts 
                30--199)
        II  National Institute of Standards and Technology, 
                Department of Commerce (Parts 200--299)
       III  International Trade Administration, Department of 
                Commerce (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Department of Commerce 
                (Parts 400--499)
       VII  Bureau of Industry and Security, Department of 
                Commerce (Parts 700--799)

[[Page 928]]

      VIII  Bureau of Economic Analysis, Department of Commerce 
                (Parts 800--899)
        IX  National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, 
                Department of Commerce (Parts 900--999)
        XI  National Technical Information Service, Department of 
                Commerce (Parts 1100--1199)
      XIII  East-West Foreign Trade Board (Parts 1300--1399)
       XIV  Minority Business Development Agency (Parts 1400--
                1499)
        XV  Office of the Under-Secretary for Economic Affairs, 
                Department of Commerce (Parts 1500--1599)
            Subtitle C--Regulations Relating to Foreign Trade 
                Agreements
        XX  Office of the United States Trade Representative 
                (Parts 2000--2099)
            Subtitle D--Regulations Relating to Telecommunications 
                and Information
     XXIII  National Telecommunications and Information 
                Administration, Department of Commerce (Parts 
                2300--2399) [Reserved]

                    Title 16--Commercial Practices

         I  Federal Trade Commission (Parts 0--999)
        II  Consumer Product Safety Commission (Parts 1000--1799)

             Title 17--Commodity and Securities Exchanges

         I  Commodity Futures Trading Commission (Parts 1--199)
        II  Securities and Exchange Commission (Parts 200--399)
        IV  Department of the Treasury (Parts 400--499)

          Title 18--Conservation of Power and Water Resources

         I  Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Department of 
                Energy (Parts 1--399)
       III  Delaware River Basin Commission (Parts 400--499)
        VI  Water Resources Council (Parts 700--799)
      VIII  Susquehanna River Basin Commission (Parts 800--899)
      XIII  Tennessee Valley Authority (Parts 1300--1399)

                       Title 19--Customs Duties

         I  U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of 
                Homeland Security; Department of the Treasury 
                (Parts 0--199)
        II  United States International Trade Commission (Parts 
                200--299)
       III  International Trade Administration, Department of 
                Commerce (Parts 300--399)
        IV  U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, Department 
                of Homeland Security (Parts 400--599) [Reserved]

[[Page 929]]

                     Title 20--Employees' Benefits

         I  Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Department 
                of Labor (Parts 1--199)
        II  Railroad Retirement Board (Parts 200--399)
       III  Social Security Administration (Parts 400--499)
        IV  Employees' Compensation Appeals Board, Department of 
                Labor (Parts 500--599)
         V  Employment and Training Administration, Department of 
                Labor (Parts 600--699)
        VI  Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Department 
                of Labor (Parts 700--799)
       VII  Benefits Review Board, Department of Labor (Parts 
                800--899)
      VIII  Joint Board for the Enrollment of Actuaries (Parts 
                900--999)
        IX  Office of the Assistant Secretary for Veterans' 
                Employment and Training Service, Department of 
                Labor (Parts 1000--1099)

                       Title 21--Food and Drugs

         I  Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and 
                Human Services (Parts 1--1299)
        II  Drug Enforcement Administration, Department of Justice 
                (Parts 1300--1399)
       III  Office of National Drug Control Policy (Parts 1400--
                1499)

                      Title 22--Foreign Relations

         I  Department of State (Parts 1--199)
        II  Agency for International Development (Parts 200--299)
       III  Peace Corps (Parts 300--399)
        IV  International Joint Commission, United States and 
                Canada (Parts 400--499)
         V  United States Agency for Global Media (Parts 500--599)
       VII  U.S. International Development Finance Corporation 
                (Parts 700--799)
        IX  Foreign Service Grievance Board (Parts 900--999)
         X  Inter-American Foundation (Parts 1000--1099)
        XI  International Boundary and Water Commission, United 
                States and Mexico, United States Section (Parts 
                1100--1199)
       XII  United States International Development Cooperation 
                Agency (Parts 1200--1299)
      XIII  Millennium Challenge Corporation (Parts 1300--1399)
       XIV  Foreign Service Labor Relations Board; Federal Labor 
                Relations Authority; General Counsel of the 
                Federal Labor Relations Authority; and the Foreign 
                Service Impasse Disputes Panel (Parts 1400--1499)
        XV  African Development Foundation (Parts 1500--1599)
       XVI  Japan-United States Friendship Commission (Parts 
                1600--1699)
      XVII  United States Institute of Peace (Parts 1700--1799)

[[Page 930]]

                          Title 23--Highways

         I  Federal Highway Administration, Department of 
                Transportation (Parts 1--999)
        II  National Highway Traffic Safety Administration and 
                Federal Highway Administration, Department of 
                Transportation (Parts 1200--1299)
       III  National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, 
                Department of Transportation (Parts 1300--1399)

                Title 24--Housing and Urban Development

            Subtitle A--Office of the Secretary, Department of 
                Housing and Urban Development (Parts 0--99)
            Subtitle B--Regulations Relating to Housing and Urban 
                Development
         I  Office of Assistant Secretary for Equal Opportunity, 
                Department of Housing and Urban Development (Parts 
                100--199)
        II  Office of Assistant Secretary for Housing-Federal 
                Housing Commissioner, Department of Housing and 
                Urban Development (Parts 200--299)
       III  Government National Mortgage Association, Department 
                of Housing and Urban Development (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Office of Housing and Office of Multifamily Housing 
                Assistance Restructuring, Department of Housing 
                and Urban Development (Parts 400--499)
         V  Office of Assistant Secretary for Community Planning 
                and Development, Department of Housing and Urban 
                Development (Parts 500--599)
        VI  Office of Assistant Secretary for Community Planning 
                and Development, Department of Housing and Urban 
                Development (Parts 600--699) [Reserved]
       VII  Office of the Secretary, Department of Housing and 
                Urban Development (Housing Assistance Programs and 
                Public and Indian Housing Programs) (Parts 700--
                799)
      VIII  Office of the Assistant Secretary for Housing--Federal 
                Housing Commissioner, Department of Housing and 
                Urban Development (Section 8 Housing Assistance 
                Programs, Section 202 Direct Loan Program, Section 
                202 Supportive Housing for the Elderly Program and 
                Section 811 Supportive Housing for Persons With 
                Disabilities Program) (Parts 800--899)
        IX  Office of Assistant Secretary for Public and Indian 
                Housing, Department of Housing and Urban 
                Development (Parts 900--1699)
         X  Office of Assistant Secretary for Housing--Federal 
                Housing Commissioner, Department of Housing and 
                Urban Development (Interstate Land Sales 
                Registration Program) (Parts 1700--1799) 
                [Reserved]
       XII  Office of Inspector General, Department of Housing and 
                Urban Development (Parts 2000--2099)
        XV  Emergency Mortgage Insurance and Loan Programs, 
                Department of Housing and Urban Development (Parts 
                2700--2799) [Reserved]

[[Page 931]]

        XX  Office of Assistant Secretary for Housing--Federal 
                Housing Commissioner, Department of Housing and 
                Urban Development (Parts 3200--3899)
      XXIV  Board of Directors of the HOPE for Homeowners Program 
                (Parts 4000--4099) [Reserved]
       XXV  Neighborhood Reinvestment Corporation (Parts 4100--
                4199)

                           Title 25--Indians

         I  Bureau of Indian Affairs, Department of the Interior 
                (Parts 1--299)
        II  Indian Arts and Crafts Board, Department of the 
                Interior (Parts 300--399)
       III  National Indian Gaming Commission, Department of the 
                Interior (Parts 500--599)
        IV  Office of Navajo and Hopi Indian Relocation (Parts 
                700--899)
         V  Bureau of Indian Affairs, Department of the Interior, 
                and Indian Health Service, Department of Health 
                and Human Services (Part 900--999)
        VI  Office of the Assistant Secretary, Indian Affairs, 
                Department of the Interior (Parts 1000--1199)
       VII  Office of the Special Trustee for American Indians, 
                Department of the Interior (Parts 1200--1299)

                      Title 26--Internal Revenue

         I  Internal Revenue Service, Department of the Treasury 
                (Parts 1--End)

           Title 27--Alcohol, Tobacco Products and Firearms

         I  Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau, Department 
                of the Treasury (Parts 1--399)
        II  Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives, 
                Department of Justice (Parts 400--799)

                   Title 28--Judicial Administration

         I  Department of Justice (Parts 0--299)
       III  Federal Prison Industries, Inc., Department of Justice 
                (Parts 300--399)
         V  Bureau of Prisons, Department of Justice (Parts 500--
                599)
        VI  Offices of Independent Counsel, Department of Justice 
                (Parts 600--699)
       VII  Office of Independent Counsel (Parts 700--799)
      VIII  Court Services and Offender Supervision Agency for the 
                District of Columbia (Parts 800--899)
        IX  National Crime Prevention and Privacy Compact Council 
                (Parts 900--999)

[[Page 932]]

        XI  Department of Justice and Department of State (Parts 
                1100--1199)

                            Title 29--Labor

            Subtitle A--Office of the Secretary of Labor (Parts 
                0--99)
            Subtitle B--Regulations Relating to Labor
         I  National Labor Relations Board (Parts 100--199)
        II  Office of Labor-Management Standards, Department of 
                Labor (Parts 200--299)
       III  National Railroad Adjustment Board (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Office of Labor-Management Standards, Department of 
                Labor (Parts 400--499)
         V  Wage and Hour Division, Department of Labor (Parts 
                500--899)
        IX  Construction Industry Collective Bargaining Commission 
                (Parts 900--999)
         X  National Mediation Board (Parts 1200--1299)
       XII  Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service (Parts 
                1400--1499)
       XIV  Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (Parts 1600--
                1699)
      XVII  Occupational Safety and Health Administration, 
                Department of Labor (Parts 1900--1999)
        XX  Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission 
                (Parts 2200--2499)
       XXV  Employee Benefits Security Administration, Department 
                of Labor (Parts 2500--2599)
     XXVII  Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission 
                (Parts 2700--2799)
        XL  Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (Parts 4000--
                4999)

                      Title 30--Mineral Resources

         I  Mine Safety and Health Administration, Department of 
                Labor (Parts 1--199)
        II  Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement, 
                Department of the Interior (Parts 200--299)
        IV  Geological Survey, Department of the Interior (Parts 
                400--499)
         V  Bureau of Ocean Energy Management, Department of the 
                Interior (Parts 500--599)
       VII  Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, 
                Department of the Interior (Parts 700--999)
       XII  Office of Natural Resources Revenue, Department of the 
                Interior (Parts 1200--1299)

                 Title 31--Money and Finance: Treasury

            Subtitle A--Office of the Secretary of the Treasury 
                (Parts 0--50)
            Subtitle B--Regulations Relating to Money and Finance

[[Page 933]]

         I  Monetary Offices, Department of the Treasury (Parts 
                51--199)
        II  Fiscal Service, Department of the Treasury (Parts 
                200--399)
        IV  Secret Service, Department of the Treasury (Parts 
                400--499)
         V  Office of Foreign Assets Control, Department of the 
                Treasury (Parts 500--599)
        VI  Bureau of Engraving and Printing, Department of the 
                Treasury (Parts 600--699)
       VII  Federal Law Enforcement Training Center, Department of 
                the Treasury (Parts 700--799)
      VIII  Office of Investment Security, Department of the 
                Treasury (Parts 800--899)
        IX  Federal Claims Collection Standards (Department of the 
                Treasury--Department of Justice) (Parts 900--999)
         X  Financial Crimes Enforcement Network, Department of 
                the Treasury (Parts 1000--1099)

