[Title 14 CFR ]
[Code of Federal Regulations (annual edition) - January 1, 2009 Edition]
[From the U.S. Government Printing Office]



[[Page i]]

          

          14


          Parts 60 to 109

                         Revised as of January 1, 2009


          Aeronautics and Space
          



________________________

          Containing a codification of documents of general 
          applicability and future effect

          As of January 1, 2009
          With Ancillaries
                    Published by:
                    Office of the Federal Register
                    National Archives and Records
                    Administration
                    A Special Edition of the Federal Register

[[Page ii]]

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As of Jan. 1, 2009

Title 14, Parts 60 to 139

Revised as of Jan. 1, 2008

Is Replaced by

Title 14, Parts 60 to 109



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                            Table of Contents



                                                                    Page
  Explanation.................................................     vii

  Title 14:
          Chapter I--Federal Aviation Administration, 
          Department of Transportation (Continued)                   3
  Finding Aids:
      Table of CFR Titles and Chapters........................     939
      Alphabetical List of Agencies Appearing in the CFR......     959
      List of CFR Sections Affected...........................     969

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                     ----------------------------

                     Cite this Code: CFR
                     To cite the regulations in 
                       this volume use title, 
                       part and section number. 
                       Thus, 14 CFR 60.1 refers 
                       to title 14, part 60, 
                       section 1.

                     ----------------------------

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                               EXPLANATION

    The Code of Federal Regulations is a codification of the general and 
permanent rules published in the Federal Register by the Executive 
departments and agencies of the Federal Government. The Code is divided 
into 50 titles which represent broad areas subject to Federal 
regulation. Each title is divided into chapters which usually bear the 
name of the issuing agency. Each chapter is further subdivided into 
parts covering specific regulatory areas.
    Each volume of the Code is revised at least once each calendar year 
and issued on a quarterly basis approximately as follows:

Title 1 through Title 16.................................as of January 1
Title 17 through Title 27..................................as of April 1
Title 28 through Title 41...................................as of July 1
Title 42 through Title 50................................as of October 1

    The appropriate revision date is printed on the cover of each 
volume.

LEGAL STATUS

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HOW TO USE THE CODE OF FEDERAL REGULATIONS

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collection request.

[[Page viii]]

Many agencies have begun publishing numerous OMB control numbers as 
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    (c) The incorporating document is drafted and submitted for 
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the revision dates of the 50 CFR titles.



[[Page ix]]


REPUBLICATION OF MATERIAL

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    Raymond A. Mosley,
    Director,
    Office of the Federal Register.
    January 1, 2009.







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                               THIS TITLE

    Title 14--Aeronautics and Space is composed of five volumes. The 
parts in these volumes are arranged in the following order: parts 1-59, 
60-109, 110-199, 200-1199, and part 1200-End. The first three volumes 
containing parts 1-199 are comprised of chapter I--Federal Aviation 
Administration, Department of Transportation (DOT). The fourth volume 
containing parts 200-1199 is comprised of chapter II--Office of the 
Secretary, DOT (Aviation Proceedings) and chapter III--Commercial Space 
Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, DOT. The fifth volume 
containing part 1200-End is comprised of chapter V--National Aeronautics 
and Space Administration and chapter VI--Office of Management and 
Budget. The contents of these volumes represent all current regulations 
codified under this title of the CFR as of January 1, 2009.

    For this volume, Bonnie Fritts was Chief Editor. The Code of Federal 
Regulations publication program is under the direction of Michael L. 
White, assisted by Ann Worley.


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                     TITLE 14--AERONAUTICS AND SPACE




                  (This book contains parts 60 to 109)

  --------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                    Part

chapter i--Federal Aviation Administration, Department of 
  Transportation (Continued)................................          60

[[Page 3]]



CHAPTER I--FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION 
                               (CONTINUED)




  --------------------------------------------------------------------

                          SUBCHAPTER D--AIRMEN
Part                                                                Page
60              Flight simulation training device initial 
                    and continuing qualification and use....           5
61              Certification: Pilots, flight instructors, 
                    and ground instructors..................         406
63              Certification: Flight crewmembers other than 
                    pilots..................................         521
65              Certification: Airmen other than flight 
                    crewmembers.............................         539
67              Medical standards and certification.........         563
                         SUBCHAPTER E--AIRSPACE
71              Designation of class A, B, C, D, and E 
                    airspace areas; air traffic service 
                    routes; and reporting points............         577
73              Special use airspace........................         580
75              [Reserved]

77              Objects affecting navigable airspace........         582
          SUBCHAPTER F--AIR TRAFFIC AND GENERAL OPERATING RULES
91              General operating and flight rules..........         596
93              Special air traffic rules...................         855
95              IFR altitudes...............................         907
97              Standard instrument procedures..............         915
99              Security control of air traffic.............         917
101             Moored balloons, kites, unmanned rockets and 
                    unmanned free balloons..................         921
103             Ultralight vehicles.........................         927
105             Parachute Operations........................         930
106-109         [Reserved]

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                           SUBCHAPTER D_AIRMEN



PART 60_FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICE INITIAL AND CONTINUING QUALIFICATION 

AND USE--Table of Contents




Sec.
60.1 Applicability.
60.2 Applicability of sponsor rules to persons who are not sponsors and 
          who are engaged in certain unauthorized activities.
60.3 Definitions.
60.4 Qualification Performance Standards.
60.5 Quality management system.
60.7 Sponsor qualification requirements.
60.9 Additional responsibilities of the sponsor.
60.11 FSTD use.
60.13 FSTD objective data requirements.
60.14 Special equipment and personnel requirements for qualification of 
          the FSTD.
60.15 Initial qualification requirements.
60.16 Additional qualifications for a currently qualified FSTD.
60.17 Previously qualified FSTDs.
60.19 Inspection, continuing qualification evaluation, and maintenance 
          requirements.
60.20 Logging FSTD discrepancies.
60.21 Interim qualification of FSTDs for new aircraft types or models.
60.23 Modifications to FSTDs.
60.25 Operation with missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative components.
60.27 Automatic loss of qualification and procedures for restoration of 
          qualification.
60.29 Other losses of qualification and procedures for restoration of 
          qualification.
60.31 Recordkeeping and reporting.
60.33 Applications, logbooks, reports, and records: Fraud, 
          falsification, or incorrect statements.
60.35 Specific full flight simulator compliance requirements.
60.37 FSTD qualification on the basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
          Agreement (BASA).

Appendix A to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for Airplane 
          Full Flight Simulators
Appendix B to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for Airplane 
          Flight Training Devices
Appendix C to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for 
          Helicopter Full Flight Simulators
Appendix D to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for 
          Helicopter Flight Training Devices
Appendix E to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for Quality 
          Management Systems for Flight Simulation Training Devices
Appendix F to Part 60--Definitions and Abbreviations for Flight 
          Simulation Training Devices

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, and 44701.

    Source: Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 60.1  Applicability.

    (a) This part prescribes the rules governing the initial and 
continuing qualification and use of all aircraft flight simulation 
training devices (FSTD) used for meeting training, evaluation, or flight 
experience requirements of this chapter for flight crewmember 
certification or qualification.
    (b) The rules of this part apply to each person using or applying to 
use an FSTD to meet any requirement of this chapter.
    (c) The requirements of Sec. 60.33 regarding falsification of 
applications, records, or reports also apply to each person who uses an 
FSTD for training, evaluation, or obtaining flight experience required 
for flight crewmember certification or qualification under this chapter.



Sec. 60.2  Applicability of sponsor rules to persons who are not sponsors and 

who are engaged in certain unauthorized activities.

    (a) The rules of this part that are directed to a sponsor of an FSTD 
also apply to any person who uses or causes the use of an FSTD when--
    (1) That person knows that the FSTD does not have an FAA-approved 
sponsor; and
    (2) The use of the FSTD by that person is nonetheless claimed for 
purposes of meeting any requirement of this chapter or that person knows 
or should have known that the person's acts or omissions would cause 
another person to mistakenly credit use of the FSTD for purposes of 
meeting any requirement of this chapter.
    (b) A situation in which paragraph (a) of this section would not 
apply to a

[[Page 6]]

person would be when each of the following conditions are met:
    (1) The person sold or leased the FSTD and merely represented to the 
purchaser or lessee that the FSTD is in a condition in which it should 
be able to obtain FAA approval and qualification under this part;
    (2) The person does not falsely claim to be the FAA-approved sponsor 
for the FSTD;
    (3) The person does not falsely make representations that someone 
else is the FAA-approved sponsor of the FSTD at a time when that other 
person is not the FAA-approved sponsor of the FSTD; and
    (4) The person's acts or omissions do not cause another person to 
detrimentally rely on such acts or omissions for the mistaken conclusion 
that the FSTD is FAA-approved and qualified under this part at the time 
the FSTD is sold or leased.



Sec. 60.3  Definitions.

    In addition to the definitions in part 1 of this chapter, other 
terms and definitions applicable to this part are found in appendix F of 
this part.



Sec. 60.4  Qualification Performance Standards.

    The Qualification Performance Standards (QPS) are published in 
appendices to this part as follows:
    (a) Appendix A contains the QPS for Airplane Flight Simulators.
    (b) Appendix B contains the QPS for Airplane Flight Training 
Devices.
    (c) Appendix C contains the QPS for Helicopter Flight Simulators.
    (d) Appendix D contains the QPS for Helicopter Flight Training 
Devices.
    (e) Appendix E contains the QPS for Quality Management Systems for 
FSTDs.
    (f) Appendix F contains the QPS for Definitions and Abbreviations 
for FSTDs.



Sec. 60.5  Quality management system.

    (a) After October 30, 2009, no sponsor may use or allow the use of 
or offer the use of an FSTD for flight crewmember training or evaluation 
or for obtaining flight experience to meet any requirement of this 
chapter unless the sponsor has established and follows a quality 
management system (QMS), currently approved by the National Simulator 
Program Manager (NSPM), for the continuing surveillance and analysis of 
the sponsor's performance and effectiveness in providing a satisfactory 
FSTD for use on a regular basis as described in QPS appendix E of this 
part.
    (b) The QMS program must provide a process for identifying 
deficiencies in the program and for documenting how the program will be 
changed to address these deficiencies.
    (c) Whenever the NSPM finds that the QMS program does not adequately 
address the procedures necessary to meet the requirements of this part, 
the sponsor must, after notification by the NSPM, change the program so 
the procedures meet the requirements of this part. Each such change must 
be approved by the NSPM prior to implementation.
    (d) Within 30 days after the sponsor receives a notice described in 
paragraph (c) of this section, the sponsor may file a petition with the 
Director of Flight Standards Service (the Director) for reconsideration 
of the NSPM finding. The sponsor must address its petition to the 
Director, Flight Standards Service, AFS-1, Federal Aviation 
Administration, 800 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20591. The 
filing of such a petition to reconsider stays the notice pending a 
decision by the Director. However, if the Director finds that there is a 
situation that requires immediate action in the interest of safety in 
air commerce, he may, upon a statement of the reasons, require a change 
effective without stay.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006; Amdt. 60-2, 72 FR 
59599, Oct. 22, 2007]



Sec. 60.7  Sponsor qualification requirements.

    (a) A person is eligible to apply to be a sponsor of an FSTD if the 
following conditions are met:
    (1) The person holds, or is an applicant for, a certificate under 
part 119, 141, or 142 of this chapter; or holds, or is an applicant for, 
an approved flight engineer course in accordance with part 63 of this 
chapter.
    (2) The FSTD will be used, or will be offered for use, in the 
sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for

[[Page 7]]

the aircraft being simulated as evidenced in a request for evaluation 
submitted to the NSPM.
    (b) A person is a sponsor if the following conditions are met:
    (1) The person is a certificate holder under part 119, 141, or 142 
of this chapter or has an approved flight engineer course in accordance 
with part 63 of this chapter.
    (2) The person has--
    (i) Operations specifications authorizing the use of the specific 
aircraft or set of aircraft and has an FAA-approved training program 
under which at least one FSTD, simulating the aircraft or set of 
aircraft and for which the person is the sponsor, is used by the sponsor 
as described in paragraphs (b)(5) or (b)(6) of this section; or
    (ii) Training specifications or an FAA-approved course of training 
under which at least one FSTD, simulating that aircraft or set of 
aircraft and for which the person is the sponsor, is used by the sponsor 
as described in paragraphs (b)(5) or (b)(6) of this section.
    (3) The person has a quality management system currently approved by 
the NSPM in accordance with Sec. 60.5.
    (4) The NSPM has accepted the person as the sponsor of the FSTD and 
that acceptance has not been withdrawn by the FAA.
    (5) At least one FSTD (as referenced in paragraph (b)(2)(i) or 
(b)(2)(ii) of this section) that is initially qualified on or after 
October 30, 2007, is used within the sponsor's FAA-approved flight 
training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once 
within the 12-month period following the initial/upgrade evaluation, and 
at least once within each subsequent 12-month period thereafter.
    (6) At least one FSTD (as referenced in paragraph (b)(2)(i) or 
(b)(2)(ii) of this section) that was qualified before October 30, 2007, 
is used within the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for 
the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the 12-month period 
following the first continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the 
NSPM after October 30, 2007 and at least once within each subsequent 12-
month period thereafter.
    (c) If the use requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) and either (b)(5) 
or (b)(6) of this section are not met, the person will forfeit the right 
to sponsor that FSTD and that person will not be eligible to apply to 
sponsor that FSTD for at least 12 calendar months following the 
expiration of the qualification status.
    (d) In addition to the FSTD described in paragraph (b) of this 
section, an FSTD sponsor may sponsor any number of other FSTDs 
regardless of specific aircraft or set of aircraft provided either--
    (1) During the preceding 12-month period, all of the other FSTDs are 
used within the sponsor's or another certificate holder's FAA-approved 
flight training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft simulated; 
or
    (2) The sponsor obtains a written statement at least annually from a 
qualified pilot who has flown the aircraft or set of aircraft (as 
appropriate) during the preceding 12-month period stating that the 
subject FSTD's performance and handling qualities, within the normal 
operating envelope, represent the aircraft or set of aircraft described 
in the FAA Type Certificate and the type data sheet, if appropriate. The 
sponsor must retain the two most current written statements for review 
by the NSPM.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006; Amdt. 60-2, 72 FR 
59599, Oct. 22, 2007]



Sec. 60.9  Additional responsibilities of the sponsor.

    (a) The sponsor must allow the NSPM upon request to inspect the FSTD 
as soon as practicable. This inspection may include all records and 
documents relating to the FSTD, to determine its compliance with this 
part.
    (b) The sponsor must do the following for each FSTD:
    (1) Establish a mechanism to receive written comments regarding the 
FSTD and its operation in accordance with the QPS appendix E of this 
part.
    (2) Post in or adjacent to the FSTD the Statement of Qualification 
issued by the NSPM. An electronic copy of the Statement of Qualification 
that may be accessed by an appropriate terminal or display in or 
adjacent to the FSTD is satisfactory.

[[Page 8]]

    (c) Each sponsor of an FSTD must identify to the NSPM by name, one 
individual to be the management representative (MR).
    (1) One person may serve as an MR for more than one FSTD, but one 
FSTD must not have more than one person serving in this capacity.
    (2) Each MR must be an employee of the sponsor with the 
responsibility and authority to--
    (i) Monitor the on-going qualification of assigned FSTDs to ensure 
that all matters regarding FSTD qualification are being carried out as 
provided for in this part;
    (ii) Ensure that the QMS is properly established, implemented, and 
maintained by overseeing the structure (and modifying where necessary) 
of the QMS policies, practices, and procedures; and
    (iii) Regularly brief sponsor's management on the status of the on-
going FSTD qualification program and the effectiveness and efficiency of 
the QMS.
    (3) The MR serves as the primary contact point for all matters 
between the sponsor and the NSPM regarding the qualification of that 
FSTD as provided for in this part.
    (4) The MR may delegate the duties described in paragraph (c)(2) and 
(c)(3) of this section to an individual at each of the sponsor's 
locations.



Sec. 60.11  FSTD use.

    No person may use or allow the use of or offer the use of an FSTD 
for flight crewmember training or evaluation or for obtaining flight 
experience to meet any of the requirements under this chapter unless, in 
accordance with the QPS for the specific device, the FSTD meets all of 
the following:
    (a) Has a single sponsor who is qualified under Sec. 60.7. The 
sponsor may arrange with another person for services of document 
preparation and presentation, as well as FSTD inspection, maintenance, 
repair, and servicing; however, the sponsor remains responsible for 
ensuring that these functions are conducted in a manner and with a 
result of continually meeting the requirements of this part.
    (b) Is qualified as described in the Statement of Qualification.
    (c) Remains qualified, through satisfactory inspection, continuing 
qualification evaluations, appropriate maintenance, and use requirements 
in accordance with this part and the applicable QPS.
    (d) Functions during day-to-day training, evaluation, or flight 
experience activities with the software and hardware that was evaluated 
as satisfactory by the NSPM and, if modified, modified only in 
accordance with the provisions of this part. However, this section does 
not apply to routine software or hardware changes that do not fall under 
the requirements of Sec. 60.23.
    (e) Is operated in accordance with the provisions and limitations of 
Sec. 60.25.



Sec. 60.13  FSTD objective data requirements.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) and (c) of this section, for 
the purposes of validating FSTD performance and handling qualities 
during evaluation for qualification, the data made available to the NSPM 
(the validation data package) must include the aircraft manufacturer's 
flight test data and all relevant data developed after the type 
certificate was issued (e.g., data developed in response to an 
airworthiness directive) if such data results from a change in 
performance, handling qualities, functions, or other characteristics of 
the aircraft that must be considered for flight crewmember training, 
evaluation, or for meeting experience requirements of this chapter.
    (b) The validation data package may contain flight test data from a 
source in addition to or independent of the aircraft manufacturer's data 
in support of an FSTD qualification, but only if this data is gathered 
and developed by that source in accordance with flight test methods, 
including a flight test plan, as described in the applicable QPS.
    (c) The validation data package may also contain predicted data, 
engineering simulation data, data from pilot owner or pilot operating 
manuals, or data from public domain sources, provided this data is 
acceptable to the NSPM. If found acceptable the data may then be used in 
particular applications for FSTD qualification.

[[Page 9]]

    (d) Data or other material or elements must be submitted in a form 
and manner acceptable to the NSPM.
    (e) The NSPM may require additional objective data, which may 
include flight testing if necessary, if the validation data package does 
not support FSTD qualification requirements as described in this part 
and the applicable QPS appendix.
    (f) When an FSTD sponsor learns, or is advised by an aircraft 
manufacturer or other data provider, that an addition to, an amendment 
to, or a revision of data that may relate to FSTD performance or 
handling characteristics is available, the sponsor must notify the NSPM 
as described in the applicable QPS.



Sec. 60.14  Special equipment and personnel requirements for qualification of 

the FSTD.

    When notified by the NSPM, the sponsor must make available all 
special equipment and qualified personnel needed to accomplish or assist 
in the accomplishment of tests during initial qualification, continuing 
qualification, or special evaluations.



Sec. 60.15  Initial qualification requirements.

    (a) For each FSTD, the sponsor must submit a request to the NSPM to 
evaluate the FSTD for initial qualification at a specific level and 
simultaneously request the Training Program Approval Authority (TPAA) 
forward a concurring letter to the NSPM. The request must be submitted 
in the form and manner described in the applicable QPS.
    (b) The management representative described in Sec. 60.9(c) must 
sign a statement (electronic signature is acceptable for electronic 
transmissions) after confirming the following:
    (1) The performance and handling qualities of the FSTD represent 
those of the aircraft or set of aircraft within the normal operating 
envelope. This determination must be made by a pilot(s) meeting the 
requirements of paragraph (d) of this section after having flown all of 
the Operations Tasks listed in the applicable QPS appendix relevant to 
the qualification level of the FSTD. Exceptions, if any, must be noted. 
The name of the person(s) making this determination must be available to 
the NSPM upon request.
    (2) The FSTD systems and sub-systems (including the simulated 
aircraft systems) functionally represent those in the aircraft or set of 
aircraft. This determination must be made by the pilot(s) described in 
paragraph (b)(1) of this section, or by a person(s) trained on simulator 
systems/sub-systems and trained on the operation of the simulated 
aircraft systems, after having exercised the operation of the FSTD and 
the pertinent functions available through the Instructor Operating 
Station(s). Exceptions, if any, must be noted. The name of the person(s) 
making this determination must be available to the NSPM upon request.
    (3) The cockpit represents the configuration of the specific type; 
or aircraft make, model, and series aircraft being simulated, as 
appropriate. This determination must be made by the pilot(s) described 
in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, or by a person(s) trained on the 
configuration and operation of the aircraft simulated. Exceptions, if 
any, must be noted. The name of the person(s) making this determination 
must be available to the NSPM upon request.
    (c) Except for those FSTDs previously qualified and described in 
Sec. 60.17, each FSTD evaluated for initial qualification must meet the 
standard that is in effect at the time of the evaluation. However--
    (1) If the FAA publishes a change to the existing standard or 
publishes a new standard for the evaluation for initial qualification, a 
sponsor may request that the NSPM apply the standard that was in effect 
when an FSTD was ordered for delivery if the sponsor--
    (i) Within 30 days of the publication of the change to the existing 
standard or publication of the new standard, notifies the NSPM that an 
FSTD has been ordered;
    (ii) Within 90 days of the NSPM notification described in paragraph 
(c)(1)(i) of this section, requests that the standard in effect at the 
time the order was placed be used for the evaluation for initial 
qualification; and

[[Page 10]]

    (iii) The evaluation is conducted within 24 months following the 
publication of the change to the existing standard or publication of the 
new standard.
    (2) This notification must include a description of the FSTD; the 
anticipated qualification level of the FSTD; the make, model, and series 
of aircraft simulated; and any other pertinent information.
    (3) Any tests, tolerances, or other requirements that are current at 
the time of the evaluation may be used during the initial evaluation, at 
the request of the sponsor, if the sponsor provides acceptable updates 
to the required qualification test guide.
    (4) The standards used for the evaluation for initial qualification 
will be used for all subsequent evaluations of the FSTD.
    (d) The pilot(s) who contributes to the confirmation statement 
required by paragraph (b) of this section must--
    (1) Be designated by the sponsor; and
    (2) Be qualified in--
    (i) The aircraft or set of aircraft being simulated; or
    (ii) For aircraft not yet issued a type certificate, or aircraft not 
previously operated by the sponsor or not having previous FAA-approved 
training programs conducted by the sponsor, an aircraft similar in size 
and configuration.
    (e) The subjective tests that form the basis for the statements 
described in paragraph (b) of this section and the objective tests 
referenced in paragraph (f) of this section must be accomplished at the 
sponsor's training facility, except as provided for in the applicable 
QPS.
    (f) The person seeking to qualify the FSTD must provide the NSPM 
access to the FSTD for the length of time necessary for the NSPM to 
complete the required evaluation of the FSTD for initial qualification, 
which includes the conduct and evaluation of objective and subjective 
tests, including general FSTD requirements, as described in the 
applicable QPS, to determine that the FSTD meets the standards in that 
QPS.
    (g) When the FSTD passes an evaluation for initial qualification, 
the NSPM issues a Statement of Qualification that includes all of the 
following:
    (1) Identification of the sponsor.
    (2) Identification of the make, model, and series of the aircraft or 
set of aircraft being simulated.
    (3) Identification of the configuration of the aircraft or set of 
aircraft being simulated (e.g., engine model or models, flight 
instruments, or navigation or other systems).
    (4) A statement that the FSTD is qualified as either a full flight 
simulator or a flight training device.
    (5) Identification of the qualification level of the FSTD.
    (6) A statement that (with the exception of the noted exclusions for 
which the FSTD has not been subjectively tested by the sponsor or the 
NSPM and for which qualification is not sought) the qualification of the 
FSTD includes the tasks set out in the applicable QPS appendix relevant 
to the qualification level of the FSTD.
    (h) After the NSPM completes the evaluation for initial 
qualification, the sponsor must update the Qualification Test Guide 
(QTG), with the results of the FAA-witnessed tests together with the 
results of all the objective tests described in the applicable QPS.
    (i) Upon issuance of the Statement of Qualification the updated QTG 
becomes the Master Qualification Test Guide (MQTG). The MQTG must be 
made available to the NSPM upon request.



Sec. 60.16  Additional qualifications for a currently qualified FSTD.

    (a) A currently qualified FSTD is required to undergo an additional 
qualification process if a user intends to use the FSTD for meeting 
training, evaluation, or flight experience requirements of this chapter 
beyond the qualification issued for that FSTD. This process consists of 
the following:
    (1) The sponsor:
    (i) Must submit to the NSPM all modifications to the MQTG that are 
required to support the additional qualification.
    (ii) Must describe to the NSPM all modifications to the FSTD that 
are required to support the additional qualification.

[[Page 11]]

    (iii) Must submit to the NSPM a confirmation statement as described 
in Sec. 60.15(c) that a pilot, designated by the sponsor in accordance 
with Sec. 60.15(d), has subjectively evaluated the FSTD in those areas 
not previously evaluated.
    (2) The FSTD must successfully pass an evaluation--
    (i) Consisting of all the elements of an initial evaluation for 
qualification in those circumstances where the NSPM has determined that 
all the elements of an initial evaluation for qualification is 
necessary; or
    (ii) Consisting of those elements of an initial evaluation for 
qualification designated as necessary by the NSPM.
    (b) In making the determinations described in paragraph (a)(2) of 
this section, the NSPM considers factors including the existing 
qualification of the FSTD, any modifications to the FSTD hardware or 
software that are involved, and any additions or modifications to the 
MQTG.
    (c) The FSTD is qualified for the additional uses when the NSPM 
issues an amended Statement of Qualification in accordance with Sec. 
60.15(h).
    (d) The sponsor may not modify the FSTD except as described in Sec. 
60.23.



Sec. 60.17  Previously qualified FSTDs.

    (a) Unless otherwise specified by an FSTD Directive, further 
referenced in the applicable QPS, or as specified in paragraph (e) of 
this section, an FSTD qualified before October 30, 2007 will retain its 
qualification basis as long as it continues to meet the standards, 
including the objective test results recorded in the MQTG and subjective 
tests, under which it was originally evaluated, regardless of sponsor. 
The sponsor of such an FSTD must comply with the other applicable 
provisions of this part.
    (b) For each FSTD qualified before October 30, 2007, no sponsor may 
use or allow the use of or offer the use of such an FSTD after October 
30, 2013 for flight crewmember training, evaluation or flight experience 
to meet any of the requirements of this chapter, unless that FSTD has 
been issued a Statement of Qualification, including the Configuration 
List and the List of Qualified Tasks in accordance with the procedures 
set out in the applicable QPS.
    (c) If the FSTD qualification is lost under Sec. 60.27 and--
    (i) Restored under Sec. 60.27 in less than (2) years, then the 
qualification basis (in terms of objective tests and subjective tests) 
for the re-qualification will be those against which the FSTD was 
originally evaluated and qualified.
    (ii) Not restored under Sec. 60.27 for two (2) years or more, then 
the qualification basis (in terms of objective tests and subjective 
tests) for the re-qualification will be those standards in effect and 
current at the time of re-qualification application.
    (d) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, any change 
in FSTD qualification level initiated on or after October 30, 2007 
requires an evaluation for initial qualification in accordance with this 
part.
    (e) A sponsor may request that an FSTD be permanently downgraded. In 
such a case, the NSPM may downgrade a qualified FSTD without requiring 
and without conducting an initial evaluation for the new qualification 
level. Subsequent continuing qualification evaluations will use the 
existing MQTG, modified as necessary to reflect the new qualification 
level.
    (f) When the sponsor has appropriate validation data available and 
receives approval from the NSPM, the sponsor may adopt tests and 
associated tolerances described in the current qualification standards 
as the tests and tolerances applicable for the continuing qualification 
of a previously qualified FSTD. The updated test(s) and tolerance(s) 
must be made a permanent part of the MQTG.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006; Amdt. 60-2, 72 FR 
59599, Oct. 22, 2007]



Sec. 60.19  Inspection, continuing qualification evaluation, and maintenance 

requirements.

    (a) Inspection. No sponsor may use or allow the use of or offer the 
use of an FSTD for flight crewmember training, evaluation, or flight 
experience to meet any of the requirements of this chapter unless the 
sponsor does the following:

[[Page 12]]

    (1) Accomplishes all appropriate objective tests each year as 
specified in the applicable QPS.
    (2) Completes a functional preflight check within the preceding 24 
hours.
    (b) Continuing qualification evaluation.
    (1) This evaluation consists of objective tests, and subjective 
tests, including general FSTD requirements, as described in the 
applicable QPS or as may be amended by an FSTD Directive.
    (2) The sponsor must contact the NSPM to schedule the FSTD for 
continuing qualification evaluations not later than 60 days before the 
evaluation is due.
    (3) The sponsor must provide the NSPM access to the objective test 
results in the MQTG and access to the FSTD for the length of time 
necessary for the NSPM to complete the required continuing qualification 
evaluations.
    (4) The frequency of NSPM-conducted continuing qualification 
evaluations for each FSTD will be established by the NSPM and specified 
in the MQTG.
    (5) Continuing qualification evaluations conducted in the calendar 
month before or after the calendar month in which these continuing 
qualification evaluations are required will be considered to have been 
conducted in the calendar month in which they were required.
    (6) No sponsor may use or allow the use of or offer the use of an 
FSTD for flight crewmember training or evaluation or for obtaining 
flight experience for the flight crewmember to meet any requirement of 
this chapter unless the FSTD has passed an NSPM-conducted continuing 
qualification evaluation within the time frame specified in the MQTG or 
within the grace period as described in paragraph (b)(5) of this 
section.
    (c) Maintenance. The sponsor is responsible for continuing 
corrective and preventive maintenance on the FSTD to ensure that it 
continues to meet the requirements of this part and the applicable QPS 
appendix. No sponsor may use or allow the use of or offer the use of an 
FSTD for flight crewmember training, evaluation, or flight experience to 
meet any of the requirements of this chapter unless the sponsor does the 
following:
    (1) Maintains a discrepancy log.
    (2) Ensures that, when a discrepancy is discovered, the following 
requirements are met:
    (i) A description of each discrepancy is entered in the log and 
remains in the log until the discrepancy is corrected as specified in 
Sec. 60.25(b).
    (ii) A description of the corrective action taken for each 
discrepancy, the identity of the individual taking the action, and the 
date that action is taken is entered in the log.
    (iii) The discrepancy log is kept in a form and manner acceptable to 
the Administrator and is kept in or adjacent to the FSTD. An electronic 
log that may be accessed by an appropriate terminal or display in or 
adjacent to the FSTD is satisfactory.



Sec. 60.20  Logging FSTD discrepancies.

    Each instructor, check airman, or representative of the 
Administrator conducting training, evaluation, or flight experience, and 
each person conducting the preflight inspection who discovers a 
discrepancy, including any missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative 
components in the FSTD, must write or cause to be written a description 
of that discrepancy into the discrepancy log at the end of the FSTD 
preflight or FSTD use session.



Sec. 60.21  Interim qualification of FSTDs for new aircraft types or models.

    (a) A sponsor may apply for and the NSPM may issue an interim 
qualification level for an FSTD for a new type or model of aircraft, 
even though the aircraft manufacturer's aircraft data package is 
preliminary, if the sponsor provides the following to the satisfaction 
of the NSPM--
    (1) The aircraft manufacturer's data, which consists of at least 
predicted data, validated by a limited set of flight test data;
    (2) The aircraft manufacturer's description of the prediction 
methodology used to develop the predicted data; and
    (3) The QTG test results.
    (b) An FSTD that has been issued interim qualification is deemed to 
have been issued initial qualification unless the NSPM rescinds the 
qualification. Interim qualification terminates two

[[Page 13]]

years after its issuance, unless the NSPM determines that specific 
conditions warrant otherwise.
    (c) Within twelve months of the release of the final aircraft data 
package by the aircraft manufacturer, but no later than two years after 
the issuance of the interim qualification status, the sponsor must apply 
for initial qualification in accordance with Sec. 60.15 based on the 
final aircraft data package approved by the aircraft manufacturer, 
unless the NSPM determines that specific conditions warrant otherwise.
    (d) An FSTD with interim qualification may be modified only in 
accordance with Sec. 60.23.



Sec. 60.23  Modifications to FSTDs.

    (a) Description of a modification. For the purposes of this part, an 
FSTD is said to have been modified when:
    (1) Equipment or devices intended to simulate aircraft appliances 
are added to or removed from FSTD, which change the Statement of 
Qualification or the MQTG; or
    (2) Changes are made to either software or hardware that are 
intended to impact flight or ground dynamics; changes are made that 
impact performance or handling characteristics of the FSTD (including 
motion, visual, control loading, or sound systems for those FSTD levels 
requiring sound tests and measurements); or changes are made to the 
MQTG.
    (b) FSTD Directive. When the FAA determines that FSTD modification 
is necessary for safety of flight reasons, the sponsor of each affected 
FSTD must ensure that the FSTD is modified according to the FSTD 
Directive regardless of the original qualification standards applicable 
to any specific FSTD.
    (c) Using the modified FSTD. The sponsor may not use, or allow the 
use of, or offer the use of, the FSTD with the proposed modification for 
flight crewmember training or evaluation or for obtaining flight 
experience for the flight crewmember to meet any requirement of this 
chapter unless:
    (1) The sponsor has notified the NSPM and the TPAA of their intent 
to incorporate the proposed modification, and one of the following has 
occurred;
    (i) Twenty-one days have passed since the sponsor notified the NSPM 
and the TPAA of the proposed modification and the sponsor has not 
received any response from either the NSPM or the TPAA;
    (ii) Twenty-one days have passed since the sponsor notified the NSPM 
and the TPAA of the proposed modification and one has approved the 
proposed modification and the other has not responded;
    (iii) Fewer than twenty-one days have passed since the sponsor 
notified the NSPM and the TPAA of the proposed modification and the NSPM 
and TPAA both approve the proposed modification;
    (iv) The sponsor has successfully completed any evaluation the NSPM 
may require in accordance with the standards for an evaluation for 
initial qualification or any part thereof before the modified FSTD is 
placed in service.
    (2) The notification is submitted with the content as, and in a form 
and manner as, specified in the applicable QPS.
    (d) User notification. When a modification is made to an FSTD that 
affects the Statement of Qualification, the sponsor must post an 
addendum to the Statement of Qualification until such time as a 
permanent, updated statement is posted.
    (e) MQTG update. The MQTG must be updated with current objective 
test results in accordance with Sec. 60.15(h) and (i) and appropriate 
objective data in accordance with Sec. 60.13, each time an FSTD is 
modified and an objective test or other MQTG section is affected by the 
modification. If an FSTD Directive is the cause of this update, the 
direction to make the modification and the record of the modification 
completion must be filed in the MQTG.



Sec. 60.25  Operation with missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative components.

    (a) No person may knowingly use or allow the use of or misrepresent 
the capability of an FSTD for any maneuver, procedure, or task that is 
to be accomplished to meet training, evaluation, or flight experience 
requirements of this chapter for flight crewmember certification or 
qualification when there is a

[[Page 14]]

missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI) component that is required 
to be present and correctly operate for the satisfactory completion of 
that maneuver, procedure, or task.
    (b) Each MMI component as described in paragraph (a) of this 
section, or any MMI component installed and required to operate 
correctly to meet the current Statement of Qualification, must be 
repaired or replaced within 30 calendar days, unless otherwise required 
or authorized by the NSPM.
    (c) A list of the current MMI components must be readily available 
in or adjacent to the FSTD for review by users of the device. Electronic 
access to this list via an appropriate terminal or display in or 
adjacent to the FSTD is satisfactory. The discrepancy log may be used to 
satisfy this requirement provided each currently MMI component is listed 
in the discrepancy log.



Sec. 60.27  Automatic loss of qualification and procedures for restoration of 

qualification.

    (a) An FSTD qualification is automatically lost when any of the 
following occurs:
    (1) The FSTD is not used in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight 
training program in accordance with Sec. 60.7(b)(5) or (b)(6) and the 
sponsor does not obtain and maintain the written statement as described 
in Sec. 60.7(d)(2).
    (2) The FSTD is not inspected in accordance with Sec. 60.19.
    (3) The FSTD is physically moved from one location and installed in 
a different location, regardless of distance.
    (4) The MQTG is missing or otherwise not available and a replacement 
is not made within 30 days.
    (b) If FSTD qualification is lost under paragraph (a) of this 
section, qualification is restored when either of the following 
provisions is met:
    (1) The FSTD successfully passes an evaluation:
    (i) For initial qualification, in accordance with Sec. Sec. 60.15 
and 60.17(c) in those circumstances where the NSPM has determined that a 
full evaluation for initial qualification is necessary; or
    (ii) For those elements of an evaluation for initial qualification, 
in accordance with Sec. Sec. 60.15 and 60.17(c), as determined to be 
necessary by the NSPM.
    (2) The NSPM advises the sponsor that an evaluation is not 
necessary.
    (c) In making the determinations described in paragraph (b) of this 
section, the NSPM considers factors including the number of continuing 
qualification evaluations missed, the number of sponsor-conducted 
quarterly inspections missed, and the care that had been taken of the 
device since the last evaluation.



Sec. 60.29  Other losses of qualification and procedures for restoration of 

qualification.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, when the 
NSPM determines that the FSTD no longer meets qualification standards, 
the following procedure applies:
    (1) The NSPM notifies the sponsor in writing that the FSTD no longer 
meets some or all of its qualification standards.
    (2) The NSPM sets a reasonable period (but not less than 7 days) 
within which the sponsor may submit written information, views, and 
arguments on the FSTD qualification.
    (3) After considering all material presented, the NSPM notifies the 
sponsor about the determination with regard to the qualification of the 
FSTD.
    (4) When the NSPM notifies the sponsor that some or all of the FSTD 
is no longer qualified, the action described in the notification becomes 
effective not less than 30 days after the sponsor receives that notice 
unless--
    (i) The NSPM finds under paragraph (c) of this section that there is 
an emergency requiring immediate action with respect to safety in air 
commerce; or
    (ii) The sponsor petitions the Director of Flight Standards Service 
for reconsideration of the NSPM finding under paragraph (b) of this 
section.
    (b) When a sponsor seeks reconsideration of a decision from the NSPM 
concerning the FSTD qualification, the following procedure applies:
    (1) The sponsor must petition for reconsideration of that decision 
within 30 days of the date that the sponsor receives a notice that some 
or all of the FSTD is no longer qualified.

[[Page 15]]

    (2) The sponsor must address its petition to the Director, Flight 
Standards Service, AFS-1, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 
Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20591.
    (3) A petition for reconsideration, if filed within the 30-day 
period, suspends the effectiveness of the determination by the NSPM that 
the FSTD is no longer qualified unless the NSPM has found, under 
paragraph (c) of this section, that an emergency exists requiring 
immediate action with respect to safety in air commerce.
    (c) If the NSPM find that an emergency exists requiring immediate 
action with respect to safety in air commerce that makes the procedures 
set out in this section impracticable or contrary to the public 
interest:
    (1) The NSPM withdraws qualification of some or all of the FSTD and 
makes the withdrawal of qualification effective on the day the sponsor 
receives notice of it.
    (2) In the notice to the sponsor, the NSPM articulates the reasons 
for its finding that an emergency exists requiring immediate action with 
respect to safety in air transportation or air commerce or that makes it 
impracticable or contrary to the public interest to stay the 
effectiveness of the finding.
    (d) FSTD qualification lost under paragraph (a) or (c) of this 
section may be restored when either of the following provisions are met:
    (1) The FSTD successfully passes an evaluation for initial 
qualification, in accordance with Sec. Sec. 60.15 and 60.17(c) in those 
circumstances where the NSPM has determined that a full evaluation for 
initial qualification is necessary; or
    (2) The FSTD successfully passes an evaluation for those elements of 
an initial qualification evaluation, in accordance with Sec. Sec. 60.15 
and 60.17(c), as determined to be necessary by the NSPM.
    (e) In making the determinations described in paragraph (d) of this 
section, the NSPM considers factors including the reason for the loss of 
qualification, any repairs or replacements that may have to have been 
completed, the number of continuing qualification evaluations missed, 
the number of sponsor-conducted quarterly inspections missed, and the 
care that had been taken of the device since the loss of qualification.



Sec. 60.31  Recordkeeping and reporting.

    (a) The FSTD sponsor must maintain the following records for each 
FSTD it sponsors:
    (1) The MQTG and each amendment thereto.
    (2) A record of all FSTD modifications affected under Sec. 60.23 
since the issuance of the original Statement of Qualification.
    (3) A copy of all of the following:
    (i) Results of the qualification evaluations (initial and each 
upgrade) since the issuance of the original Statement of Qualification.
    (ii) Results of the objective tests conducted in accordance with 
Sec. 60.19(a) for a period of 2 years.
    (iii) Results of the previous three continuing qualification 
evaluations, or the continuing qualification evaluations from the 
previous 2 years, whichever covers a longer period.
    (iv) Comments obtained in accordance with Sec. 60.9(b) for a period 
of at least 90 days.
    (4) A record of all discrepancies entered in the discrepancy log 
over the previous 2 years, including the following:
    (i) A list of the components or equipment that were or are missing, 
malfunctioning, or inoperative.
    (ii) The action taken to correct the discrepancy.
    (iii) The date the corrective action was taken.
    (iv) The identity of the person determining that the discrepancy has 
been corrected.
    (b) The records specified in this section must be maintained in 
plain language form or in coded form if the coded form provides for the 
preservation and retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the 
NSPM.



Sec. 60.33  Applications, logbooks, reports, and records: Fraud, 

falsification, or incorrect statements.

    (a) No person may make, or cause to be made, any of the following:
    (1) A fraudulent or intentionally false statement in any application 
or any

[[Page 16]]

amendment thereto, or any other report or test result required by this 
part.
    (2) A fraudulent or intentionally false statement in or a known 
omission from any record or report that is kept, made, or used to show 
compliance with this part, or to exercise any privileges under this 
chapter.
    (3) Any reproduction or alteration, for fraudulent purpose, of any 
report, record, or test result required under this part.
    (b) The commission by any person of any act prohibited under 
paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for any one or any combination 
of the following:
    (1) A civil penalty.
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate held by that person 
that was issued under this chapter.
    (3) The removal of FSTD qualification and approval for use in a 
training program.
    (c) The following may serve as a basis for removal of qualification 
of an FSTD including the withdrawal of approval for use of an FSTD; or 
denying an application for a qualification:
    (1) An incorrect statement, upon which the FAA relied or could have 
relied, made in support of an application for a qualification or a 
request for approval for use.
    (2) An incorrect entry, upon which the FAA relied or could have 
relied, made in any logbook, record, or report that is kept, made, or 
used to show compliance with any requirement for an FSTD qualification 
or an approval for use.



Sec. 60.35  Specific full flight simulator compliance requirements.

    (a) No device will be eligible for initial or upgrade qualification 
to a FFS at Level C or Level D under this part unless it includes the 
equipment and appliances installed and operating to the extent necessary 
for the issuance of an airman certificate or rating.
    (b) No device will be eligible for initial or upgrade qualification 
to a FFS at Level A or Level B under this part unless it includes the 
equipment and appliances installed and operating to the extent necessary 
for the training, testing, and/or checking that comprise the simulation 
portion of the requirements for issuance of an airman certificate or 
rating.



Sec. 60.37  FSTD qualification on the basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 

Agreement (BASA).

    (a) The evaluation and qualification of an FSTD by a contracting 
State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation for the sponsor 
of an FSTD located in that contracting State may be used as the basis 
for issuing a U.S. statement of qualification (see applicable QPS, 
attachment 4, figure 4) by the NSPM to the sponsor of that FSTD in 
accordance with--
    (1) A BASA between the United States and the Contracting State that 
issued the original qualification; and
    (2) A Simulator Implementation Procedure (SIP) established under the 
BASA.
    (b) The SIP must contain any conditions and limitations on 
validation and issuance of such qualification by the U.S.



  Sec. Appendix A to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for 

                     Airplane Full Flight Simulators

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    This appendix establishes the standards for Airplane FFS evaluation 
and qualification. The NSPM is responsible for the development, 
application, and implementation of the standards contained within this 
appendix. The procedures and criteria specified in this appendix will be 
used by the NSPM, or a person assigned by the NSPM, when conducting 
airplane FFS evaluations.

                            Table of Contents

1. Introduction.
2. Applicability (Sec. Sec. 60.1 and 60.2).
3. Definitions (Sec. 60.3).
4. Qualification Performance Standards (Sec. 60.4).
5. Quality Management System (Sec. 60.5).
6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.7).
7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (Sec. 60.9).
8. FFS Use (Sec. 60.11).
9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (Sec. 60.13).
10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of 
          the FFS (Sec. 60.14).
11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.15).

[[Page 17]]

12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS (Sec. 
          60.16).
13. Previously Qualified FFSs (Sec. 60.17).
14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance 
          Requirements (Sec. 60.19).
15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (Sec. 60.20).
16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Airplane Types or Models 
          (Sec. 60.21).
17. Modifications to FFSs (Sec. 60.23).
18. Operations With Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components 
          (Sec. 60.25).
19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
          Qualification (Sec. 60.27).
20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
          Qualification (Sec. 60.29).
21. Record Keeping and Reporting (Sec. 60.31).
22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, 
          or Incorrect Statements (Sec. 60.33).
23. Specific FFS Compliance Requirements (Sec. 60.35).
24. [Reserved]
25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
          Agreement (BASA) (Sec. 60.37).
Attachment 1 to Appendix A to Part 60--General Simulator Requirements.
Attachment 2 to Appendix A to Part 60--FFS Objective Tests.
Attachment 3 to Appendix A to Part 60--Simulator Subjective Evaluation.
Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60--Sample Documents.
Attachment 5 to Appendix A to Part 60--Simulator Qualification 
          Requirements for Windshear Training Program Use.
Attachment 6 to Appendix A to Part 60--FSTD Directives Applicable to 
          Airplane Flight Simulators.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                             1. Introduction

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. This appendix contains background information as well as 
regulatory and informative material as described later in this section. 
To assist the reader in determining what areas are required and what 
areas are permissive, the text in this appendix is divided into two 
sections: ``QPS Requirements'' and ``Information.'' The QPS Requirements 
sections contain details regarding compliance with the part 60 rule 
language. These details are regulatory, but are found only in this 
appendix. The Information sections contain material that is advisory in 
nature, and designed to give the user general information about the 
regulation.
    b. Questions regarding the contents of this publication should be 
sent to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation 
Administration, Flight Standards Service, National Simulator Program 
Staff, AFS-205, 100 Hartsfield Centre Parkway, Suite 400, Atlanta, 
Georgia 30354. Telephone contact numbers for the NSP are: Phone, 404-
832-4700; fax, 404-761-8906. The general e-mail address for the NSP 
office is: [email protected]. The NSP Internet Web site address 
is: http://www.faa.gov/safety/programs--initiatives/aircraft--aviation/
nsp/. On this Web site you will find an NSP personnel list with 
telephone and e-mail contact information for each NSP staff member, a 
list of qualified flight simulation devices, advisory circulars (ACs), a 
description of the qualification process, NSP policy, and an NSP ``In-
Works'' section. Also linked from this site are additional information 
sources, handbook bulletins, frequently asked questions, a listing and 
text of the Federal Aviation Regulations, Flight Standards Inspector's 
handbooks, and other FAA links.
    c. The NSPM encourages the use of electronic media for all 
communication, including any record, report, request, test, or statement 
required by this appendix. The electronic media used must have adequate 
security provisions and be acceptable to the NSPM. The NSPM recommends 
inquiries on system compatibility, and minimum system requirements are 
also included on the NSP Web site.
    d. Related Reading References.
    (1) 14 CFR part 60.
    (2) 14 CFR part 61.
    (3) 14 CFR part 63.
    (4) 14 CFR part 119.
    (5) 14 CFR part 121.
    (6) 14 CFR part 125.
    (7) 14 CFR part 135.
    (8) 14 CFR part 141.
    (9) 14 CFR part 142.
    (10) AC 120-28, as amended, Criteria for Approval of Category III 
Landing Weather Minima.
    (11) AC 120-29, as amended, Criteria for Approving Category I and 
Category II Landing Minima for part 121 operators.
    (12) AC 120-35, as amended, Line Operational Simulations: Line-
Oriented Flight Training, Special Purpose Operational Training, Line 
Operational Evaluation.
    (13) AC 120-40, as amended, Airplane Simulator Qualification.
    (14) AC 120-41, as amended, Criteria for Operational Approval of 
Airborne Wind Shear Alerting and Flight Guidance Systems.
    (15) AC 120-57, as amended, Surface Movement Guidance and Control 
System (SMGCS).
    (16) AC 150/5300-13, as amended, Airport Design.

[[Page 18]]

    (17) AC 150/5340-1, as amended, Standards for Airport Markings.
    (18) AC 150/5340-4, as amended, Installation Details for Runway 
Centerline Touchdown Zone Lighting Systems.
    (19) AC 150/5340-19, as amended, Taxiway Centerline Lighting System.
    (20) AC 150/5340-24, as amended, Runway and Taxiway Edge Lighting 
System.
    (21) AC 150/5345-28, as amended, Precision Approach Path Indicator 
(PAPI) Systems.
    (22) International Air Transport Association document, ``Flight 
Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,'' as amended.
    (23) AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of 
Transport Category Airplanes.
    (24) AC 23-8, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of 
Part 23 Airplanes.
    (25) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Manual of 
Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators, as amended.
    (26) Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volume I, as 
amended and Volume II, as amended, The Royal Aeronautical Society, 
London, UK.
    (27) FAA Publication FAA-S-8081 series (Practical Test Standards for 
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and 
Instrument Ratings).
    (28) The FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). An electronic 
version of the AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/atpubs.
    (29) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document number 436, titled 
Guidelines For Electronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended).
    (30) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document 610, Guidance for 
Design and Integration of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simulators (as 
amended).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

               2. Applicability (Sec. Sec. 60.1 and 60.2)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.1, Applicability, or to Sec. 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to 
persons who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized 
activities.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                       3. Definitions (Sec. 60.3)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    See Appendix F of this part for a list of definitions and 
abbreviations from part 1 and part 60, including the appropriate 
appendices of part 60.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

           4. Qualification Performance Standards (Sec. 60.4)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.4, Qualification Performance Standards.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                5. Quality Management System (Sec. 60.5)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    See Appendix E of this part for additional regulatory and 
informational material regarding Quality Management Systems.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

           6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.7)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The intent of the language in Sec. 60.7(b) is to have a specific 
FFS, identified by the sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-approved 
flight training program for the airplane simulated during the 12-month 
period described. The identification of the specific FFS may change from 
one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as the sponsor 
sponsors and uses at least one FFS at least once during the prescribed 
period. No minimum number of hours or minimum FFS periods are required.
    b. The following examples describe acceptable operational practices:
    (1) Example One.
    (a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, specific FFS for its own use, 
in its own facility or elsewhere--this single FFS forms the basis for 
the sponsorship. The sponsor uses that FFS at least once in each 12-
month period in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for 
the airplane simulated. This 12-month period is established according to 
the following schedule:
    (i) If the FFS was qualified prior to May 30, 2008, the 12-month 
period begins on the date of the first continuing qualification 
evaluation conducted in accordance with Sec. 60.19 after May 30, 2008, 
and continues for each subsequent 12-month period;

[[Page 19]]

    (ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, 2008, will be required 
to undergo an initial or upgrade evaluation in accordance with Sec. 
60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation is complete, the first 
continuing qualification evaluation will be conducted within 6 months. 
The 12-month continuing qualification evaluation cycle begins on that 
date and continues for each subsequent 12-month period.
    (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FFS use required.
    (c) The identification of the specific FFS may change from one 12-
month period to the next 12-month period as long as the sponsor sponsors 
and uses at least one FFS at least once during the prescribed period.
    (2) Example Two.
    (a) A sponsor sponsors an additional number of FFSs, in its facility 
or elsewhere. Each additionally sponsored FFS must be--
    (i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight 
training program for the airplane simulated (as described in Sec. 
60.7(d)(1));
     OR
    (ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder in that other 
certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the 
airplane simulated (as described in Sec. 60.7(d)(1)). This 12-month 
period is established in the same manner as in example one;
     OR
    (iii) Provided a statement each year from a qualified pilot (after 
having flown the airplane, not the subject FFS or another FFS, during 
the preceding 12-month period), stating that the subject FFS's 
performance and handling qualities represent the airplane (as described 
in Sec. 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is provided at least once in each 
12-month period established in the same manner as in example one.
    (b) No minimum number of hours of FFS use is required.
    (3) Example Three.
    (a) A sponsor in New York (in this example, a Part 142 certificate 
holder) establishes ``satellite'' training centers in Chicago and 
Moscow.
    (b) The satellite function means that the Chicago and Moscow centers 
must operate under the New York center's certificate (in accordance with 
all of the New York center's practices, procedures, and policies; e.g., 
instructor and/or technician training/checking requirements, record 
keeping, QMS program).
    (c) All of the FFSs in the Chicago and Moscow centers could be dry-
leased (i.e., the certificate holder does not have and use FAA-approved 
flight training programs for the FFSs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) 
because--
    (i) Each FFS in the Chicago center and each FFS in the Moscow center 
is used at least once each 12-month period by another FAA certificate 
holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training 
program for the airplane (as described in Sec. 60.7(d)(1));
     OR
    (ii) A statement is obtained from a qualified pilot (having flown 
the airplane, not the subject FFS or another FFS, during the preceding 
12-month period) stating that the performance and handling qualities of 
each FFS in the Chicago and Moscow centers represents the airplane (as 
described in Sec. 60.7(d)(2)).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

       7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (Sec. 60.9)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    The phrase ``as soon as practicable'' in Sec. 60.9(a) means without 
unnecessarily disrupting or delaying beyond a reasonable time the 
training, evaluation, or experience being conducted in the FFS.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                        8. FFS Use (Sec. 60.11)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.11, Simulator Use.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

            9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (Sec. 60.13)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. Flight test data used to validate FFS performance and handling 
qualities must have been gathered in accordance with a flight test 
program containing the following:
    (1) A flight test plan consisting of:
    (a) The maneuvers and procedures required for aircraft certification 
and simulation programming and validation.
    (b) For each maneuver or procedure--
    (i) The procedures and control input the flight test pilot and/or 
engineer used.
    (ii) The atmospheric and environmental conditions.
    (iii) The initial flight conditions.
    (iv) The airplane configuration, including weight and center of 
gravity.
    (v) The data to be gathered.

[[Page 20]]

    (vi) All other information necessary to recreate the flight test 
conditions in the FFS.
    (2) Appropriately qualified flight test personnel.
    (3) An understanding of the accuracy of the data to be gathered 
using appropriate alternative data sources, procedures, and 
instrumentation that is traceable to a recognized standard as described 
in Attachment 2, Table A2E of this appendix.
    (4) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisition equipment or 
system(s), including appropriate data reduction and analysis methods and 
techniques, as would be acceptable to the FAA's Aircraft Certification 
Service.
    b. The data, regardless of source, must be presented as follows:
    (1) In a format that supports the FFS validation process.
    (2) In a manner that is clearly readable and annotated correctly and 
completely.
    (3) With resolution sufficient to determine compliance with the 
tolerances set forth in Attachment 2, Table A2A of this appendix.
    (4) With any necessary instructions or other details provided, such 
as yaw damper or throttle position.
    (5) Without alteration, adjustments, or bias. Data may be corrected 
to address known data calibration errors provided that an explanation of 
the methods used to correct the errors appears in the QTG. The corrected 
data may be re-scaled, digitized, or otherwise manipulated to fit the 
desired presentation.
    c. After completion of any additional flight test, a flight test 
report must be submitted in support of the validation data. The report 
must contain sufficient data and rationale to support qualification of 
the FFS at the level requested.
    d. As required by Sec. 60.13(f), the sponsor must notify the NSPM 
when it becomes aware that an addition to, an amendment to, or a 
revision of data that may relate to FFS performance or handling 
characteristics is available. The data referred to in this paragraph is 
data used to validate the performance, handling qualities, or other 
characteristics of the aircraft, including data related to any relevant 
changes occurring after the type certificate was issued. The sponsor 
must--
    (1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the NSPM of the existence of 
this data; and
    (2) Within 45 calendar days, notify the NSPM of--
    (a) The schedule to incorporate this data into the FFS; or
    (b) The reason for not incorporating this data into the FFS.
    e. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a 
``snapshot test'' or a ``series of snapshot tests'' results in lieu of a 
time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that 
a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the 
``snapshot.'' The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior 
to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the 
snapshot.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    f. The FFS sponsor is encouraged to maintain a liaison with the 
manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the 
aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the 
manufacturer is no longer in business), and, if appropriate, with the 
person having supplied the aircraft data package for the FFS in order to 
facilitate the notification required by Sec. 60.13(f).
    g. It is the intent of the NSPM that for new aircraft entering 
service, at a point well in advance of preparation of the Qualification 
Test Guide (QTG), the sponsor should submit to the NSPM for approval, a 
descriptive document (see Table A2C, Sample Validation Data Roadmap for 
Airplanes) containing the plan for acquiring the validation data, 
including data sources. This document should clearly identify sources of 
data for all required tests, a description of the validity of these data 
for a specific engine type and thrust rating configuration, and the 
revision levels of all avionics affecting the performance or flying 
qualities of the aircraft. Additionally, this document should provide 
other information, such as the rationale or explanation for cases where 
data or data parameters are missing, instances where engineering 
simulation data are used or where flight test methods require further 
explanations. It should also provide a brief narrative describing the 
cause and effect of any deviation from data requirements. The aircraft 
manufacturer may provide this document.
    h. There is no requirement for any flight test data supplier to 
submit a flight test plan or program prior to gathering flight test 
data. However, the NSPM notes that inexperienced data gatherers often 
provide data that is irrelevant, improperly marked, or lacking adequate 
justification for selection. Other problems include inadequate 
information regarding initial conditions or test maneuvers. The NSPM has 
been forced to refuse these data submissions as validation data for an 
FFS evaluation. It is for this reason that the NSPM recommends that any 
data supplier not previously experienced in this area review the data 
necessary for programming and for validating the performance of the FFS, 
and discuss the flight test plan anticipated for acquiring such data 
with the NSPM well in advance of commencing the flight tests.
    i. The NSPM will consider, on a case-by-case basis, whether to 
approve supplemental

[[Page 21]]

validation data derived from flight data recording systems, such as a 
Quick Access Recorder or Flight Data Recorder.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of 
                         the FFSs (Sec. 60.14)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. In the event that the NSPM determines that special equipment or 
specifically qualified persons will be required to conduct an 
evaluation, the NSPM will make every attempt to notify the sponsor at 
least one (1) week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in advance of the 
evaluation. Examples of special equipment include spot photometers, 
flight control measurement devices, and sound analyzers. Examples of 
specially qualified personnel include individuals specifically qualified 
to install or use any special equipment when its use is required.
    b. Examples of a special evaluation include an evaluation conducted 
after an FFS is moved, at the request of the TPAA, or as a result of 
comments received from users of the FFS that raise questions about the 
continued qualification or use of the FFS.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.15)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. In order to be qualified at a particular qualification level, the 
FFS must:
    (1) Meet the general requirements listed in Attachment 1 of this 
appendix;
    (2) Meet the objective testing requirements listed in Attachment 2 
of this appendix; and
    (3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjective tests listed in 
Attachment 3 of this appendix.
    b. The request described in Sec. 60.15(a) must include all of the 
following:
    (1) A statement that the FFS meets all of the applicable provisions 
of this part and all applicable provisions of the QPS.
    (2) A confirmation that the sponsor will forward to the NSPM the 
statement described in Sec. 60.15(b) in such time as to be received no 
later than 5 business days prior to the scheduled evaluation and may be 
forwarded to the NSPM via traditional or electronic means.
    (3) A QTG, acceptable to the NSPM, that includes all of the 
following:
    (a) Objective data obtained from traditional aircraft testing or 
another approved source.
    (b) Correlating objective test results obtained from the performance 
of the FFS as prescribed in the appropriate QPS.
    (c) The result of FFS subjective tests prescribed in the appropriate 
QPS.
    (d) A description of the equipment necessary to perform the 
evaluation for initial qualification and the continuing qualification 
evaluations.
    c. The QTG described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, must 
provide the documented proof of compliance with the simulator objective 
tests in Attachment 2, Table A2A of this appendix.
    d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by the sponsor, or the 
sponsor's agent on behalf of the sponsor, to the NSPM for review and 
approval, and must include, for each objective test:
    (1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions;
    (2) Pertinent and complete instructions for the conduct of automatic 
and manual tests;
    (3) A means of comparing the FFS test results to the objective data;
    (4) Any other information as necessary, to assist in the evaluation 
of the test results;
    (5) Other information appropriate to the qualification level of the 
FFS.
    e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, 
must include the following:
    (1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and FAA approval signature blocks 
(see Attachment 4, Figure A4C, of this appendix for a sample QTG cover 
page).
    (2) A continuing qualification evaluation requirements page. This 
page will be used by the NSPM to establish and record the frequency with 
which continuing qualification evaluations must be conducted and any 
subsequent changes that may be determined by the NSPM in accordance with 
Sec. 60.19. See Attachment 4, Figure A4G, of this appendix for a sample 
Continuing Qualification Evaluation Requirements page.
    (3) An FFS information page that provides the information listed in 
this paragraph (see Attachment 4, Figure A4B, of this appendix for a 
sample FFS information page). For convertible FFSs, the sponsor must 
submit a separate page for each configuration of the FFS.
    (a) The sponsor's FFS identification number or code.
    (b) The airplane model and series being simulated.
    (c) The aerodynamic data revision number or reference.
    (d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model and the aerodynamic 
coefficient data used to modify the basic model.
    (e) The engine model(s) and its data revision number or reference.

[[Page 22]]

    (f) The flight control data revision number or reference.
    (g) The flight management system identification and revision level.
    (h) The FFS model and manufacturer.
    (i) The date of FFS manufacture.
    (j) The FFS computer identification.
    (k) The visual system model and manufacturer, including display 
type.
    (l) The motion system type and manufacturer, including degrees of 
freedom.
    (4) A Table of Contents.
    (5) A log of revisions and a list of effective pages.
    (6) A list of all relevant data references.
    (7) A glossary of terms and symbols used (including sign conventions 
and units).
    (8) Statements of Compliance and Capability (SOCs) with certain 
requirements.
    (9) Recording procedures or equipment required to accomplish the 
objective tests.
    (10) The following information for each objective test designated in 
Attachment 2, Table A2A, of this appendix as applicable to the 
qualification level sought:
    (a) Name of the test.
    (b) Objective of the test.
    (c) Initial conditions.
    (d) Manual test procedures.
    (e) Automatic test procedures (if applicable).
    (f) Method for evaluating FFS objective test results.
    (g) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the 
automatically conducted test(s).
    (h) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the 
manually conducted test(s).
    (i) Tolerances for relevant parameters.
    (j) Source of Validation Data (document and page number).
    (k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located in a separate binder, a 
cross reference for the identification and page number for pertinent 
data location must be provided).
    (l) Simulator Objective Test Results as obtained by the sponsor. 
Each test result must reflect the date completed and must be clearly 
labeled as a product of the device being tested.
    f. A convertible FFS is addressed as a separate FFS for each model 
and series airplane to which it will be converted and for the FAA 
qualification level sought. If a sponsor seeks qualification for two or 
more models of an airplane type using a convertible FFS, the sponsor 
must submit a QTG for each airplane model, or a QTG for the first 
airplane model and a supplement to that QTG for each additional airplane 
model. The NSPM will conduct evaluations for each airplane model.
    g. Form and manner of presentation of objective test results in the 
QTG:
    (1) The sponsor's FFS test results must be recorded in a manner 
acceptable to the NSPM, that allows easy comparison of the FFS test 
results to the validation data (e.g., use of a multi-channel recorder, 
line printer, cross plotting, overlays, transparencies).
    (2) FFS results must be labeled using terminology common to airplane 
parameters as opposed to computer software identifications.
    (3) Validation data documents included in a QTG may be 
photographically reduced only if such reduction will not alter the 
graphic scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpretation or 
resolution.
    (4) Scaling on graphical presentations must provide the resolution 
necessary to evaluate the parameters shown in Attachment 2, Table A2A of 
this appendix.
    (5) Tests involving time histories, data sheets (or transparencies 
thereof) and FFS test results must be clearly marked with appropriate 
reference points to ensure an accurate comparison between the FFS and 
the airplane with respect to time. Time histories recorded via a line 
printer are to be clearly identified for cross plotting on the airplane 
data. Over-plots must not obscure the reference data.
    h. The sponsor may elect to complete the QTG objective and 
subjective tests at the manufacturer's facility or at the sponsor's 
training facility. If the tests are conducted at the manufacturer's 
facility, the sponsor must repeat at least one-third of the tests at the 
sponsor's training facility in order to substantiate FFS performance. 
The QTG must be clearly annotated to indicate when and where each test 
was accomplished. Tests conducted at the manufacturer's facility and at 
the sponsor's training facility must be conducted after the FFS is 
assembled with systems and sub-systems functional and operating in an 
interactive manner. The test results must be submitted to the NSPM.
    i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the MQTG at the FFS location.
    j. All FFSs for which the initial qualification is conducted after 
May 30, 2014, must have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including all 
objective data obtained from airplane testing, or another approved 
source (reformatted or digitized), together with correlating objective 
test results obtained from the performance of the FFS (reformatted or 
digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The eMQTG must also contain 
the general FFS performance or demonstration results (reformatted or 
digitized) prescribed in this appendix, and a description of the 
equipment necessary to perform the initial qualification evaluation and 
the continuing qualification evaluations. The eMQTG must include the 
original validation data used to validate FFS performance and handling 
qualities in either the original digitized format from the data supplier 
or an electronic scan of the

[[Page 23]]

original time-history plots that were provided by the data supplier. A 
copy of the eMQTG must be provided to the NSPM.
    k. All other FFSs not covered in subparagraph ``j'' must have an 
electronic copy of the MQTG by May 30, 2014. An electronic copy of the 
MQTG must be provided to the NSPM. This may be provided by an electronic 
scan presented in a Portable Document File (PDF), or similar format 
acceptable to the NSPM.
    l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualification evaluation 
conducted by the NSPM, the sponsor must also provide a person who is a 
user of the device (e.g., a qualified pilot or instructor pilot with 
flight time experience in that aircraft) and knowledgeable about the 
operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FFS.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    m. Only those FFSs that are sponsored by a certificate holder as 
defined in Appendix F of this part will be evaluated by the NSPM. 
However, other FFS evaluations may be conducted on a case-by-case basis 
as the Administrator deems appropriate, but only in accordance with 
applicable agreements.
    n. The NSPM will conduct an evaluation for each configuration, and 
each FFS must be evaluated as completely as possible. To ensure a 
thorough and uniform evaluation, each FFS is subjected to the general 
simulator requirements in Attachment 1 of this appendix, the objective 
tests listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix, and the subjective tests 
listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix. The evaluations described 
herein will include, but not necessarily be limited to the following:
    (1) Airplane responses, including longitudinal and lateral-
directional control responses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix);
    (2) Performance in authorized portions of the simulated airplane's 
operating envelope, to include tasks evaluated by the NSPM in the areas 
of surface operations, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach, and 
landing as well as abnormal and emergency operations (see Attachment 2 
of this appendix);
    (3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this 
appendix);
    (4) Flight deck configuration (see Attachment 1 of this appendix);
    (5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor station functions checks 
(see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix);
    (6) Airplane systems and sub-systems (as appropriate) as compared to 
the airplane simulated (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this 
appendix);
    (7) FFS systems and sub-systems, including force cueing (motion), 
visual, and aural (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attachment 1 and 
Attachment 2 of this appendix); and
    (8) Certain additional requirements, depending upon the 
qualification level sought, including equipment or circumstances that 
may become hazardous to the occupants. The sponsor may be subject to 
Occupational Safety and Health Administration requirements.
    o. The NSPM administers the objective and subjective tests, which 
includes an examination of functions. The tests include a qualitative 
assessment of the FFS by an NSP pilot. The NSP evaluation team leader 
may assign other qualified personnel to assist in accomplishing the 
functions examination and/or the objective and subjective tests 
performed during an evaluation when required.
    (1) Objective tests provide a basis for measuring and evaluating FFS 
performance and determining compliance with the requirements of this 
part.
    (2) Subjective tests provide a basis for:
    (a) Evaluating the capability of the FFS to perform over a typical 
utilization period;
    (b) Determining that the FFS satisfactorily simulates each required 
task;
    (c) Verifying correct operation of the FFS controls, instruments, 
and systems; and
    (d) Demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this part.
    p. The tolerances for the test parameters listed in Attachment 2 of 
this appendix reflect the range of tolerances acceptable to the NSPM for 
FFS validation and are not to be confused with design tolerances 
specified for FFS manufacture. In making decisions regarding tests and 
test results, the NSPM relies on the use of operational and engineering 
judgment in the application of data (including consideration of the way 
in which the flight test was flown and the way the data was gathered and 
applied), data presentations, and the applicable tolerances for each 
test.
    q. In addition to the scheduled continuing qualification evaluation, 
each FFS is subject to evaluations conducted by the NSPM at any time 
without prior notification to the sponsor. Such evaluations would be 
accomplished in a normal manner (i.e., requiring exclusive use of the 
FFS for the conduct of objective and subjective tests and an examination 
of functions) if the FFS is not being used for flight crewmember 
training, testing, or checking. However, if the FFS were being used, the 
evaluation would be conducted in a non-exclusive manner. This non-
exclusive evaluation will be conducted by the FFS evaluator accompanying 
the check airman, instructor, Aircrew Program Designee (APD), or FAA 
inspector aboard the FFS along with the student(s) and observing the 
operation of the FFS during the training, testing, or checking 
activities.