                      Title 32--National Defense

            Subtitle A--Department of Defense
         I  Office of the Secretary of Defense (Parts 1--399)
         V  Department of the Army (Parts 400--699)
        VI  Department of the Navy (Parts 700--799)
       VII  Department of the Air Force (Parts 800--1099)
            Subtitle B--Other Regulations Relating to National 
                Defense
       XII  Department of Defense, Defense Logistics Agency (Parts 
                1200--1299)
       XVI  Selective Service System (Parts 1600--1699)
      XVII  Office of the Director of National Intelligence (Parts 
                1700--1799)
     XVIII  National Counterintelligence Center (Parts 1800--1899)
       XIX  Central Intelligence Agency (Parts 1900--1999)
        XX  Information Security Oversight Office, National 
                Archives and Records Administration (Parts 2000--
                2099)
       XXI  National Security Council (Parts 2100--2199)
      XXIV  Office of Science and Technology Policy (Parts 2400--
                2499)
     XXVII  Office for Micronesian Status Negotiations (Parts 
                2700--2799)
    XXVIII  Office of the Vice President of the United States 
                (Parts 2800--2899)

               Title 33--Navigation and Navigable Waters

         I  Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security (Parts 
                1--199)
        II  Corps of Engineers, Department of the Army, Department 
                of Defense (Parts 200--399)
        IV  Great Lakes St. Lawrence Seaway Development 
                Corporation, Department of Transportation (Parts 
                400--499)

[[Page 934]]

                          Title 34--Education

            Subtitle A--Office of the Secretary, Department of 
                Education (Parts 1--99)
            Subtitle B--Regulations of the Offices of the 
                Department of Education
         I  Office for Civil Rights, Department of Education 
                (Parts 100--199)
        II  Office of Elementary and Secondary Education, 
                Department of Education (Parts 200--299)
       III  Office of Special Education and Rehabilitative 
                Services, Department of Education (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Office of Career, Technical, and Adult Education, 
                Department of Education (Parts 400--499)
         V  Office of Bilingual Education and Minority Languages 
                Affairs, Department of Education (Parts 500--599) 
                [Reserved]
        VI  Office of Postsecondary Education, Department of 
                Education (Parts 600--699)
       VII  Office of Educational Research and Improvement, 
                Department of Education (Parts 700--799) 
                [Reserved]
            Subtitle C--Regulations Relating to Education
        XI  [Reserved]
       XII  National Council on Disability (Parts 1200--1299)

                          Title 35 [Reserved]

             Title 36--Parks, Forests, and Public Property

         I  National Park Service, Department of the Interior 
                (Parts 1--199)
        II  Forest Service, Department of Agriculture (Parts 200--
                299)
       III  Corps of Engineers, Department of the Army (Parts 
                300--399)
        IV  American Battle Monuments Commission (Parts 400--499)
         V  Smithsonian Institution (Parts 500--599)
        VI  [Reserved]
       VII  Library of Congress (Parts 700--799)
      VIII  Advisory Council on Historic Preservation (Parts 800--
                899)
        IX  Pennsylvania Avenue Development Corporation (Parts 
                900--999)
         X  Presidio Trust (Parts 1000--1099)
        XI  Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance 
                Board (Parts 1100--1199)
       XII  National Archives and Records Administration (Parts 
                1200--1299)
        XV  Oklahoma City National Memorial Trust (Parts 1500--
                1599)
       XVI  Morris K. Udall Scholarship and Excellence in National 
                Environmental Policy Foundation (Parts 1600--1699)

             Title 37--Patents, Trademarks, and Copyrights

         I  United States Patent and Trademark Office, Department 
                of Commerce (Parts 1--199)
        II  U.S. Copyright Office, Library of Congress (Parts 
                200--299)

[[Page 935]]

       III  Copyright Royalty Board, Library of Congress (Parts 
                300--399)
        IV  National Institute of Standards and Technology, 
                Department of Commerce (Parts 400--599)

           Title 38--Pensions, Bonuses, and Veterans' Relief

         I  Department of Veterans Affairs (Parts 0--199)
        II  Armed Forces Retirement Home (Parts 200--299)

                       Title 39--Postal Service

         I  United States Postal Service (Parts 1--999)
       III  Postal Regulatory Commission (Parts 3000--3099)

                  Title 40--Protection of Environment

         I  Environmental Protection Agency (Parts 1--1099)
        IV  Environmental Protection Agency and Department of 
                Justice (Parts 1400--1499)
         V  Council on Environmental Quality (Parts 1500--1599)
        VI  Chemical Safety and Hazard Investigation Board (Parts 
                1600--1699)
       VII  Environmental Protection Agency and Department of 
                Defense; Uniform National Discharge Standards for 
                Vessels of the Armed Forces (Parts 1700--1799)
      VIII  Gulf Coast Ecosystem Restoration Council (Parts 1800--
                1899)
        IX  Federal Permitting Improvement Steering Council (Part 
                1900)

          Title 41--Public Contracts and Property Management

            Subtitle A--Federal Procurement Regulations System 
                [Note]
            Subtitle B--Other Provisions Relating to Public 
                Contracts
        50  Public Contracts, Department of Labor (Parts 50-1--50-
                999)
        51  Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or 
                Severely Disabled (Parts 51-1--51-99)
        60  Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs, Equal 
                Employment Opportunity, Department of Labor (Parts 
                60-1--60-999)
        61  Office of the Assistant Secretary for Veterans' 
                Employment and Training Service, Department of 
                Labor (Parts 61-1--61-999)
   62--100  [Reserved]
            Subtitle C--Federal Property Management Regulations 
                System
       101  Federal Property Management Regulations (Parts 101-1--
                101-99)
       102  Federal Management Regulation (Parts 102-1--102-299)
  103--104  [Reserved]
       105  General Services Administration (Parts 105-1--105-999)

[[Page 936]]

       109  Department of Energy Property Management Regulations 
                (Parts 109-1--109-99)
       114  Department of the Interior (Parts 114-1--114-99)
       115  Environmental Protection Agency (Parts 115-1--115-99)
       128  Department of Justice (Parts 128-1--128-99)
  129--200  [Reserved]
            Subtitle D--Federal Acquisition Supply Chain Security
       201  Federal Acquisition Security Council (Parts 201-1--
                201-99)
            Subtitle E [Reserved]
            Subtitle F--Federal Travel Regulation System
       300  General (Parts 300-1--300-99)
       301  Temporary Duty (TDY) Travel Allowances (Parts 301-1--
                301-99)
       302  Relocation Allowances (Parts 302-1--302-99)
       303  Payment of Expenses Connected with the Death of 
                Certain Employees (Part 303-1--303-99)
       304  Payment of Travel Expenses from a Non-Federal Source 
                (Parts 304-1--304-99)

                        Title 42--Public Health

         I  Public Health Service, Department of Health and Human 
                Services (Parts 1--199)
   II--III  [Reserved]
        IV  Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, Department 
                of Health and Human Services (Parts 400--699)
         V  Office of Inspector General-Health Care, Department of 
                Health and Human Services (Parts 1000--1099)

                   Title 43--Public Lands: Interior

            Subtitle A--Office of the Secretary of the Interior 
                (Parts 1--199)
            Subtitle B--Regulations Relating to Public Lands
         I  Bureau of Reclamation, Department of the Interior 
                (Parts 400--999)
        II  Bureau of Land Management, Department of the Interior 
                (Parts 1000--9999)
       III  Utah Reclamation Mitigation and Conservation 
                Commission (Parts 10000--10099)

             Title 44--Emergency Management and Assistance

         I  Federal Emergency Management Agency, Department of 
                Homeland Security (Parts 0--399)
        IV  Department of Commerce and Department of 
                Transportation (Parts 400--499)

[[Page 937]]

                       Title 45--Public Welfare

            Subtitle A--Department of Health and Human Services 
                (Parts 1--199)
            Subtitle B--Regulations Relating to Public Welfare
        II  Office of Family Assistance (Assistance Programs), 
                Administration for Children and Families, 
                Department of Health and Human Services (Parts 
                200--299)
       III  Office of Child Support Enforcement (Child Support 
                Enforcement Program), Administration for Children 
                and Families, Department of Health and Human 
                Services (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Office of Refugee Resettlement, Administration for 
                Children and Families, Department of Health and 
                Human Services (Parts 400--499)
         V  Foreign Claims Settlement Commission of the United 
                States, Department of Justice (Parts 500--599)
        VI  National Science Foundation (Parts 600--699)
       VII  Commission on Civil Rights (Parts 700--799)
      VIII  Office of Personnel Management (Parts 800--899)
        IX  Denali Commission (Parts 900--999)
         X  Office of Community Services, Administration for 
                Children and Families, Department of Health and 
                Human Services (Parts 1000--1099)
        XI  National Foundation on the Arts and the Humanities 
                (Parts 1100--1199)
       XII  Corporation for National and Community Service (Parts 
                1200--1299)
      XIII  Administration for Children and Families, Department 
                of Health and Human Services (Parts 1300--1399)
       XVI  Legal Services Corporation (Parts 1600--1699)
      XVII  National Commission on Libraries and Information 
                Science (Parts 1700--1799)
     XVIII  Harry S. Truman Scholarship Foundation (Parts 1800--
                1899)
       XXI  Commission of Fine Arts (Parts 2100--2199)
     XXIII  Arctic Research Commission (Parts 2300--2399)
      XXIV  James Madison Memorial Fellowship Foundation (Parts 
                2400--2499)
       XXV  Corporation for National and Community Service (Parts 
                2500--2599)

                          Title 46--Shipping

         I  Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security (Parts 
                1--199)
        II  Maritime Administration, Department of Transportation 
                (Parts 200--399)
       III  Coast Guard (Great Lakes Pilotage), Department of 
                Homeland Security (Parts 400--499)
        IV  Federal Maritime Commission (Parts 500--599)

[[Page 938]]

                      Title 47--Telecommunication

         I  Federal Communications Commission (Parts 0--199)
        II  Office of Science and Technology Policy and National 
                Security Council (Parts 200--299)
       III  National Telecommunications and Information 
                Administration, Department of Commerce (Parts 
                300--399)
        IV  National Telecommunications and Information 
                Administration, Department of Commerce, and 
                National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, 
                Department of Transportation (Parts 400--499)
         V  The First Responder Network Authority (Parts 500--599)