[[Page 24]]

    r. Problems with objective test results are handled as follows:
    (1) If a problem with an objective test result is detected by the 
NSP evaluation team during an evaluation, the test may be repeated or 
the QTG may be amended.
    (2) If it is determined that the results of an objective test do not 
support the level requested but do support a lower level, the NSPM may 
qualify the FFS at that lower level. For example, if a Level D 
evaluation is requested and the FFS fails to meet sound test tolerances, 
it could be qualified at Level C.
    s. After an FFS is successfully evaluated, the NSPM issues a 
Statement of Qualification (SOQ) to the sponsor. The NSPM recommends the 
FFS to the TPAA, who will approve the FFS for use in a flight training 
program. The SOQ will be issued at the satisfactory conclusion of the 
initial or continuing qualification evaluation and will list the tasks 
for which the FFS is qualified, referencing the tasks described in Table 
A1B in Attachment 1 of this appendix. However, it is the sponsor's 
responsibility to obtain TPAA approval prior to using the FFS in an FAA-
approved flight training program.
    t. Under normal circumstances, the NSPM establishes a date for the 
initial or upgrade evaluation within ten (10) working days after 
determining that a complete QTG is acceptable. Unusual circumstances may 
warrant establishing an evaluation date before this determination is 
made. A sponsor may schedule an evaluation date as early as 6 months in 
advance. However, there may be a delay of 45 days or more in 
rescheduling and completing the evaluation if the sponsor is unable to 
meet the scheduled date. See Attachment 4 of this appendix, Figure A4A, 
Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation.
    u. The numbering system used for objective test results in the QTG 
should closely follow the numbering system set out in Attachment 2 of 
this appendix, FFS Objective Tests, Table A2A.
    v. Contact the NSPM or visit the NSPM Web site for additional 
information regarding the preferred qualifications of pilots used to 
meet the requirements of Sec. 60.15(d).
    w. Examples of the exclusions for which the FFS might not have been 
subjectively tested by the sponsor or the NSPM and for which 
qualification might not be sought or granted, as described in Sec. 
60.15(g)(6), include windshear training and circling approaches.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS (Sec. 
                                 60.16)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.16, Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

               13. Previously Qualified FFSs (Sec. 60.17)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. In instances where a sponsor plans to remove an FFS from active 
status for a period of less than two years, the following procedures 
apply:
    (1) The NSPM must be notified in writing and the notification must 
include an estimate of the period that the FFS will be inactive;
    (2) Continuing Qualification evaluations will not be scheduled 
during the inactive period;
    (3) The NSPM will remove the FFS from the list of qualified FSTDs on 
a mutually established date not later than the date on which the first 
missed continuing qualification evaluation would have been scheduled;
    (4) Before the FFS is restored to qualified status, it must be 
evaluated by the NSPM. The evaluation content and the time required to 
accomplish the evaluation is based on the number of continuing 
qualification evaluations and sponsor-conducted quarterly inspections 
missed during the period of inactivity.
    (5) The sponsor must notify the NSPM of any changes to the original 
scheduled time out of service;
    b. Simulators qualified prior to May 30, 2008, are not required to 
meet the general simulation requirements, the objective test 
requirements or the subjective test requirements of attachments 1, 2, 
and 3 of this appendix as long as the simulator continues to meet the 
test requirements contained in the MQTG developed under the original 
qualification basis.
    c. After May 30, 2009, each visual scene or airport model beyond the 
minimum required for the FFS qualification level that is installed in 
and available for use in a qualified FFS must meet the requirements 
described in attachment 3 of this appendix.
    d. Simulators qualified prior to May 30, 2008, may be updated. If an 
evaluation is deemed appropriate or necessary by the NSPM after such an 
update, the evaluation will not require an evaluation to standards 
beyond those against which the simulator was originally qualified.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 25]]

                            Begin Information

    e. Other certificate holders or persons desiring to use an FFS may 
contract with FFS sponsors to use FFSs previously qualified at a 
particular level for an airplane type and approved for use within an 
FAA-approved flight training program. Such FFSs are not required to 
undergo an additional qualification process, except as described in 
Sec. 60.16.
    f. Each FFS user must obtain approval from the appropriate TPAA to 
use any FFS in an FAA-approved flight training program.
    g. The intent of the requirement listed in Sec. 60.17(b), for each 
FFS to have a SOQ within 6 years, is to have the availability of that 
statement (including the configuration list and the limitations to 
authorizations) to provide a complete picture of the FFS inventory 
regulated by the FAA. The issuance of the statement will not require any 
additional evaluation or require any adjustment to the evaluation basis 
for the FFS.
    h. Downgrading of an FFS is a permanent change in qualification 
level and will necessitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to reflect the 
revised qualification level, as appropriate. If a temporary restriction 
is placed on an FFS because of a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative 
component or on-going repairs, the restriction is not a permanent change 
in qualification level. Instead, the restriction is temporary and is 
removed when the reason for the restriction has been resolved.
    i. The NSPM will determine the evaluation criteria for an FFS that 
has been removed from active status. The criteria will be based on the 
number of continuing qualification evaluations and quarterly inspections 
missed during the period of inactivity. For example, if the FFS were out 
of service for a 1 year period, it would be necessary to complete the 
entire QTG, since all of the quarterly evaluations would have been 
missed. The NSPM will also consider how the FFS was stored, whether 
parts were removed from the FFS and whether the FFS was disassembled.
    j. The FFS will normally be requalified using the FAA-approved MQTG 
and the criteria that was in effect prior to its removal from 
qualification. However, inactive periods of 2 years or more will require 
requalification under the standards in effect and current at the time of 
requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance 
                       Requirements (Sec. 60.19)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of four evenly spaced 
inspections throughout the year. The objective test sequence and content 
of each inspection must be developed by the sponsor and must be 
acceptable to the NSPM.
    b. The description of the functional preflight check must be 
contained in the sponsor's QMS.
    c. Record ``functional preflight'' in the FFS discrepancy log book 
or other acceptable location, including any item found to be missing, 
malfunctioning, or inoperative.
    d. During the continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the 
NSPM, the sponsor must also provide a person knowledgeable about the 
operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FFS.
    e. The NSPM will conduct continuing qualification evaluations every 
12 months unless:
    (1) The NSPM becomes aware of discrepancies or performance problems 
with the device that warrants more frequent evaluations; or
    (2) The sponsor implements a QMS that justifies less frequent 
evaluations. However, in no case shall the frequency of a continuing 
qualification evaluation exceed 36 months.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    f. The sponsor's test sequence and the content of each quarterly 
inspection required in Sec. 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a 
mix from the objective test requirement areas listed as follows:
    (1) Performance.
    (2) Handling qualities.
    (3) Motion system (where appropriate).
    (4) Visual system (where appropriate).
    (5) Sound system (where appropriate).
    (6) Other FFS systems.
    g. If the NSP evaluator plans to accomplish specific tests during a 
normal continuing qualification evaluation that requires the use of 
special equipment or technicians, the sponsor will be notified as far in 
advance of the evaluation as practical; but not less than 72 hours. 
Examples of such tests include latencies, control dynamics, sounds and 
vibrations, motion, and/or some visual system tests.
    h. The continuing qualification evaluations, described in Sec. 
60.19(b), will normally require 4 hours of FFS time. However, 
flexibility is necessary to address abnormal situations or situations 
involving aircraft with additional levels of complexity (e.g., computer 
controlled aircraft). The sponsor should anticipate that some tests may 
require additional time. The continuing qualification evaluations will 
consist of the following:
    (1) Review of the results of the quarterly inspections conducted by 
the sponsor since

[[Page 26]]

the last scheduled continuing qualification evaluation.
    (2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 objective tests from the 
MQTG that provide an adequate opportunity to evaluate the performance of 
the FFS. The tests chosen will be performed either automatically or 
manually and should be able to be conducted within approximately one-
third (\1/3\) of the allotted FFS time.
    (3) A subjective evaluation of the FFS to perform a representative 
sampling of the tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appendix. This 
portion of the evaluation should take approximately two-thirds (\2/3\) 
of the allotted FFS time.
    (4) An examination of the functions of the FFS may include the 
motion system, visual system, sound system, instructor operating 
station, and the normal functions and simulated malfunctions of the 
airplane systems. This examination is normally accomplished 
simultaneously with the subjective evaluation requirements.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

               15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (Sec. 60.20)

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.20. Logging FFS Discrepancies.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Airplane Types or Models 
                              (Sec. 60.21)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.21, Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Airplane Types or Models.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                 17. Modifications to FFSs (Sec. 60.23)

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. The notification described in Sec. 60.23(c)(2) must include a 
complete description of the planned modification, with a description of 
the operational and engineering effect the proposed modification will 
have on the operation of the FFS and the results that are expected with 
the modification incorporated.
    b. Prior to using the modified FFS:
    (1) All the applicable objective tests completed with the 
modification incorporated, including any necessary updates to the MQTG 
(e.g., accomplishment of FSTD Directives) must be acceptable to the 
NSPM; and
    (2) The sponsor must provide the NSPM with a statement signed by the 
MR that the factors listed in Sec. 60.15(b) are addressed by the 
appropriate personnel as described in that section.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    FSTD Directives are considered modifications of an FFS. See 
Attachment 4 of this appendix for a sample index of effective FSTD 
Directives. See Attachment 6 of this appendix for a list of all 
effective FSTD Directives applicable to Airplane FFSs.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 18. Operation with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components 
                              (Sec. 60.25)

                            Begin Information

    a. The sponsor's responsibility with respect to Sec. 60.25(a) is 
satisfied when the sponsor fairly and accurately advises the user of the 
current status of an FFS, including any missing, malfunctioning, or 
inoperative (MMI) component(s).
    b. It is the responsibility of the instructor, check airman, or 
representative of the administrator conducting training, testing, or 
checking to exercise reasonable and prudent judgment to determine if any 
MMI component is necessary for the satisfactory completion of a specific 
maneuver, procedure, or task.
    c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day period described in Sec. 
60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend 
the deadline until the next business day.
    d. In accordance with the authorization described in Sec. 60.25(b), 
the sponsor may develop a discrepancy prioritizing system to accomplish 
repairs based on the level of impact on the capability of the FFS. 
Repairs having a larger impact on FFS capability to provide the required 
training, evaluation, or flight experience will have a higher priority 
for repair or replacement.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
                       Qualification (Sec. 60.27)

________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 27]]

                            Begin Information

    If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FFS will be maintained 
during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, 
hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic 
fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FFS is to be 
maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the NSPM will be able to 
determine the amount of testing required for requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
                       Qualification (Sec. 60.29)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FFS will be maintained 
during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, 
hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic 
fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FFS is to be 
maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the NSPM will be able to 
determine the amount of testing required for requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

              21. Recordkeeping and Reporting (Sec. 60.31)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. FFS modifications can include hardware or software changes. For 
FFS modifications involving software programming changes, the record 
required by Sec. 60.31(a)(2) must consist of the name of the aircraft 
system software, aerodynamic model, or engine model change, the date of 
the change, a summary of the change, and the reason for the change.
    b. If a coded form for record keeping is used, it must provide for 
the preservation and retrieval of information with appropriate security 
or controls to prevent the inappropriate alteration of such records 
after the fact.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, 
                  or Incorrect Statements (Sec. 60.33)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.33, Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, 
Falsification, or Incorrect Statements.

         23. Specific FFS Compliance Requirements (Sec. 60.35)

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.35, Specific FFS Compliance Requirements.

                             24. [Reserved]

   25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
                     Agreement (BASA) (Sec. 60.37)

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.37, FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
Agreement (BASA).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  Attachment 1 to Appendix A to Part 60--General Simulator Requirements

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                             1. Requirements

    a. Certain requirements included in this appendix must be supported 
with an SOC as defined in Appendix F, which may include objective and 
subjective tests. The requirements for SOCs are indicated in the 
``General Simulator Requirements'' column in Table A1A of this appendix.
    b. Table A1A describes the requirements for the indicated level of 
FFS. Many devices include operational systems or functions that exceed 
the requirements outlined in this section. However, all systems will be 
tested and evaluated in accordance with this appendix to ensure proper 
operation.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              2. Discussion

    a. This attachment describes the general simulator requirements for 
qualifying an airplane FFS. The sponsor should also consult the 
objective tests in Attachment 2 of this appendix and the examination of 
functions and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix 
to determine the complete requirements for a specific level simulator.
    b. The material contained in this attachment is divided into the 
following categories:
    (1) General flight deck configuration.
    (2) Simulator programming.

[[Page 28]]

    (3) Equipment operation.
    (4) Equipment and facilities for instructor/evaluator functions.
    (5) Motion system.
    (6) Visual system.
    (7) Sound system.
    c. Table A1A provides the standards for the General Simulator 
Requirements.
    d. Table A1B provides the tasks that the sponsor will examine to 
determine whether the FFS satisfactorily meets the requirements for 
flight crew training, testing, and experience, and provides the tasks 
for which the simulator may be qualified.
    e. Table A1C provides the functions that an instructor/check airman 
must be able to control in the simulator.
    f. It is not required that all of the tasks that appear on the List 
of Qualified Tasks (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the initial 
or continuing qualification evaluation.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                Table A1A--Minimum Simulator Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
       QPS requirements         Simulator levels        Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  General
 Entry No.       simulator      A    B    C    D           Notes
               requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. General Flight deck Configuration.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a........  The simulator      X    X    X    X   For simulator
              must have a                           purposes, the flight
              flight deck                           deck consists of all
              that is a                             that space forward
              replica of the                        of a cross section
              airplane                              of the flight deck
              simulated with                        at the most extreme
              controls,                             aft setting of the
              equipment,                            pilots' seats,
              observable                            including additional
              flight deck                           required crewmember
              indicators,                           duty stations and
              circuit                               those required
              breakers, and                         bulkheads aft of the
              bulkheads                             pilot seats. For
              properly                              clarification,
              located,                              bulkheads containing
              functionally                          only items such as
              accurate and                          landing gear pin
              replicating the                       storage
              airplane. The                         compartments, fire
              direction of                          axes and
              movement of                           extinguishers, spare
              controls and                          light bulbs, and
              switches must                         aircraft document
              be identical to                       pouches are not
              the airplane.                         considered essential
              Pilot seats                           and may be omitted.
              must allow the
              occupant to
              achieve the
              design ``eye
              position''
              established for
              the airplane
              being
              simulated.
              Equipment for
              the operation
              of the flight
              deck windows
              must be
              included, but
              the actual
              windows need
              not be
              operable.
              Additional
              equipment such
              as fire axes,
              extinguishers,
              and spare light
              bulbs must be
              available in
              the FFS but may
              be relocated to
              a suitable
              location as
              near as
              practical to
              the original
              position. Fire
              axes, landing
              gear pins, and
              any similar
              purpose
              instruments
              need only be
              represented in
              silhouette.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b........  Those circuit      X    X    X    X
              breakers that
              affect
              procedures or
              result in
              observable
              flight deck
              indications
              must be
              properly
              located and
              functionally
              accurate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Programming.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a........  A flight           X    X    X    X
              dynamics model
              that accounts
              for various
              combinations of
              drag and thrust
              normally
              encountered in
              flight must
              correspond to
              actual flight
              conditions,
              including the
              effect of
              change in
              airplane
              attitude,
              thrust, drag,
              altitude,
              temperature,
              gross weight,
              moments of
              inertia, center
              of gravity
              location, and
              configuration.
             An SOC is
              required.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b........  The simulator      X    X    X    X
              must have the
              computer
              capacity,
              accuracy,
              resolution, and
              dynamic
              response needed
              to meet the
              qualification
              level sought.
             An SOC is
              required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 29]]

 
2.c........  Surface            X
              operations must
              be represented
              to the extent
              that allows
              turns within
              the confines of
              the runway and
              adequate
              controls on the
              landing and
              roll-out from a
              crosswind
              approach to a
              landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d........  Ground handling
              and aerodynamic
              programming
              must include
              the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.1......  Ground effect...        X    X    X   Ground effect
                                                    includes modeling
                                                    that accounts for
                                                    roundout, flare,
                                                    touchdown, lift,
                                                    drag, pitching
                                                    moment, trim, and
                                                    power while in
                                                    ground effect.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.2......  Ground reaction.        X    X    X   Ground reaction
                                                    includes modeling
                                                    that accounts for
                                                    strut deflections,
                                                    tire friction, and
                                                    side forces. This is
                                                    the reaction of the
                                                    airplane upon
                                                    contact with the
                                                    runway during
                                                    landing, and may
                                                    differ with changes
                                                    in factors such as
                                                    gross weight,
                                                    airspeed, or rate of
                                                    descent on
                                                    touchdown.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3......  Ground handling         X    X    X
              characteristics
              , including
              aerodynamic and
              ground reaction
              modeling
              including
              steering
              inputs,
              operations with
              crosswind,
              braking, thrust
              reversing,
              deceleration,
              and turning
              radius.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e........  If the aircraft              X    X   If desired, Level A
              being simulated                       and B simulators may
              is one of the                         qualify for
              aircraft listed                       windshear training
              in Sec.                              by meeting these
              121.358, Low-                         standards; see
              altitude                              Attachment 5 of this
              windshear                             appendix. Windshear
              system                                models may consist
              equipment                             of independent
              requirements,                         variable winds in
              the simulator                         multiple
              must employ                           simultaneous
              windshear                             components. The FAA
              models that                           Windshear Training
              provide                               Aid presents one
              training for                          acceptable means of
              recognition of                        compliance with
              windshear                             simulator wind model
              phenomena and                         requirements.
              the execution
              of recovery
              procedures.
              Models must be
              available to
              the instructor/
              evaluator for
              the following
              critical phases
              of flight:
             (1) Prior to
              takeoff
              rotation..
             (2) At liftoff..
             (3) During
              initial climb..
             (4) On final
              approach, below
              500 ft AGL..
             The QTG must
              reference the
              FAA Windshear
              Training Aid or
              present
              alternate
              airplane
              related data,
              including the
              implementation
              method(s) used.
              If the
              alternate
              method is
              selected, wind
              models from the
              Royal Aerospace
              Establishment
              (RAE), the
              Joint Airport
              Weather Studies
              (JAWS) Project
              and other
              recognized
              sources may be
              implemented,
              but must be
              supported and
              properly
              referenced in
              the QTG. Only
              those
              simulators
              meeting these
              requirements
              may be used to
              satisfy the
              training
              requirements of
              part 121
              pertaining to a
              certificate
              holder's
              approved low-
              altitude
              windshear
              flight training
              program as
              described in
              Sec.  121.409.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 30]]

 
2.f........  The simulator                X    X   Automatic
              must provide                          ``flagging'' of out-
              for manual and                        of-tolerance
              automatic                             situations is
              testing of                            encouraged.
              simulator
              hardware and
              software
              programming to
              determine
              compliance with
              simulator
              objective tests
              as prescribed
              in Attachment 2
              of this
              appendix.
             An SOC is
              required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.g........  Relative                              The intent is to
              responses of                          verify that the
              the motion                            simulator provides
              system, visual                        instrument, motion,
              system, and                           and visual cues that
              flight deck                           are, within the
              instruments,                          stated time delays,
              measured by                           like the airplane
              latency tests                         responses. For
              or transport                          airplane response,
              delay tests.                          acceleration in the
              Motion onset                          appropriate,
              should occur                          corresponding
              before the                            rotational axis is
              start of the                          preferred.
              visual scene
              change (the
              start of the
              scan of the
              first video
              field
              containing
              different
              information)
              but must occur
              before the end
              of the scan of
              that video
              field.
              Instrument
              response may
              not occur prior
              to motion
              onset. Test
              results must be
              within the
              following
              limits:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.g.1......  300 milliseconds   X    X
              of the airplane
              response.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.g.2......  150 milliseconds             X    X
              of the airplane
              response.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.h........  The simulator                X    X
              must accurately
              reproduce the
              following
              runway
              conditions:
             (1) Dry.........
             (2) Wet.........
             (3) Icy.........
             (4) Patchy Wet..
             (5) Patchy Icy..
             (6) Wet on
              Rubber Residue
              in Touchdown
              Zone.
             An SOC is
              required.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.i........  The simulator                X    X   Simulator pitch, side
              must simulate:                        loading, and
             (1) brake and                          directional control
              tire failure                          characteristics
              dynamics,                             should be
              including                             representative of
              antiskid                              the airplane.
              failure.
             (2) decreased
              brake
              efficiency due
              to high brake
              temperatures,
              if applicable.
             An SOC is
              required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.j........  The simulator                X    X
              must replicate
              the effects of
              airframe and
              engine icing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.k........  The aerodynamic                   X   See Attachment 2 of
              modeling in the                       this appendix,
              simulator must                        paragraph 5, for
              include:                              further information
             (1) Low-altitude                       on ground effect.
              level-flight
              ground effect;.
             (2) Mach effect
              at high
              altitude;.
             (3) Normal and
              reverse dynamic
              thrust effect
              on control
              surfaces;.
             (4) Aeroelastic
              representations
              ; and
             (5)
              Nonlinearities
              due to
              sideslip.
             An SOC is
              required and
              must include
              references to
              computations of
              aeroelastic
              representations
              and of
              nonlinearities
              due to
              sideslip.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.l........  The simulator           X    X    X
              must have
              aerodynamic and
              ground reaction
              modeling for
              the effects of
              reverse thrust
              on directional
              control, if
              applicable.
             An SOC is
              required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 31]]

 
3. Equipment Operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a........  All relevant       X    X    X    X
              instrument
              indications
              involved in the
              simulation of
              the airplane
              must
              automatically
              respond to
              control
              movement or
              external
              disturbances to
              the simulated
              airplane; e.g.,
              turbulence or
              windshear.
              Numerical
              values must be
              presented in
              the appropriate
              units.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b........  Communications,    X    X    X    X   See Attachment 3 of
              navigation,                           this appendix for
              caution, and                          further information
              warning                               regarding long-range
              equipment must                        navigation
              be installed                          equipment.
              and operate
              within the
              tolerances
              applicable for
              the airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c........  Simulated          X    X    X    X
              airplane
              systems must
              operate as the
              airplane
              systems operate
              under normal,
              abnormal, and
              emergency
              operating
              conditions on
              the ground and
              in flight.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d........  The simulator      X    X    X    X
              must provide
              pilot controls
              with control
              forces and
              control travel
              that correspond
              to the
              simulated
              airplane. The
              simulator must
              also react in
              the same manner
              as in the
              airplane under
              the same flight
              conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e........  Simulator                    X    X
              control feel
              dynamics must
              replicate the
              airplane. This
              must be
              determined by
              comparing a
              recording of
              the control
              feel dynamics
              of the
              simulator to
              airplane
              measurements.
              For initial and
              upgrade
              qualification
              evaluations,
              the control
              dynamic
              characteristics
              must be
              measured and
              recorded
              directly from
              the flight deck
              controls, and
              must be
              accomplished in
              takeoff,
              cruise, and
              landing flight
              conditions and
              configurations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Instructor or Evaluator Facilities.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a........  In addition to     X    X    X    X   The NSPM will
              the flight                            consider
              crewmember                            alternatives to this
              stations, the                         standard for
              simulator must                        additional seats
              have at least                         based on unique
              two suitable                          flight deck
              seats for the                         configurations.
              instructor/
              check airman
              and FAA
              inspector.
              These seats
              must provide
              adequate vision
              to the pilot's
              panel and
              forward
              windows. All
              seats other
              than flight
              crew seats need
              not represent
              those found in
              the airplane,
              but must be
              adequately
              secured to the
              floor and
              equipped with
              similar
              positive
              restraint
              devices.
4.b........  The simulator      X    X    X    X
              must have
              controls that
              enable the
              instructor/
              evaluator to
              control all
              required system
              variables and
              insert all
              abnormal or
              emergency
              conditions into
              the simulated
              airplane
              systems as
              described in
              the sponsor's
              FAA-approved
              training
              program; or as
              described in
              the relevant
              operating
              manual as
              appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 32]]

 
4.c........  The simulator      X    X    X    X
              must have
              instructor
              controls for
              all
              environmental
              effects
              expected to be
              available at
              the IOS; e.g.,
              clouds,
              visibility,
              icing,
              precipitation,
              temperature,
              storm cells,
              and wind speed
              and direction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d........  The simulator                X    X   For example, another
              must provide                          airplane crossing
              the instructor                        the active runway or
              or evaluator                          converging airborne
              the ability to                        traffic.
              present ground
              and air hazards.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Motion System.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a........  The simulator      X    X    X    X   For example,
              must have                             touchdown cues
              motion (force)                        should be a function
              cues                                  of the rate of
              perceptible to                        descent (RoD) of the
              the pilot that                        simulated airplane.
              are
              representative
              of the motion
              in an airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b........  The simulator      X    X
              must have a
              motion (force
              cueing) system
              with a minimum
              of three
              degrees of
              freedom (at
              least pitch,
              roll, and
              heave).
             An SOC is
              required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c........  The simulator                X    X
              must have a
              motion (force
              cueing) system
              that produces
              cues at least
              equivalent to
              those of a six-
              degrees-of-
              freedom,
              synergistic
              platform motion
              system (i.e.,
              pitch, roll,
              yaw, heave,
              sway, and
              surge).
             An SOC is
              required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d........  The simulator      X    X    X    X
              must provide
              for the
              recording of
              the motion
              system response
              time.
             An SOC is
              required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e........  The simulator           X    X    X
              must provide
              motion effects
              programming to
              include:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
             (1) Thrust
              effect with
              brakes set.
             (2) Runway
              rumble, oleo
              deflections,
              effects of
              ground speed,
              uneven runway,
              centerline
              lights, and
              taxiway
              characteristics
              .
             (3) Buffets on
              the ground due
              to spoiler/
              speedbrake
              extension and
              thrust
              reversal.
             (4) Bumps
              associated with
              the landing
              gear.
             (5 O='xl')
              Buffet during
              extension and
              retraction of
              landing gear..
             (6) Buffet in
              the air due to
              flap and
              spoiler/
              speedbrake
              extension.
             (7) Approach-to-
              Stall buffet.
             (8)
              Representative
              touchdown cues
              for main and
              nose gear.
             (9) Nosewheel
              scuffing, if
              applicable.
             (10) Mach and
              maneuver
              buffet.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.f........  The simulator                     X   The simulator should
              must provide                          be programmed and
              characteristic                        instrumented in such
              motion                                a manner that the
              vibrations that                       characteristic
              result from                           buffet modes can be
              operation of                          measured and
              the airplane if                       compared to airplane
              the vibration                         data.
              marks an event
              or airplane
              state that can
              be sensed in
              the flight deck.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Visual System.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 33]]

 
6.a........  The simulator      X    X    X    X
              must have a
              visual system
              providing an
              out-of-the-
              flight deck
              view.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b........  The simulator      X    X             Additional field-of-
              must provide a                        view capability may
              continuous                            be added at the
              collimated                            sponsor's discretion
              field-of-view                         provided the minimum
              of at least                           fields of view are
              45[deg]                               retained.
              horizontally
              and 30[deg]
              vertically per
              pilot seat or
              the number of
              degrees
              necessary to
              meet the visual
              ground segment
              requirement,
              whichever is
              greater. Both
              pilot seat
              visual systems
              must be
              operable
              simultaneously.
              The minimum
              horizontal
              field-of-view
              coverage must
              be plus and
              minus one-half
              (\1/2\) of the
              minimum
              continuous
              field-of-view
              requirement,
              centered on the
              zero degree
              azimuth line
              relative to the
              aircraft
              fuselage.
             An SOC is
              required and
              must explain
              the system
              geometry
              measurements
              including
              system
              linearity and
              field-of-view..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c........  (Reserved)......
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.d........  The simulator                X    X   The horizontal field-
              must provide a                        of-view is
              continuous                            traditionally
              collimated                            described as a
              visual field-of-                      180[deg] field-of-
              view of at                            view. However, the
              least 176[deg]                        field-of-view is
              horizontally                          technically no less
              and 36[deg]                           than 176[deg].
              vertically or                         Additional field-of-
              the number of                         view capability may
              degrees                               be added at the
              necessary to                          sponsor's discretion
              meet the visual                       provided the minimum
              ground segment                        fields-of-view are
              requirement,                          retained.
              whichever is
              greater. The
              minimum
              horizontal
              field-of-view
              coverage must
              be plus and
              minus one-half
              (\1/2\) of the
              minimum
              continuous
              field-of-view
              requirement,
              centered on the
              zero degree
              azimuth line
              relative to the
              aircraft
              fuselage.
             An SOC is
              required and
              must explain
              the system
              geometry
              measurements
              including
              system
              linearity and
              field-of-view..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.e........  The visual         X    X    X    X   Non-realistic cues
              system must be                        might include image
              free from                             ``swimming'' and
              optical                               image ``roll-off,''
              discontinuities                       that may lead a
              and artifacts                         pilot to make
              that create non-                      incorrect
              realistic cues.                       assessments of
                                                    speed, acceleration,
                                                    or situational
                                                    awareness.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.f........  The simulator      X    X    X    X
              must have
              operational
              landing lights
              for night
              scenes. Where
              used, dusk (or
              twilight)
              scenes require
              operational
              landing lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.g........  The simulator      X    X    X    X
              must have
              instructor
              controls for
              the following:
             (1) Visibility
              in statute
              miles (km) and
              runway visual
              range (RVR) in
              ft. (m)..
             (2) Airport
              selection..
             (3) Airport
              lighting..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.h........  The simulator      X    X    X    X
              must provide
              visual system
              compatibility
              with dynamic
              response
              programming.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 34]]

 
6.i........  The simulator      X    X    X    X   This will show the
              must show that                        modeling accuracy of
              the segment of                        RVR, glideslope, and
              the ground                            localizer for a
              visible from                          given weight,
              the simulator                         configuration, and
              flight deck is                        speed within the
              the same as                           airplane's
              from the                              operational envelope
              airplane flight                       for a normal
              deck (within                          approach and
              established                           landing.
              tolerances)
              when at the
              correct
              airspeed, in
              the landing
              configuration,
              at the
              appropriate
              height above
              the touchdown
              zone, and with
              appropriate
              visibility.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.j........  The simulator           X    X    X
              must provide
              visual cues
              necessary to
              assess sink
              rates (provide
              depth
              perception)
              during takeoffs
              and landings,
              to include:
             (1) Surface on
              runways,
              taxiways, and
              ramps..
             (2) Terrain
              features..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.k........  The simulator      X    X    X    X   Visual attitude vs.
              must provide                          simulator attitude
              for accurate                          is a comparison of
              portrayal of                          pitch and roll of
              the visual                            the horizon as
              environment                           displayed in the
              relating to the                       visual scene
              simulator                             compared to the
              attitude.                             display on the
                                                    attitude indicator.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.l........  The simulator                X    X
              must provide
              for quick
              confirmation of
              visual system
              color, RVR,
              focus, and
              intensity.
             An SOC is
              required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.m........  The simulator                X    X
              must be capable
              of producing at
              least 10 levels
              of occulting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.n........  Night Visual       X    X    X    X
              Scenes. When
              used in
              training,
              testing, or
              checking
              activities, the
              simulator must
              provide night
              visual scenes
              with sufficient
              scene content
              to recognize
              the airport,
              the terrain,
              and major
              landmarks
              around the
              airport. The
              scene content
              must allow a
              pilot to
              successfully
              accomplish a
              visual landing.
              Scenes must
              include a
              definable
              horizon and
              typical terrain
              characteristics
              such as fields,
              roads and
              bodies of water
              and surfaces
              illuminated by
              airplane
              landing lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 35]]

 
6.o........  Dusk (or                     X    X
              Twilight)
              Visual Scenes.
              When used in
              training,
              testing, or
              checking
              activities, the
              simulator must
              provide dusk
              (or twilight)
              visual scenes
              with sufficient
              scene content
              to recognize
              the airport,
              the terrain,
              and major
              landmarks
              around the
              airport. The
              scene content
              must allow a
              pilot to
              successfully
              accomplish a
              visual landing.
              Dusk (or
              twilight)
              scenes, as a
              minimum, must
              provide full
              color
              presentations
              of reduced
              ambient
              intensity,
              sufficient
              surfaces with
              appropriate
              textural cues
              that include
              self-
              illuminated
              objects such as
              road networks,
              ramp lighting
              and airport
              signage, to
              conduct a
              visual
              approach,
              landing and
              airport
              movement
              (taxi). Scenes
              must include a
              definable
              horizon and
              typical terrain
              characteristics
              such as fields,
              roads and
              bodies of water
              and surfaces
              illuminated by
              airplane
              landing lights.
              If provided,
              directional
              horizon
              lighting must
              have correct
              orientation and
              be consistent
              with surface
              shading
              effects. Total
              night or dusk
              (twilight)
              scene content
              must be
              comparable in
              detail to that
              produced by
              10,000 visible
              textured
              surfaces and
              15,000 visible
              lights with
              sufficient
              system capacity
              to display 16
              simultaneously
              moving objects.
             An SOC is
              required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.p........  Daylight Visual              X    X
              Scenes. The
              simulator must
              provide
              daylight visual
              scenes with
              sufficient
              scene content
              to recognize
              the airport,
              the terrain,
              and major
              landmarks
              around the
              airport. The
              scene content
              must allow a
              pilot to
              successfully
              accomplish a
              visual landing.
              Any ambient
              lighting must
              not ``washout''
              the displayed
              visual scene.
              Total daylight
              scene content
              must be
              comparable in
              detail to that
              produced by
              10,000 visible
              textured
              surfaces and
              6,000 visible
              lights with
              sufficient
              system capacity
              to display 16
              simultaneously
              moving objects.
              The visual
              display must be
              free of
              apparent and
              distracting
              quantization
              and other
              distracting
              visual effects
              while the
              simulator is in
              motion.
             An SOC is
              required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.q........  The simulator                X    X   For example: short
              must provide                          runways, landing
              operational                           approaches over
              visual scenes                         water, uphill or
              that portray                          downhill runways,
              physical                              rising terrain on
              relationships                         the approach path,
              known to cause                        unique topographic
              landing                               features.
              illusions to
              pilots.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 36]]

 
6.r........  The simulator                X    X
              must provide
              special weather
              representations
              of light,
              medium, and
              heavy
              precipitation
              near a
              thunderstorm on
              takeoff and
              during approach
              and landing.
              Representations
              need only be
              presented at
              and below an
              altitude of
              2,000 ft. (610
              m) above the
              airport surface
              and within 10
              miles (16 km)
              of the airport.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.s........  The simulator                X    X
              must present
              visual scenes
              of wet and snow-
              covered
              runways,
              including
              runway lighting
              reflections for
              wet conditions,
              partially
              obscured lights
              for snow
              conditions, or
              suitable
              alternative
              effects.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.t........  The simulator                X    X
              must present
              realistic color
              and
              directionality
              of all airport
              lighting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Sound System.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a........  The simulator      X    X    X    X
              must provide
              flight deck
              sounds that
              result from
              pilot actions
              that correspond
              to those that
              occur in the
              airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b........  The volume         X    X    X    X
              control must
              have an
              indication of
              sound level
              setting which
              meets all
              qualification
              requirements..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c........  The simulator                X    X
              must accurately
              simulate the
              sound of
              precipitation,
              windshield
              wipers, and
              other
              significant
              airplane noises
              perceptible to
              the pilot
              during normal
              and abnormal
              operations, and
              include the
              sound of a
              crash (when the
              simulator is
              landed in an
              unusual
              attitude or in
              excess of the
              structural gear
              limitations);
              normal engine
              and thrust
              reversal
              sounds; and the
              sounds of flap,
              gear, and
              spoiler
              extension and
              retraction.
             An SOC is
              required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d........  The simulator                     X
              must provide
              realistic
              amplitude and
              frequency of
              flight deck
              noises and
              sounds.
              Simulator
              performance
              must be
              recorded,
              compared to
              amplitude and
              frequency of
              the same sounds
              recorded in the
              airplane, and
              be made a part
              of the QTG.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


              Table A1B--Table of Tasks vs. Simulator Level
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   QPS requirements                        Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   Subjective        Simulator levels
                requirements  In   --------------------
             order to be qualified
                at the simulator
              qualification level
                 indicated, the
 Entry No.     simulator must be                              Notes
               able to perform at    A    B    C    D
                least the tasks
              associated with that
                    level of
                 qualification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a........  Preflight Inspection    X    X    X    X
              (flight deck only).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b........  Engine Start.........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 37]]

 
1.c........  Taxiing..............        R    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d........  Pre-takeoff Checks...   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Takeoff and Departure Phase
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a........  Normal and Crosswind         R    X    X
              Takeoff
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b........  Instrument Takeoff...   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c........  Engine Failure During   A    X    X    X
              Takeoff.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d........  Rejected Takeoff.....   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e........  Departure Procedure..   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Inflight Maneuvers
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a........  Steep Turns..........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b........  Approaches to Stalls.   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c........  Engine Failure--        X    X    X    X
              Multiengine Airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d........  Engine Failure--        X    X    X    X
              Single-Engine
              Airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e........  Specific Flight         A    A    A    A
              Characteristics
              incorporated into
              the user's FAA
              approved flight
              training program.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.f........  Recovery From Unusual   X    X    X    X   Within the
              Attitudes.                                 normal flight
                                                         envelope
                                                         supported by
                                                         applicable
                                                         simulation
                                                         validation
                                                         data.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Instrument Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a........  Standard Terminal       X    X    X    X
              Arrival/Flight
              Management System
              Arrivals Procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b........  Holding..............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c........  Precision Instrument.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1......  All Engines Operating   X    X    X    X   e.g., Autopilot,
                                                         Manual (Flt.
                                                         Dir. Assisted),
                                                         Manual (Raw
                                                         Data).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2......  One Engine              X    X    X    X   e.g., Manual
              Inoperative.                               (Flt. Dir.
                                                         Assisted),
                                                         Manual (Raw
                                                         Data).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d........  Non-Precision           X    X    X    X   e.g., NDB, VOR,
              Instrument Approach.                       VOR/DME, VOR/
                                                         TAC, RNAV, LOC,
                                                         LOC/BC, ADF,
                                                         and SDF.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e........  Circling Approach....   X    X    X    X   Specific
                                                         authorization
                                                         required.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f........  Missed Approach......
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.1......  Normal...............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.2......  One Engine              X    X    X    X
              Inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Landings and Approaches to Landings
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a........  Normal and Crosswind         R    X    X
              Approaches and
              Landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b........  Landing From a               R    X    X
              Precision/Non-
              Precision Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 38]]

 
5.c........  Approach and Landing   ...   R    X    X
              with (Simulated)
              Engine Failure--
              Multiengine Airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d........  Landing From Circling        R    X    X
              Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e........  Rejected Landing.....   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.f........  Landing From a No            R    X    X
              Flap or a
              Nonstandard Flap
              Configuration
              Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Normal and Abnormal Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a........  Engine (including       X    X    X    X
              shutdown and
              restart).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b........  Fuel System..........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c........  Electrical System....   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.d........  Hydraulic System.....   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.e........  Environmental and       X    X    X    X
              Pressurization
              Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.f........  Fire Detection and      X    X    X    X
              Extinguisher Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.g........  Navigation and          X    X    X    X
              Avionics Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.h........  Automatic Flight        X    X    X    X
              Control System,
              Electronic Flight
              Instrument System,
              and Related
              Subsystems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.i........  Flight Control          X    X    X    X
              Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.j........  Anti-ice and Deice      X    X    X    X
              Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.k........  Aircraft and Personal   X    X    X    X
              Emergency Equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Emergency Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a........  Emergency Descent       X    X    X    X
              (Max. Rate).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b........  Inflight Fire and       X    X    X    X
              Smoke Removal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c........  Rapid Decompression..   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d........  Emergency Evacuation.   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. Postflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a........  After-Landing           X    X    X    X
              Procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b........  Parking and Securing.   X    X    X   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
``A''--indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if
  the appropriate aircraft system or control is simulated in the FSTD
  and is working properly.
``R''--indicates that the simulator may be qualified for this task for
  continuing qualification training.
``X''--indicates that the simulator must be able to perform this task
  for this level of qualification.


               Table A1C--Table of Simulator System Tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   QPS requirements                        Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   Subjective        Simulator levels
                requirements  In   --------------------
             order to be qualified
                at the simulator
              qualification level
                 indicated, the
 Entry No.     simulator must be                              Notes
               able to perform at    A    B    C    D
                least the tasks
              associated with that
                    level of
                 qualification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a........  Power switch(es).....   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 39]]

 
1.b........  Airplane conditions..   X    X    X    X   e.g., GW, CG,
                                                         Fuel loading
                                                         and Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c........  Airports/Runways.....   X    X    X    X   e.g., Selection,
                                                         Surface,
                                                         Presets,
                                                         Lighting
                                                         controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d........  Environmental           X    X    X    X   e.g., Clouds,
              controls.                                  Visibility,
                                                         RVR, Temp,
                                                         Wind, Ice,
                                                         Snow, Rain, and
                                                         Windshear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e........  Airplane system         X    X    X    X
              malfunctions
              (Insertion/deletion).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f........  Locks, Freezes, and     X    X    X    X
              Repositioning.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Sound Controls
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a........  On/off/adjustment....   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Motion/Control Loading System
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a........  On/off/emergency stop   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Observer Seats/Stations
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a........  Position/Adjustment/    X    X    X    X
              Positive restraint
              system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

       Attachment 2 to Appendix A to Part 60--FFS Objective Tests

                            Table of Contents
------------------------------------------------------------------------
           Paragraph No.                            Title
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.................................  Introduction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.................................  Test Requirements.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                    Table A2A, Objective Tests.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.................................  General.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.................................  Control Dynamics.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.................................  Ground Effect.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.................................  Motion System.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.................................  Sound System.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.................................  Additional Information About Flight
                                     Simulator Qualification for New or
                                     Derivative Airplanes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.................................  Engineering Simulator--Validation
                                     Data.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10................................  [Reserved]
------------------------------------------------------------------------
11................................  Validation Test Tolerances.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
12................................  Validation Data Roadmap.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
13................................  Acceptance Guidelines for
                                     Alternative Engines Data.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
14................................  Acceptance Guidelines for
                                     Alternative Avionics (Flight-
                                     Related Computers and Controllers).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
15................................  Transport Delay Testing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
16................................  Continuing Qualification
                                     Evaluations--Validation Test Data
                                     Presentation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
17................................  Alternative Data Sources,
                                     Procedures, and Instrumentation:
                                     Level A and Level B Simulators
                                     Only.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                             1. Introduction

    a. For the purposes of this attachment, the flight conditions 
specified in the Flight Conditions Column of Table A2A of this appendix, 
are defined as follows:
    (1) Ground--on ground, independent of airplane configuration;
    (2) Take-off--gear down with flaps/slats in any certified takeoff 
position;
    (3) First segment climb--gear down with flaps/slats in any certified 
takeoff position (normally not above 50 ft AGL);
    (4) Second segment climb--gear up with flaps/slats in any certified 
takeoff position (normally between 50 ft and 400 ft AGL);
    (5) Clean--flaps/slats retracted and gear up;

[[Page 40]]

    (6) Cruise--clean configuration at cruise altitude and airspeed;
    (7) Approach--gear up or down with flaps/slats at any normal 
approach position as recommended by the airplane manufacturer; and
    (8) Landing--gear down with flaps/slats in any certified landing 
position.
    b. The format for numbering the objective tests in Appendix A, 
Attachment 2, Table A2A, and the objective tests in Appendix B, 
Attachment 2, Table B2A, is identical. However, each test required for 
FFSs is not necessarily required for FTDs. Also, each test required for 
FTDs is not necessarily required for FFSs. Therefore, when a test number 
(or series of numbers) is not required, the term ``Reserved'' is used in 
the table at that location. Following this numbering format provides a 
degree of commonality between the two tables and substantially reduces 
the potential for confusion when referring to objective test numbers for 
either FFSs or FTDs.
    c. The reader is encouraged to review the Airplane Flight Simulator 
Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal 
Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test 
Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-8, as 
amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, for 
references and examples regarding flight testing requirements and 
techniques.
    d. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind 
vector should be clearly noted as part of the data presentation, 
expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the runway being 
used for the test.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                          2. Test Requirements

    a. The ground and flight tests required for qualification are listed 
in Table A2A, FFS Objective Tests. Computer generated simulator test 
results must be provided for each test except where an alternative test 
is specifically authorized by the NSPM. If a flight condition or 
operating condition is required for the test but does not apply to the 
airplane being simulated or to the qualification level sought, it may be 
disregarded (e.g., an engine out missed approach for a single-engine 
airplane or a maneuver using reverse thrust for an airplane without 
reverse thrust capability). Each test result is compared against the 
validation data described in Sec. 60.13 and in this appendix. Although 
use of a driver program designed to automatically accomplish the tests 
is encouraged for all simulators and required for Level C and Level D 
simulators, it must be possible to conduct each test manually while 
recording all appropriate parameters. The results must be produced on an 
appropriate recording device acceptable to the NSPM and must include 
simulator number, date, time, conditions, tolerances, and appropriate 
dependent variables portrayed in comparison to the validation data. Time 
histories are required unless otherwise indicated in Table A2A. All 
results must be labeled using the tolerances and units given.
    b. Table A2A in this attachment sets out the test results required, 
including the parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions for 
simulator validation. Tolerances are provided for the listed tests 
because mathematical modeling and acquisition and development of 
reference data are often inexact. All tolerances listed in the following 
tables are applied to simulator performance. When two tolerance values 
are given for a parameter, the less restrictive may be used unless 
otherwise indicated. In those cases where a tolerance is expressed only 
as a percentage, the tolerance percentage applies to the maximum value 
of that parameter within its normal operating range as measured from the 
neutral or zero position unless otherwise indicated.
    c. Certain tests included in this attachment must be supported with 
an SOC. In Table A2A, requirements for SOCs are indicated in the ``Test 
Details'' column.
    d. When operational or engineering judgment is used in making 
assessments for flight test data applications for simulator validity, 
such judgment must not be limited to a single parameter. For example, 
data that exhibit rapid variations of the measured parameters may 
require interpolations or a ``best fit'' data selection. All relevant 
parameters related to a given maneuver or flight condition must be 
provided to allow overall interpretation. When it is difficult or 
impossible to match simulator to airplane data throughout a time 
history, differences must be justified by providing a comparison of 
other related variables for the condition being assessed.
    e. It is not acceptable to program the FFS so that the mathematical 
modeling is correct only at the validation test points. Unless otherwise 
noted, simulator tests must represent airplane performance and handling 
qualities at operating weights and centers of gravity (CG) typical of 
normal operation. If a test is supported by airplane data at one extreme 
weight or CG, another test supported by airplane data at mid-conditions 
or as close as possible to the other extreme must be included. Certain 
tests that are relevant only at one extreme CG or weight condition need 
not be repeated at the other extreme. Tests of handling qualities must 
include validation of augmentation devices.
    f. When comparing the parameters listed to those of the airplane, 
sufficient data must also be provided to verify the correct flight 
condition and airplane configuration

[[Page 41]]

changes. For example, to show that control force is within the 
parameters for a static stability test, data to show the correct 
airspeed, power, thrust or torque, airplane configuration, altitude, and 
other appropriate datum identification parameters must also be given. If 
comparing short period dynamics, normal acceleration may be used to 
establish a match to the airplane, but airspeed, altitude, control 
input, airplane configuration, and other appropriate data must also be 
given. If comparing landing gear change dynamics, pitch, airspeed, and 
altitude may be used to establish a match to the airplane, but landing 
gear position must also be provided. All airspeed values must be 
properly annotated (e.g., indicated versus calibrated). In addition, the 
same variables must be used for comparison (e.g., compare inches to 
inches rather than inches to centimeters).
    g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must clearly describe how the 
simulator will be set up and operated for each test. Each simulator 
subsystem may be tested independently, but overall integrated testing of 
the simulator must be accomplished to assure that the total simulator 
system meets the prescribed standards. A manual test procedure with 
explicit and detailed steps for completing each test must also be 
provided.
    h. For previously qualified simulators, the tests and tolerances of 
this attachment may be used in subsequent continuing qualification 
evaluations for any given test if the sponsor has submitted a proposed 
MQTG revision to the NSPM and has received NSPM approval.
    i. Simulators are evaluated and qualified with an engine model 
simulating the airplane data supplier's flight test engine. For 
qualification of alternative engine models (either variations of the 
flight test engines or other manufacturer's engines) additional tests 
with the alternative engine models may be required. This attachment 
contains guidelines for alternative engines.
    j. For testing Computer Controlled Aircraft (CCA) simulators, or 
other highly augmented airplane simulators, flight test data is required 
for the Normal (N) and/or Non-normal (NN) control states, as indicated 
in this attachment. Where test results are independent of control state, 
Normal or Non-normal control data may be used. All tests in Table A2A 
require test results in the Normal control state unless specifically 
noted otherwise in the Test Details section following the CCA 
designation. The NSPM will determine what tests are appropriate for 
airplane simulation data. When making this determination, the NSPM may 
require other levels of control state degradation for specific airplane 
tests. Where Non-normal control states are required, test data must be 
provided for one or more Non-normal control states, and must include the 
least augmented state. Where applicable, flight test data must record 
Normal and Non-normal states for:
    (1) Pilot controller deflections or electronically generated inputs, 
including location of input; and
    (2) Flight control surface positions unless test results are not 
affected by, or are independent of, surface positions.
    k. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of 
augmentation devices. FFSs for highly augmented airplanes will be 
validated both in the unaugmented configuration (or failure state with 
the maximum permitted degradation in handling qualities) and the 
augmented configuration. Where various levels of handling qualities 
result from failure states, validation of the effect of the failure is 
necessary. Requirements for testing will be mutually agreed to between 
the sponsor and the NSPM on a case-by-case basis.
    l. Some tests will not be required for airplanes using airplane 
hardware in the simulator flight deck (e.g., ``side stick controller''). 
These exceptions are noted in Section 2 ``Handling Qualities'' in Table 
A2A of this attachment. However, in these cases, the sponsor must 
provide a statement that the airplane hardware meets the appropriate 
manufacturer's specifications and the sponsor must have supporting 
information to that fact available for NSPM review.
    m. For objective test purposes, see Appendix F of this part for the 
definitions of ``Near maximum,'' ``Light,'' and ``Medium'' gross weight.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    n. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a 
``snapshot test'' or a ``series of snapshot tests'' results in lieu of a 
time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that 
a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the 
``snapshot.'' The steady state condition should exist from 4 seconds 
prior to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by 
the snap shot.
    o. For references on basic operating weight, see AC 120-27, 
``Aircraft Weight and Balance;'' and FAA-H-8083-1, ``Aircraft Weight and 
Balance Handbook.''

                             End Information



[[Page 42]]

________________________________________________________________________

                                                 Table A2A--Full Flight Simulator (FFS) Objective Tests
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                         QPS Requirements                                                                Information
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  Test                                                                                            Simulator level
-----------------------------------------       Tolerance          Flight conditions         Test details      --------------------         Notes
    Entry No.              Title                                                                                 A    B    C    D
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Performance.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a..............  Taxi.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1............  Minimum Radius Turn..  3 ft (0.9m) or                             Nose gear turning
                                           20% of airplane turn                          radius. This test is
                                           radius.                                       to be accomplished
                                                                                         without the use of
                                                                                         brakes and only
                                                                                         minimum thrust,
                                                                                         except for airplanes
                                                                                         requiring asymmetric
                                                                                         thrust or braking to
                                                                                         turn.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.2............  Rate of Turn vs.       10% or 2[de                          than minimum turning
                                           g]/sec. turn rate.                            radius speed, with a
                                                                                         spread of at least 5
                                                                                         knots groundspeed, in
                                                                                         normal taxi speed
                                                                                         conditions.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b..............  Takeoff.                                                             All commonly used
                                                                                         takeoff flap settings
                                                                                         are to be
                                                                                         demonstrated at least
                                                                                         once in the tests for
                                                                                         minimum unstick
                                                                                         (1.b.3.), normal
                                                                                         takeoff (1.b.4.),
                                                                                         critical engine
                                                                                         failure on takeoff
                                                                                         (1.b.5.), or
                                                                                         crosswind takeoff
                                                                                         (1.b.6.).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 43]]

 
1.b.1............  Ground Acceleration    5% time and                                time and distance for                       normal takeoff
                                           distance or 5%                            the time from brake                         rejected takeoff
                                           time and 200                          Preliminary aircraft                         data should be
                                           ft (61 m) of                                  certification data                          shown using
                                           distance.                                     may be used..                               appropriate scales
                                                                                                                                     for each portion of
                                                                                                                                     the maneuver.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2............  Minimum Control Speed- 25% of maximum                             must be within 1                           acceptable
                    only (per applicable   deviation or 5 ft                          engine failure speed.                       flight test snap
                    standard) or           (1.5 m).                                      Engine thrust decay                         engine deceleration
                    alternative low        Additionally, for                             must be that                                to idle at a speed
                    speed engine           those simulators of                           resulting from the                          between V1 and V1 -
                    inoperative test to    airplanes with                                mathematical model                          10 knots, followed
                    demonstrate ground     reversible flight                             for the engine                              by control of
                    control                control systems:                              variant applicable to                       heading using
                    characteristics.       Rudder pedal force;                           the FFS under test.                         aerodynamic control
                                           10% or 5 lb                          the airplane                                with the main gear
                                           (2.2 daN).                                    manufacturer's flight                       on the ground. To
                                                                                         test engine, a                              ensure only
                                                                                         further test may be                         aerodynamic control
                                                                                         run with the same                           is used, nosewheel
                                                                                         initial conditions                          steering should be
                                                                                         using the thrust from                       disabled (i.e.,
                                                                                         the flight test data                        castored) or the
                                                                                         as the driving                              nosewheel held
                                                                                         parameter.                                  slightly off the
                                                                                                                                     ground.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 44]]

 
1.b.3............  Minimum Unstick Speed  3 kts airspeed                             gear strut                                  the minimum speed
                    test to demonstrate    1.5[deg] pitch                             equivalent air/ground                       main landing gear
                    takeoff                angle.                                        signal. Record from                         leaves the ground.
                    characteristics.                                                     10 kt before start of                       Main landing gear
                                                                                         rotation until at                           strut compression
                                                                                         least 5 seconds after                       or equivalent air/
                                                                                         the occurrence of                           ground signal
                                                                                         main gear lift-off.                         should be recorded.
                                                                                                                                     If a Vmu test is
                                                                                                                                     not available,
                                                                                                                                     alternative
                                                                                                                                     acceptable flight
                                                                                                                                     tests are a
                                                                                                                                     constant high-
                                                                                                                                     attitude take-off
                                                                                                                                     run through main
                                                                                                                                     gear lift-off or an
                                                                                                                                     early rotation take-
                                                                                                                                     off.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 45]]

 
1.b.4............  Normal Takeoff.......  3 kts airspeed                             from brake release to                       used for ground
                                           1.5[deg] pitch                             m) above ground level                       and distance
                                           angle 1.5[deg]                               airplane has more                           data should be
                                           angle of attack                               than one certificated                       shown using
                                           20 ft (6 m)                                configurations, a                           for each portion of
                                           height.                                       different                                   the maneuver.
                                           Additionally, for                             configuration must be
                                           those simulators of                           used for each weight.
                                           airplanes with                                Data are required for
                                           reversible flight                             a takeoff weight at
                                           control systems:                              near maximum takeoff
                                           Stick/Column Force;                           weight with a mid-
                                           10% or 5 lb                          weight with an aft
                                           (2.2 daN).                                    center of gravity, as
                                                                                         defined in Appendix F
                                                                                         of this part.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.5............  Critical Engine        3 kts airspeed                             at near maximum
                                           1.5[deg] pitch                             prior to engine
                                           angle, 1.5[                          200 ft (61 m) AGL.
                                           deg] angle of                                 Engine failure speed
                                           attack, 20                            minus3 kts
                                           ft (6 m) height,                              of airplane data.
                                           3[deg] heading
                                           angle, 2[de
                                           g] bank angle, 2[de
                                           g] sideslip angle.
                                           Additionally, for
                                           those simulators of
                                           airplanes with
                                           reversible flight
                                           control systems:
                                           Stick/Column Force;
                                           10% or 5 lb
                                           (2.2 daN)); Wheel
                                           Force; 10%
                                           or 3 lb (1.3
                                           daN); and Rudder
                                           Pedal Force; 10%
                                           or 5 lb (2.2
                                           daN).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 46]]

 
1.b.6............  Crosswind Takeoff....  3 kts airspeed,                            from brake release to                       where a maximum
                                           1.5[deg] pitch                             m) AGL. Requires test                       maximum
                                           angle, 1.5[                          information on wind                         crosswind is not
                                           deg] angle of                                 profile for a                               known, contact the
                                           attack, 20                            as direct head-wind
                                           ft (6 m) height,                              and direct cross-wind
                                           2[deg] bank                                least 60% of the
                                           angle, 2[de                          at 33 ft (10 m) above
                                           g] sideslip angle;                            the runway.
                                           3[deg] heading
                                           angle. Correct trend
                                           at groundspeeds
                                           below 40 kts. for
                                           rudder/pedal and
                                           heading.
                                           Additionally, for
                                           those simulators of
                                           airplanes with
                                           reversible flight
                                           control systems:
                                           10% or 5 lb
                                           (2.2 daN) stick/
                                           column force, 10%
                                           or 3 lb (1.3
                                           daN) wheel force,
                                           10% or 5 lb
                                           (2.2 daN) rudder
                                           pedal force.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.7............  Rejected Takeoff.....  5% time or 1.5                           release to full stop.                       applicable.
                                           sec 7.5% distance                          of the reject must be
                                           or 250 ft (76                            must be at or near
                                           m).                                           the maximum takeoff
                                                                                         gross weight. Use
                                                                                         maximum braking
                                                                                         effort, auto or
                                                                                         manual.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 47]]

 
1.b.8............  Dynamic Engine         20% or 2[de                          minus3 Kts                       airplane flight
                                           g]/sec body angular                           of airplane data.                           test may be
                                           rates.                                        Record Hands Off from                       performed out of
                                                                                         5 secs. before to at                        ground effect at a
                                                                                         least 5 secs. after                         safe altitude, but
                                                                                         engine failure or                           with correct
                                                                                         30[deg] Bank,                               airplane
                                                                                         whichever occurs                            configuration and
                                                                                         first. Engine failure                       airspeed.
                                                                                         may be a snap
                                                                                         deceleration to idle.
                                                                                         CCA: Test in Normal
                                                                                         and Non-normal
                                                                                         control state.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c..............  Climb.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.1............  Normal Climb, all      3 kts airspeed,                            preferred, however,
                                           5% or 100                           acceptable
                                           FPM (0.5 m/Sec.)                              alternative. Record
                                           climb rate.                                   at nominal climb
                                                                                         speed and mid-initial
                                                                                         climb altitude.
                                                                                         Flight simulator
                                                                                         performance must be
                                                                                         recorded over an
                                                                                         interval of at least
                                                                                         1,000 ft. (300 m).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.2............  One engine             3 kts airspeed,     airplanes, in          preferred, however,
                                           5% or 100    airplanes, Second      acceptable
                                           FPM (0.5 m/Sec.)       Segment Climb.         alternative. Test at
                                           climb rate, but not                           weight, altitude, or
                                           less than the climb                           temperature limiting
                                           gradient                                      conditions. Record at
                                           requirements of 14                            nominal climb speed.
                                           CFR part 23 or part                           Flight simulator
                                           25, as appropriate.                           performance must be
                                                                                         recorded over an
                                                                                         interval of at least
                                                                                         1,000 ft. (300 m).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.3............  One Engine             10% time, 10%                           m) climb segment.
                                           distance, 10%                           airplane performance
                                           fuel used.                                    manual data may be
                                                                                         used.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 48]]

 
1.c.4............  One Engine             3 kts airspeed,                            maximum gross landing                       be configured with
                    Climb (if operations   5% or 100                           part. Flight test                           operating normally,
                                           FPM (0.5 m/Sec.)                              data or airplane                            with the gear up
                                           climb rate, but not                           performance manual                          and go-around flaps
                                           less than the climb                           data may be used.                           set. All icing
                                           gradient                                      Flight simulator                            accountability
                                           requirements of 14                            performance must be                         considerations
                                           CFR parts 23 or 25                            recorded over an                            should be applied
                                           climb gradient, as                            interval of at least                        in accordance with
                                           appropriate.                                  1,000 ft. (300 m).                          the aircraft
                                                                                                                                     certification or
                                                                                                                                     authorization for
                                                                                                                                     an approach in
                                                                                                                                     icing conditions.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d..............  Cruise/Descent.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.1............  Level flight           5% Time.                                   minimum of 50 kts
                                                                                         speed increase using
                                                                                         maximum continuous
                                                                                         thrust rating or
                                                                                         equivalent.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.2............  Level flight           5% Time.                                   minimum of 50 kts.
                                                                                         speed decrease using
                                                                                         idle power.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 49]]

 
1.d.3............  Cruise performance...  0.05 EPR or 5%                            instantaneous fuel
                                           of N1, or 5% of Torque,                           2 consecutive
                                           5% of                             snapshots with a
                                           fuel flow.                                    spread of at least 3
                                                                                         minutes in steady
                                                                                         flight.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.4............  Idle descent.........  3 kt airspeed,                             idle power descent at
                                           5% or 200                           Flight simulator
                                           ft/min (1.0m/sec)                             performance must be
                                           descent rate.                                 recorded over an
                                                                                         interval of at least
                                                                                         1,000 ft. (300 m).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.5............  Emergency descent....  5 kt airspeed,                             recorded over an                            descent should be
                                           5% or 300                                                                       extended, if
                                           ft/min (1.5m/s)                                                                           applicable, at mid-
                                           descent rate.                                                                             altitude and near
                                                                                                                                     Vmo speed or in
                                                                                                                                     accordance with
                                                                                                                                     emergency descent
                                                                                                                                     procedures.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e..............  Stopping.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e.1............  Stopping time and      5% of time. For                            distance for at least
                    manual application     distance up to 4000                           80% of the total time
                    of wheel brakes and    ft (1220 m): 200                           full stop. Data is
                    a dry runway.          ft (61 m) or 10%,                          at medium and near
                                           whichever is                                  maximum landing
                                           smaller. For                                  weights. Data for
                                           distance greater                              brake system pressure
                                           than 4000 ft (1220                            and position of
                                           m): 5% of                                  (including method of
                                           distance.                                     deployment, if used)
                                                                                         must be provided.
                                                                                         Engineering data may
                                                                                         be used for the
                                                                                         medium gross weight
                                                                                         condition.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 50]]

 
1.e.2............  Stopping time and      5% time and the                            distance for at least
                    reverse thrust and     smaller of 10%                           from initiation of
                    dry runway.            or 200 ft (61 m)                          minimum operating
                                           of distance.                                  speed with full
                                                                                         reverse thrust. Data
                                                                                         is required for
                                                                                         medium and near
                                                                                         maximum landing gross
                                                                                         weights. Data on the
                                                                                         position of ground
                                                                                         spoilers, (including
                                                                                         method of deployment,
                                                                                         if used) must be
                                                                                         provided. Engineering
                                                                                         data may be used for
                                                                                         the medium gross
                                                                                         weight condition.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e.3............  Stopping distance,     10% of distance                            data or
                    and no reverse         or 200 ft (61 m).                         performance manual
                    runway.                                                              data must be used
                                                                                         where available.
                                                                                         Engineering data
                                                                                         based on dry runway
                                                                                         flight test stopping
                                                                                         distance modified by
                                                                                         the effects of
                                                                                         contaminated runway
                                                                                         braking coefficients
                                                                                         are an acceptable
                                                                                         alternative.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e.4............  Stopping distance,     10% of distance                            manufacturer's
                    and no reverse         or 200 ft (61 m).                         data must be used,
                    runway.                                                              where available.
                                                                                         Engineering data
                                                                                         based on dry runway
                                                                                         flight test stopping
                                                                                         distance modified by
                                                                                         the effects of
                                                                                         contaminated runway
                                                                                         braking coefficients
                                                                                         are an acceptable
                                                                                         alternative.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f..............  Engines.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 51]]

 
1.f.1............  Acceleration.........  (10% Tt) and                                (N1, N2, EPR, Torque)                       this part for
                                           (10% Ti,                          from flight idle to                         definitions of Ti
                                           or 0.25                           go-around power for a                       and Tt.
                                           sec.).                                        rapid (slam) throttle
                                                                                         movement.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.2............  Deceleration.........  (10% Tt) and                                (N1, N2, EPR, Torque)                       this part for
                                           (10% Ti,                          from Max T/O power to                       definitions of Ti
                                           or 0.25                           90% decay of Max T/O                        and Tt.
                                           sec.).                                        power for a rapid
                                                                                         (slam) throttle
                                                                                         movement.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Handling Qualities.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   For simulators requiring Static or Dynamic tests at the controls (i.e., column, wheel,                           Contact the NSPM for
                    rudder pedal), special test fixtures will not be required during initial or upgrade                              clarification of
                    evaluations if the sponsor's QTG/MQTG shows both test fixture results and the results of                         any issue regarding
                    an alternative approach, such as computer plots produced concurrently, that provide                              airplanes with
                    satisfactory agreement. Repeat of the alternative method during the initial or upgrade                           reversible
                    evaluation satisfies this test requirement. For initial and upgrade evaluations, the                             controls.
                    control dynamic characteristics must be measured at and recorded directly from the flight
                    deck controls, and must be accomplished in takeoff, cruise, and landing flight conditions
                    and configurations. Testing of position versus force is not applicable if forces are
                    generated solely by use of airplane hardware in the FFS.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a..............  Static Control Tests.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1.a..........  Pitch Controller       2 lb (0.9 daN)                             uninterrupted control                       be validated (where
                    and Surface Position   breakout, 10%                                                                       flight data from
                                           or 5 lb (2.2                                                                          longitudinal static
                                           daN) force, 2[de                                                                      stalls. Static and
                                           g] elevator.                                                                              dynamic flight
                                                                                                                                     control tests
                                                                                                                                     should be
                                                                                                                                     accomplished at the
                                                                                                                                     same feel or impact
                                                                                                                                     pressures.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1.b..........  (Reserved)
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 52]]

 
2.a.2.a..........  Roll Controller        2 lb (0.9 daN)                             uninterrupted control                       be validated with
                    and Surface Position   breakout, 10%                                                                       tests such as
                                           or 3 lb (1.3                                                                          or steady state
                                           daN) force, 2[de                                                                      and dynamic flight
                                           g] aileron, 3[de                                                                      should be
                                           g] spoiler angle.                                                                         accomplished at the
                                                                                                                                     same feel or impact
                                                                                                                                     pressures.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2.b..........  (Reserved)
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3.a..........  Rudder Pedal Position  5 lb (2.2 daN)                             uninterrupted control                       be validated with
                    Surface Position       breakout, 10%                                                                       tests such as
                                           or 5 lb (2.2                                                                          or steady state
                                           daN) force, 2[de                                                                      and dynamic flight
                                           g] rudder angle.                                                                          control tests
                                                                                                                                     should be
                                                                                                                                     accomplished at the
                                                                                                                                     same feel or impact
                                                                                                                                     pressures.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3.b..........  (Reserved)
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 53]]

 
2.a.4............  Nosewheel Steering     2 lb (0.9 daN)                             uninterrupted control
                    Position Calibration.  breakout, 10%
                                           or 3 lb (1.3
                                           daN) force, 2[de
                                           g] nosewheel angle.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.5............  Rudder Pedal Steering  2[deg] nosewheel                           uninterrupted control
                                           angle.                                        sweep to the stops.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.6............  Pitch Trim Indicator   0.5[deg] of                                                                            test is to compare
                    Calibration.           computed trim                                                                             FFS against design
                                           surface angle.                                                                            data or equivalent.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.7............  Pitch Trim Rate......  10% trim rate                              checked using the
                                           ([deg]/sec).                                  pilot primary trim
                                                                                         (ground) and using
                                                                                         the autopilot or
                                                                                         pilot primary trim in
                                                                                         flight at go-around
                                                                                         flight conditions.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.8............  Alignment of Flight    5[deg] of                                  recording for all
                    vs. Selected Engine    throttle lever                                engines. The
                    Parameter.             angle, or 3%                            against airplane data
                                           N1, or .03                           In the case of
                                           EPR, or 3%                            airplanes, if a
                                           maximum rated                                 propeller lever is
                                           manifold pressure,                            present, it must also
                                           or 3% torque.                             airplanes with
                                           For propeller-driven                          throttle ``detents,''
                                           airplanes where the                           all detents must be
                                           propeller control                             presented. May be a
                                           levers do not have                            series of snapshot
                                           angular travel, a                             test results.
                                           tolerance of 0.8
                                           inch (2 cm.)
                                           applies.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.9............  Brake Pedal Position   5 lb (2.2 daN) or                          pressure must be                            results may be used
                    System Pressure        10% force, 150                           position through a
                                           psi (1.0 MPa) or                              ground static test.
                                           10% brake system
                                           pressure.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b..............  Dynamic Control Tests.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 54]]

 
                   Tests 2.b.1., 2.b.2., and 2.b.3. are not applicable if dynamic response is generated solely  ...  ...  ...  ...
                    by use of airplane hardware in the FFS. Power setting is that required for level flight
                    unless otherwise specified.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 55]]

 
2.b.1............  Pitch Control........  For underdamped        Takeoff, Cruise, and   Data must show normal              X    X   ``n'' is the
                                           systems: 10%                           in both directions.                         of a full cycle of
                                           of time from 90% of                           Tolerances apply                            oscillation. Refer
                                           initial displacement                          against the absolute                        to paragraph 4 of
                                           (0.9 Ad) to first                             values of each period                       this attachment for
                                           zero crossing and                             (considered                                 more information.
                                           10                                independently).                             Static and dynamic
                                           (n+1)% of period                              Normal control                              flight control
                                           thereafter. 10% amplitude                           test is 25% to 50% of                       accomplished at the
                                           of first overshoot                            full throw or 25% to                        same feel or impact
                                           applied to all                                50% of the maximum                          pressures.
                                           overshoots greater                            allowable pitch
                                           than 5% of initial                            controller deflection
                                           displacement (.05                             for flight conditions
                                           Ad). 1                            limited by the
                                           overshoot (first                              maneuvering load
                                           significant                                   envelope.
                                           overshoot must be
                                           matched). For
                                           overdamped systems:
                                           10% of
                                           time from 90% of
                                           initial displacement
                                           (0.9 Ad) to 10% of
                                           initial displacement
                                           (0.1 Ad). For the
                                           alternate method see
                                           paragraph 4 of this
                                           attachment. The slow
                                           sweep is the
                                           equivalent to the
                                           static test 2.a.1.
                                           For the moderate and
                                           rapid sweeps: 2 lb (0.9 daN)
                                           or 10%
                                           dynamic increment
                                           above the static
                                           force.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 56]]

 
2.b.2............  Roll Control.........  For underdamped        Takeoff, Cruise, and   Data must show normal              X    X   ``n'' is the
                                           systems: 10%                           in both directions.                         of a full cycle of
                                           of time from 90% of                           Tolerance applies                           oscillation. Refer
                                           initial displacement                          against the absolute                        to paragraph 4 of
                                           (0.9 Ad) to first                             values of each period                       this attachment for
                                           zero crossing, and                            (considered                                 more information.
                                           10                                independently).                             Static and dynamic
                                           (n+1)% of period                              Normal control                              flight control
                                           thereafter. 10% amplitude                           test is 25% to 50% of                       accomplished at the
                                           of first overshoot,                           the maximum allowable                       same feel or impact
                                           applied to all                                roll controller                             pressures.
                                           overshoots greater                            deflection for flight
                                           than 5% of initial                            conditions limited by
                                           displacement (.05                             the maneuvering load
                                           Ad), 1                            envelope.
                                           overshoot (first
                                           significant
                                           overshoot must be
                                           matched). For
                                           overdamped systems:
                                           10% of
                                           time from 90% of
                                           initial displacement
                                           (0.9 Ad) to 10% of
                                           initial displacement
                                           (0.1Ad). For the
                                           alternate method see
                                           paragraph 4 of this
                                           attachment. The slow
                                           sweep is the
                                           equivalent to the
                                           static test 2.a.2.
                                           For the moderate and
                                           rapid sweeps: 2 lb (0.9 daN)
                                           or 10%
                                           dynamic increment
                                           above the static
                                           force.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 57]]

 
2.b.3............  Yaw Control..........  For underdamped        Takeoff, Cruise, and   Data must show normal              X    X   ``n'' is the
                                           systems: 10%                           in both directions.                         of a full cycle of
                                           of time from 90% of                           Tolerance applies                           oscillation. Refer
                                           initial displacement                          against the absolute                        to paragraph 4 of
                                           (0.9 Ad) to first                             values of each period                       this attachment for
                                           zero crossing, and                            (considered                                 more information.
                                           10                                independently).                             Static and dynamic
                                           (n+1)% of period                              Normal control                              flight control
                                           thereafter. 10% amplitude                           test is 25% to 50% of                       accomplished at the
                                           of first overshoot                            the maximum allowable                       same feel or impact
                                           applied to all                                yaw controller                              pressures.
                                           overshoots greater                            deflection for flight
                                           than 5% of initial                            conditions limited by
                                           displacement (.05                             the maneuvering load
                                           Ad). 1                            envelope.
                                           overshoot (first
                                           significant
                                           overshoot must be
                                           matched). For
                                           overdamped systems:
                                           10% of
                                           time from 90% of
                                           initial displacement
                                           (0.9 Ad) to 10% of
                                           initial displacement
                                           (0.1 Ad). For the
                                           alternate method
                                           (see paragraph 4 of
                                           this attachment).
                                           The slow sweep is
                                           the equivalent to
                                           the static test
                                           2.a.3. For the
                                           moderate and rapid
                                           sweeps: 2 lb (0.9 daN)
                                           or 10%
                                           dynamic increment
                                           above the static
                                           force.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 58]]

 
2.b.4............  Small Control Inputs-- 0.15[deg]/sec                              typical of minor
                                           body pitch rate or                            corrections made
                                           20% of peak body                           an ILS approach
                                           pitch rate applied                            course, using from
                                           throughout the time                           0.5[deg]/sec to
                                           history.                                      2[deg]/sec pitch
                                                                                         rate. The test must
                                                                                         be in both
                                                                                         directions, showing
                                                                                         time history data
                                                                                         from 5 seconds before
                                                                                         until at least 5
                                                                                         seconds after
                                                                                         initiation of control
                                                                                         input.
                                                                                        CCA: Test in normal
                                                                                         and non-normal
                                                                                         control states..
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.5............  Small Control Inputs-- 0.15[deg]/sec                              typical of minor
                                           body roll rate or                             corrections made
                                           20% of peak body                           an ILS approach
                                           roll rate applied                             course, using from
                                           throughout the time                           0.5[deg]/sec to
                                           history.                                      2[deg]/sec roll rate.
                                                                                         The test may be run
                                                                                         in only one
                                                                                         direction; however,
                                                                                         for airplanes that
                                                                                         exhibit non-
                                                                                         symmetrical behavior,
                                                                                         the test must include
                                                                                         both directions. Time
                                                                                         history data must be
                                                                                         recorded from 5
                                                                                         seconds before until
                                                                                         at least 5 seconds
                                                                                         after initiation of
                                                                                         control input.
                                                                                        CCA: Test in normal
                                                                                         and non-normal
                                                                                         control states..
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 59]]