           Title 48--Federal Acquisition Regulations System

         1  Federal Acquisition Regulation (Parts 1--99)
         2  Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of 
                Defense (Parts 200--299)
         3  Department of Health and Human Services (Parts 300--
                399)
         4  Department of Agriculture (Parts 400--499)
         5  General Services Administration (Parts 500--599)
         6  Department of State (Parts 600--699)
         7  Agency for International Development (Parts 700--799)
         8  Department of Veterans Affairs (Parts 800--899)
         9  Department of Energy (Parts 900--999)
        10  Department of the Treasury (Parts 1000--1099)
        12  Department of Transportation (Parts 1200--1299)
        13  Department of Commerce (Parts 1300--1399)
        14  Department of the Interior (Parts 1400--1499)
        15  Environmental Protection Agency (Parts 1500--1599)
        16  Office of Personnel Management Federal Employees 
                Health Benefits Acquisition Regulation (Parts 
                1600--1699)
        17  Office of Personnel Management (Parts 1700--1799)
        18  National Aeronautics and Space Administration (Parts 
                1800--1899)
        19  Broadcasting Board of Governors (Parts 1900--1999)
        20  Nuclear Regulatory Commission (Parts 2000--2099)
        21  Office of Personnel Management, Federal Employees 
                Group Life Insurance Federal Acquisition 
                Regulation (Parts 2100--2199)
        23  Social Security Administration (Parts 2300--2399)
        24  Department of Housing and Urban Development (Parts 
                2400--2499)
        25  National Science Foundation (Parts 2500--2599)
        28  Department of Justice (Parts 2800--2899)
        29  Department of Labor (Parts 2900--2999)
        30  Department of Homeland Security, Homeland Security 
                Acquisition Regulation (HSAR) (Parts 3000--3099)
        34  Department of Education Acquisition Regulation (Parts 
                3400--3499)

[[Page 939]]

        51  Department of the Army Acquisition Regulations (Parts 
                5100--5199) [Reserved]
        52  Department of the Navy Acquisition Regulations (Parts 
                5200--5299)
        53  Department of the Air Force Federal Acquisition 
                Regulation Supplement (Parts 5300--5399) 
                [Reserved]
        54  Defense Logistics Agency, Department of Defense (Parts 
                5400--5499)
        57  African Development Foundation (Parts 5700--5799)
        61  Civilian Board of Contract Appeals, General Services 
                Administration (Parts 6100--6199)
        99  Cost Accounting Standards Board, Office of Federal 
                Procurement Policy, Office of Management and 
                Budget (Parts 9900--9999)

                       Title 49--Transportation

            Subtitle A--Office of the Secretary of Transportation 
                (Parts 1--99)
            Subtitle B--Other Regulations Relating to 
                Transportation
         I  Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety 
                Administration, Department of Transportation 
                (Parts 100--199)
        II  Federal Railroad Administration, Department of 
                Transportation (Parts 200--299)
       III  Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, 
                Department of Transportation (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security (Parts 
                400--499)
         V  National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, 
                Department of Transportation (Parts 500--599)
        VI  Federal Transit Administration, Department of 
                Transportation (Parts 600--699)
       VII  National Railroad Passenger Corporation (AMTRAK) 
                (Parts 700--799)
      VIII  National Transportation Safety Board (Parts 800--999)
         X  Surface Transportation Board (Parts 1000--1399)
        XI  Research and Innovative Technology Administration, 
                Department of Transportation (Parts 1400--1499) 
                [Reserved]
       XII  Transportation Security Administration, Department of 
                Homeland Security (Parts 1500--1699)

                   Title 50--Wildlife and Fisheries

         I  United States Fish and Wildlife Service, Department of 
                the Interior (Parts 1--199)
        II  National Marine Fisheries Service, National Oceanic 
                and Atmospheric Administration, Department of 
                Commerce (Parts 200--299)
       III  International Fishing and Related Activities (Parts 
                300--399)

[[Page 940]]

        IV  Joint Regulations (United States Fish and Wildlife 
                Service, Department of the Interior and National 
                Marine Fisheries Service, National Oceanic and 
                Atmospheric Administration, Department of 
                Commerce); Endangered Species Committee 
                Regulations (Parts 400--499)
         V  Marine Mammal Commission (Parts 500--599)
        VI  Fishery Conservation and Management, National Oceanic 
                and Atmospheric Administration, Department of 
                Commerce (Parts 600--699)

[[Page 941]]





           Alphabetical List of Agencies Appearing in the CFR




                     (Revised as of January 1, 2023)

                                                  CFR Title, Subtitle or 
                     Agency                               Chapter

Administrative Conference of the United States    1, III
Advisory Council on Historic Preservation         36, VIII
Advocacy and Outreach, Office of                  7, XXV
Afghanistan Reconstruction, Special Inspector     5, LXXXIII
     General for
African Development Foundation                    22, XV
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 57
Agency for International Development              2, VII; 22, II
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 7
Agricultural Marketing Service                    7, I, VIII, IX, X, XI; 9, 
                                                  II
Agricultural Research Service                     7, V
Agriculture, Department of                        2, IV; 5, LXXIII
  Advocacy and Outreach, Office of                7, XXV
  Agricultural Marketing Service                  7, I, VIII, IX, X, XI; 9, 
                                                  II
  Agricultural Research Service                   7, V
  Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service      7, III; 9, I
  Chief Financial Officer, Office of              7, XXX
  Commodity Credit Corporation                    7, XIV
  Economic Research Service                       7, XXXVII
  Energy Policy and New Uses, Office of           2, IX; 7, XXIX
  Environmental Quality, Office of                7, XXXI
  Farm Service Agency                             7, VII, XVIII
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 4
  Federal Crop Insurance Corporation              7, IV
  Food and Nutrition Service                      7, II
  Food Safety and Inspection Service              9, III
  Foreign Agricultural Service                    7, XV
  Forest Service                                  36, II
  Information Resources Management, Office of     7, XXVII
  Inspector General, Office of                    7, XXVI
  National Agricultural Library                   7, XLI
  National Agricultural Statistics Service        7, XXXVI
  National Institute of Food and Agriculture      7, XXXIV
  Natural Resources Conservation Service          7, VI
  Operations, Office of                           7, XXVIII
  Procurement and Property Management, Office of  7, XXXII
  Rural Business-Cooperative Service              7, XVIII, XLII
  Rural Development Administration                7, XLII
  Rural Housing Service                           7, XVIII, XXXV
  Rural Utilities Service                         7, XVII, XVIII, XLII
  Secretary of Agriculture, Office of             7, Subtitle A
  Transportation, Office of                       7, XXXIII
  World Agricultural Outlook Board                7, XXXVIII
Air Force, Department of                          32, VII
  Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement       48, 53
Air Transportation Stabilization Board            14, VI
Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau          27, I
Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives,       27, II
     Bureau of
AMTRAK                                            49, VII
American Battle Monuments Commission              36, IV
American Indians, Office of the Special Trustee   25, VII
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service        7, III; 9, I
Appalachian Regional Commission                   5, IX
Architectural and Transportation Barriers         36, XI
   Compliance Board
[[Page 942]]

Arctic Research Commission                        45, XXIII
Armed Forces Retirement Home                      5, XI; 38, II
Army, Department of                               32, V
  Engineers, Corps of                             33, II; 36, III
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 51
Benefits Review Board                             20, VII
Bilingual Education and Minority Languages        34, V
     Affairs, Office of
Blind or Severely Disabled, Committee for         41, 51
     Purchase from People Who Are
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 19
Career, Technical, and Adult Education, Office    34, IV
     of
Census Bureau                                     15, I
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services          42, IV
Central Intelligence Agency                       32, XIX
Chemical Safety and Hazard Investigation Board    40, VI
Chief Financial Officer, Office of                7, XXX
Child Support Enforcement, Office of              45, III
Children and Families, Administration for         45, II, III, IV, X, XIII
Civil Rights, Commission on                       5, LXVIII; 45, VII
Civil Rights, Office for                          34, I
Coast Guard                                       33, I; 46, I; 49, IV
Coast Guard (Great Lakes Pilotage)                46, III
Commerce, Department of                           2, XIII; 44, IV; 50, VI
  Census Bureau                                   15, I
  Economic Affairs, Office of the Under-          15, XV
       Secretary for
  Economic Analysis, Bureau of                    15, VIII
  Economic Development Administration             13, III
  Emergency Management and Assistance             44, IV
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 13
  Foreign-Trade Zones Board                       15, IV
  Industry and Security, Bureau of                15, VII
  International Trade Administration              15, III; 19, III
  National Institute of Standards and Technology  15, II; 37, IV
  National Marine Fisheries Service               50, II, IV
  National Oceanic and Atmospheric                15, IX; 50, II, III, IV, 
       Administration                             VI
  National Technical Information Service          15, XI
  National Telecommunications and Information     15, XXIII; 47, III, IV
       Administration
  National Weather Service                        15, IX
  Patent and Trademark Office, United States      37, I
  Secretary of Commerce, Office of                15, Subtitle A
Commercial Space Transportation                   14, III
Commodity Credit Corporation                      7, XIV
Commodity Futures Trading Commission              5, XLI; 17, I
Community Planning and Development, Office of     24, V, VI
     Assistant Secretary for
Community Services, Office of                     45, X
Comptroller of the Currency                       12, I
Construction Industry Collective Bargaining       29, IX
     Commission
Consumer Financial Protection Bureau              5, LXXXIV; 12, X
Consumer Product Safety Commission                5, LXXI; 16, II
Copyright Royalty Board                           37, III
Corporation for National and Community Service    2, XXII; 45, XII, XXV
Cost Accounting Standards Board                   48, 99
Council on Environmental Quality                  40, V
Council of the Inspectors General on Integrity    5, XCVIII
     and Efficiency
Court Services and Offender Supervision Agency    5, LXX; 28, VIII
     for the District of Columbia
Customs and Border Protection                     19, I
Defense, Department of                            2, XI; 5, XXVI; 32, 
                                                  Subtitle A; 40, VII
  Advanced Research Projects Agency               32, I
  Air Force Department                            32, VII
  Army Department                                 32, V; 33, II; 36, III; 
                                                  48, 51
  Defense Acquisition Regulations System          48, 2
  Defense Intelligence Agency                     32, I

[[Page 943]]

  Defense Logistics Agency                        32, I, XII; 48, 54
  Engineers, Corps of                             33, II; 36, III
  National Imagery and Mapping Agency             32, I
  Navy, Department of                             32, VI; 48, 52
  Secretary of Defense, Office of                 2, XI; 32, I
Defense Contract Audit Agency                     32, I
Defense Intelligence Agency                       32, I
Defense Logistics Agency                          32, XII; 48, 54
Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board           10, XVII
Delaware River Basin Commission                   18, III
Denali Commission                                 45, IX
Disability, National Council on                   5, C; 34, XII
District of Columbia, Court Services and          5, LXX; 28, VIII
     Offender Supervision Agency for the
Drug Enforcement Administration                   21, II
East-West Foreign Trade Board                     15, XIII
Economic Affairs, Office of the Under-Secretary   15, XV
     for
Economic Analysis, Bureau of                      15, VIII
Economic Development Administration               13, III
Economic Research Service                         7, XXXVII
Education, Department of                          2, XXXIV; 5, LIII
  Bilingual Education and Minority Languages      34, V
       Affairs, Office of
  Career, Technical, and Adult Education, Office  34, IV
       of
  Civil Rights, Office for                        34, I
  Educational Research and Improvement, Office    34, VII
       of
  Elementary and Secondary Education, Office of   34, II
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 34
  Postsecondary Education, Office of              34, VI
  Secretary of Education, Office of               34, Subtitle A
  Special Education and Rehabilitative Services,  34, III
       Office of
Educational Research and Improvement, Office of   34, VII
Election Assistance Commission                    2, LVIII; 11, II
Elementary and Secondary Education, Office of     34, II
Emergency Oil and Gas Guaranteed Loan Board       13, V
Emergency Steel Guarantee Loan Board              13, IV
Employee Benefits Security Administration         29, XXV
Employees' Compensation Appeals Board             20, IV
Employees Loyalty Board                           5, V
Employment and Training Administration            20, V
Employment Policy, National Commission for        1, IV
Employment Standards Administration               20, VI
Endangered Species Committee                      50, IV
Energy, Department of                             2, IX; 5, XXIII; 10, II, 
                                                  III, X
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 9
  Federal Energy Regulatory Commission            5, XXIV; 18, I
  Property Management Regulations                 41, 109
Energy, Office of                                 7, XXIX
Engineers, Corps of                               33, II; 36, III
Engraving and Printing, Bureau of                 31, VI
Environmental Protection Agency                   2, XV; 5, LIV; 40, I, IV, 
                                                  VII
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 15
  Property Management Regulations                 41, 115
Environmental Quality, Office of                  7, XXXI
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission           5, LXII; 29, XIV
Equal Opportunity, Office of Assistant Secretary  24, I
     for
Executive Office of the President                 3, I
  Environmental Quality, Council on               40, V
  Management and Budget, Office of                2, Subtitle A; 5, III, 
                                                  LXXVII; 14, VI; 48, 99
  National Drug Control Policy, Office of         2, XXXVI; 21, III
  National Security Council                       32, XXI; 47, II
  Science and Technology Policy, Office of        32, XXIV; 47, II
  Trade Representative, Office of the United      15, XX
       States
Export-Import Bank of the United States           2, XXXV; 5, LII; 12, IV