 
2.b.6............  Small Control Inputs-- 0.15[deg]/sec                              typical of minor
                                           body yaw rate or                              corrections made
                                           20% of peak body                           an ILS approach
                                           yaw rate applied                              course, using from
                                           throughout the time                           0.5[deg]/sec to
                                           history.                                      2[deg]/sec yaw rate.
                                                                                         The test may be run
                                                                                         in only one
                                                                                         direction; however,
                                                                                         for airplanes that
                                                                                         exhibit non-
                                                                                         symmetrical behavior,
                                                                                         the test must include
                                                                                         both directions. Time
                                                                                         history data must be
                                                                                         recorded from 5
                                                                                         seconds before until
                                                                                         at least 5 seconds
                                                                                         after initiation of
                                                                                         control input.
                                                                                        CCA: Test in normal
                                                                                         and non-normal
                                                                                         control states..
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c..............  Longitudinal Control Tests.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   Power setting is that required for level flight unless otherwise specified.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.1............  Power Change Dynamics  3 kt airspeed,                             the thrust setting
                                           100 ft (30 m)                              or level flight to
                                           altitude, 20%                           thrust or go-around
                                           or 1.5[deg]                               the uncontrolled free
                                           pitch angle.                                  response from at
                                                                                         least 5 seconds
                                                                                         before the power
                                                                                         change is initiated
                                                                                         to 15 seconds after
                                                                                         the power change is
                                                                                         completed.
                                                                                        CCA: Test in normal
                                                                                         and non-normal
                                                                                         control states..
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.2............  Flap/Slat Change       3 kt airspeed,      initial flap           uncontrolled free
                                           100 ft (30 m)       approach to landing.   least 5 seconds
                                           altitude, 20%                           configuration change
                                           or 1.5[deg]                               seconds after the
                                           pitch angle.                                  configuration change
                                                                                         is completed.
                                                                                        CCA: Test in normal
                                                                                         and non-normal
                                                                                         control states..
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 60]]

 
2.c.3............  Spoiler/Speedbrake     3 kt airspeed,                             uncontrolled free
                                           100 ft (30 m)                              least 5 seconds
                                           altitude, 20%                           configuration change
                                           or 1.5[deg]                               seconds after the
                                           pitch angle.                                  configuration change
                                                                                         is completed. Record
                                                                                         results for both
                                                                                         extension and
                                                                                         retraction.
                                                                                        CCA: Test in normal
                                                                                         and non-normal
                                                                                         control states..
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.4............  Gear Change Dynamics.  3 kt airspeed,      and Approach           history of
                                           100 ft (30 m)                              response for a time
                                           altitude, 20%                           least 5 seconds
                                           or 1.5[deg]                               configuration change
                                           pitch angle.                                  is initiated to 15
                                                                                         seconds after the
                                                                                         configuration change
                                                                                         is completed.
                                                                                        CCA: Test in normal
                                                                                         and non-normal
                                                                                         control states..
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.5............  Longitudinal Trim....  0.5[deg] trim       Landing.               condition with wings
                                           surface angle, 1[de                          for level flight. May
                                           g] elevator, 1[de                          snapshot tests.
                                           g] pitch angle,                              CCA: Test in normal or
                                           5% net thrust or                           states..
                                           equivalent.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 61]]

 
2.c.6............  Longitudinal           5 lb (2.2                           series of snapshot
                    Force/g).              daN) or 10%                           Record results up to
                                           pitch controller                              30[deg] of bank for
                                           force. Alternative                            approach and landing
                                           method: 1[de                          Record results for up
                                           g] or 10% change of                          for the cruise
                                           elevator.                                     configuration. The
                                                                                         force tolerance is
                                                                                         not applicable if
                                                                                         forces are generated
                                                                                         solely by the use of
                                                                                         airplane hardware in
                                                                                         the FFS. The
                                                                                         alternative method
                                                                                         applies to airplanes
                                                                                         that do not exhibit
                                                                                         ``stick-force-per-g''
                                                                                         characteristics.
                                                                                        CCA: Test in normal
                                                                                         and non-normal
                                                                                         control states.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.7............  Longitudinal Static    5 lb (2.2                           and 2 speeds below
                                           daN) or 10%                           series of snapshot
                                           pitch controller                              test results. The
                                           force. Alternative                            force tolerance is
                                           method: 1[de                          forces are generated
                                           g] or 10% change of                          airplane hardware in
                                           elevator.                                     the FFS. The
                                                                                         alternative method
                                                                                         applies to airplanes
                                                                                         that do not exhibit
                                                                                         speed stability
                                                                                         characteristics.
                                                                                        CCA: Test in normal or
                                                                                         non-normal control
                                                                                         states..
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 62]]

 
2.c.8............  Stall Characteristics  3 kt airspeed for   and Approach or        must be entered with
                                           initial buffet,        Landing.               thrust at or near
                                           stall warning, and                            idle power and wings
                                           stall speeds. 2[de                          the stall warning
                                           g] bank for speeds                            signal and initial
                                           greater than stick                            buffet, if
                                           shaker or initial                             applicable. Time
                                           buffet.                                       history data must be
                                           Additionally, for                             recorded for full
                                           those simulators                              stall and initiation
                                           with reversible                               of recovery. The
                                           flight control                                stall warning signal
                                           systems: 10%                           proper relation to
                                           or 5 lb (2.2                              airplanes exhibiting
                                           daN) Stick/Column                             a sudden pitch
                                           force (prior to ``g                           attitude change or
                                           break'' only).                                ``g break'' must
                                                                                         demonstrate this
                                                                                         characteristic.
                                                                                        CCA: Test in normal
                                                                                         and non-normal
                                                                                         control states..
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.9............  Phugoid Dynamics.....  10% period, 10%                           the following: Three
                                           of time to \1/2\ or                           full cycles (six
                                           double amplitude or                           overshoots after the
                                           .02 of damping                             or the number of
                                           ratio.                                        cycles sufficient to
                                                                                         determine time to \1/
                                                                                         2\ or double
                                                                                         amplitude.
                                                                                        CCA: Test in Non-
                                                                                         normal control states.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.10...........  Short Period           1.5[deg] pitch                             and Non-normal
                                           angle or 2[de
                                           g]/sec pitch rate,
                                           0.10g
                                           acceleration.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.11...........  (Reserved)
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d..............  Lateral Directional Tests.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 63]]

 
                   Power setting is that required for level flight unless otherwise specified.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.1............  Minimum Control        3 kt airspeed.      (whichever is most     used on the operating                       Inoperative
                    Vmcl), per                                    critical in the        engine(s). A time                           Handling may be
                    Applicable                                    airplane).             history or a series                         governed by a
                    Airworthiness                                                        of snapshot tests may                       performance or
                    Standard or Low                                                      be used.                                    control limit that
                    Speed Engine                                                        CCA: Test in Normal or                       prevents
                    Inoperative Handling                                                 Non-normal control                          demonstration of
                    Characteristics in                                                   state..                                     Vmca or Vmcl in the
                    the Air.                                                                                                         conventional
                                                                                                                                     manner.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.2............  Roll Response (Rate).  10% or 2[de                          controller deflection
                                           g]/sec roll rate.                             (about one-third of
                                           Additionally, for                             maximum roll
                                           those simulators of                           controller travel).
                                           airplanes with                                May be combined with
                                           reversible flight                             step input of flight
                                           control systems:                              deck roll controller
                                           10% or 3 lb
                                           (1.3 daN) wheel
                                           force.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3............  Roll Response to       10% or 2[de                          seconds after control                       control input using
                    Input.                 g] bank angle.                                is returned to                              approximately one-
                                                                                         neutral and released.                       third of the roll
                                                                                         May be combined with                        controller travel.
                                                                                         roll response (rate)                        When reaching
                                                                                         test (2.d.2).                               approximately
                                                                                        CCA: Test in Normal                          20[deg] to 30[deg]
                                                                                         and Non-normal                              of bank, abruptly
                                                                                         control states.                             return the roll
                                                                                                                                     controller to
                                                                                                                                     neutral and allow
                                                                                                                                     approximately 10
                                                                                                                                     seconds of airplane
                                                                                                                                     free response.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 64]]

 
2.d.4............  Spiral Stability.....  Correct trend and      Cruise, and Approach   Record results for       X    X    X    X
                                           2[deg] or 10%                           averaged from
                                           bank angle in 20                              multiple tests may be
                                           seconds. Alternate                            used. As an alternate
                                           test requires                                 test, demonstrate the
                                           correct trend and                             lateral control
                                           2[deg] aileron.                            a steady turn with a
                                                                                         bank angle of 28[deg]
                                                                                         to 32[deg].
                                                                                        CCA: Test in Non-
                                                                                         normal control state.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.5............  Engine Inoperative     1[deg] rudder       and Approach or        snapshot tests.                             performed in a
                                           angle or 1[de                                                                      that for which a
                                           g] tab angle or                                                                           pilot is trained to
                                           equivalent pedal,                                                                         trim an engine
                                           2[deg] sideslip                                                                        Second segment
                                           angle.                                                                                    climb test should
                                                                                                                                     be at takeoff
                                                                                                                                     thrust. Approach or
                                                                                                                                     landing test should
                                                                                                                                     be at thrust for
                                                                                                                                     level flight.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.6............  Rudder Response......  2[deg]/sec or                              stability
                                           10% yaw rate.                              ON and OFF. A rudder
                                                                                         step input of 20%-30%
                                                                                         rudder pedal throw is
                                                                                         used.
                                                                                        CCA: Test in Normal
                                                                                         and Non-normal
                                                                                         control states.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 65]]

 
2.d.7............  Dutch Roll, (Yaw       0.5 sec or 10%                           cycles with stability
                                           of period, 10%                          CCA: Test in Non-
                                           of time to \1/2\ or                           normal control state..
                                           double amplitude or
                                           .02 of damping
                                           ratio. 20%
                                           or 1 sec of time
                                           difference between
                                           peaks of bank and
                                           sideslip.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.8............  Steady State Sideslip  For given rudder       Approach or Landing..  Use at least two         X    X    X    X
                                           position 2[de                          of which must be near
                                           g] bank angle, 1[de                          rudder. Propeller
                                           g] sideslip angle,                            driven airplanes must
                                           10% or 2[de                          series of snapshot
                                           g] aileron, 10%
                                           or 5[deg]
                                           spoiler or
                                           equivalent roll,
                                           controller position
                                           or force.
                                           Additionally, for
                                           those simulators of
                                           airplanes with
                                           reversible flight
                                           control systems:
                                           10% or 3 lb
                                           (1.3 daN) wheel
                                           force 10% or 5 lb
                                           (2.2 daN) rudder
                                           pedal force.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e..............  Landings.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.1............  Normal Landing.......  3 kt airspeed,                             minimum of 200 ft (61                       conducted with two
                                           1.5[deg] pitch                             touchdown.                                  settings (if
                                           angle, 1.5[                          and Non-normal                              should be at or
                                           deg] angle of                                 control states..                            near maximum
                                           attack, 10%                                                                       landing weight. The
                                           or 10 ft (3 m)                                                                        light or medium
                                           height.                                                                                   landing weight.
                                           Additionally, for
                                           those simulators of
                                           airplanes with
                                           reversible flight
                                           control systems:
                                           10% or 5
                                           lbs (2.2 daN)
                                           stick/column force.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 66]]

 
2.e.2............  Minimum Flap Landing.  3 kt airspeed,      Landing Flap           minimum of 200 ft (61
                                           1.5[deg] pitch                             touchdown with
                                           angle, 1.5[                          Maximum Landing
                                           deg] angle of                                 Weight.
                                           attack, 10%
                                           or 10 ft (3 m)
                                           height.
                                           Additionally, for
                                           those simulators of
                                           airplanes with
                                           reversible flight
                                           control systems:
                                           10% or 5
                                           lbs (2.2 daN) stick/
                                           column force.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.3............  Crosswind Landing....  3 kt airspeed,                             minimum of 200 ft (61                       where a maximum
                                           1.5[deg] pitch                             nosewheel touch-down,                       maximum
                                           angle, 1.5[                          main landing gear                           crosswind is not
                                           deg] angle of                                 touchdown speed. Test                       known, contact the
                                           attack, 10%                           information on wind
                                           or 10 ft (3 m)                            crosswind (expressed
                                           height 2[de                          and direct cross-wind
                                           g] bank angle, 2[de                          the maximum wind
                                           g] sideslip angle                             measured at 33 ft (10
                                           3[deg] heading
                                           angle. Additionally,
                                           for those simulators
                                           of airplanes with
                                           reversible flight
                                           control systems:
                                           10% or 3 lb
                                           (1.3 daN) wheel
                                           force 10% or 5 lb
                                           (2.2 daN) rudder
                                           pedal force.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 67]]

 
2.e.4............  One Engine             3 kt airspeed,                             minimum of 200 ft (61
                                           1.5[deg] pitch                             nosewheel touch-down,
                                           angle, 1.5[                          main landing gear
                                           deg] angle of                                 touchdown speed or
                                           attack, 10%
                                           height or 10
                                           ft (3 m); 2[de
                                           g] bank angle, 2[de
                                           g] sideslip angle,
                                           3[deg] heading.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.5............  Autopilot landing (if  5 ft (1.5 m)                               rollout guidance,                           this part for
                                           flare height, 0.5                           deviation from
                                           sec Tf, or 10%Tf, 140 ft/min                              landing gear
                                           (0.7 m/sec) rate of                           touchdown speed or
                                           descent at touch-                             less. Time of
                                           down. 10                          autopilot flare mode
                                           ft (3 m) lateral                              engage and main gear
                                           deviation during                              touchdown must be
                                           rollout.                                      noted.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.6............  All engines            3 kt airspeed,                             operating, go around
                    autopilot, go around.  1.5[deg] pitch                             engaged (if
                                           angle, 1.5[                          landing weight.
                                           deg] angle of attack.                        CCA: Test in normal or
                                                                                         non-normal control
                                                                                         states..
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.7............  One engine             3 kt airspeed,                             inoperative go around
                    around.                1.5[deg] pitch                             maximum certificated
                                           angle, 1.5[                          the critical engine
                                           deg] angle of                                 inoperative using
                                           attack, 2[de                          applicable, an
                                           g] bank angle, 2[de                          inoperative go around
                                           g] slideslip angle.                           test must be
                                                                                         accomplished with the
                                                                                         autopilot engaged.
                                                                                        CCA: Non-autopilot
                                                                                         test in Non-normal
                                                                                         control state..
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 68]]

 
2.e.8............  Directional control    2[deg]/sec yaw                             starting from a speed
                    effectiveness) with    rate. 5 kts                                  touchdown speed to
                    thrust.                airspeed.                                     the minimum thrust
                                                                                         reverser operation
                                                                                         speed. With full
                                                                                         reverse thrust, apply
                                                                                         yaw control in both
                                                                                         directions until
                                                                                         reaching minimum
                                                                                         thrust reverser
                                                                                         operation speed.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.9............  Directional control    5 kt airspeed.                             yaw control with full
                    effectiveness) with    3[deg] heading                             operating engine(s).
                    thrust.                angle.                                        Record results
                                                                                         starting from a speed
                                                                                         approximating
                                                                                         touchdown speed to a
                                                                                         speed at which
                                                                                         control of yaw cannot
                                                                                         be maintained or
                                                                                         until reaching
                                                                                         minimum thrust
                                                                                         reverser operation
                                                                                         speed, whichever is
                                                                                         higher. The tolerance
                                                                                         applies to the low
                                                                                         speed end of the data
                                                                                         recording.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.f..............  Ground Effect.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   Test to demonstrate    1[deg] elevator                            model must be                               Ground Effect in
                                           0.5[deg]                                   selected and a                              additional
                                           stabilizer angle,                             rationale must be                           information.
                                           5% net thrust or                           selecting the
                                           equivalent, 1[de
                                           g] angle of attack,
                                           10% height or
                                           5 ft (1.5 m),
                                           3 kt airspeed,
                                           1[deg] pitch
                                           angle.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.g..............  Windshear.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 69]]

 
                   Four tests, two        See Attachment 5 of    Takeoff and Landing..  Requires windshear                 X    X   See Attachment 5 of
                    takeoff and two        this appendix.                                models that provide                         this appendix for
                    landing, with one of                                                 training in the                             information related
                    each conducted in                                                    specific skills                             to Level A and B
                    still air and the                                                    needed to recognize                         simulators.
                    other with windshear                                                 windshear phenomena
                    active to                                                            and to execute
                    demonstrate                                                          recovery procedures.
                    windshear models.                                                    See Attachment 5 of
                                                                                         this appendix for
                                                                                         tests, tolerances,
                                                                                         and procedures.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.h..............  Flight Maneuver and Envelope Protection Functions.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   The requirements of tests h(1) through (6) of this attachment are applicable to computer
                    controlled aircraft only. Time history results are required for simulator response to
                    control inputs during entry into envelope protection limits including both normal and
                    degraded control states if the function is different. Set thrust as required to reach the
                    envelope protection function.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.h.1............  Overspeed............  5 kt airspeed.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.h.2............  Minimum Speed........  3 kt airspeed.      Approach or Landing.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.h.3............  Load Factor..........  0.1 g normal load
                                           factor.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.h.4............  Pitch Angle..........  1.5[deg] pitch
                                           angle.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.h.5............  Bank Angle...........  2[deg] or 10%
                                           bank angle.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.h.6............  Angle of Attack......  1.5[deg] angle of   and Approach or
                                           attack.                Landing.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Motion System.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a..............  Frequency response.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 70]]

 
                                          Based on Simulator     N/A..................  Required as part of      X    X    X    X
                                           Capability.                                   the MQTG. The test
                                                                                         must demonstrate
                                                                                         frequency response of
                                                                                         the motion system.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b..............  Leg balance.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                          Based on Simulator     N/A..................  Required as part of      X    X    X    X
                                           Capability.                                   the MQTG. The test
                                                                                         must demonstrate
                                                                                         motion system leg
                                                                                         balance as specified
                                                                                         by the applicant for
                                                                                         flight simulator
                                                                                         qualification.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c..............  Turn-around check.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                          Based on Simulator     N/A..................  Required as part of      X    X    X    X
                                           Capability.                                   the MQTG. The test
                                                                                         must demonstrate a
                                                                                         smooth turn-around
                                                                                         (shift to opposite
                                                                                         direction of
                                                                                         movement) of the
                                                                                         motion system as
                                                                                         specified by the
                                                                                         applicant for flight
                                                                                         simulator
                                                                                         qualification.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d..............  Motion system repeatability.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 71]]

 
                                          With the same input    Accomplished in both   Required as part of      X    X    X    X   This test ensures
                                           signal, the test       the ``ground'' mode    the MQTG. The                               that motion system
                                           results must be        and in the             assessment procedures                       hardware and
                                           repeatable to within   ``flight'' mode of     must be designed to                         software (in normal
                                           0.05 g actual       operation.             motion system                               operating mode)
                                           platform linear                               hardware and software                       continue to perform
                                           acceleration.                                 (in normal flight                           as originally
                                                                                         simulator operating                         qualified.
                                                                                         mode) continue to                           Performance changes
                                                                                         perform as originally                       from the original
                                                                                         qualified.                                  baseline can be
                                                                                                                                     readily identified
                                                                                                                                     with this
                                                                                                                                     information.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e..............  Motion cueing performance signature. Required as part of MQTG. For the following set of                          These tests should
                    maneuvers record the relevant motion variables.                                                                  be run with the
                                                                                                                                     motion buffet mode
                                                                                                                                     disabled. See
                                                                                                                                     paragraph 6.d., of
                                                                                                                                     this attachment,
                                                                                                                                     Motion cueing
                                                                                                                                     performance
                                                                                                                                     signature.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.1............  Takeoff rotation (VR   As specified by the    Ground...............  Pitch attitude due to    X    X    X    X   Associated with test
                    to V2).                sponsor for flight                            initial climb must                          1.b.4.
                                           simulator                                     dominate over cab
                                           qualification.                                tilt due to
                                                                                         longitudinal
                                                                                         acceleration.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.2............  Engine failure         As specified by the    Ground...............                           X    X    X    X   Associated with test
                    between V1 and VR.     sponsor for flight                                                                        1.b.5.
                                           simulator
                                           qualification.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.3............  Pitch change during    As specified by the    Flight...............                                X    X    X   Associated with test
                    go-around.             sponsor for flight                                                                        2.e.6.
                                           simulator
                                           qualification.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 72]]

 
3.e.4............  Configuration changes  As specified by the    Flight...............                           X    X    X    X   Associated with
                                           sponsor for flight                                                                        tests 2.c.2. and
                                           simulator                                                                                 2.c.4.
                                           qualification.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.5............  Power change dynamics  As specified by the    Flight...............                           X    X    X    X   Associated with test
                                           sponsor for flight                                                                        2.c.1.
                                           simulator
                                           qualification.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.6............  Landing flare........  As specified by the    Flight...............                                X    X    X   Associated with test
                                           sponsor for flight                                                                        2.e.1.
                                           simulator
                                           qualification.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.7............  Touchdown bump.......  As specified by the    Ground...............                                     X    X   Associated with test
                                           sponsor for flight                                                                        2.e.1.
                                           simulator
                                           qualification.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.f..............  Characteristic motion vibrations. The recorded test results for characteristic buffets must
                    allow the comparison of relative amplitude versus frequency.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.f.1............  Thrust effect with     Simulator test         Ground...............  The test must be                        X
                    brakes set.            results must exhibit                          conducted within 5%
                                           the overall                                   of the maximum
                                           appearance and                                possible thrust with
                                           trends of the                                 brakes set.
                                           airplane data, with
                                           at least three (3)
                                           of the predominant
                                           frequency ``spikes''
                                           being present within
                                           2 Hz.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 73]]

 
3.f.2............  Buffet with landing    Simulator test         Flight...............  The test must be                        X
                    gear extended.         results must exhibit                          conducted at a
                                           the overall                                   nominal, mid-range
                                           appearance and                                airspeed; i.e.,
                                           trends of the                                 sufficiently below
                                           airplane data, with                           landing gear limiting
                                           at least three (3)                            airspeed to avoid
                                           of the predominant                            inadvertently
                                           frequency ``spikes''                          exceeding this
                                           being present within                          limitation.
                                           2 Hz.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.f.3............  Buffet with flaps      Simulator test         Flight...............  The test must be                        X
                    extended.              results must exhibit                          conducted at a
                                           the overall                                   nominal, mid-range
                                           appearance and                                airspeed; i.e.,
                                           trends of the                                 sufficiently below
                                           airplane data, with                           flap extension
                                           at least three (3)                            limiting airspeed to
                                           of the predominant                            avoid inadvertently
                                           frequency ``spikes''                          exceeding this
                                           being present within                          limitation.
                                           2 Hz.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.f.4............  Buffet with            Simulator test         Flight...............                                          X
                    speedbrakes deployed.  results must exhibit
                                           the overall
                                           appearance and
                                           trends of the
                                           airplane data, with
                                           at least three (3)
                                           of the predominant
                                           frequency ``spikes''
                                           being present within
                                           2 Hz.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.f.5............  Buffet at approach-to- Simulator test         Flight...............  The test must be                        X
                    stall.                 results must exhibit                          conducted for
                                           the overall                                   approach to stall.
                                           appearance and                                Post stall
                                           trends of the                                 characteristics are
                                           airplane data, with                           not required.
                                           at least three (3)
                                           of the predominant
                                           frequency ``spikes''
                                           being present within
                                           2 Hz.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 74]]

 
3.f.6............  Buffet at high         Simulator test         Flight...............                                          X   The test may be
                    airspeeds or high      results must exhibit                                                                      conducted during
                    Mach.                  the overall                                                                               either a high speed
                                           appearance and                                                                            maneuver (e.g.,
                                           trends of the                                                                             ``wind-up'' turn)
                                           airplane data, with                                                                       or at high Mach.
                                           at least three (3)
                                           of the predominant
                                           frequency ``spikes''
                                           being present within
                                           2 Hz.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.f.7............  In-flight vibrations   Simulator test         Flight (clean                                                  X
                    for propeller driven   results must exhibit   configuration).
                    airplanes.             the overall
                                           appearance and
                                           trends of the
                                           airplane data, with
                                           at least three (3)
                                           of the predominant
                                           frequency ``spikes''
                                           being present within
                                           2 Hz.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Visual System.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a..............  Visual System Response Time: (Choose either test 4.a.1. or 4.a.2. to satisfy test 4.a.,                          See additional
                    Visual System Response Time Test. This test also suffices for motion system response                             information in this
                    timing and flight deck instrument response timing. Motion onset should occur before the                          attachment; also
                    start of the visual scene change (the start of the scan of the first video field                                 see Table A1A,
                    containing different information) but must occur before the end of the scan of that video                        entry 2.g.
                    field. Instrument response may not occur prior to motion onset.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.1............  Latency..............
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 75]]

 
                                          300 ms (or less)       Take-off, cruise, and  One test is required     X    X             The visual scene or
                                           after airplane         approach or landing.   in each axis (pitch,                        test pattern used
                                           response.                                     roll and yaw) for                           during the response
                                                                                         each of the three                           testing should be
                                                                                         conditions (take-off,                       representative of
                                                                                         cruise, and approach                        the system
                                                                                         or landing).                                capacities required
                                                                                                                                     to meet the
                                                                                                                                     daylight, twilight
                                                                                                                                     (dusk/dawn) and/or
                                                                                                                                     night visual
                                                                                                                                     capability as
                                                                                                                                     appropriate.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                          150 ms (or less)       Take-off, cruise, and  One test is required               X    X
                                           after airplane         approach or landing.   in each axis (pitch,
                                           response.                                     roll and yaw) for
                                                                                         each of the three
                                                                                         conditions (take-off,
                                                                                         cruise, and approach
                                                                                         or landing)..
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.2............  Transport Delay......
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                          300 ms (or less)       N/A..................  A separate test is       X    X             If Transport Delay
                                           after controller                              required in each axis                       is the chosen
                                           movement.                                     (pitch, roll, and                           method to
                                                                                         yaw).                                       demonstrate
                                                                                                                                     relative responses,
                                                                                                                                     the sponsor and the
                                                                                                                                     NSPM will use the
                                                                                                                                     latency values to
                                                                                                                                     ensure proper
                                                                                                                                     simulator response
                                                                                                                                     when reviewing
                                                                                                                                     those existing
                                                                                                                                     tests where latency
                                                                                                                                     can be identified
                                                                                                                                     (e.g., short
                                                                                                                                     period, roll
                                                                                                                                     response, rudder
                                                                                                                                     response)
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 76]]

 
                                          150 ms (or less)       N/A..................  A separate test is                 X    X
                                           after controller                              required in each axis
                                           movement.                                     (pitch, roll, and
                                                                                         yaw).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b..............  Field-of-view.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.1............  Continuous collimated  Continuous collimated  N/A..................  Required as part of      X    X             A vertical field-of-
                    visual field-of-view.  field-of-view                                 MQTG but not required                       view of 30[deg] may
                                           providing at least                            as part of continuing                       be insufficient to
                                           45[deg] horizontal                            evaluations.                                meet visual ground
                                           and 30[deg] vertical                                                                      segment
                                           field-of-view for                                                                         requirements.
                                           each pilot seat.
                                           Both pilot seat
                                           visual systems must
                                           be operable
                                           simultaneously.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.2............  (Reserved)
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 77]]

 
4.b.3............  Continuous,            Continuous field-of-   N/A..................  An SOC is required and             X    X   The horizontal field-
                    collimated, field-of-  view of at least                              must explain the                            of-view is
                    view.                  176[deg]                                      geometry of the                             traditionally
                                           horizontally and                              installation.                               described as a
                                           36[deg] vertically.                           Horizontal field-of-                        180[deg] field-of-
                                                                                         view must be at least                       view. However, the
                                                                                         176[deg] (including                         field-of-view is
                                                                                         not less than 88[deg]                       technically no less
                                                                                         either side of the                          than 176[deg].
                                                                                         center line of the                          Field-of-view
                                                                                         design eye point).                          should be measured
                                                                                         Additional horizontal                       using a visual test
                                                                                         field-of-view                               pattern filling the
                                                                                         capability may be                           entire visual scene
                                                                                         added at the                                (all channels) with
                                                                                         sponsor's discretion                        a matrix of black
                                                                                         provided the minimum                        and white 5[deg]
                                                                                         field-of-view is                            squares. The
                                                                                         retained. Vertical                          installed alignment
                                                                                         field-of-view must be                       should be addressed
                                                                                         at least 36[deg] from                       in the SOC.
                                                                                         each pilot's eye
                                                                                         point. Required as
                                                                                         part of MQTG but not
                                                                                         required as part of
                                                                                         continuing
                                                                                         qualification
                                                                                         evaluations.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c..............  System geometry.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 78]]

 
                                          5[deg] even angular    N/A..................  The angular spacing of   X    X    X    X   The purpose of this
                                           spacing within 1[de                          square and the                              local linearity of
                                           g] as measured from                           relative spacing of                         the displayed image
                                           either pilot eye                              adjacent squares must                       at either pilot eye
                                           point and within                              be within the stated                        point. System
                                           1.5[deg] for                                  tolerances.                                 geometry should be
                                           adjacent squares.                                                                         measured using a
                                                                                                                                     visual test pattern
                                                                                                                                     filling the entire
                                                                                                                                     visual scene (all
                                                                                                                                     channels) with a
                                                                                                                                     matrix of black and
                                                                                                                                     white 5[deg]
                                                                                                                                     squares with light
                                                                                                                                     points at the
                                                                                                                                     intersections.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d..............  Surface contrast ratio.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 79]]

 
                                          Not less than 5:1....  N/A..................  The ratio is                       X    X   Measurements should
                                                                                         calculated by                               be made using a
                                                                                         dividing the                                1[deg] spot
                                                                                         brightness level of                         photometer and a
                                                                                         the center, bright                          raster drawn test
                                                                                         square (providing at                        pattern filling the
                                                                                         least 2 foot-lamberts                       entire visual scene
                                                                                         or 7 cd/m\2\) by the                        (all channels) with
                                                                                         brightness level of                         a test pattern of
                                                                                         any adjacent dark                           black and white
                                                                                         square. This                                squares, 5[deg] per
                                                                                         requirement is                              square, with a
                                                                                         applicable to any                           white square in the
                                                                                         level of simulator                          center of each
                                                                                         equipped with a                             channel. During
                                                                                         daylight visual                             contrast ratio
                                                                                         system.                                     testing, simulator
                                                                                                                                     aft-cab and flight
                                                                                                                                     deck ambient light
                                                                                                                                     levels should be
                                                                                                                                     zero.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e..............  Highlight brightness.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                          Not less than six (6)  N/A..................  Measure the brightness             X    X   Measurements should
                                           foot-lamberts (20 cd/                         of a white square                           be made using a
                                           m\2\).                                        while superimposing a                       1[deg] spot
                                                                                         highlight on that                           photometer and a
                                                                                         white square. The use                       raster drawn test
                                                                                         of calligraphic                             pattern filling the
                                                                                         capabilities to                             entire visual scene
                                                                                         enhance the raster                          (all channels) with
                                                                                         brightness is                               a test pattern of
                                                                                         acceptable; however,                        black and white
                                                                                         measuring lightpoints                       squares, 5[deg] per
                                                                                         is not acceptable.                          square, with a
                                                                                         This requirement is                         white square in the
                                                                                         applicable to any                           center of each
                                                                                         level of simulator                          channel.
                                                                                         equipped with a
                                                                                         daylight visual
                                                                                         system.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 80]]

 
4.f..............  Surface resolution
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                          Not greater than two   N/A..................  An SOC is required and             X    X   When the eye is
                                           (2) arc minutes.                              must include the                            positioned on a
                                                                                         relevant calculations                       3[deg] glide slope
                                                                                         and an explanation of                       at the slant range
                                                                                         those calculations.                         distances indicated
                                                                                         This requirement is                         with white runway
                                                                                         applicable to any                           markings on a black
                                                                                         level of simulator                          runway surface, the
                                                                                         equipped with a                             eye will subtend
                                                                                         daylight visual                             two (2) arc
                                                                                         system.                                     minutes: (1) A
                                                                                                                                     slant range of
                                                                                                                                     6,876 ft with
                                                                                                                                     stripes 150 ft long
                                                                                                                                     and 16 ft wide,
                                                                                                                                     spaced 4 ft apart.
                                                                                                                                     (2) For
                                                                                                                                     Configuration A; a
                                                                                                                                     slant range of
                                                                                                                                     5,157 feet with
                                                                                                                                     stripes 150 ft long
                                                                                                                                     and 12 ft wide,
                                                                                                                                     spaced 3 ft apart.
                                                                                                                                     (3) For
                                                                                                                                     Configuration B; a
                                                                                                                                     slant range of
                                                                                                                                     9,884 feet, with
                                                                                                                                     stripes 150 ft long
                                                                                                                                     and 5.75 ft wide,
                                                                                                                                     spaced 5.75 ft
                                                                                                                                     apart.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g..............  Light point size.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 81]]

 
                                          Not greater than five  N/A..................  An SOC is required and             X    X   Light point size
                                           (5) arc-minutes.                              must include the                            should be measured
                                                                                         relevant calculations                       using a test
                                                                                         and an explanation of                       pattern consisting
                                                                                         those calculations.                         of a centrally
                                                                                         This requirement is                         located single row
                                                                                         applicable to any                           of light points
                                                                                         level of simulator                          reduced in length
                                                                                         equipped with a                             until modulation is
                                                                                         daylight visual                             just discernible in
                                                                                         system.                                     each visual
                                                                                                                                     channel. A row of
                                                                                                                                     48 lights will form
                                                                                                                                     a 4[deg] angle or
                                                                                                                                     less.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.h..............  Light point contrast ratio.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.h.1............  For Level A and B      Not less than 10:1...  N/A..................  An SOC is required and   X    X             A 1[deg] spot
                    simulators.                                                          must include the                            photometer is used
                                                                                         relevant calculations.                      to measure a square
                                                                                                                                     of at least 1[deg]
                                                                                                                                     filled with light
                                                                                                                                     points (where light
                                                                                                                                     point modulation is
                                                                                                                                     just discernible)
                                                                                                                                     and compare the
                                                                                                                                     results to the
                                                                                                                                     measured adjacent
                                                                                                                                     background. During
                                                                                                                                     contrast ratio
                                                                                                                                     testing, simulator
                                                                                                                                     aft-cab and flight
                                                                                                                                     deck ambient light
                                                                                                                                     levels should be
                                                                                                                                     zero.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 82]]

 
4.h.2............  For Level C and D      Not less than 25:1...  N/A..................  An SOC is required and             X    X   A 1[deg] spot
                    simulators.                                                          must include the                            photometer is used
                                                                                         relevant calculations.                      to measure a square
                                                                                                                                     of at least 1[deg]
                                                                                                                                     filled with light
                                                                                                                                     points (where light
                                                                                                                                     point modulation is
                                                                                                                                     just discernible)
                                                                                                                                     and compare the
                                                                                                                                     results to the
                                                                                                                                     measured adjacent
                                                                                                                                     background. During
                                                                                                                                     contrast ratio
                                                                                                                                     testing, simulator
                                                                                                                                     aft-cab and flight
                                                                                                                                     deck ambient light
                                                                                                                                     levels should be
                                                                                                                                     zero.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.i..............  Visual ground segment.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 83]]

 
                                          The visible segment    Landing                The QTG must contain     X    X    X    X   Pre-position for
                                           in the simulator       configuration, with    appropriate                                 this test is
                                           must be 20%    for the appropriate    drawing showing the                         be achieved via
                                           of the segment         airspeed, where the    pertinent data used                         manual or autopilot
                                           computed to be         MLG are at 100 ft      to establish the                            control to the
                                           visible from the       (30 m) above the       airplane location and                       desired position.
                                           airplane flight        plane of the           the segment of the
                                           deck. This tolerance   touchdown zone,        ground that is
                                           may be applied at      while on the           visible considering
                                           the far end of the     electronic glide       design eyepoint, the
                                           displayed segment.     slope with an RVR      airplane attitude,
                                           However, lights and    value set at 1,200     flight deck cut-off
                                           ground objects         ft (350 m).            angle, and a
                                           computed to be                                visibility of 1200 ft
                                           visible from the                              (350 m) RVR.
                                           airplane flight deck                          Simulator performance
                                           at the near end of                            must be measured
                                           the visible segment                           against the QTG
                                           must be visible in                            calculations. The
                                           the simulator.                                data submitted must
                                                                                         include at least the
                                                                                         following:.
                                                                                        (1) Static airplane
                                                                                         dimensions as
                                                                                         follows:.
                                                                                        (i) Horizontal and
                                                                                         vertical distance
                                                                                         from main landing
                                                                                         gear (MLG) to
                                                                                         glideslope reception
                                                                                         antenna..
                                                                                        (ii) Horizontal and
                                                                                         vertical distance
                                                                                         from MLG to pilot's
                                                                                         eyepoint..
                                                                                        (iii) Static flight
                                                                                         deck cutoff angle..
                                                                                        (2) Approach data as
                                                                                         follows:.
                                                                                        (i) Identification of
                                                                                         runway..
                                                                                        (ii) Horizontal
                                                                                         distance from runway
                                                                                         threshold to
                                                                                         glideslope intercept
                                                                                         with runway..
                                                                                        (iii) Glideslope
                                                                                         angle..
                                                                                        (iv) Airplane pitch
                                                                                         angle on approach..
                                                                                        (3) Airplane data for
                                                                                         manual testing:.
                                                                                        (i) Gross weight......
                                                                                        (ii) Airplane
                                                                                         configuration..
                                                                                        (iii) Approach
                                                                                         airspeed. If non-
                                                                                         homogenous fog is
                                                                                         used to obscure
                                                                                         visibility, the
                                                                                         vertical variation in
                                                                                         horizontal visibility
                                                                                         must be described and
                                                                                         be included in the
                                                                                         slant range
                                                                                         visibility
                                                                                         calculation used in
                                                                                         the computations..
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 84]]

 
5. Sound System.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The sponsor will not be required to repeat the airplane tests (i.e., tests 5.a.1. through 5.a.8. (or 5.b.1.
 through 5.b.9.) and 5.c., as appropriate) during continuing qualification evaluations if frequency response
 and background noise test results are within tolerance when compared to the initial qualification evaluation
 results, and the sponsor shows that no software changes have occurred that will affect the airplane test
 results. If the frequency response test method is chosen and fails, the sponsor may elect to fix the
 frequency response problem and repeat the test or the sponsor may elect to repeat the airplane tests. If the
 airplane tests are repeated during continuing qualification evaluations, the results may be compared against
 initial qualification evaluation results or airplane master data. All tests in this section must be presented
 using an unweighted \1/3\-octave band format from band 17 to 42 (50 Hz to 16 kHz). A minimum 20 second
 average must be taken at the location corresponding to the airplane data set. The airplane and flight
 simulator results must be produced using comparable data analysis techniques..
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a..............  Turbo-jet airplanes.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.1............  Ready for engine       5 dB per \1/3\                             prior to engine start
                                           octave band.                                  with the Auxiliary
                                                                                         Power Unit operating,
                                                                                         if appropriate.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.2............  All engines at idle..  5 dB per \1/3\                             to takeoff.
                                           octave band.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.3............  All engines at         5 dB per \1/3\                             to takeoff.
                    thrust with brakes     octave band.
                    set.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.4............  Climb................  5 dB per \1/3\
                                           octave band.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.5............  Cruise...............  5 dB per \1/3\                             configuration.
                                           octave band.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 85]]

 
5.a.6............  Speedbrake / spoilers  5 dB per \1/3\                             speedbrake deflection
                    appropriate).          octave band.                                  for descent at a
                                                                                         constant airspeed and
                                                                                         power setting.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.7............  Initial approach.....  5 dB per \1/3\                             gear up, flaps and
                                           octave band.                                  slats, as appropriate.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.8............  Final approach.......  5 dB per \1/3\                             gear down, full flaps.
                                           octave band.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b..............  Propeller airplanes.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.1............  Ready for engine       5 dB per \1/3\                             prior to engine start
                                           octave band.                                  with the Auxiliary
                                                                                         Power Unit operating,
                                                                                         if appropriate.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.2............  All propellers         5 dB per \1/3\                             to takeoff.
                                           octave band.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.3............  Ground idle or         5 dB per \1/3\                             to takeoff.
                                           octave band.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.4............  Flight idle or         5 dB per \1/3\                             to takeoff.
                                           octave band.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.5............  All engines at         5 dB per \1/3\                             to takeoff.
                    power with brakes      octave band.
                    set.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.6............  Climb................  5 dB per \1/3\
                                           octave band.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.7............  Cruise...............  5 dB per \1/3\                             configuration.
                                           octave band.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.8............  Initial approach.....  5 dB per \1/3\                             gear up, flaps
                                           octave band.                                  extended as
                                                                                         appropriate, RPM as
                                                                                         per operating manual.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 86]]

 
5.b.9............  Final Approach.......  5 dB per \1/3\                             gear down, full
                                           octave band.                                  flaps, RPM as per
                                                                                         operating manual.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c..............  Special cases.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                          5 dB per \1/3\                                                                         are identified as
                                           octave band.                                                                              particularly
                                                                                                                                     significant during
                                                                                                                                     critical phases of
                                                                                                                                     flight and ground
                                                                                                                                     operations for a
                                                                                                                                     specific airplane
                                                                                                                                     type or model.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d..............  Background noise.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                          3 dB per \1/3\                             background noise at                         simulator will be
                                           octave band.                                  initial qualification                       evaluated to ensure
                                                                                         must be included in                         that the background
                                                                                         the MQTG.                                   noise does not
                                                                                         Measurements must be                        interfere with
                                                                                         made with the                               training, testing,
                                                                                         simulation running,                         or checking.
                                                                                         the sound muted and a
                                                                                         ``dead'' flight deck.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e..............  Frequency response.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 87]]

 
                                          5 dB on three (3)                          Continuing                                  compared to those
                                           consecutive bands                             Qualification                               taken during
                                           when compared to                              Evaluations. If                             initial
                                           initial evaluation;                           frequency response                          qualification
                                           and 2 dB when                              for each channel at
                                           comparing the                                 the initial
                                           average of the                                qualification
                                           absolute differences                          evaluation, these
                                           between initial and                           plots may be repeated
                                           continuing                                    at the continuing
                                           qualification                                 qualification
                                           evaluation.                                   evaluation with the
                                                                                         following tolerances
                                                                                         applied: (a) The
                                                                                         continuing
                                                                                         qualification \1/3\
                                                                                         octave band
                                                                                         amplitudes must not
                                                                                         exceed 5 dB for three
                                                                                         consecutive bands
                                                                                         when compared to
                                                                                         initial results. (b)
                                                                                         The average of the
                                                                                         sum of the absolute
                                                                                         differences between
                                                                                         initial and
                                                                                         continuing
                                                                                         qualification results
                                                                                         must not exceed 2 dB
                                                                                         (refer to Table A2B
                                                                                         in this attachment).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 88]]

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                               3. General

    a. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind 
vector should be clearly noted as part of the data presentation, 
expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the runway being 
used for test near the ground.
    b. The reader is encouraged to review the Airplane Flight Simulator 
Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal 
Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test 
Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-8, as 
amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, for 
references and examples regarding flight testing requirements and 
techniques.

                           4. Control Dynamics

    a. General. The characteristics of an airplane flight control system 
have a major effect on handling qualities. A significant consideration 
in pilot acceptability of an airplane is the ``feel'' provided through 
the flight controls. Considerable effort is expended on airplane feel 
system design so that pilots will be comfortable and will consider the 
airplane desirable to fly. In order for an FFS to be representative, it 
should ``feel'' like the airplane being simulated. Compliance with this 
requirement is determined by comparing a recording of the control feel 
dynamics of the FFS to actual airplane measurements in the takeoff, 
cruise and landing configurations.
    (1) Recordings such as free response to an impulse or step function 
are classically used to estimate the dynamic properties of 
electromechanical systems. In any case, it is only possible to estimate 
the dynamic properties as a result of being able to estimate true inputs 
and responses. Therefore, it is imperative that the best possible data 
be collected since close matching of the FFS control loading system to 
the airplane system is essential. The required dynamic control tests are 
described in Table A2A of this attachment.
    (2) For initial and upgrade evaluations, the QPS requires that 
control dynamics characteristics be measured and recorded directly from 
the flight controls (Handling Qualities--Table A2A). This procedure is 
usually accomplished by measuring the free response of the controls 
using a step or impulse input to excite the system. The procedure should 
be accomplished in the takeoff, cruise and landing flight conditions and 
configurations.
    (3) For airplanes with irreversible control systems, measurements 
may be obtained on the ground if proper pitot-static inputs are provided 
to represent airspeeds typical of those encountered in flight. Likewise, 
it may be shown that for some airplanes, takeoff, cruise, and landing 
configurations have like effects. Thus, one may suffice for another. In 
either case, engineering validation or airplane manufacturer rationale 
should be submitted as justification for ground tests or for eliminating 
a configuration. For FFSs requiring static and dynamic tests at the 
controls, special test fixtures will not be required during initial and 
upgrade evaluations if the QTG shows both test fixture results and the 
results of an alternate approach (e.g., computer plots that were 
produced concurrently and show satisfactory agreement). Repeat of the 
alternate method during the initial evaluation satisfies this test 
requirement.
    b. Control Dynamics Evaluation. The dynamic properties of control 
systems are often stated in terms of frequency, damping and a number of 
other classical measurements. In order to establish a consistent means 
of validating test results for FFS control loading, criteria are needed 
that will clearly define the measurement interpretation and the applied 
tolerances. Criteria are needed for underdamped, critically damped and 
overdamped systems. In the case of an underdamped system with very light 
damping, the system may be quantified in terms of frequency and damping. 
In critically damped or overdamped systems, the frequency and damping 
are not readily measured from a response time history. Therefore, the 
following suggested measurements may be used:
    (1) For Level C and D simulators. Tests to verify that control feel 
dynamics represent the airplane should show that the dynamic damping 
cycles (free response of the controls) match those of the airplane 
within specified tolerances. The NSPM recognizes that several different 
testing methods may be used to verify the control feel dynamic response. 
The NSPM will consider the merits of testing methods based on 
reliability and consistency. One acceptable method of evaluating the 
response and the tolerance to be applied is described below for the 
underdamped and critically damped cases. A sponsor using this method to 
comply with the QPS requirements should perform the tests as follows:
    (a) Underdamped response. Two measurements are required for the 
period, the time to first zero crossing (in case a rate limit is 
present) and the subsequent frequency of oscillation. It is necessary to 
measure cycles on an individual basis in case there are non-uniform 
periods in the response. Each period will be independently compared to 
the respective period of the airplane control system and, consequently, 
will enjoy the full tolerance specified for that period. The damping 
tolerance will be applied to overshoots on an individual basis. Care 
should be taken when applying the tolerance to small

[[Page 89]]

overshoots since the significance of such overshoots becomes 
questionable. Only those overshoots larger than 5 per cent of the total 
initial displacement should be considered. The residual band, labeled 
T(Ad) on Figure A2A is 5 percent of the initial 
displacement amplitude Ad from the steady state value of the 
oscillation. Only oscillations outside the residual band are considered 
significant. When comparing FFS data to airplane data, the process 
should begin by overlaying or aligning the FFS and airplane steady state 
values and then comparing amplitudes of oscillation peaks, the time of 
the first zero crossing and individual periods of oscillation. The FFS 
should show the same number of significant overshoots to within one when 
compared against the airplane data. The procedure for evaluating the 
response is illustrated in Figure A2A.
    (b) Critically damped and overdamped response. Due to the nature of 
critically damped and overdamped responses (no overshoots), the time to 
reach 90 percent of the steady state (neutral point) value should be the 
same as the airplane within 10 percent. Figure A2B 
illustrates the procedure.
    (c) Special considerations. Control systems that exhibit 
characteristics other than classical overdamped or underdamped responses 
should meet specified tolerances. In addition, special consideration 
should be given to ensure that significant trends are maintained.
    (2) Tolerances.
    (a) The following table summarizes the tolerances, T, for 
underdamped systems, and ``n'' is the sequential period of a full cycle 
of oscillation. See Figure A2A of this attachment for an illustration of 
the referenced measurements.

T(P0).....................................  10% of
                                             P0.
T(P1).....................................  20% of
                                             P1.
T(P2).....................................  30% of
                                             P2.
T(Pn).....................................  10(n+1)% of Pn.
T(An).....................................  10% of
                                             A1.
T(Ad).....................................  5% of
                                             Ad = residual band.
 

    Significant overshoots, First overshoot and 1 
subsequent overshoots.
    (b) The following tolerance applies to critically damped and 
overdamped systems only. See Figure A2B for an illustration of the 
reference measurements:

T(P0).....................................  10% of
                                             P0
 

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

    c. Alternative method for control dynamics evaluation.
    (1) An alternative means for validating control dynamics for 
aircraft with hydraulically powered flight controls and artificial feel 
systems is by the measurement of control force and rate of movement. For 
each axis of pitch, roll, and yaw, the control must be forced to its 
maximum extreme position for the following distinct rates. These tests 
are conducted under normal flight and ground conditions.
    (a) Static test--Slowly move the control so that a full sweep is 
achieved within 95 to 105 seconds. A full sweep is defined as movement 
of the controller from neutral to the stop, usually aft or right stop, 
then to the opposite stop, then to the neutral position.
    (b) Slow dynamic test--Achieve a full sweep within 8-12 seconds.
    (c) Fast dynamic test--Achieve a full sweep within 3-5 seconds.
    Note: Dynamic sweeps may be limited to forces not exceeding 100 lbs. 
(44.5 daN).
    (d) Tolerances
    (i) Static test; see Table A2A, FFS Objective Tests, Entries 2.a.1., 
2.a.2., and 2.a.3.
    (ii) Dynamic test-- 2 lbs (0.9 daN) or  10% on dynamic increment above static test.

                           End QPS Requirement

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    d. The FAA is open to alternative means such as the one described 
above. The alternatives should be justified and appropriate to the 
application. For example, the method described here may not apply to all 
manufacturers' systems and certainly not to aircraft with reversible 
control systems. Each case is considered on its own merit on an ad hoc 
basis. If the FAA finds that alternative methods do not result in 
satisfactory performance, more conventionally accepted methods will have 
to be used.

[[Page 90]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.000


[[Page 91]]


[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.001

                            5. Ground Effect

    a. For an FFS to be used for take-off and landing (not applicable to 
Level A simulators in that the landing maneuver may not be credited in a 
Level A simulator) it should reproduce the aerodynamic changes that 
occur in ground effect. The parameters chosen for FFS validation should 
indicate these changes.
    (1) A dedicated test should be provided that will validate the 
aerodynamic ground effect characteristics.
    (2) The organization performing the flight tests may select 
appropriate test methods and procedures to validate ground effect. 
However, the flight tests should be performed with enough duration near 
the ground to sufficiently validate the ground-effect model.
    b. The NSPM will consider the merits of testing methods based on 
reliability and consistency. Acceptable methods of validating ground 
effect are described below. If other methods are proposed, rationale 
should be provided to conclude that the tests performed validate the 
ground-effect model. A sponsor using the methods described below to 
comply with the QPS requirements should perform the tests as follows:
    (1) Level fly-bys. The level fly-bys should be conducted at a 
minimum of three altitudes within the ground effect, including one at no 
more than 10% of the wingspan above the ground, one each at 
approximately 30% and 50% of the wingspan where height refers to main 
gear tire above the ground. In addition, one level-flight trim condition 
should be conducted out of ground effect (e.g., at 150% of wingspan).
    (2) Shallow approach landing. The shallow approach landing should be 
performed at a glide slope of approximately one degree with negligible 
pilot activity until flare.
    c. The lateral-directional characteristics are also altered by 
ground effect. For example, because of changes in lift, roll damping is 
affected. The change in roll damping will affect other dynamic modes 
usually evaluated for FFS validation. In fact, Dutch roll dynamics, 
spiral stability, and roll-rate for a given lateral control input are 
altered by ground effect. Steady heading sideslips will also be 
affected. These effects should be accounted for in the FFS modeling. 
Several tests such as crosswind landing, one engine

[[Page 92]]

inoperative landing, and engine failure on take-off serve to validate 
lateral-directional ground effect since portions of these tests are 
accomplished as the aircraft is descending through heights above the 
runway at which ground effect is an important factor.

                            6. Motion System

    a. General.
    (1) Pilots use continuous information signals to regulate the state 
of the airplane. In concert with the instruments and outside-world 
visual information, whole-body motion feedback is essential in assisting 
the pilot to control the airplane dynamics, particularly in the presence 
of external disturbances. The motion system should meet basic objective 
performance criteria, and should be subjectively tuned at the pilot's 
seat position to represent the linear and angular accelerations of the 
airplane during a prescribed minimum set of maneuvers and conditions. 
The response of the motion cueing system should also be repeatable.
    (2) The Motion System tests in Section 3 of Table A2A are intended 
to qualify the FFS motion cueing system from a mechanical performance 
standpoint. Additionally, the list of motion effects provides a 
representative sample of dynamic conditions that should be present in 
the flight simulator. An additional list of representative, training-
critical maneuvers, selected from Section 1 (Performance tests), and 
Section 2 (Handling Qualities tests), in Table A2A, that should be 
recorded during initial qualification (but without tolerance) to 
indicate the flight simulator motion cueing performance signature have 
been identified (reference Section 3.e). These tests are intended to 
help improve the overall standard of FFS motion cueing.
    b. Motion System Checks. The intent of test 3a, Frequency Response, 
test 3b, Leg Balance, and test 3c, Turn-Around Check, as described in 
the Table of Objective Tests, is to demonstrate the performance of the 
motion system hardware, and to check the integrity of the motion set-up 
with regard to calibration and wear. These tests are independent of the 
motion cueing software and should be considered robotic tests.
    c. Motion System Repeatability. The intent of this test is to ensure 
that the motion system software and motion system hardware have not 
degraded or changed over time. This diagnostic test should be completed 
during continuing qualification checks in lieu of the robotic tests. 
This will allow an improved ability to determine changes in the software 
or determine degradation in the hardware. The following information 
delineates the methodology that should be used for this test.
    (1) Input: The inputs should be such that rotational accelerations, 
rotational rates, and linear accelerations are inserted before the 
transfer from airplane center of gravity to pilot reference point with a 
minimum amplitude of 5 deg/sec/sec, 10 deg/sec and 0.3 g, respectively, 
to provide adequate analysis of the output.
    (2) Recommended output:
    (a) Actual platform linear accelerations; the output will comprise 
accelerations due to both the linear and rotational motion acceleration;
    (b) Motion actuators position.
    d. Motion Cueing Performance Signature.
    (1) Background. The intent of this test is to provide quantitative 
time history records of motion system response to a selected set of 
automated QTG maneuvers during initial qualification. This is not 
intended to be a comparison of the motion platform accelerations against 
the flight test recorded accelerations (i.e., not to be compared against 
airplane cueing). If there is a modification to the initially qualified 
motion software or motion hardware (e.g., motion washout filter, 
simulator payload change greater than 10%) then a new baseline may need 
to be established.
    (2) Test Selection. The conditions identified in Section 3.e. in 
Table A2A are those maneuvers where motion cueing is the most 
discernible. They are general tests applicable to all types of airplanes 
and should be completed for motion cueing performance signature at any 
time acceptable to the NSPM prior to or during the initial qualification 
evaluation, and the results included in the MQTG.
    (3) Priority. Motion system should be designed with the intent of 
placing greater importance on those maneuvers that directly influence 
pilot perception and control of the airplane motions. For the maneuvers 
identified in section 3.e. in Table A2A, the flight simulator motion 
cueing system should have a high tilt co-ordination gain, high 
rotational gain, and high correlation with respect to the airplane 
simulation model.
    (4) Data Recording. The minimum list of parameters provided should 
allow for the determination of the flight simulator's motion cueing 
performance signature for the initial qualification evaluation. The 
following parameters are recommended as being acceptable to perform such 
a function:
    (a) Flight model acceleration and rotational rate commands at the 
pilot reference point;
    (b) Motion actuators position;
    (c) Actual platform position;
    (d) Actual platform acceleration at pilot reference point.
    e. Motion Vibrations.
    (1) Presentation of results. The characteristic motion vibrations 
may be used to verify that the flight simulator can reproduce the 
frequency content of the airplane when flown in specific conditions. The 
test results should be presented as a Power Spectral Density (PSD) plot 
with frequencies on

[[Page 93]]

the horizontal axis and amplitude on the vertical axis. The airplane 
data and flight simulator data should be presented in the same format 
with the same scaling. The algorithms used for generating the flight 
simulator data should be the same as those used for the airplane data. 
If they are not the same then the algorithms used for the flight 
simulator data should be proven to be sufficiently comparable. As a 
minimum, the results along the dominant axes should be presented and a 
rationale for not presenting the other axes should be provided.
    (2) Interpretation of results. The overall trend of the PSD plot 
should be considered while focusing on the dominant frequencies. Less 
emphasis should be placed on the differences at the high frequency and 
low amplitude portions of the PSD plot. During the analysis, certain 
structural components of the flight simulator have resonant frequencies 
that are filtered and may not appear in the PSD plot. If filtering is 
required, the notch filter bandwidth should be limited to 1 Hz to ensure 
that the buffet feel is not adversely affected. In addition, a rationale 
should be provided to explain that the characteristic motion vibration 
is not being adversely affected by the filtering. The amplitude should 
match airplane data as described below. However, if the PSD plot was 
altered for subjective reasons, a rationale should be provided to 
justify the change. If the plot is on a logarithmic scale, it may be 
difficult to interpret the amplitude of the buffet in terms of 
acceleration. For example, a 1x10-3 g-rms2/Hz 
would describe a heavy buffet and may be seen in the deep stall regime. 
Alternatively, a 1x10-6 g-rms2/Hz buffet is almost 
not perceivable; but may represent a flap buffet at low speed. The 
previous two examples differ in magnitude by 1000. On a PSD plot this 
represents three decades (one decade is a change in order of magnitude 
of 10; and two decades is a change in order of magnitude of 100).
    Note: In the example, ``g-rms2 is the mathematical 
expression for ``g's root mean squared.''

                             7. Sound System

    a. General. The total sound environment in the airplane is very 
complex, and changes with atmospheric conditions, airplane 
configuration, airspeed, altitude, and power settings. Flight deck 
sounds are an important component of the flight deck operational 
environment and provide valuable information to the flight crew. These 
aural cues can either assist the crew (as an indication of an abnormal 
situation), or hinder the crew (as a distraction or nuisance). For 
effective training, the flight simulator should provide flight deck 
sounds that are perceptible to the pilot during normal and abnormal 
operations, and comparable to those of the airplane. The flight 
simulator operator should carefully evaluate background noises in the 
location where the device will be installed. To demonstrate compliance 
with the sound requirements, the objective or validation tests in this 
attachment were selected to provide a representative sample of normal 
static conditions typically experienced by a pilot.
    b. Alternate propulsion. For FFS with multiple propulsion 
configurations, any condition listed in Table A2A of this attachment 
should be presented for evaluation as part of the QTG if identified by 
the airplane manufacturer or other data supplier as significantly 
different due to a change in propulsion system (engine or propeller).
    c. Data and Data Collection System.
    (1) Information provided to the flight simulator manufacturer should 
be presented in the format suggested by the International Air Transport 
Association (IATA) ``Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data 
Requirements,'' as amended. This information should contain calibration 
and frequency response data.
    (2) The system used to perform the tests listed in Table A2A should 
comply with the following standards:
    (a) The specifications for octave, half octave, and third octave 
band filter sets may be found in American National Standards Institute 
(ANSI) S1.11-1986;
    (b) Measurement microphones should be type WS2 or better, as 
described in International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) 1094-4-
1995.
    (3) Headsets. If headsets are used during normal operation of the 
airplane they should also be used during the flight simulator 
evaluation.
    (4) Playback equipment. Playback equipment and recordings of the QTG 
conditions should be provided during initial evaluations.
    (5) Background noise.
    (a) Background noise is the noise in the flight simulator that is 
not associated with the airplane, but is caused by the flight 
simulator's cooling and hydraulic systems and extraneous noise from 
other locations in the building. Background noise can seriously impact 
the correct simulation of airplane sounds and should be kept below the 
airplane sounds. In some cases, the sound level of the simulation can be 
increased to compensate for the background noise. However, this approach 
is limited by the specified tolerances and by the subjective 
acceptability of the sound environment to the evaluation pilot.
    (b) The acceptability of the background noise levels is dependent 
upon the normal sound levels in the airplane being represented. 
Background noise levels that fall below the lines defined by the 
following points, may be acceptable:
    (i) 70 dB @ 50 Hz;

[[Page 94]]

    (ii) 55 dB @ 1000 Hz;
    (iii) 30 dB @ 16 kHz
    (Note: These limits are for unweighted 1/3 octave band sound levels. 
Meeting these limits for background noise does not ensure an acceptable 
flight simulator. Airplane sounds that fall below this limit require 
careful review and may require lower limits on background noise.)
    (6) Validation testing. Deficiencies in airplane recordings should 
be considered when applying the specified tolerances to ensure that the 
simulation is representative of the airplane. Examples of typical 
deficiencies are:
    (a) Variation of data between tail numbers;
    (b) Frequency response of microphones;
    (c) Repeatability of the measurements.

                Table A2B--Example of Continuing Qualification Frequency Response Test Tolerance
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                                    Continuing
                                                                      Initial      qualification     Absolute
                      Band center frequency                           results         results       difference
                                                                      (dBSPL)         (dBSPL)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
50..............................................................            75.0            73.8             1.2
63..............................................................            75.9            75.6             0.3
80..............................................................            77.1            76.5             0.6
100.............................................................            78.0            78.3             0.3
125.............................................................            81.9            81.3             0.6
160.............................................................            79.8            80.1             0.3
200.............................................................            83.1            84.9             1.8
250.............................................................            78.6            78.9             0.3
315.............................................................            79.5            78.3             1.2
400.............................................................            80.1            79.5             0.6
500.............................................................            80.7            79.8             0.9
630.............................................................            81.9            80.4             1.5
800.............................................................            73.2            74.1             0.9
1000............................................................            79.2            80.1             0.9
1250............................................................            80.7            82.8             2.1
1600............................................................            81.6            78.6             3.0
2000............................................................            76.2            74.4             1.8
2500............................................................            79.5            80.7             1.2
3150............................................................            80.1            77.1             3.0
4000............................................................            78.9            78.6             0.3
5000............................................................            80.1            77.1             3.0
6300............................................................            80.7            80.4             0.3
8000............................................................            84.3            85.5             1.2
10000...........................................................            81.3            79.8             1.5
12500...........................................................            80.7            80.1             0.6
16000...........................................................            71.1            71.1             0.0
                                                                 -----------------------------------------------
    Average.....................................................  ..............  ..............             1.1
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

 8. Additional Information About Flight Simulator Qualification for New 
                         or Derivative Airplanes

    a. Typically, an airplane manufacturer's approved final data for 
performance, handling qualities, systems or avionics is not available 
until well after a new or derivative airplane has entered service. 
However, flight crew training and certification often begins several 
months prior to the entry of the first airplane into service. 
Consequently, it may be necessary to use preliminary data provided by 
the airplane manufacturer for interim qualification of flight 
simulators.
    b. In these cases, the NSPM may accept certain partially validated 
preliminary airplane and systems data, and early release (``red label'') 
avionics data in order to permit the necessary program schedule for 
training, certification, and service introduction.
    c. Simulator sponsors seeking qualification based on preliminary 
data should consult the NSPM to make special arrangements for using 
preliminary data for flight simulator qualification. The sponsor should 
also consult the airplane and flight simulator manufacturers to develop 
a data plan and flight simulator qualification plan.
    d. The procedure to be followed to gain NSPM acceptance of 
preliminary data will vary from case to case and between airplane 
manufacturers. Each airplane manufacturer's new airplane development and 
test program is designed to suit the needs of the particular project and 
may not contain the same events or sequence of events as another 
manufacturer's program, or even the same manufacturer's program for a 
different airplane. Therefore, there cannot be a prescribed invariable 
procedure for acceptance of preliminary data, but instead there should 
be a statement describing the final sequence of events, data sources, 
and validation procedures agreed by the simulator sponsor, the airplane 
manufacturer, the flight simulator manufacturer, and the NSPM.

[[Page 95]]

    Note: A description of airplane manufacturer-provided data needed 
for flight simulator modeling and validation is to be found in the IATA 
Document ``Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,'' 
as amended.
    e. The preliminary data should be the manufacturer's best 
representation of the airplane, with assurance that the final data will 
not significantly deviate from the preliminary estimates. Data derived 
from these predictive or preliminary techniques should be validated 
against available sources including, at least, the following:
    (1) Manufacturer's engineering report. The report should explain the 
predictive method used and illustrate past success of the method on 
similar projects. For example, the manufacturer could show the 
application of the method to an earlier airplane model or predict the 
characteristics of an earlier model and compare the results to final 
data for that model.
    (2) Early flight test results. This data is often derived from 
airplane certification tests, and should be used to maximum advantage 
for early flight simulator validation. Certain critical tests that would 
normally be done early in the airplane certification program should be 
included to validate essential pilot training and certification 
maneuvers. These include cases where a pilot is expected to cope with an 
airplane failure mode or an engine failure. Flight test data that will 
be available early in the flight test program will depend on the 
airplane manufacturer's flight test program design and may not be the 
same in each case. The flight test program of the airplane manufacturer 
should include provisions for generation of very early flight test 
results for flight simulator validation.
    f. The use of preliminary data is not indefinite. The airplane 
manufacturer's final data should be available within 12 months after the 
airplane's first entry into service or as agreed by the NSPM, the 
simulator sponsor, and the airplane manufacturer. When applying for 
interim qualification using preliminary data, the simulator sponsor and 
the NSPM should agree on the update program. This includes specifying 
that the final data update will be installed in the flight simulator 
within a period of 12 months following the final data release, unless 
special conditions exist and a different schedule is acceptable. The 
flight simulator performance and handling validation would then be based 
on data derived from flight tests or from other approved sources. 
Initial airplane systems data should be updated after engineering tests. 
Final airplane systems data should also be used for flight simulator 
programming and validation.
    g. Flight simulator avionics should stay essentially in step with 
airplane avionics (hardware and software) updates. The permitted time 
lapse between airplane and flight simulator updates should be minimal. 
It may depend on the magnitude of the update and whether the QTG and 
pilot training and certification are affected. Differences in airplane 
and flight simulator avionics versions and the resulting effects on 
flight simulator qualification should be agreed between the simulator 
sponsor and the NSPM. Consultation with the flight simulator 
manufacturer is desirable throughout the qualification process.
    h. The following describes an example of the design data and sources 
that might be used in the development of an interim qualification plan.
    (1) The plan should consist of the development of a QTG based upon a 
mix of flight test and engineering simulation data. For data collected 
from specific airplane flight tests or other flights, the required 
design model or data changes necessary to support an acceptable Proof of 
Match (POM) should be generated by the airplane manufacturer.
    (2) For proper validation of the two sets of data, the airplane 
manufacturer should compare their simulation model responses against the 
flight test data, when driven by the same control inputs and subjected 
to the same atmospheric conditions as recorded in the flight test. The 
model responses should result from a simulation where the following 
systems are run in an integrated fashion and are consistent with the 
design data released to the flight simulator manufacturer:
    (a) Propulsion;
    (b) Aerodynamics;
    (c) Mass properties;
    (d) Flight controls;
    (e) Stability augmentation; and
    (f) Brakes/landing gear.
    i. A qualified test pilot should be used to assess handling 
qualities and performance evaluations for the qualification of flight 
simulators of new airplane types.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

                9. Engineering Simulator--Validation Data

    a. When a fully validated simulation (i.e., validated with flight 
test results) is modified due to changes to the simulated airplane 
configuration, the airplane manufacturer or other acceptable data 
supplier must coordinate with the NSPM if they propose to supply 
validation data from an ``audited'' engineering simulator/simulation to 
selectively supplement flight test data. The NSPM must be provided an 
opportunity to audit the engineering simulation or the engineering 
simulator used to generate the validation data. Validation data from an 
audited engineering simulation may be used for changes that are

[[Page 96]]

incremental in nature. Manufacturers or other data suppliers must be 
able to demonstrate that the predicted changes in aircraft performance 
are based on acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success 
history and valid outcomes. This must include comparisons of predicted 
and flight test validated data.
    b. Airplane manufacturers or other acceptable data suppliers seeking 
to use an engineering simulator for simulation validation data as an 
alternative to flight-test derived validation data, must contact the 
NSPM and provide the following:
    (1) A description of the proposed aircraft changes, a description of 
the proposed simulation model changes, and the use of an integral 
configuration management process, including a description of the actual 
simulation model modifications that includes a step-by-step description 
leading from the original model(s) to the current model(s).
    (2) A schedule for review by the NSPM of the proposed plan and the 
subsequent validation data to establish acceptability of the proposal.
    (3) Validation data from an audited engineering simulator/simulation 
to supplement specific segments of the flight test data.
    c. To be qualified to supply engineering simulator validation data, 
for aerodynamic, engine, flight control, or ground handling models, an 
airplane manufacturer or other acceptable data supplier must:
    (1) Be able to verify their ability able to:
    (a) Develop and implement high fidelity simulation models; and
    (b) Predict the handling and performance characteristics of an 
airplane with sufficient accuracy to avoid additional flight test 
activities for those handling and performance characteristics.
    (2) Have an engineering simulator that:
    (a) Is a physical entity, complete with a flight deck representative 
of the simulated class of airplane;
    (b) Has controls sufficient for manual flight;
    (c) Has models that run in an integrated manner;
    (d) Has fully flight-test validated simulation models as the 
original or baseline simulation models;
    (e) Has an out-of-the-flight deck visual system;
    (f) Has actual avionics boxes interchangeable with the equivalent 
software simulations to support validation of released software;
    (g) Uses the same models as released to the training community 
(which are also used to produce stand-alone proof-of-match and checkout 
documents);
    (h) Is used to support airplane development and certification; and
    (i) Has been found to be a high fidelity representation of the 
airplane by the manufacturer's pilots (or other acceptable data 
supplier), certificate holders, and the NSPM.
    (3) Use the engineering simulator/simulation to produce a 
representative set of integrated proof-of-match cases.
    (4) Use a configuration control system covering hardware and 
software for the operating components of the engineering simulator/
simulation.
    (5) Demonstrate that the predicted effects of the change(s) are 
within the provisions of sub-paragraph ``a'' of this section, and 
confirm that additional flight test data are not required.
    d. Additional Requirements for Validation Data
    (1) When used to provide validation data, an engineering simulator 
must meet the simulator standards currently applicable to training 
simulators except for the data package.
    (2) The data package used must be:
    (a) Comprised of the engineering predictions derived from the 
airplane design, development, or certification process;
    (b) Based on acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success 
history and valid outcomes for aerodynamics, engine operations, avionics 
operations, flight control applications, or ground handling;
    (c) Verified with existing flight-test data; and
    (d) Applicable to the configuration of a production airplane, as 
opposed to a flight-test airplane.
    (3) Where engineering simulator data are used as part of a QTG, an 
essential match must exist between the training simulator and the 
validation data.
    (4) Training flight simulator(s) using these baseline and modified 
simulation models must be qualified to at least internationally 
recognized standards, such as contained in the ICAO Document 9625, the 
``Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators.''

                           End QPS Requirement

________________________________________________________________________

                             10. [Reserved]

                     11. Validation Test Tolerances

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. Non-Flight-Test Tolerances
    (1) If engineering simulator data or other non-flight-test data are 
used as an allowable form of reference validation data for the objective 
tests listed in Table A2A of this attachment, the data provider must 
supply a well-documented mathematical model and testing procedure that 
enables a replication of the engineering simulation results within

[[Page 97]]

20% of the corresponding flight test tolerances.
    b. Background
    (1) The tolerances listed in Table A2A of this attachment are 
designed to measure the quality of the match using flight-test data as a 
reference.
    (2) Good engineering judgment should be applied to all tolerances in 
any test. A test is failed when the results clearly fall outside of the 
prescribed tolerance(s).
    (3) Engineering simulator data are acceptable because the same 
simulation models used to produce the reference data are also used to 
test the flight training simulator (i.e., the two sets of results should 
be ``essentially'' similar).
    (4) The results from the two sources may differ for the following 
reasons:
    (a) Hardware (avionics units and flight controls);
    (b) Iteration rates;
    (c) Execution order;
    (d) Integration methods;
    (e) Processor architecture;
    (f) Digital drift, including:
    (i) Interpolation methods;
    (ii) Data handling differences; and
    (iii) Auto-test trim tolerances.
    (5) The tolerance limit between the reference data and the flight 
simulator results is generally 20% of the corresponding ``flight-test'' 
tolerances. However, there may be cases where the simulator models used 
are of higher fidelity, or the manner in which they are cascaded in the 
integrated testing loop have the effect of a higher fidelity, than those 
supplied by the data provider. Under these circumstances, it is possible 
that an error greater than 20% may be generated. An error greater than 
20% may be acceptable if simulator sponsor can provide an adequate 
explanation.
    (6) Guidelines are needed for the application of tolerances to 
engineering-simulator-generated validation data because:
    (a) Flight-test data are often not available due to technical 
reasons;
    (b) Alternative technical solutions are being advanced; and
    (c) High costs.

                       12. Validation Data Roadmap

    a. Airplane manufacturers or other data suppliers should supply a 
validation data roadmap (VDR) document as part of the data package. A 
VDR document contains guidance material from the airplane validation 
data supplier recommending the best possible sources of data to be used 
as validation data in the QTG. A VDR is of special value when requesting 
interim qualification, qualification of simulators for airplanes 
certificated prior to 1992, and qualification of alternate engine or 
avionics fits. A sponsor seeking to have a device qualified in 
accordance with the standards contained in this QPS appendix should 
submit a VDR to the NSPM as early as possible in the planning stages. 
The NSPM is the final authority to approve the data to be used as 
validation material for the QTG. The NSPM and the Joint Aviation 
Authorities' Synthetic Training Devices Advisory Board have committed to 
maintain a list of agreed VDRs.
    b. The VDR should identify (in matrix format) sources of data for 
all required tests. It should also provide guidance regarding the 
validity of these data for a specific engine type, thrust rating 
configuration, and the revision levels of all avionics affecting 
airplane handling qualities and performance. The VDR should include 
rationale or explanation in cases where data or parameters are missing, 
engineering simulation data are to be used, flight test methods require 
explanation, or there is any deviation from data requirements. 
Additionally, the document should refer to other appropriate sources of 
validation data (e.g., sound and vibration data documents).
    c. The Sample Validation Data Roadmap (VDR) for airplanes, shown in 
Table A2C, depicts a generic roadmap matrix identifying sources of 
validation data for an abbreviated list of tests. This document is 
merely a sample and does not provide actual data. A complete matrix 
should address all test conditions and provide actual data and data 
sources.
    d. Two examples of rationale pages are presented in Appendix F of 
the IATA ``Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements.'' 
These illustrate the type of airplane and avionics configuration 
information and descriptive engineering rationale used to describe data 
anomalies or provide an acceptable basis for using alternative data for 
QTG validation requirements.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 98]]

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[[Page 99]]



                            Begin Information

________________________________________________________________________

         13. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Engines Data.

                              a. Background

    (1) For a new airplane type, the majority of flight validation data 
are collected on the first airplane configuration with a ``baseline'' 
engine type. These data are then used to validate all flight simulators 
representing that airplane type.
    (2) Additional flight test validation data may be needed for flight 
simulators representing an airplane with engines of a different type 
than the baseline, or for engines with thrust rating that is different 
from previously validated configurations.
    (3) When a flight simulator with alternate engines is to be 
qualified, the QTG should contain tests against flight test validation 
data for selected cases where engine differences are expected to be 
significant.

   b. Approval Guidelines For Validating Alternate Engine Applications

    (1) The following guidelines apply to flight simulators representing 
airplanes with alternate engine applications or with more than one 
engine type or thrust rating.
    (2) Validation tests can be segmented into two groups, those that 
are dependent on engine type or thrust rating and those that are not.
    (3) For tests that are independent of engine type or thrust rating, 
the QTG can be based on validation data from any engine application. 
Tests in this category should be designated as independent of engine 
type or thrust rating.
    (4) For tests that are affected by engine type, the QTG should 
contain selected engine-specific flight test data sufficient to validate 
that particular airplane-engine configuration. These effects may be due 
to engine dynamic characteristics, thrust levels or engine-related 
airplane configuration changes. This category is primarily characterized 
by variations between different engine manufacturers' products, but also 
includes differences due to significant engine design changes from a 
previously flight-validated configuration within a single engine type. 
See Table A2D, Alternate Engine Validation Flight Tests in this section 
for a list of acceptable tests.
    (5) Alternate engine validation data should be based on flight test 
data, except as noted in sub-paragraphs 13.c.(1) and (2), or where other 
data are specifically allowed (e.g., engineering simulator/simulation 
data). If certification of the flight characteristics of the airplane 
with a new thrust rating (regardless of percentage change) does require 
certification flight testing with a comprehensive stability and control 
flight instrumentation package, then the conditions described in Table 
A2D in this section should be obtained from flight testing and presented 
in the QTG. Flight test data, other than throttle calibration data, are 
not required if the new thrust rating is certified on the airplane 
without need for a comprehensive stability and control flight 
instrumentation package.
    (6) As a supplement to the engine-specific flight tests listed in 
Table A2D and baseline engine-independent tests, additional engine-
specific engineering validation data should be provided in the QTG, as 
appropriate, to facilitate running the entire QTG with the alternate 
engine configuration. The sponsor and the NSPM should agree in advance 
on the specific validation tests to be supported by engineering 
simulation data.
    (7) A matrix or VDR should be provided with the QTG indicating the 
appropriate validation data source for each test.
    (8) The flight test conditions in Table A2D are appropriate and 
should be sufficient to validate implementation of alternate engines in 
a flight simulator.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

                          c. Test Requirements

    (1) The QTG must contain selected engine-specific flight test data 
sufficient to validate the alternative thrust level when:
    (a) the engine type is the same, but the thrust rating exceeds that 
of a previously flight-test validated configuration by five percent (5%) 
or more; or
    (b) the engine type is the same, but the thrust rating is less than 
the lowest previously flight-test validated rating by fifteen percent 
(15%) or more. See Table A2D for a list of acceptable tests.
    (2) Flight test data is not required if the thrust increase is 
greater than 5%, but flight tests have confirmed that the thrust 
increase does not change the airplane's flight characteristics.
    (3) Throttle calibration data (i.e., commanded power setting 
parameter versus throttle position) must be provided to validate all 
alternate engine types and engine thrust ratings that are higher or 
lower than a previously validated engine. Data from a test airplane or 
engineering test bench with the correct engine controller (both hardware 
and software) are required.

                           End QPS Requirement

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

[[Page 100]]



                              Table A2D--Alternative Engine Validation Flight Tests
 
                                                                                  Alternative      Alternative
           Entry No.                 Test description                             engine type    thrust rating 2
 
 
1.b.1., 1.b.4..................--Normal take-off/ground acceleration time and----------------X----------------X-
                                  distance
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2..........................  Vmcg, if performed for airplane certification               X                X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.5..........................  Engine-out take-off     Either test may be
1.b.8..........................  Dynamic engine failure   performed.                         X
                                  after take-off..
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.7..........................  Rejected take-off if performed for airplane                 X
                                  certification
1.d.1..........................  Cruise performance                                          X
1.f.1., 1.f.2..................  Engine acceleration and deceleration                        X                X
2.a.7..........................  Throttle calibration \1\                                    X                X
2.c.1..........................  Power change dynamics (acceleration)                        X                X
2.d.1..........................  Vmca if performed for airplane certification                X                X
2.d.5..........................  Engine inoperative trim                                     X                X
2.e.1..........................  Normal landing                                              X   ...............
 
\1\ Must be provided for all changes in engine type or thrust rating; see paragraph 13.c.(3).
\2\ See paragraphs 13.c.(1) through 13.c.(3), for a definition of applicable thrust ratings.

                           End QPS Requirement

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

   14. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics (Flight-Related 
                       Computers and Controllers)

                              a. Background

    (1) For a new airplane type, the majority of flight validation data 
are collected on the first airplane configuration with a ``baseline'' 
flight-related avionics ship-set; (see subparagraph b.(2) of this 
section). These data are then used to validate all flight simulators 
representing that airplane type.
    (2) Additional validation data may be required for flight simulators 
representing an airplane with avionics of a different hardware design 
than the baseline, or a different software revision than previously 
validated configurations.
    (3) When a flight simulator with additional or alternate avionics 
configurations is to be qualified, the QTG should contain tests against 
validation data for selected cases where avionics differences are 
expected to be significant.

        b. Approval Guidelines for Validating Alternate Avionics

    (1) The following guidelines apply to flight simulators representing 
airplanes with a revised avionics configuration, or more than one 
avionics configuration.
    (2) The baseline validation data should be based on flight test 
data, except where other data are specifically allowed (e.g., 
engineering flight simulator data).
    (3) The airplane avionics can be segmented into two groups, systems 
or components whose functional behavior contributes to the aircraft 
response presented in the QTG results, and systems that do not. The 
following avionics are examples of contributory systems for which 
hardware design changes or software revisions may lead to significant 
differences in the aircraft response relative to the baseline avionics 
configuration: Flight control computers and controllers for engines, 
autopilot, braking system, nosewheel steering system, and high lift 
system. Related avionics such as stall warning and augmentation systems 
should also be considered.
    (4) The acceptability of validation data used in the QTG for an 
alternative avionics fit should be determined as follows:
    (a) For changes to an avionics system or component that do not 
affect QTG validation test response, the QTG test can be based on 
validation data from the previously validated avionics configuration.
    (b) For an avionics change to a contributory system, where a 
specific test is not affected by the change (e.g., the avionics change 
is a Built In Test Equipment (BITE) update or a modification in a 
different flight phase), the QTG test can be based on validation data 
from the previously-validated avionics configuration. The QTG should 
include authoritative justification (e.g., from the airplane 
manufacturer or system supplier) that this avionics change does not 
affect the test.
    (c) For an avionics change to a contributory system, the QTG may be 
based on validation data from the previously-validated avionics 
configuration if no new functionality is added and the impact of the 
avionics change on the airplane response is small and based on 
acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid 
outcomes. This should be supplemented with avionics-specific validation 
data from the airplane manufacturer's engineering

[[Page 101]]

simulation, generated with the revised avionics configuration. The QTG 
should also include an explanation of the nature of the change and its 
effect on the airplane response.
    (d) For an avionics change to a contributory system that 
significantly affects some tests in the QTG or where new functionality 
is added, the QTG should be based on validation data from the previously 
validated avionics configuration and supplemental avionics-specific 
flight test data sufficient to validate the alternate avionics revision. 
Additional flight test validation data may not be needed if the avionics 
changes were certified without the need for testing with a comprehensive 
flight instrumentation package. The airplane manufacturer should 
coordinate flight simulator data requirements, in advance with the NSPM.
    (5) A matrix or ``roadmap'' should be provided with the QTG 
indicating the appropriate validation data source for each test. The 
roadmap should include identification of the revision state of those 
contributory avionics systems that could affect specific test responses 
if changed.

                       15. Transport Delay Testing

    a. This paragraph explains how to determine the introduced transport 
delay through the flight simulator system so that it does not exceed a 
specific time delay. The transport delay should be measured from control 
inputs through the interface, through each of the host computer modules 
and back through the interface to motion, flight instrument, and visual 
systems. The transport delay should not exceed the maximum allowable 
interval.
    b. Four specific examples of transport delay are:
    (1) Simulation of classic non-computer controlled aircraft;
    (2) Simulation of computer controlled aircraft using real airplane 
black boxes;
    (3) Simulation of computer controlled aircraft using software 
emulation of airplane boxes;
    (4) Simulation using software avionics or re-hosted instruments.
    c. Figure A2C illustrates the total transport delay for a non-
computer-controlled airplane or the classic transport delay test. Since 
there are no airplane-induced delays for this case, the total transport 
delay is equivalent to the introduced delay.
    d. Figure A2D illustrates the transport delay testing method using 
the real airplane controller system.
    e. To obtain the induced transport delay for the motion, instrument 
and visual signal, the delay induced by the airplane controller should 
be subtracted from the total transport delay. This difference represents 
the introduced delay and should not exceed the standards prescribed in 
Table A1A.
    f. Introduced transport delay is measured from the flight deck 
control input to the reaction of the instruments and motion and visual 
systems (See Figure A2C).
    g. The control input may also be introduced after the airplane 
controller system and the introduced transport delay measured directly 
from the control input to the reaction of the instruments, and simulator 
motion and visual systems (See Figure A2D).
    h. Figure A2E illustrates the transport delay testing method used on 
a flight simulator that uses a software emulated airplane controller 
system.
    i. It is not possible to measure the introduced transport delay 
using the simulated airplane controller system architecture for the 
pitch, roll and yaw axes. Therefore, the signal should be measured 
directly from the pilot controller. The flight simulator manufacturer 
should measure the total transport delay and subtract the inherent delay 
of the actual airplane components because the real airplane controller 
system has an inherent delay provided by the airplane manufacturer. The 
flight simulator manufacturer should ensure that the introduced delay 
does not exceed the standards prescribed in Table A1A.
    j. Special measurements for instrument signals for flight simulators 
using a real airplane instrument display system instead of a simulated 
or re-hosted display. For flight instrument systems, the total transport 
delay should be measured and the inherent delay of the actual airplane 
components subtracted to ensure that the introduced delay does not 
exceed the standards prescribed in Table A1A.
    (1) Figure A2FA illustrates the transport delay procedure without 
airplane display simulation. The introduced delay consists of the delay 
between the control movement and the instrument change on the data bus.
    (2) Figure A2FB illustrates the modified testing method required to 
measure introduced delay due to software avionics or re-hosted 
instruments. The total simulated instrument transport delay is measured 
and the airplane delay should be subtracted from this total. This 
difference represents the introduced delay and should not exceed the 
standards prescribed in Table A1A. The inherent delay of the airplane 
between the data bus and the displays is indicated in figure A2FA. The 
display manufacturer should provide this delay time.
    k. Recorded signals. The signals recorded to conduct the transport 
delay calculations should be explained on a schematic block diagram. The 
flight simulator manufacturer should also provide an explanation of why 
each signal was selected and how they relate to the above descriptions.
    l. Interpretation of results. Flight simulator results vary over 
time from test to test due to ``sampling uncertainty.'' All flight 
simulators run at a specific rate where all

[[Page 102]]

modules are executed sequentially in the host computer. The flight 
controls input can occur at any time in the iteration, but these data 
will not be processed before the start of the new iteration. For 
example, a flight simulator running at 60 Hz may have a difference of as 
much as 16.67 msec between test results. This does not mean that the 
test has failed. Instead, the difference is attributed to variations in 
input processing. In some conditions, the host simulator and the visual 
system do not run at the same iteration rate, so the output of the host 
computer to the visual system will not always be synchronized.
    m. The transport delay test should account for both daylight and 
night modes of operation of the visual system. In both cases, the 
tolerances prescribed in Table A1A must be met and the motion response 
should occur before the end of the first video scan containing new 
information.

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[[Page 104]]


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________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

     16. Continuing Qualification Evaluations--Validation Test Data 
                              Presentation

                              a. Background

    (1) The MQTG is created during the initial evaluation of a flight 
simulator. This is the master document, as amended, to which flight 
simulator continuing qualification evaluation test results are compared.
    (2) The currently accepted method of presenting continuing 
qualification evaluation test results is to provide flight simulator 
results over-plotted with reference data. Test results are carefully 
reviewed to determine if the test is within the specified tolerances. 
This can be a time consuming process, particularly when reference data 
exhibits rapid variations or an apparent anomaly requiring engineering 
judgment in the application of the tolerances. In these cases, the 
solution is to compare the results to the MQTG. The continuing 
qualification results are compared to the results in the MQTG for 
acceptance. The flight simulator operator and the NSPM should look for 
any change in the flight simulator performance since initial 
qualification.

    b. Continuing Qualification Evaluation Test Results Presentation

    (1) Flight simulator operators are encouraged to over-plot 
continuing qualification validation test results with MQTG flight 
simulator results recorded during the initial evaluation and as amended. 
Any change in a validation test will be readily apparent. In addition to 
plotting continuing qualification validation test and MQTG results, 
operators may elect to plot reference data as well.
    (2) There are no suggested tolerances between flight simulator 
continuing qualification and MQTG validation test results. Investigation 
of any discrepancy between the MQTG and continuing qualification flight 
simulator performance is left to the discretion of the flight simulator 
operator and the NSPM.

[[Page 105]]

    (3) Differences between the two sets of results, other than 
variations attributable to repeatability issues that cannot be 
explained, should be investigated.
    (4) The flight simulator should retain the ability to over-plot both 
automatic and manual validation test results with reference data.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

 17. Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation: Level A 
                       and Level B Simulators Only

    a. Sponsors are not required to use the alternative data sources, 
procedures, and instrumentation. However, a sponsor may choose to use 
one or more of the alternative sources, procedures, and instrumentation 
described in Table A2E.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    b. It has become standard practice for experienced simulator 
manufacturers to use modeling techniques to establish data bases for new 
simulator configurations while awaiting the availability of actual 
flight test data. The data generated from the aerodynamic modeling 
techniques is then compared to the flight test data when it becomes 
available. The results of such comparisons have become increasingly 
consistent, indicating that these techniques, applied with the 
appropriate experience, are dependable and accurate for the development 
of aerodynamic models for use in Level A and Level B simulators.
    c. Based on this history of successful comparisons, the NSPM has 
concluded that those who are experienced in the development of 
aerodynamic models may use modeling techniques to alter the method for 
acquiring flight test data for Level A or Level B simulators.
    d. The information in Table A2E (Alternative Data Sources, 
Procedures, and Instrumentation) is presented to describe an acceptable 
alternative to data sources for simulator modeling and validation and an 
acceptable alternative to the procedures and instrumentation 
traditionally used to gather such modeling and validation data.
    (1) Alternative data sources that may be used for part or all of a 
data requirement are the Airplane Maintenance Manual, the Airplane 
Flight Manual (AFM), Airplane Design Data, the Type Inspection Report 
(TIR), Certification Data or acceptable supplemental flight test data.
    (2) The sponsor should coordinate with the NSPM prior to using 
alternative data sources in a flight test or data gathering effort.
    e. The NSPM position regarding the use of these alternative data 
sources, procedures, and instrumentation is based on the following 
presumptions:
    (1) Data gathered through the alternative means does not require 
angle of attack (AOA) measurements or control surface position 
measurements for any flight test. However, AOA can be sufficiently 
derived if the flight test program ensures the collection of acceptable 
level, unaccelerated, trimmed flight data. All of the simulator time 
history tests that begin in level, unaccelerated, and trimmed flight, 
including the three basic trim tests and ``fly-by'' trims, can be a 
successful validation of angle of attack by comparison with flight test 
pitch angle. (Note: Due to the criticality of angle of attack in the 
development of the ground effects model, particularly critical for 
normal landings and landings involving cross-control input applicable to 
Level B simulators, stable ``fly-by'' trim data will be the acceptable 
norm for normal and cross-control input landing objective data for these 
applications.)
    (2) The use of a rigorously defined and fully mature simulation 
controls system model that includes accurate gearing and cable stretch 
characteristics (where applicable), determined from actual aircraft 
measurements. Such a model does not require control surface position 
measurements in the flight test objective data in these limited 
applications.
    f. The sponsor is urged to contact the NSPM for clarification of any 
issue regarding airplanes with reversible control systems. Table A2E is 
not applicable to Computer Controlled Aircraft FFSs.
    g. Utilization of these alternate data sources, procedures, and 
instrumentation (Table A2E) does not relieve the sponsor from compliance 
with the balance of the information contained in this document relative 
to Level A or Level B FFSs.
    h. The term ``inertial measurement system'' is used in the following 
table to include the use of a functional global positioning system 
(GPS).
    i. Synchronized video for the use of alternative data sources, 
procedures, and instrumentation should have:
    (1) Sufficient resolution to allow magnification of the display to 
make appropriate measurement and comparisons; and
    (2) Sufficient size and incremental marking to allow similar 
measurement and comparison. The detail provided by the video should 
provide sufficient clarity and accuracy to measure the necessary 
parameter(s) to at least \1/2\ of the tolerance authorized for the 
specific test being conducted and allow

[[Page 106]]

an integration of the parameter(s) in question to obtain a rate of 
change.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                      Table A2E--Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
   QPS REQUIREMENTS  The standards in this table are required if the data gathering            Information
             methods described in paragraph 9 of  Appendix A are not used.             -------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Table of objective tests            Sim level       Alternative data sources,
--------------------------------------------------------        procedures, and                   Notes
     Test entry number and title          A        B            instrumentation
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1. Performance. Taxi. Minimum           X        X   TIR, AFM, or Design data may
 Radius turn.                                             be used.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.2. Performance. Taxi Rate of Turn                X   Data may be acquired by using  A single procedure may
 vs. Nosewheel Steering Angle.                            a constant tiller position,    not be adequate for all
                                                          measured with a protractor     airplane steering
                                                          or full rudder pedal           systems, therefore
                                                          application for steady state   appropriate measurement
                                                          turn, and synchronized video   procedures must be
                                                          of heading indicator. If       devised and proposed
                                                          less than full rudder pedal    for NSPM concurrence.
                                                          is used, pedal position must
                                                          be recorded.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1. Performance. Takeoff. Ground         X        X   Preliminary certification
 Acceleration Time and Distance.                          data may be used. Data may
                                                          be acquired by using a stop
                                                          watch, calibrated airspeed,
                                                          and runway markers during a
                                                          takeoff with power set
                                                          before brake release. Power
                                                          settings may be hand
                                                          recorded. If an inertial
                                                          measurement system is
                                                          installed, speed and
                                                          distance may be derived from
                                                          acceleration measurements.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2. Performance. Takeoff. Minimum        X        X   Data may be acquired by using  Rapid throttle
 Control Speed--ground (Vmcg) using                       an inertial measurement        reductions at speeds
 aerodynamic controls only (per                           system and a synchronized      near Vmcg may be used
 applicable airworthiness standard)                       video of calibrated airplane   while recording
 or low speed, engine inoperative                         instruments and force/         appropriate parameters.
 ground control characteristics.                          position measurements of       The nosewheel must be
                                                          flight deck controls.          free to caster, or
                                                                                         equivalently freed of
                                                                                         sideforce generation.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.3. Performance. Takeoff. Minimum        X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 Unstick Speed (Vmu) or equivalent                        an inertial measurement
 test to demonstrate early rotation                       system and a synchronized
 takeoff characteristics.                                 video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and the force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.4. Performance. Takeoff. Normal         X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 Takeoff.                                                 an inertial measurement
                                                          system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls. AOA
                                                          can be calculated from pitch
                                                          attitude and flight path.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.5. Performance. Takeoff. Critical       X        X   Data may be acquired by using  Record airplane dynamic
 Engine Failure during Takeoff.                           an inertial measurement        response to engine
                                                          system and a synchronized      failure and control
                                                          video of calibrated airplane   inputs required to
                                                          instruments and force/         correct flight path.
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.6. Performance. Takeoff.                X        X   Data may be acquired by using  The ``1:7 law'' to 100
 Crosswind Takeoff.                                       an inertial measurement        feet (30 meters) is an
                                                          system and a synchronized      acceptable wind
                                                          video of calibrated airplane   profile.
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 107]]

 
1.b.7. Performance. Takeoff. Rejected       X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 Takeoff.                                                 synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments, thrust lever
                                                          position, engine parameters,
                                                          and distance (e.g., runway
                                                          markers). A stop watch is
                                                          required..
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c. 1. Performance. Climb. Normal          X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 Climb all engines operating..                            synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and engine power
                                                          throughout the climb range.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.2. Performance. Climb. One engine       X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 Inoperative Climb.                                       synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and engine power
                                                          throughout the climb range.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.4. Performance. Climb. One Engine       X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 Inoperative Approach Climb (if                           synchronized video of
 operations in icing conditions are                       calibrated airplane
 authorized).                                             instruments and engine power
                                                          throughout the climb range.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.1. Cruise/Descent. Level flight         X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 acceleration..                                           synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments, thrust lever
                                                          position, engine parameters,
                                                          and elapsed time.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.2. Cruise/Descent. Level flight         X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 deceleration..                                           synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments, thrust lever
                                                          position, engine parameters,
                                                          and elapsed time.
1.d.4. Cruise/Descent. Idle descent..       X        X   Data may be acquired with a
                                                          synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments, thrust lever
                                                          position, engine parameters,
                                                          and elapsed time.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.5. Cruise/Descent. Emergency            X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 Descent.                                                 synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments, thrust lever
                                                          position, engine parameters,
                                                          and elapsed time.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e.1. Performance. Stopping.               X        X   Data may be acquired during
 Deceleration time and distance,                          landing tests using a stop
 using manual application of wheel                        watch, runway markers, and a
 brakes and no reverse thrust on a                        synchronized video of
 dry runway.                                              calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments, thrust lever
                                                          position and the pertinent
                                                          parameters of engine power.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e.2. Performance. Ground.                 X        X   Data may be acquired during
 Deceleration Time and Distance,                          landing tests using a stop
 using reverse thrust and no wheel                        watch, runway markers, and a
 brakes.                                                  synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments, thrust lever
                                                          position and pertinent
                                                          parameters of engine power.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.1. Performance. Engines.                X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 Acceleration.                                            synchronized video recording
                                                          of engine instruments and
                                                          throttle position.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.2. Performance. Engines.                X        X   Data may be acquired with a
 Deceleration.                                            synchronized video recording
                                                          of engine instruments and
                                                          throttle position.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 108]]

 
2.a.1.a. Handling Qualities. Static         X        X   Surface position data may be   For airplanes with
 Control Checks. Pitch Controller                         acquired from flight data      reversible control
 Position vs. Force and Surface                           recorder (FDR) sensor or, if   systems, surface
 Position Calibration.                                    no FDR sensor, at selected,    position data
                                                          significant column positions   acquisition should be
                                                          (encompassing significant      accomplished with winds
                                                          column position data           less than 5 kts.
                                                          points), acceptable to the
                                                          NSPM, using a control
                                                          surface protractor on the
                                                          ground. Force data may be
                                                          acquired by using a hand
                                                          held force gauge at the same
                                                          column position data points.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2.a. Handling Qualities. Static         X        X   Surface position data may be   For airplanes with
 Control Checks. Roll Controller                          acquired from flight data      reversible control
 Position vs. Force and Surface                           recorder (FDR) sensor or, if   systems, surface
 Position Calibration.                                    no FDR sensor, at selected,    position data
                                                          significant wheel positions    acquisition should be
                                                          (encompassing significant      accomplished with winds
                                                          wheel position data points),   less than 5 kts.
                                                          acceptable to the NSPM,
                                                          using a control surface
                                                          protractor on the ground.
                                                          Force data may be acquired
                                                          by using a hand held force
                                                          gauge at the same wheel
                                                          position data points.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3.a. Handling Qualities. Static         X        X   Surface position data may be   For airplanes with
 Control Checks. Rudder Pedal                             acquired from flight data      reversible control
 Position vs. Force and Surface                           recorder (FDR) sensor or, if   systems, surface
 Position Calibration.                                    no FDR sensor, at selected,    position data
                                                          significant rudder pedal       acquisition should be
                                                          positions (encompassing        accomplished with winds
                                                          significant rudder pedal       less than 5 kts.
                                                          position data points),
                                                          acceptable to the NSPM,
                                                          using a control surface
                                                          protractor on the ground.
                                                          Force data may be acquired
                                                          by using a hand held force
                                                          gauge at the same rudder
                                                          pedal position data points.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.4. Handling Qualities. Static           X        X   Breakout data may be acquired
 Control Checks. Nosewheel Steering                       with a hand held force
 Controller Force and Position.                           gauge. The remainder of the
                                                          force to the stops may be
                                                          calculated if the force
                                                          gauge and a protractor are
                                                          used to measure force after
                                                          breakout for at least 25% of
                                                          the total displacement
                                                          capability.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.5. Handling Qualities. Static           X        X   Data may be acquired through
 Control Checks. Rudder Pedal                             the use of force pads on the
 Steering Calibration.                                    rudder pedals and a pedal
                                                          position measurement device,
                                                          together with design data
                                                          for nosewheel position.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.6. Handling Qualities. Static           X        X   Data may be acquired through
 Control Checks. Pitch Trim Indicator                     calculations.
 vs. Surface Position Calibration.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.7. Handling qualities. Static           X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 control tests. Pitch trim rate.                          a synchronized video of
                                                          pitch trim indication and
                                                          elapsed time through range
                                                          of trim indication.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.8. Handling Qualities. Static           X        X   Data may be acquired through
 Control tests. Alignment of Flight                       the use of a temporary
 deck Throttle Lever Angle vs.                            throttle quadrant scale to
 Selected engine parameter.                               document throttle position.
                                                          Use a synchronized video to
                                                          record steady state
                                                          instrument readings or hand-
                                                          record steady state engine
                                                          performance readings.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 109]]

 
2.a.9. Handling qualities. Static           X        X   Use of design or predicted
 control tests. Brake pedal position                      data is acceptable. Data may
 vs. force and brake system pressure                      be acquired by measuring
 calibration.                                             deflection at ``zero'' and
                                                          ``maximum'' and calculating
                                                          deflections between the
                                                          extremes using the airplane
                                                          design data curve.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.1. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 Longitudinal control tests. Power                        an inertial measurement
 change dynamics.                                         system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and throttle
                                                          position.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.2. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 Longitudinal control tests. Flap/                        an inertial measurement
 slat change dynamics.                                    system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and flap/slat
                                                          position.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.3. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 Longitudinal control tests. Spoiler/                     an inertial measurement
 speedbrake change dynamics.                              system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and spoiler/
                                                          speedbrake position.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.4. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 Longitudinal control tests. Gear                         an inertial measurement
 change dynamics.                                         system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and gear
                                                          position.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.5. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired through
 Longitudinal control tests.                              use of an inertial
 Longitudinal trim.                                       measurement system and a
                                                          synchronized video of flight
                                                          deck controls position
                                                          (previously calibrated to
                                                          show related surface
                                                          position) and the engine
                                                          instrument readings.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.6. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired through
 Longitudinal control tests.                              the use of an inertial
 Longitudinal maneuvering stability                       measurement system and a
 (stick force/g).                                         synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments; a temporary,
                                                          high resolution bank angle
                                                          scale affixed to the
                                                          attitude indicator; and a
                                                          wheel and column force
                                                          measurement indication.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.7. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired through
 Longitudinal control tests.                              the use of a synchronized
 Longitudinal static stability.                           video of airplane flight
                                                          instruments and a hand held
                                                          force gauge.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.8. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired through   Airspeeds may be cross
 Longitudinal control tests. Stall                        a synchronized video           checked with those in
 characteristics.                                         recording of a stop watch      the TIR and AFM.
                                                          and calibrated airplane
                                                          airspeed indicator. Hand-
                                                          record the flight conditions
                                                          and airplane configuration.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.9. Handling qualities.                  X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 Longitudinal control tests. Phugoid                      an inertial measurement
 dynamics.                                                system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.10. Handling qualities.                          X   Data may be acquired by using
 Longitudinal control tests. Short                        an inertial measurement
 period dynamics.                                         system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 110]]

 
2.d.1. Handling qualities. Lateral          X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 directional tests. Minimum control                       an inertial measurement
 speed, air (Vmca or Vmci), per                           system and a synchronized
 applicable airworthiness standard or                     video of calibrated airplane
 Low speed engine inoperative                             instruments and force/
 handling characteristics in the air.                     position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.2. Handling qualities. Lateral          X        X   Data may be acquired by using  May be combined with
 directional tests. Roll response                         an inertial measurement        step input of flight
 (rate).                                                  system and a synchronized      deck roll controller
                                                          video of calibrated airplane   test, 2.d.3.
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck lateral controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3. Handling qualities. Lateral          X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 directional tests. Roll response to                      an inertial measurement
 flight deck roll controller step                         system and a synchronized
 input.                                                   video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck lateral controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.4. Handling qualities. Lateral          X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 directional tests. Spiral stability.                     an inertial measurement
                                                          system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments; force/position
                                                          measurements of flight deck
                                                          controls; and a stop watch.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.5. Handling qualities. Lateral          X        X   Data may be hand recorded in-  Trimming during second
 directional tests. Engine                                flight using high resolution   segment climb is not a
 inoperative trim.                                        scales affixed to trim         certification task and
                                                          controls that have been        should not be conducted
                                                          calibrated on the ground       until a safe altitude
                                                          using protractors on the       is reached.
                                                          control/trim surfaces with
                                                          winds less than 5 kts.OR
                                                          Data may be acquired during
                                                          second segment climb (with
                                                          proper pilot control input
                                                          for an engine-out condition)
                                                          by using a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.6. Handling qualities. Lateral          X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 directional tests. Rudder response.                      an inertial measurement
                                                          system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          rudder pedals.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.7. Handling qualities. Lateral          X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 directional tests. Dutch roll, (yaw                      an inertial measurement
 damper OFF).                                             system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.8. Handling qualities. Lateral          X        X   Data may be acquired by using
 directional tests. Steady state                          an inertial measurement
 sideslip.                                                system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
                                                         Ground track and wind
                                                          corrected heading may be
                                                          used for sideslip angle..
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.1. Handling qualities. Landings.                 X   Data may be acquired by using
 Normal landing.                                          an inertial measurement
                                                          system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 111]]

 
2.e.3. Handling qualities. Landings.                 X   Data may be acquired by using
 Crosswind landing.                                       an inertial measurement
                                                          system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.4. Handling qualities. Landings.                 X   Data may be acquired by using
 One engine inoperative landing.                          an inertial measurement
                                                          system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and the force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls. Normal
                                                          and lateral accelerations
                                                          may be recorded in lieu of
                                                          AOA and sideslip.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.5. Handling qualities. Landings.   .......       X   Data may be acquired by using
 Autopilot landing (if applicable).                       an inertial measurement
                                                          system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.Normal
                                                          and lateral accelerations
                                                          may be recorded in lieu of
                                                          AOA and sideslip.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.6. Handling qualities. Landings.   .......       X   Data may be acquired by using
 All engines operating, autopilot, go                     an inertial measurement
 around.                                                  system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls. Normal
                                                          and lateral accelerations
                                                          may be recorded in lieu of
                                                          AOA and sideslip.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.7. Handling qualities. Landings.                 X   Data may be acquired by using
 One engine inoperative go around.                        an inertial measurement
                                                          system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls. Normal
                                                          and lateral accelerations
                                                          may be recorded in lieu of
                                                          AOA and sideslip.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.8. Handling qualities. Landings.                 X   Data may be acquired by using
 Directional control (rudder                              an inertial measurement
 effectiveness with symmetric thrust).                    system and a synchronized
                                                          video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls. Normal
                                                          and lateral accelerations
                                                          may be recorded in lieu of
                                                          AOA and sideslip.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.9. Handling qualities. Landings.                 X   Data may be acquired by using
 Directional control (rudder                              an inertial measurement
 effectiveness with asymmetric                            system and a synchronized
 reverse thrust).                                         video of calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls. Normal
                                                          and lateral accelerations
                                                          may be recorded in lieu of
                                                          AOA and sideslip.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.f. Handling qualities. Ground                      X   Data may be acquired by using  ........................
 effect. Test to demonstrate ground                       calibrated airplane
 effect.                                                  instruments, an inertial
                                                          measurement system, and a
                                                          synchronized video of
                                                          calibrated airplane
                                                          instruments and force/
                                                          position measurements of
                                                          flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 112]]

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 Attachment 3 to Appendix A to Part 60--Simulator Subjective Evaluation

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                             1. Requirements

    a. Except for special use airport models, described as Class III, 
all airport models required by this part must be representations of 
real-world, operational airports or representations of fictional 
airports and must meet the requirements set out in Tables A3B or A3C of 
this attachment, as appropriate.
    b. If fictional airports are used, the sponsor must ensure that 
navigational aids and all appropriate maps, charts, and other 
navigational reference material for the fictional airports (and 
surrounding areas as necessary) are compatible, complete, and accurate 
with respect to the visual presentation of the airport model of this 
fictional airport. An SOC must be submitted that addresses navigation 
aid installation and performance and other criteria (including 
obstruction clearance protection) for all instrument approaches to the 
fictional airports that are available in the simulator. The SOC must 
reference and account for information in the terminal instrument 
procedures manual and the construction and availability of the required 
maps, charts, and other navigational material. This material must be 
clearly marked ``for training purposes only.''
    c. When the simulator is being used by an instructor or evaluator 
for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter, only 
airport models classified as Class I, Class II, or Class III may be used 
by the instructor or evaluator. Detailed descriptions/definitions of 
these classifications are found in Appendix F of this part.
    d. When a person sponsors an FFS maintained by a person other than a 
U.S. certificate holder, the sponsor is accountable for that FFS 
originally meeting, and continuing to meet, the criteria under which it 
was originally qualified and the appropriate Part 60 criteria, including 
the airport models that may be used by instructors or evaluators for 
purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter.
    e. Neither Class II nor Class III airport visual models are required 
to appear on the SOQ, and the method used for keeping instructors and 
evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class 
III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the sponsor, 
but the method used must be available for review by the TPAA.
    f. When an airport model represents a real world airport and a 
permanent change is made to that real world airport (e.g., a new runway, 
an extended taxiway, a new lighting system, a runway closure) without a 
written extension grant from the NSPM (described in paragraph 1.g. of 
this section), an update to that airport model must be made in 
accordance with the following time limits:
    (1) For a new airport runway, a runway extension, a new airport 
taxiway, a taxiway extension, or a runway/taxiway closure--within 90 
days of the opening for use of the new airport runway, runway extension, 
new airport taxiway, or taxiway extension; or within 90 days of the 
closure of the runway or taxiway.
    (2) For a new or modified approach light system--within 45 days of 
the activation of the new or modified approach light system.
    (3) For other facility or structural changes on the airport (e.g., 
new terminal, relocation of Air Traffic Control Tower)--within 180 days 
of the opening of the new or changed facility or structure.
    g. If a sponsor desires an extension to the time limit for an update 
to a visual scene or airport model or has an objection to what must be 
updated in the specific airport model requirement, the sponsor must 
provide a written extension request to the NSPM stating the reason for 
the update delay and a proposed completion date, or explain why the 
update is not necessary (i.e., why the identified airport change will 
not have an impact on flight training, testing, or checking). A copy of 
this request or objection must also be sent to the POI/TCPM. The NSPM 
will send the official response to the sponsor and a copy to the POI/
TCPM. If there is an objection, after consultation with the appropriate 
POI/TCPM regarding the training, testing, or checking impact, the NSPM 
will send the official response to the sponsor and a copy to the POI/
TCPM.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              2. Discussion

    a. The subjective tests provide a basis for evaluating the 
capability of the simulator to perform over a typical utilization 
period; determining that the simulator accurately simulates each 
required maneuver, procedure, or task; and verifying correct operation 
of the simulator controls, instruments, and systems. The items listed in 
the following Tables are for simulator evaluation purposes only. They 
may not be used to limit or exceed the authorizations for use of a given 
level of simulator, as described on the SOQ, or as approved by the TPAA.
    b. The tests in Table A3A, Operations Tasks, in this attachment, 
address pilot functions, including maneuvers and procedures (called 
flight tasks), and are divided by

[[Page 113]]

flight phases. The performance of these tasks by the NSPM includes an 
operational examination of the visual system and special effects. There 
are flight tasks included to address some features of advanced 
technology airplanes and innovative training programs. For example, 
``high angle-of-attack maneuvering'' is included to provide a required 
alternative to ``approach to stalls'' for airplanes employing flight 
envelope protection functions.
    c. The tests in Table A3A, Operations Tasks, and Table A3G, 
Instructor Operating Station of this attachment, address the overall 
function and control of the simulator including the various simulated 
environmental conditions; simulated airplane system operations (normal, 
abnormal, and emergency); visual system displays; and special effects 
necessary to meet flight crew training, evaluation, or flight experience 
requirements.
    d. All simulated airplane systems functions will be assessed for 
normal and, where appropriate, alternate operations. Normal, abnormal, 
and emergency operations associated with a flight phase will be assessed 
during the evaluation of flight tasks or events within that flight 
phase. Simulated airplane systems are listed separately under ``Any 
Flight Phase'' to ensure appropriate attention to systems checks. 
Operational navigation systems (including inertial navigation systems, 
global positioning systems, or other long-range systems) and the 
associated electronic display systems will be evaluated if installed. 
The NSP pilot will include in his report to the TPAA, the effect of the 
system operation and any system limitation.
    e. Simulators demonstrating a satisfactory circling approach will be 
qualified for the circling approach maneuver and may be approved for 
such use by the TPAA in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training 
program. To be considered satisfactory, the circling approach will be 
flown at maximum gross weight for landing, with minimum visibility for 
the airplane approach category, and must allow proper alignment with a 
landing runway at least 90[deg] different from the instrument approach 
course while allowing the pilot to keep an identifiable portion of the 
airport in sight throughout the maneuver (reference--14 CFR 91.175(e)).
    f. At the request of the TPAA, the NSPM may assess a device to 
determine if it is capable of simulating certain training activities in 
a sponsor's training program, such as a portion of a Line Oriented 
Flight Training (LOFT) scenario. Unless directly related to a 
requirement for the qualification level, the results of such an 
evaluation would not affect the qualification level of the simulator. 
However, if the NSPM determines that the simulator does not accurately 
simulate that training activity, the simulator would not be approved for 
that training activity.
    g. The FAA intends to allow the use of Class III airport models when 
the sponsor provides the TPAA (or other regulatory authority) an 
appropriate analysis of the skills, knowledge, and abilities (SKAs) 
necessary for competent performance of the tasks in which this 
particular media element is used. The analysis should describe the 
ability of the FFS/visual media to provide an adequate environment in 
which the required SKAs are satisfactorily performed and learned. The 
analysis should also include the specific media element, such as the 
airport model. Additional sources of information on the conduct of task 
and capability analysis may be found on the FAA's Advanced Qualification 
Program (AQP) Web site at: http://www.faa.gov/education--research/
training/aqp/.
    h. The TPAA may accept Class III airport models without individual 
observation provided the sponsor provides the TPAA with an acceptable 
description of the process for determining the acceptability of a 
specific airport model, outlines the conditions under which such an 
airport model may be used, and adequately describes what restrictions 
will be applied to each resulting airport or landing area model. 
Examples of situations that may warrant Class--III model designation by 
the TPAA include the following:
    (a) Training, testing, or checking on very low visibility 
operations, including SMGCS operations.
    (b) Instrument operations training (including instrument takeoff, 
departure, arrival, approach, and missed approach training, testing, or 
checking) using--
    (i) A specific model that has been geographically ``moved'' to a 
different location and aligned with an instrument procedure for another 
airport.
    (ii) A model that does not match changes made at the real-world 
airport (or landing area for helicopters) being modeled.
    (iii) A model generated with an ``off-board'' or an ``on-board'' 
model development tool (by providing proper latitude/longitude 
reference; correct runway or landing area orientation, length, width, 
marking, and lighting information; and appropriate adjacent taxiway 
location) to generate a facsimile of a real world airport or landing 
area.
    i. Previously qualified simulators with certain early generation 
Computer Generated Image (CGI) visual systems, are limited by the 
capability of the Image Generator or the display system used. These 
systems are:
    (1) Early CGI visual systems that are excepted from the requirement 
of including runway numbers as a part of the specific runway marking 
requirements are:
    (a) Link NVS and DNVS.
    (b) Novoview 2500 and 6000.
    (c) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and including, VITAL III, but 
not beyond.
    (d) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2.

[[Page 114]]

    (2) Early CGI visual systems are excepted from the requirement of 
including runway numbers unless the runways are used for LOFT training 
sessions. These LOFT airport models require runway numbers but only for 
the specific runway end (one direction) used in the LOFT session. The 
systems required to display runway numbers only for LOFT scenes are:
    (a) FlightSafety VITAL IV.
    (b) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T.
    (c) Link-Miles Image II.
    (3) The following list of previously qualified CGI and display 
systems are incapable of generating blue lights. These systems are not 
required to have accurate taxi-way edge lighting:
    (a) Redifusion SP1.
    (b) FlightSafety Vital IV.
    (c) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT
    (d) XKD displays (even though the XKD image generator is capable of 
generating blue colored lights, the display cannot accommodate that 
color).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                                    Table A3A--Functions and Subjective Tests
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                QPS Requirements
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                                                Simulator level
                  Entry No.                                  Operations tasks                -------------------
                                                                                               A    B    C    D
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the airplane simulated as indicated in the
 SOQ Configuration List or the level of simulator qualification involved. Items not installed or not
 functional on the simulator and, therefore, not appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required
 to be listed as exceptions on the SOQ.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1...........................................  Preparation For Flight........................   X    X    X    X
                                              Preflight. Accomplish a functions check of all
                                               switches, indicators, systems, and equipment
                                               at all crewmembers' and instructors' stations
                                               and determine that the flight deck design and
                                               functions are identical to that of the
                                               airplane simulated.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2...........................................  Surface Operations (Pre-Take-Off)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.a.....................................  Engine Start
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        2.a.1...............................  Normal start..................................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        2.a.2...............................  Alternate start procedures....................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        2.a.3...............................  Abnormal starts and shutdowns (e.g., hot/hung    X    X    X    X
                                               start, tail pipe fire).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.b.....................................  Pushback/Powerback............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.c.....................................  Taxi
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        2.c.1...............................  Thrust response...............................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        2.c.2...............................  Power lever friction..........................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        2.c.3...............................  Ground handling...............................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        2.c.4...............................  Nosewheel scuffing............................             X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        2.c.5...............................  Brake operation (normal and alternate/           X    X    X    X
                                               emergency).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        2.c.6...............................  Brake fade (if applicable)....................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3...........................................  Take-off.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.a.....................................  Normal........................................
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.1...............................  Airplane/engine parameter relationships.......   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.2...............................  Acceleration characteristics (motion).........   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.3...............................  Nosewheel and rudder steering.................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.4...............................  Crosswind (maximum demonstrated)..............   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.5...............................  Special performance (e.g., reduced V1, max de-   X    X    X    X
                                               rate, short field operations).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.6...............................  Low visibility take-off.......................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.7...............................  Landing gear, wing flap leading edge device      X    X    X    X
                                               operation.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 115]]

 
        3.a.8...............................  Contaminated runway operation.................   X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.b.....................................  Abnormal/emergency
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.1...............................  Rejected Take-off.............................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.2...............................  Rejected special performance (e.g., reduced      X    X    X    X
                                               V1, max de-rate, short field operations).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.3...............................  Takeoff with a propulsion system malfunction     X    X    X    X
                                               (allowing an analysis of causes, symptoms,
                                               recognition, and the effects on aircraft
                                               performance and handling) at the following
                                               points: ..
                                              (i) Prior to V1 decision speed................
                                              (ii) Between V1 and Vr (rotation speed).......
                                              (iii) Between Vr and 500 feet above ground
                                               level.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.4...............................  With wind shear...............................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.5...............................  Flight control system failures,                  X    X    X    X
                                               reconfiguration modes, manual reversion and
                                               associated handling.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.6...............................  Rejected takeoff with brake fade..............   X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.7...............................  Rejected, contaminated runway.................   X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4...........................................  Climb.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.a.....................................  Normal........................................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.b.....................................  One or more engines inoperative...............   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5...........................................  Cruise
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    5.a.....................................  Performance characteristics (speed vs. power).   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    5.b.....................................  High altitude handling........................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    5.c.....................................  High Mach number handling (Mach tuck, Mach       X    X    X    X
                                               buffet) and recovery (trim change).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    5.d.....................................  Overspeed warning (in excess of Vmo or Mmo)...   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    5.e.....................................  High IAS handling.............................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6...........................................  Maneuvers
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.a.....................................  High angle of attack, approach to stalls,        X    X    X    X
                                               stall warning, buffet, and g-break (take-off,
                                               cruise, approach, and landing configuration).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.b.....................................  Flight envelope protection (high angle of        X    X    X    X
                                               attack, bank limit, overspeed, etc.).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.c.....................................  Turns with/without speedbrake/spoilers           X    X    X    X
                                               deployed.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.d.....................................  Normal and steep turns........................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.e.....................................  In flight engine shutdown and restart            X    X    X    X
                                               (assisted and windmill).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.f.....................................  Maneuvering with one or more engines             X    X    X    X
                                               inoperative, as appropriate.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.g.....................................  Specific flight characteristics (e.g., direct    X    X    X    X
                                               lift control).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.h.....................................  Flight control system failures,                  X    X    X    X
                                               reconfiguration modes, manual reversion and
                                               associated handling.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7...........................................  Descent.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.a.....................................  Normal........................................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.b.....................................  Maximum rate (clean and with speedbrake, etc.)   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.c.....................................  With autopilot................................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 116]]

 
    7.d.....................................  Flight control system failures,                  X    X    X    X
                                               reconfiguration modes, manual reversion and
                                               associated handling.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8...........................................  Instrument Approaches and Landing. Those instrument approach and
                                               landing tests relevant to the simulated airplane type are
                                               selected from the following list. Some tests are made with
                                               limiting wind velocities, under wind shear conditions, and with
                                               relevant system failures, including the failure of the Flight
                                               Director. If Standard Operating Procedures allow use autopilot
                                               for non-precision approaches, evaluation of the autopilot will be
                                               included. Level A simulators are not authorized to credit the
                                               landing maneuver
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    8.a.....................................  Precision.....................................
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        8.a.1...............................  PAR...........................................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        8.a.2...............................  CAT I/GBAS (ILS/MLS) published approaches.....   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                              (i) Manual approach with/without flight          X    X    X    X
                                               director including landing.
                                              (ii) Autopilot/autothrottle coupled approach     X    X    X    X
                                               and manual landing.
                                              (iii) Manual approach to DH and go-around all    X    X    X    X
                                               engines.
                                              (iv) Manual one engine out approach to DH and    X    X    X    X
                                               go-around.
                                              (v) Manual approach controlled with and          X    X    X    X
                                               without flight director to 30 m (100 ft)
                                               below CAT I minima.
                                                A. With cross-wind (maximum demonstrated)...   X    X    X    X
                                                B. With windshear...........................   X    X    X    X
                                              (vi) Autopilot/autothrottle coupled approach,    X    X    X    X
                                               one engine out to DH and go-around.
                                              (vii) Approach and landing with minimum/         X    X    X    X
                                               standby electrical power.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        8.a.3...............................  CAT II/GBAS (ILS/MLS) published approaches....   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                              (i) Autopilot/autothrottle coupled approach to   X    X    X    X
                                               DH and landing.
                                              (ii) Autopilot/autothrottle coupled approach     X    X    X    X
                                               to DH and go-around.
                                              (iii) Autocoupled approach to DH and manual go-  X    X    X    X
                                               around.
                                              (iv) Category II published approach              X    X    X    X
                                               (autocoupled, autothrottle).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        8.a.4...............................  CAT III/GBAS (ILS/MLS) published approaches...   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                              (i) Autopilot/autothrottle coupled approach to   X    X    X    X
                                               land and rollout.
                                              (ii) Autopilot/autothrottle coupled approach     X    X    X    X
                                               to DH/Alert Height and go-around.
                                              (iii) Autopilot/autothrottle coupled approach    X    X    X    X
                                               to land and rollout with one engine out.
                                              (iv) Autopilot/autothrottle coupled approach     X    X    X    X
                                               to DH/Alert Height and go-around with one
                                               engine out.
                                              (v) Autopilot/autothrottle coupled approach      X    X    X    X
                                               (to land or to go around).
                                                A. With generator failure...................   X    X    X    X
                                                B. With 10 knot tail wind...................   X    X    X    X
                                                C. With 10 knot crosswind...................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    8.b.....................................  Non-precision
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        8.b.1...............................  NDB...........................................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        8.b.2...............................  VOR, VOR/DME, VOR/TAC.........................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        8.b.3...............................  RNAV (GNSS/GPS)...............................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        8.b.4...............................  ILS LLZ (LOC), LLZ (LOC)/BC...................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        8.b.5...............................  ILS offset localizer..........................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        8.b.6...............................  Direction finding facility (ADF/SDF)..........   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        8.b.7...............................  Airport surveillance radar (ASR)..............   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9...........................................  Visual Approaches (Visual Segment) and Landings. Flight simulators
                                               with visual systems, which permit completing a special approach
                                               procedure in accordance with applicable regulations, may be
                                               approved for that particular approach procedure
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.a.....................................  Maneuvering, normal approach and landing, all    X    X    X    X
                                               engines operating with and without visual
                                               approach aid guidance.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.b.....................................  Approach and landing with one or more engines    X    X    X    X
                                               inoperative.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 117]]

 
    9.c.....................................  Operation of landing gear, flap/slats and        X    X    X    X
                                               speedbrakes (normal and abnormal).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.d.....................................  Approach and landing with crosswind (max.        X    X    X    X
                                               demonstrated).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.e.....................................  Approach to land with wind shear on approach..   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.f.....................................  Approach and landing with flight control         X    X    X    X
                                               system failures, reconfiguration modes,
                                               manual reversion and associated handling
                                               (most significant degradation which is
                                               probable).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.g.....................................  Approach and landing with trim malfunctions...   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        9.g.1...............................  Longitudinal trim malfunction.................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        9.g.2...............................  Lateral-directional trim malfunction..........   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.h.....................................  Approach and landing with standby (minimum)      X    X    X    X
                                               electrical/hydraulic power.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.i.....................................  Approach and landing from circling conditions    X    X    X    X
                                               (circling approach).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.j.....................................  Approach and landing from visual traffic         X    X    X    X
                                               pattern.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.k.....................................  Approach and landing from non-precision          X    X    X    X
                                               approach.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.l.....................................  Approach and landing from precision approach..   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.m.....................................  Approach procedures with vertical guidance       X    X    X    X
                                               (APV), e.g., SBAS.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10..........................................  Missed Approach
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    10.a....................................  All engines...................................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    10.b....................................  One or more engine(s) out.....................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    10.c....................................  With flight control system failures,             X    X    X    X
                                               reconfiguration modes, manual reversion and
                                               associated handling.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11..........................................  Surface Operations (Landing roll and taxi).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    11.a....................................  Spoiler operation.............................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    11.b....................................  Reverse thrust operation......................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    11.c....................................  Directional control and ground handling, both    X    X    X
                                               with and without reverse thrust.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    11.d....................................  Reduction of rudder effectiveness with           X    X    X
                                               increased reverse thrust (rear pod-mounted
                                               engines).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    11.e....................................  Brake and anti-skid operation with dry, patchy   X    X
                                               wet, wet on rubber residue, and patchy icy
                                               conditions.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    11.f....................................  Brake operation, to include auto-braking         X    X    X    X
                                               system where applicable.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12..........................................  Any Flight Phase.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    12.a....................................  Airplane and engine systems operation.........
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.1..............................  Air conditioning and pressurization (ECS).....   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.2..............................  De-icing/anti-icing...........................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.3..............................  Auxiliary power unit (APU)....................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.4..............................  Communications................................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.5..............................  Electrical....................................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.6..............................  Fire and smoke detection and suppression......   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.7..............................  Flight controls (primary and secondary).......   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 118]]

 
        12.a.8..............................  Fuel and oil, hydraulic and pneumatic.........   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.9..............................  Landing gear..................................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.10.............................  Oxygen........................................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.11.............................  Engine........................................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.12.............................  Airborne radar................................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.13.............................  Autopilot and Flight Director.................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.14.............................  Collision avoidance systems. (e.g., (E)GPWS,     X    X    X    X
                                               TCAS).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.15.............................  Flight control computers including stability     X    X    X    X
                                               and control augmentation.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.16.............................  Flight display systems........................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.17.............................  Flight management computers...................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.18.............................  Head-up guidance, head-up displays............   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.19.............................  Navigation systems............................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.20.............................  Stall warning/avoidance.......................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.21.............................  Wind shear avoidance equipment................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.a.22.............................  Automatic landing aids........................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    12.b....................................  Airborne procedures
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.b.1..............................  Holding.......................................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.b.2..............................  Air hazard avoidance (traffic, weather).......   X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.b.3..............................  Wind shear....................................   X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.b.4..............................  Effects of airframe ice.......................   X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    12.c....................................  Engine shutdown and parking
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.c.1..............................  Engine and systems operation..................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
        12.c.2..............................  Parking brake operation.......................   X    X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


                Table A3B--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS Requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                        Simulator level
     Entry No.       For qualification at the stated -------------------
                      level--Class I airport models    A    B    C    D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
This table specifies the minimum airport model content and functionality
 to qualify a simulator at the indicated level. This table applies only
 to the airport models required for simulator qualification; i.e., one
 airport model for Level A and Level B simulators; three airport models
 for Level C and Level D simulators.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                         Begin QPS Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.................  Functional test content requirements for Level A and
                     Level B simulators. The following is the minimum
                     airport model content requirement to satisfy visual
                     capability tests, and provides suitable visual cues
                     to allow completion of all functions and subjective
                     tests described in this attachment for simulators
                     at Levels A and B.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    1.a...........  A minimum of one (1)               X    X
                     representative airport model.
                     This model identification must
                     be acceptable to the sponsor's
                     TPAA, selectable from the IOS,
                     and listed on the SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 119]]

 
    1.b...........  The fidelity of the airport        X    X
                     model must be sufficient for
                     the aircrew to visually
                     identify the airport; determine
                     the position of the simulated
                     airplane within a night visual
                     scene; successfully accomplish
                     take-offs, approaches, and
                     landings; and maneuver around
                     the airport on the ground as
                     necessary.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    1.c...........  Runways:........................   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        1.c.1.....  Visible runway number...........   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        1.c.2.....  Runway threshold elevations and    X    X
                     locations must be modeled to
                     provide sufficient correlation
                     with airplane systems (e.g.,
                     altimeter).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        1.c.3.....  Runway surface and markings.....   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        1.c.4.....  Lighting for the runway in use     X    X
                     including runway edge and
                     centerline.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        1.c.5.....  Lighting, visual approach aid      X    X
                     and approach lighting of
                     appropriate colors.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        1.c.6.....  Representative taxiway lights...   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.................  Functional test content requirements for Level C and
                     Level D simulators. The following is the minimum
                     airport model content requirement to satisfy visual
                     capability tests, and provide suitable visual cues
                     to allow completion of all functions and subjective
                     tests described in this attachment for simulators
                     at Levels C and D. Not all of the elements
                     described in this section must be found in a single
                     airport model. However, all of the elements
                     described in this section must be found throughout
                     a combination of the three (3) airport models
                     described in entry 2.a.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.a...........  A minimum of three (3)                       X    X
                     representative airport models.
                     The model identifications must
                     be acceptable to the sponsor's
                     TPAA, selectable from the IOS,
                     and listed on the SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        2.a.1.....  Night and Twilight (Dusk) scenes             X    X
                     required.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        2.a.2.....  Daylight scenes required........                  X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        2.b.......  Two parallel runways and one                 X    X
                     crossing runway, displayed
                     simultaneously; at least two of
                     the runways must be able to be
                     lighted fully and
                     simultaneously.
                    Note: This requirement may be
                     demonstrated at either a
                     fictional airport or a real-
                     world airport. However, if a
                     fictional airport is used, this
                     airport must be listed on the
                     SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.c...........  Runway threshold elevations and              X    X
                     locations must be modeled to
                     provide sufficient correlation
                     with airplane systems (e.g.,
                     HGS, GPS, altimeter); slopes in
                     runways, taxiways, and ramp
                     areas must not cause
                     distracting or unrealistic
                     effects, including pilot eye-
                     point height variation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.d...........  Representative airport                       X    X
                     buildings, structures and
                     lighting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.e...........  At least one useable gate, at                X    X
                     the appropriate height
                     (required only for those
                     airplanes that typically
                     operate from terminal gates).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.f...........  Representative moving and static             X    X
                     gate clutter (e.g., other
                     airplane, power carts, tugs,
                     fuel trucks, and additional
                     gates).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.g...........  Representative gate/apron                    X    X
                     markings (e.g., hazard
                     markings, lead-in lines, gate
                     numbering) and lighting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.h...........  Representative runway markings,              X    X
                     lighting, and signage,
                     including a windsock that gives
                     appropriate wind cues.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.i...........  Representative taxiway markings,             X    X
                     lighting, and signage necessary
                     for position identification,
                     and to taxi from parking to a
                     designated runway and return to
                     parking.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.j...........  A low visibility taxi route                       X
                     (e.g., Surface Movement
                     Guidance Control System, follow-
                     me truck, daylight taxi lights)
                     must also be demonstrated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.k...........  Representative moving and static             X    X
                     ground traffic (e.g., vehicular
                     and airplane), including the
                     capability to present ground
                     hazards (e.g., another airplane
                     crossing the active runway).
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 120]]

 
    2.l...........  Representative moving airborne               X    X
                     traffic, including the
                     capability to present air
                     hazards (e.g., airborne traffic
                     on a possible collision course).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.m...........  Representative depiction of                  X    X
                     terrain and obstacles as well
                     as significant and identifiable
                     natural and cultural features,
                     within 25 NM of the reference
                     airport.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.n...........  Appropriate approach lighting                X    X
                     systems and airfield lighting
                     for a VFR circuit and landing,
                     non-precision approaches and
                     landings, and Category I, II
                     and III precision approaches
                     and landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.o...........  Representative gate docking aids             X    X
                     or a marshaller.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.p...........  Portrayal of physical                             X
                     relationships known to cause
                     landing illusions (e.g., short
                     runways, landing approaches
                     over water, uphill or downhill
                     runways, rising terrain on the
                     approach path).
                    This requirement may be met by a
                     SOC and a demonstration of two
                     landing illusions. The
                     illusions are not required to
                     be beyond the normal
                     operational capabilities of the
                     airplane being simulated. The
                     demonstrated illusions must be
                     available to the instructor or
                     check airman at the IOS for
                     training, testing, checking, or
                     experience activities.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.q...........  Portrayal of runway surface                       X
                     contaminants, including runway
                     lighting reflections when wet
                     and partially obscured lights
                     when snow is present, or
                     suitable alternative effects.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.................  Airport model management. The following is the
                     minimum airport model management requirements for
                     simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.a...........  Runway and approach lighting       X    X    X    X
                     must fade into view in
                     accordance with the
                     environmental conditions set in
                     the simulator, and the distance
                     from the object.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.b...........  The direction of strobe lights,    X    X    X    X
                     approach lights, runway edge
                     lights, visual landing aids,
                     runway centerline lights,
                     threshold lights, and touchdown
                     zone lights must be replicated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.................  Visual feature recognition. The following is the
                     minimum distances at which runway features must be
                     visible for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.
                     Distances are measured from runway threshold to an
                     airplane aligned with the runway on an extended
                     3[deg] glide-slope in simulated meteorological
                     conditions that recreate the minimum distances for
                     visibility. For circling approaches, all tests
                     apply to the runway used for the initial approach
                     and to the runway of intended landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.a...........  Runway definition, strobe          X    X    X    X
                     lights, approach lights, and
                     runway edge white lights from 5
                     sm (8 km) of the runway
                     threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.b...........  Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI             X    X
                     or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) of
                     the runway threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.c...........  Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI   X    X
                     or PAPI) from 3 sm (5 km) of
                     the runway threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.d...........  Runway centerline lights and       X    X    X    X
                     taxiway definition from 3 sm (5
                     km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.e...........  Threshold lights and touchdown     X    X    X    X
                     zone lights from 2 sm (3 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.f...........  Runway markings within range of    X    X    X    X
                     landing lights for night scenes
                     as required by the surface
                     resolution test on day scenes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.g...........  For circling approaches, the       X    X    X    X
                     runway of intended landing and
                     associated lighting must fade
                     into view in a non-distracting
                     manner.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 121]]

 
5.................  Airport model content. The following sets out the
                     minimum requirements for what must be provided in
                     an airport model and also identifies the other
                     aspects of the airport environment that must
                     correspond with that model for simulators at Levels
                     A, B, C, and D. For circling approaches, all tests
                     apply to the runway used for the initial approach
                     and to the runway of intended landing. If all
                     runways in an airport model used to meet the
                     requirements of this attachment are not designated
                     as ``in use,'' then the ``in use'' runways must be
                     listed on the SOQ (e.g., KORD, Rwys 9R, 14L, 22R).
                     Models of airports with more than one runway must
                     have all significant runways not ``in-use''
                     visually depicted for airport and runway
                     recognition purposes. The use of white or off white
                     light strings that identify the runway threshold,
                     edges, and ends for twilight and night scenes are
                     acceptable for this requirement. Rectangular
                     surface depictions are acceptable for daylight
                     scenes. A visual system's capabilities must be
                     balanced between providing airport models with an
                     accurate representation of the airport and a
                     realistic representation of the surrounding
                     environment. Airport model detail must be developed
                     using airport pictures, construction drawings and
                     maps, or other similar data, or developed in
                     accordance with published regulatory material;
                     however, this does not require that such models
                     contain details that are beyond the design
                     capability of the currently qualified visual
                     system. Only one ``primary'' taxi route from
                     parking to the runway end will be required for each
                     ``in-use'' runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    5.a...........  The surface and markings for each ``in-use'' runway
                     must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        5.a.1.....  Threshold markings..............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        5.a.2.....  Runway numbers..................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        5.a.3.....  Touchdown zone markings.........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        5.a.4.....  Fixed distance markings.........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        5.a.5.....  Edge markings...................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        5.a.6.....  Centerline stripes..............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    5.b...........  Each runway designated as an ``in-use'' runway must
                     include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        5.b.1.....  The lighting for each ``in-use'' runway must include
                     the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (i) Threshold lights............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (ii) Edge lights................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (iii) End lights................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (iv) Centerline lights, if         X    X    X    X
                     appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (v) Touchdown zone lights, if      X    X    X    X
                     appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (vi) Leadoff lights, if            X    X    X    X
                     appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (vii) Appropriate visual landing   X    X    X    X
                     aid(s) for that runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (viii) Appropriate approach        X    X    X    X
                     lighting system for that runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        5.b.2.....  The taxiway surface and markings associated with
                     each ``in-use'' runway must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (i) Edge........................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (ii) Centerline.................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (iii) Runway hold lines.........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (iv) ILS critical area marking..   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        5.b.3.....  The taxiway lighting associated with each ``in-use''
                     runway must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (i) Edge........................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (ii) Centerline, if appropriate.   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (iii) Runway hold and ILS          X    X    X    X
                     critical area lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 122]]

 
                    (iv) Edge lights of correct                  X    X
                     color.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        5.b.4.....  Airport signage associated with each ``in-use''
                     runway must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (i) Distance remaining signs, if   X    X    X    X
                     appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (ii) Signs at intersecting         X    X    X    X
                     runways and taxiways.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (iii) Signs described in entries   X    X    X    X
                     2.h. and 2.i. of this table.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        5.b.5.....  Required airport model correlation with other
                     aspects of the airport environment simulation:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (i) The airport model must be      X    X    X    X
                     properly aligned with the
                     navigational aids that are
                     associated with operations at
                     the runway ``in-use''.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (ii) The simulation of runway                     X
                     contaminants must be correlated
                     with the displayed runway
                     surface and lighting where
                     applicable.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.................  Correlation with airplane and associated equipment.
                     The following are the minimum correlation
                     comparisons that must be made for simulators at
                     Levels A, B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.a...........  Visual system compatibility with   X    X    X    X
                     aerodynamic programming.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.b...........  Visual cues to assess sink rate         X    X    X
                     and depth perception during
                     landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.c...........  Accurate portrayal of              X    X    X    X
                     environment relating to flight
                     simulator attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.d...........  The airport model and the                    X    X
                     generated visual scene must
                     correlate with integrated
                     airplane systems (e.g.,
                     terrain, traffic and weather
                     avoidance systems and Head-up
                     Guidance System (HGS)).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.e...........  Representative visual effects      X    X    X    X
                     for each visible, own-ship,
                     airplane external light(s)--
                     taxi and landing light lobes
                     (including independent
                     operation, if appropriate).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.f...........  The effect of rain removal                   X    X
                     devices.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.............  Scene quality. The following are the minimum scene
                     quality tests that must be conducted for simulators
                     at Levels A, B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.a...........  Surfaces and textural cues must              X    X
                     be free from apparent and
                     distracting quantization
                     (aliasing).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.b...........  System capable of portraying                 X    X
                     full color realistic textural
                     cues.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.c...........  The system light points must be    X    X    X    X
                     free from distracting jitter,
                     smearing or streaking.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.d...........  Demonstration of occulting         X    X
                     through each channel of the
                     system in an operational scene.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.e...........  Demonstration of a minimum of                X    X
                     ten levels of occulting through
                     each channel of the system in
                     an operational scene.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.f...........  System capable of providing                  X    X
                     focus effects that simulate
                     rain.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.g...........  System capable of providing                  X    X
                     focus effects that simulate
                     light point perspective growth.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.h...........  System capable of six discrete     X    X    X    X
                     light step controls (0-5).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.................  Environmental effects. The following are the minimum
                     environmental effects that must be available as
                     indicated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    8.a...........  The displayed scene                          X    X
                     corresponding to the
                     appropriate surface
                     contaminants and include runway
                     lighting reflections for wet,
                     partially obscured lights for
                     snow, or alternative effects.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        8.a.1.....  Special weather representations which include:
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 123]]

 
                    (i) The sound, motion and visual             X    X
                     effects of light, medium and
                     heavy precipitation near a
                     thunderstorm on take-off,
                     approach, and landings at and
                     below an altitude of 2,000 ft
                     (600 m) above the airport
                     surface and within a radius of
                     10 sm (16 km) from the airport.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    (ii) One airport with a snow                 X    X
                     scene to include terrain snow
                     and snow-covered taxiways and
                     runways.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    8.b...........  In-cloud effects such as                     X    X
                     variable cloud density, speed
                     cues and ambient changes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    8.c...........  The effect of multiple cloud                 X    X
                     layers representing few,
                     scattered, broken and overcast
                     conditions giving partial or
                     complete obstruction of the
                     ground scene.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    8.d...........  Visibility and RVR measured in     X    X    X    X
                     terms of distance. Visibility/
                     RVR checked at 2,000 ft (600 m)
                     above the airport and at two
                     heights below 2000 ft with at
                     least 500 ft of separation
                     between the measurements. The
                     measurements must be taken
                     within a radius of 10 sm (16
                     km) from the airport.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    8.e...........  Patchy fog giving the effect of              X    X
                     variable RVR.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    8.f...........  Effects of fog on airport                    X    X
                     lighting such as halos and
                     defocus.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    8.g...........  Effect of own-ship lighting in               X    X
                     reduced visibility, such as
                     reflected glare, including
                     landing lights, strobes, and
                     beacons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    8.h...........  Wind cues to provide the effect              X    X
                     of blowing snow or sand across
                     a dry runway or taxiway
                     selectable from the instructor
                     station.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.................  Instructor control of the following: The following
                     are the minimum instructor controls that must be
                     available in simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.a...........  Environmental effects, e.g.,       X    X    X    X
                     cloud base, cloud effects,
                     cloud density, visibility in
                     statute miles/kilometers and
                     RVR in feet/meters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.b...........  Airport selection...............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.c...........  Airport lighting, including        X    X    X    X
                     variable intensity.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.d...........  Dynamic effects including ground             X    X
                     and flight traffic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                           End QPS Requirement
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            Begin Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10................  An example of being able to
                     ``combine two airport models to
                     achieve two ``in-use'' runways:
                    One runway designated as the
                     ``in use'' runway in the first
                     model of the airport, and the
                     second runway designated as the
                     ``in use'' runway in the second
                     model of the same airport. For
                     example, the clearance is for
                     the ILS approach to Runway 27,
                     Circle to Land on Runway 18
                     right. Two airport visual
                     models might be used: the first
                     with Runway 27 designated as
                     the ``in use'' runway for the
                     approach to runway 27, and the
                     second with Runway 18 Right
                     designated as the ``in use''
                     runway. When the pilot breaks
                     off the ILS approach to runway
                     27, the instructor may change
                     to the second airport visual
                     model in which runway 18 Right
                     is designated as the ``in use''
                     runway, and the pilot would
                     make a visual approach and
                     landing. This process is
                     acceptable to the FAA as long
                     as the temporary interruption
                     due to the visual model change
                     is not distracting to the
                     pilot, does not cause changes
                     in navigational radio
                     frequencies, and does not cause
                     undue instructor/evaluator time.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
11................  Sponsors are not required to
                     provide every detail of a
                     runway, but the detail that is
                     provided should be correct
                     within the capabilities of the
                     system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                             End Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 124]]


                Table A3C--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                    Additional airport models beyond    Simulator level
                          minimum required for       -------------------
    Entry No.       qualification--Class II airport
                                 models                A    B    C    D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
This table specifies the minimum airport model content and functionality
 necessary to add airport models to a simulator's model library, beyond
 those necessary for qualification at the stated level, without the
 necessity of further involvement of the NSPM or TPAA.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                         Begin QPS Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1................  Airport model management. The following is the
                    minimum airport model management requirements for
                    simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    1.a..........  The direction of strobe lights,     X    X    X    X
                    approach lights, runway edge
                    lights, visual landing aids,
                    runway centerline lights,
                    threshold lights, and touchdown
                    zone lights on the ``in-use''
                    runway must be replicated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2................  Visual feature recognition. The following are the
                    minimum distances at which runway features must be
                    visible for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.
                    Distances are measured from runway threshold to an
                    airplane aligned with the runway on an extended
                    3[deg] glide-slope in simulated meteorological
                    conditions that recreate the minimum distances for
                    visibility. For circling approaches, all
                    requirements of this section apply to the runway
                    used for the initial approach and to the runway of
                    intended landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.a..........  Runway definition, strobe lights,   X    X    X    X
                    approach lights, and runway edge
                    white lights from 5 sm (8 km)
                    from the runway threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.b..........  Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI              X    X
                    or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) from
                    the runway threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.c..........  Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI    X    X
                    or PAPI) from 3 sm (5 km) from
                    the runway threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.d..........  Runway centerline lights and        X    X    X    X
                    taxiway definition from 3 sm (5
                    km) from the runway threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.e..........  Threshold lights and touchdown      X    X    X    X
                    zone lights from 2 sm (3 km)
                    from the runway threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.f..........  Runway markings within range of     X    X    X    X
                    landing lights for night scenes
                    and as required by the surface
                    resolution requirements on day
                    scenes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.g..........  For circling approaches, the        X    X    X    X
                    runway of intended landing and
                    associated lighting must fade
                    into view in a non-distracting
                    manner.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3................  Airport model content. The following prescribes the
                    minimum requirements for what must be provided in an
                    airport model and identifies other aspects of the
                    airport environment that must correspond with that
                    model for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D. The
                    detail must be developed using airport pictures,
                    construction drawings and maps, or other similar
                    data, or developed in accordance with published
                    regulatory material; however, this does not require
                    that airport models contain details that are beyond
                    the designed capability of the currently qualified
                    visual system. For circling approaches, all
                    requirements of this section apply to the runway
                    used for the initial approach and to the runway of
                    intended landing. Only one ``primary'' taxi route
                    from parking to the runway end will be required for
                    each ``in-use'' runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.a..........  The surface and markings for each ``in-use'' runway:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.1....  Threshold markings...............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.2....  Runway numbers...................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.3....  Touchdown zone markings..........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.4....  Fixed distance markings..........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.5....  Edge markings....................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.a.6....  Centerline stripes...............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.b..........  The lighting for each ``in-use'' runway
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.1....  Threshold lights.................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.2....  Edge lights......................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.3....  End lights.......................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.4....  Centerline lights................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 125]]