[[Page 944]]

Family Assistance, Office of                      45, II
Farm Credit Administration                        5, XXXI; 12, VI
Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation          5, XXX; 12, XIV
Farm Service Agency                               7, VII, XVIII
Federal Acquisition Regulation                    48, 1
Federal Acquisition Security Council              41, 201
Federal Aviation Administration                   14, I
  Commercial Space Transportation                 14, III
Federal Claims Collection Standards               31, IX
Federal Communications Commission                 2, LX; 5, XXIX; 47, I
Federal Contract Compliance Programs, Office of   41, 60
Federal Crop Insurance Corporation                7, IV
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation             5, XXII; 12, III
Federal Election Commission                       5, XXXVII; 11, I
Federal Emergency Management Agency               44, I
Federal Employees Group Life Insurance Federal    48, 21
     Acquisition Regulation
Federal Employees Health Benefits Acquisition     48, 16
     Regulation
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission              5, XXIV; 18, I
Federal Financial Institutions Examination        12, XI
     Council
Federal Financing Bank                            12, VIII
Federal Highway Administration                    23, I, II
Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation            1, IV
Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight Office       12, XVII
Federal Housing Finance Agency                    5, LXXX; 12, XII
Federal Labor Relations Authority                 5, XIV, XLIX; 22, XIV
Federal Law Enforcement Training Center           31, VII
Federal Management Regulation                     41, 102
Federal Maritime Commission                       46, IV
Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service        29, XII
Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission  5, LXXIV; 29, XXVII
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration       49, III
Federal Permitting Improvement Steering Council   40, IX
Federal Prison Industries, Inc.                   28, III
Federal Procurement Policy Office                 48, 99
Federal Property Management Regulations           41, 101
Federal Railroad Administration                   49, II
Federal Register, Administrative Committee of     1, I
Federal Register, Office of                       1, II
Federal Reserve System                            12, II
  Board of Governors                              5, LVIII
Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board        5, VI, LXXVI
Federal Service Impasses Panel                    5, XIV
Federal Trade Commission                          5, XLVII; 16, I
Federal Transit Administration                    49, VI
Federal Travel Regulation System                  41, Subtitle F
Financial Crimes Enforcement Network              31, X
Financial Research Office                         12, XVI
Financial Stability Oversight Council             12, XIII
Fine Arts, Commission of                          45, XXI
Fiscal Service                                    31, II
Fish and Wildlife Service, United States          50, I, IV
Food and Drug Administration                      21, I
Food and Nutrition Service                        7, II
Food Safety and Inspection Service                9, III
Foreign Agricultural Service                      7, XV
Foreign Assets Control, Office of                 31, V
Foreign Claims Settlement Commission of the       45, V
     United States
Foreign Service Grievance Board                   22, IX
Foreign Service Impasse Disputes Panel            22, XIV
Foreign Service Labor Relations Board             22, XIV
Foreign-Trade Zones Board                         15, IV
Forest Service                                    36, II
General Services Administration                   5, LVII; 41, 105
  Contract Appeals, Board of                      48, 61
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 5
  Federal Management Regulation                   41, 102

[[Page 945]]

  Federal Property Management Regulations         41, 101
  Federal Travel Regulation System                41, Subtitle F
  General                                         41, 300
  Payment From a Non-Federal Source for Travel    41, 304
       Expenses
  Payment of Expenses Connected With the Death    41, 303
       of Certain Employees
  Relocation Allowances                           41, 302
  Temporary Duty (TDY) Travel Allowances          41, 301
Geological Survey                                 30, IV
Government Accountability Office                  4, I
Government Ethics, Office of                      5, XVI
Government National Mortgage Association          24, III
Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards          7, VIII; 9, II
     Administration
Great Lakes St. Lawrence Seaway Development       33, IV
     Corporation
Gulf Coast Ecosystem Restoration Council          2, LIX; 40, VIII
Harry S. Truman Scholarship Foundation            45, XVIII
Health and Human Services, Department of          2, III; 5, XLV; 45, 
                                                  Subtitle A
  Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services        42, IV
  Child Support Enforcement, Office of            45, III
  Children and Families, Administration for       45, II, III, IV, X, XIII
  Community Services, Office of                   45, X
  Family Assistance, Office of                    45, II
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 3
  Food and Drug Administration                    21, I
  Indian Health Service                           25, V
  Inspector General (Health Care), Office of      42, V
  Public Health Service                           42, I
  Refugee Resettlement, Office of                 45, IV
Homeland Security, Department of                  2, XXX; 5, XXXVI; 6, I; 8, 
                                                  I
  Coast Guard                                     33, I; 46, I; 49, IV
  Coast Guard (Great Lakes Pilotage)              46, III
  Customs and Border Protection                   19, I
  Federal Emergency Management Agency             44, I
  Human Resources Management and Labor Relations  5, XCVII
       Systems
  Immigration and Customs Enforcement Bureau      19, IV
  Transportation Security Administration          49, XII
HOPE for Homeowners Program, Board of Directors   24, XXIV
     of
Housing and Urban Development, Department of      2, XXIV; 5, LXV; 24, 
                                                  Subtitle B
  Community Planning and Development, Office of   24, V, VI
       Assistant Secretary for
  Equal Opportunity, Office of Assistant          24, I
       Secretary for
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 24
  Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight, Office    12, XVII
       of
  Government National Mortgage Association        24, III
  Housing--Federal Housing Commissioner, Office   24, II, VIII, X, XX
       of Assistant Secretary for
  Housing, Office of, and Multifamily Housing     24, IV
       Assistance Restructuring, Office of
  Inspector General, Office of                    24, XII
  Public and Indian Housing, Office of Assistant  24, IX
       Secretary for
  Secretary, Office of                            24, Subtitle A, VII
Housing--Federal Housing Commissioner, Office of  24, II, VIII, X, XX
     Assistant Secretary for
Housing, Office of, and Multifamily Housing       24, IV
     Assistance Restructuring, Office of
Immigration and Customs Enforcement Bureau        19, IV
Immigration Review, Executive Office for          8, V
Independent Counsel, Office of                    28, VII
Independent Counsel, Offices of                   28, VI
Indian Affairs, Bureau of                         25, I, V
Indian Affairs, Office of the Assistant           25, VI
     Secretary
Indian Arts and Crafts Board                      25, II
Indian Health Service                             25, V

[[Page 946]]

Industry and Security, Bureau of                  15, VII
Information Resources Management, Office of       7, XXVII
Information Security Oversight Office, National   32, XX
     Archives and Records Administration
Inspector General
  Agriculture Department                          7, XXVI
  Health and Human Services Department            42, V
  Housing and Urban Development Department        24, XII, XV
Institute of Peace, United States                 22, XVII
Inter-American Foundation                         5, LXIII; 22, X
Interior, Department of                           2, XIV
  American Indians, Office of the Special         25, VII
       Trustee
  Endangered Species Committee                    50, IV
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 14
  Federal Property Management Regulations System  41, 114
  Fish and Wildlife Service, United States        50, I, IV
  Geological Survey                               30, IV
  Indian Affairs, Bureau of                       25, I, V
  Indian Affairs, Office of the Assistant         25, VI
       Secretary
  Indian Arts and Crafts Board                    25, II
  Land Management, Bureau of                      43, II
  National Indian Gaming Commission               25, III
  National Park Service                           36, I
  Natural Resource Revenue, Office of             30, XII
  Ocean Energy Management, Bureau of              30, V
  Reclamation, Bureau of                          43, I
  Safety and Environmental Enforcement, Bureau    30, II
       of
  Secretary of the Interior, Office of            2, XIV; 43, Subtitle A
  Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement,     30, VII
       Office of
Internal Revenue Service                          26, I
International Boundary and Water Commission,      22, XI
     United States and Mexico, United States 
     Section
International Development, United States Agency   22, II
     for
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 7
International Development Cooperation Agency,     22, XII
     United States
International Development Finance Corporation,    5, XXXIII; 22, VII
     U.S.
International Joint Commission, United States     22, IV
     and Canada
International Organizations Employees Loyalty     5, V
     Board
International Trade Administration                15, III; 19, III
International Trade Commission, United States     19, II
Interstate Commerce Commission                    5, XL
Investment Security, Office of                    31, VIII
James Madison Memorial Fellowship Foundation      45, XXIV
Japan-United States Friendship Commission         22, XVI
Joint Board for the Enrollment of Actuaries       20, VIII
Justice, Department of                            2, XXVIII; 5, XXVIII; 28, 
                                                  I, XI; 40, IV
  Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives,     27, II
       Bureau of
  Drug Enforcement Administration                 21, II
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 28
  Federal Claims Collection Standards             31, IX
  Federal Prison Industries, Inc.                 28, III
  Foreign Claims Settlement Commission of the     45, V
       United States
  Immigration Review, Executive Office for        8, V
  Independent Counsel, Offices of                 28, VI
  Prisons, Bureau of                              28, V
  Property Management Regulations                 41, 128
Labor, Department of                              2, XXIX; 5, XLII
  Benefits Review Board                           20, VII
  Employee Benefits Security Administration       29, XXV
  Employees' Compensation Appeals Board           20, IV
  Employment and Training Administration          20, V
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 29
  Federal Contract Compliance Programs, Office    41, 60
       of
  Federal Procurement Regulations System          41, 50

[[Page 947]]