 
        3.b.5....  Touchdown zone lights, if           X    X    X    X
                    appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.6....  Leadoff lights, if appropriate...   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.7....  Appropriate visual landing aid(s)   X    X    X    X
                    for that runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.b.8....  Appropriate approach lighting       X    X    X    X
                    system for that runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.c..........  The taxiway surface and markings associated with each
                    ``in-use'' runway:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.c.1....  Edge.............................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.c.2....  Centerline.......................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.c.3....  Runway hold lines................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.c.4....  ILS critical area markings.......   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.d..........  The taxiway lighting associated with each ``in-use''
                    runway:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.d.1....  Edge.............................             X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.d.2....  Centerline.......................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
        3.d.3....  Runway hold and ILS critical area   X    X    X    X
                    lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4................  Required model correlation with
                    other aspects of the airport
                    environment simulation The
                    following are the minimum model
                    correlation tests that must be
                    conducted for simulators at
                    Levels A, B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.a..........  The airport model must be           X    X    X    X
                    properly aligned with the
                    navigational aids that are
                    associated with operations at
                    the ``in-use'' runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.b..........  Slopes in runways, taxiways, and    X    X    X    X
                    ramp areas, if depicted in the
                    visual scene, must not cause
                    distracting or unrealistic
                    effects.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5................  Correlation with airplane and associated equipment.
                    The following are the minimum correlation
                    comparisons that must be made for simulators at
                    Levels A, B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
  5.a............  Visual system compatibility with    X    X    X    X
                    aerodynamic programming.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    5.b..........  Accurate portrayal of environment   X    X    X    X
                    relating to flight simulator
                    attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    5.c..........  Visual cues to assess sink rate          X    X    X
                    and depth perception during
                    landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    5.d..........  Visual effects for each visible,         X    X    X
                    own-ship, airplane external
                    light(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6................  Scene quality. The following are the minimum scene
                    quality tests that must be conducted for simulators
                    at Levels A, B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.a..........  Surfaces and textural cues must               X    X
                    be free of apparent and
                    distracting quantization
                    (aliasing).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b..............  Correct color and realistic                   X    X
                    textural cues.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c..............  Light points free from              X    X    X    X
                    distracting jitter, smearing or
                    streaking.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7................  Instructor controls of the following: The following
                    are the minimum instructor controls that must be
                    available in simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.a..........  Environmental effects, e.g.,        X    X    X    X
                    cloud base (if used), cloud
                    effects, cloud density,
                    visibility in statute miles/
                    kilometers and RVR in feet/
                    meters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.b..........  Airport selection................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.c..........  Airport lighting including          X    X    X    X
                    variable intensity.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    7.d..........  Dynamic effects including ground              X    X
                    and flight traffic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 126]]

 
                          End QPS Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            Begin Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8................  Sponsors are not required to        X    X    X    X
                    provide every detail of a
                    runway, but the detail that is
                    provided must be correct within
                    the capabilities of the system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                             End Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------


                Table A3D--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   QPS Requirements                       Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                     Simulator level
  Entry no.       Motion system   --------------------       Notes
                     effects        A    B    C    D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
This table specifies motion effects that are required to indicate when a
 flight crewmember must be able to recognize an event or situation.
 Where applicable, flight simulator pitch, side loading and directional
 control characteristics must be representative of the airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1............  Runway rumble,       X    X    X    X   Different gross
                oleo deflection,                        weights can also
                ground speed,                           be selected,
                uneven runway,                          which may also
                runway and                              affect the
                taxiway                                 associated
                centerline light                        vibrations
                characteristics:                        depending on
               Procedure: After                         airplane type.
                the airplane has                        The associated
                been pre-set to                         motion effects
                the takeoff                             for the above
                position and then                       tests should
                released, taxi at                       also include an
                various speeds                          assessment of
                with a smooth                           the effects of
                runway and note                         rolling over
                the general                             centerline
                characteristics                         lights, surface
                of the simulated                        discontinuities
                runway rumble                           of uneven
                effects of oleo                         runways, and
                deflections.                            various taxiway
                Repeat the                              characteristics.
                maneuver with a
                runway roughness
                of 50%, then with
                maximum
                roughness. Note
                the associated
                motion vibrations
                affected by
                ground speed and
                runway roughness.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2............  Buffets on the       X    X    X    X
                ground due to
                spoiler/
                speedbrake
                extension and
                reverse thrust:
               Procedure: Perform
                a normal landing
                and use ground
                spoilers and
                reverse thrust--
                either
                individually or
                in combination--
                to decelerate the
                simulated
                airplane. Do not
                use wheel braking
                so that only the
                buffet due to the
                ground spoilers
                and thrust
                reversers is felt.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3............  Bumps associated     X    X    X    X
                with the landing
                gear:
               Procedure: Perform
                a normal take-off
                paying special
                attention to the
                bumps that could
                be perceptible
                due to maximum
                oleo extension
                after lift-off.
                When the landing
                gear is extended
                or retracted,
                motion bumps can
                be felt when the
                gear locks into
                position.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4............  Buffet during        X    X    X    X
                extension and
                retraction of
                landing gear:
               Procedure: Operate
                the landing gear.
                Check that the
                motion cues of
                the buffet
                experienced
                represent the
                actual airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 127]]

 
5............  Buffet in the air    X    X    X    X
                due to flap and
                spoiler/
                speedbrake
                extension and
                approach to stall
                buffet:
               Procedure: Perform
                an approach and
                extend the flaps
                and slats with
                airspeeds
                deliberately in
                excess of the
                normal approach
                speeds. In cruise
                configuration,
                verify the
                buffets
                associated with
                the spoiler/
                speedbrake
                extension. The
                above effects can
                also be verified
                with different
                combinations of
                spoiler/
                speedbrake, flap,
                and landing gear
                settings to
                assess the
                interaction
                effects.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6............  Approach to stall    X    X    X    X
                buffet:
               Procedure: Conduct
                an approach-to-
                stall with
                engines at idle
                and a
                deceleration of 1
                knot/second.
                Check that the
                motion cues of
                the buffet,
                including the
                level of buffet
                increase with
                decreasing speed,
                are
                representative of
                the actual
                airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7............  Touchdown cues for   X    X    X    X
                main and nose
                gear:
               Procedure: Conduct
                several normal
                approaches with
                various rates of
                descent. Check
                that the motion
                cues for the
                touchdown bumps
                for each descent
                rate are
                representative of
                the actual
                airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8............  Nosewheel            X    X    X    X
                scuffing:
               Procedure: Taxi at
                various ground
                speeds and
                manipulate the
                nosewheel
                steering to cause
                yaw rates to
                develop that
                cause the
                nosewheel to
                vibrate against
                the ground
                (``scuffing'').
                Evaluate the
                speed/nosewheel
                combination
                needed to produce
                scuffing and
                check that the
                resultant
                vibrations are
                representative of
                the actual
                airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9............  Thrust effect with   X    X    X    X   This effect is
                brakes set:                             most discernible
               Procedure: Set the                       with wing-
                brakes on at the                        mounted engines.
                take-off point
                and increase the
                engine power
                until buffet is
                experienced.
                Evaluate its
                characteristics.
                Confirm that the
                buffet increases
                appropriately
                with increasing
                engine thrust.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10...........  Mach and maneuver   ...   X    X    X
                buffet:
               Procedure: With
                the simulated
                airplane trimmed
                in 1 g flight
                while at high
                altitude,
                increase the
                engine power so
                that the Mach
                number exceeds
                the documented
                value at which
                Mach buffet is
                experienced.
                Check that the
                buffet begins at
                the same Mach
                number as it does
                in the airplane
                (for the same
                configuration)
                and that buffet
                levels are
                representative of
                the actual
                airplane. For
                certain
                airplanes,
                maneuver buffet
                can also be
                verified for the
                same effects.
                Maneuver buffet
                can occur during
                turning flight at
                conditions
                greater than 1 g,
                particularly at
                higher altitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 128]]

 
11...........  Tire failure        ...  ...   X    X   The pilot may
                dynamics:                               notice some
               Procedure:                               yawing with a
                Simulate a single                       multiple tire
                tire failure and                        failure selected
                a multiple tire                         on the same
                failure.                                side. This
                                                        should require
                                                        the use of the
                                                        rudder to
                                                        maintain control
                                                        of the airplane.
                                                       Dependent on
                                                        airplane type, a
                                                        single tire
                                                        failure may not
                                                        be noticed by
                                                        the pilot and
                                                        should not have
                                                        any special
                                                        motion effect.
                                                        Sound or
                                                        vibration may be
                                                        associated with
                                                        the actual tire
                                                        losing pressure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
12...........  Engine malfunction  ...   X    X    X
                and engine
                damage:
               Procedure: The
                characteristics
                of an engine
                malfunction as
                stipulated in the
                malfunction
                definition
                document for the
                particular flight
                simulator must
                describe the
                special motion
                effects felt by
                the pilot. Note
                the associated
                engine
                instruments
                varying according
                to the nature of
                the malfunction
                and note the
                replication of
                the effects of
                the airframe
                vibration.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
13...........  Tail strikes and    ...   X    X    X   The motion effect
                engine pod                              should be felt
                strikes:                                as a noticeable
               Procedure: Tail-                         bump. If the
                strikes can be                          tail strike
                checked by over-                        affects the
                rotation of the                         airplane angular
                airplane at a                           rates, the
                speed below Vr                          cueing provided
                while performing                        by the motion
                a takeoff. The                          system should
                effects can also                        have an
                be verified                             associated
                during a landing.                       effect.
               Excessive banking
                of the airplane
                during its take-
                off/landing roll
                can cause a pod
                strike.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


                Table A3E--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS Requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                        Simulator level
   Entry No.                 Sound system            -------------------
                                                       A    B    C    D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
 The following checks are performed during a normal flight profile with
                            motion system ON.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1..............  Precipitation......................             X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2..............  Rain removal equipment.............             X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3..............  Significant airplane noises                     X    X
                  perceptible to the pilot during
                  normal operations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4..............  Abnormal operations for which there             X    X
                  are associated sound cues
                  including, engine malfunctions,
                  landing gear/tire malfunctions,
                  tail and engine pod strike and
                  pressurization malfunction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5..............  Sound of a crash when the flight      X    X
                  simulator is landed in excess of
                  limitations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


                Table A3F--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS Requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                        Simulator level
   Entry No.               Special effects           -------------------
                                                       A    B    C    D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
   This table specifies the minimum special effects necessary for the
                       specified simulator level.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1..............  Braking Dynamics:
                 Representations of the dynamics of              X    X
                  brake failure (flight simulator
                  pitch, side-loading, and
                  directional control
                  characteristics representative of
                  the airplane), including antiskid
                  and decreased brake efficiency due
                  to high brake temperatures (based
                  on airplane related data),
                  sufficient to enable pilot
                  identification of the problem and
                  implementation of appropriate
                  procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2..............  Effects of Airframe and Engine                  X    X
                  Icing:

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                 Required only for those airplanes
                  authorized for operations in known
                  icing conditions.
                 Procedure: With the simulator
                  airborne, in a clean
                  configuration, nominal altitude
                  and cruise airspeed, autopilot on
                  and auto-throttles off, engine and
                  airfoil anti-ice/de-ice systems
                  deactivated; activate icing
                  conditions at a rate that allows
                  monitoring of simulator and
                  systems response. Icing
                  recognition will include an
                  increase in gross weight, airspeed
                  decay, change in simulator pitch
                  attitude, change in engine
                  performance indications (other
                  than due to airspeed changes), and
                  change in data from pitot/static
                  system. Activate heating, anti-
                  ice, or de-ice systems
                  independently. Recognition will
                  include proper effects of these
                  systems, eventually returning the
                  simulated airplane to normal
                  flight.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


                Table A3G--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS Requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                        Simulator level
   Entry No.               Special effects           -------------------
                                                       A    B    C    D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
  Functions in this table are subject to evaluation only if appropriate
     for the airplane and/or the system is installed on the specific
                               simulator.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1..............  Simulator Power Switch(es).........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2..............  Airplane conditions
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.a........  Gross weight, center of gravity,      X    X    X    X
                  fuel loading and allocation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.b........  Airplane systems status............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    2.c........  Ground crew functions (e.g., ext.     X    X    X    X
                  power, push back).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3..............  Airports
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.a........  Number and selection...............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.b........  Runway selection...................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.c........  Runway surface condition (e.g.,       X    X
                  rough, smooth, icy, wet).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.d........  Preset positions (e.g., ramp, gate,   X    X    X    X
                  1 for takeoff, takeoff
                  position, over FAF).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    3.e........  Lighting controls..................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4..............  Environmental controls
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.a........  Visibility (statute miles             X    X    X    X
                  (kilometers)).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.b........  Runway visual range (in feet          X    X    X    X
                  (meters)).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.c........  Temperature........................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.d........  Climate conditions (e.g., ice,        X    X    X    X
                  snow, rain).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.e........  Wind speed and direction...........   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.f........  Windshear..........................   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    4.g........  Clouds (base and tops).............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5..............  Airplane system malfunctions          X    X    X    X
                  (Inserting and deleting
                  malfunctions into the simulator).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6..............  Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.a........  Problem (all) freeze/release.......   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.b........  Position (geographic) freeze/         X    X    X    X
                  release.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    6.c........  Repositioning (locations, freezes,    X    X    X    X
                  and releases).
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 130]]

 
    6.d........  Ground speed control...............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7..............  Remote IOS.........................   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8..............  Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment..   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9..............  Motion/Control Loading System
------------------------------------------------------------------------
    9.a........  On/off/emergency stop..............   X    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.............  Observer Seats/Stations. Position/    X    X    X    X
                  Adjustment/Positive restraint
                  system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                             1. Introduction

    a. The following is an example test schedule for an Initial/Upgrade 
evaluation that covers the majority of the requirements set out in the 
Functions and Subjective test requirements. It is not intended that the 
schedule be followed line by line, rather, the example should be used as 
a guide for preparing a schedule that is tailored to the airplane, 
sponsor, and training task.
    b. Functions and subjective tests should be planned. This 
information has been organized as a reference document with the 
considerations, methods, and evaluation notes for each individual aspect 
of the simulator task presented as an individual item. In this way the 
evaluator can design his or her own test plan, using the appropriate 
sections to provide guidance on method and evaluation criteria. Two 
aspects should be present in any test plan structure:
    (1) An evaluation of the simulator to determine that it replicates 
the aircraft and performs reliably for an uninterrupted period 
equivalent to the length of a typical training session.
    (2) The simulator should be capable of operating reliably after the 
use of training device functions such as repositions or malfunctions.
    c. A detailed understanding of the training task will naturally lead 
to a list of objectives that the simulator should meet. This list will 
form the basis of the test plan. Additionally, once the test plan has 
been formulated, the initial conditions and the evaluation criteria 
should be established. The evaluator should consider all factors that 
may have an influence on the characteristics observed during particular 
training tasks in order to make the test plan successful.

                                2. Events

                          a. Initial Conditions

    (1) Airport.
    (2) QNH.
    (3) Temperature.
    (4) Wind/Crosswind.
    (5) Zero Fuel Weight /Fuel/Gross Weight /Center of Gravity.

                            b. Initial Checks

    (1) Documentation of Simulator.
    (a) Simulator Acceptance Test Manuals.
    (b) Simulator Approval Test Guide.
    (c) Technical Logbook Open Item List.
    (d) Daily Functional Pre-flight Check.
    (2) Documentation of User/Carrier Flight Logs.
    (a) Simulator Operating/Instructor Manual.
    (b) Difference List (Aircraft/Simulator).
    (c) Flight Crew Operating Manuals.
    (d) Performance Data for Different Fields.
    (e) Crew Training Manual.
    (f) Normal/Abnormal/Emergency Checklists.
    (3) Simulator External Checks.
    (a) Appearance and Cleanliness.
    (b) Stairway/Access Bridge.
    (c) Emergency Rope Ladders.
    (d) ``Motion On''/``Flight in Progress'' Lights.
    (4) Simulator Internal Checks.
    (a) Cleaning/Disinfecting Towels (for cleaning oxygen masks).
    (b) Flight deck Layout (compare with difference list).
    (5) Equipment.
    (a) Quick Donning Oxygen Masks.
    (b) Head Sets.
    (c) Smoke Goggles.
    (d) Sun Visors.
    (e) Escape Rope.
    (f) Chart Holders.
    (g) Flashlights.
    (h) Fire Extinguisher (inspection date).
    (i) Crash Axe.
    (j) Gear Pins.

[[Page 131]]

                  c. Power Supply and APU Start Checks

    (1) Batteries and Static Inverter.
    (2) APU Start with Battery.
    (3) APU Shutdown using Fire Handle.
    (4) External Power Connection.
    (5) APU Start with External Power.
    (6) Abnormal APU Start/Operation.

                          d. Flight deck Checks

    (1) Flight deck Preparation Checks.
    (2) FMC Programming.
    (3) Communications and Navigational Aids Checks.

                             e. Engine Start

    (1) Before Start Checks.
    (2) Battery start with Ground Air Supply Unit.
    (3) Engine Crossbleed Start.
    (4) Normal Engine Start.
    (5) Abnormal Engine Starts.
    (6) Engine Idle Readings.
    (7) After Start Checks.

                             f. Taxi Checks

    (1) Pushback/Powerback.
    (2) Taxi Checks.
    (3) Ground Handling Check:
    (a) Power required to initiate ground roll.
    (b) Thrust response.
    (c) Nosewheel and Pedal Steering.
    (d) Nosewheel Scuffing.
    (e) Perform 180 degree turns.
    (f) Brakes Response and Differential Braking using Normal, Alternate 
and Emergency.
    (g) Brake Systems.
    (h) Eye height and fore/aft position.
    (4) Runway Roughness.
    g. Visual Scene--Ground Assessment. Select 3 different airport 
models and perform the following checks with Day, Dusk and Night 
selected, as appropriate:
    (1) Visual Controls.
    (a) Daylight, Dusk, Night Scene Controls.
    (b) Flight deck ``Daylight'' ambient lighting.
    (c) Environment Light Controls.
    (d) Runway Light Controls.
    (e) Taxiway Light Controls.
    (2) Airport Model Content.
    (a) Ramp area for buildings, gates, airbridges, maintenance ground 
equipment, parked aircraft.
    (b) Daylight shadows, night time light pools.
    (c) Taxiways for correct markings, taxiway/runway, marker boards, 
CAT I and II/III hold points, taxiway shape/grass areas, taxiway light 
(positions and colors).
    (d) Runways for correct markings, lead-off lights, boards, runway 
slope, runway light positions, and colors, directionality of runway 
lights.
    (e) Airport environment for correct terrain and significant 
features.
    (f) Visual scene quantization (aliasing), color, and occulting 
levels.
    (3) Ground Traffic Selection.
    (4) Environment Effects.
    (a) Low cloud scene.
    (i) Rain:
    (A) Runway surface scene.
    (B) Windshield wiper--operation and sound.
    (ii) Hail:
    (A) Runway surface scene.
    (B) Windshield wiper--operation and sound.
    (b) Lightning/thunder.
    (c) Snow/ice runway surface scene.
    (d) Fog.
    h. Takeoff. Select one or several of the following test cases:
    (1) T/O Configuration Warnings.
    (2) Engine Takeoff Readings.
    (3) Rejected Takeoff (Dry/Wet/Icy Runway) and check the following:
    (a) Autobrake function.
    (b) Anti-skid operation.
    (c) Motion/visual effects during deceleration.
    (d) Record stopping distance (use runway plot or runway lights 
remaining).
    Continue taxiing along the runway while applying brakes and check 
the following:
    (e) Center line lights alternating red/white for 2000 feet/600 
meters.
    (f) Center line lights all red for 1000 feet/300 meters.
    (g) Runway end, red stop bars.
    (h) Braking fade effect.
    (i) Brake temperature indications.
    (4) Engine Failure between VI and V2.
    (5) Normal Takeoff:
    (a) During ground roll check the following:
    (i) Runway rumble.
    (ii) Acceleration cues.
    (iii) Groundspeed effects.
    (iv) Engine sounds.
    (v) Nosewheel and rudder pedal steering.
    (b) During and after rotation, check the following:
    (i) Rotation characteristics.
    (ii) Column force during rotation.
    (iii) Gear uplock sounds/bumps.
    (iv) Effect of slat/flap retraction during climbout.
    (6) Crosswind Takeoff (check the following):
    (a) Tendency to turn into or out of the wind.
    (b) Tendency to lift upwind wing as airspeed increases.
    (7) Windshear during Takeoff (check the following):
    (a) Controllable during windshear encounter.
    (b) Performance adequate when using correct techniques.
    (c) Windshear Indications satisfactory.
    (d) Motion cues satisfactory (particularly turbulence).
    (8) Normal Takeoff with Control Malfunction.

[[Page 132]]

    (9) Low Visibility T/O (check the following):
    (a) Visual cues.
    (b) Flying by reference to instruments.
    (c) SID Guidance on LNAV.
    i. Climb Performance. Select one or several of the following test 
cases:
    (1) Normal Climb--Climb while maintaining recommended speed profile 
and note fuel, distance and time.
    (2) Single Engine Climb--Trim aircraft in a zero wheel climb at V2.
    Note: Up to 5[deg] bank towards the operating engine(s) is 
permissible. Climb for 3 minutes and note fuel, distance, and time. 
Increase speed toward en route climb speed and retract flaps. Climb for 
3 minutes and note fuel, distance, and time.

    j. Systems Operation During Climb.
    Check normal operation and malfunctions as appropriate for the 
following systems:
    (1) Air conditioning/Pressurization/Ventilation.
    (2) Autoflight.
    (3) Communications.
    (4) Electrical.
    (5) Fuel.
    (6) Icing Systems.
    (7) Indicating and Recording Systems.
    (8) Navigation/FMS.
    (9) Pneumatics.
    k. Cruise Checks. Select one or several of the following test cases:
    (1) Cruise Performance.
    (2) High Speed/High Altitude Handling (check the following):
    (a) Overspeed warning.
    (b) High Speed buffet.
    (c) Aircraft control satisfactory.
    (d) Envelope limiting functions on Computer Controlled Aircraft.
    Reduce airspeed to below level flight buffet onset speed, start a 
turn, and check the following:
    (e) High Speed buffet increases with G loading.
    Reduce throttles to idle and start descent, deploy the speedbrake, 
and check the following:
    (f) Speedbrake indications.
    (g) Symmetrical deployment.
    (h) Airframe buffet.
    (i) Aircraft response hands off.
    (3) Yaw Damper Operation. Switch off yaw dampers and autopilot. 
Initiate a Dutch roll and check the following:
    (a) Aircraft dynamics.
    (b) Simulator motion effects.
    Switch on yaw dampers, re-initiate a Dutch roll and check the 
following:
    (c) Damped aircraft dynamics.
    (4) APU Operation.
    (5) Engine Gravity Feed.
    (6) Engine Shutdown and Driftdown Check: FMC operation Aircraft 
performance.
    (7) Engine Relight.
    l. Descent. Select one of the following test cases:
    (1) Normal Descent. Descend while maintaining recommended speed 
profile and note fuel, distance and time.
    (2) Cabin Depressurization/Emergency Descent.
    m. Medium Altitude Checks. Select one or several of the following 
test cases:
    (1) High Angle of Attack/Stall. Trim the aircraft at 1.4 Vs, 
establish 1 kt/sec \2\ deceleration rate, and check the following--
    (a) System displays/operation satisfactory.
    (b) Handling characteristics satisfactory.
    (c) Stall and Stick shaker speed.
    (d) Buffet characteristics and onset speed.
    (e) Envelope limiting functions on Computer Controlled Aircraft.
    Recover to straight and level flight and check the following:
    (f) Handling characteristics satisfactory.
    (2) Turning Flight. Roll aircraft to left, establish a 30[deg] to 
45[deg] bank angle, and check the following:
    (a) Stick force required, satisfactory.
    (b) Wheel requirement to maintain bank angle.
    (c) Slip ball response, satisfactory.
    (d) Time to turn 180[deg].
    Roll aircraft from 45[deg] bank one way to 45[deg] bank the opposite 
direction while maintaining altitude and airspeed--check the following:
    (e) Controllability during maneuver.
    (3) Degraded flight controls.
    (4) Holding Procedure (check the following:)
    (a) FMC operation.
    (b) Autopilot auto thrust performance.
    (5) Storm Selection (check the following:)
    (a) Weather radar controls.
    (b) Weather radar operation.
    (c) Visual scene corresponds with WXR pattern.
    (Fly through storm center, and check the following:)
    (d) Aircraft enters cloud.
    (e) Aircraft encounters representative turbulence.
    (f) Rain/hail sound effects evident.
    As aircraft leaves storm area, check the following:
    (g) Storm effects disappear.
    (6) TCAS (check the following:)
    (a) Traffic appears on visual display.
    (b) Traffic appears on TCAS display(s).
    As conflicting traffic approaches, take relevant avoiding action, 
and check the following:
    (c) Visual and TCAS system displays.
    n. Approach and Landing. Select one or several of the following test 
cases while monitoring flight control and hydraulic systems for normal 
operation and with malfunctions selected:
    (1) Flaps/Gear Normal Operation. Check the following:

[[Page 133]]

    (a) Time for extension/retraction.
    (b) Buffet characteristics.
    (2) Normal Visual Approach and Landing.
    Fly a normal visual approach and landing--check the following:
    (a) Aircraft handling.
    (b) Spoiler operation.
    (c) Reverse thrust operation.
    (d) Directional control on the ground.
    (e) Touchdown cues for main and nosewheel.
    (f) Visual cues.
    (g) Motion cues.
    (h) Sound cues.
    (i) Brake and anti-skid operation.
    (3) Flaps/Gear Abnormal Operation or with hydraulic malfunctions.
    (4) Abnormal Wing Flaps/Slats Landing.
    (5) Manual Landing with Control Malfunction.
    (a) Aircraft handling.
    (b) Radio aids and instruments.
    (c) Airport model content and cues.
    (d) Motion cues.
    (e) Sound cues.
    (6) Non-precision Approach--All Engines Operating.
    (a) Aircraft handling.
    (b) Radio Aids and instruments.
    (c) Airport model content and cues.
    (d) Motion cues.
    (e) Sound cues.
    (7) Circling Approach.
    (a) Aircraft handling.
    (c) Radio Aids and instruments.
    (d) Airport model content and cues.
    (e) Motion cues.
    (f) Sound cues.
    (8) Non-precision Approach--One Engine Inoperative.
    (a) Aircraft handling.
    (b) Radio Aids and instruments.
    (c) Airport model content and cues.
    (d) Motion cues.
    (e) Sound cues.
    (9) One Engine Inoperative Go-around.
    (a) Aircraft handling.
    (b) Radio Aids and instruments.
    (c) Airport model content and cues.
    (d) Motion cues.
    (e) Sound cues.
    (10) CAT I Approach and Landing with raw-data ILS.
    (a) Aircraft handling.
    (b) Radio Aids and instruments.
    (c) Airport model content and cues.
    (d) Motion cues.
    (e) Sound cues.
    (11) CAT I Approach and Landing with Limiting Crosswind.
    (a) Aircraft handling.
    (b) Radio Aids and instruments.
    (c) Airport model content and cues.
    (d) Motion cues.
    (e) Sound cues.
    (12) CAT I Approach with Windshear. Check the following:
    (a) Controllable during windshear encounter.
    (b) Performance adequate when using correct techniques.
    (c) Windshear indications/warnings.
    (d) Motion cues (particularly turbulence).
    (13) CAT II Approach and Automatic Go-Around.
    (14) CAT III Approach and Landing--System Malfunctions.
    (15) CAT III Approach and Landing--1 Engine Inoperative.
    (16) GPWS evaluation.
    o. Visual Scene--In-Flight Assessment.
    Select three (3) different visual models and perform the following 
checks with ``day,'' ``dusk,'' and ``night'' (as appropriate) selected. 
Reposition the aircraft at or below 2000 feet within 10 nm of the 
airfield. Fly the aircraft around the airport environment and assess 
control of the visual system and evaluate the Airport model content as 
described below:
    (1) Visual Controls.
    (a) Daylight, Dusk, Night Scene Controls.
    (b) Environment Light Controls.
    (c) Runway Light Controls.
    (d) Taxiway Light Controls.
    (e) Approach Light Controls.
    (2) Airport model Content.
    (a) Airport environment for correct terrain and significant 
features.
    (b) Runways for correct markings, runway slope, directionality of 
runway lights.
    (c) Visual scene for quantization (aliasing), color, and occulting.
    Reposition the aircraft to a long, final approach for an ``ILS 
runway.'' Select flight freeze when the aircraft is 5-statute miles 
(sm)/8-kilometers (km) out and on the glide slope. Check the following:
    (3) Airport model content.
    (a) Airfield features.
    (b) Approach lights.
    (c) Runway definition.
    (d) Runway definition.
    (e) Runway edge lights and VASI lights.
    (f) Strobe lights.
    Release flight freeze. Continue flying the approach with NP engaged. 
Select flight freeze when aircraft is 3 sm/5 km out and on the glide 
slope. Check the following:
    (4) Airport model Content.
    (a) Runway centerline light.
    (b) Taxiway definition and lights.
    Release flight freeze and continue flying the approach with A/P 
engaged. Select flight freeze when aircraft is 2 sm/3 km out and on the 
glide slope. Check the following:
    (5) Airport model content.
    (a) Runway threshold lights.
    (b) Touchdown zone lights.
    At 200 ft radio altitude and still on glide slope, select Flight 
Freeze. Check the following:
    (6) Airport model content.
    (a) Runway markings.

[[Page 134]]

    Set the weather to Category I conditions and check the following:
    (7) Airport model content.
    (a) Visual ground segment.
    Set the weather to Category II conditions, release Flight Freeze, 
re-select Flight Freeze at 100 feet radio altitude, and check the 
following:
    (8) Airport model content.
    (a) Visual ground segment.
    Select night/dusk (twilight) conditions and check the following:
    (9) Airport model content.
    (a) Runway markings visible within landing light lobes.
    Set the weather to Category III conditions, release Flight Freeze, 
re-select Flight Freeze at 50 feet radio altitude and check the 
following:
    (10) Airport model content.
    (a) Visual ground segment.
    Set WX to a typical ``missed approach? weather condition, release 
Flight Freeze, re-select Flight Freeze at 15 feet radio altitude, and 
check the following:
    (11) Airport model content.
    (a) Visual ground segment.
    When on the ground, stop the aircraft. Set 0 feet RVR, ensure 
strobe/beacon tights are switched on and check the following:
    (12) Airport model content.
    (a) Visual effect of strobe and beacon.
    Reposition to final approach, set weather to ``Clear,'' continue 
approach for an automatic landing, and check the following:
    (13) Airport model content.
    (a) Visual cues during flare to assess sink rate.
    (b) Visual cues during flare to assess Depth perception.
    (c) Flight deck height above ground.
    After Landing Operations.
    (1) After Landing Checks.
    (2) Taxi back to gate. Check the following:
    (a) Visual model satisfactory.
    (b) Parking brake operation satisfactory.
    (3) Shutdown Checks.
    q. Crash Function.
    (1) Gear-up Crash.
    (2) Excessive rate of descent Crash.
    (3) Excessive bank angle Crash.

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     Attachment 5 to Appendix A to Part 60--Simulator Qualification 
             Requirements for Windshear Training Program Use

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                            1. Applicability

    This attachment applies to all simulators, regardless of 
qualification level, that are used to satisfy the training requirements 
of an FAA-approved low-altitude windshear flight training program, or 
any FAA-approved training program that addresses windshear encounters.

             2. Statement of Compliance and Capability (SOC)

    a. The sponsor must submit an SOC confirming that the aerodynamic 
model is based on flight test data supplied by the airplane manufacturer 
or other approved data provider. The SOC must also confirm that any 
change to environmental wind parameters, including variances in those 
parameters for windshear conditions, once inserted for computation, 
result in the correct simulated performance. This statement must also 
include examples of environmental wind parameters currently evaluated in 
the simulator (such as crosswind takeoffs, crosswind approaches, and 
crosswind landings).
    b. For simulators without windshear warning, caution, or guidance 
hardware in the original equipment, the SOC must also state that the 
simulation of the added hardware and/or software, including associated 
flight deck displays and annunciations, replicates the system(s) 
installed in the airplane. The statement must be accompanied by a block 
diagram depicting the input and output signal flow, and comparing the 
signal flow to the equipment installed in the airplane.

                                3. Models

    The windshear models installed in the simulator software used for 
the qualification evaluation must do the following:
    a. Provide cues necessary for recognizing windshear onset and 
potential performance degradation requiring a pilot to initiate recovery 
procedures. The cues must include all of the following, as appropriate 
for the portion of the flight envelope:
    (1) Rapid airspeed change of at least 15 knots 
(kts).
    (2) Stagnation of airspeed during the takeoff roll.
    (3) Rapid vertical speed change of at least 500 feet per minute (fpm).
    (4) Rapid pitch change of at least 5[deg].
    b. Be adjustable in intensity (or other parameter to achieve an 
intensity effect) to at

[[Page 149]]

least two (2) levels so that upon encountering the windshear the pilot 
may identify its presence and apply the recommended procedures for 
escape from such a windshear.
    (1) If the intensity is lesser, the performance capability of the 
simulated airplane in the windshear permits the pilot to maintain a 
satisfactory flightpath; and
    (2) If the intensity is greater, the performance capability of the 
simulated airplane in the windshear does not permit the pilot to 
maintain a satisfactory flightpath (crash). Note: The means used to 
accomplish the ``nonsurvivable'' scenario of paragraph 3.b.(2) of this 
attachment, that involve operational elements of the simulated airplane, 
must reflect the dispatch limitations of the airplane.
    c. Be available for use in the FAA-approved windshear flight 
training program.

                            4. Demonstrations

    a. The sponsor must identify one survivable takeoff windshear 
training model and one survivable approach windshear training model. The 
wind components of the survivable models must be presented in graphical 
format so that all components of the windshear are shown, including 
initiation point, variance in magnitude, and time or distance 
correlations. The simulator must be operated at the same gross weight, 
airplane configuration, and initial airspeed during the takeoff 
demonstration (through calm air and through the first selected 
survivable windshear), and at the same gross weight, airplane 
configuration, and initial airspeed during the approach demonstration 
(through calm air and through the second selected survivable windshear).
    b. In each of these four situations, at an ``initiation point'' 
(i.e., where windshear onset is or should be recognized), the 
recommended procedures for windshear recovery are applied and the 
results are recorded as specified in paragraph 5 of this attachment.
    c. These recordings are made without inserting programmed random 
turbulence. Turbulence that results from the windshear model is to be 
expected, and no attempt may be made to neutralize turbulence from this 
source.
    d. The definition of the models and the results of the 
demonstrations of all four?(4) cases described in paragraph 4.a of this 
attachment, must be made a part of the MQTG.

                         5. Recording Parameters

    a. In each of the four MQTG cases, an electronic recording (time 
history) must be made of the following parameters:
    (1) Indicated or calibrated airspeed.
    (2) Indicated vertical speed.
    (3) Pitch attitude.
    (4) Indicated or radio altitude.
    (5) Angle of attack.
    (6) Elevator position.
    (7) Engine data (thrust, N1, or throttle position).
    (8) Wind magnitudes (simple windshear model assumed).
    b. These recordings must be initiated at least 10 seconds prior to 
the initiation point, and continued until recovery is complete or ground 
contact is made.

                 6. Equipment Installation and Operation

    All windshear warning, caution, or guidance hardware installed in 
the simulator must operate as it operates in the airplane. For example, 
if a rapidly changing wind speed and/or direction would have caused a 
windshear warning in the airplane, the simulator must respond 
equivalently without instructor/evaluator intervention.

                       7. Qualification Test Guide

    a. All QTG material must be forwarded to the NSPM.
    b. A simulator windshear evaluation will be scheduled in accordance 
with normal procedures. Continuing qualification evaluation schedules 
will be used to the maximum extent possible.
    c. During the on-site evaluation, the evaluator will ask the 
operator to run the performance tests and record the results. The 
results of these on-site tests will be compared to those results 
previously approved and placed in the QTG or MQTG, as appropriate.
    d. QTGs for new (or MQTGs for upgraded) simulators must contain or 
reference the information described in paragraphs 2, 3, 4, and 5 of this 
attachment.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                        8. Subjective Evaluation

    The NSPM will fly the simulator in at least two of the available 
windshear scenarios to subjectively evaluate simulator performance as it 
encounters the programmed windshear conditions.
    a. One scenario will include parameters that enable the pilot to 
maintain a satisfactory flightpath.
    b. One scenario will include parameters that will not enable the 
pilot to maintain a satisfactory flightpath (crash).
    c. Other scenarios may be examined at the NSPM's discretion.

                         9. Qualification Basis

    The addition of windshear programming to a simulator in order to 
comply with the qualification for required windshear training

[[Page 150]]

does not change the original qualification basis of the simulator.

                     10. Demonstration Repeatability

    For the purposes of demonstration repeatability, it is recommended 
that the simulator be flown by means of the simulator's autodrive 
function (for those simulators that have autodrive capability) during 
the demonstrations.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  Attachment 6 to Appendix A to Part 60--FSTD Directives Applicable to 
                       Airplane Flight Simulators

           Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD) Directive

    FSTD Directive 1. Applicable to all Full Flight Simulators (FFS), 
regardless of the original qualification basis and qualification date 
(original or upgrade), having Class II or Class III airport models 
available.
    Agency: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
    Action: This is a retroactive requirement to have all Class II or 
Class III airport models meet current requirements.
________________________________________________________________________
    Summary: Notwithstanding the authorization listed in paragraph 13b 
in Appendices A and C of this part, this FSTD Directive requires each 
certificate holder to ensure that by May 30, 2009, except for the 
airport model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the designated level, 
each airport model used by the certificate holder's instructors or 
evaluators for training, checking, or testing under this chapter in an 
FFS, meets the definition of a Class II or Class III airport model as 
defined in 14CFR part 60. The completion of this requirement will not 
require a report, and the method used for keeping instructors and 
evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class 
III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the 
certificate holder whose employees are using the FFS, but the method 
used must be available for review by the TPAA for that certificate 
holder.
    Dates: FSTD Directive 1 becomes effective on May 30, 2008.
    For Further Information Contact: Ed Cook, Senior Advisor to the 
Division Manager, Air Transportation Division, AFS-200, 800 Independence 
Ave, SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (404) 832-4701; fax: (404) 
761-8906.

                         Specific Requirements:

    1. Part 60 requires that each FSTD be:
    a. Sponsored by a person holding or applying for an FAA operating 
certificate under Part 119, Part 141, or Part 142, or holding or 
applying for an FAA-approved training program under Part 63, Appendix C, 
for flight engineers, and
    b. Evaluated and issued an SOQ for a specific FSTD level.
    2. FFSs also require the installation of a visual system that is 
capable of providing an out-of-the-flight-deck view of airport models. 
However, historically these airport models were not routinely evaluated 
or required to meet any standardized criteria. This has led to qualified 
simulators containing airport models being used to meet FAA-approved 
training, testing, or checking requirements with potentially incorrect 
or inappropriate visual references.
    3. To prevent this from occurring in the future, by May 30, 2009, 
except for the airport model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the 
designated level, each certificate holder must assure that each airport 
model used for training, testing, or checking under this chapter in a 
qualified FFS meets the definition of a Class II or Class III airport 
model as defined in Appendix F of this part.
    4. These references describe the requirements for visual scene 
management and the minimum distances from which runway or landing area 
features must be visible for all levels of simulator. The airport model 
must provide, for each ``in-use runway'' or ``in-use landing area,'' 
runway or landing area surface and markings, runway or landing area 
lighting, taxiway surface and markings, and taxiway lighting. Additional 
requirements include correlation of the v airport models with other 
aspects of the airport environment, correlation of the aircraft and 
associated equipment, scene quality assessment features, and the control 
of these models the instructor must be able to exercise.
    5. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply 
to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of 
intended landing.
    6. The details in these models must be developed using airport 
pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or 
developed in accordance with published regulatory material. However, 
this FSTD DIRECTIVE 1 does not require that airport models contain 
details that are beyond the initially designed capability of the visual 
system, as currently qualified. The recognized limitations to visual 
systems are as follows:
    a. Visual systems not required to have runway numbers as a part of 
the specific runway marking requirements are:
    (1) Link NVS and DNVS.
    (2) Novoview 2500 and 6000.
    (3) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and including, VITAL III, but 
not beyond.
    (4) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2.
    b. Visual systems required to display runway numbers only for LOFT 
scenes are:
    (1) FlightSafety VITAL IV.
    (2) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T.
    (3) Link-Miles Image II.

[[Page 151]]

    c. Visual systems not required to have accurate taxiway edge 
lighting are:
    (1) Redifusion SP1.
    (2) FlightSafety Vital IV.
    (3) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT
    (4) XKD displays (even though the XKD image generator is capable of 
generating blue colored lights, the display cannot accommodate that 
color).
    7. A copy of this Directive must be filed in the MQTG in the 
designated FSTD Directive Section, and its inclusion must be annotated 
on the Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart. See Attachment 4, 
Appendices A through D for a sample MQTG Index of Effective FSTD 
Directives chart.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26491, May 9, 2008]



  Sec. Appendix B to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for 

                    Airplane Flight Training Devices

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    This appendix establishes the standards for Airplane FTD evaluation 
and qualification at Level 4, Level 5, or Level 6. The Flight Standards 
Service, NSPM, is responsible for the development, application, and 
implementation of the standards contained within this appendix. The 
procedures and criteria specified in this appendix will be used by the 
NSPM, or a person or persons assigned by the NSPM when conducting 
airplane FTD evaluations.

                            Table of Contents

1. Introduction
2. Applicability (Sec. Sec. 60.1 and 60.2).
3. Definitions (Sec. 60.3).
4. Qualification Performance Standards (Sec. 60.4).
5. Quality Management System (Sec. 60.5).
6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.7).
7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (Sec. 60.9).
8. FTD Use (Sec. 60.11).
9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (Sec. 60.13).
10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of 
          the FTD (Sec. 60.14).
11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.15).
12. Additional Qualifications for Currently Qualified FTDs (Sec. 
          60.16).
13. Previously Qualified FTDs (Sec. 60.17).
14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance 
          Requirements (Sec. 60.19).
15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (Sec. 60.20).
16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Airplane Types or Models 
          (Sec. 60.21).
17. Modifications to FTDs (Sec. 60.23).
18. Operations with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components 
          (Sec. 60.25).
19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
          Qualification (Sec. 60.27).
20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
          Qualification (Sec. 60.29).
21. Record Keeping and Reporting (Sec. 60.31).
22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, 
          or Incorrect Statements (Sec. 60.33).
23. [Reserved]
24. Levels of FTD.
25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
          Agreement (BASA) (Sec. 60.37).
Attachment 1 to Appendix B to Part 60--General FTD Requirements.
Attachment 2 to Appendix B to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD) 
          Objective Tests.
Attachment 3 to Appendix B to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD) 
          Subjective Evaluation.
Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60--Sample Documents.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                             1. Introduction

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. This appendix contains background information as well as 
regulatory and informative material as described later in this section. 
To assist the reader in determining what areas are required and what 
areas are permissive, the text in this appendix is divided into two 
sections: ``QPS Requirements'' and ``Information.'' The QPS Requirements 
sections contain details regarding compliance with the part 60 rule 
language. These details are regulatory, but are found only in this 
appendix. The Information sections contain material that is advisory in 
nature, and designed to give the user general information about the 
regulation.
    b. Questions regarding the contents of this publication should be 
sent to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation 
Administration, Flight Standards Service, National Simulator Program 
Staff, AFS-205, 100 Hartsfield Centre Parkway, Suite 400, Atlanta, 
Georgia, 30354. Telephone contact numbers for the NSP are: phone, 404-
832-4700; fax, 404-761-8906. The general e-mail address for the NSP 
office is: [email protected]. The NSP Internet Web Site address 
is: http://www.faa.gov/safety/programs--initiatives/aircraft--aviation/
nsp/. On this Web Site you will find an NSP personnel list with 
telephone and e-mail contact information for each NSP staff member, a 
list of

[[Page 152]]

qualified flight simulation devices, ACs, a description of the 
qualification process, NSP policy, and an NSP ``In-Works'' section. Also 
linked from this site are additional information sources, handbook 
bulletins, frequently asked questions, a listing and text of the Federal 
Aviation Regulations, Flight Standards Inspector's handbooks, and other 
FAA links.
    c. The NSPM encourages the use of electronic media for all 
communication, including any record, report, request, test, or statement 
required by this appendix. The electronic media used must have adequate 
security provisions and be acceptable to the NSPM. The NSPM recommends 
inquiries on system compatibility, and minimum system requirements are 
also included on the NSP Web site.
    d. Related Reading References.
    (1) 14 CFR part 60.
    (2) 14 CFR part 61.
    (3) 14 CFR part 63.
    (4) 14 CFR part 119.
    (5) 14 CFR part 121.
    (6) 14 CFR part 125.
    (7) 14 CFR part 135.
    (8) 14 CFR part 141.
    (9) 14 CFR part 142.
    (10) AC 120-28, as amended, Criteria for Approval of Category III 
Landing Weather Minima.
    (11) AC 120-29, as amended, Criteria for Approving Category I and 
Category II Landing Minima for part 121 operators.
    (12) AC 120-35, as amended, Line Operational Simulations: Line-
Oriented Flight Training, Special Purpose Operational Training, Line 
Operational Evaluation.
    (13) AC 120-41, as amended, Criteria for Operational Approval of 
Airborne Wind Shear Alerting and Flight Guidance Systems.
    (14) AC 120-45, as amended, Airplane Flight Training Device 
Qualification.
    (14) AC 120-57, as amended, Surface Movement Guidance and Control 
System (SMGCS).
    (15) AC 150/5300-13, as amended, Airport Design.
    (16) AC 150/5340-1, as amended, Standards for Airport Markings.
    (17) AC 150/5340-4, as amended, Installation Details for Runway 
Centerline Touchdown Zone Lighting Systems.
    (18) AC 150/5340-19, as amended, Taxiway Centerline Lighting System.
    (19) AC 150/5340-24, as amended, Runway and Taxiway Edge Lighting 
System.
    (20) AC 150/5345-28, as amended, Precision Approach Path Indicator 
(PAPI) Systems.
    (21) International Air Transport Association document, ``Flight 
Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,'' as amended.
    (22) AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of 
Transport Category Airplanes.
    (23) AC 23-8A, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of 
Part 23 Airplanes.
    (24) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Manual of 
Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators, as amended.
    (25) Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volume I, as 
amended and Volume II, as amended, The Royal Aeronautical Society, 
London, UK.
    (26) FAA Publication FAA-S-8081 series (Practical Test Standards for 
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and 
Instrument Ratings).
    (27) The FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). An electronic 
version of the AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/atpubs.
    (28) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document number 436, titled 
Guidelines For Electronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended).
    (29) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document 610, Guidance for 
Design and Integration of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simulators (as 
amended).
________________________________________________________________________

                             End Information

               2. Applicability (Sec. Sec. 60.1 and 60.2)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.1, Applicability, or to Sec. 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to 
person who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized 
activities.

                       3. Definitions (Sec. 60.3)

    See Appendix F of this part for a list of definitions and 
abbreviations from part 1, part 60, and the QPS appendices of part 60.

           4. Qualification Performance Standards (Sec. 60.4)

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.4, Qualification Performance Standards.

                5. Quality Management System (Sec. 60.5)

    Additional regulatory material and informational material regarding 
Quality Management Systems for FTDs may be found in Appendix E of this 
part.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

          6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements. (Sec. 60.7).

________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 153]]

                            Begin Information

    a. The intent of the language in Sec. 60.7(b) is to have a specific 
FTD, identified by the sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-approved 
flight training program for the airplane simulated during the 12-month 
period described. The identification of the specific FTD may change from 
one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor 
sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least once during the prescribed 
period. There is no minimum number of hours or minimum FTD periods 
required.
    b. The following examples describe acceptable operational practices:
    (1) Example One.
    (a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, specific FTD for its own use, 
in its own facility or elsewhere-- this single FTD forms the basis for 
the sponsorship. The sponsor uses that FTD at least once in each 12-
month period in that sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for 
the airplane simulated. This 12-month period is established according to 
the following schedule:
    (i) If the FTD was qualified prior to May 30, 2008, the 12-month 
period begins on the date of the first continuing qualification 
evaluation conducted in accordance with Sec. 60.19 after May 30, 2008, 
and continues for each subsequent 12-month period;
    (ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, 2008, will be required 
to undergo an initial or upgrade evaluation in accordance with Sec. 
60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation is complete, the first 
continuing qualification evaluation will be conducted within 6 months. 
The 12 month continuing qualification evaluation cycle begins on that 
date and continues for each subsequent 12-month period.
    (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FTD use required.
    (c) The identification of the specific FTD may change from one 12-
month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor 
sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least once during the prescribed 
period.
    (2) Example Two.
    (a) A sponsor sponsors an additional number of FTDs, in its facility 
or elsewhere. Each additionally sponsored FTD must be--
    (i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight 
training program for the airplane simulated (as described in Sec. 
60.7(d)(1)); or
    (ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder in that other 
certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the 
airplane simulated (as described in Sec. 60.7(d)(1)). This 12-month 
period is established in the same manner as in example one; or
    (iii) Provided a statement each year from a qualified pilot, (after 
having flown the airplane, not the subject FTD or another FTD, during 
the preceding 12-month period) stating that the subject FTD's 
performance and handling qualities represent the airplane (as described 
in Sec. 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is provided at least once in each 
12-month period established in the same manner as in example one.
    (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FTD use required.
    (3) Example Three.
    (a) A sponsor in New York (in this example, a Part 142 certificate 
holder) establishes ``satellite'' training centers in Chicago and 
Moscow.
    (b) The satellite function means that the Chicago and Moscow centers 
must operate under the New York center's certificate (in accordance with 
all of the New York center's practices, procedures, and policies; e.g., 
instructor and/or technician training/checking requirements, record 
keeping, QMS program).
    (c) All of the FTDs in the Chicago and Moscow centers could be dry-
leased (i.e., the certificate holder does not have and use FAA-approved 
flight training programs for the FTDs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) 
because--
    (i) Each FTD in the Chicago center and each FTD in the Moscow center 
is used at least once each 12-month period by another FAA certificate 
holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training 
program for the airplane (as described in Sec. 60.7(d)(1)); or
    (ii) A statement is obtained from a qualified pilot (having flown 
the airplane, not the subject FTD or another FTD during the preceding 
12-month period) stating that the performance and handling qualities of 
each FTD in the Chicago and Moscow centers represents the airplane (as 
described in Sec. 60.7(d)(2)).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

       7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (Sec. 60.9)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    The phrase ``as soon as practicable'' in Sec. 60.9(a) means without 
unnecessarily disrupting or delaying beyond a reasonable time the 
training, evaluation, or experience being conducted in the FTD.

                        8. FTD Use (Sec. 60.11)

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.11, FTD use.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________
    9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (Sec. 60.13)
________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 154]]

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. Flight test data used to validate FTD performance and handling 
qualities must have been gathered in accordance with a flight test 
program containing the following:
    (1) A flight test plan consisting of:
    (a) The maneuvers and procedures required for aircraft certification 
and simulation programming and validation.
    (b) For each maneuver or procedure--
    (i) The procedures and control input the flight test pilot and/or 
engineer used.
    (ii) The atmospheric and environmental conditions.
    (iii) The initial flight conditions.
    (iv) The airplane configuration, including weight and center of 
gravity.
    (v) The data to be gathered.
    (vi) All other information necessary to recreate the flight test 
conditions in the FTD.
    (2) Appropriately qualified flight test personnel.
    (3) An understanding of the accuracy of the data to be gathered 
using appropriate alternative data sources, procedures, and 
instrumentation that is traceable to a recognized standard as described 
in Attachment 2, Table B2F of this appendix.
    (4) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisition equipment or 
system(s), including appropriate data reduction and analysis methods and 
techniques, acceptable to the FAA's Aircraft Certification Service.
    b. The data, regardless of source, must be presented:
    (1) In a format that supports the FTD validation process;
    (2) In a manner that is clearly readable and annotated correctly and 
completely;
    (3) With resolution sufficient to determine compliance with the 
tolerances set forth in Attachment 2, Table B2A, Appendix B;
    (4) With any necessary guidance information provided; and
    (5) Without alteration, adjustments, or bias. Data may be corrected 
to address known data calibration errors provided that an explanation of 
the methods used to correct the errors appears in the QTG. The corrected 
data may be re-scaled, digitized, or otherwise manipulated to fit the 
desired presentation.
    c. After completion of any additional flight test, a flight test 
report must be submitted in support of the validation data. The report 
must contain sufficient data and rationale to support qualification of 
the FTD at the level requested.
    d. As required by Sec. 60.13(f), the sponsor must notify the NSPM 
when it becomes aware that an addition to or a revision of the flight 
related data or airplane systems related data is available if this data 
is used to program and operate a qualified FTD. The data referred to in 
this sub-section are those data that are used to validate the 
performance, handling qualities, or other characteristics of the 
aircraft, including data related to any relevant changes occurring after 
the type certification is issued. The sponsor must--
    (1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the NSPM of the existence of 
this data; and
    (2) Within 45 calendar days, notify the NSPM of--
    (i) The schedule to incorporate this data into the FTD; or
    (ii) The reason for not incorporating this data into the FTD.
    e. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a 
``snapshot test'' or a ``series of snapshot test results'' in lieu of a 
time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that 
a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the 
``snapshot.'' The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior 
to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap 
shot.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    f. The FTD sponsor is encouraged to maintain a liaison with the 
manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the 
aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the 
manufacturer is no longer in business), and if appropriate, with the 
person having supplied the aircraft data package for the FTD in order to 
facilitate the notification described in this paragraph.
    g. It is the intent of the NSPM that for new aircraft entering 
service, at a point well in advance of preparation of the QTG, the 
sponsor should submit to the NSPM for approval, a descriptive document 
(see Appendix A, Table A2C, Sample Validation Data Roadmap for 
Airplanes) containing the plan for acquiring the validation data, 
including data sources. This document should clearly identify sources of 
data for all required tests, a description of the validity of these data 
for a specific engine type and thrust rating configuration, and the 
revision levels of all avionics affecting the performance or flying 
qualities of the aircraft. Additionally, this document should provide 
other information such as the rationale or explanation for cases where 
data or data parameters are missing, instances where engineering 
simulation data are used, or where flight test methods require further 
explanations. It should also provide a brief narrative describing the 
cause and effect of any deviation from data requirements. The aircraft 
manufacturer may provide this document.
    h. There is no requirement for any flight test data supplier to 
submit a flight test

[[Page 155]]

plan or program prior to gathering flight test data. However, the NSPM 
notes that inexperienced data gatherers often provide data that is 
irrelevant, improperly marked, or lacking adequate justification for 
selection. Other problems include inadequate information regarding 
initial conditions or test maneuvers. The NSPM has been forced to refuse 
these data submissions as validation data for an FTD evaluation. It is 
for this reason that the NSPM recommends that any data supplier not 
previously experienced in this area review the data necessary for 
programming and for validating the performance of the FTD and discuss 
the flight test plan anticipated for acquiring such data with the NSPM 
well in advance of commencing the flight tests.
    i. The NSPM will consider, on a case-by-case basis, whether to 
approve supplemental validation data derived from flight data recording 
systems such as a Quick Access Recorder or Flight Data Recorder.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of 
                         the FTD (Sec. & 60.14).

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. In the event that the NSPM determines that special equipment or 
specifically qualified persons will be required to conduct an 
evaluation, the NSPM will make every attempt to notify the sponsor at 
least one (1) week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in advance of the 
evaluation. Examples of special equipment include flight control 
measurement devices, accelerometers, or oscilloscopes. Examples of 
specially qualified personnel include individuals specifically qualified 
to install or use any special equipment when its use is required.
    b. Examples of a special evaluation include an evaluation conducted 
after: An FTD is moved; at the request of the TPAA; or as a result of 
comments received from users of the FTD that raise questions about the 
continued qualification or use of the FTD.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.15).

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

    a. In order to be qualified at a particular qualification level, the 
FTD must:
    (1) Meet the general requirements listed in Attachment 1 of this 
appendix;
    (2) Meet the objective testing requirements listed in Attachment 2 
of this appendix (Level 4 FTDs do not require objective tests); and
    (3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjective tests listed in 
Attachment 3 of this appendix.
    b. The request described in Sec. 60.15(a) must include all of the 
following:
    (1) A statement that the FTD meets all of the applicable provisions 
of this part and all applicable provisions of the QPS.
    (2) A confirmation that the sponsor will forward to the NSPM the 
statement described in Sec. 60.15(b) in such time as to be received no 
later than 5 business days prior to the scheduled evaluation and may be 
forwarded to the NSPM via traditional or electronic means.
    (3) Except for a Level 4 FTD, a QTG, acceptable to the NSPM, that 
includes all of the following:
    (a) Objective data obtained from aircraft testing or another 
approved source.
    (b) Correlating objective test results obtained from the performance 
of the FTD as prescribed in the appropriate QPS.
    (c) The result of FTD subjective tests prescribed in the appropriate 
QPS.
    (d) A description of the equipment necessary to perform the 
evaluation for initial qualification and the continuing qualification 
evaluations.
    c. The QTG described in paragraph a(3) of this section, must provide 
the documented proof of compliance with the FTD objective tests in 
Attachment 2, Table B2A of this appendix.
    d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by the sponsor, or the 
sponsor?s agent on behalf of the sponsor, to the NSPM for review and 
approval, and must include, for each objective test:
    (1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions;
    (2) Pertinent and complete instructions for conducting automatic and 
manual tests;
    (3) A means of comparing the FTD test results to the objective data;
    (4) Any other information as necessary to assist in the evaluation 
of the test results;
    (5) Other information appropriate to the qualification level of the 
FTD.
    e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, 
must include the following:
    (1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and FAA approval signature blocks 
(see Attachment 4, Figure B4C, of this appendix, for a sample QTG cover 
page).
    (2) A continuing qualification evaluation requirements page. This 
page will be used by the NSPM to establish and record the frequency with 
which continuing qualification evaluations must be conducted and any 
subsequent changes that may be determined by

[[Page 156]]

the NSPM in accordance with Sec. 60.19. See Attachment 4, Figure B4G, 
of this appendix, for a sample Continuing Qualification Evaluation 
Requirements page.
    (3) An FTD information page that provides the information listed in 
this paragraph, if applicable (see Attachment 4, Figure B4B, of this 
appendix, for a sample FTD information page). For convertible FTDs, the 
sponsor must submit a separate page for each configuration of the FTD.
    (a) The sponsor's FTD identification number or code.
    (b) The airplane model and series being simulated.
    (c) The aerodynamic data revision number or reference.
    (d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model and the aerodynamic 
coefficient data used to modify the basic model.
    (e) The engine model(s) and its data revision number or reference.
    (f) The flight control data revision number or reference.
    (g) The flight management system identification and revision level.
    (h) The FTD model and manufacturer.
    (i) The date of FTD manufacture.
    (j) The FTD computer identification.
    (k) The visual system model and manufacturer, including display 
type.
    (l) The motion system type and manufacturer, including degrees of 
freedom.
    (4) A Table of Contents.
    (5) A log of revisions and a list of effective pages.
    (6) List of all relevant data references.
    (7) A glossary of terms and symbols used (including sign conventions 
and units).
    (8) Statements of compliance and capability (SOCs) with certain 
requirements.
    (9) Recording procedures or equipment required to accomplish the 
objective tests.
    (10) The following information for each objective test designated in 
Attachment 2 of this appendix, as applicable to the qualification level 
sought:
    (a) Name of the test.
    (b) Objective of the test.
    (c) Initial conditions.
    (d) Manual test procedures.
    (e) Automatic test procedures (if applicable).
    (f) Method for evaluating FTD objective test results.
    (g) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the 
automatic test(s).
    (h) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the 
manual test(s).
    (i) Tolerances for relevant parameters.
    (j) Source of Validation Data (document and page number).
    (k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located in a separate binder, a 
cross reference for the identification and page number for pertinent 
data location must be provided).
    (l) FTD Objective Test Results as obtained by the sponsor. Each test 
result must reflect the date completed and must be clearly labeled as a 
product of the device being tested.
    f. A convertible FTD is addressed as a separate FTD for each model 
and series airplane to which it will be converted and for the FAA 
qualification level sought. The NSPM will conduct an evaluation for each 
configuration. If a sponsor seeks qualification for two or more models 
of an airplane type using a convertible FTD, the sponsor must provide a 
QTG for each airplane model, or a QTG for the first airplane model and a 
supplement to that QTG for each additional airplane model. The NSPM will 
conduct evaluations for each airplane model.
    g. The form and manner of presentation of objective test results in 
the QTG must include the following:
    (1) The sponsor's FTD test results must be recorded in a manner 
acceptable to the NSPM, that allows easy comparison of the FTD test 
results to the validation data (e.g., use of a multi-channel recorder, 
line printer, cross plotting, overlays, transparencies).
    (2) FTD results must be labeled using terminology common to airplane 
parameters as opposed to computer software identifications.
    (3) Validation data documents included in a QTG may be 
photographically reduced only if such reduction will not alter the 
graphic scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpretation or 
resolution.
    (4) Scaling on graphical presentations must provide the resolution 
necessary to evaluate the parameters shown in Attachment 2, Table B2A of 
this appendix.
    (5) Tests involving time histories, data sheets (or transparencies 
thereof) and FTD test results must be clearly marked with appropriate 
reference points to ensure an accurate comparison between FTD and 
airplane with respect to time. Time histories recorded via a line 
printer are to be clearly identified for cross-plotting on the airplane 
data. Over-plots may not obscure the reference data.
    h. The sponsor may elect to complete the QTG objective and 
subjective tests at the manufacturer's facility or at the sponsor's 
training facility. If the tests are conducted at the manufacturer's 
facility, the sponsor must repeat at least one-third of the tests at the 
sponsor's training facility in order to substantiate FTD performance. 
The QTG must be clearly annotated to indicate when and where each test 
was accomplished. Tests conducted at the manufacturer's facility and at 
the sponsor's training facility must be conducted after the FTD is 
assembled with systems and sub-systems functional and operating in an 
interactive manner. The test results must be submitted to the NSPM.
    i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the MQTG at the FTD location.

[[Page 157]]

    j. All FTDs for which the initial qualification is conducted after 
May 30, 2014, must have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including all 
objective data obtained from airplane testing, or another approved 
source (reformatted or digitized), together with correlating objective 
test results obtained from the performance of the FTD (reformatted or 
digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The eMQTG must also contain 
the general FTD performance or demonstration results (reformatted or 
digitized) prescribed in this appendix, and a description of the 
equipment necessary to perform the initial qualification evaluation and 
the continuing qualification evaluations. The eMQTG must include the 
original validation data used to validate FTD performance and handling 
qualities in either the original digitized format from the data supplier 
or an electronic scan of the original time-history plots that were 
provided by the data supplier. A copy of the eMQTG must be provided to 
the NSPM.
    k. All other FTDs (not covered in subparagraph ``j'') must have an 
electronic copy of the MQTG by and after May 30, 2014. An electronic 
copy of the copy of the MQTG must be provided to the NSPM. This may be 
provided by an electronic scan presented in a Portable Document File 
(PDF), or similar format acceptable to the NSPM.
    l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualification evaluation 
conducted by the NSPM, the sponsor must also provide a person 
knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the operation of 
the FTD.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    m. Only those FTDs that are sponsored by a certificate holder as 
defined in Appendix F will be evaluated by the NSPM. However, other FTD 
evaluations may be conducted on a case-by-case basis as the 
Administrator deems appropriate, but only in accordance with applicable 
agreements.
    n. The NSPM will conduct an evaluation for each configuration, and 
each FTD must be evaluated as completely as possible. To ensure a 
thorough and uniform evaluation, each FTD is subjected to the general 
FTD requirements in Attachment 1 of this appendix, the objective tests 
listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix, and the subjective tests listed 
in Attachment 3 of this appendix. The evaluations described herein will 
include, but not necessarily be limited to the following:
    (1) Airplane responses, including longitudinal and lateral-
directional control responses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix);
    (2) Performance in authorized portions of the simulated airplane's 
operating envelope, to include tasks evaluated by the NSPM in the areas 
of surface operations, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach and 
landing, as well as abnormal and emergency operations (see Attachment 2 
of this appendix);
    (3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this 
appendix);
    (4) Flight deck configuration (see Attachment 1 of this appendix);
    (5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor station functions checks 
(see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix);
    (6) Airplane systems and sub-systems (as appropriate) as compared to 
the airplane simulated (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this 
appendix);
    (7) FTD systems and sub-systems, including force cueing (motion), 
visual, and aural (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attachment 1 and 
Attachment 2 of this appendix); and
    (8) Certain additional requirements, depending upon the 
qualification level sought, including equipment or circumstances that 
may become hazardous to the occupants. The sponsor may be subject to 
Occupational Safety and Health Administration requirements.
    o. The NSPM administers the objective and subjective tests, which 
includes an examination of functions. The tests include a qualitative 
assessment of the FTD by an NSP pilot. The NSP evaluation team leader 
may assign other qualified personnel to assist in accomplishing the 
functions examination and/or the objective and subjective tests 
performed during an evaluation when required.
    (1) Objective tests provide a basis for measuring and evaluating FTD 
performance and determining compliance with the requirements of this 
part.
    (2) Subjective tests provide a basis for:
    (a) Evaluating the capability of the FTD to perform over a typical 
utilization period;
    (b) Determining that the FTD satisfactorily simulates each required 
task;
    (c) Verifying correct operation of the FTD controls, instruments, 
and systems; and
    (d) Demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this part.
    p. The tolerances for the test parameters listed in Attachment 2 of 
this appendix reflect the range of tolerances acceptable to the NSPM for 
FTD validation and are not to be confused with design tolerances 
specified for FTD manufacture. In making decisions regarding tests and 
test results, the NSPM relies on the use of operational and engineering 
judgment in the application of data (including consideration of the way 
in which the flight test was flown and way the data was gathered and 
applied), data presentations, and the applicable tolerances for each 
test.
    q. In addition to the scheduled continuing qualification evaluation, 
each FTD is subject to evaluations conducted by the NSPM at any time 
without prior notification to the

[[Page 158]]

sponsor. Such evaluations would be accomplished in a normal manner 
(i.e., requiring exclusive use of the FTD for the conduct of objective 
and subjective tests and an examination of functions) if the FTD is not 
being used for flight crewmember training, testing, or checking. 
However, if the FTD were being used, the evaluation would be conducted 
in a non-exclusive manner. This non-exclusive evaluation will be 
conducted by the FTD evaluator accompanying the check airman, 
instructor, Aircrew Program Designee (APD), or FAA inspector aboard the 
FTD along with the student(s) and observing the operation of the FTD 
during the training, testing, or checking activities.
    r. Problems with objective test results are handled as follows:
    (1) If a problem with an objective test result is detected by the 
NSP evaluation team during an evaluation, the test may be repeated or 
the QTG may be amended.
    (2) If it is determined that the results of an objective test do not 
support the qualification level requested but do support a lower level, 
the NSPM may qualify the FTD at a lower level. For example, if a Level 6 
evaluation is requested, but the FTD fails to meet the spiral stability 
test tolerances, it could be qualified at Level 5.
    s. After an FTD is successfully evaluated, the NSPM issues an SOQ to 
the sponsor, the NSPM recommends the FTD to the TPAA, who will approve 
the FTD for use in a flight training program. The SOQ will be issued at 
the satisfactory conclusion of the initial or continuing qualification 
evaluation and will list the tasks for which the FTD is qualified, 
referencing the tasks described in Table B1B in Attachment 1 of this 
appendix. However, it is the sponsor's responsibility to obtain TPAA 
approval prior to using the FTD in an FAA-approved flight training 
program.
    t. Under normal circumstances, the NSPM establishes a date for the 
initial or upgrade evaluation within ten (10) working days after 
determining that a complete QTG is acceptable. Unusual circumstances may 
warrant establishing an evaluation date before this determination is 
made. A sponsor may schedule an evaluation date as early as 6 months in 
advance. However, there may be a delay of 45 days or more in 
rescheduling and completing the evaluation if the sponsor is unable to 
meet the scheduled date. See Attachment 4, Figure B4A, Sample Request 
for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation, of this appendix.
    u. The numbering system used for objective test results in the QTG 
should closely follow the numbering system set out in Attachment 2, FTD 
Objective Tests, Table B2A, of this appendix.
    v. Contact the NSPM or visit the NSPM Web site for additional 
information regarding the preferred qualifications of pilots used to 
meet the requirements of Sec. 60.15(d).
    w. Examples of the exclusions for which the FTD might not have been 
subjectively tested by the sponsor or the NSPM and for which 
qualification might not be sought or granted, as described in Sec. 
60.15(g)(6), include engine out maneuvers or circling approaches.

   12. Additional Qualifications for Currently Qualified FTDs (Sec. 
                                 60.16).

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.16, Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FTD.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

              13. Previously Qualified FTDs (Sec. 60.17).

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. In instances where a sponsor plans to remove an FTD from active 
status for a period of less than two years, the following procedures 
apply:
    (1) The NSPM must be notified in writing and the notification must 
include an estimate of the period that the FTD will be inactive;
    (2) Continuing Qualification evaluations will not be scheduled 
during the inactive period;
    (3) The NSPM will remove the FTD from the list of qualified FTDs on 
a mutually established date not later than the date on which the first 
missed continuing qualification evaluation would have been scheduled;
    (4) Before the FTD is restored to qualified status, it must be 
evaluated by the NSPM. The evaluation content and the time required to 
accomplish the evaluation is based on the number of continuing 
qualification evaluations and sponsor-conducted quarterly inspections 
missed during the period of inactivity.
    (5) The sponsor must notify the NSPM of any changes to the original 
scheduled time out of service;
    b. FTDs qualified prior to May 30, 2008, and replacement FTD 
systems, are not required to meet the general FTD requirements, the 
objective test requirements, and the subjective test requirements of 
Attachments 1, 2, and 3 of this appendix as long as the FTD continues to 
meet the test requirements contained in the MQTG developed under the 
original qualification basis.
    c. [Reserved]
    d. FTDs qualified prior to May 30, 2008, may be updated. If an 
evaluation is deemed appropriate or necessary by the NSPM after such an 
update, the evaluation will not require an evaluation to standards 
beyond those against which the FTD was originally qualified.

[[Page 159]]

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    e. Other certificate holders or persons desiring to use an FTD may 
contract with FTD sponsors to use FTDs previously qualified at a 
particular level for an airplane type and approved for use within an 
FAA-approved flight training program. Such FTDs are not required to 
undergo an additional qualification process, except as described in 
Sec. 60.16.
    f. Each FTD user must obtain approval from the appropriate TPAA to 
use any FTD in an FAA-approved flight training program.
    g. The intent of the requirement listed in Sec. 60.17(b), for each 
FTD to have an SOQ within 6 years, is to have the availability of that 
statement (including the configuration list and the limitations to 
authorizations) to provide a complete picture of the FTD inventory 
regulated by the FAA. The issuance of the statement will not require any 
additional evaluation or require any adjustment to the evaluation basis 
for the FTD.
    h. Downgrading of an FTD is a permanent change in qualification 
level and will necessitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to reflect the 
revised qualification level, as appropriate. If a temporary restriction 
is placed on an FTD because of a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative 
component or on-going repairs, the restriction is not a permanent change 
in qualification level. Instead, the restriction is temporary and is 
removed when the reason for the restriction has been resolved.
    i. The NSPM will determine the evaluation criteria for an FTD that 
has been removed from active status for a prolonged period. The criteria 
will be based on the number of continuing qualification evaluations and 
quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity. For 
example, if the FTD were out of service for a 1 year period, it would be 
necessary to complete the entire QTG, since all of the quarterly 
evaluations would have been missed. The NSPM will also consider how the 
FTD was stored, whether parts were removed from the FTD and whether the 
FTD was disassembled.
    j. The FTD will normally be requalified using the FAA-approved MQTG 
and the criteria that was in effect prior to its removal from 
qualification. However, inactive periods of 2 years or more will require 
re-qualification under the standards in effect and current at the time 
of requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification, Evaluation, and Maintenance 
                       Requirements (Sec. 60.19).

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

    a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of four evenly spaced 
inspections throughout the year. The objective test sequence and content 
of each inspection in this sequence must be developed by the sponsor and 
must be acceptable to the NSPM.
    b. The description of the functional preflight check must be 
contained in the sponsor's QMS.
    c. Record ``functional preflight'' in the FTD discrepancy log book 
or other acceptable location, including any item found to be missing, 
malfunctioning, or inoperative.
    d. During the continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the 
NSPM, the sponsor must also provide a person knowledgeable about the 
operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FTD.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    e. The sponsor's test sequence and the content of each quarterly 
inspection required in Sec. 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a 
mix from the objective test requirement areas listed as follows:
    (1) Performance.
    (2) Handling qualities.
    (3) Motion system (where appropriate).
    (4) Visual system (where appropriate).
    (5) Sound system (where appropriate).
    (6) Other FTD systems.
    f. If the NSP evaluator plans to accomplish specific tests during a 
normal continuing qualification evaluation that requires the use of 
special equipment or technicians, the sponsor will be notified as far in 
advance of the evaluation as practical; but not less than 72 hours. 
Examples of such tests include latencies, control sweeps, or motion or 
visual system tests.
    g. The continuing qualification evaluations described in Sec. 
60.19(b) will normally require 4 hours of FTD time. However, flexibility 
is necessary to address abnormal situations or situations involving 
aircraft with additional levels of complexity (e.g., computer controlled 
aircraft). The sponsor should anticipate that some tests may require 
additional time. The continuing qualification evaluations will consist 
of the following:
    (1) Review of the results of the quarterly inspections conducted by 
the sponsor since the last scheduled continuing qualification 
evaluation.
    (2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 objective tests from the 
MQTG that provide an adequate opportunity to evaluate the performance of 
the FTD. The tests chosen will

[[Page 160]]

be performed either automatically or manually and should be able to be 
conducted within approximately one-third (1/3) of the allotted FTD time.
    (3) A subjective evaluation of the FTD to perform a representative 
sampling of the tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appendix. This 
portion of the evaluation should take approximately two-thirds (2/3) of 
the allotted FTD time.
    (4) An examination of the functions of the FTD may include the 
motion system, visual system, sound system as applicable, instructor 
operating station, and the normal functions and simulated malfunctions 
of the airplane systems. This examination is normally accomplished 
simultaneously with the subjective evaluation requirements.
    h. The requirement established in Sec. 60.19(b)(4) regarding the 
frequency of NSPM-conducted continuing qualification evaluations for 
each FTD is typically 12 months. However, the establishment and 
satisfactory implementation of an approved QMS for a sponsor will 
provide a basis for adjusting the frequency of evaluations to exceed 12-
month intervals.

               15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (Sec. 60.20)

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.20. Logging FTD Discrepancies.

   16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Airplane Types or Models 
                              (Sec. 60.21)

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.21, Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Airplane Types or Models.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                 17. Modifications to FTDs (Sec. 60.23)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. The notification described in Sec. 60.23(c)(2) must include a 
complete description of the planned modification, with a description of 
the operational and engineering effect the proposed modification will 
have on the operation of the FTD and the results that are expected with 
the modification incorporated.
    b. Prior to using the modified FTD:
    (1) All the applicable objective tests completed with the 
modification incorporated, including any necessary updates to the MQTG 
(e.g., accomplishment of FSTD Directives) must be acceptable to the 
NSPM; and
    (2) The sponsor must provide the NSPM with a statement signed by the 
MR that the factors listed in Sec. 60.15(b) are addressed by the 
appropriate personnel as described in that section.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    c. FSTD Directives are considered modification of an FTD. See 
Attachment 4 of this appendix for a sample index of effective FSTD 
Directives.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 18. Operation with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components 
                              (Sec. 60.25)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The sponsor's responsibility with respect to Sec. 60.25(a) is 
satisfied when the sponsor fairly and accurately advises the user of the 
current status of an FTD, including any missing, malfunctioning, or 
inoperative (MMI) component(s).
    b. It is the responsibility of the instructor, check airman, or 
representative of the administrator conducting training, testing, or 
checking to exercise reasonable and prudent judgment to determine if any 
MMI component is necessary for the satisfactory completion of a specific 
maneuver, procedure, or task.
    c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day period described in 
60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend 
the deadline until the next business day.
    d. In accordance with the authorization described in Sec. 60.25(b), 
the sponsor may develop a discrepancy prioritizing system to accomplish 
repairs based on the level of impact on the capability of the FTD. 
Repairs having a larger impact on the FTD's ability to provide the 
required training, evaluation, or flight experience will have a higher 
priority for repair or replacement.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
                       Qualification (Sec. 60.27)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FTD will be maintained 
during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, 
hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic 
fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FTD is to be 
maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the NSPM will be able to 
determine the amount of testing that required for requalification.

[[Page 161]]

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
                       Qualification (Sec. 60.29)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FTD will be maintained 
during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, 
hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic 
fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FTD is to be 
maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the NSPM will be able to 
determine the amount of testing that required for requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

              21. Recordkeeping and Reporting (Sec. 60.31)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. FTD modifications can include hardware or software changes. For 
FTD modifications involving software programming changes, the record 
required by Sec. 60.31(a)(2) must consist of the name of the aircraft 
system software, aerodynamic model, or engine model change, the date of 
the change, a summary of the change, and the reason for the change.
    b. If a coded form for record keeping is used, it must provide for 
the preservation and retrieval of information with appropriate security 
or controls to prevent the inappropriate alteration of such records 
after the fact.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, 
                  or Incorrect Statements (Sec. 60.33)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.33, Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, 
Falsification, or Incorrect Statements.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                             23. [Reserved]

                           24. Levels of FTD.

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The following is a general description of each level of FTD. 
Detailed standards and tests for the various levels of FTDs are fully 
defined in Attachments 1 through 3 of this appendix.
    (1) Level 4. A device that may have an open airplane-specific flight 
deck area, or an enclosed airplane-specific flight deck and at least one 
operating system. Air/ground logic is required (no aerodynamic 
programming required). All displays may be flat/LCD panel 
representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft. 
All controls, switches, and knobs may be touch sensitive activation (not 
capable of manual manipulation of the flight controls) or may physically 
replicate the aircraft in control operation.
    (2) Level 5. A device that may have an open airplane-specific flight 
deck area, or an enclosed airplane-specific flight deck; generic 
aerodynamic programming; at least one operating system; and control 
loading that is representative of the simulated airplane only at an 
approach speed and configuration. All displays may be flat/LCD panel 
representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft. 
Primary and secondary flight controls (e.g., rudder, aileron, elevator, 
flaps, spoilers/speed brakes, engine controls, landing gear, nosewheel 
steering, trim, brakes) must be physical controls. All other controls, 
switches, and knobs may be touch sensitive activation.
    (3) Level 6. A device that has an enclosed airplane-specific flight 
deck; airplane-specific aerodynamic programming; all applicable airplane 
systems operating; control loading that is representative of the 
simulated airplane throughout its ground and flight envelope; and 
significant sound representation. All displays may be flat/LCD panel 
representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft, 
but all controls, switches, and knobs must physically replicate the 
aircraft in control operation.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
                     Agreement (BASA) (Sec. 60.37)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.37, FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
Agreement (BASA).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 162]]

     Attachment 1 to Appendix B to Part 60--General FTD REQUIREMENTS

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                             1. Requirements

    a. Certain requirements included in this appendix must be supported 
with an SOC as defined in Appendix F, which may include objective and 
subjective tests. The requirements for SOCs are indicated in the 
``General FTD Requirements'' column in Table B1A of this appendix.
    b. Table B1A describes the requirements for the indicated level of 
FTD. Many devices include operational systems or functions that exceed 
the requirements outlined in this section. In any event, all systems 
will be tested and evaluated in accordance with this appendix to ensure 
proper operation.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              2. Discussion

    a. This attachment describes the general requirements for qualifying 
Level 4 through Level 6 FTDs. The sponsor should also consult the 
objectives tests in Attachment 2 of this appendix and the examination of 
functions and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix 
to determine the complete requirements for a specific level FTD.
    b. The material contained in this attachment is divided into the 
following categories:
    (1) General Flight deck Configuration.
    (2) Programming.
    (3) Equipment Operation.
    (4) Equipment and facilities for instructor/evaluator functions.
    (5) Motion System.
    (6) Visual System.
    (7) Sound System.
    c. Table B1A provides the standards for the General FTD 
Requirements.
    d. Table B1B provides the tasks that the sponsor will examine to 
determine whether the FTD satisfactorily meets the requirements for 
flight crew training, testing, and experience, and provides the tasks 
for which the simulator may be qualified.
    e. Table B1C provides the functions that an instructor/check airman 
must be able to control in the simulator.
    f. It is not required that all of the tasks that appear on the List 
of Qualified Tasks (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the initial 
or continuing qualification evaluation.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                   Table B1A--Minimum FTD Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                 QPS Requirements                       Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                      FTD level
 Entry No.        General FTD      ---------------         Notes
                  requirements       4    5    6
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. General Flight Deck Configuration
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a........  The FTD must have a               X   For FTD purposes, the
              flight deck that is                   flight deck consists
              a replica of the                      of all that space
              airplane simulated                    forward of a cross
              with controls,                        section of the
              equipment,                            fuselage at the most
              observable flight                     extreme aft setting
              deck indicators,                      of the pilots' seats
              circuit breakers,                     including
              and bulkheads                         additional, required
              properly located,                     flight crewmember
              functionally                          duty stations and
              accurate and                          those required
              replicating the                       bulkheads aft of the
              airplane. The                         pilot seats. For
              direction of                          clarification,
              movement of controls                  bulkheads containing
              and switches must be                  only items such as
              identical to that in                  landing gear pin
              the airplane. Pilot                   storage
              seat(s) must afford                   compartments, fire
              the capability for                    axes and
              the occupant to be                    extinguishers, spare
              able to achieve the                   light bulbs,
              design ``eye                          aircraft documents
              position.''                           pouches are not
              Equipment for the                     considered essential
              operation of the                      and may be omitted.
              flight deck windows
              must be included,
              but the actual
              windows need not be
              operable. Fire axes,
              extinguishers, and
              spare light bulbs
              must be available in
              the flight
              simulator, but may
              be relocated to a
              suitable location as
              near as practical to
              the original
              position. Fire axes,
              landing gear pins,
              and any similar
              purpose instruments
              need only be
              represented in
              silhouette.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 163]]

 
1.b........  The FTD must have       X    X
              equipment (e.g.,
              instruments, panels,
              systems, circuit
              breakers, and
              controls) simulated
              sufficiently for the
              authorized training/
              checking events to
              be accomplished. The
              installed equipment
              must be located in a
              spatially correct
              location and may be
              in a flight deck or
              an open flight deck
              area. Additional
              equipment required
              for the authorized
              training/checking
              events must be
              available in the
              FTD, but may be
              located in a
              suitable location as
              near as practical to
              the spatially
              correct position.
              Actuation of
              equipment must
              replicate the
              appropriate function
              in the airplane.
              Fire axes, landing
              gear pins, and any
              similar purpose
              instruments need
              only be represented
              in silhouette.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Programming
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a........  The FTD must provide         X    X
              the proper effect of
              aerodynamic changes
              for the combinations
              of drag and thrust
              normally encountered
              in flight. This must
              include the effect
              of change in
              airplane attitude,
              thrust, drag,
              altitude,
              temperature, and
              configuration.
             Level 6 additionally
              requires the effects
              of changes in gross
              weight and center of
              gravity.
             Level 5 requires only
              generic aerodynamic
              programming.
             An SOC is required...
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b........  The FTD must have the   X    X    X
              computer (analog or
              digital) capability
              (i.e., capacity,
              accuracy,
              resolution, and
              dynamic response)
              needed to meet the
              qualification level
              sought.
             An SOC is required...
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c........  Relative responses of        X    X   The intent is to
              the flight deck                       verify that the FTD
              instruments must be                   provides instrument
              measured by latency                   cues that are,
              tests, or transport                   within the stated
              delay tests, and may                  time delays, like
              not exceed 300                        the airplane
              milliseconds. The                     responses. For
              instruments must                      airplane response,
              respond to abrupt                     acceleration in the
              input at the pilot's                  appropriate,
              position within the                   corresponding
              allotted time, but                    rotational axis is
              not before the time                   preferred.
              when the airplane                     Additional
              responds under the                    information
              same conditions.                      regarding Latency
                                                    and Transport Delay
                                                    testing may be found
                                                    in Appendix A,
                                                    Attachment 2,
                                                    paragraph 15.
             
              Latency: The FTD
              instrument and, if
              applicable, the
              motion system and
              the visual system
              response must not be
              prior to that time
              when the airplane
              responds and may
              respond up to 300
              milliseconds after
              that time under the
              same conditions.
             
              Transport Delay: As
              an alternative to
              the Latency
              requirement, a
              transport delay
              objective test may
              be used to
              demonstrate that the
              FTD system does not
              exceed the specified
              limit. The sponsor
              must measure all the
              delay encountered by
              a step signal
              migrating from the
              pilot's control
              through all the
              simulation software
              modules in the
              correct order, using
              a handshaking
              protocol, finally
              through the normal
              output interfaces to
              the instrument
              display and, if
              applicable, the
              motion system, and
              the visual system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Equipment Operation
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 164]]

 
3.a........  All relevant                 X    X
              instrument
              indications involved
              in the simulation of
              the airplane must
              automatically
              respond to control
              movement or external
              disturbances to the
              simulated airplane;
              e.g., turbulence or
              winds.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b........  Navigation equipment         X    X
              must be installed
              and operate within
              the tolerances
              applicable for the
              airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
             Level 6 must also
              include
              communication
              equipment (inter-
              phone and air/
              ground) like that in
              the airplane and, if
              appropriate to the
              operation being
              conducted, an oxygen
              mask microphone
              system.
             Level 5 need have
              only that navigation
              equipment necessary
              to fly an instrument
              approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c........  Installed systems       X    X    X
              must simulate the
              applicable airplane
              system operation,
              both on the ground
              and in flight.
              Installed systems
              must be operative to
              the extent that
              applicable normal,
              abnormal, and
              emergency operating
              procedures included
              in the sponsor's
              training programs
              can be accomplished.
             Level 6 must simulate
              all applicable
              airplane flight,
              navigation, and
              systems operation.
             Level 5 must have at
              least functional
              flight and
              navigational
              controls, displays,
              and instrumentation.
             Level 4 must have at
              least one airplane
              system installed and
              functional.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d........  The lighting            X    X    X   Back-lighted panels
              environment for                       and instruments may
              panels and                            be installed but are
              instruments must be                   not required.
              sufficient for the
              operation being
              conducted.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e........  The FTD must provide              X
              control forces and
              control travel that
              correspond to the
              airplane being
              simulated. Control
              forces must react in
              the same manner as
              in the airplane
              under the same
              flight conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.f........  The FTD must provide         X
              control forces and
              control travel of
              sufficient precision
              to manually fly an
              instrument approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Instructor or Evaluator Facilities
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a........  In addition to the      X    X    X   These seats need not
              flight crewmember                     be a replica of an
              stations, suitable                    aircraft seat and
              seating arrangements                  may be as simple as
              for an instructor/                    an office chair
              check airman and FAA                  placed in an
              Inspector must be                     appropriate
              available. These                      position.
              seats must provide
              adequate view of
              crewmember's
              panel(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b........  The FTD must have       X    X    X
              instructor controls
              that permit
              activation of
              normal, abnormal,
              and emergency
              conditions as
              appropriate. Once
              activated, proper
              system operation
              must result from
              system management by
              the crew and not
              require input from
              the instructor
              controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Motion System (not required)
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 165]]

 
5.a........  The FTD may have a           X    X   The motion system
              motion system, if                     standards set out in
              desired, although it                  part 60, Appendix A
              is not required. If                   for at least Level A
              a motion system is                    simulators is
              installed and                         acceptable.
              additional training,
              testing, or checking
              credits are being
              sought on the basis
              of having a motion
              system, the motion
              system operation may
              not be distracting
              and must be coupled
              closely to provide
              integrated sensory
              cues. The motion
              system must also
              respond to abrupt
              input at the pilot's
              position within the
              allotted time, but
              not before the time
              when the airplane
              responds under the
              same conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b........  If a motion system is             X   The motion system
              installed, it must                    standards set out in
              be measured by                        part 60, Appendix A
              latency tests or                      for at least Level A
              transport delay                       simulators is
              tests and may not                     acceptable.
              exceed 300
              milliseconds.
              Instrument response
              may not occur prior
              to motion onset.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Visual System
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a........  The FTD may have a      X    X    X
              visual system, if
              desired, although it
              is not required. If
              a visual system is
              installed, it must
              meet the following
              criteria:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.1......  The visual system       X    X
              must respond to
              abrupt input at the
              pilot's position.
             An SOC is required...
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.2......  The visual system       X    X    X
              must be at least a
              single channel, non-
              collimated display.
             An SOC is required...
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.3......  The visual system       X    X    X
              must provide at
              least a field-of-
              view of 18[deg]
              vertical / 24[deg]
              horizontal for the
              pilot flying.
             An SOC is required...
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.4......  The visual system       X    X    X
              must provide for a
              maximum parallax of
              10[deg] per pilot.
             An SOC is required...
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.5......  The visual scene        X    X    X
              content may not be
              distracting.
             An SOC is required...
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.6......  The minimum distance    X    X    X
              from the pilot's eye
              position to the
              surface of a direct
              view display may not
              be less than the
              distance to any
              front panel
              instrument.
             An SOC is required...
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.7......  The visual system       X    X    X
              must provide for a
              minimum resolution
              of 5 arc-minutes for
              both computed and
              displayed pixel size.
             An SOC is required...
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 166]]

 
6.b........  If a visual system is             X   Directly projected,
              installed and                         non-collimated
              additional training,                  visual displays may
              testing, or checking                  prove to be
              credits are being                     unacceptable for
              sought on the basis                   dual pilot
              of having a visual                    applications.
              system, a visual
              system meeting the
              standards set out
              for at least a Level
              A FFS (see Appendix
              A of this part) will
              be required. A
              ``direct-view,'' non-
              collimated visual
              system (with the
              other requirements
              for a Level A visual
              system met) may be
              considered
              satisfactory for
              those installations
              where the visual
              system design ``eye
              point'' is
              appropriately
              adjusted for each
              pilot's position
              such that the
              parallax error is at
              or less than 10[deg]
              simultaneously for
              each pilot.
             An SOC is required...
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Sound System
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a........  The FTD must simulate             X
              significant flight
              deck sounds
              resulting from pilot
              actions that
              correspond to those
              heard in the
              airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


                 Table B1B--Table of Tasks vs. FTD Level
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                 QPS requirements                       Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   Subjective         FTD level
                Requirements--In   ---------------
             order to be qualified
                   at the FTD
              qualification level
               indicated, the FTD
 Entry No.      must be able to                            Notes
              perform at least the   4    5    6
             tasks associated with
                 that level of
               qualification. See
              Notes 1 and 2 at the
                end of the Table
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight Procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a........  Preflight Inspection    A    A    X
              (flight deck only).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b........  Engine Start.........   A    A    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c........  Pre-takeoff Checks...   A    A    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Takeoff and Departure Phase.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a........  Rejected Takeoff       ...  ...   A
              (requires visual
              system).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b........  Departure Procedure..  ...   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. In-flight Maneuvers.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a........  a. Steep Turns.......  ...   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b........  b. Approaches to       ...   A    X
              Stalls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c........  c. Engine Failure      ...   A    X
              (procedures only)--
              Multiengine Airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d........  d. Engine Failure      ...   A    X
              (procedures only)--
              Single-Engine
              Airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e........  e. Specific Flight      A    A    A
              Characteristics
              incorporated into
              the user's FAA
              approved flight
              training program.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Instrument Procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a........  Standard Terminal      ...   A    X
              Arrival/Flight
              Management System
              Arrival.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b........  Holding..............  ...   A    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 167]]

 
4.c........  Precision Instrument,  ...   A    X   e.g., Autopilot,
              all engines                           Manual (Flt. Dir.
              operating.                            Assisted), Manual
                                                    (Raw Data).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d........  Non-precision          ...   A    X   e.g., NDB, VOR, VOR/
              Instrument, all                       DME, VOR/TAC, RNAV,
              engines operating.                    LOC, LOC/BC, ADF,
                                                    and SDF.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e........  Circling Approach      ...  ...   A
              (requires visual
              system).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f........  Missed Approach......  ...   A    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Normal and Abnormal Procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a........  Engine (including       A    A    X
              shutdown and
              restart--procedures
              only).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b........  Fuel System..........   A    A    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c........  Electrical System....   A    A    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d........  Hydraulic System.....   A    A    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e........  Environmental and       A    A    X
              Pressurization
              Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.f........  Fire Detection and      A    A    X
              Extinguisher Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.g........  Navigation and          A    A    X
              Avionics Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.h........  Automatic Flight        A    A    X
              Control System,
              Electronic Flight
              Instrument System,
              and Related
              Subsystems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.i........  Flight Control          A    A    X
              Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.j........  Anti-ice and Deice      A    A    X
              Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.k........  Aircraft and Personal   A    A    X
              Emergency Equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Emergency Procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a........  Emergency Descent      ...   A    X
              (maximum rate).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b........  Inflight Fire and      ...   A    X
              Smoke Removal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c........  Rapid Decompression..  ...   A    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.d........  Emergency Evacuation.   A    A    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Postflight Procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a........  After-Landing           A    A    X
              Procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b........  Parking and Securing.   A    A   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Note 1: An ``A'' in the table indicates that the system, task, or
  procedure, although not required to be present, may be examined if the
  appropriate airplane system is simulated in the FTD and is working
  properly.
Note 2: Items not installed or not functional on the FTD and not
  appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed
  as exceptions on the SOQ.


          Table B1C--Table of FTD System Tasks QPS requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                 QPS Requirements                       Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   Subjective         FTD level
                Requirements  In   ---------------
             order to be qualified
                   at the FTD
              qualification level
 Entry No.     indicated, the FTD                          Notes
                must be able to      4    5    6
              perform at least the
             tasks associated with
                 that level of
                 qualification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Instructor Operating Station (IOS).
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 168]]

 
1.a........  Power switch(es).....   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b........  Airplane conditions..   A    X    X   e.g., GW, CG, Fuel
                                                    loading, Systems,
                                                    Ground Crew.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c........  Airports/Runways.....   X    X    X   e.g., Selection and
                                                    Presets; Surface and
                                                    Lighting controls if
                                                    equipped with a
                                                    visual system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d........  Environmental           X    X    X   e.g., Temp, Wind.
              controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e........  Airplane system         A    X    X
              malfunctions
              (Insertion/deletion).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f........  Locks, Freezes, and     X    X    X
              Repositioning.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.g........  Sound Controls. (On/    X    X    X
              off/adjustment).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.h........  Motion/Control          A    A    A
              Loading System, as
              appropriate. On/off/
              emergency stop.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Observer Seats/Stations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a........  Position/Adjustment/    X    X   X
              Positive restraint
              system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Note 1: An ``A'' in the table indicates that the system, task, or
  procedure, although not required to be present, may be examined if the
  appropriate system is in the FTD and is working properly.

  Attachment 2 to Appendix B to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD) 
                             Objective Tests

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              1. Discussion

    a. For the purposes of this attachment, the flight conditions 
specified in the Flight Conditions Column of Table B2A, are defined as 
follows:
    (1) Ground--on ground, independent of airplane configuration;
    (2) Take-off--gear down with flaps/slats in any certified takeoff 
position;
    (3) First segment climb--gear down with flaps/slats in any certified 
takeoff position (normally not above 50 ft AGL);
    (4) Second segment climb--gear up with flaps/slats in any certified 
takeoff position (normally between 50 ft and 400 ft AGL);
    (5) Clean--flaps/slats retracted and gear up;
    (6) Cruise--clean configuration at cruise altitude and airspeed;
    (7) Approach--gear up or down with flaps/slats at any normal 
approach position as recommended by the airplane manufacturer; and
    (8) Landing--gear down with flaps/slats in any certified landing 
position.
    b. The format for numbering the objective tests in Appendix A, 
Attachment 2, Table A2A, and the objective tests in Appendix B, 
Attachment 2, Table B2A, is identical. However, each test required for 
FFSs is not necessarily required for FTDs. Also, each test required for 
FTDs is not necessarily required for FFSs. Therefore, when a test number 
(or series of numbers) is not required, the term ``Reserved'' is used in 
the table at that location. Following this numbering format provides a 
degree of commonality between the two tables and substantially reduces 
the potential for confusion when referring to objective test numbers for 
either FFSs or FTDs.
    c. The reader is encouraged to review the Airplane Flight Simulator 
Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal 
Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and FAA AC 25-7, as amended, Flight 
Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-
8, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, 
for references and examples regarding flight testing requirements and 
techniques.
    d. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind 
vector should be clearly noted as part of the data presentation, 
expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the runway being 
used for the test.
    e. A Level 4 FTD does not require objective tests and therefore, 
Level 4 is not addressed in the following table.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 169]]

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                          2. Test Requirements

    a. The ground and flight tests required for qualification are listed 
in Table B2A Objective Tests. Computer generated FTD test results must 
be provided for each test except where an alternate test is specifically 
authorized by the NSPM. If a flight condition or operating condition is 
required for the test but does not apply to the airplane being simulated 
or to the qualification level sought, it may be disregarded (e.g., an 
engine out missed approach for a single-engine airplane; a maneuver 
using reverse thrust for an airplane without reverse thrust capability). 
Each test result is compared against the validation data described in 
Sec. 60.13, and in Appendix B. The results must be produced on an 
appropriate recording device acceptable to the NSPM and must include FTD 
number, date, time, conditions, tolerances, and appropriate dependent 
variables portrayed in comparison to the validation data. Time histories 
are required unless otherwise indicated in Table B2A. All results must 
be labeled using the tolerances and units given.
    b. Table B2A in this attachment sets out the test results required, 
including the parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions for FTD 
validation. Tolerances are provided for the listed tests because 
mathematical modeling and acquisition and development of reference data 
are often inexact. All tolerances listed in the following tables are 
applied to FTD performance. When two tolerance values are given for a 
parameter, the less restrictive may be used unless otherwise indicated. 
In those cases where a tolerance is expressed only as a percentage, the 
tolerance percentage applies to the maximum value of that parameter 
within its normal operating range as measured from the neutral or zero 
position unless otherwise indicated.
    c. Certain tests included in this attachment must be supported with 
a SOC. In Table B2A, requirements for SOCs are indicated in the ``Test 
Details'' column.
    d. When operational or engineering judgment is used in making 
assessments for flight test data applications for FTD validity, such 
judgment may not be limited to a single parameter. For example, data 
that exhibit rapid variations of the measured parameters may require 
interpolations or a ``best fit'' data section. All relevant parameters 
related to a given maneuver or flight condition must be provided to 
allow overall interpretation. When it is difficult or impossible to 
match FTD to airplane data throughout a time history, differences must 
be justified by providing a comparison of other related variables for 
the condition being assessed.
    e. It is not acceptable to program the FTD so that the mathematical 
modeling is correct only at the validation test points. Unless noted 
otherwise, tests must represent airplane performance and handling 
qualities at operating weights and centers of gravity (CG) typical of 
normal operation. If a test is supported by aircraft data at one extreme 
weight or CG, another test supported by aircraft data at mid-conditions 
or as close as possible to the other extreme is necessary. Certain tests 
that are relevant only at one extreme CG or weight condition need not be 
repeated at the other extreme. The results of the tests for Level 6 are 
expected to be indicative of the device's performance and handling 
qualities throughout all of the following:
    (1) The airplane weight and CG envelope;
    (2) The operational envelope; and
    (3) Varying atmospheric ambient and environmental conditions--
including the extremes authorized for the respective airplane or set of 
airplanes.
    f. When comparing the parameters listed to those of the airplane, 
sufficient data must also be provided to verify the correct flight 
condition and airplane configuration changes. For example, to show that 
control force is within the parameters for a static stability test, data 
to show the correct airspeed, power, thrust or torque, airplane 
configuration, altitude, and other appropriate datum identification 
parameters must also be given. If comparing short period dynamics, 
normal acceleration may be used to establish a match to the airplane, 
but airspeed, altitude, control input, airplane configuration, and other 
appropriate data must also be given. If comparing landing gear change 
dynamics, pitch, airspeed, and altitude may be used to establish a match 
to the airplane, but landing gear position must also be provided. All 
airspeed values must be properly annotated (e.g., indicated versus 
calibrated). In addition, the same variables must be used for comparison 
(e.g., compare inches to inches rather than inches to centimeters).
    g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must clearly describe how the FTD 
will be set up and operated for each test. Each FTD subsystem may be 
tested independently, but overall integrated testing of the FTD must be 
accomplished to assure that the total FTD system meets the prescribed 
standards. A manual test procedure with explicit and detailed steps for 
completing each test must also be provided.
    h. For previously qualified FTDs, the tests and tolerances of this 
attachment may be used in subsequent continuing qualification 
evaluations for any given test if the sponsor has submitted a proposed 
MQTG revision to the NSPM and has received NSPM approval.
    i. FTDs are evaluated and qualified with an engine model simulating 
the airplane data supplier's flight test engine. For qualification of 
alternative engine models (either variations of the flight test engines 
or other manufacturer's engines) additional tests

[[Page 170]]

with the alternative engine models may be required. This attachment 
contains guidelines for alternative engines.
    j. Testing Computer Controlled Aircraft (CCA) simulators, or other 
highly augmented airplane simulators, flight test data is required for 
the Normal (N) and/or Non-normal (NN) control states, as indicated in 
this attachment. Where test results are independent of control state, 
Normal or Non-normal control data may be used. All tests in Table B2A 
require test results in the Normal control state unless specifically 
noted otherwise in the Test Details section following the CCA 
designation. The NSPM will determine what tests are appropriate for 
airplane simulation data. When making this determination, the NSPM may 
require other levels of control state degradation for specific airplane 
tests. Where Non-normal control states are required, test data must be 
provided for one or more Non-normal control states, and must include the 
least augmented state. Where applicable, flight test data must record 
Normal and Non-normal states for:
    (1) Pilot controller deflections or electronically generated inputs, 
including location of input; and
    (2) Flight control surface positions unless test results are not 
affected by, or are independent of, surface positions.
    k. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of 
augmentation devices. FTDs for highly augmented airplanes will be 
validated both in the unaugmented configuration (or failure state with 
the maximum permitted degradation in handling qualities) and the 
augmented configuration. Where various levels of handling qualities 
result from failure states, validation of the effect of the failure is 
necessary. Requirements for testing will be mutually agreed to between 
the sponsor and the NSPM on a case-by-case basis.
    l. Some tests will not be required for airplanes using airplane 
hardware in the FTD flight deck (e.g., ``side stick controller''). These 
exceptions are noted in Section 2 ``Handling Qualities'' in Table B2A of 
this attachment. However, in these cases, the sponsor must provide a 
statement that the airplane hardware meets the appropriate 
manufacturer's specifications and the sponsor must have supporting 
information to that fact available for NSPM review.
    m. For objective test purposes, see Appendix F of this part for the 
definitions of ``Near maximum,'' ``Light,'' and ``Medium'' gross weight.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    n. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a 
``snapshot test'' or a ``series of snapshot test results'' in lieu of a 
time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that 
a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the 
``snapshot.'' The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior 
to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap 
shot.
    o. Refer to AC 120-27, ``Aircraft Weight and Balance'' and FAA-H-
8083-1, ``Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook'' for more information.

                             End Information



[[Page 171]]

________________________________________________________________________

                             Table B2A--Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                QPS requirements
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
             Test                                                                        FTD       Information
-------------------------------                        Flight                           level  -----------------
                                   Tolerances        conditions       Test details   ----------
  Entry No.         Title                                                              5    6         Notes
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Performance
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.........  (Reserved)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.........  Takeoff
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1.......  Ground            5% time                      acceleration                required only
               Time.             or  sec.                              of the segment              sought.
                                                                     from brake
                                                                     release to VR.
                                                                    Preliminary
                                                                     aircraft
                                                                     certification
                                                                     data may be
                                                                     used.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2.        (Reserved)
through
 1.b.6..
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.7.......  Rejected Takeoff  5% time                      at least 80% of             required only
                                 or .5 sec.                            of the Rejected             sought.
                                                                     Takeoff to full
                                                                     stop.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.8.......  (Reserved)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.........  Climb
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.1.......  Normal Climb all  3 kt                         or airplane
               operating.        airspeed, 5% or 100 ft/min                         climb speed and
                                 (0.5 m/sec)                         at nominal
                                 climb rate.                         altitude. May
                                                                     be a snapshot
                                                                     test result.
                                                                     FTD performance
                                                                     must be
                                                                     recorded over
                                                                     an interval of
                                                                     at least 1,000
                                                                     ft (300 m).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.2.        (Reserved)
through
 1.c.4..
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.........  (Reserved)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e.........  (Reserved)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.........  Engines
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 172]]

 
1.f.1.......  Acceleration....  Level 6: 10% Tt, or                         EPR, Torque,                for definitions
                                 0.25 sec.                     Pressure) from
                                Level 5: 1 sec.                             for a rapid
                                                                     (slam) throttle
                                                                     movement.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.2.......  Deceleration....  Level 6: 10% Tt, or                         EPR, Torque,                for definitions
                                 0.25 sec.                     Pressure) from
                                Level 5: 1 sec.                             for a rapid
                                                                     (slam) throttle
                                                                     movement.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Handling Qualities
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
              For FTDs requiring Static tests at the controls (i.e., column, wheel,             Testing of
               rudder pedal), special test fixtures will not be required during                  position versus
               initial or upgrade evaluations if the sponsor's QTG/MQTG shows both               force is not
               test fixture results and the results of an alternative approach, such             applicable if
               as computer plots produced concurrently, that show satisfactory                   forces are
               agreement. Repeat of the alternative method during the initial or                 generated
               upgrade evaluation would then satisfy this test requirement.                      solely by use
                                                                                                 of airplane
                                                                                                 hardware in the
                                                                                                 FTD.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.........  Static Control Tests
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1.a.....  Pitch Controller  2 lb                         for an
               Force and         (0.9 daN)                           uninterrupted
               Surface           breakout, 10% or 5 lb (2.2 daN)
                                 force, 2[deg]
                                 elevator.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1.b.....  Pitch Controller  2 lb       sponsor.          during initial              on continuing
               Force.            (0.9 daN)                           qualification               qualification
                                 breakout, 10% or 5 lb (2.2 daN)                     to the stops.               for Level 5 to
                                 force.                              The recorded                be able to
                                                                     tolerances                  manually fly an
                                                                     apply to                    instrument
                                                                     subsequent                  approach; and
                                                                     comparisons on              not to compare
                                                                     continuing                  results to
                                                                     qualification               flight test or
                                                                     evaluations.                other such
                                                                                                 data.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2.a.....  Roll Controller   2 lb                         for an
               Force and         (0.9 daN)                           uninterrupted
               Surface           breakout, 10% or 3 lb (1.3 daN)
                                 force, 2[deg]
                                 aileron, 3[deg] spoiler
                                 angle.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 173]]

 
2.a.2.b.....  Roll Controller   2 lb       sponsor.          during initial              on continuing
               Force.            (0.9 daN)                           qualification               qualification
                                 breakout, 10% or 3 lb (1.3 daN)                     to the stops.               for Level 5 to
                                 force.                              The recorded                be able to
                                                                     tolerances                  manually fly an
                                                                     apply to                    instrument
                                                                     subsequent                  approach; and
                                                                     comparisons on              not to compare
                                                                     continuing                  results to
                                                                     qualification               flight test or
                                                                     evaluations.                other such
                                                                                                 data.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3.a.....  Rudder Pedal      5 lb                         for an
               Force and         (2.2 daN)                           uninterrupted
               Surface           breakout, 10% or 5 lb (2.2 daN)
                                 force, 2[deg] rudder
                                 angle.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3.b.....  Rudder Pedal      5 lb       sponsor.          during initial              on continuing
               Force.            (2.2 daN)                           qualification               qualification
                                 breakout, 10% or 5 lb (2.2 daN)                     to the stops.               for Level 5 to
                                 force.                              The recorded                be able to
                                                                     tolerances                  manually fly an
                                                                     apply to                    instrument
                                                                     subsequent                  approach; and
                                                                     comparisons on              not to compare
                                                                     continuing                  results to
                                                                     qualification               flight test or
                                                                     evaluations.                other such
                                                                                                 data.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.4.......  Nosewheel         2 lb                         of an
               Controller        (0.9 daN)                           uninterrupted
               Force.            breakout, 10% or 3 lb (1.3 daN)
                                 force.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.5.......  Rudder Pedal      2[deg]                       of an
               Calibration.      nosewheel angle.                    uninterrupted
                                                                     control sweep
                                                                     to the stops.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.6.......  Pitch Trim        0.5[deg]                                                 the test is to
               Surface           of computed                                                     compare the FTD
               Position          trim surface                                                    against design
               Calibration.      angle.                                                          data or
                                                                                                 equivalent.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.7.......  (Reserved)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.8.......  Alignment of      5[deg]                       simultaneous
               Throttle Lever    of throttle                         recording for
               vs. Selected      lever angle or                      all engines.
               Engine            0.8 in                       apply against
                                 (2 cm) for                          airplane data
                                 power control                       and between
                                 without angular                     engines. In the
                                 travel, or                          case of
                                 3% N1,                       powered
                                 or .03 EPR, or                        is present, it
                                 3%                           checked. For
                                 maximum rated                       airplanes with
                                 manifold                            throttle
                                 pressure, or                        ``detents,''
                                 3%                           must be
                                 torque.                             presented. May
                                                                     be a series of
                                                                     snapshot test
                                                                     results.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 174]]

 
2.a.9.......  Brake Pedal       5 lb                         are required:               required unless
               Force.            (2.2 daN) or                        Zero and                    RTO credit is
                                 10% force.                          maximum                     sought.
                                                                     deflection.
                                                                     Computer output
                                                                     results may be
                                                                     used to show
                                                                     compliance.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.........  (Reserved)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.........  Longitudinal Control Tests
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Power setting is that required for level flight unless otherwise specified.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.1.......  Power Change      5 lb                         of snapshot
                                 (2.2 daN) or,                       test results.
                                 20%                          dynamics test
                                 pitch conrol                        as described in
                                 force.                              test 2.c.1 of
                                                                     Table A2A of
                                                                     this part will
                                                                     be accepted.
                                                                     CCA: Test in
                                                                     Normal and Non-
                                                                     normal control
                                                                     states.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.2.......  Flap/Slat Change  5 lb       initial flap      of snapshot
                                 (2.2 daN) or,     retraction, and   test results.
                                 20%        landing.          change dynamics
                                 pitch conrol                        test as
                                 force.                              described in
                                                                     test 2.c.2 of
                                                                     Table A2A of
                                                                     this part will
                                                                     be accepted.
                                                                     CCA: Test in
                                                                     Normal and Non-
                                                                     normal control
                                                                     states.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.3.......  (Reserved)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.4.......  Gear Change       5 lb       (retraction)      of snapshot
                                 (2.2 daN) or,     and Approach      test results.
                                 20%                          dynamics test
                                 pitch conrol                        as described in
                                 force.                              test 2.c.4 of
                                                                     Table A2A of
                                                                     this part will
                                                                     be accepted.
                                                                     CCA: Test in
                                                                     Normal and Non-
                                                                     normal control
                                                                     states.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.5.......  Longitudinal      0.5[deg]   Approach, and     state condition
                                 trim surface      Landing.          with wings
                                 angle 1[deg]                             level flight.
                                 elevator 1[deg] pitch                       tests Level 5
                                 angle 5% net thrust                      stick and trim
                                 or equivalent.                      controllers in
                                                                     lieu of
                                                                     elevator and
                                                                     trim surface.
                                                                     CCA: Test in
                                                                     Normal and Non-
                                                                     normal control
                                                                     states.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 175]]

 
2.c.6.......  Longitudinal      5 lb       Approach, and     history data or
               Stability         (2.2 daN)                     snapshot tests
                                 or 0% pitch                           up to 30[deg]
                                 controller                          of bank for
                                 force                               approach and
                                 Alternative                         landing
                                 method: 1[deg] or                          for up to
                                 10%                          for the cruise
                                 change of                           configuration.
                                 elevator.                           The force
                                                                     tolerance is
                                                                     not applicable
                                                                     if forces are
                                                                     generated
                                                                     solely by the
                                                                     use of airplane
                                                                     hardware in the
                                                                     FTD. The
                                                                     alternative
                                                                     method applies
                                                                     to airplanes
                                                                     that do not
                                                                     exhibit ``stick-
                                                                     force-per-g''
                                                                     characteristics
                                                                     . CCA: Test in
                                                                     Normal and Non-
                                                                     normal control
                                                                     states.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.7.......  Longitudinal      5 lb                         of snapshot
               Stability.        (2.2 daN)                     Record results
                                 or 0% pitch                           and 2 speeds
                                 controller                          below trim
                                 force.                              speed. The
                                Alternative                          force tolerance
                                 method: 1[deg] or                          forces are
                                 10%                          solely by the
                                 change of                           use of airplane
                                 elevator.                           hardware in the
                                                                     FTD. The
                                                                     alternative
                                                                     method applies
                                                                     to airplanes
                                                                     that do not
                                                                     exhibit speed
                                                                     stability
                                                                     characteristics
                                                                     . Level 5 must
                                                                     exhibit
                                                                     positive static
                                                                     stability, but
                                                                     need not comply
                                                                     with the
                                                                     numerical
                                                                     tolerance. CCA:
                                                                     Test in Normal
                                                                     and Non-normal
                                                                     control states.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.8.......  Stall Warning     3 kts.     Climb, and        maneuver must
               stall warning     airspeed, 2[deg] bank                        near idle power
                                 for speeds                          and wings level
                                 greater than                        (1g). Record
                                 actuation of                        the stall
                                 stall warning                       warning signal
                                 device or                           and initial
                                 initial buffet.                     buffet if
                                                                     applicable.
                                                                     CCA: Test in
                                                                     Normal and Non-
                                                                     normal control
                                                                     states.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.9.a.....  Phugoid Dynamics  10%                          include
                                 period, 10% of time to                     following:
                                 \1/2\ or double                     Three full
                                 amplitude or                        cycles (six
                                 .02 of                       after the input
                                 damping ratio.                      is completed),
                                                                     or the number
                                                                     of cycles
                                                                     sufficient to
                                                                     determine time
                                                                     to \1/2\ or
                                                                     double
                                                                     amplitude. CCA:
                                                                     Test in Non-
                                                                     normal control
                                                                     state.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.9.b.....  Phugoid Dynamics  10%                          include
                                 period,                             whichever is
                                 Representative                      less of the
                                 damping.                            following:
                                                                     Three full
                                                                     cycles (six
                                                                     overshoots
                                                                     after the input
                                                                     is completed),
                                                                     or the number
                                                                     of cycles
                                                                     sufficient to
                                                                     determine
                                                                     representative
                                                                     damping. CCA:
                                                                     Test in Non-
                                                                     normal control
                                                                     state.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 176]]

 
2.c.10......  Short Period      1.5[deg]                     normal control
                                 pitch angle or                      state.
                                 2[deg]/
                                 sec pitch rate,
                                 0.10g
                                 acceleration..
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.........  Lateral Directional Tests
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Power setting is that required for level flight unless otherwise specified.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.1.......  (Reserved)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.2.......  Roll Response     10% or     Approach or       for normal roll
                                 2[deg]/                      deflection (one-
                                 sec roll rate.                      third of
                                                                     maximum roll
                                                                     controller
                                                                     travel). May be
                                                                     combined with
                                                                     step input of
                                                                     flight deck
                                                                     roll controller
                                                                     test (see
                                                                     2.d.3.).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3.......  Roll Response to  10% or     Landing.          initiation of
               Roll Controller   2[deg]                       seconds after
                                 bank angle.                         control is
                                                                     returned to
                                                                     neutral and
                                                                     released. May
                                                                     be combined
                                                                     with roll
                                                                     response (rate)
                                                                     test (see
                                                                     2.d.2.). CCA:
                                                                     Test in Non-
                                                                     normal control
                                                                     state.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.4.a.....  Spiral Stability  Correct trend     Cruise..........  Record results          X   Airplane data
                                 and [deg] or 10% bank angle                     demonstrate the             be used.
                                 in 30 seconds.                      lateral control
                                                                     required to
                                                                     maintain a
                                                                     steady turn
                                                                     with a bank
                                                                     angle of
                                                                     30[deg]. CCA:
                                                                     Test in Non-
                                                                     normal control
                                                                     state.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.4.b.....  Spiral Stability  Correct trend...  Cruise..........  CCA: Test in Non-  X        Airplane data
                                                                     normal control              averaged from
                                                                     state.                      multiple tests
                                                                                                 in same
                                                                                                 direction may
                                                                                                 be used.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.5.......  (Reserved)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 177]]

 
2.d.6.a.....  Rudder Response.  2[deg]/    Landing.          input of 20%-
                                 sec or 10% yaw rate.                      must be used.
                                                                     Not required if
                                                                     rudder input
                                                                     and response is
                                                                     shown in Dutch
                                                                     Roll test (test
                                                                     2.d.7.). CCA:
                                                                     Test in Normal
                                                                     and Non-normal
                                                                     control states.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.6.b.....  Rudder Response.  Roll rate 2[deg]/sec,                        given rudder                a yaw response
                                 bank angle                          deflection.                 test, in which
                                 3[deg].                      Normal and Non-             procedures and
                                                                     normal control              requirements of
                                                                     states.                     test 2.d.6.a.
                                                                                                 will apply.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.7.......  Dutch Roll (Yaw   0.5 sec.   Approach or       for at least 6
                                 or 0% of period,                      augmentation
                                 10% of                       number of
                                 time to \1/2\                       cycles
                                 or double                           sufficient to
                                 amplitude or                        determine time
                                 .02 of                       double
                                 damping ratio.                      amplitude. CCA:
                                                                     Test in Non-
                                                                     normal control
                                                                     state.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.8.......  Steady State      For given rudder  Approach or       Use at least two   X    X
               Sideslip.         position 2[deg] bank                        of which must
                                 angle, 1[deg]                             rudder.
                                 sideslip angle,                     Propeller
                                 10% or                       airplanes must
                                 2[deg]                       direction. May
                                 aileron, 10% or 5[deg] spoiler                     is matched only
                                 or equivalent                       for
                                 roll,                               repeatability
                                 controller                          and only on
                                 position or                         continuing
                                 force.                              qualification
                                                                     evaluations.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.          (Reserved)
through 2.h.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. (Reserved)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. (Reserved)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. (Reserved)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. FTD System Response Time
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.........  Latency.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                300 ms (or less)  Take-off,         One test is        X    X
                                 after airplane    cruise, and       required in
                                 response.         approach or       each axis
                                                   landing.          (pitch, roll
                                                                     and yaw) for
                                                                     each of the
                                                                     three
                                                                     conditions
                                                                     (take-off,
                                                                     cruise, and
                                                                     approach or
                                                                     landing).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
              Transport Delay
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 178]]

 
                                300 ms (or less)  N/A.............  A separate test    X    X   If Transport
                                 after                               is required in              Delay is the
                                 controller                          each axis                   chosen method
                                 movement.                           (pitch, roll,               to demonstrate
                                                                     and yaw).                   relative
                                                                                                 responses, the
                                                                                                 sponsor and the
                                                                                                 NSPM will use
                                                                                                 the latency
                                                                                                 values to
                                                                                                 ensure proper
                                                                                                 simulator
                                                                                                 response when
                                                                                                 reviewing those
                                                                                                 existing tests
                                                                                                 where latency
                                                                                                 can be
                                                                                                 identified
                                                                                                 (e.g., short
                                                                                                 period, roll
                                                                                                 response,
                                                                                                 rudder
                                                                                                 response).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 179]]

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

 3. For additional information on the following topics, please refer to 
   Appendix A, Attachment 2, and the indicated paragraph within that 
                               attachment

     Control Dynamics, paragraph 4.
     Motion System, paragraph 6.
     Sound System, paragraph 7.
     Engineering Simulator Validation Data, paragraph 
9.
     Validation Test Tolerances, paragraph 11.
     Validation Data Road Map, paragraph 12.
     Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Engines 
Data, paragraph 13.
     Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics, 
paragraph 14.
     Transport Delay Testing, paragraph 15.
     Continuing Qualification Evaluation Validation 
Data Presentation, paragraph 16.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

              4. Alternative Objective Data for FTD Level 5

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. This paragraph (including the following tables) is relevant only 
to FTD Level 5. It is provided because this level is required to 
simulate the performance and handling characteristics of a set of 
airplanes with similar characteristics, such as normal airspeed/altitude 
operating envelope and the same number and type of propulsion systems 
(engines).
    b. Tables B2B through B2E reflect FTD performance standards that are 
acceptable to the FAA. A sponsor must demonstrate that a device performs 
within these parameters, as applicable. If a device does not meet the 
established performance parameters for some or for all of the applicable 
tests listed in Tables B2B through B2E, the sponsor may use NSP accepted 
flight test data for comparison purposes for those tests.
    c. Sponsors using the data from Tables B2B through B2E must comply 
with the following:
    (1) Submit a complete QTG, including results from all of the 
objective tests appropriate for the level of qualification sought as set 
out in Table B2A. The QTG must highlight those results that demonstrate 
the performance of the FTD is within the allowable performance ranges 
indicated in Tables B2B through B2E, as appropriate.
    (2) The QTG test results must include all relevant information 
concerning the conditions under which the test was conducted; e.g., 
gross weight, center of gravity, airspeed, power setting, altitude 
(climbing, descending, or level), temperature, configuration, and any 
other parameter that impacts the conduct of the test.
    (3) The test results become the validation data against which the 
initial and all subsequent continuing qualification evaluations are 
compared. These subsequent evaluations will use the tolerances listed in 
Table B2A.
    (4) Subjective testing of the device must be performed to determine 
that the device performs and handles like an airplane within the 
appropriate set of airplanes.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    d. The reader is encouraged to consult the Airplane Flight Simulator 
Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal 
Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and AC 25-7, Flight Test Guide for 
Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-8A, Flight Test 
Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, as amended, for references 
and examples regarding flight testing requirements and techniques.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 Table B2B--Alternative Data Source for FTD Level 5 Small, Single Engine
                        (Reciprocating) Airplane
------------------------------------------------------------------------
 QPS requirement  The performance parameters in this table must be used
 to program the FTD if flight test data is not used to program the FTD.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
               Applicable test
---------------------------------------------   Authorized performance
    Entry No.         Title and procedure                range
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1...............  Performance.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.............  Climb
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.1...........  Normal climb with nominal   Climb rate = 500-1200 fpm
                   gross weight, at best       (2.5-6 m/sec).
                   rate-of-climb airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.............  Engines.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 180]]

 
1.f.1...........  Acceleration; idle to       2-4 Seconds.
                   takeoff power.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.2...........  Deceleration; takeoff       2-4 Seconds.
                   power to idle.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2...............  Handling Qualities
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.............  Longitudinal Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.1...........  Power change force
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (a) Trim for straight and   5-15 lbs (2.2-6.6 daN) of
                   level flight at 80% of      force (Pull).
                   normal cruise airspeed
                   with necessary power.
                   Reduce power to flight
                   idle. Do not change trim
                   or configuration. After
                   stabilized, record column
                   force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  OR
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (b) Trim for straight and   5-15 lbs (2.2-6.6 daN) of
                   level flight at 80% of      force (Push).
                   normal cruise airspeed
                   with necessary power. Add
                   power to maximum setting.
                   Do not change trim or
                   configuration. After
                   stabilized, record column
                   force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.2...........  Flap/slat change force
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (a) Trim for straight and   5-15 lbs (2.2-6.6 daN) of
                   level flight with flaps     force (Pull).
                   fully retracted at a
                   constant airspeed within
                   the flaps-extended
                   airspeed range. Do not
                   adjust trim or power.
                   Extend the flaps to 50%
                   of full flap travel.
                   After stabilized, record
                   stick force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  OR
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (b) Trim for straight and   5-15 lbs (2.2-6.6 daN) of
                   level flight with flaps     force (Push).
                   extended to 50% of full
                   flap travel, at a
                   constant airspeed within
                   the flaps-extended
                   airspeed range. Do not
                   adjust trim or power.
                   Retract the flaps to
                   zero. After stabilized,
                   record stick force
                   necessary to maintain
                   original airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.4...........  Gear change force
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (a) Trim for straight and   2-12 lbs (0.88-5.3 daN) of
                   level flight with landing   force (Pull).
                   gear retracted at a
                   constant airspeed within
                   the landing gear-extended
                   airspeed range. Do not
                   adjust trim or power.
                   Extend the landing gear.
                   After stabilized, record
                   stick force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  OR
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (b) Trim for straight and   2-12 lbs (0.88-5.3 daN) of
                   level flight with landing   force (Push).
                   gear extended, at a
                   constant airspeed within
                   the landing gear-extended
                   airspeed range. Do not
                   adjust trim or power.
                   Retract the landing gear.
                   After stabilized, record
                   stick force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.5...........  Longitudinal trim.........  Must be able to trim
                                               longitudinal stick force
                                               to ``zero'' in each of
                                               the following
                                               configurations: cruise;
                                               approach; and landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.7...........  Longitudinal static         Must exhibit positive
                   stability.                  static stability.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 181]]

 
2.c.8...........  Stall warning (actuation
                   of stall warning device)
                   with nominal gross
                   weight; wings level; and
                   a deceleration rate of
                   not more than three (3)
                   knots per second.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (a) Landing configuration.  40-60 knots;  5[deg]
                                               of bank.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (b) Clean configuration...  Landing configuration
                                               speed + 10-20%.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.9.b.........  Phugoid dynamics..........  Must have a phugoid with a
                                               period of 30-60 seconds.
                                               May not reach \1/2\ or
                                               double amplitude in less
                                               than 2 cycles.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.............  Lateral Directional Tests.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.2...........  Roll response (rate). Roll  Must have a roll rate of
                   rate must be measured       40[deg]-25[deg]/second.
                   through at least 30[deg]
                   of roll. Aileron control
                   must be deflected \1/3\
                   (33.3 percent) of maximum
                   travel.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.4.b.........  Spiral stability. Cruise    Initial bank angle ( 5[deg])
                   cruise airspeed.            after 20 seconds.
                   Establish a 20[deg]-
                   30[deg] bank. When
                   stabilized, neutralize
                   the aileron control and
                   release. Must be
                   completed in both
                   directions of turn.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.6.b.........  Rudder response. Use 25     2[deg]-6[deg]/second yaw
                   percent of maximum rudder   rate.
                   deflection. (Applicable
                   to approach or landing
                   configuration.).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.7...........  Dutch roll, yaw damper      A period of 2-5 seconds;
                   off. (Applicable to         and \1/2\-2 cycles.
                   cruise and approach
                   configurations.).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.8...........  Steady state sideslip. Use  2[deg]-10[deg] of bank;
                   50 percent rudder           4[deg]-10[deg] of
                   deflection. (Applicable     sideslip; and 2[deg]-
                   to approach and landing     10[deg] of aileron.
                   configurations.).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6...............  FTD System Response Time
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.............  Latency. Flight deck        300 milliseconds or less.
                   instrument systems
                   response to an abrupt
                   pilot controller input.
                   One test is required in
                   each axis (pitch, roll,
                   yaw).
------------------------------------------------------------------------


 Table B2C--Alternative Data Source for FTD Level 5 Small, Multi-Engine
                        (Reciprocating) Airplane
------------------------------------------------------------------------
 QPS requirement  The performance parameters in this table must be used
 to program the FTD if flight test data is not used to program the FTD.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
               Applicable test
---------------------------------------------   Authorized performance
    Entry No.         Title and procedure                range
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Performance
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.............  Climb
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.1...........  Normal climb with nominal   Climb airspeed = 95-115
                   gross weight, at best       knots.
                   rate-of-climb airspeed.    Climb rate = 500-1500 fpm
                                               (2.5-7.5 m/sec)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.............  Engines
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.1...........  Acceleration; idle to       2-5 Seconds.
                   takeoff power.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.2...........  Deceleration; takeoff       2-5 Seconds.
                   power to idle.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Handling Qualities
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.............  Longitudinal Tests........
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 182]]

 
2.c.1...........  Power change force........
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (a) Trim for straight and   10-25 lbs (2.2-6.6 daN) of
                   level flight at 80% of      force (Pull).
                   normal cruise airspeed
                   with necessary power.
                   Reduce power to flight
                   idle. Do not change trim
                   or configuration. After
                   stabilized, record column
                   force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  OR
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (b) Trim for straight and   5-15 lbs (2.2-6.6 daN) of
                   level flight at 80% of      force (Push).
                   normal cruise airspeed
                   with necessary power. Add
                   power to maximum setting.
                   Do not change trim or
                   configuration. After
                   stabilized, record column
                   force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.2...........  Flap/slat change force....
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (a) Trim for straight and   5-15 lbs (2.2-6.6 daN) of
                   level flight with flaps     force (Pull).
                   fully retracted at a
                   constant airspeed within
                   the flaps-extended
                   airspeed range. Do not
                   adjust trim or power.
                   Extend the flaps to 50%
                   of full flap travel.
                   After stabilized, record
                   stick force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  OR
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (b) Trim for straight and   5-15 lbs (2.2-6.6 daN) of
                   level flight with flaps     force (Push).
                   extended to 50% of full
                   flap travel, at a
                   constant airspeed within
                   the flaps-extended
                   airspeed range. Do not
                   adjust trim or power.
                   Retract the flaps to
                   zero. After stabilized,
                   record stick force
                   necessary to maintain
                   original airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.4...........  Gear change force.........
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (a) Trim for straight and   2-12 lbs (0.88-5.3 daN) of
                   level flight with landing   force (Pull).
                   gear retracted at a
                   constant airspeed within
                   the landing gear-extended
                   airspeed range. Do not
                   adjust trim or power.
                   Extend the landing gear.
                   After stabilized, record
                   stick force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  OR
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (b) Trim for straight and   2-12 lbs (0.88-5.3 daN) of
                   level flight with landing   force (Push).
                   gear extended, at a
                   constant airspeed within
                   the landing gear-extended
                   airspeed range. Do not
                   adjust trim or power.
                   Retract the landing gear.
                   After stabilized, record
                   stick force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.4...........  Longitudinal trim.........  Must be able to trim
                                               longitudinal stick force
                                               to ``zero'' in each of
                                               the following
                                               configurations: cruise;
                                               approach; and landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.7...........  Longitudinal static         Must exhibit positive
                   stability.                  static stability.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.8...........  Stall warning (actuation
                   of stall warning device)
                   with nominal gross
                   weight; wings level; and
                   a deceleration rate of
                   not more than three (3)
                   knots per second.
                  (a) Landing configuration.  60-90 knots;  5[deg]
                                               of bank.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (b) Clean configuration...  Landing configuration
                                               speed + 10-20%.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 183]]

 
2.c.9.b.........  Phugoid dynamics..........  Must have a phugoid with a
                                               period of 30-60 seconds.
                                              May not reach \1/2\ or
                                               double amplitude in less
                                               than 2 cycles.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.............  Lateral Directional Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.2...........  Roll response.............  Must have a roll rate of
                  Roll rate must be measured   4\1/2\-25\1/2\/second.
                   through at least 30[deg]
                   of roll. Aileron control
                   must be deflected \1/3\
                   (33.3 percent) of maximum
                   travel.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.4.b.........  Spiral stability..........  Initial bank angle ( 5[deg])
                                               after 20 seconds.
                  Cruise configuration and
                   normal cruise airspeed.
                   Establish a 20[deg]-
                   30[deg] bank. When
                   stabilized, neutralize
                   the aileron control and
                   release. Must be
                   completed in both
                   directions of turn.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.6.b.........  Rudder response...........  3[deg]-6[deg]/second yaw
                                               rate.
                  Use 25 percent of maximum
                   rudder deflection.
                   (Applicable to approach
                   landing configuration.)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.7...........  Dutch roll, yaw damper      A period of 2-5 seconds;
                   off. (Applicable to         and \1/2\-2 cycles.
                   cruise and approach
                   configurations.).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.8...........  Steady state sideslip.....  2[deg]-10[deg] of bank; 4-
                                               10 degrees of sideslip;
                                               and 2[deg]-10[deg] of
                                               aileron.
                  Use 50 percent rudder
                   deflection. (Applicable
                   to approach and landing
                   configurations.)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. FTD System Response Time
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.............  Flight deck instrument      300 milliseconds or less.
                   systems response to an
                   abrupt pilot controller
                   input. One test is
                   required in each axis
                   (pitch, roll, yaw).
------------------------------------------------------------------------


 Table B2D--Alternative Data Source for FTD Level 5 Small, Single Engine
                       (Turbo-Propeller) Airplane
------------------------------------------------------------------------
 QPS requirement  The performance parameters in this table must be used
 to program the FTD if flight test data is not used to program the FTD.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
               Applicable Test
---------------------------------------------   Authorized performance
    Entry No.         Title and procedure                range
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Performance
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.............  Climb.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.1...........  Normal climb with nominal   Climb airspeed = 95-115
                   gross weight, at best       knots.
                   rate-of-climb airspeed.    Climb rate = 800-1800 fpm
                                               (4-9 m/sec).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.............  Engines
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.1...........  Acceleration; idle to       4-8 Seconds.
                   takeoff power.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.2...........  Deceleration; takeoff       3-7 Seconds.
                   power to idle.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Handling Qualities
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.............  Longitudinal Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.1...........  Power change force
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 184]]

 
                  (a) Trim for straight and   8 lbs (3.5 daN) of Push
                   level flight at 80% of      force--8 lbs (3.5 daN) of
                   normal cruise airspeed      Pull force.
                   with necessary power.
                   Reduce power to flight
                   idle. Do not change trim
                   or configuration. After
                   stabilized, record column
                   force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  OR
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (b) Trim for straight and   12-22 lbs (5.3-9.7 daN) of
                   level flight at 80% of      force (Push).
                   normal cruise airspeed
                   with necessary power. Add
                   power to maximum setting.
                   Do not change trim or
                   configuration. After
                   stabilized, record column
                   force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.2...........  Flap/slat change force
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (a) Trim for straight and   5-15 lbs (2.2-6.6 daN) of
                   level flight with flaps     force (Pull).
                   fully retracted at a
                   constant airspeed within
                   the flaps-extended
                   airspeed range. Do not
                   adjust trim or power.
                   Extend the flaps to 50%
                   of full flap travel.
                   After stabilized, record
                   stick force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  OR
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (b) Trim for straight and   5-15 lbs (2.2-6.6 daN) of
                   level flight with flaps     force (Push).
                   extended to 50% of full
                   flap travel, at a
                   constant airspeed within
                   the flaps-extended
                   airspeed range. Do not
                   adjust trim or power.
                   Retract the flaps to
                   zero. After stabilized,
                   record stick force
                   necessary to maintain
                   original airspeed..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.4...........  Gear change force.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (a) Trim for straight and   2-12 lbs (0.88-5.3 daN) of
                   level flight with landing   force (Pull).
                   gear retracted at a
                   constant airspeed within
                   the landing gear-extended
                   airspeed range. Do not
                   adjust trim or power.
                   Extend the landing gear.
                   After stabilized, record
                   stick force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  OR
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (b) Trim for straight and   2-12 lbs (0.88-5.3 daN) of
                   level flight with landing   force (Push).
                   gear extended, at a
                   constant airspeed within
                   the landing gear-extended
                   airspeed range. Do not
                   adjust trim or power.
                   Retract the landing gear.
                   After stabilized, record
                   stick force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.5...........  Longitudinal trim.........  Must be able to trim
                                               longitudinal stick force
                                               to ``zero'' in each of
                                               the following
                                               configurations: cruise;
                                               approach; and landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.7...........  Longitudinal static         Must exhibit positive
                   stability.                  static stability.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.8...........  Stall warning (actuation
                   of stall warning device)
                   with nominal gross
                   weight; wings level; and
                   a deceleration rate of
                   not more than three (3)
                   knots per second.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (a) Landing configuration.  60-90 knots;  5[deg]
                                               of bank.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (b) Clean configuration...  Landing configuration
                                               speed + 10-20%.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 185]]

 
2.c.8.b.........  Phugoid dynamics..........  Must have a phugoid with a
                                               period of 30-60 seconds.
                                               May not reach \1/2\ or
                                               double amplitude in less
                                               than 2 cycles.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.............  Lateral Directional Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.2...........  Roll response.............  Must have a roll rate of
                  Roll rate must be measured   4[deg]-25[deg]/second.
                   through at least 30[deg]
                   of roll. Aileron control
                   must be deflected \1/3\
                   (33.3 percent) of maximum
                   travel.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.4.b.........  Spiral stability..........  Initial bank angle (5[deg])
                   normal cruise airspeed.     after 20 seconds.
                   Establish a 20[deg]-
                   30[deg] bank. When
                   stabilized, neutralize
                   the aileron control and
                   release. Must be
                   completed in both
                   directions of turn.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.6.b.........  Rudder response...........  3[deg]-6[deg]/second yaw
                  Use 25 percent of maximum    rate.
                   rudder deflection.
                   (Applicable to approach
                   or landing
                   configuration.).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.7...........  Dutch roll, yaw damper off  A period of 2-5 seconds;
                  (Applicable to cruise and    and \1/2\-3 cycles.
                   approach configurations.).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.8...........  Steady state sideslip.....  2[deg]-10[deg] of bank;
                  Use 50 percent rudder        4[deg]-10[deg] of
                   deflection..                sideslip; and 2[deg]-
                  (Applicable to approach      10[deg] of aileron.
                   and landing
                   configurations.).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. FTD System Response Time
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.............  Flight deck instrument      300 milliseconds or less.
                   systems response to an
                   abrupt pilot controller
                   input. One test is
                   required in each axis
                   (pitch, roll, yaw).
------------------------------------------------------------------------


 Table B2E--Alternative Data Source for FTD Level 5 Multi-Engine (Turbo-
                           Propeller) Airplane
------------------------------------------------------------------------
 QPS REQUIREMENT  The performance parameters in this table must be used
 to program the FTD if flight test data is not used to program the FTD.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
               Applicable test
---------------------------------------------   Authorized performance
    Entry No.         Title and procedure                range
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Performance
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.............  Climb.....................
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1...........  Normal climb with nominal   Climb airspeed = 120-140
                   gross weight, at best       knots.
                   rate-of-climb airspeed.    Climb rate = 1000-3000 fpm
                                               (5-15 m/sec).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.............  Engines
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.1...........  Acceleration; idle to       2-6 Seconds.
                   takeoff power.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f.2...........  Deceleration; takeoff       1-5 Seconds.
                   power to idle.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Handling Qualities
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.............  Longitudinal Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.1...........  Power change force
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 186]]

 
                  (a) Trim for straight and   8 lbs (3.5 daN) of Push
                   level flight at 80% of      force to 8 lbs (3.5 daN)
                   normal cruise airspeed      of Pull force.
                   with necessary power.
                   Reduce power to flight
                   idle. Do not change trim
                   or configuration. After
                   stabilized, record column
                   force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  OR
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (b) Trim for straight and   12-22 lbs (5.3-9.7 daN) of
                   level flight at 80% of      force (Push).
                   normal cruise airspeed
                   with necessary power. Add
                   power to maximum setting.
                   Do not change trim or
                   configuration. After
                   stabilized, record column
                   force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.2...........  Flap/slat change force
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (a) Trim for straight and   5-15 lbs (2.2-6.6 daN) of
                   level flight with flaps     force (Pull).
                   fully retracted at a
                   constant airspeed within
                   the flaps-extended
                   airspeed range. Do not
                   adjust trim or power.
                   Extend the flaps to 50%
                   of full flap travel.
                   After stabilized, record
                   stick force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  OR
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (b) Trim for straight and   5-15 lbs (2.2-6.6 daN) of
                   level flight with flaps     force (Push).
                   extended to 50% of full
                   flap travel, at a
                   constant airspeed within
                   the flaps-extended
                   airspeed range. Do not
                   adjust trim or power.
                   Retract the flaps to
                   zero. After stabilized,
                   record stick force
                   necessary to maintain
                   original airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.4...........  Gear change force
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (a) Trim for straight and   2-12 lbs (0.88-5.3 daN) of
                   level flight with landing   force (Pull).
                   gear retracted at a
                   constant airspeed within
                   the landing gear-extended
                   airspeed range. Do not
                   adjust trim or power.
                   Extend the landing gear.
                   After stabilized, record
                   stick force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  OR
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (b) Trim for straight and   2-12 lbs (0.88-5.3 daN) of
                   level flight with landing   force (Push).
                   gear extended, at a
                   constant airspeed within
                   the landing gear-extended
                   airspeed range. Do not
                   adjust trim or power.
                   Retract the landing gear.
                   After stabilized, record
                   stick force necessary to
                   maintain original
                   airspeed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.5...........  Longitudinal trim.........  Must be able to trim
                                               longitudinal stick force
                                               to ``zero'' in each of
                                               the following
                                               configurations: cruise;
                                               approach; and landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.7...........  Longitudinal static         Must exhibit positive
                   stability.                  static stability.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.8...........  Stall warning (actuation
                   of stall warning device)
                   with nominal gross
                   weight; wings level; and
                   a deceleration rate of
                   not more than three (3)
                   knots per second.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (a) Landing configuration.  80-100 knots; 
                                               5[deg] of bank.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                  (b) Clean configuration...  Landing configuration
                                               speed + 10-20%.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 187]]

 
2.c.8.b.........  Phugoid dynamics..........  Must have a phugoid with a
                                               period of 30-60 seconds.
                                               May not reach \1/2\ or
                                               double amplitude in less
                                               than 2 cycles.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.............  Lateral Directional Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.2...........  Roll response.............  Must have a roll rate of 4-
                  Roll rate must be measured   25 degrees/second.
                   through at least 30[deg]
                   of roll. Aileron control
                   must be deflected 1/3
                   (33.3 percent) of maximum
                   travel..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.4.b.........  Spiral stability..........  Initial bank angle ( 5[deg])
                   normal cruise airspeed.     after 20 seconds.
                   Establish a 20[deg]-
                   30[deg] bank. When
                   stabilized, neutralize
                   the aileron control and
                   release. Must be
                   completed in both
                   directions of turn..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.6.b.........  Rudder response...........  3[deg]-6[deg] /second yaw
                  Use 25 percent of maximum    rate.
                   rudder deflection.
                   (Applicable to approach
                   or landing
                   configuration.).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.7...........  Dutch roll, yaw damper off  A period of 2-5 seconds;
                  (Applicable to cruise and    and \1/2\-2 cycles.
                   approach configurations.).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.8...........  Steady state sideslip.....  2[deg]-10[deg] of bank;
                  Use 50 percent rudder       4[deg]-10[deg] of
                   deflection. (Applicable     sideslip; and
                   to approach and landing    2[deg]-10[deg] of aileron.
                   configurations.).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. FTD System Response Time
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.............  Flight deck instrument      300 milliseconds or less.
                   systems response to an
                   abrupt pilot controller
                   input. One test is
                   required in each axis
                   (pitch, roll, yaw).
------------------------------------------------------------------------

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

 5. Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation: Level 6 
                                FTD Only

    a. Sponsors are not required to use the alternative data sources, 
procedures, and instrumentation. However, a sponsor may choose to use 
one or more of the alternative sources, procedures, and instrumentation 
described in Table B2F.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    b. It has become standard practice for experienced FTD manufacturers 
to use such techniques as a means of establishing data bases for new FTD 
configurations while awaiting the availability of actual flight test 
data; and then comparing this new data with the newly available flight 
test data. The results of such comparisons have, as reported by some 
recognized and experienced simulation experts, become increasingly 
consistent and indicate that these techniques, applied with appropriate 
experience, are becoming dependably accurate for the development of 
aerodynamic models for use in Level 6 FTDs.
    c. In reviewing this history, the NSPM has concluded that, with 
proper care, those who are experienced in the development of aerodynamic 
models for FTD application can successfully use these modeling 
techniques to acceptably alter the method by which flight test data may 
be acquired and, when applied to Level 6 FTDs, does not compromise the 
quality of that simulation.
    d. The information in the table that follows (Table of Alternative 
Data Sources, Procedures, and Information: Level 6 FTD Only) is 
presented to describe an acceptable alternative to data sources for 
Level 6 FTD modeling and validation, and an acceptable alternative to 
the procedures and instrumentation found in the flight test methods 
traditionally accepted for gathering modeling and validation data.