  Labor-Management Standards, Office of           29, II, IV
  Mine Safety and Health Administration           30, I
  Occupational Safety and Health Administration   29, XVII
  Public Contracts                                41, 50
  Secretary of Labor, Office of                   29, Subtitle A
  Veterans' Employment and Training Service,      41, 61; 20, IX
       Office of the Assistant Secretary for
  Wage and Hour Division                          29, V
  Workers' Compensation Programs, Office of       20, I, VI
Labor-Management Standards, Office of             29, II, IV
Land Management, Bureau of                        43, II
Legal Services Corporation                        45, XVI
Libraries and Information Science, National       45, XVII
     Commission on
Library of Congress                               36, VII
  Copyright Royalty Board                         37, III
  U.S. Copyright Office                           37, II
Management and Budget, Office of                  5, III, LXXVII; 14, VI; 
                                                  48, 99
Marine Mammal Commission                          50, V
Maritime Administration                           46, II
Merit Systems Protection Board                    5, II, LXIV
Micronesian Status Negotiations, Office for       32, XXVII
Military Compensation and Retirement              5, XCIX
     Modernization Commission
Millennium Challenge Corporation                  22, XIII
Mine Safety and Health Administration             30, I
Minority Business Development Agency              15, XIV
Miscellaneous Agencies                            1, IV
Monetary Offices                                  31, I
Morris K. Udall Scholarship and Excellence in     36, XVI
     National Environmental Policy Foundation
Museum and Library Services, Institute of         2, XXXI
National Aeronautics and Space Administration     2, XVIII; 5, LIX; 14, V
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 18
National Agricultural Library                     7, XLI
National Agricultural Statistics Service          7, XXXVI
National and Community Service, Corporation for   2, XXII; 45, XII, XXV
National Archives and Records Administration      2, XXVI; 5, LXVI; 36, XII
  Information Security Oversight Office           32, XX
National Capital Planning Commission              1, IV, VI
National Counterintelligence Center               32, XVIII
National Credit Union Administration              5, LXXXVI; 12, VII
National Crime Prevention and Privacy Compact     28, IX
     Council
National Drug Control Policy, Office of           2, XXXVI; 21, III
National Endowment for the Arts                   2, XXXII
National Endowment for the Humanities             2, XXXIII
National Foundation on the Arts and the           45, XI
     Humanities
National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency           32, I
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration    23, II, III; 47, VI; 49, V
National Imagery and Mapping Agency               32, I
National Indian Gaming Commission                 25, III
National Institute of Food and Agriculture        7, XXXIV
National Institute of Standards and Technology    15, II; 37, IV
National Intelligence, Office of Director of      5, IV; 32, XVII
National Labor Relations Board                    5, LXI; 29, I
National Marine Fisheries Service                 50, II, IV
National Mediation Board                          5, CI; 29, X
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration   15, IX; 50, II, III, IV, 
                                                  VI
National Park Service                             36, I
National Railroad Adjustment Board                29, III
National Railroad Passenger Corporation (AMTRAK)  49, VII
National Science Foundation                       2, XXV; 5, XLIII; 45, VI
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 25
National Security Council                         32, XXI; 47, II
National Technical Information Service            15, XI
National Telecommunications and Information       15, XXIII; 47, III, IV, V
   Administration
[[Page 948]]

National Transportation Safety Board              49, VIII
Natural Resource Revenue, Office of               30, XII
Natural Resources Conservation Service            7, VI
Navajo and Hopi Indian Relocation, Office of      25, IV
Navy, Department of                               32, VI
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 52
Neighborhood Reinvestment Corporation             24, XXV
Northeast Interstate Low-Level Radioactive Waste  10, XVIII
     Commission
Nuclear Regulatory Commission                     2, XX; 5, XLVIII; 10, I
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 20
Occupational Safety and Health Administration     29, XVII
Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission  29, XX
Ocean Energy Management, Bureau of                30, V
Oklahoma City National Memorial Trust             36, XV
Operations Office                                 7, XXVIII
Patent and Trademark Office, United States        37, I
Payment From a Non-Federal Source for Travel      41, 304
     Expenses
Payment of Expenses Connected With the Death of   41, 303
     Certain Employees
Peace Corps                                       2, XXXVII; 22, III
Pennsylvania Avenue Development Corporation       36, IX
Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation              29, XL
Personnel Management, Office of                   5, I, IV, XXXV; 45, VIII
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 17
  Federal Employees Group Life Insurance Federal  48, 21
       Acquisition Regulation
  Federal Employees Health Benefits Acquisition   48, 16
       Regulation
  Human Resources Management and Labor Relations  5, XCVII
       Systems, Department of Homeland Security
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety           49, I
     Administration
Postal Regulatory Commission                      5, XLVI; 39, III
Postal Service, United States                     5, LX; 39, I
Postsecondary Education, Office of                34, VI
President's Commission on White House             1, IV
     Fellowships
Presidio Trust                                    36, X
Prisons, Bureau of                                28, V
Privacy and Civil Liberties Oversight Board       6, X
Procurement and Property Management, Office of    7, XXXII
Public and Indian Housing, Office of Assistant    24, IX
     Secretary for
Public Contracts, Department of Labor             41, 50
Public Health Service                             42, I
Railroad Retirement Board                         20, II
Reclamation, Bureau of                            43, I
Refugee Resettlement, Office of                   45, IV
Relocation Allowances                             41, 302
Research and Innovative Technology                49, XI
     Administration
Rural Business-Cooperative Service                7, XVIII, XLII, L
Rural Development Administration                  7, XLII
Rural Housing Service                             7, XVIII, XXXV, L
Rural Utilities Service                           7, XVII, XVIII, XLII, L
Safety and Environmental Enforcement, Bureau of   30, II
Science and Technology Policy, Office of          32, XXIV; 47, II
Secret Service                                    31, IV
Securities and Exchange Commission                5, XXXIV; 17, II
Selective Service System                          32, XVI
Small Business Administration                     2, XXVII; 13, I
Smithsonian Institution                           36, V
Social Security Administration                    2, XXIII; 20, III; 48, 23
Soldiers' and Airmen's Home, United States        5, XI
Special Counsel, Office of                        5, VIII
Special Education and Rehabilitative Services,    34, III
     Office of
State, Department of                              2, VI; 22, I; 28, XI
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 6
Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement,       30, VII
     Office of
Surface Transportation Board                      49, X
Susquehanna River Basin Commission                18, VIII

[[Page 949]]

Tennessee Valley Authority                        5, LXIX; 18, XIII
Trade Representative, United States, Office of    15, XX
Transportation, Department of                     2, XII; 5, L
  Commercial Space Transportation                 14, III
  Emergency Management and Assistance             44, IV
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 12
  Federal Aviation Administration                 14, I
  Federal Highway Administration                  23, I, II
  Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration     49, III
  Federal Railroad Administration                 49, II
  Federal Transit Administration                  49, VI
  Great Lakes St. Lawrence Seaway Development     33, IV
       Corporation
  Maritime Administration                         46, II
  National Highway Traffic Safety Administration  23, II, III; 47, IV; 49, V
  Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety         49, I
       Administration
  Secretary of Transportation, Office of          14, II; 49, Subtitle A
  Transportation Statistics Bureau                49, XI
Transportation, Office of                         7, XXXIII
Transportation Security Administration            49, XII
Transportation Statistics Bureau                  49, XI
Travel Allowances, Temporary Duty (TDY)           41, 301
Treasury, Department of the                       2, X; 5, XXI; 12, XV; 17, 
                                                  IV; 31, IX
  Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau        27, I
  Community Development Financial Institutions    12, XVIII
       Fund
  Comptroller of the Currency                     12, I
  Customs and Border Protection                   19, I
  Engraving and Printing, Bureau of               31, VI
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 10
  Federal Claims Collection Standards             31, IX
  Federal Law Enforcement Training Center         31, VII
  Financial Crimes Enforcement Network            31, X
  Fiscal Service                                  31, II
  Foreign Assets Control, Office of               31, V
  Internal Revenue Service                        26, I
  Investment Security, Office of                  31, VIII
  Monetary Offices                                31, I
  Secret Service                                  31, IV
  Secretary of the Treasury, Office of            31, Subtitle A
Truman, Harry S. Scholarship Foundation           45, XVIII
United States Agency for Global Media             22, V
United States and Canada, International Joint     22, IV
     Commission
United States and Mexico, International Boundary  22, XI
     and Water Commission, United States Section
U.S. Copyright Office                             37, II
U.S. Office of Special Counsel                    5, CII
Utah Reclamation Mitigation and Conservation      43, III
     Commission
Veterans Affairs, Department of                   2, VIII; 38, I
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 8
Veterans' Employment and Training Service,        41, 61; 20, IX
     Office of the Assistant Secretary for
Vice President of the United States, Office of    32, XXVIII
Wage and Hour Division                            29, V
Water Resources Council                           18, VI
Workers' Compensation Programs, Office of         20, I, VII
World Agricultural Outlook Board                  7, XXXVIII

[[Page 951]]



List of CFR Sections Affected



All changes in this volume of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) that 
were made by documents published in the Federal Register since January 
1, 2018 are enumerated in the following list. Entries indicate the 
nature of the changes effected. Page numbers refer to Federal Register 
pages. The user should consult the entries for chapters, parts and 
subparts as well as sections for revisions.
For changes to this volume of the CFR prior to this listing, consult the 
annual edition of the monthly List of CFR Sections Affected (LSA). The 
LSA is available at www.govinfo.gov. For changes to this volume of the 
CFR prior to 2001, see the ``List of CFR Sections Affected, 1949-1963, 
1964-1972, 1973-1985, and 1986-2000'' published in 11 separate volumes. 
The ``List of CFR Sections Affected 1986-2000'' is available at 
www.govinfo.gov.

                                  2018

14 CFR
                                                                   83 FR
                                                                    Page
Chapter I
60 Technical correction............................................31451
60.5 (d) amended....................................................9170
60.29 (a)(4)(ii) and (b)(2) amended.................................9170
60 Appendix A amended........................................9170, 30275
60 Appendix B amended..............................................30275
60 Appendix C amended........................................9170, 30275
60 Appendix D amended..............................................30276
61 SFAR No. 100-2 amendedPG9170
    Technical correction...........................................31451
    Policy statement...............................................34040
61.1 (b) amended...................................................30276
61.3 (a)(1)(iv) and (l) introductory text revised; (a)(1)(v) 
        redesignated as (a)(1)(vii); new (a)(1)(v) and (vi) added 
                                                                   30276
61.31 (e)(1)(i), (f)(1)(i), (g)(2), (3), and (h)(1) amended; 
        (e)(2) and (f)(2) revised..................................30276
61.39 (a)(3) revised...............................................30276
61.43 (a)(1) revised...............................................30276
61.51 (b)(1)(iii), (iv), (2)(v), (3)(iii), (iv), (k)(1)(ii), and 
        (2)(ii) amended; (e)(1)(i), (f)(1), (2), (g)(4), and 
        (h)(1) revised; (e)(5), (f)(3), and (g)(5) added...........30277
61.55 (d)(3), (4), (6), (e)(3), (4), and (6) amended................9170
61.57 (a)(3), (b)(2), (d)(1)(ii), (e)(4)(ii)(D), and (g) 
        introductory text amended; (c)(3), (4), and (5) removed; 
        (c)(6), (d)(1), and (2) redesignated as (c)(3), (d)(2), 
        and (3); (d) introductory text redesignated as new (d)(1); 
        (c)(2) and new (d)(1) revised..............................30277
61.64 (g)(4) amended................................................9170
61.77 (b) introductory text and (5) amended.........................9170
61.85 (b) amended...................................................9170
61.99 Revised......................................................30277
61.109 (k) amended; (l) added......................................30278
61.129 (a)(3)(ii) and (b)(3)(ii) revised; (c)(3)(i), (d) 
        introductory text, (3)(i), and (i) amended; (j) added......30278
61.159 (a)(4) amended; (d) and (e) redesignated as (e) and (f); 
        new (d) added; (a) introductory text, (5), (c), new (e), 
        and (f) revised............................................30278
61.161 (b) amended; (c), (d), and (e) added........................30279
61.195 (b), (c), and (e) revised; (l) added........................30279
61.197 (a)(2)(iv) and (c) revised..................................30279
61.199 (a)(3), (c), and (d) added..................................30279
61.412 Added.......................................................30280
61.415 (h) and (i) redesignated as (i) and (j); new (h) added......30280

[[Page 952]]

63 Authority citation revised......................................30280
    Technical correction...........................................31451
63.3 Revised.......................................................30280
63.16 Revised......................................................30280
63 Appendix B amended...............................................9171
65 Authority citation revised......................................30281
    Technical correction...........................................31451
65.59 Revised......................................................30281
65.93 (a) introductory text amended.................................9171
65.95 (c) amended...................................................9171
65 Appendix A amended..............................................30281
67 Policy statement................................................34040
71.1...............................................................1184,
1186, 1538, 2536, 2738, 3068, 4578, 4834, 5524, 5525, 5706, 5707, 5709, 
5711, 6129, 7365, 7366, 8166, 9182, 9814, 9815, 9817, 11408, 11409, 
11410, 11412, 12474, 13408, 14575, 14578, 14580, 14745, 15050, 17481, 
19618, 19931, 19932, 19934, 21871, 21872, 22840, 22841, 23797, 23799, 
25559, 25902, 25903, 25905, 25907, 26204, 26567, 26573, 26838, 26840, 
28357, 28978, 28979, 28981, 30032, 30033, 31328, 31654, 31854, 31855, 
31856, 31858, 35540, 35542, 35543, 36402, 36403, 37422, 37423, 38017, 
38255, 39584, 39585, 39587, 39588, 40664, 42023, 42024, 42585, 42586, 
42588, 43752, 43757, 43969, 43971, 44215, 45337, 45339, 45555, 45814, 
45815, 45816, 45817, 45819, 45820, 45821, 46387, 46390, 46391, 46639, 
46864, 48531, 50257, 51316, 52148, 54519, 55479
    Revised; eff. 9-15-18 through 9-15-19..........................43757
    Eff. 1-3-19.........49278, 49483, 49485, 50256, 50823, 51833, 51834, 
         51835, 53808, 53981, 53982, 53983, 53984, 54233, 54237, 54239, 
                                       54241, 56713, 58743, 58744, 60340
    Eff. 2-28-19........46388, 53810, 54236, 58468, 58470, 58472, 58473, 
         60341, 62452, 62453, 63403, 63404, 63406, 63407, 63410, 63569, 
         64240, 64243, 64245, 64247, 64248, 64249, 64250, 64252, 64253, 
         64737, 65081, 65487, 66095, 67054, 67056, 67057, 67058, 67060, 
                                                            67684, 67685
    Eff. 3-28-19...................................................53807
    Eff. 4-25-19............................................63408, 64242
71.5 Amended; eff. 9-15-18 through 9-15-19.........................43757
71.15 Amended; eff. 9-15-18 through 9-15-19........................43757
71.31 Amended; eff. 9-15-18 through 9-15-19........................43757
71.33 (c) amended; eff. 9-15-18 through 9-15-19....................43757
71.41 Amended; eff. 9-15-18 through 9-15-19........................43757
71.51 Amended; eff. 9-15-18 through 9-15-19........................43757
71.61 Amended; eff. 9-15-18 through 9-15-19........................43757
71.71 (b) through (f) amended; eff. 9-15-18 through 9-15-19........43757
71.901 (a) amended; eff. 9-15-18 through 9-15-19...................43757
73.23 Amended......................................................30034
73.25 Amended...............................................12114, 30035
73.29 Amended........................................10784, 14175, 40968
73.30 Amended......................................................43509
73.44 Amended......................................................18939
73.56................................................28982, 32062, 34764
91 SFAR Nos. 50-2, 79 and 104 amended...............................9171
    Order..........................................................12856
    Policy statement........................................34040, 55263
    Technical correction....................................31451, 48368
    SFAR No. 79 removed............................................47064
91.23 (a)(3) and (c)(3) introductory text amended...................9171
91.109 (c)(1) revised..............................................30281
91.146 (e) introductory text amended................................9171
91.147 (b) amended..................................................9171
91.175 (e)(1) revised..............................................10568
91.203 (a)(1) amended...............................................9171
91.213 (a)(2) amended...............................................9171
91.313 (b), (c), (d)(3), and (4) revised; (d)(5) and (h) added.....30281
91.317 (c) amended..................................................9171
91.409 (d) introductory text, concluding text, and (g) 
        introductory text amended...................................9171
91.415 (c) amended..................................................9171
91.531 Revised.....................................................30282
91.715 (a) revised..................................................9171
91.1015 (d) amended.................................................9171
    (h) added......................................................30282
91.1017 (b)(1), (2), (3) introductory text, (4) introductory text, 
        (i), (c)(2), (3) introductory text, (4), (d) introductory 
        text, (2), (3), and (e) amended.............................9171
91.1053 (b) amended.................................................9171
91.1109 (b) introductory text amended...............................9171

[[Page 953]]

91.1415 (d) amended.................................................9171
91.1417 Introductory text amended...................................9171
91.1431 (c) amended.................................................9171
91.1501 (b) removed.................................................9171
91.1505 (a) introductory text amended...............................9171
91.1507 (b), (d), and (f) amended...................................9172
91.1603 (d) amended.................................................9172
91.1605 Added......................................................53990
91.1607 (d) amended.................................................9172
    Revised........................................................52961
91.1609 Heading and (b) through (e) revised........................63414
91.1611 (d) amended.................................................9172
91.1613 (d) amended.................................................9172
91.1615 Added......................................................47064
91 Appendix A amended...............................................9172
91 Appendix G amended; eff. 1-22-19................................65492
93 Orders...................................................46865, 47065
93.303 Amended.....................................................48212
93.305 Introductory text revised...................................48212
93.307 Introductory text revised...................................48212
93.309 (b), (c), and (d) revised...................................48212
93.311 Revised.....................................................48212
93.317 Introductory text revised...................................48213
93.321 (b)(4)(iii) revised.........................................48213
93.323 Removed.....................................................48213
93.325 (a) revised.................................................48213
93.341 (d) revised.................................................13411
93.343 (a)(2) and (3) revised......................................13411
95...............................................971, 8607, 18402, 29668
95 Eff. 1-3-19.....................................................64254
97.....3573, 3576, 6131, 8335, 10364, 13412, 15053, 17483, 20726, 23803, 
         25910, 27687, 30837, 32767, 36404, 40972, 45823, 45825, 48369, 
                                53178, 54242, 55822, 58476, 62706, 66097
    Technical correction...........................................31451
97.20 (c) revised...................................................9172
97.21--97.37.........3570, 3571, 6133, 8332, 10366, 13415, 15052, 17485, 
         20729, 23800, 25908, 27689, 30834, 32765, 36406, 40969, 44817, 
                  44820, 48371, 53175, 54244, 55819, 58474, 62704, 66099
107 Technical correction...........................................31451
107.63 (b)(1) amended...............................................9172

                                  2019

14 CFR
                                                                   84 FR
                                                                    Page
Chapter I
61.18 Removed......................................................42804
63.14 Removed......................................................42804
65.14 Removed......................................................42804
71.1....962, 2719, 3096, 3098, 3099, 3101, 3674, 3675, 3677, 3678, 3680, 
            4992, 4994, 5353, 5952, 6672, 6966, 6967, 7274, 7809, 8414, 
           8415, 8416, 10408, 16205, 16397, 17737, 17738, 20257, 20258, 
         20259, 20776, 22362, 22363, 22365, 22366, 22367, 22700, 22701, 
         22960, 24365, 24366, 25680, 26342, 26343, 26345, 26559, 26747, 
         27936, 27938, 29371, 30593, 34052, 34054, 34055, 34056, 35291, 
         35293, 35539, 35819, 36467, 36468, 37962, 38865, 39177, 40228, 
         41909, 43043, 46438, 46878, 47414, 47416, 48053, 49009, 49011, 
          49012, 49014, 50305, 51964, 51965, 52758-52763, 54002, 58319, 
         58600, 58601, 61538, 64015, 64991, 64993, 65669, 65671, 66069, 
                                68040, 68042, 68331, 67860, 67861, 69620
71.1 Revised; eff. 9-15-19 through 9-15-20.........................45652
71.5 Amended; eff. 9-15-19 through 9-15-20.........................45652
71.15 Amended; eff. 9-15-19 through 9-15-20........................45652
71.31 Amended; eff. 9-15-19 through 9-15-20........................45652
71.33 (c) amended; eff. 9-15-19 through 9-15-20....................45652
71.41 Amended; eff. 9-15-19 through 9-15-20........................45652
71.51 Amended; eff. 9-15-19 through 9-15-20........................45652
71.61 Amended; eff. 9-15-19 through 9-15-20........................45652
71.71 (b) through (f) amended; eff. 9-15-19 through 9-15-20........45652
71.901 (a) amended; eff. 9-15-19 through 9-15-20...................45652
73 Technical correction.............................................8252
73.21 Amended......................................................15953
73.22 Amended...............................................39963, 39965
73.38 Amended......................................................33847
73.55 Amended.......................................................3300
91 Authority citation revised...............................67665, 67671
    Policy statement..................................9705, 12062, 31713
    Interpretation.................................................14607
91.215 (c) revised; interim........................................34287
91.225 (f) revised; interim........................................34287
91.1603 Revised.....................................................9956
91.1611 Revised....................................................67665
91.1613 (a)(3), (b), (c), and (e) revised..........................67671

[[Page 954]]

95................................963, 12488, 24011, 34057, 48054, 60330
97........2442, 2720, 2721, 3976, 3978, 4997, 9226, 11411, 14004, 16607, 
         18972, 23712, 26750, 32034, 32039, 34291, 40231, 40235, 47116, 
         47117, 47119, 47121, 51966, 51972, 56113, 59297, 63574, 65674, 
                                                            67863, 70424
97.21--97.37...2444, 3974, 3979, 4995, 9224, 11409, 14006, 16606, 18974, 
         23713, 26749, 32031, 32038, 34289, 40229, 40233, 51968, 51971, 
                                56114, 59295, 63572, 65672, 67865, 70420