[[Page 188]]

    (1) Alternative data sources that may be used for part or all of a 
data requirement are the Airplane Maintenance Manual, the Airplane 
Flight Manual (AFM), Airplane Design Data, the Type Inspection Report 
(TIR), Certification Data or acceptable supplemental flight test data.
    (2) The NSPM recommends that use of the alternative instrumentation 
noted in Table B2F be coordinated with the NSPM prior to employment in a 
flight test or data gathering effort.
    e. The NSPM position regarding the use of these alternative data 
sources, procedures, and instrumentation is based on three primary 
preconditions and presumptions regarding the objective data and FTD 
aerodynamic program modeling.
    (1) Data gathered through the alternative means does not require 
angle of attack (AOA) measurements or control surface position 
measurements for any flight test. AOA can be sufficiently derived if the 
flight test program insures the collection of acceptable level, 
unaccelerated, trimmed flight data. Angle of attack may be validated by 
conducting the three basic ``fly-by'' trim tests. The FTD time history 
tests should begin in level, unaccelerated, and trimmed flight, and the 
results should be compared with the flight test pitch angle.
    (2) A simulation controls system model should be rigorously defined 
and fully mature. It should also include accurate gearing and cable 
stretch characteristics (where applicable) that are determined from 
actual aircraft measurements. Such a model does not require control 
surface position measurements in the flight test objective data for 
Level 6 FTD applications.
    f. Table B2F is not applicable to Computer Controlled Aircraft FTDs.
    g. Utilization of these alternate data sources, procedures, and 
instrumentation does not relieve the sponsor from compliance with the 
balance of the information contained in this document relative to Level 
6 FTDs.
    h. The term ``inertial measurement system'' allows the use of a 
functional global positioning system (GPS).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                Table B2F--Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation Level 6 FTD
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
  QPS REQUIREMENTS  The standards in this table are required if the data gathering           Information
            methods described in paragraph 9 of Appendix B are not used.             ---------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
   Objective test reference number and     Alternative data sources, procedures, and             Notes
                  title                                 instrumentation
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1...................................  Data may be acquired through a              This test is required only
Performance.............................   synchronized video recording of a stop      if RTO is sought.
Takeoff.................................   watch and the calibrated airplane
Ground acceleration time................   airspeed indicator. Hand-record the
                                           flight conditions and airplane
                                           configuration.
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1.b.7...................................  Data may be acquired through a              This test is required only
Performance.............................   synchronized video recording of a stop      if RTO is sought.
Takeoff.................................   watch and the calibrated airplane
Rejected takeoff........................   airspeed indicator. Hand-record the
                                           flight conditions and airplane
                                           configuration.
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1.c.1...................................  Data may be acquired with a synchronized
Performance.............................   video of calibrated airplane instruments
Climb...................................   and engine power throughout the climb
Normal climb all engines operating......   range.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
1.f.1...................................  Data may be acquired with a synchronized
Performance.............................   video recording of engine instruments and
Engines.................................   throttle position.
Acceleration............................
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
1.f.2...................................  Data may be acquired with a synchronized
Performance.............................   video recording of engine instruments and
Engines.................................   throttle position.
Deceleration............................
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½

[[Page 189]]

 
2.a.1.a.................................  Surface position data may be acquired from  For airplanes with
Handling qualities......................   flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if    reversible control
Static control tests....................   no FDR sensor, at selected, significant     systems, surface position
Pitch controller position vs. force and    column positions (encompassing              data acquisition should
 surface position calibration..            significant column position data points),   be accomplished with
                                           acceptable to the NSPM, using a control     winds less than 5 kts.
                                           surface protractor on the ground. Force
                                           data may be acquired by using a hand held
                                           force gauge at the same column position
                                           data points.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.a.2.a.................................  Surface position data may be acquired from  For airplanes with
Handling qualities......................   flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if    reversible control
Static control tests....................   no FDR sensor, at selected, significant     systems, surface position
Wheel position vs. force and surface       wheel positions (encompassing significant   data acquisition should
 position calibration..                    wheel position data points), acceptable     be accomplished with
                                           to the NSPM, using a control surface        winds less than 5 kts.
                                           protractor on the ground. Force data may
                                           be acquired by using a hand held force
                                           gauge at the same wheel position data
                                           points.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.a.3.a.................................  Surface position data may be acquired from  For airplanes with
Handling qualities......................   flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if    reversible control
Static control tests....................   no FDR sensor, at selected, significant     systems, surface position
Rudder pedal position vs. force and        rudder pedal positions (encompassing        data acquisition should
 surface position calibration..            significant rudder pedal position data      be accomplished with
                                           points), acceptable to the NSPM, using a    winds less than 5 kts.
                                           control surface protractor on the ground.
                                           Force data may be acquired by using a
                                           hand held force gauge at the same rudder
                                           pedal position data points.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.a.4...................................  Breakout data may be acquired with a hand
Handling qualities......................   held force gauge. The remainder of the
Static control tests....................   force to the stops may be calculated if
Nosewheel steering force................   the force gauge and a protractor are used
                                           to measure force after breakout for at
                                           least 25% of the total displacement
                                           capability.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.a.5...................................  Data may be acquired through the use of
Handling qualities......................   force pads on the rudder pedals and a
Static control tests....................   pedal position measurement device,
Rudder pedal steering calibration.......   together with design data for nosewheel
                                           position.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.a.6...................................  Data may be acquired through calculations.
Handling qualities......................
Static control tests....................
Pitch trim indicator vs. surface
 position calibration..
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.a.8...................................  Data may be acquired through the use of a
Handling qualities......................   temporary throttle quadrant scale to
Static control tests....................   document throttle position. Use a
Alignment of power lever angle vs.         synchronized video to record steady state
 selected engine parameter (e.g., EPR,     instrument readings or hand-record steady
 N1, Torque, Manifold pressure)..          state engine performance readings.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.a.9...................................  Use of design or predicted data is
Handling qualities......................   acceptable. Data may be acquired by
Static control tests....................   measuring deflection at ``zero'' and at
Brake pedal position vs. force..........   ``maximum.''
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½

[[Page 190]]

 
2.c.1...................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial   Power change dynamics test
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized       is acceptable using the
Longitudinal control tests..............   video of the calibrated airplane            same data acquisition
Power change force......................   instruments, throttle position, and the     methodology.
                                           force/position measurements of flight
                                           deck controls.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.c.2...................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial   Flap/slat change dynamics
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized       test is acceptable using
Longitudinal control tests..............   video of calibrated airplane instruments,   the same data acquisition
Flap/slat change force..................   flap/slat position, and the force/          methodology.
                                           position measurements of flight deck
                                           controls.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.c.4...................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial   Gear change dynamics test
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized       is acceptable using the
Longitudinal control tests..............   video of the calibrated airplane            same data acquisition
Gear change force.......................   instruments, gear position, and the force/  methodology.
                                           position measurements of flight deck
                                           controls.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.c.5...................................  Data may be acquired through use of an
Handling qualities......................   inertial measurement system and a
Longitudinal control tests..............   synchronized video of flight deck
Longitudinal trim.......................   controls position (previously calibrated
                                           to show related surface position) and
                                           engine instrument readings.
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2.c.6...................................  Data may be acquired through the use of an
Handling qualities......................   inertial measurement system and a
Longitudinal control tests..............   synchronized video of the calibrated
Longitudinal maneuvering stability         airplane instruments; a temporary, high
 (stick force/g)..                         resolution bank angle scale affixed to
                                           the attitude indicator; and a wheel and
                                           column force measurement indication.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.c.7...................................  Data may be acquired through the use of a
Handling qualities......................   synchronized video of the airplane flight
Longitudinal control tests..............   instruments and a hand held force gauge.
Longitudinal static stability...........
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.c.8...................................  Data may be acquired through a              Airspeeds may be cross
Handling qualities......................   synchronized video recording of a stop      checked with those in the
Longitudinal control tests..............   watch and the calibrated airplane           TIR and AFM.
Stall Warning (activation of stall         airspeed indicator. Hand-record the
 warning device)..                         flight conditions and airplane
                                           configuration.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.c.9.a.................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized
Longitudinal control tests..............   video of the calibrated airplane
Phugoid dynamics........................   instruments and the force/position
                                           measurements of flight deck controls.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.c.10..................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized
Longitudinal control tests..............   video of the calibrated airplane
Short period dynamics...................   instruments and the force/position
                                           measurements of flight deck controls.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.c.11..................................  May use design data, production flight
Handling qualities......................   test schedule, or maintenance
Longitudinal control tests..............   specification, together with an SOC.
Gear and flap/slat operating times......
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2.d.2...................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized
Lateral directional tests...............   video of the calibrated airplane
Roll response (rate)....................   instruments and the force/position
                                           measurements of flight deck lateral
                                           controls.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½

[[Page 191]]

 
2.d.3...................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized
Lateral directional tests...............   video of the calibrated airplane
(a) Roll overshoot......................   instruments and the force/position
OR......................................   measurements of flight deck lateral
(b) Roll response to flight deck roll      controls.
 controller step input..
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2.d.4...................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized
Lateral directional tests...............   video of the calibrated airplane
Spiral stability........................   instruments; the force/position
                                           measurements of flight deck controls; and
                                           a stop watch.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.d.6.a.................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized
Lateral directional tests...............   video of the calibrated airplane
Rudder response.........................   instruments; the force/position
                                           measurements of rudder pedals.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.d.7...................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized
Lateral directional tests...............   video of the calibrated airplane
Dutch roll, (yaw damper OFF)............   instruments and the force/position
                                           measurements of flight deck controls.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
2.d.8...................................  Data may be acquired by using an inertial
Handling qualities......................   measurement system and a synchronized
Lateral directional tests...............   video of the calibrated airplane
Steady state sideslip...................   instruments and the force/position
                                           measurements of flight deck controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

  Attachment 3 to Appendix B to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD) 
                          Subjective Evaluation

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              1. Discussion

    a. The subjective tests provide a basis for evaluating the 
capability of the FTD to perform over a typical utilization period. The 
items listed in the Table of Functions and Subjective Tests are used to 
determine whether the FTD competently simulates each required maneuver, 
procedure, or task; and verifying correct operation of the FTD controls, 
instruments, and systems. The tasks do not limit or exceed the 
authorizations for use of a given level of FTD as described on the SOQ 
or as approved by the TPAA. All items in the following paragraphs are 
subject to examination.
    b. All simulated airplane systems functions will be assessed for 
normal and, where appropriate, alternate operations. Simulated airplane 
systems are listed separately under ``Any Flight Phase'' to ensure 
appropriate attention to systems checks. Operational navigation systems 
(including inertial navigation systems, global positioning systems, or 
other long-range systems) and the associated electronic display systems 
will be evaluated if installed. The NSP pilot will include in his report 
to the TPAA, the effect of the system operation and any system 
limitation.
    c. At the request of the TPAA, the NSP Pilot may assess the FTD for 
a special aspect of a sponsor's training program during the functions 
and subjective portion of an evaluation. Such an assessment may include 
a portion of a specific operation (e.g., a Line Oriented Flight Training 
(LOFT) scenario) or special emphasis items in the sponsor's training 
program. Unless directly related to a requirement for the qualification 
level, the results of such an evaluation would not affect the 
qualification of the FTD.

                             End Information



[[Page 192]]

________________________________________________________________________

     Table B3A--Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 6 FTD
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
      Entry No.                        Operations tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
  Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the
      airplane system or systems simulated as indicated in the SOQ
 Configuration List as defined in Appendix B, Attachment 2 of this part.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                      Accomplish a functions check of all installed
                       switches, indicators, systems, and equipment at
                       all crewmembers' and instructors' stations, and
                       determine that the flight deck (or flight deck
                       area) design and functions replicate the
                       appropriate airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Surface Operations (pre-takeoff)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.................  Engine start:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1...............  Normal start.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2...............  Alternative procedures start.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3...............  Abnormal procedures start/shut down.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.................  Pushback/Powerback (powerback requires visual
                       system).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Takeoff (requires appropriate visual system as set out in Table B1A,
 item 6; Appendix B, Attachment 1.)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.................  Instrument takeoff:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.1...............  Engine checks (e.g., engine parameter
                       relationships, propeller/mixture controls).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.2...............  Acceleration characteristics.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.3...............  Nosewheel/rudder steering.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.4...............  Landing gear, wing flap, leading edge device
                       operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.................  Rejected takeoff:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.1...............  Deceleration characteristics.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.2...............  Brakes/engine reverser/ground spoiler operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.3...............  Nosewheel/rudder steering.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. In-Flight Operations
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.................  Normal climb.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.................  Cruise:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.1...............  Demonstration of performance characteristics
                       (speed vs. power).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.2...............  Normal turns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.3...............  Demonstration of high altitude handling.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.4...............  Demonstration of high airspeed handling/overspeed
                       warning.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.5...............  Demonstration of Mach effects on control and trim.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.6...............  Steep turns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.7...............  In-Flight engine shutdown (procedures only).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.8...............  In-Flight engine restart (procedures only).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.9...............  Specific flight characteristics.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.10..............  Response to loss of flight control power.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.11..............  Response to other flight control system failure
                       modes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.12..............  Operations during icing conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 193]]

 
4.b.13..............  Effects of airframe/engine icing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.................  Other flight phase:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1...............  Approach to stalls in the following
                       configurations:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1.a.............  Cruise.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1.b.............  Takeoff or approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1.c.............  Landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2...............  High angle of attack maneuvers in the following
                       configurations:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2.a.............  Cruise.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2.b.............  Takeoff or approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2.c.............  Landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.3...............  Slow flight.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.4...............  Holding.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Approaches
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.                  Non-precision Instrument Approaches:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.1...............  With use of autopilot and autothrottle, as
                       applicable.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.2...............  Without use of autopilot and autothrottle, as
                       applicable.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.3...............  With 10 knot tail wind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.4...............  With 10 knot crosswind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.................  Precision Instrument Approaches:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.1...............  With use of autopilot, autothrottle, and autoland,
                       as applicable.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.2...............  Without use of autopilot, autothrottle, and
                       autoland, as applicable.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.3...............  With 10 knot tail wind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.4...............  With 10 knot crosswind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Missed Approach
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.................  Manually controlled.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.................  Automatically controlled (if applicable).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Any Flight Phase, as appropriate
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.................  Normal system operation (installed systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.................  Abnormal/Emergency system operation (installed
                       systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c.................  Flap operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d.................  Landing gear operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e.................  Engine Shutdown and Parking.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e.1...............  Systems operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e.2...............  Parking brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate. Functions in this
 section are subject to evaluation only if appropriate for the airplane
 and/or installed on the specific FTD involved
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 194]]

 
8.a.................  Power Switch(es).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.................  Airplane conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.1...............  Gross weight, center of gravity, and fuel loading
                       and allocation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.2...............  Airplane systems status.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.3...............  Ground crew functions (e.g., external power, push
                       back).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.................  Airports.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.1...............  Selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.2...............  Runway selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.3...............  Preset positions (e.g., ramp, over FAF).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d.................  Environmental controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d.1...............  Temperature.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d.2...............  Climate conditions (e.g., ice, rain).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d.3...............  Wind speed and direction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e.................  Airplane system malfunctions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e.1...............  Insertion/deletion.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e.2...............  Problem clear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.................  Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.1...............  Problem (all) freeze/release.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.2...............  Position (geographic) freeze/release.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.3...............  Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.4...............  Ground speed control.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.5...............  Remote IOS, if installed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9. Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10. Control Loading System (as applicable) On/off/emergency stop.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
11. Observer Stations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.a................  Position.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.b................  Adjustments.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                          End QPS Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------


     Table B3B--Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 5 FTD
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                       Operations tasks  Tasks in this table are subject
                         to evaluation if appropriate for the airplane
      Entry No.         system or systems simulated as indicated in the
                       SOQ Configuration List as defined in Appendix B,
                                  Attachment 2 of this part.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                      Accomplish a functions check of all installed
                       switches, indicators, systems, and equipment at
                       all crewmembers' and instructors' stations, and
                       determine that the flight deck (or flight deck
                       area) design and functions replicate the
                       appropriate airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Surface Operations (pre-takeoff)
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 195]]

 
2.a.................  Engine start (if installed):
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1...............  Normal start.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2...............  Alternative procedures start.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3...............  Abnormal/Emergency procedures start/shut down.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. In-Flight Operations
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.................  Normal climb.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.................  Cruise:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.1...............  Performance characteristics (speed vs. power).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.2...............  Normal turns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c.................  Normal descent.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Approaches
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.................  Coupled instrument approach maneuvers (as
                       applicable for the systems installed).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Any Flight Phase
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.................  Normal system operation (Installed systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.................  Abnormal/Emergency system operation (Installed
                       systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.................  Flap operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.................  Landing gear operation
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.................  Engine Shutdown and Parking (if installed).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.1...............  Systems operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.2...............  Parking brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Instructor Operating Station (IOS)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.................  Power Switch(es).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.................  Preset positions--ground, air.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c.................  Airplane system malfunctions (Installed systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c.1...............  Insertion/deletion.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c.2...............  Problem clear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


     Table B3C--Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 4 FTD
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                       Operations tasks  Tasks in this table are subject
                         to evaluation if appropriate for the airplane
      Entry No.         system or systems simulated as indicated in the
                       SOQ Configuration List as defined in Appendix B,
                                  Attachment 2 of this part.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1...................  Level 4 FTDs are required to have at least one
                       operational system. The NSPM will accomplish a
                       functions check of all installed systems,
                       switches, indicators, and equipment at all
                       crewmembers' and instructors' stations, and
                       determine that the flight deck (or flight deck
                       area) design and functions replicate the
                       appropriate airplane.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 196]]

         Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60--Sample Documents

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                            Table of Contents

                             Title of Sample

Figure B4A Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement 
          Evaluation
Figure B4B Attachment: FTD Information Form
Figure B4C Sample Letter of Compliance
Figure B4D Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page
Figure B4E Sample Statement of Qualification--Certificate
Figure B4F Sample Statement of Qualification--Configuration List
Figure B4G Sample Statement of Qualification--List of Qualified Tasks
Figure B4H Sample Continuing Qualification Evaluation Requirements Page
Figure B4I Sample MQTG Index of Effective FTD Directives

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[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26491, May 9, 2008]



  Sec. Appendix C to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for 

                    Helicopter Full Flight Simulators

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    This appendix establishes the standards for Helicopter FFS 
evaluation and qualification. The NSPM is responsible for the 
development, application, and implementation of the standards contained 
within this appendix. The procedures and criteria specified in this 
appendix will be used by the NSPM, or a person assigned by the NSPM, 
when conducting helicopter FFS evaluations.

                            Table of Contents

1. Introduction.
2. Applicability (Sec. 60.1) and (Sec. 60.2).
3. Definitions (Sec. 60.3).
4. Qualification Performance Standards (Sec. 60.4).
5. Quality Management System (Sec. 60.5).
6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.7).
7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (Sec. 60.9).
8. FFS Use (Sec. 60.11).
9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (Sec. 60.13).
10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of 
          the FFS (Sec. 60.14).
11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.15).
12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS (Sec. 
          60.16).
13. Previously Qualified FFSs (Sec. 60.17).
14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance 
          Requirements (Sec. 60.19).
15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (Sec. 60.20).
16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Helicopter Types or Models 
          (Sec. 60.21).
17. Modifications to FFSs (Sec. 60.23).
18. Operations with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components 
          (Sec. 60.25).
19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
          Qualification (Sec. 60.27).
20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
          Qualification (Sec. 60.29).
21. Record Keeping and Reporting (Sec. 60.31).
22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, 
          or Incorrect Statements (Sec. 60.33).
23. [Reserved]
24. [Reserved]
25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
          Agreement (BASA) (Sec. 60.37).
Attachment 1 to Appendix C to Part 60--General Simulator Requirements.
Attachment 2 to Appendix C to Part 60--FFS Objective Tests.

[[Page 210]]

Attachment 3 to Appendix C to Part 60--Simulator Subjective Evaluation.
Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60--Sample Documents.
Attachment 5 to Appendix C to Part 60--FSTD Directives Applicable to 
          Helicopter FFSs

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                             1. Introduction

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. This appendix contains background information as well as 
regulatory and informative material as described later in this section. 
To assist the reader in determining what areas are required and what 
areas are permissive, the text in this appendix is divided into two 
sections: ``QPS Requirements'' and ``Information.'' The QPS Requirements 
sections contain details regarding compliance with the part 60 rule 
language. These details are regulatory, but are found only in this 
appendix. The Information sections contain material that is advisory in 
nature, and designed to give the user general information about the 
regulation.
    b. Questions regarding the contents of this publication should be 
sent to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation 
Administration, Flight Standards Service, National Simulator Program 
Staff, AFS-205, 100 Hartsfield Centre Parkway, Suite 400, Atlanta, 
Georgia, 30354. Telephone contact numbers for the NSP are: phone, 404-
832-4700; fax, 404-761-8906. The general e-mail address for the NSP 
office is: [email protected]. The NSP Internet Web site address 
is: http://www.faa.gov/safety/programs--initiatives/aircraft--aviation/
nsp/. On this Web Site you will find an NSP personnel list with 
telephone and e-mail contact information for each NSP staff member, a 
list of qualified flight simulation devices, ACs, a description of the 
qualification process, NSP policy, and an NSP ``In-Works'' section. Also 
linked from this site are additional information sources, handbook 
bulletins, frequently asked questions, a listing and text of the Federal 
Aviation Regulations, Flight Standards Inspector's handbooks, and other 
FAA links.
    c. The NSPM encourages the use of electronic media for all 
communication, including any record, report, request, test, or statement 
required by this appendix. The electronic media used must have adequate 
security provisions and be acceptable to the NSPM. The NSPM recommends 
inquiries on system compatibility, and minimum system requirements are 
also included on the NSP Web site.
    d. Related Reading References.
    (1) 14 CFR part 60.
    (2) 14 CFR part 61.
    (3) 14 CFR part 63.
    (4) 14 CFR part 119.
    (5) 14 CFR part 121.
    (6) 14 CFR part 125.
    (7) 14 CFR part 135.
    (8) 14 CFR part 141.
    (9) 14 CFR part 142.
    (10) AC 120-35, as amended, Line Operational Simulations: Line-
Oriented Flight Training, Special Purpose Operational Training, Line 
Operational Evaluation.
    (11) AC 120-57, as amended, Surface Movement Guidance and Control 
System (SMGCS).
    (12) AC 120-63, as amended, Helicopter Simulator Qualification.
    (13) AC 150/5300-13, as amended, Airport Design.
    (14) AC 150/5340-1, as amended, Standards for Airport Markings.
    (15) AC 150/5340-4, as amended, Installation Details for Runway 
Centerline Touchdown Zone Lighting Systems.
    (16) AC 150/5340-19, as amended, Taxiway Centerline Lighting System.
    (17) AC 150/5340-24, as amended, Runway and Taxiway Edge Lighting 
System.
    (18) AC 150/5345-28, as amended, Precision Approach Path Indicator 
(PAPI) Systems
    (19) AC 150/5390-2, as amended, Heliport Design
    (20) International Air Transport Association document, ``Flight 
Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,'' as amended.
    (21) AC 29-2, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of 
Transport Category Rotorcraft.
    (22) AC 27-1, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of 
Normal Category Rotorcraft.
    (23) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Manual of 
Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators, as amended.
    (24) Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volume I, as 
amended and Volume II, as amended, The Royal Aeronautical Society, 
London, UK.
    (25) FAA Publication FAA-S-8081 series (Practical Test Standards for 
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and 
Instrument Ratings).
    (26) The FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). An electronic 
version of the AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/atpubs.
    (27) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document number 436, titled 
Guidelines For Electronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended).
    (28) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document 610, Guidance for 
Design and Integration of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simulators (as 
amended).

[[Page 211]]

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

               2. Applicability (Sec. Sec. 60.1 and 60.2)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.1, Applicability, or to Sec. 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to 
person who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized 
activities.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                       3. Definitions (Sec. 60.3)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    See Appendix F of this part for a list of definitions and 
abbreviations from part 1 and part 60, including the appropriate 
appendices of part 60.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

           4. Qualification Performance Standards (Sec. 60.4)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.4, Qualification Performance Standards.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                5. Quality Management System (Sec. 60.5)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    See Appendix E of this part for additional regulatory and 
informational material regarding Quality Management Systems.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

           6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.7)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The intent of the language in Sec. 60.7(b) is to have a specific 
FFS, identified by the sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-approved 
flight training program for the helicopter simulated during the 12-month 
period described. The identification of the specific FFS may change from 
one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor 
sponsors and uses at least one FFS at least once during the prescribed 
period. There is no minimum number of hours or minimum FFS periods 
required.
    b. The following examples describe acceptable operational practices:
    (1) Example One.
    (a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, specific FFS for its own use, 
in its own facility or elsewhere--this single FFS forms the basis for 
the sponsorship. The sponsor uses that FFS at least once in each 12-
month period in that sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for 
the helicopter simulated. This 12-month period is established according 
to the following schedule:
    (i) If the FFS was qualified prior to May 30, 2008, the 12-month 
period begins on the date of the first continuing qualification 
evaluation conducted in accordance with Sec. 60.19 after May 30, 2008, 
and continues for each subsequent 12-month period;
    (ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, 2008, will be required 
to undergo an initial or upgrade evaluation in accordance with Sec. 
60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation is complete, the first 
continuing qualification evaluation will be conducted within 6 months. 
The 12 month continuing qualification evaluation cycle begins on that 
date and continues for each subsequent 12-month period.
    (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FFS use required.
    (c) The identification of the specific FFS may change from one 12-
month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor 
sponsors and uses at least one FFS at least once during the prescribed 
period.
    (2) Example Two.
    (a) A sponsor sponsors an additional number of FFSs, in its facility 
or elsewhere. Each additionally sponsored FFS must be--
    (i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight 
training program for the helicopter simulated (as described in Sec. 
60.7(d)(1)); or
    (ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder in that other 
certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the 
helicopter simulated (as described in Sec. 60.7(d)(1)). This 12-month 
period is established in the same manner as in example one; or
    (iii) Provided a statement each year from a qualified pilot, (after 
having flown the helicopter, not the subject FFS or another FFS, during 
the preceding 12-month period) stating that the subject FFS's 
performance and handling qualities represent the helicopter (as 
described in Sec. 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is provided at least once 
in each 12-month period established in the same manner as in example 
one.
    (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FFS use required.
    (3) Example Three.

[[Page 212]]

    (a) A sponsor in New York (in this example, a Part 142 certificate 
holder) establishes ``satellite'' training centers in Chicago and 
Moscow.
    (b) The satellite function means that the Chicago and Moscow centers 
must operate under the New York center's certificate (in accordance with 
all of the New York center's practices, procedures, and policies; e.g., 
instructor and/or technician training/checking requirements, record 
keeping, QMS program).
    (c) All of the FFSs in the Chicago and Moscow centers could be dry-
leased (i.e., the certificate holder does not have and use FAA-approved 
flight training programs for the FFSs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) 
because--
    (i) Each FFS in the Chicago center and each FFS in the Moscow center 
is used at least once each 12-month period by another FAA certificate 
holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training 
program for the helicopter (as described in Sec. 60.7(d)(1)); OR
    (ii) A statement is obtained from a qualified pilot (having flown 
the helicopter, not the subject FFS or another FFS during the preceding 
12-month period) stating that the performance and handling qualities of 
each FFS in the Chicago and Moscow centers represents the helicopter (as 
described in Sec. 60.7(d)(2)).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________
    7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (Sec. 60.9).

                            Begin Information

    The phrase ``as soon as practicable'' in Sec. 60.9(a) means without 
unnecessarily disrupting or delaying beyond a reasonable time the 
training, evaluation, or experience being conducted in the FFS.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                        8. FFS Use (Sec. 60.11)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.11, FFS Use.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

            9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (Sec. 60.13)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. Flight test data used to validate FFS performance and handling 
qualities must have been gathered in accordance with a flight test 
program containing the following:
    (1) A flight test plan consisting of:
    (a) The maneuvers and procedures required for aircraft certification 
and simulation programming and validation
    (b) For each maneuver or procedure--
    (i) The procedures and control input the flight test pilot and/or 
engineer used.
    (ii) The atmospheric and environmental conditions.
    (iii) The initial flight conditions.
    (iv) The helicopter configuration, including weight and center of 
gravity.
    (v) The data to be gathered.
    (vi) All other information necessary to recreate the flight test 
conditions in the FFS.
    (2) Appropriately qualified flight test personnel.
    (3) An understanding of the accuracy of the data to be gathered 
using appropriate alternative data sources, procedures, and 
instrumentation that is traceable to a recognized standard as described 
in Attachment 2, Table C2D of this appendix.
    (4) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisition equipment or 
system(s), including appropriate data reduction and analysis methods and 
techniques, acceptable to the FAA's Aircraft Certification Service.
    b. The data, regardless of source, must be presented:
    (1) In a format that supports the FFS validation process;
    (2) In a manner that is clearly readable and annotated correctly and 
completely;
    (3) With resolution sufficient to determine compliance with the 
tolerances set forth in Attachment 2, Table C2A of this appendix.
    (4) With any necessary instructions or other details provided, such 
as Stability Augmentation System (SAS) or throttle position; and
    (5) Without alteration, adjustments, or bias. Data may be corrected 
to address known data calibration errors provided that an explanation of 
the methods used to correct the errors appears in the QTG. The corrected 
data may be re-scaled, digitized, or otherwise manipulated to fit the 
desired presentation.
    c. After completion of any additional flight test, a flight test 
report must be submitted in support of the validation data. The report 
must contain sufficient data and rationale to support qualification of 
the FFS at the level requested.
    d. As required by Sec. 60.13(f), the sponsor must notify the NSPM 
when it becomes aware that an addition to, an amendment to, or a 
revision of data that may relate to FFS performance or handling 
characteristics is

[[Page 213]]

available. The data referred to in this paragraph is data used to 
validate the performance, handling qualities, or other characteristics 
of the aircraft, including data related to any relevant changes 
occurring after the type certificate was issued. The sponsor must--
    (1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the NSPM of the existence of 
this data; and
    (2) Within 45 calendar days, notify the NSPM of--
    (a) The schedule to incorporate this data into the FFS; or
    (b) The reason for not incorporating this data into the FFS.
    e. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a 
``snapshot test'' or a ``series of snapshot test results'' in lieu of a 
time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that 
a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the 
``snapshot.'' The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior 
to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap 
shot.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    f. The FFS sponsor is encouraged to maintain a liaison with the 
manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the 
aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the 
manufacturer is no longer in business), and, if appropriate, with the 
person who supplied the aircraft data package for the FFS in order to 
facilitate the notification required by Sec. 60.13(f).
    g. It is the intent of the NSPM that for new aircraft entering 
service, at a point well in advance of preparation of the QTG, the 
sponsor should submit to the NSPM for approval, a descriptive document 
(see Table C2D, Sample Validation Data Roadmap for Helicopters) 
containing the plan for acquiring the validation data, including data 
sources. This document should clearly identify sources of data for all 
required tests, a description of the validity of these data for a 
specific engine type and thrust rating configuration, and the revision 
levels of all avionics affecting the performance or flying qualities of 
the aircraft. Additionally, this document should provide other 
information, such as the rationale or explanation for cases where data 
or data parameters are missing, instances where engineering simulation 
data are used or where flight test methods require further explanations. 
It should also provide a brief narrative describing the cause and effect 
of any deviation from data requirements. The aircraft manufacturer may 
provide this document.
    h. There is no requirement for any flight test data supplier to 
submit a flight test plan or program prior to gathering flight test 
data. However, the NSPM notes that inexperienced data gatherers often 
provide data that is irrelevant, improperly marked, or lacking adequate 
justification for selection. Other problems include inadequate 
information regarding initial conditions or test maneuvers. The NSPM has 
been forced to refuse these data submissions as validation data for an 
FFS evaluation. It is for this reason that the NSPM recommends that any 
data supplier not previously experienced in this area review the data 
necessary for programming and for validating the performance of the FFS, 
and discuss the flight test plan anticipated for acquiring such data 
with the NSPM well in advance of commencing the flight tests.
    i. The NSPM will consider, on a case-by-case basis, whether to 
approve supplemental validation data derived from flight data recording 
systems such as a Quick Access Recorder or Flight Data Recorder.

                             End Information

 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of 
                          the FFS (Sec. 60.14)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. In the event that the NSPM determines that special equipment or 
specifically qualified persons will be required to conduct an 
evaluation, the NSPM will make every attempt to notify the sponsor at 
least one (1) week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in advance of the 
evaluation. Examples of special equipment include spot photometers, 
flight control measurement devices, and sound analyzers. Examples of 
specially qualified personnel include individuals specifically qualified 
to install or use any special equipment when its use is required.
    b. Examples of a special evaluation include an evaluation conducted 
after an FFS is moved, at the request of the TPAA, or as a result of 
comments received from users of the FFS that raise questions about the 
continued qualification or use of the FFS.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.15)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. In order to be qualified at a particular qualification level, the 
FFS must:
    (1) Meet the general requirements listed in Attachment 1 of this 
appendix;
    (2) Meet the objective testing requirements listed in Attachment 2 
of this appendix; and

[[Page 214]]

    (3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjective tests listed in 
Attachment 3 of this appendix.
    b. The request described in Sec. 60.15(a) must include all of the 
following:
    (1) A statement that the FFS meets all of the applicable provisions 
of this part and all applicable provisions of the QPS.
    (2) A confirmation that the sponsor will forward to the NSPM the 
statement described in Sec. 60.15(b) in such time as to be received no 
later than 5 business days prior to the scheduled evaluation and may be 
forwarded to the NSPM via traditional or electronic means.
    (3) A QTG, acceptable to the NSPM, that includes all of the 
following:
    (a) Objective data obtained from aircraft testing or another 
approved source.
    (b) Correlating objective test results obtained from the performance 
of the FFS as prescribed in the appropriate QPS.
    (c) The result of FFS subjective tests prescribed in the appropriate 
QPS.
    (d) A description of the equipment necessary to perform the 
evaluation for initial qualification and the continuing qualification 
evaluations.
    c. The QTG described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, must 
provide the documented proof of compliance with the simulator objective 
tests in Attachment 2, Table C2A of this appendix.
    d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by the sponsor, or the 
sponsor's agent on behalf of the sponsor, to the NSPM for review and 
approval, and must include, for each objective test:
    (1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions.
    (2) Pertinent and complete instructions for the conduct of automatic 
and manual tests.
    (3) A means of comparing the FFS test results to the objective data.
    (4) Any other information as necessary, to assist in the evaluation 
of the test results.
    (5) Other information appropriate to the qualification level of the 
FFS.
    e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, 
must include the following:
    (1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and FAA approval signature blocks 
(see Attachment 4, Figure C4C, of this appendix, for a sample QTG cover 
page).
    (2) A continuing qualification evaluation schedule requirements 
page. This page will be used by the NSPM to establish and record the 
frequency with which continuing qualification evaluations must be 
conducted and any subsequent changes that may be determined by the NSPM 
in accordance with Sec. 60.19. See Attachment 4 of this appendix, 
Figure C4G, for a sample Continuing Qualification Evaluation 
Requirements page.
    (3) An FFS information page that provides the information listed in 
this paragraph (see Attachment 4, Figure C4B, of this appendix for a 
sample FFS information page). For convertible FFSs, the sponsor must 
submit a separate page for each configuration of the FFS.
    (a) The sponsor's FFS identification number or code.
    (b) The helicopter model and series being simulated.
    (c) The aerodynamic data revision number or reference.
    (d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model and the aerodynamic 
coefficient data used to modify the basic model.
    (e) The engine model(s) and its data revision number or reference.
    (f) The flight control data revision number or reference.
    (g) The flight management system identification and revision level.
    (h) The FFS model and manufacturer.
    (i) The date of FFS manufacture.
    (j) The FFS computer identification.
    (k) The visual system model and manufacturer, including display 
type.
    (l) The motion system type and manufacturer, including degrees of 
freedom.
    (4) A Table of Contents.
    (5) A log of revisions and a list of effective pages.
    (6) List of all relevant data references.
    (7) A glossary of terms and symbols used (including sign conventions 
and units).
    (8) Statements of compliance and capability (SOCs) with certain 
requirements.
    (9) Recording procedures or equipment required to accomplish the 
objective tests.
    (10) The following information for each objective test designated in 
Attachment 2 of this appendix, Table C2A, as applicable to the 
qualification level sought:
    (a) Name of the test.
    (b) Objective of the test.
    (c) Initial conditions.
    (d) Manual test procedures.
    (e) Automatic test procedures (if applicable).
    (f) Method for evaluating FFS objective test results.
    (g) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the 
automatically conducted test(s).
    (h) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the 
manually conducted test(s).
    (i) Tolerances for relevant parameters.
    (j) Source of Validation Data (document and page number).
    (k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located in a separate binder, a 
cross reference for the identification and page number for pertinent 
data location must be provided).
    (l) Simulator Objective Test Results as obtained by the sponsor. 
Each test result must reflect the date completed and must be clearly 
labeled as a product of the device being tested.

[[Page 215]]

    f. A convertible FFS is addressed as a separate FFS for each model 
and series helicopter to which it will be converted and for the FAA 
qualification level sought. If a sponsor seeks qualification for two or 
more models of a helicopter type using a convertible FFS, the sponsor 
must submit a QTG for each helicopter model, or a QTG for the first 
helicopter model and a supplement to that QTG for each additional 
helicopter model. The NSPM will conduct evaluations for each helicopter 
model.
    g. Form and manner of presentation of objective test results in the 
QTG:
    (1) The sponsor's FFS test results must be recorded in a manner 
acceptable to the NSPM, that allows easy comparison of the FFS test 
results to the validation data (e.g., use of a multi-channel recorder, 
line printer, cross plotting, overlays, transparencies).
    (2) FFS results must be labeled using terminology common to 
helicopter parameters as opposed to computer software identifications.
    (3) Validation data documents included in a QTG may be 
photographically reduced only if such reduction will not alter the 
graphic scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpretation or 
resolution.
    (4) Scaling on graphical presentations must provide the resolution 
necessary to evaluate the parameters shown in Attachment 2, Table C2A of 
this appendix.
    (5) Tests involving time histories, data sheets (or transparencies 
thereof) and FFS test results must be clearly marked with appropriate 
reference points to ensure an accurate comparison between the FFS and 
the helicopter with respect to time. Time histories recorded via a line 
printer are to be clearly identified for cross plotting on the 
helicopter data. Over-plots must not obscure the reference data.
    h. The sponsor may elect to complete the QTG objective and 
subjective tests at the manufacturer's facility or at the sponsor's 
training facility. If the tests are conducted at the manufacturer's 
facility, the sponsor must repeat at least one-third of the tests at the 
sponsor's training facility in order to substantiate FFS performance. 
The QTG must be clearly annotated to indicate when and where each test 
was accomplished. Tests conducted at the manufacturer's facility and at 
the sponsor's training facility must be conducted after the FFS is 
assembled with systems and sub-systems functional and operating in an 
interactive manner. The test results must be submitted to the NSPM.
    i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the MQTG at the FFS location.
    j. All FFSs for which the initial qualification is conducted after 
May 30, 2014, must have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including all 
objective data obtained from helicopter testing, or another approved 
source (reformatted or digitized), together with correlating objective 
test results obtained from the performance of the FFS (reformatted or 
digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The eMQTG must also contain 
the general FFS performance or demonstration results (reformatted or 
digitized) prescribed in this appendix, and a description of the 
equipment necessary to perform the initial qualification evaluation and 
the continuing qualification evaluations. The eMQTG must include the 
original validation data used to validate FFS performance and handling 
qualities in either the original digitized format from the data supplier 
or an electronic scan of the original time-history plots that were 
provided by the data supplier. A copy of the eMQTG must be provided to 
the NSPM.
    k. All other FFSs not covered in subparagraph ``j'' must have an 
electronic copy of the MQTG by May 30, 2014. An electronic copy of the 
MQTG must be provided to the NSPM. This may be provided by an electronic 
scan presented in a Portable Document File (PDF), or similar format 
acceptable to the NSPM.
    l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualification evaluation 
conducted by the NSPM, the sponsor must also provide a person who is a 
user of the device (e.g., a qualified pilot or instructor pilot with 
flight time experience in that aircraft) and knowledgeable about the 
operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FFS.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    m. Only those FFSs that are sponsored by a certificate holder as 
defined in Appendix F of this part will be evaluated by the NSPM. 
However, other FFS evaluations may be conducted on a case-by-case basis 
as the Administrator deems appropriate, but only in accordance with 
applicable agreements.
    n. The NSPM will conduct an evaluation for each configuration, and 
each FFS must be evaluated as completely as possible. To ensure a 
thorough and uniform evaluation, each FFS is subjected to the general 
simulator requirements in Attachment 1 of this appendix, the objective 
tests listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix, and the subjective tests 
listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix. The evaluations described 
herein will include, but not necessarily be limited to the following:
    (1) Helicopter responses, including longitudinal and lateral-
directional control responses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix).
    (2) Performance in authorized portions of the simulated helicopter's 
operating envelope, to include tasks evaluated by the NSPM in the areas 
of surface operations, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach, and 
landing as well as abnormal and emergency

[[Page 216]]

operations (see Attachment 2 of this appendix).
    (3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this 
appendix).
    (4) Flight deck configuration (see Attachment 1 of this appendix).
    (5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor station functions checks 
(see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix).
    (6) Helicopter systems and sub-systems (as appropriate) as compared 
to the helicopter simulated (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this 
appendix).
    (7) FFS systems and sub-systems, including force cueing (motion), 
visual, and aural (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attachment 1 and 
Attachment 2 of this appendix).
    (8) Certain additional requirements, depending upon the 
qualification level sought, including equipment or circumstances that 
may become hazardous to the occupants. The sponsor may be subject to 
Occupational Safety and Health Administration requirements.
    o. The NSPM administers the objective and subjective tests, which 
includes an examination of functions. The tests include a qualitative 
assessment of the FFS by an NSP pilot. The NSP evaluation team leader 
may assign other qualified personnel to assist in accomplishing the 
functions examination and/or the objective and subjective tests 
performed during an evaluation when required.
    (1) Objective tests provide a basis for measuring and evaluating FFS 
performance and determining compliance with the requirements of this 
part.
    (2) Subjective tests provide a basis for:
    (a) Evaluating the capability of the FFS to perform over a typical 
utilization period;
    (b) Determining that the FFS satisfactorily simulates each required 
task;
    (c) Verifying correct operation of the FFS controls, instruments, 
and systems; and
    (d) Demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this part.
    p. The tolerances for the test parameters listed in Attachment 2 of 
this appendix reflect the range of tolerances acceptable to the NSPM for 
FFS validation and are not to be confused with design tolerances 
specified for FFS manufacture. In making decisions regarding tests and 
test results, the NSPM relies on the use of operational and engineering 
judgment in the application of data (including consideration of the way 
in which the flight test was flown and way the data was gathered and 
applied), data presentations, and the applicable tolerances for each 
test.
    q. In addition to the scheduled continuing qualification evaluation, 
each FFS is subject to evaluations conducted by the NSPM at any time 
without prior notification to the sponsor. Such evaluations would be 
accomplished in a normal manner (i.e., requiring exclusive use of the 
FFS for the conduct of objective and subjective tests and an examination 
of functions) if the FFS is not being used for flight crewmember 
training, testing, or checking. However, if the FFS were being used, the 
evaluation would be conducted in a non-exclusive manner. This non-
exclusive evaluation will be conducted by the FFS evaluator accompanying 
the check airman, instructor, Aircrew Program Designee (APD), or FAA 
inspector aboard the FFS along with the student(s) and observing the 
operation of the FFS during the training, testing, or checking 
activities.
    r. Problems with objective test results are handled as follows:
    (1) If a problem with an objective test result is detected by the 
NSP evaluation team during an evaluation, the test may be repeated or 
the QTG may be amended.
    (2) If it is determined that the results of an objective test do not 
support the level requested but do support a lower level, the NSPM may 
qualify the FFS at that lower level. For example, if a Level D 
evaluation is requested and the FFS fails to meet sound test tolerances, 
it could be qualified at Level C.
    s. After an FFS is successfully evaluated, the NSPM issues a 
certificate of qualification (COQ) to the sponsor. The NSPM recommends 
the FFS to the TPAA, who will approve the FFS for use in a flight 
training program. The COQ will be issued at the satisfactory conclusion 
of the initial or continuing qualification evaluation and will list the 
tasks for which the FFS is qualified, referencing the tasks described in 
Table C1B in Attachment 1 of this appendix. However, it is the sponsor's 
responsibility to obtain TPAA approval prior to using the FFS in an FAA-
approved flight training program.
    t. Under normal circumstances, the NSPM establishes a date for the 
initial or upgrade evaluation within ten (10) working days after 
determining that a complete QTG is acceptable. Unusual circumstances may 
warrant establishing an evaluation date before this determination is 
made. A sponsor may schedule an evaluation date as early as 6 months in 
advance. However, there may be a delay of 45 days or more in 
rescheduling and completing the evaluation if the sponsor is unable to 
meet the scheduled date. See Attachment 4, of this appendix, Figure C4A, 
Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation.
    u. The numbering system used for objective test results in the QTG 
should closely follow the numbering system set out in Attachment 2, FFS 
Objective Tests, Table C2A of this appendix.
    v. Contact the NSPM or visit the NSPM Web site for additional 
information regarding the preferred qualifications of pilots used to 
meet the requirements of Sec. 60.15(d).
    w. Examples of the exclusions for which the FFS might not have been 
subjectively

[[Page 217]]

tested by the sponsor or the NSPM and for which qualification might not 
be sought or granted, as described in Sec. 60.15(g)(6), include 
takeoffs and landing from slopes and pinnacles.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS (Sec. 
                                 60.16)

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.16, Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS.

               13. Previously Qualified FFSs (Sec. 60.17)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. In instances where a sponsor plans to remove an FFS from active 
status for a period of less than two years, the following procedures 
apply:
    (1) The NSPM must be notified in writing and the notification must 
include an estimate of the period that the FFS will be inactive.
    (2) Continuing Qualification evaluations will not be scheduled 
during the inactive period.
    (3) The NSPM will remove the FFS from the list of qualified FSTDs on 
a mutually established date not later than the date on which the first 
missed continuing qualification evaluation would have been scheduled.
    (4) Before the FFS is restored to qualified status, it must be 
evaluated by the NSPM. The evaluation content and the time required to 
accomplish the evaluation is based on the number of continuing 
qualification evaluations and sponsor-conducted quarterly inspections 
missed during the period of inactivity.
    (5) The sponsor must notify the NSPM of any changes to the original 
scheduled time out of service.
    b. Simulators qualified prior to May 30, 2008, are not required to 
meet the general simulation requirements, the objective test 
requirements, and the subjective test requirements of attachments 1, 2, 
and 3, of this appendix as long as the simulator continues to meet the 
test requirements contained in the MQTG developed under the original 
qualification basis.
    c. After May 30, 2009, each visual scene or airport model beyond the 
minimum required for the FFS qualification level that is installed in 
and available for use in a qualified FFS must meet the requirements 
described in Attachment 3 of this appendix.
    d. Simulators qualified prior to May 30, 2008, may be updated. If an 
evaluation is deemed appropriate or necessary by the NSPM after such an 
update, the evaluation will not require an evaluation to standards 
beyond those against which the simulator was originally qualified.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    e. Other certificate holders or persons desiring to use an FFS may 
contract with FFS sponsors to use FFSs previously qualified at a 
particular level for a helicopter type and approved for use within an 
FAA-approved flight training program. Such FFSs are not required to 
undergo an additional qualification process, except as described in 
Sec. 60.16.
    f. Each FFS user must obtain approval from the appropriate TPAA to 
use any FFS in an FAA-approved flight training program.
    g. The intent of the requirement listed in Sec. 60.17(b), for each 
FFS to have an SOQ within 6 years, is to have the availability of that 
statement (including the configuration list and the limitations to 
authorizations) to provide a complete picture of the FFS inventory 
regulated by the FAA. The issuance of the statement will not require any 
additional evaluation or require any adjustment to the evaluation basis 
for the FFS.
    h. Downgrading of an FFS is a permanent change in qualification 
level and will necessitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to reflect the 
revised qualification level, as appropriate. If a temporary restriction 
is placed on an FFS because of a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative 
component or on-going repairs, the restriction is not a permanent change 
in qualification level. Instead, the restriction is temporary and is 
removed when the reason for the restriction has been resolved.
    i. The NSPM will determine the evaluation criteria for an FFS that 
has been removed from active status. The criteria will be based on the 
number of continuing qualification evaluations and quarterly inspections 
missed during the period of inactivity. For example, if the FFS were out 
of service for a 1 year period, it would be necessary to complete the 
entire QTG, since all of the quarterly evaluations would have been 
missed. The NSPM will also consider how the FFS was stored, whether 
parts were removed from the FFS and whether the FFS was disassembled.
    j. The FFS will normally be requalified using the FAA-approved MQTG 
and the criteria that was in effect prior to its removal from 
qualification. However, inactive periods of 2 years or more will require 
requalification under the standards in effect and current at the time of 
requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 218]]

  14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance 
                       Requirements (Sec. 60.19)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of four evenly spaced 
inspections throughout the year. The objective test sequence and content 
of each inspection must be developed by the sponsor and must be 
acceptable to the NSPM.
    b. The description of the functional preflight check must be 
contained in the sponsor's QMS.
    c. Record ``functional preflight'' in the FFS discrepancy log book 
or other acceptable location, including any item found to be missing, 
malfunctioning, or inoperative.
    d. During the continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the 
NSPM, the sponsor must also provide a person knowledgeable about the 
operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FFS.
    e. The NSPM will conduct continuing qualification evaluations every 
12 months unless:
    (1) The NSPM becomes aware of discrepancies or performance problems 
with the device that warrants more frequent evaluations; or
    (2) The sponsor implements a QMS that justifies less frequent 
evaluations. However, in no case shall the frequency of a continuing 
qualification evaluation exceed 36 months.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    f. The sponsor's test sequence and the content of each quarterly 
inspection required in Sec. 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a 
mix from the objective test requirement areas listed as follows:
    (1) Performance.
    (2) Handling qualities.
    (3) Motion system (where appropriate).
    (4) Visual system (where appropriate).
    (5) Sound system (where appropriate).
    (6) Other FFS systems.
    g. If the NSP evaluator plans to accomplish specific tests during a 
normal continuing qualification evaluation that requires the use of 
special equipment or technicians, the sponsor will be notified as far in 
advance of the evaluation as practical; but not less than 72 hours. 
Examples of such tests include latencies, control dynamics, sounds and 
vibrations, motion, and/or some visual system tests.
    h. The continuing qualification evaluations, described in Sec. 
60.19(b), will normally require 4 hours of FFS time. However, 
flexibility is necessary to address abnormal situations or situations 
involving aircraft with additional levels of complexity (e.g., computer 
controlled aircraft). The sponsor should anticipate that some tests may 
require additional time. The continuing qualification evaluations will 
consist of the following:
    (1) Review of the results of the quarterly inspections conducted by 
the sponsor since the last scheduled continuing qualification 
evaluation.
    (2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 objective tests from the 
MQTG that provide an adequate opportunity to evaluate the performance of 
the FFS. The tests chosen will be performed either automatically or 
manually and should be able to be conducted within approximately one-
third (1/3) of the allotted FFS time.
    (3) A subjective evaluation of the FFS to perform a representative 
sampling of the tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appendix. This 
portion of the evaluation should take approximately two-thirds (2/3) of 
the allotted FFS time.
    (4) An examination of the functions of the FFS may include the 
motion system, visual system, sound system, instructor operating 
station, and the normal functions and simulated malfunctions of the 
simulated helicopter systems. This examination is normally accomplished 
simultaneously with the subjective evaluation requirements.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

               15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (Sec. 60.20)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.20. Logging FFS Discrepancies.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Helicopter Types or Models 
                              (Sec. 60.21)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.21, Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Helicopter Types or Models.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                 17. Modifications to FFSs (Sec. 60.23)

________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 219]]

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. The notification described in Sec. 60.23(c)(2) must include a 
complete description of the planned modification, with a description of 
the operational and engineering effect the proposed modification will 
have on the operation of the FFS and the results that are expected with 
the modification incorporated.
    b. Prior to using the modified FFS:
    (1) All the applicable objective tests completed with the 
modification incorporated, including any necessary updates to the MQTG 
(e.g., accomplishment of FSTD Directives) must be acceptable to the 
NSPM; and
    (2) The sponsor must provide the NSPM with a statement signed by the 
MR that the factors listed in Sec. 60.15(b) are addressed by the 
appropriate personnel as described in that section.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    (3) FSTD Directives are considered modifications of an FFS. See 
Attachment 4 of this appendix for a sample index of effective FSTD 
Directives. See Attachment 6 of this appendix for a list of all 
effective FSTD Directives applicable to Helicopter FFSs.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 18. Operation with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components 
                              (Sec. 60.25)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The sponsor's responsibility with respect to Sec. 60.25(a) is 
satisfied when the sponsor fairly and accurately advises the user of the 
current status of an FFS, including any missing, malfunctioning, or 
inoperative (MMI) component(s).
    b. It is the responsibility of the instructor, check airman, or 
representative of the administrator conducting training, testing, or 
checking to exercise reasonable and prudent judgment to determine if any 
MMI component is necessary for the satisfactory completion of a specific 
maneuver, procedure, or task.
    c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day period described in Sec. 
60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend 
the deadline until the next business day.
    d. In accordance with the authorization described in Sec. 60.25(b), 
the sponsor may develop a discrepancy prioritizing system to accomplish 
repairs based on the level of impact on the capability of the FFS. 
Repairs having a larger impact on FFS capability to provide the required 
training, evaluation, or flight experience will have a higher priority 
for repair or replacement.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
                       Qualification (Sec. 60.27)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FFS will be maintained 
during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, 
hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic 
fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FFS is to be 
maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the NSPM will be able to 
determine the amount of testing required for requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
                       Qualification (Sec. 60.29)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FFS will be maintained 
during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, 
hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic 
fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FFS is to be 
maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the NSPM will be able to 
determine the amount of testing required for requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

             21. Record Keeping and Reporting (Sec. 60.31)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. FFS modifications can include hardware or software changes. For 
FFS modifications involving software programming changes, the record 
required by Sec. 60.31(a)(2) must consist of the name of the aircraft 
system software, aerodynamic model, or engine model change, the date of 
the change, a summary of the change, and the reason for the change.
    b. If a coded form for record keeping is used, it must provide for 
the preservation and retrieval of information with appropriate security 
or controls to prevent the inappropriate alteration of such records 
after the fact.

[[Page 220]]

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, 
                  or Incorrect Statements (Sec. 60.33)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.33, Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, 
Falsification, or Incorrect Statements.

                             23. [Reserved]

                             24. [Reserved]

   25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
                     Agreement (BASA) (Sec. 60.37)

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.37, FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
Agreement (BASA).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  Attachment 1 to Appendix C to Part 60--GENERAL SIMULATOR REQUIREMENTS

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                             1. Requirements

    a. Certain requirements included in this appendix must be supported 
with an SOC as defined in Appendix F of this part, which may include 
objective and subjective tests. The requirements for SOCs are indicated 
in the ``General Simulator Requirements'' column in Table C1A of this 
appendix.
    b. Table C1A describes the requirements for the indicated level of 
FFS. Many devices include operational systems or functions that exceed 
the requirements outlined in this section. However, all systems will be 
tested and evaluated in accordance with this appendix to ensure proper 
operation.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              2. Discussion

    a. This attachment describes the general simulator requirements for 
qualifying a helicopter FFS. The sponsor should also consult the 
objective tests in Attachment 2 of this appendix and the examination of 
functions and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix 
to determine the complete requirements for a specific level simulator.
    b. The material contained in this attachment is divided into the 
following categories:
    (1) General flight deck configuration.
    (2) Simulator programming.
    (3) Equipment operation.
    (4) Equipment and facilities for instructor/evaluator functions.
    (5) Motion system.
    (6) Visual system.
    (7) Sound system.
    c. Table C1A provides the standards for the General Simulator 
Requirements.
    d. Table C1B provides the tasks that the sponsor will examine to 
determine whether the FFS satisfactorily meets the requirements for 
flight crew training, testing, and experience, and provides the tasks 
for which the simulator may be qualified.
    e. Table C1C provides the functions that an instructor/check airman 
must be able to control in the simulator.
    f. It is not required that all of the tasks that appear on the List 
of Qualified Tasks (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the initial 
or continuing qualification evaluation.
    g. Table C1A addresses only Levels B, C, and D helicopter simulators 
because there are no Level A Helicopter simulators.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                Table C1A--Minimum Simulator Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                QPS requirements    Simulator levels      Information
              ----------------------------------------------------------
  Entry No.    General simulator
                  requirements      B      C      D          Notes
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1............  General Flight Deck Configuration
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 221]]

 
1.a..........  The simulator         X      X      X   For simulator
                must have a                             purposes, the
                flight deck that                        flight deck
                is a replica of                         consists of all
                the helicopter                          that space
                being simulated.                        forward of a
               The simulator                            cross section of
                must have                               the fuselage at
                controls,                               the most extreme
                equipment,                              aft setting of
                observable                              the pilots'
                flight deck                             seats including
                indicators,                             additional,
                circuit                                 required flight
                breakers, and                           crewmember duty
                bulkheads                               stations and
                properly                                those required
                located,                                bulkheads aft of
                functionally                            the pilot seats.
                accurate and                            For
                replicating the                         clarification,
                helicopter. The                         bulkheads
                direction of                            containing only
                movement of                             items such as
                controls and                            landing gear pin
                switches must be                        storage
                identical to                            compartments,
                that in the                             fire axes and
                helicopter.                             extinguishers,
                Pilot seats must                        spare light
                afford the                              bulbs, and
                capability for                          aircraft
                the occupant to                         documents
                be able to                              pouches are not
                achieve the                             considered
                design ``eye                            essential and
                position''                              may be omitted.
                established for
                the helicopter
                being simulated.
                Equipment for
                the operation of
                the flight deck
                windows must be
                included, but
                the actual
                windows need not
                be operable.
                Fire axes,
                extinguishers,
                and spare light
                bulbs must be
                available in the
                FFS but may be
                relocated to a
                suitable
                location as near
                as practical to
                the original
                position. Fire
                axes, landing
                gear pins, and
                any similar
                purpose
                instruments need
                only be
                represented in
                silhouette.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b..........  Those circuit         X      X      X
                breakers that
                affect
                procedures or
                result in
                observable
                flight deck
                indications must
                be properly
                located and
                functionally
                accurate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2............  Programming
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a..........  A flight dynamics     X      X      X
                model that
                accounts for
                various
                combinations of
                air speed and
                power normally
                encountered in
                flight must
                correspond to
                actual flight
                conditions,
                including the
                effect of change
                in helicopter
                attitude,
                aerodynamic and
                propulsive
                forces and
                moments,
                altitude,
                temperature,
                mass, center of
                gravity
                location, and
                configuration.
               An SOC is
                required.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must have the
                computer
                capacity,
                accuracy,
                resolution, and
                dynamic response
                needed to meet
                the
                qualification
                level sought.
               An SOC is
                required.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c..........  Ground handling
                (where
                appropriate) and
                aerodynamic
                programming must
                include the
                following:.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.1........  Ground effect....     X      X      X   Applicable areas
                Level B does not                        include flare
                require hover                           and touch down
                programming.                            from a running
               An SOC is                                landing as well
                required.                               as for in-ground-
                                                        effect (IGE)
                                                        hover. A
                                                        reasonable
                                                        simulation of
                                                        ground effect
                                                        includes
                                                        modeling of
                                                        lift, drag,
                                                        pitching moment,
                                                        trim, and power
                                                        while in ground
                                                        effect.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.2........  Ground reaction..     X      X      X   Reaction of the
               Level B does not                         helicopter upon
                require hover                           contact with the
                programming.                            landing surface
               An SOC is                                during landing
                required.                               (e.g., strut
                                                        deflection, tire
                                                        or skid
                                                        friction, side
                                                        forces) may
                                                        differ with
                                                        changes in gross
                                                        weight,
                                                        airspeed, rate
                                                        of descent on
                                                        touchdown, and
                                                        slide slip.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 222]]

 
2.d..........  The simulator                X      X   This may include
                must provide for                        an automated
                manual and                              system, which
                automatic                               could be used
                testing of                              for conducting
                simulator                               at least a
                hardware and                            portion of the
                software                                QTG tests.
                programming to                          Automatic
                determine                               ``flagging'' of
                compliance with                         out-of-tolerance
                simulator                               situations is
                objective tests                         encouraged.
                as prescribed in
                Attachment 2 of
                this appendix.
               An SOC is
                required.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e..........  The relative                            The intent is to
                responses of the                        verify that the
                motion system,                          simulator
                visual system,                          provides
                and flight deck                         instrument,
                instruments must                        motion, and
                be measured by                          visual cues that
                latency tests or                        are like the
                transport delay                         helicopter
                tests. Motion                           responses within
                onset must occur                        the stated time
                before the end                          delays. It is
                of the scan of                          preferable
                that video                              motion onset
                field.                                  occur before the
                Instrument                              start of the
                response may not                        visual scene
                occur prior to                          change (the
                motion onset.                           start of the
                Test results                            scan of the
                must be within                          first video
                the following                           field containing
                limits:                                 different
                                                        information).
                                                        For helicopter
                                                        response,
                                                        acceleration in
                                                        the appropriate
                                                        corresponding
                                                        rotational axis
                                                        is preferred.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.1........  Response must be      X
                within 150
                milliseconds of
                the helicopter
                response.
2.e.2........  Response must be             X      X
                within 100
                milliseconds of
                the helicopter
                response.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.f..........  The simulator                X      X   The simulator
                must simulate                           should represent
                brake and tire                          the motion (in
                failure dynamics                        the appropriate
                (including                              axes) and the
                antiskid                                directional
                failure, if                             control
                appropriate).                           characteristics
               An SOC is                                of the
                required..                              helicopter when
                                                        experiencing
                                                        simulated brake
                                                        or tire
                                                        failures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.g..........  The aerodynamic              X      X   See Attachment 2
                modeling in the                         of this appendix
                simulator must                          for further
                include:.                               information on
               (1) Ground                               ground effect.
                effect,.
               (2) Effects of
                airframe and
                rotor icing (if
                applicable),.
               (3) Aerodynamic
                interference
                effects between
                the rotor wake
                and fuselage,.
               (4) Influence of
                the rotor on
                control and
                stabilization
                systems,.
               (5)
                Representations
                of settling with
                power, and.
               (6) Retreating
                blade stall..
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.h..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must provide for
                realistic mass
                properties,
                including gross
                weight, center
                of gravity, and
                moments of
                inertia as a
                function of
                payload and fuel
                loading.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3............  Equipment Operation
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a..........  All relevant          X      X      X
                instrument
                indications
                involved in the
                simulation of
                the helicopter
                must
                automatically
                respond to
                control movement
                or external
                disturbances to
                the simulated
                helicopter;
                e.g., turbulence
                or windshear.
                Numerical values
                must be
                presented in the
                appropriate
                units.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b..........  Communications,       X      X      X   See Attachment 3
                navigation,                             of this appendix
                caution, and                            for further
                warning                                 information
                equipment must                          regarding long-
                be installed and                        range navigation
                operate within                          equipment.
                the tolerances
                applicable for
                the helicopter
                being simulated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c..........  Simulated             X      X      X
                helicopter
                systems must
                operate as the
                helicopter
                systems operate
                under normal,
                abnormal, and
                emergency
                operating
                conditions on
                the ground and
                in flight.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 223]]

 
3.d..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must provide
                pilot controls
                with control
                forces and
                control travel
                that correspond
                to the simulated
                helicopter. The
                simulator must
                also react in
                the same manner
                as the
                helicopter under
                the same flight
                conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e..........  Simulator control            X      X
                feel dynamics
                must replicate
                the helicopter
                simulated. This
                must be
                determined by
                comparing a
                recording of the
                control feel
                dynamics of the
                simulator to
                helicopter
                measurements.
                For initial and
                upgrade
                evaluations, the
                control dynamic
                characteristics
                must be measured
                and recorded
                directly from
                the flight deck
                controls, and
                must be
                accomplished in
                takeoff, cruise,
                and landing
                conditions and
                configurations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4............  Instructor/Evaluator Facilities
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a..........  In addition to        X      X      X   The NSPM will
                the flight                              consider
                crewmember                              alternatives to
                stations, the                           this standard
                simulator must                          for additional
                have at least                           seats based on
                two suitable                            unique flight
                seats for the                           deck
                instructor/check                        configurations.
                airman and FAA
                inspector. These
                seats must
                provide adequate
                vision to the
                pilot's panel
                and forward
                windows. All
                seats other than
                flight crew
                seats need not
                represent those
                found in the
                helicopter but
                must be
                adequately
                secured to the
                floor and
                equipped with
                similar positive
                restraint
                devices.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must have
                controls that
                enable the
                instructor/
                evaluator to
                control all
                required system
                variables and
                insert all
                abnormal or
                emergency
                conditions into
                the simulated
                helicopter
                systems as
                described in the
                sponsor's FAA-
                approved
                training
                program, or as
                described in the
                relevant
                operating manual
                as appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must have
                instructor
                controls for all
                environmental
                effects expected
                to be available
                at the IOS;
                e.g., clouds,
                visibility,
                icing,
                precipitation,
                temperature,
                storm cells, and
                wind speed and
                direction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d..........  The simulator                X      X   For example,
                must provide the                        another aircraft
                instructor or                           crossing the
                evaluator the                           active runway
                ability to                              and converging
                present ground                          airborne
                and air hazards.                        traffic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e..........  The simulator                X      X   This is a
                must provide the                        selectable
                instructor or                           condition that
                evaluator the                           is not required
                ability to                              for all
                present the                             operations on or
                effect of re-                           near the
                circulating                             surface.
                dust, water
                vapor, or snow
                conditions that
                develop as a
                result of rotor
                downwash.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5............  Motion System
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a..........  The simulator         X      X      X   For example,
                must have motion                        touchdown cues
                (force) cues                            should be a
                perceptible to                          function of the
                the pilot that                          rate of descent
                are                                     (RoD) of the
                representative                          simulated
                of the motion in                        helicopter.
                a helicopter.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b..........  The simulator         X
                must have a
                motion (force
                cueing) system
                with a minimum
                of three degrees
                of freedom (at
                least pitch,
                roll, and heave).
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 224]]

 
5.c..........  The simulator                X      X
                must have a
                motion (force
                cueing) system
                that produces
                cues at least
                equivalent to
                those of a six-
                degrees-of-
                freedom,
                synergistic
                platform motion
                system (i.e.,
                pitch, roll,
                yaw, heave,
                sway, and surge).
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must provide for
                the recording of
                the motion
                system response
                time.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e..........  The simulator
                must provide
                motion effects
                programming to
                include the
                following:.
               (1) Runway            X      X      X
                rumble, oleo
                deflections,
                effects of
                ground speed,
                uneven runway,
                characteristics.
               (2) Buffets due
                to transverse
                flow effects.
               (3) Buffet during
                extension and
                retraction of
                landing gear.
               (4) Buffet due to
                retreating blade
                stall.
               (5) Buffet due to
                vortex ring
                (settling with
                power).
               (6)
                Representative
                cues resulting
                from touchdown.
               (7) High speed
                rotor
                vibrations.
               (8) Tire failure             X      X
                dynamics.
               (9) Engine
                malfunction and
                engine damage
               (10) Airframe
                ground strike
               (11) Motion                         X   For air
                vibrations that                         turbulence,
                result from                             general purpose
                atmospheric                             disturbance
                disturbances.                           models are
                                                        acceptable if,
                                                        when used, they
                                                        produce test
                                                        results that
                                                        approximate
                                                        demonstrable
                                                        flight test
                                                        data.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.f..........  The simulator                       X   The simulator
                must provide                            should be
                characteristic                          programmed and
                motion                                  instrumented in
                vibrations that                         such a manner
                result from                             that the
                operation of the                        characteristic
                helicopter (for                         buffet modes can
                example,                                be measured and
                retreating blade                        compared to
                stall, extended                         helicopter data.
                landing gear,
                settling with
                power) in so far
                as vibration
                marks an event
                or helicopter
                state, which can
                be sensed in the
                flight deck.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6............   Visual System...                       Additional
                                                        horizontal field-
                                                        of-view
                                                        capability may
                                                        be added at the
                                                        sponsor's
                                                        discretion
                                                        provided the
                                                        minimum field-of-
                                                        view is
                                                        retained.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must have a
                visual system
                providing an out-
                of-the-flight
                deck view.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b..........  The simulator         X
                must provide a
                continuous field-
                of-view of at
                least 75[deg]
                horizontally and
                30[deg]
                vertically per
                pilot seat. Both
                pilot seat
                visual systems
                must be operable
                simultaneously.
                The minimum
                horizontal field-
                of-view coverage
                must be plus and
                minus one-half
                (\1/2\) of the
                minimum
                continuous field-
                of-view
                requirement,
                centered on the
                zero degree
                azimuth line
                relative to the
                aircraft
                fuselage. An SOC
                must explain the
                geometry of the
                installation.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 225]]

 
6.c..........  The simulator                X          Optimization of
                must provide a                          the vertical
                continuous                              field-of-view
                visual field-of-                        may be
                view of at least                        considered with
                146[deg]                                respect to the
                horizontally and                        specific
                36[deg]                                 helicopter
                vertically per                          flight deck cut-
                pilot seat. Both                        off angle. The
                pilot seat                              sponsor may
                visual systems                          request the NSPM
                must be operable                        to evaluate the
                simultaneously.                         FFS for specific
                Horizontal field-                       authorization(s)
                of-view is                              for the
                centered on the                         following:
                zero degree                            (1) Specific
                azimuth line                            areas within the
                relative to the                         database needing
                aircraft                                higher
                fuselage. The                           resolution to
                minimum                                 support
                horizontal field-                       landings, take-
                of-view coverage                        offs and ground
                must be plus and                        cushion
                minus one-half                          exercises and
                (\1/2\) of the                          training away
                minimum                                 from a heliport,
                continuous field-                       including
                of-view                                 elevated
                requirement,                            heliport,
                centered on the                         helidecks and
                zero degree                             confined areas.
                azimuth line                           (2) For cross-
                relative to the                         country flights,
                aircraft                                sufficient scene
                fuselage.                               details to allow
               An SOC must                              for ground to
                explain the                             map navigation
                geometry of the                         over a sector
                installation.                           length equal to
                Capability for a                        30 minutes at an
                field-of-view in                        average cruise
                excess of the                           speed.
                minimum is not                         (3) For offshore
                required for                            airborne radar
                qualification at                        approaches
                Level C.                                (ARA),
                However, where                          harmonized
                specific tasks                          visual/radar
                require extended                        representations
                fields of view                          of
                beyond the                              installations.
                146[deg] by
                36[deg] (e.g.,
                to accommodate
                the use of
                ``chin windows''
                where the
                accommodation is
                either integral
                with or separate
                from the primary
                visual system
                display), then
                the extended
                fields of view
                must be
                provided. When
                considering the
                installation and
                use of augmented
                fields of view,
                the sponsor must
                meet with the
                NSPM to
                determine the
                training,
                testing,
                checking, and
                experience tasks
                for which the
                augmented field-
                of-view
                capability may
                be required.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.d..........  The simulator                       X   Optimization of
                must provide a                          the vertical
                continuous                              field-of-view
                visual field-of-                        may be
                view of at least                        considered with
                176[deg]                                respect to the
                horizontally and                        specific
                56[deg]                                 helicopter
                vertically per                          flight deck cut-
                pilot seat. Both                        off angle.The
                pilot seat                              sponsor may
                visual systems                          request the NSPM
                must be operable                        to evaluate the
                simultaneously.                         FFS for specific
                Horizontal field-                       authorization(s)
                of-view is                              for the
                centered on the                         following:
                zero degree                            (1) Specific
                azimuth line                            areas within the
                relative to the                         database needing
                aircraft                                higher
                fuselage. The                           resolution to
                minimum                                 support
                horizontal field-                       landings, take-
                of-view coverage                        offs and ground
                must be plus and                        cushion
                minus one-half                          exercises and
                (\1/2\) of the                          training away
                minimum                                 from a heliport,
                continuous field-                       including
                of-view                                 elevated
                requirement,                            heliport,
                centered on the                         helidecks and
                zero degree                             confined areas.
                azimuth line                           (2) For cross-
                relative to the                         country flights,
                aircraft                                sufficient scene
                fuselage. An SOC                        details to allow
                must explain the                        for ground to
                geometry of the                         map navigation
                installation.                           over a sector
                Capability for a                        length equal to
                field-of-view in                        30 minutes at an
                excess of the                           average cruise
                minimum is not                          speed.
                required for                           (3) For offshore
                qualification at                        airborne radar
                Level D.                                approaches
                However, where                          (ARA),
                specific tasks                          harmonized
                require extended                        visual/radar
                fields of view                          representations
                beyond the                              of
                176[deg] by                             installations.
                56[deg] (e.g.,
                to accommodate
                the use of
                ``chin windows''
                where the
                accommodation is
                either integral
                with or separate
                from the primary
                visual system
                display), then
                the extended
                fields of view
                must be
                provided. When
                considering the
                installation and
                use of augmented
                fields of view,
                the sponsor must
                meet with the
                NSPM to
                determine the
                training,
                testing,
                checking, and
                experience tasks
                for which the
                augmented field-
                of-view
                capability may
                be required.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.e..........  The visual system     X      X      X   Nonrealistic cues
                must be free                            might include
                from optical                            image
                discontinuities                         ``swimming'' and
                and artifacts                           image ``roll-
                that create non-                        off,'' that may
                realistic cues.                         lead a pilot to
                                                        make incorrect
                                                        assessments of
                                                        speed,
                                                        acceleration and/
                                                        or situational
                                                        awareness.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 226]]