                                  2020

14 CFR
                                                                   85 FR
                                                                    Page
Chapter I
61 Notification....................................................18110
61 Special FAA conditions............................26345, 38778, 62968
63 Technical correction............................................47295
61 Policy statement................................................60057
61.8 Revised.......................................................79825
61.71 (b)(1) revised...............................................10920
63 Special FAA conditions............................26349, 38783, 62975
63 Technical correction............................................47295
63 Policy statement................................................60057
65 Special FAA conditions............................26350, 38783, 62975
65 Technical correction............................................47295
65 Policy statement................................................60057
67 Policy statement................................................60057
71.1...1268, 1269, 2290, 2292, 3257, 3540, 3814, 3816, 3819, 5318, 5320, 
          5321, 6030, 6423, 7193, 7446, 7448, 7873, 8389, 10050, 10052, 
         10053, 10055, 10056, 12433, 12435, 12437, 12438, 12998, 12999, 
         13001, 13002, 13481, 13482, 13732, 13733, 16535, 16538, 16540, 
         17745, 17747, 18870, 18871, 20414, 20593, 21076, 23455, 23457, 
         23459, 25286, 26602, 26603, 26605, 26606, 26608, 26609, 26610, 
         26846, 27116, 27294, 27295, 27296, 27674, 27912, 27913, 27915, 
         27916, 27917, 28853, 31050, 31671, 33537, 34963, 34966, 36321, 
         37556, 37557, 37559, 37560, 37562, 38315, 38317, 38318, 38320, 
         38785, 38787, 39069, 39473, 39474, 39476, 40090, 40589, 41185, 
         41339, 41340, 41341, 41343, 41344, 41345, 41346, 43426, 43428, 
         43429, 43431, 43432, 43433, 43685, 44468, 44470, 44689, 44691, 
         45995, 45996, 45998, 47017, 47018, 47895, 50776, 50778, 51325, 
         51326, 51328, 51331, 52046, 53159, 54235, 55368, 55369, 55370, 
         55372, 56515, 57086, 57088, 57089, 57674, 57675, 59666, 59668, 
         59669, 62573, 62578, 65204, 65678, 67440, 67442, 67649, 67650, 
                                                            69148, 69149
71.1 Eff. 2-25-21.......62574, 62576, 62579, 67443, 71535, 71537, 72918, 
         74260, 74854, 74855, 74857, 74858, 78706, 79118, 79424, 79426, 
         79834, 79836, 80594, 80595, 80596, 80598, 80600, 81096, 82905, 
                                83763, 83764, 83765, 84207, 85510, 85512
71.1 Correction.........11841, 12865, 19384, 26847, 30605, 37003, 52271, 
         55174, 64014, 67268, 67269, 67270, 67271, 67272, 67273, 67274, 
                                                                   67275
71.1 Regulation at 85 FR 10055 eff. date delayed to 9-10-20........16533
71.1 Regulation at 85 FR 13482 delayed to 9-10-20..................22587
71.1 Revised; eff. 9-15-20 through 9-15-21.........................50780
71.1 Regulation at 85 FR 51331 eff. date delayed to 6-17-21........64377
71.1 Regulation at 85 FR 67650 withdrawn...........................72918
71.1 Eff. 6-17-21..................................................76959
71.5 Amended; eff. 9-15-20 through 9-15-21.........................50780
71.15 Amended; eff. 9-15-20 through 9-15-21........................50780
71.31 Amended; eff. 9-15-20 through 9-15-21........................50780
71.33 (c) amended; eff. 9-15-20 through 9-15-21....................50780
71.41 Amended; eff. 9-15-20 through 9-15-21........................50780

[[Page 955]]

71.51 Amended; eff. 9-15-20 through 9-15-21........................50780
71.61 Amended; eff. 9-15-20 through 9-15-21........................50780
71.71 (b) through (f) amended; eff. 9-15-20 through 9-15-21........50780
71.901 (a) amended; eff. 9-15-20 through 9-15-21...................50780
73.41 Amended......................................................57676
73.48 Amended......................................................63007
91 Special FAA conditions............................26530, 38783, 62975
91 Technical correction............................................47295
91 Notification....................................................74260
91.1063 (b) revised................................................10920
91.1603 Revised....................................................45091
91.1605 Revised....................................................65693
91.1607 Revised....................................................65685
91.1609 (a)(2), (3), and (e) revised...............................75845
91.1615 (a)(3) and (e) revised.....................................55377
91.1617 Added......................................................68440
93 Order....................................................58255, 58258
93.101--93.102 (Subpart H) Revised; eff. 8-5-20 through 8-5-22.....47899
95........................2630, 13003, 29604, 40092, 55175, 68441, 82311
97....2643, 4581, 7196, 10270, 12866, 16241, 16244, 20415, 20420, 26612, 
         27918, 31675, 35801, 35804, 38788, 38789, 41913, 44473, 47644, 
         51334, 54910, 58261, 62580, 69150, 69152, 72561, 74861, 78220, 
                                                            84208, 84210
97.21--97.37........2641, 4583, 7195, 10271, 12868, 20417, 20421, 26614, 
         27920, 31673, 41915, 44471, 47646, 51332, 54903, 58263, 62581, 
                                              65206, 72563, 74859, 78222
101 Authority citation revised.....................................79825
101 Heading revised................................................79826
101.1 (a)(5) removed...............................................79826
101.41--101.43 (Subpart E) Removed.................................79826
107 Authority citation revised.....................................79826
107 Special FAA conditions...........................26350, 38783, 62975
107 Technical correction...........................................47295
107.1 (b)(2) removed; (b)(3) redesignated as new (b)(2); (b)(1) 
        amended....................................................79826

                                  2021

14 CFR
                                                                   86 FR
                                                                    Page
Chapter I
61 Notification....................................................36493
61 Technical correction............................................39941
61.35 (a)(3)((iii)(B) removed; (a)(3)(iii)(C) redesignated as new 
        (a)(3)(iii)(B); (a)(2), (3)(iii)(A), and new (B) revised; 
                                                                   62087
61.39 (b) introductory text and (d) introductory text revised......62087
61.153 (e) revised.................................................62087
61.155 (c)(14) revised; (d) removed................................62087
61.156 Heading and introductory text revised.......................62087
61.160 (a) introductory text, (b) introductory text, (c) 
        introductory text, (d), (e), and (f) revised...............62087
61.165 (c)(2), (f) introductory text, and (2) revised..............62088
71 Authority citation amended...............................52823, 54602
71.1...............................................................3781,
3782, 6244, 6246, 6849, 10803, 10804, 10805, 10806, 10808, 10809, 10812, 
10813, 10815, 11625, 11627, 11860, 11862, 13169, 13171, 13172, 13173, 
13643, 13645, 13993, 15796, 16297, 18433, 18893, 19132, 19781, 20270, 
20271, 21188, 21646, 26378, 26379, 26380, 26381, 27511, 27512, 27800, 
28487, 29489, 29490, 29947, 30165, 30166, 30168, 30169, 31104, 31105, 
31107, 31108, 31109, 31110, 31111, 31113, 31114, 31115, 31908, 34131, 
34626, 34627, 34938, 36211, 36213, 37235, 37237, 38229, 38917, 38919, 
38920, 39951, 39953, 39954, 39957, 39958, 39959, 40144, 40146, 40147, 
40307, 40308, 40783, 41704, 41705, 41706, 41708, 41709, 41711, 41713, 
41895, 43412, 43590, 43912, 45630, 46774, 48019, 48494, 48495, 48496, 
48497, 48906, 49918, 49919, 49920, 50245, 50248, 50249, 50250, 50454, 
50615, 50843, 50844, 51608, 52604, 52605, 52606, 52608, 52609, 52823, 
52960, 52962, 54042, 54044, 54363, 54602, 54604, 55484,
71.1 Eff. 1-27-22.......50246, 55689, 59015, 59016, 59017, 59019, 58795, 
         58796, 60757, 60758, 62723, 62724, 66454, 66456, 67315, 67316, 
                                                     67651, 67859, 68539
71.1 Eff. 3-24-22.............................68913, 69582, 70369, 70370
71.1 Eff. 6-17-21...........................................15402, 15403
71.1 Eff. 9-15-21 through 9-15-22..................................46962
71.1 Regulation at 86 FR 11860 withdrawn...........................13448

[[Page 956]]

71.1 Regulation at 85 FR 51331 withdrawn...........................16298
71.1 Regulation at 86 FR 18892 withdrawn...........................27973
71.1 Correction.........13447, 35221, 36212, 37238, 37672, 40784, 48300, 
                  54591, 60165, 66949, 66950, 66951, 66952, 66953, 68396
71.1 Regulation at 86 FR 48494 withdrawn...........................54362
71.1 Regulations at 86 FR 48497 and 48906 withdrawn................54361
71.1 Regulation at 86 FR 50246 eff. date delayed until 3-24-22.....60367
71.5 Amended; eff. 9-15-21 through 9-15-22.........................46963
71.15 Amended; eff. 9-15-21 through 9-15-22........................46963
71.31 Amended; eff. 9-15-21 through 9-15-22........................46963
71.33 (c) amended; eff. 9-15-21 through 9-15-22....................46963
71.41 Amended; eff. 9-15-21 through 9-15-22........................46963
71.51 Amended; eff. 9-15-21 through 9-15-22........................46963
71.61 Amended; eff. 9-15-21 through 9-15-22........................46963
71.71 (b) through (f) amended; eff. 9-15-21 through 9-15-22........46963
71.901 (a) amended; eff. 9-15-21 through 9-15-22...................46963
73 Authority citation amended......................................29688
73.30 Amended......................................................11422
73.43 Amended......................................................11424
73.53 Amended......................................................44604
73.64 Amended......................................................29688
77 Policy statement................................................25801
89 Added............................................................4505
89 Policy statement................................................66162
89 Regulation at 86 FR 4505 eff. date delayed to 4-21-21...........13629
89.201--89.230 (Subpart C) Added; eff. 9-16-22......................4511
89.520 Correction: Introductory text amended.......................13630
91.215 (b) introductory text and (c) revised; (e) added.............4512
91.215 Regulation at 86 FR 4512 eff. date delayed to 4-21-21.......13629
91.225 (a) introductory text, (b) introductory text, (d) 
        introductory text, and (f) introductory text revised; (i) 
        added.......................................................4513
91.225 Regulation at 86 FR 4513 eff. date delayed to 4-21-21.......13629
91.817 (a) and (b)(2) amended.......................................3792
91.818 Added........................................................3792
91 Appendix B removed...............................................3792
91.1051 Removed; eff. 9-9-24.......................................31060
91.1607 Revised....................................................55491
91.1611 (e) revised................................................69173
95...............................7337, 16047, 28253, 37893, 50616, 62088
97.......28, 7499, 7959, 7960, 12816, 12820, 15584, 17525, 20277, 21933, 
         29691, 33503, 34939, 34942, 36642, 37898, 42709, 46776, 48503, 
           50847, 54605, 56838, 59848, 63312, 63313, 68540, 71139, 73676
97.21--97.37.........26, 7497, 12813, 12817, 15580, 17527, 20272, 21930, 
         26383, 26386, 29689, 33504, 36643, 37900, 42705, 46777, 48498, 
                         50845, 54607, 56836, 59849, 68542, 71140, 73674
101 Technical correction...........................................39941
107 Authority citation revised......................................4381
107 Technical correction...........................................39941
107 Notification...................................................71372
107.1 Revised.......................................................4381
107.1 Regulation at 86 FR 4381 eff. date delayed to 4-21-21........13630
107.2 Added.........................................................4381
107.2 Regulation at 86 FR 4381 eff. date delayed to 4-21-21........13630
107.3 Amended.......................................................4381
107.3 Regulation at 86 FR 4381 eff. date delayed to 4-21-21........13630
107.5 Heading and (b) revised.......................................4381
107.5 Regulation at 86 FR 4381 eff. date delayed to 4-21-21........13630
107.7 Revised.......................................................4381
107.7 Regulation at 86 FR 4381 eff. date delayed to 4-21-21........13630
107.19 (c) revised..................................................4382
107.19 Regulation at 86 FR 4382 eff. date delayed to 4-21-21.......13630
107.29 Heading, (a), and (b) revised; (d) added.....................4382
107.29 Correction: (a)(1) amended..................................11624
107.29 Correction: (a)(1) and (d) amended..........................13631
107.29 Regulation at 86 FR 4382 eff. date delayed to 4-21-21.......13630
107.29 Regulation at 86 FR 11624 withdrawn.........................13630
107.35 Revised......................................................4382
107.35 Regulation at 86 FR 4382 eff. date delayed to 4-21-21.......13630
107.39 Revised......................................................4382
107.39 Regulation at 86 FR 4382 eff. date delayed to 4-21-21.......13630

[[Page 957]]

107.49 (d) and (e) revised; (f) added...............................4382
107.49 Regulation at 86 FR 4382 eff. date delayed to 4-21-21.......13630
107.52 Added........................................................4513
107.52 Regulation at 86 FR 4513 eff. date delayed to 4-21-21.......13629
107.53 Redesignated as 107.56; new section added....................4513
107.53 Regulation at 86 FR 4513 eff. date delayed to 4-21-21.......13629
107.56 Redesignated from 107.53.....................................4513
107.56 Regulation at 86 FR 4513 eff. date delayed to 4-21-21.......13629
107.61 (d) revised..................................................4382
107.61 Regulation at 86 FR 4382 eff. date delayed to 4-6-21........13630
107.63 (a)(2) revised...............................................4382
107.63 Regulation at 86 FR 4382 eff. date delayed to 4-6-21........13630
107.65 Revised......................................................4382
107.65 Correction: (d) amended..............................11624, 13631
107.65 Regulation at 86 FR 4382 eff. date delayed to 4-6-21........13630
107.65 Regulation at 86 FR 11624 withdrawn.........................13630
107.73 Revised......................................................4383
107.73 Regulation at 86 FR 4383 eff. date delayed to 4-6-21........13630
107.74 Revised......................................................4383
107.74 Regulation at 86 FR 4383 eff. date delayed to 4-6-21........13630
107.100--107.165 (Subpart D) New subpart added......................4383
107.100--100.165 (Subpart D) Regulation at 86 FR 4383 eff. date 
        delayed to 4-21-21.........................................13630
107.110 (b) and (c) redesignated as (a)(2) and new (b).............62473
107.125 (a)(2) revised.............................................62473
107.140 Correction: (d) amended....................................13631
107.200--107.205 (Subpart D) Redesignated from Subpart E............4383
107.200--100.205 (Subpart D) Regulation at 86 FR 4383 eff. date 
        delayed to 4-21-21.........................................13630
107.205 (b) revised; (j) added......................................4387
107.205 Regulation at 86 FR 4387 eff. date delayed to 4-6-21.......13630

                                  2022

14 CFR
                                                                   87 FR
                                                                    Page
Chapter I
60.5 (a), (c) and (d) amended......................................75711
60.7 (a)(2), (b)(3), (4) and (6) amended...........................75711
60.9 (a), (b)(2), (c) introductory text and (c)(3) amended.........75711
60.11 (d) amended..................................................75711
60.13 (a) and (c) through (f) amended..............................75711
60.14 Amended......................................................75711
60.15 (a), (b)(1) through (3), (c)(1) introductory text, (i), 
        (ii), (f), (g) introductory text, (g)(6), (h) and (i) 
        amended....................................................75711
60.16 (a)(1)(i) through (iii), (2)(i), (ii), (b) and (c) amended 
                                                                   75711
60.17 (e) and (f) amended..........................................75711
60.19 (b)(2), (3), (4) and (6) amended.............................75711
60.21 (a) introductory text, (b) and (c) amended...................75711
60.23 (c)(1) introductory text and (i) through (iv) amended........75711
60.25 (b) amended..................................................75711
60.27 (b)(1)(i), (ii), (2) and (c) amended.........................75711
60.29 (a) introductory text, (1), (2), (3), (4) introductory text, 
        (i), (ii), (b) introductory text, (3), (c) introductory 
        text, (1), (2), (d)(1), (2), and (e) amended...............75711
60.31 (b) amended..................................................75711
60 Appendix A amended..............................................75711
60 Appendix B amended..............................................75771
60 Appendix C amended..............................................75822
60 Appendix D amended..............................................75832
60 Appendix E amended..............................................75842
60 Appendix F amended..............................................75845
61 Notification.....................................................3643
61 Authority citation revised......................................71236
61.3 (c)(2) (vi), (xiii), and (xiv) revised; (c)(2)(xv) added; 
        eff. in part 5-22-23.......................................71236
61.23 (b)(8), (9)(ii), (c)(3)(i)(C), (D), and (E) revised; (b)(10) 
        added......................................................71236
61.23 (a)(2)(i), (ii), (b)(3), (d)(1)(iii), and (2)(i) revised; 
        (b)(4) through (10) redesignated as paragraphs (b)(6) 
        through (12); (a)(2)(iii), new (b)(4), and new (5) added; 
        eff. 5-22-23...............................................71237
61.58 (j) and (k) removed..........................................75845
61.113 (i) introductory text revised...............................71237

[[Page 958]]

61.159 (a)(5) revised..............................................57590
61.313 (h)(1) amended..............................................75845
63 Notification.....................................................3643
65 Notification.....................................................3643
65.23 Added; interim...............................................31414
65.75 (a) revised; (c) added; interim..............................31414
65.75 (a) revised; interim; eff. 8-1-23............................31414
65.77 Revised; interim.............................................31415
65.79 Revised; interim.............................................31415
65.79 Revised; interim; eff. 8-1-23................................31415
65.80 Revised; interim.............................................31415
67 Notification.....................................................3643
67.4 (b) amended...................................................75845
67.409 (a) amended.................................................75845
68.3 (a) introductory text and (b) introductory text revised.......71238
68.9 (a) introductory text revised.................................71238
71 Regulation at 86 FR 50246 eff. date delayed until 5-19-22........4153
71 Regulation at 87 FR 2323 eff. date delayed.......................8410
71.1...............................................................2033,
2320, 2321, 2323, 2325, 2326, 2328, 2538, 2539, 2541, 2542, 3646, 3647, 
4804, 4805, 6407, 6409, 6410, 6411, 6413, 6414, 7716, 8410, 10068, 
10715, 11955, 11956, 12394, 12395, 12575, 12854, 12856, 14162, 14164, 
14389, 14391, 14392, 14393, 14396, 14398, 14400, 14401, 14402, 15878, 
15880, 16983, 21006, 21007, 21008, 21010, 21011, 22130, 24271, 24413, 
24860, 24861, 24863, 24864, 24866, 25140, 26975, 26976, 26978, 26979, 
26981, 26982, 26984, 26985, 26986, 27507, 27508, 27509, 27510, 27926, 
27927, 29040, 29221, 29224, 29825, 29827, 30414, 31132, 32080, 32081, 
32981, 32982, 32983, 34574, 35086, 35384, 35385, 35386, 35391, 35644, 
35645, 35646, 35896, 35897, 35898, 36394, 37232, 37990, 38266, 38267, 
38268, 38270, 38271, 38272, 38274, 38276, 38278, 38654, 38656, 38657, 
38911, 38913, 38914, 38916, 38918, 38920, 39333, 39335, 39336, 39746, 
41053, 41055, 41056, 41058, 41059, 41584, 42071, 42321, 42633, 42956, 
47098, 47099, 47342, 50239, 50240, 50564, 50566, 50568, 50929, 51238, 
51239, 51240, 51241, 51243, 51244, 51246, 51247, 51249, 51593, 51868, 
51869, 51871, 52333, 52334, 52438, 52439, 52440, 52442, 52443, 52666, 
52668, 52669, 52670, 52672, 52674, 52675, 52677, 53657, 54138, 54139, 
54361, 54880, 54882, 54883, 54885, 55684, 59665, 59667, 59668, 59669, 
59671, 60267, 61238, 63679, 63680, 63681, 63683, 63947, 64159, 64160, 
64161, 64163, 64697, 64698, 64700, 65012, 65520, 65521, 65523, 65676, 
65680, 66946, 66947, 68628, 69165, 73937, 74506, 74508, 74509, 74510, 
74511, 74513, 74514, 74515, 74517, 74518, 75922, 75924, 75927, 76105, 
77709, 77710
71.1 Correction...3645, 16100, 49519, 49979, 52671, 54884, 57379, 65680, 
                         66229, 66544, 67548, 72869, 73935, 75465, 75923
71.1 Regulation at 86 FR 50246 eff. date further delayed to 9-8-22
                                                                   12395
71.1 Regulation at 87 FR 15880 withdrawn...........................20295
71.1 Technical correction..............35386, 35387, 49767, 49768, 49769
71.1 Revised; eff. 9-15-22 through 9-15-23
71.1 Eff. 2-23-23.......65674, 65675, 65678, 71239, 72867, 72868, 72871, 
         72872, 73925, 73926, 73928, 73929, 73930, 73931, 73932, 73934, 
         73935, 73937, 74302, 74303, 74958, 74961, 74963, 74966, 75466, 
                                                            76558, 78849
71.1 Regulation at 87 FR 64698 delayed until 4-20-23...............72871
71.1 Correction; eff. 2-23-23...............................76924, 80037
71.5 Amended; eff. 9-15-22 through 9-15-23.........................54878
71.15 Amended; eff. 9-15-22 through 9-15-23........................54878
71.31 Amended; eff. 9-15-22 through 9-15-23........................54878
71.33 (c) amended; eff. 9-15-22 through 9-15-23....................54878
71.41 Amended; eff. 9-15-22 through 9-15-23........................54878
71.51 Amended; eff. 9-15-22 through 9-15-23........................54878
71.61 Amended; eff. 9-15-22 through 9-15-23........................54878
71.71 (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f) amended; eff. 9-15-22 through 9-
        15-23......................................................54878
71.901 (a) amended; eff. 9-15-22 through 9-15-23...................54878
73.19 (a), (b) introductory text, and (c) revised..................75845

[[Page 959]]

73.22 Amended......................................................66953
73.25 Amended......................................................63686
73.38 Amended......................................................27512
73.65 Amended......................................................57818
73.70 Amended......................................................26988
77 Policy statement.........................................39746, 78849
89 Policy statement.........................................49520, 55685
91 Policy statement.........................................27928, 70707
91 Notification....................................................57818
91.9 (c) amended...................................................75846
91.157 (b)(4) introductory text amended............................75846
91.203 (a)(1) amended..............................................75846
91.511 (a) introductory text amended...............................75846
91.609 (g) amended.................................................75846
91.1001 (b)(9) amended.............................................75846
91.1605 (e) revised................................................57390
91.1613 (c) and (e) revised........................................79245
91.1617 (e) revised................................................57384
93 Technical correction............................................47921
93 Order....................................................65159, 65161
93 Notification....................................................79245
93.101 Revised; eff. 7-29-22 through 7-29-26.......................45642
95.........................389, 11291, 23758, 36395, 51594, 60880, 74304
97.....157, 3424, 6022, 10070, 12397, 14166, 19797, 23434, 24867, 29658, 
         29660, 31946, 35651, 37728, 40096, 43407, 48087, 51872, 56265, 
           58264, 61967, 65526, 68631, 72384, 75467, 78854, 79248, 79250
97.20 (b) amended..................................................75846
97.21--97.37.........154, 3423, 6020, 10071, 12398, 14168, 19798, 23432, 
         24869, 31947, 35647, 37726, 40092, 43408, 48088, 51874, 56267, 
                         58266, 61969, 65524, 68629, 72382, 75469, 78855
101.21 (a) amended.................................................75846
107 Notification....................................................3643
107.9 Heading revised..............................................75846


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