 
6.f..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must have
                operational
                landing lights
                for night
                scenes.Where
                used, dusk (or
                twilight) scenes
                require
                operational
                landing lights..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.g..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must have
                instructor
                controls for the
                following:
               (1) Visibility in
                statute miles
                (kilometers) and
                runway visual
                range (RVR) in
                ft. (meters)..
               (2) Airport or
                landing area
                selection.
               (3) Airport or
                landing area
                lighting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.h..........  Each airport          X      X      X
                scene displayed
                must include the
                following:
               (1) Airport
                runways and
                taxiways.
               (2) Runway
                definition.
               (a) Runway
                surface and
                markings.
               (b) Lighting for
                the runway in
                use, including
                runway
                threshold, edge,
                centerline,
                touchdown zone,
                VASI (or PAPI),
                and approach
                lighting of
                appropriate
                colors, as
                appropriate.
               (c) Taxiway
                lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.i..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must provide
                visual system
                compatibility
                with dynamic
                response
                programming.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.j..........  The simulator         X      X      X   This will show
                must show that                          the modeling
                the segment of                          accuracy of the
                the ground                              scene with
                visible from the                        respect to a
                simulator flight                        predetermined
                deck is the same                        position from
                as from the                             the end of the
                helicopter                              runway ``in
                flight deck                             use.''
                (within
                established
                tolerances) when
                at the correct
                airspeed and
                altitude above
                the touchdown
                zone.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.k..........  The simulator         X
                must provide
                visual cues
                necessary to
                assess rate of
                change of
                height, height
                AGL, and
                translational
                displacement and
                rates during
                takeoffs and
                landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.l..........  The simulator                X      X
                must provide
                visual cues
                necessary to
                assess rate of
                change of
                height, height
                AGL, as well as
                translational
                displacement and
                rates during
                takeoff, low
                altitude/low
                airspeed
                maneuvering,
                hover, and
                landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.m..........  The simulator         X      X      X   Visual attitude
                must provide for                        vs. simulator
                accurate                                attitude is a
                portrayal of the                        comparison of
                visual                                  pitch and roll
                environment                             of the horizon
                relating to the                         as displayed in
                simulator                               the visual scene
                attitude.                               compared to the
                                                        display on the
                                                        attitude
                                                        indicator.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.n..........  The simulator                X      X
                must provide for
                quick
                confirmation of
                visual system
                color, RVR,
                focus, and
                intensity.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.o..........  The simulator                X      X
                must be capable
                of producing at
                least 10 levels
                of occulting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 227]]

 
6.p..........  Night Visual          X      X      X
                Scenes. The
                simulator must
                provide night
                visual scenes
                with sufficient
                scene content to
                recognize the
                airport, the
                terrain, and
                major landmarks
                around the
                airport. The
                scene content
                must allow a
                pilot to
                successfully
                accomplish a
                visual landing.
                Night scenes, as
                a minimum, must
                provide
                presentations of
                sufficient
                surfaces with
                appropriate
                textural cues
                that include
                self-illuminated
                objects such as
                road networks,
                ramp lighting,
                and airport
                signage, to
                conduct a visual
                approach, a
                landing, and
                airport movement
                (taxi). Scenes
                must include a
                definable
                horizon and
                typical terrain
                characteristics
                such as fields,
                roads and bodies
                of water and
                surfaces
                illuminated by
                helicopter
                landing lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.q..........  Dusk (Twilight)              X      X
                Visual Scenes.
                The simulator
                must provide
                dusk (or
                twilight) visual
                scenes with
                sufficient scene
                content to
                recognize the
                airport, the
                terrain, and
                major landmarks
                around the
                airport. The
                scene content
                must allow a
                pilot to
                successfully
                accomplish a
                visual landing.
                Dusk (or
                twilight)
                scenes, as a
                minimum, must
                provide full
                color
                presentations of
                reduced ambient
                intensity,
                sufficient
                surfaces with
                appropriate
                textural cues
                that include
                self-illuminated
                objects such as
                road networks,
                ramp lighting
                and airport
                signage, to
                conduct a visual
                approach,
                landing and
                airport movement
                (taxi). Scenes
                must include a
                definable
                horizon and
                typical terrain
                characteristics
                such as fields,
                roads and bodies
                of water and
                surfaces
                illuminated by
                representative
                aircraft
                lighting (e.g.,
                landing lights).
                If provided,
                directional
                horizon lighting
                must have
                correct
                orientation and
                be consistent
                with surface
                shading effects.
                Total scene
                content must be
                comparable in
                detail to that
                produced by
                10,000 visible
                textured
                surfaces and
                15,000 visible
                lights with
                sufficient
                system capacity
                to display 16
                simultaneously
                moving objects.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.r..........  Daylight Visual              X      X
                Scenes. The
                simulator must
                have daylight
                visual scenes
                with sufficient
                scene content to
                recognize the
                airport, the
                terrain, and
                major landmarks
                around the
                airport. The
                scene content
                must allow a
                pilot to
                successfully
                accomplish a
                visual landing.
                No ambient
                lighting may
                ``washout'' the
                displayed visual
                scene. Total
                scene content
                must be
                comparable in
                detail to that
                produced by
                10,000 visible
                textured
                surfaces and
                6,000 visible
                lights with
                sufficient
                system capacity
                to display 16
                simultaneously
                moving objects.
                The visual
                display must be
                free of apparent
                and distracting
                quantization and
                other
                distracting
                visual effects
                while the
                simulator is in
                motion.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.s..........  The simulator                X      X   For example:
                must provide                            short runways,
                operational                             landing
                visual scenes                           approaches over
                that portray                            water, uphill or
                physical                                downhill
                relationships                           runways, rising
                known to cause                          terrain on the
                landing                                 approach path,
                illusions to                            unique
                pilots.                                 topographic
                                                        features.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 228]]

 
6.t..........  The simulator                X      X
                must provide
                special weather
                representations
                of light,
                medium, and
                heavy
                precipitation
                near a
                thunderstorm on
                takeoff and
                during approach
                and landing.
                Representations
                need only be
                presented at and
                below an
                altitude of
                2,000 ft. (610
                m) above the
                airport surface
                and within 10
                miles (16 km) of
                the airport.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.u..........  The simulator                X      X   The NSPM will
                must present                            consider
                visual scenes of                        suitable
                wet and snow-                           alternative
                covered runways,                        effects.
                including runway
                lighting
                reflections for
                wet conditions,
                and partially
                obscured lights
                for snow
                conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.v..........  The simulator                X      X
                must present
                realistic color
                and
                directionality
                of all airport
                lighting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7............  Sound System
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a..........  The simulator         X      X      X
                must provide
                flight deck
                sounds that
                result from
                pilot actions
                that correspond
                to those that
                occur in the
                helicopter.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b..........  Volume control,       X      X      X
                if installed,
                must have an
                indication of
                the sound level
                setting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c..........  The simulator                X      X
                must accurately
                simulate the
                sound of
                precipitation,
                windshield
                wipers, and
                other
                significant
                helicopter
                noises
                perceptible to
                the pilot during
                normal and
                abnormal
                operations, and
                include the
                sound of a crash
                (when the
                simulator is
                landed in an
                unusual attitude
                or in excess of
                the structural
                gear
                limitations);
                normal engine
                sounds; and the
                sounds of gear
                extension and
                retraction.
               An SOC is
                required..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d..........  The simulator                       X
                must provide
                realistic
                amplitude and
                frequency of
                flight deck
                noises and
                sounds.
                Simulator
                performance must
                be recorded,
                compared to
                amplitude and
                frequency of the
                same sounds
                recorded in the
                helicopter, and
                made a part of
                the QTG.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


              Table C1B--Table of Tasks vs. Simulator Level
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   QPS requirements                       Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
               Subjective requirements    Simulator
                 The simulator must be      levels
                 able to perform the   ---------------
  Entry No.     tasks associated with                        Notes
                    that level of        B    C    D
                    qualification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a..........  Preflight Inspection      X    X    X
                (Flight deck Only)
                switches, indicators,
                systems, and equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b..........  APU/Engine start and
                run-up.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1........  Normal start procedures   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
 1.b.2.......  Alternate start           X    X    X
                procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.3........  Abnormal starts and       X    X    X
                shutdowns (hot start,
                hung start).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c..........  Taxiing--Ground........   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 229]]

 
1.d..........  Taxiing--Hover.........   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e..........  Pre-takeoff Checks.....   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Takeoff and Departure Phase
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a..........  Normal takeoff.........
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1........  From ground............   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2........  From hover.............        X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3........  Running................   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b..........  Instrument.............   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c..........  Powerplant Failure        X    X    X
                During Takeoff.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d..........  Rejected Takeoff.......   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e..........  Instrument Departure...   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Climb
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a..........  Normal.................   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b..........  Obstacle clearance.....   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c..........  Vertical...............   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d..........  One engine inoperative.   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. In-flight Maneuvers
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a..........  Turns (timed, normal,     X    X    X
                steep).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b..........  Powerplant Failure--      X    X    X
                Multiengine
                Helicopters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c..........  Powerplant Failure--      X    X    X
                Single-Engine
                Helicopters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d..........  Recovery From Unusual     X    X    X
                Attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e..........  Settling with Power....   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f..........  Specific Flight           A    A    A
                Characteristics
                incorporated into the
                user's FAA approved
                flight training
                program.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Instrument Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a..........  Instrument Arrival.....   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b..........  Holding................   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c..........  Precision Instrument
                Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.1........  Normal--All engines       X    X    X
                operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.2........  Manually controlled--     X    X    X
                One or more engines
                inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d..........  Non-precision             X    X    X
                Instrument Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e..........  Missed Approach........
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.1........  All engines operating..   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.2........  One or more engines       X    X    X
                inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.3........  Stability augmentation    X    X    X
                system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 230]]

 
6. Landings and Approaches to Landings
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a..........  Visual Approaches         X    X    X
                (normal, steep,
                shallow).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b..........  Landings...............
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1........  Normal/crosswind.......
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.a......  Running................   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.b......  From Hover.............        X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.2........  One or more engines       X    X    X
                inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.3........  Rejected Landing.......   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Normal and Abnormal Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a..........  Powerplant.............   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b..........  Fuel System............   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c..........  Electrical System......   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d..........  Hydraulic System.......   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e..........  Environmental System(s)   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.f..........  Fire Detection and        X    X    X
                Extinguisher Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.g..........  Navigation and Aviation   X    X    X
                Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.h..........  Automatic Flight          X    X    X
                Control System,
                Electronic Flight
                Instrument System, and
                Related Subsystems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.i..........  Flight Control Systems.   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.j..........  Anti-ice and Deice        X    X    X
                Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.k..........  Aircraft and Personal     X    X    X
                Emergency Equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.l..........  Special Missions tasks    A    A    X
                (e.g., Night Vision
                goggles, Forward
                Looking Infrared
                System, External Loads
                and as listed on the
                SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. Emergency procedures (as applicable)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a..........  Emergency Descent......   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b..........  Inflight Fire and Smoke   X    X    X
                Removal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c..........  Emergency Evacuation...   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d..........  Ditching...............   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e..........  Autorotative Landing...   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f..........  Retreating blade stall    X    X    X
                recovery.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g..........  Mast bumping...........   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.h..........  Loss of tail rotor        X    X    X
                effectiveness.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.i..........  Vortex recovery........   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9. Postflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.a..........  After-Landing             X    X    X
                Procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 231]]

 
9.b..........  Parking and Securing...
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b.1........  Rotor brake operation..   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b.2........  Abnormal/emergency        X    X    X
                procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Note: An ``A'' in the table indicates that the system, task, or
  procedure may be examined if the appropriate aircraft system or
  control is simulated in the FFS and is working properly


              Table C1C--Table of Tasks vs. Simulator Level
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   QPS requirements                       Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
               Subjective requirements    Simulator
                 The simulator must be      levels
                 able to perform the   ---------------
  Entry No.     tasks associated with                        Notes
                    that level of        B    C    D
                    qualification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1............  Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a..........  Power switch(es).......   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b..........  Helicopter conditions..   X    X    X   e.g., GW, CG,
                                                        Fuel loading,
                                                        Systems, Ground
                                                        Crew.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c..........  Airports/Heliports/       X    X    X   e.g., Selection,
                Helicopter Landing                      Surface,
                Areas.                                  Presets,
                                                        Lighting
                                                        controls
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d..........  Environmental controls.   X    X    X   e.g., Clouds,
                                                        Visibility, RVR,
                                                        Temp, Wind, Ice,
                                                        Snow, Rain, and
                                                        Windshear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e..........  Helicopter system         X    X    X
                malfunctions
                (Insertion/deletion).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f..........  Locks, Freezes, and       X    X    X
                Repositioning.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2............  Sound Controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a..........  On/off/adjustment......   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3............  Motion/Control Loading System
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a..........  On/off/emergency stop..   X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4............  Observer Seats/Stations
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a..........  Position/Adjustment/      X    X    X
                Positive restraint
                system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

       Attachment 2 to Appendix C to Part 60--FFS Objective Tests

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                            Table of Contents
------------------------------------------------------------------------
     Paragraph No.                            Title
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1......................  Introduction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2......................  Test Requirements.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                         Table C2A, Objective Tests.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3......................  General.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4......................  Control Dynamics.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 232]]

 
5......................  [Reserved]
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6......................  Motion System.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7......................  Sound System.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8......................  Additional Information About Flight Simulator
                          Qualification for New or Derivative
                          Helicopters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9......................  Engineering Simulator--Validation Data.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.....................  [Reserved]
------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.....................  Validation Test Tolerances.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.....................  Validation Data Roadmap.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
13.....................  Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Engines
                          Data.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
14.....................  Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics
                          (Flight-Related Computers and Controllers).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
15.....................  Transport Delay Testing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
16.....................  Continuing Qualification Evaluations--
                          Validation Test Data Presentation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
17.....................  Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and
                          Instrumentation: Level A and Level B
                          Simulators Only.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

                             1. Introduction

    a. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind 
vector (magnitude and direction) should be clearly noted as part of the 
data presentation, expressed in conventional terminology, and related to 
the runway being used for the test.
    b. The NSPM will not evaluate any simulator unless the required SOC 
indicates that the motion system is designed and manufactured to safely 
operate within the simulator's maximum excursion, acceleration, and 
velocity capabilities (see Motion System in the following table).
    c. Table C2A addresses helicopter simulators at Levels B, C, and D 
because there are no Level A Helicopter simulators.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                          2. Test Requirements

    a. The ground and flight tests required for qualification are listed 
in Table of C2A, FFS Objective Tests. Computer-generated simulator test 
results must be provided for each test except where an alternative test 
is specifically authorized by the NSPM. If a flight condition or 
operating condition is required for the test but does not apply to the 
helicopter being simulated or to the qualification level sought, it may 
be disregarded (e.g., an engine out missed approach for a single-engine 
helicopter, or a hover test for a Level B simulator). Each test result 
is compared against the validation data described in Sec. 60.13 and in 
this appendix. Although use of a driver program designed to 
automatically accomplish the tests is encouraged for all simulators and 
required for Level C and Level D simulators, each test must be able to 
be accomplished manually while recording all appropriate parameters. The 
results must be produced on an appropriate recording device acceptable 
to the NSPM and must include simulator number, date, time, conditions, 
tolerances, and appropriate dependent variables portrayed in comparison 
to the validation data. Time histories are required unless otherwise 
indicated in Table C2A. All results must be labeled using the tolerances 
and units given.
    b. Table C2A sets out the test results required, including the 
parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions for simulator validation. 
Tolerances are provided for the listed tests because mathematical 
modeling and acquisition/development of reference data are often 
inexact. All tolerances listed in the following tables are applied to 
simulator performance. When two tolerance values are given for a 
parameter, the less restrictive value may be used unless otherwise 
indicated. In those cases where a tolerance is expressed only as a 
percentage, the tolerance percentage applies to the maximum value of 
that parameter within its normal operating range as measured from the 
neutral or zero position unless otherwise indicated.
    c. Certain tests included in this attachment must be supported with 
an SOC. In Table C2A, requirements for SOCs are indicated in the ``Test 
Details'' column.
    d. When operational or engineering judgment is used in making 
assessments for

[[Page 233]]

flight test data applications for simulator validity, such judgment may 
not be limited to a single parameter. For example, data that exhibit 
rapid variations of the measured parameters may require interpolations 
or a ``best fit'' data selection. All relevant parameters related to a 
given maneuver or flight condition must be provided to allow overall 
interpretation. When it is difficult or impossible to match simulator to 
helicopter data throughout a time history, differences must be justified 
by providing a comparison of other related variables for the condition 
being assessed.
    e. The FFS may not be programmed so that the mathematical modeling 
is correct only at the validation test points. Unless noted otherwise, 
simulator tests must represent helicopter performance and handling 
qualities at operating weights and centers of gravity (CG) typical of 
normal operation. If a test is supported by helicopter data at one 
extreme weight or CG, another test supported by helicopter data at mid-
conditions or as close as possible to the other extreme must be 
included. Certain tests that are relevant only at one extreme CG or 
weight condition need not be repeated at the other extreme. Tests of 
handling qualities must include validation of augmentation devices.
    f. When comparing the parameters listed to those of the helicopter, 
sufficient data must also be provided to verify the correct flight 
condition and helicopter configuration changes. For example, to show 
that control force is within 0.5 pound (0.22 daN) 
in a static stability test, data to show the correct airspeed, power, 
thrust or torque, helicopter configuration, altitude, and other 
appropriate datum identification parameters must also be given. If 
comparing short period dynamics, normal acceleration may be used to 
establish a match to the helicopter, but airspeed, altitude, control 
input, helicopter configuration, and other appropriate data must also be 
given. All airspeed values must be properly annotated (e.g., indicated 
versus calibrated). In addition, the same variables must be used for 
comparison (e.g., compare inches to inches rather than inches to 
centimeters).
    g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must clearly describe how the 
simulator will be set up and operated for each test. Each simulator 
subsystem may be tested independently, but overall integrated testing of 
the simulator must be accomplished to assure that the total simulator 
system meets the prescribed standards. A manual test procedure with 
explicit and detailed steps for completing each test must also be 
provided.
    h. For previously qualified simulators, the tests and tolerances of 
this attachment may be used in subsequent continuing qualification 
evaluations for any given test if the sponsor has submitted a proposed 
MQTG revision to the NSPM and has received NSPM approval.
    i. Motion System Tests:
    (a) The minimum excursions, accelerations, and velocities for pitch, 
roll, and yaw must be measurable about a single, common reference point 
and must be achieved by driving one degree of freedom at a time.
    (b) The minimum excursions, accelerations, and velocities for heave, 
sway, and surge may be measured about different, identifiable reference 
points and must be achieved by driving one degree of freedom at a time.
    j. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of 
augmentation devices. FFSs for highly augmented helicopters will be 
validated both in the unaugmented configuration (or failure state with 
the maximum permitted degradation in handling qualities) and the 
augmented configuration. Where various levels of handling qualities 
result from failure states, validation of the effect of the failure is 
necessary. For those performance and static handling qualities tests 
where the primary concern is control position in the unaugmented 
configuration, unaugmented data are not required if the design of the 
system precludes any affect on control position. In those instances 
where the unaugmented helicopter response is divergent and non-
repeatable, it may not be feasible to meet the specified tolerances. 
Alternative requirements for testing will be mutually agreed upon by the 
sponsor and the NSPM on a case-by-case basis.
    k. Some tests will not be required for helicopters using helicopter 
hardware in the simulator flight deck (e.g., ``helicopter modular 
controller''). These exceptions are noted in Table C2A of this 
attachment. However, in these cases, the sponsor must provide a 
statement that the helicopter hardware meets the appropriate 
manufacturer's specifications and the sponsor must have supporting 
information to that fact available for NSPM review.
    l. In cases where light-class helicopters are being simulated, prior 
coordination with the NSPM on acceptable weight ranges is required. The 
terms ``light'', ``medium'', and ``near maximum'', as defined in 
Appendix F of this part, may not be appropriate for the simulation of 
light-class helicopters.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    m. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a 
``snapshot test'' or a ``series of snapshot test results'' in lieu of a 
time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that 
a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the 
``snapshot''. The steady

[[Page 234]]

state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior to, through 1 second 
following, the instant of time captured by the snap shot.
    n. For references on basic operating weight, see AC 120-27, Aircraft 
Weight and Balance; and FAA-H-8083-1, Aircraft Weight and Balance 
Handbook.

                             End Information



[[Page 235]]

________________________________________________________________________

                             Table C2A--Full Flight Simulator (FFS) Objective Tests
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                        QPS requirements                                           Information
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
             Test                                                                   Simulator
------------------------------                       Flight                           level
                                 Tolerance(s)      condition       Test details  ---------------      Notes
 Entry No.         Title                                                           B    C    D
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Performance
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a........  Engine Assessment
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1......  Start Operations
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1.a....  Engine start and  Light Off Time-- Ground with the  Record each       X    X    X
              acceleration      10% or    Used and Not     from the
                                1 sec.,   applicable.      the start
                                Torque--5%, Gas
                                Turbine Temp.--
                                30
                                [deg]C.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1.b....  Steady State      Torque--2%,
                                Turbine Gas
                                Temp.--10% of                     response to
                                total change                      trim system
                                of power                          actuation in
                                turbine speed,                    both
                                or 3 ft.                      used, brake
                                (0.9m) or 20%                     pedal position
                                of helicopter                     and brake
                                turn radius.                      system
                                                                  pressure must
                                                                  be matched to
                                                                  the helicopter
                                                                  flight test
                                                                  value.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2......  Rate of Turn vs.  10% or                     used, brake
              Deflection,       2[deg]/                    and brake
              Application, or   sec. Turn                         system
              Nosewheel         Rate.                             pressure must
              Angle, as                                           be matched to
              applicable.                                         the helicopter
                                                                  flight test
                                                                  value.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.3......  Taxi............  Pitch Angle--    Ground.........  Record results    X    X    X
                                1.5[deg                    position and
                                ], Torque--                       pitch attitude
                                3%,                        taxi for a
                                Longitudinal                      specific
                                Control                           ground speed,
                                Position--5%, Lateral                    density
                                Control                           altitude.
                                Position--5%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--5%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 237]]

 
1.b.4......  Brake             10% of
                                time and
                                distance.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c........  Takeoff
             When the speed range for the following tests is less than 40 knots, the applicable airspeed
              tolerance may be applied to either airspeed or ground speed, as appropriate.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.1......  All Engines.....  Airspeed--20 ft                          model
                                (6.1m),                           simulated
                                Torque--100 fpm                        only to those
                                (0.50m/sec) or                    segments at
                                10%, Pitch                        airspeeds
                                Attitude--1.5[deg],                      translational
                                Bank Attitude--                   lift. Results
                                2[deg],                    recorded from
                                Heading--10%,
                                Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.2......  One Engine        Airspeed--20 ft                          simulated.                      the specific
                                (6.1m),                           Results must                    type of
                                Torque--100 fpm
                                (0.50m/sec) or
                                10%, Pitch
                                Attitude--1.5[deg],
                                Bank Attitude--
                                2[deg],
                                Heading--10% Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 238]]

 
1.c.3......  One Engine        Airspeed--20 ft                          conditions
                                (6.1m),                           near limiting
                                Torque--1.5[deg],
                                Roll angle--
                                
                                1.5[deg],
                                Heading--10%,
                                Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Distance:--7.5% or
                                30m
                                (100ft).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d........  Hover
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
             Performance.....  Torque--1.5[deg],                      snapshot
                                Bank Attitude--                   tests.
                                1.5[deg
                                ],
                                Longitudinal
                                Control
                                Position--5%, Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--5%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e........  Vertical Climb
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 239]]

 
             Performance.....  Vertical         From OGE Hover.  Record results         X    X
                                Velocity--100 fpm                        weights. May
                                (0.50 m/sec)                      be a series of
                                or 5%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--5%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f........  Level Flight
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
             Performance and   Torque--1.5[deg],                      trim speeds                     endurance
                                Sideslip                          throughout the                  airspeed.
                                Angle--5%, Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--5%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.g........  Climb
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
             Performance and   Vertical         All engines      Record results    X    X    X
              Trimmed Flight    Velocity--100 fpm       inoperative;     combinations.
                                (6.1m/sec) or    Augmentation     The data
                                10%,      and Off.         be for normal
                                Pitch                             climb power
                                Attitude--1.5[deg],                      series of
                                Sideslip                          snapshot
                                Angle--5%, Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--5%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.h........  Descent
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 240]]

 
1.h.1......  Descent           Torque--1.5[deg],     approach         May be a
                                Sideslip         speed.           series of
                                Angle--5%, Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--5%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.h.2......  Autorotation      Pitch Attitude-- Steady           Record results    X    X    X
              Performance and   1.5[deg   Augmentation     weight
              Control           ], Sideslip      System(s) On     conditions.
              Positions.        Angle--5%, Lateral                    if collective
                                Control                           control
                                Position--5%,                            Data must be
                                Directional                       recorded for
                                Control                           speeds from 50
                                Position--5%,                            q5 kts,
                                Collective                        through at
                                Control                           least maximum
                                Position--5%,                            maximum
                                Vertical                          allowable
                                Velocity--100 fpm or                     whichever is
                                10%, Rotor                        slower. May be
                                Speed--3%,                        throttle
                                Pitch                             reduction to
                                Attitude--2[deg],                        condition is
                                Roll Attitude--                   selected,
                                3[deg],                    must be made
                                Yaw Attitude--                    for the
                                5[deg],                    airspeed. If
                                Airspeed--5 kts.,                        selected,
                                Vertical                          comparison
                                Velocity--200 fpm                        maximum rate
                                (1.00 m/sec)                      of climb
                                or 10%.                           airspeed at or
                                                                  near maximum
                                                                  continuous
                                                                  power.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.j........  Landing
             When the speed range for tests 1.j.1., 1.j.2., or 1.j.3. is less than 40 knots, the applicable
              airspeed tolerance may be applied to either airspeed or ground speed, as appropriate.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.j.1......  All Engines.....  Airspeed--20 ft.                         appropriate to
                                (6.1m),                           the helicopter
                                Torque--1.5[deg],                      D). For Level
                                Bank Attitude--                   B, the
                                1.5[deg                    only to those
                                ], Heading--                      segments at
                                2[deg],                    above
                                Longitudinal                      effective
                                Control                           translational
                                Position--10%,
                                Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 242]]

 
1.j.2......  One Engine        Airspeed--20 ft.                         landing as
                                (6.1m),                           appropriate to
                                Torque--1.5[deg],                      above
                                Bank Attitude--                   effective
                                1.5[deg                    lift.
                                ], Heading--
                                2[deg],
                                Longitudinal
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.j.3......  Balked Landing..  Airspeed--20 ft.                         approach at
                                (6.1m),                           the landing
                                Torque--1.5[deg],
                                Bank Attitude--
                                1.5[deg
                                ], Heading--
                                2[deg],
                                Longitudinal
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--10%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 243]]

 
1.j.4......  Autorotational    Torque--100 fpm                        descent, to                     personnel and
                                (0.50m/sec) or                    touch down. If                  the data
                                10%, Pitch                        flight test                     recording,
                                Attitude--2[deg],                        required                        facilities to
                                Bank Attitude--                   parameters for                  be used, are:
                                2[deg],                    power-off                       simulated
                                Heading--10%,                           flight test                     on termination
                                Lateral                           personnel are                   following an
                                Control                           not available                   autorotational
                                Position--10%,                           sponsor may
                                Directional                       coordinate
                                Control                           with the NSPM
                                Position--10%,                           appropriate to
                                Collective                        accept
                                Control                           alternative
                                Position--10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Handling Qualities...........................................................................................
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a........  Control System Mechanical Characteristics
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
             For simulators requiring Static or Dynamic tests at the controls                    Contact the
              (i.e., cyclic, collective, and pedal), special test fixtures will                   NSPM for
              not be required during initial or upgrade evaluations if the                        clarification
              sponsor's QTG/MQTG shows both test fixture results and the results                  of any issue
              of an alternative approach, such as computer plots produced                         regarding
              concurrently showing satisfactory agreement. Repeat of the                          helicopters
              alternative method during the initial or upgrade evaluation                         with
              satisfies this test requirement. For initial and upgrade                            reversible
              evaluations, the control dynamic characteristics must be measured                   controls or
              at and recorded directly from the flight deck controls, and must                    where the
              be accomplished in hover, climb, cruise, and autorotation.                          required
                                                                                                  validation
                                                                                                  data is not
                                                                                                  attainable.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 244]]

 
2.a.1......  Cyclic..........  Breakout--1.0 lb.   pressurized;     does not apply                  turning. The
                                (0.224 daN) or   supplemental     if aircraft                     phrase ``if
                                10%.             hydraulic        hardware                        applicable''
                                                 pressurization   modular                         regarding
                                                 system may be    controllers                     stability
                                                 used. Trim On    are used.)                      augmentation
                                                 and Off.                                         systems means
                                                 Friction Off                                     if an
                                                 Augmentation                                     augmentation
                                                 (if                                              system is
                                                 applicable) On                                   available and
                                                 and Off.                                         if this system
                                                                                                  may be
                                                                                                  operational on
                                                                                                  the ground
                                                                                                  under static
                                                                                                  conditions as
                                                                                                  described
                                                                                                  here.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2......  Collective/       Breakout--1.0 lb.   pressurized;                                     turning. The
                                (0.224 daN) or   supplemental                                     phrase ``if
                                10%.             hydraulic                                        applicable''
                                                 pressurization                                   regarding
                                                 system may be                                    stability
                                                 used. Trim On                                    augmentation
                                                 and Off.                                         system means
                                                 Friction Off.                                    if a stability
                                                 Augmentation                                     augmentation
                                                 (if                                              system is
                                                 applicable) On                                   available and
                                                 and Off.                                         if this system
                                                                                                  may be
                                                                                                  operational on
                                                                                                  the ground
                                                                                                  under static
                                                                                                  conditions as
                                                                                                  described
                                                                                                  here.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3......  Brake Pedal       5 lbs.    conditions.
              Position.         (2.224 daN) or
                                10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 245]]

 
2.a.4......  Trim System Rate  Rate--10% of    Trim On,         recorded for a                  control
                                time for first   Friction Off.    normal control                  displacement
                                zero crossing                     displacement                    of 25% to 50%
                                and 10% of                                                     control
                                amplitude of                                                      systems may be
                                first                                                             evaluated in a
                                overshoot, 20%                                                    ground/static
                                of amplitude                                                      condition.
                                of 2nd and                                                        Additional
                                subsequent                                                        information on
                                overshoots                                                        control
                                greater than                                                      dynamics is
                                5% of initial                                                     found later in
                                displacement,                                                     this
                                1                                                          ``N'' is the
                                overshoot.                                                        sequential
                                                                                                  period of a
                                                                                                  full cycle of
                                                                                                  oscillation.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.6......  Control System    0.10      conditions;      compare                         Data for this
                                inches (1.5[deg],     flight.          translational
                                Bank Attitude--  Augmentation     airspeed
                                2[deg],                    45 kts.
                                Longitudinal                      forward
                                Control                           airspeed. May
                                Position--5%. Lateral                    tests.
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--5%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 246]]

 
2.b.2......  Critical Azimuth  Torque--1.5[deg],                      most critical
                                Bank Attitude--                   case) in the
                                2[deg],                    quadrant. May
                                Longitudinal                      be a series of
                                Control                           snapshot
                                Position--5%, Lateral
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--5%,
                                Collective
                                Control
                                Position--5%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3......  Control Response
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3.a....  Longitudinal....  Pitch Rate--     Hover            Record results         X    X   This is a
                                10% or    On and Off.      control input.                  test conducted
                                2[deg]/                    response must                   ground effect,
                                sec., Pitch                       show correct                    without
                                Attitude                          trend for                       entering
                                Change--10% or    On and Off.      control input.                  test conducted
                                3[deg]/                    response must                   ground effect,
                                sec., Roll                        show correct                    without
                                Attitude                          trend for                       entering
                                Change--0.1 g.                     The Off-axis
                                                                  response must
                                                                  show correct
                                                                  trend for
                                                                  unaugmented
                                                                  cases.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c........  Longitudinal Handling Qualities
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.1......  Control Response  Pitch Rate--     Cruise           Results must be   X    X    X
                                10% or    On and Off.      two cruise
                                2[deg]/                    include
                                sec., Pitch                       minimum power
                                Attitude                          required
                                Change--10% of    On and Off.      of the trim
                                change from                       speed. May be
                                trim or 10% of    Augmentation     responses,                      may be
                                calculated       On and Off.      record results                  unrepeatable
                                period, 0.02 of                    determine time                  show at least
                                damping                           to \1/2\ or                     that a
                                ratio.For non-                    double                          divergence is
                                periodic                          amplitude,                      identifiable.
                                responses, the                    whichever is                    For example:
                                time history                      less.                           Displacing the
                                must be                          The test may be                  cyclic for a
                                matched within                    terminated                      given time
                                3[deg]                     sec. if the                     excites this
                                pitch; and                        test pilot                      test or until
                                5 kts                      that the                        attitude is
                                airspeed over                     results are                     achieved and
                                a 20 sec                          becoming                        then return
                                period                            uncontrollably                  the cyclic to
                                following                         divergent..                     the original
                                release of the                                                    position. For
                                controls.                                                         non-periodic
                                                                                                  responses,
                                                                                                  results should
                                                                                                  show the same
                                                                                                  convergent or
                                                                                                  divergent
                                                                                                  character as
                                                                                                  the flight
                                                                                                  test data.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 249]]

 
2.c.3.b....  Short-Term        1.5[deg   Climb.           for at least                    doublet
                                ] Pitch or       Augmentation     two airspeeds.                  inserted at
                                2[deg]/                                                    frequency of
                                sec. Pitch                                                        the aircraft
                                Rate. 10% of                         45[deg] roll
                                change from                       angle. The
                                trim or 10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d........  Lateral and Directional Handling Qualities
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.1......  Control Response
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.1.a....  Lateral.........  Roll Rate--      Cruise           Record results    X    X    X
                                10% or    On and Off.      two airspeeds,
                                3[deg]/                    speed at or
                                sec., Roll                        near the
                                Attitude                          minimum power
                                Change--10% of        instead of       angles on                       at a fixed
                                change from      Climb if         either side of                  collective
                                trim or 0.5 lb.                    systems. May
                                (0.223 daN) or                    be a series of
                                10%, Roll                         snapshot
                                Attitude--1.5,
                                Directional
                                Control
                                Position--10% of
                                change from
                                trim or 1 lb.
                                (0.448 daN) or
                                10%,
                                Longitudinal
                                Control
                                Position--10% of
                                change from
                                trim or 100 fpm
                                (0.50m/sec) or
                                10%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 251]]

 
2.d.3......  Dynamic Lateral and Directional Stability
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3.a....  Lateral-          0.5       Climb.           for at least
              Oscillations.     sec. or 0.02 of                    after input
                                damping ratio,                    completed) or
                                20% or                     sufficient to
                                1 sec                      to \1/2\ or
                                of time                           double
                                difference                        amplitude,
                                between peaks                     whichever is
                                of bank and                       less. The test
                                sideslip. For                     may be
                                non-periodic                      terminated
                                responses, the                    prior to 20
                                time history                      sec if the
                                must be                           test pilot
                                matched within                    determines
                                10                         results are
                                knots                             becoming
                                Airspeed;                         uncontrollably
                                5[deg]/
                                s Roll Rate or
                                5[deg]
                                Roll Attitude;
                                4[deg]/
                                s Yaw Rate or
                                4[deg]
                                Yaw Angle over
                                a 20 sec
                                period roll
                                angle
                                following
                                release of the
                                controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3.b....  Spiral            2[deg]    Climb.           results of a
                                or 2[deg]    Augmentation     initial entry
                                transient        On and Off.      into cyclic
                                sideslip                          only turns,
                                angle.                            using only a
                                                                  moderate rate
                                                                  for cyclic
                                                                  input. Results
                                                                  must be
                                                                  recorded for
                                                                  turns in both
                                                                  directions.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Motion System................................................................................................
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a........  Frequency response
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                               Based on         N/A............  Required as       X    X    X
                                Simulator                         part of the
                                Capability.                       MQTG. The test
                                                                  must
                                                                  demonstrate
                                                                  frequency
                                                                  response of
                                                                  the motion
                                                                  system as
                                                                  specified by
                                                                  the applicant
                                                                  for flight
                                                                  simulator
                                                                  qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b........  Leg Balance
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
             Leg Balance.....  Based on         N/A............  Required as       X    X    X
                                Simulator                         part of the
                                Capability.                       MQTG. The test
                                                                  must
                                                                  demonstrate
                                                                  motion system
                                                                  leg balance as
                                                                  specified by
                                                                  the applicant
                                                                  for flight
                                                                  simulator
                                                                  qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c........  Turn Around
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 253]]

 
             Turn Around.....  Based on         N/A............  Required as       X    X    X
                                Simulator                         part of the
                                Capability.                       MQTG. The test
                                                                  must
                                                                  demonstrate a
                                                                  smooth turn-
                                                                  around (shift
                                                                  to opposite
                                                                  direction of
                                                                  movement) of
                                                                  the motion
                                                                  system as
                                                                  specified by
                                                                  the applicant
                                                                  for flight
                                                                  simulator
                                                                  qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d........  Motion system repeatability
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                               With the same    Accomplished in  Required as       X    X    X   See Paragraph
                                input signal,    both the         part of the                     6.c. in this
                                the test         ``ground''       the MQTG. The                   attachment for
                                results must     mode and in      test is                         additional
                                be repeatable    the ``flight''   accomplished                    information.
                                to within        mode of the      by injecting a                  Note: if there
                                0.05g     operation.       to generate                     difference in
                                actual                            movement of                     the model for
                                platform                          the platform.                   ``ground'' and
                                linear                            The input must                  ``flight''
                                acceleration                      be such that                    operation of
                                in each axis.                     the rotational                  the motion
                                                                  accelerations,                  system, this
                                                                  rotational                      should be
                                                                  rates, and                      described in
                                                                  linear                          an SOC and
                                                                  accelerations                   will not
                                                                  are inserted                    require tests
                                                                  before the                      in both modes.
                                                                  transfer from
                                                                  helicopter
                                                                  center of
                                                                  gravity to the
                                                                  pilot
                                                                  reference
                                                                  point with a
                                                                  minimum
                                                                  amplitude of
                                                                  5[deg]/sec/
                                                                  sec, 10[deg]/
                                                                  sec and 0.3g,
                                                                  respectively.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e........  Motion cueing performance signature
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                 Required as                     See paragraph
                                                                  part of MQTG.                   6.d., of this
                                                                  These tests                     attachment,
                                                                  must be run                     Motion cueing
                                                                  with the                        performance
                                                                  motion buffet                   signature.
                                                                  mode disabled.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 254]]

 
3.e.1......  Takeoff (all      As specified by  Ground.........  Pitch attitude    X    X    X   Associated to
              engines).         the sponsor                       due to initial                  test number
                                for flight                        climb must                      1.c.1.
                                simulator                         dominate over
                                qualification.                    cab tilt due
                                                                  to
                                                                  longitudinal
                                                                  acceleration.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.2......  Hover             As specified by  Ground.........                         X    X   Associated to
              performance       the sponsor                                                       test number
              (IGE and OGE).    for flight                                                        1.d.
                                simulator
                                qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.3......  Autorotation      As specified by  Flight.........                         X    X   Associated to
              (entry).          the sponsor                                                       test number
                                for flight                                                        1.i.
                                simulator
                                qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.4......  Landing (all      As specified by  Flight.........                    X    X    X   Associated to
              engines).         the sponsor                                                       test number
                                for flight                                                        1.j.1.
                                simulator
                                qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.5......  Autorotation      As specified by  Flight.........                         X    X   Associated to
              (landing).        the sponsor                                                       test number
                                for flight                                                        1.j.4.
                                simulator
                                qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.6......  Control Response
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.6.a....  Longitudinal....  As specified by  Flight.........                    X    X    X   Associated to
                                the sponsor                                                       test number
                                for flight                                                        2.c.1.
                                simulator
                                qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.6.b....  Lateral.........  As specified by  Ground.........                    X    X    X   Associated to
                                the sponsor                                                       test number
                                for flight                                                        2.d.1.a.
                                simulator
                                qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 255]]

 
3.e.6.c....  Directional.....  As specified by                                     X    X    X   Associated to
                                the sponsor                                                       test number
                                for flight                                                        2.d.1.c.
                                simulator
                                qualification.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.f........  Characteristic Motion (Vibration) Cues--For all of the following     ...  ...  ...  Characteristic
              tests, the simulator test results must exhibit the overall                          motion cues
              appearance and trends of the helicopter data, with at least three                   may be
              (3) of the predominant frequency ``spikes'' being present within                    separate from
              2 Hz.                                                         the ``main''
                                                                                                  motion system.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.f.1......  Vibrations--to    +3db to -6db or  (a) On ground    Characteristic              X   Correct trend
              include 1/Rev     10% of   (b) In flight..   include those                   comparison of
              vibrations        nominal                           that result                     vibration
              (where ``n'' is   vibration                         from operation                  amplitudes
              the number of     level in                          of the                          between
              main rotor        flight cruise                     helicopter                      different
              blades).          and correct                       (for example,                   maneuvers;
                                trend (see                        high airspeed,                  e.g., if the 1/
                                comment).                         retreating                      rev vibration
                                                                  blade stall,                    amplitude in
                                                                  extended                        the helicopter
                                                                  landing gear,                   is higher
                                                                  vortex ring or                  during steady
                                                                  settling with                   state turns
                                                                  power) in so                    than in level
                                                                  far as                          flight this
                                                                  vibration                       increasing
                                                                  marks an event                  trend should
                                                                  or helicopter                   be
                                                                  state, which                    demonstrated
                                                                  can be sensed                   in the
                                                                  in the flight                   simulator.
                                                                  deck.                           Additional
                                                                 [See Table C1A,                  examples of
                                                                  table entries                   vibrations may
                                                                  5.e. and 5.f.].                 include:
                                                                                                 (a) Low & High
                                                                                                  speed
                                                                                                  transition to
                                                                                                  and from
                                                                                                  hover;
                                                                                                 (b) Level
                                                                                                  flight;
                                                                                                 (c) Climb and
                                                                                                  descent
                                                                                                  (including
                                                                                                  vertical
                                                                                                  climb;
                                                                                                 (d) Auto-
                                                                                                  rotation;
                                                                                                 (e) Steady
                                                                                                  Turns.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 256]]

 
3.f.2......  Buffet--Test      +3db to -6db or  On ground and    Characteristic              X   The recorded
              against           10% of                     include those                   for
              results for       nominal                           that result                     characteristic
              characteristic    vibration                         from operation                  buffets should
              buffet motion     level in                          of the                          allow the
              that can be       flight cruise                     helicopter                      checking of
              sensed in the     and correct                       (for example,                   relative
              flight deck.      trend (see                        high airspeed,                  amplitude for
                                comment).                         retreating                      different
                                                                  blade stall,                    frequencies.
                                                                  extended                       For atmospheric
                                                                  landing gear,                   disturbance,
                                                                  vortex ring or                  general
                                                                  settling with                   purpose models
                                                                  power) in so                    are acceptable
                                                                  far as a                        which
                                                                  buffet marks                    approximate
                                                                  an event or                     demonstrable
                                                                  helicopter                      flight test
                                                                  state, which                    data.
                                                                  can be sensed
                                                                  in the flight
                                                                  deck.
                                                                 [See Table C1A,
                                                                  table entries
                                                                  5.e. and 5.f.].
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Visual System................................................................................................
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a........  Visual System Response Time: (Choose either test 4.a.1. or 4.a.2. to satisfy test 4.a., Visual
              System Response Time Test. This test is also sufficient for motion system response timing and
              flight deck instrument response timing.)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.1......  Latency
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                               150 ms (or       Takeoff, climb,  One test is       X
                                less) after      and descent.     required in
                                helicopter                        each axis
                                response.                         (pitch, roll
                                                                  and yaw) for
                                                                  each of the
                                                                  three
                                                                  conditions
                                                                  (take-off,
                                                                  cruise, and
                                                                  approach or
                                                                  landing).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 257]]

 
                               100 ms (or       Climb, cruise,   One test is            X    X
                                less) after      descent, and     required in
                                helicopter       hover.           each axis
                                response.                         (pitch, roll
                                                                  and yaw) for
                                                                  each of the
                                                                  three
                                                                  conditions
                                                                  (take-off,
                                                                  cruise, and
                                                                  approach or
                                                                  landing).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.2......  Transport Delay
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                                                 If Transport
                                                                                                  Delay is the
                                                                                                  chosen method
                                                                                                  to demonstrate
                                                                                                  relative
                                                                                                  responses, the
                                                                                                  sponsor and
                                                                                                  the NSPM will
                                                                                                  use the
                                                                                                  latency values
                                                                                                  to ensure
                                                                                                  proper
                                                                                                  simulator
                                                                                                  response when
                                                                                                  reviewing
                                                                                                  those existing
                                                                                                  tests where
                                                                                                  latency can be
                                                                                                  identified
                                                                                                  (e.g., short
                                                                                                  period, roll
                                                                                                  response,
                                                                                                  rudder
                                                                                                  response).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                               150 ms (or       N/A............  A separate test   X
                                less) after                       is required in
                                controller                        each axis
                                movement.                         (pitch, roll,
                                                                  and yaw).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                               100 ms (or       N/A............  A separate test        X    X
                                less) after                       is required in
                                controller                        each axis
                                movement.                         (pitch, roll,
                                                                  and yaw)..
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b........  Field-of-view
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 258]]

 
4.b.1......  Continuous field- The simulator    N/A............  An SOC is         X             Horizontal
              of-view.          must provide a                    required and                    field-of-view
                                continuous                        must explain                    is centered on
                                field-of-view                     the geometry                    the zero
                                of at least                       of the                          degree azimuth
                                75[deg]                           installation.                   line relative
                                horizontally                     Additional                       to the
                                and 30[deg]                       horizontal                      aircraft
                                vertically per                    field-of-view                   fuselage.
                                pilot seat or                     capability may                  Field-of-view
                                the number of                     be added at                     may be
                                degrees                           the sponsor's                   measured using
                                necessary to                      discretion                      a visual test
                                meet the                          provided the                    pattern
                                visual ground                     minimum field-                  filling the
                                segment                           of-view is                      entire visual
                                requirement,                      retained..                      scene (all
                                whichever is                                                      channels) with
                                greater. Both                                                     a matrix of
                                pilot seat                                                        black and
                                visual systems                                                    white 5[deg]
                                must be                                                           squares.
                                operable
                                simultaneously
                                . Wide-angle
                                systems
                                providing
                                cross-flight
                                deck viewing
                                (for both
                                pilots
                                simultaneously
                                ) must provide
                                a minimum
                                field-of-view
                                of at least
                                146[deg]
                                horizontally
                                and 36[deg]
                                vertically.
                                Any geometric
                                error between
                                the Image
                                Generator eye
                                point and the
                                pilot eye
                                point must be
                                8[deg] or
                                less.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 259]]

 
4.b.2......  Continuous field- The simulator    N/A............  An SOC is              X        Horizontal
              of-view.          must provide a                    required and                    field-of-view
                                continuous                        must explain                    is centered on
                                field-of-view                     the geometry                    the zero
                                of at least                       of the                          degree azimuth
                                146[deg]                          installation.                   line relative
                                horizontally                     Horizontal                       to the
                                and 36[deg]                       field-of-view                   aircraft
                                vertically or                     of at least                     fuselage.
                                the number of                     146[deg]                        Field-of-view
                                degrees                           (including not                  may be
                                necessary to                      less than                       measured using
                                meet the                          73[deg]                         a visual test
                                visual ground                     measured                        pattern
                                segment                           either side of                  filling the
                                requirement,                      the center of                   entire visual
                                whichever is                      the design eye                  scene (all
                                greater. The                      point).                         channels) with
                                minimum                           Additional                      a matrix of
                                horizontal                        horizontal                      black and
                                field-of-view                     field-of-view                   white 5[deg]
                                coverage must                     capability may                  squares.
                                be plus and                       be added at
                                minus one-half                    the sponsor's
                                (\1/2\) of the                    discretion
                                minimum                           provided the
                                continuous                        minimum field-
                                field-of-view                     of-view is
                                requirement,                      retained..
                                centered on                      Vertical field-
                                the zero                          of-view of at
                                degree azimuth                    least 36[deg]
                                line relative                     measured from
                                to the                            the pilot's
                                aircraft                          and co-pilot's
                                fuselage. Any                     eye point..
                                geometric
                                error between
                                the Image
                                Generator eye
                                point and the
                                pilot eye
                                point must be
                                8[deg] or
                                less.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 260]]

 
4.b.3......  Continuous field- Continuous       N/A............  An SOC is                   X   The horizontal
              of-view.          field-of-view                     required and                    field-of-view
                                of at least                       must explain                    is
                                176[deg]                          the geometry                    traditionally
                                horizontal and                    of the                          described as a
                                56[deg]                           installation.                   180[deg] field-
                                vertical field-                  Horizontal                       of-view.
                                of-view for                       field-of-view                   However, the
                                each pilot                        is centered on                  field-of-view
                                simultaneously                    the zero                        is technically
                                . Any                             degree azimuth                  no less than
                                geometric                         line relative                   176[deg].
                                error between                     to the                          Field-of-view
                                the Image                         aircraft                        may be
                                Generator eye                     fuselage.                       measured using
                                point and the                     Horizontal                      a visual test
                                pilot eye                         field-of-view                   pattern
                                point must be                     must be at                      filling the
                                8[deg] or                         least 176[deg]                  entire visual
                                less.                             (including not                  scene (all
                                                                  less than                       channels) with
                                                                  88[deg] either                  a matrix of
                                                                  side of the                     black and
                                                                  center of the                   white 5[deg]
                                                                  design eye                      squares.
                                                                  point).
                                                                  Additional
                                                                  horizontal
                                                                  field-of-view
                                                                  capability may
                                                                  be added at
                                                                  the sponsor's
                                                                  discretion
                                                                  provided the
                                                                  minimum field-
                                                                  of-view is
                                                                  retained..
                                                                 Vertical field-
                                                                  of-view must
                                                                  not be less
                                                                  than a total
                                                                  of 56[deg]
                                                                  measured from
                                                                  the pilot's
                                                                  and co-pilot's
                                                                  eye point.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 261]]

 
4.c........  Surface contrast  Not less than    N/A............  The ratio is                X   Measurements
              ratio.            5:1.                              calculated by                   may be made
                                                                  dividing the                    using a 1[deg]
                                                                  brightness                      spot
                                                                  level of the                    photometer and
                                                                  center, bright                  a raster drawn
                                                                  square                          test pattern
                                                                  (providing at                   filling the
                                                                  least 2 foot-                   entire visual
                                                                  lamberts or 7                   scene (all
                                                                  cd/m\2\) by                     channels) with
                                                                  the brightness                  a test pattern
                                                                  level of any                    of black and
                                                                  adjacent dark                   white squares,
                                                                  square.                         5 per square,
                                                                                                  with a white
                                                                                                  square in the
                                                                                                  center of each
                                                                                                  channel.
                                                                                                  During
                                                                                                  contrast ratio
                                                                                                  testing,
                                                                                                  simulator aft-
                                                                                                  cab and flight
                                                                                                  deck ambient
                                                                                                  light levels
                                                                                                  should be
                                                                                                  zero.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d........  Highlight         Not less than    N/A............  Measure the                 X   Measurements
              brightness.       six (6) foot-                     brightness of                   may be made
                                lamberts (20                      the center,                     using a 1[deg]
                                cd/m\2\).                         white square                    spot
                                                                  while                           photometer and
                                                                  superimposing                   a raster drawn
                                                                  a highlight on                  test pattern
                                                                  that white                      filling the
                                                                  square. The                     entire visual
                                                                  use of                          scene (all
                                                                  calligraphic                    channels) with
                                                                  capabilities                    a test pattern
                                                                  to enhance the                  of black and
                                                                  raster                          white squares,
                                                                  brightness is                   5 per square,
                                                                  acceptable;                     with a white
                                                                  however,                        square in the
                                                                  measuring                       center of each
                                                                  light points                    channel.
                                                                  is not
                                                                  acceptable.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 262]]

 
4.e........  Surface           Not greater      N/A............  An SOC is              X    X   When the eye is
              resolution.       than two (2)                      required and                    positioned on
                                arc minutes.                      must include                    a 3[deg] glide
                                                                  the                             slope at the
                                                                  appropriate                     slant range
                                                                  calculations                    distances
                                                                  and an                          indicated with
                                                                  explanation of                  white runway
                                                                  those                           markings on a
                                                                  calculations.                   black runway
                                                                  Level B                         surface, the
                                                                  requires                        eye will
                                                                  surface                         subtend two
                                                                  resolution not                  (2) arc
                                                                  greater than                    minutes: (1) A
                                                                  three (3) arc                   slant range of
                                                                  minutes.                        6,876 ft with
                                                                                                  stripes 150 ft
                                                                                                  long and 16 ft
                                                                                                  wide, spaced 4
                                                                                                  ft apart. (2)
                                                                                                  For
                                                                                                  Configuration
                                                                                                  A, a slant
                                                                                                  range of 5,157
                                                                                                  feet with
                                                                                                  stripes 150 ft
                                                                                                  long and 12 ft
                                                                                                  wide, spaced 3
                                                                                                  ft apart. (3)
                                                                                                  For
                                                                                                  Configuration
                                                                                                  B, a slant
                                                                                                  range of 9,884
                                                                                                  feet, with
                                                                                                  stripes 150 ft
                                                                                                  long and 5.75
                                                                                                  ft wide,
                                                                                                  spaced 5.75 ft
                                                                                                  apart.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 263]]

 
4.f........  Light point size  Not greater      N/A............  An SOC is              X    X   Light point
                                than five (5)                     required and                    size may be
                                arc minutes.                      must include                    measured using
                                                                  the relevant                    a test pattern
                                                                  calculations                    consisting of
                                                                  and an                          a centrally
                                                                  explanation of                  located single
                                                                  those                           row of light
                                                                  calculations.                   points reduced
                                                                                                  in length
                                                                                                  until
                                                                                                  modulation is
                                                                                                  just
                                                                                                  discernible in
                                                                                                  each visual
                                                                                                  channel. A row
                                                                                                  of 48 lights
                                                                                                  will form a
                                                                                                  4[deg] angle
                                                                                                  or less.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g........  Light point                                                                         A 1[deg] spot
              contrast ratio.                                                                     photometer may
                                                                                                  be used to
                                                                                                  measure a
                                                                                                  square of at
                                                                                                  least 1[deg]
                                                                                                  filled with
                                                                                                  light points
                                                                                                  (where light
                                                                                                  point
                                                                                                  modulation is
                                                                                                  just
                                                                                                  discernible)
                                                                                                  and compare
                                                                                                  the results to
                                                                                                  the measured
                                                                                                  adjacent
                                                                                                  background.
                                                                                                  During
                                                                                                  contrast ratio
                                                                                                  testing,
                                                                                                  simulator aft-
                                                                                                  cab and flight
                                                                                                  deck ambient
                                                                                                  light levels
                                                                                                  should be
                                                                                                  zero.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.1......                    Not less than    N/A............  An SOC is         X
                                10:1.                             required and
                                                                  must include
                                                                  the relevant
                                                                  calculations.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.2......                    Not less than    N/A............  An SOC is              X    X
                                25:1.                             required and
                                                                  must include
                                                                  the relevant
                                                                  calculations.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.h........  Visual ground segment
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 264]]

 
                               The visible      Landing          The QTG must      X    X    X   Pre-positioning
                                segment in the   configuration,   contain                         for this test
                                simulator must   with the         appropriate                     is encouraged,
                                be  5 dB                      condition
                                per \1/3\                         prior to
                                octave band.                      engine start.
                                                                  The APU must
                                                                  be on if
                                                                  appropriate.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.2......  All engines at     5 dB                      condition
              turning (if       per \1/3\                         prior to lift-
              applicable) and   octave band.                      off.
              rotor turning.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.3......  Hover...........   5 dB
                                per \1/3\
                                octave band.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.4......  Climb...........   5 dB
                                per \1/3\
                                octave band.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.5......  Cruise..........   5 dB                      configuration.
                                per \1/3\
                                octave band.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.6......  Final approach..   5 dB                      airspeed, gear
                                per \1/3\                         down.
                                octave band.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 267]]

 
5.b........  Special cases
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                               5 dB                                                       cases are
                                per \1/3\                                                         identified as
                                octave band.                                                      particularly
                                                                                                  significant
                                                                                                  during
                                                                                                  critical
                                                                                                  phases of
                                                                                                  flight and
                                                                                                  ground
                                                                                                  operations for
                                                                                                  a specific
                                                                                                  helicopter
                                                                                                  type or model.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c........  Background noise
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                               3 dB                       background                      sound will be
                                per \1/3\                         noise at                        evaluated to
                                octave band.                      initial                         ensure that
                                                                  qualification                   the background
                                                                  must be                         noise does not
                                                                  included in                     interfere with
                                                                  the MQTG.                       training,
                                                                  Measurements                    testing, or
                                                                  must be made                    checking.
                                                                  with the
                                                                  simulation
                                                                  running, the
                                                                  sound muted,
                                                                  and a ``dead''
                                                                  flight deck.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d........  Frequency response
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 268]]

 
                               5 dB on                    to Continuing                   are compared
                                three (3)                         Qualification                   to those taken
                                consecutive                       Evaluations.                    during initial
                                bands when                        If frequency                    qualification
                                compared to                       response plots                  evaluation.
                                initial                           are provided
                                evaluation;                       for each
                                and d) on Figure C2A is 5 percent of the 
initial displacement amplitude Ad from the steady state value 
of the oscillation. Only oscillations outside the residual band are 
considered significant. When comparing FFS data to helicopter data, the 
process should begin by overlaying or aligning the FFS and helicopter 
steady state values and then comparing amplitudes of oscillation peaks, 
the time of the first zero crossing, and individual periods of 
oscillation. The FFS should show the same number of significant 
overshoots to within one when compared against the helicopter data. The 
procedure for evaluating the response is illustrated in Figure C2A.
    (b) Critically damped and Overdamped Response. Due to the nature of 
critically damped and overdamped responses (no overshoots), the time to 
reach 90 percent of the steady state (neutral point) value should be the 
same as the helicopter within 10 percent. The 
simulator response must be critically damped also. Figure C2B 
illustrates the procedure.
    (c) Special considerations. Control systems that exhibit 
characteristics other than classical overdamped or underdamped responses 
should meet specified tolerances. In addition, special consideration 
should be given to ensure that significant trends are maintained.
    (2) Tolerances.
    (a) The following summarizes the tolerances, ``T'' for underdamped 
systems, and ``n'' is the sequential period of a full cycle of 
oscillation. See Figure C2A of this attachment for an illustration of 
the referenced measurements.

 
 
 
T(P0).....................................  10% of
                                             P0
T(P1).....................................  20% of
                                             P1
T(P2).....................................  30% of
                                             P2
T(Pn).....................................  10(n+1)% of Pn
T(An).....................................  10% of
                                             A1, 20% of Subsequent Peaks
T(Ad).....................................  5% of
                                             Ad = residual band
 

    Significant overshoots. First overshoot and 1 
subsequent overshoots
    (b) The following tolerance applies to critically damped and 
overdamped systems only. See Figure C2B for an illustration of the 
reference measurements:

 
 
 
T(P0).....................................  10% of
                                             P0
 

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

    c. Alternative method for control dynamics evaluation.
    (1) An alternative means for validating control dynamics for 
aircraft with hydraulically powered flight controls and artificial feel 
systems is by the measurement of control force and rate of movement. For 
each axis of pitch, roll, and yaw, the control must be forced to its 
maximum extreme position for the following distinct rates. These tests 
are conducted under normal flight and ground conditions.
    (a) Static test--Slowly move the control so that a full sweep is 
achieved within 95-105 seconds. A full sweep is defined as movement of 
the controller from neutral to the stop, usually aft or right stop, then 
to the opposite stop, then to the neutral position.
    (b) Slow dynamic test--Achieve a full sweep within 8-12 seconds.
    (c) Fast dynamic test--Achieve a full sweep in within 3-5 seconds.
    Note: Dynamic sweeps may be limited to forces not exceeding 100 lbs. 
(44.5 daN).
    (d) Tolerances
    (i) Static test--see Table C2A, FFS Objective Tests, Entries 2.a.1., 
2.a.2., and 2.a.3.
    (ii) Dynamic test--2 lbs (0.9 daN) or 10% on dynamic increment above static test.

                           End QPS Requirement

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    d. The FAA is open to alternative means that are justified and 
appropriate to the application. For example, the method described here 
may not apply to all manufacturers systems and certainly not to aircraft 
with reversible control systems. Each case is considered on its own 
merit on an ad hoc basis. If the FAA finds that alternative methods do 
not result in satisfactory performance, more conventionally accepted 
methods will have to be used.

[[Page 271]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.034

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                              5. [Reserved]

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                            6. Motion System.

    a. General.
    (1) Pilots use continuous information signals to regulate the state 
of the helicopter. In concert with the instruments and outside-world 
visual information, whole-body motion feedback is essential in assisting 
the pilot to

[[Page 272]]

control the helicopter dynamics, particularly in the presence of 
external disturbances. The motion system should meet basic objective 
performance criteria, and be subjectively tuned at the pilot's seat 
position to represent the linear and angular accelerations of the 
helicopter during a prescribed minimum set of maneuvers and conditions. 
The response of the motion cueing system should be repeatable.
    (2) The Motion System tests in Section 3 of Table C2A are intended 
to qualify the FFS motion cueing system from a mechanical performance 
standpoint. Additionally, the list of motion effects provides a 
representative sample of dynamic conditions that should be present in 
the flight simulator. An additional list of representative, training-
critical maneuvers, selected from Section 1, (Performance tests) and 
Section 2, (Handling Qualities tests) in Table C2A, that should be 
recorded during initial qualification (but without tolerance) to 
indicate the flight simulator motion cueing performance signature have 
been identified (reference Section 3.e). These tests are intended to 
help improve the overall standard of FFS motion cueing.
    b. Motion System Checks. The intent of test 3a, Frequency Response, 
test 3b, Leg Balance, and test 3c, Turn-Around Check, as described in 
the Table of Objective Tests, is to demonstrate the performance of the 
motion system hardware, and to check the integrity of the motion set-up 
with regard to calibration and wear. These tests are independent of the 
motion cueing software and should be considered robotic tests.
    c. Motion System Repeatability. The intent of this test is to ensure 
that the motion system software and motion system hardware have not 
degraded or changed over time. This diagnostic test should be completed 
during continuing qualification checks in lieu of the robotic tests. 
This will allow an improved ability to determine changes in the software 
or determine degradation in the hardware. The following information 
delineates the methodology that should be used for this test.
    (1) Input: The inputs should be such that rotational accelerations, 
rotational rates, and linear accelerations are inserted before the 
transfer from helicopter center of gravity to pilot reference point with 
a minimum amplitude of 5 deg/sec/sec, 10 deg/sec and 0.3 g, 
respectively, to provide adequate analysis of the output.
    (2) Recommended output:
    (a) Actual platform linear accelerations; the output will comprise 
accelerations due to both the linear and rotational motion acceleration;
    (b) Motion actuators position.
    d. Motion Cueing Performance Signature.
    (1) Background. The intent of this test is to provide quantitative 
time history records of motion system response to a selected set of 
automated QTG maneuvers during initial qualification. It is not intended 
to be a comparison of the motion platform accelerations against the 
flight test recorded accelerations (i.e., not to be compared against 
helicopter cueing). If there is a modification to the initially 
qualified motion software or motion hardware (e.g., motion washout 
filter, simulator payload change greater than 10%) then a new baseline 
may need to be established.
    (2) Test Selection. The conditions identified in Section 3.e. in 
Table C2A are those maneuvers where motion cueing is the most 
discernible. They are general tests applicable to all types of 
helicopters and should be completed for motion cueing performance 
signature at any time acceptable to the NSPM prior to or during the 
initial qualification evaluation, and the results included in the MQTG.
    (3) Priority. Motion system should be designed with the intent of 
placing greater importance on those maneuvers that directly influence 
pilot perception and control of the helicopter motions. For the 
maneuvers identified in section 3.e. in Table C2A, the flight simulator 
motion cueing system should have a high tilt co-ordination gain, high 
rotational gain, and high correlation with respect to the helicopter 
simulation model.
    (4) Data Recording. The minimum list of parameters provided should 
allow for the determination of the flight simulator's motion cueing 
performance signature for the initial qualification evaluation. The 
following parameters are recommended as being acceptable to perform such 
a function:
    (a) Flight model acceleration and rotational rate commands at the 
pilot reference point;
    (b) Motion actuators position;
    (c) Actual platform position;
    (d) Actual platform acceleration at pilot reference point.
    e. Motion Vibrations.
    (1) Presentation of results. The characteristic motion vibrations 
may be used to verify that the flight simulator can reproduce the 
frequency content of the helicopter when flown in specific conditions. 
The test results should be presented as a Power Spectral Density (PSD) 
plot with frequencies on the horizontal axis and amplitude on the 
vertical axis. The helicopter data and flight simulator data should be 
presented in the same format with the same scaling. The algorithms used 
for generating the flight simulator data should be the same as those 
used for the helicopter data. If they are not the same then the 
algorithms used for the flight simulator data should be proven to be 
sufficiently comparable. As a minimum the results along the dominant 
axes should be presented and a rationale for not presenting the other 
axes should be provided.
    (2) Interpretation of results. The overall trend of the PSD plot 
should be considered

[[Page 273]]

while focusing on the dominant frequencies. Less emphasis should be 
placed on the differences at the high frequency and low amplitude 
portions of the PSD plot. During the analysis, certain structural 
components of the flight simulator have resonant frequencies that are 
filtered and may not appear in the PSD plot. If filtering is required, 
the notch filter bandwidth should be limited to 1 Hz to ensure that the 
buffet feel is not adversely affected. In addition, a rationale should 
be provided to explain that the characteristic motion vibration is not 
being adversely affected by the filtering. The amplitude should match 
helicopter data as described below. However, if the PSD plot was altered 
for subjective reasons, a rationale should be provided to justify the 
change. If the plot is on a logarithmic scale it may be difficult to 
interpret the amplitude of the buffet in terms of acceleration. For 
example, a 1x10-3 g-rms\2\/Hz would describe a heavy buffet 
and may be seen in the deep stall regime. Alternatively, a 
1x10-6 g-rms\2\/Hz buffet is almost imperceptable, but may 
represent a flap buffet at low speed. The previous two examples differ 
in magnitude by 1000. On a PSD plot this represents three decades (one 
decade is a change in order of magnitude of 10, and two decades is a 
change in order of magnitude of 100).
    Note: In the example, ``g-rms\2\'' is the mathematical expression 
for ``g's root mean squared.''
    f. Table C2B, Motion System Recommendations for Level C and Level D 
Helicopter Simulators, contains a description of the parameters that 
should be present in simulator motion systems to provide adequate onset 
motion cues to helicopter pilots. The information provided covers the 
six axes of motion (pitch, roll, yaw, vertical, lateral, and 
longitudinal) and addresses displacement, velocity, and acceleration. 
Also included is information about the parameters for initial rotational 
and linear acceleration. The parameters listed in this table apply only 
to Level C and Level D simulators, and are presented here as recommended 
targets for motion system capability. They are not requirements.

    Table C2B--Motion System Recommendations for Level C and Level D
                          Helicopter Simulators
------------------------------------------------------------------------
 
------------------------------------------------------------------------
a..........                     Motion System Envelope
a.1........  Pitch
a.1.a......  Displacement....  25[deg]
a.1.b......  Velocity........  20[deg]/sec
a.1.c......  Acceleration....  100[deg]/sec\2\
a.2........  Roll
a.2.a......  Displacement....  25[deg]
a.2.b......  Velocity........  20[deg]/sec
a.2.c......  Acceleration....  100[deg]/sec\2\
a.3........  Yaw
a.3.a......  Displacement....  25[deg]
a.3.b......  Velocity--......  20[deg]/sec
a.3.c......  Acceleration....  100[deg]/sec\2\
a.4........  Vertical
a.4.a......  Displacement....  34 in.
a.4.b......  Velocity........  24 in.
a.4.c......  Acceleration....  0.8 g.
a.5........  Lateral
a.5.a......  Displacement....  45 in.
a.5.b......  Velocity........  28 in/sec.
a.5.c......  Acceleration....  0.6 g.
a.6........  Longitudinal
a.6.a......  Displacement....  34 in.
a.6.b......  Velocity........  28 in/sec.
a.6.c......  Acceleration....  0.6 g.
a.7........  Initial Rotational Acceleration Ratio.
                               All axes 300[deg]/ sec\2\/sec
a.8........  Initial Linear Acceleration Ratio.
a.8.a......  Vertical........  6g/sec
a.8.b......  Lateral.........  3g/sec
a.8.c......  Longitudinal....  3g/sec
------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 274]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.035

                             7. Sound System

    a. General. The total sound environment in the helicopter is very 
complex, and changes with atmospheric conditions, helicopter 
configuration, airspeed, altitude, and power settings. Flight deck 
sounds are an important component of the flight deck operational 
environment and provide valuable information

[[Page 275]]

to the flight crew. These aural cues can either assist the crew (as an 
indication of an abnormal situation), or hinder the crew (as a 
distraction or nuisance). For effective training, the flight simulator 
should provide flight deck sounds that are perceptible to the pilot 
during normal and abnormal operations, and that are comparable to those 
of the helicopter. The flight simulator operator should carefully 
evaluate background noises in the location where the device will be 
installed. To demonstrate compliance with the sound requirements, the 
objective or validation tests in this attachment were selected to 
provide a representative sample of normal static conditions typically 
experienced by a pilot.
    b. Alternate propulsion. For FFS with multiple propulsion 
configurations, any condition listed in Table C2A in this attachment 
should be presented for evaluation as part of the QTG if identified by 
the helicopter manufacturer or other data supplier as significantly 
different due to a change in propulsion system (engine or propeller).
    c. Data and Data Collection System.
    (1) Information provided to the flight simulator manufacturer should 
comply be presented in the format suggested by the ``International Air 
Transport Association (IATA) Flight Simulator Design and Performance 
Data Requirements,'' as amended. This information should contain 
calibration and frequency response data.
    (2) The system used to perform the tests listed in Table C2A should 
comply with the following standards:
    (a) The specifications for octave, half octave, and third octave 
band filter sets may be found in American National Standards Institute 
(ANSI) S1.11-1986.
    (b) Measurement microphones should be type WS2 or better, as 
described in International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) 1094-4-
1995.
    (3) Headsets. If headsets are used during normal operation of the 
helicopter they should also be used during the flight simulator 
evaluation.
    (4) Playback equipment. Playback equipment and recordings of the QTG 
conditions should be provided during initial evaluations.
    (5) Background noise.
    (a) Background noise is the noise in the flight simulator that is 
not associated with the helicopter, but is caused by the flight 
simulator's cooling and hydraulic systems and extraneous noise from 
other locations in the building. Background noise can seriously impact 
the correct simulation of helicopter sounds, and should be kept below 
the helicopter sounds. In some cases, the sound level of the simulation 
can be increased to compensate for the background noise. However, this 
approach is limited by the specified tolerances and by the subjective 
acceptability of the sound environment to the evaluation pilot.
    (b) The acceptability of the background noise levels is dependent 
upon the normal sound levels in the helicopter being represented. 
Background noise levels that fall below the lines defined by the 
following points, may be acceptable:
    (i) 70 dB @ 50 Hz;
    (ii) 55 dB @ 1000 Hz;
    (iii) 30 dB @ 16 kHz.
    (Note: These limits are for unweighted 1/3 octave band sound levels. 
Meeting these limits for background noise does not ensure an acceptable 
flight simulator. Helicopter sounds that fall below this limit require 
careful review and may require lower limits on background noise.)
    (6) Validation testing. Deficiencies in helicopter recordings should 
be considered when applying the specified tolerances to ensure that the 
simulation is representative of the helicopter. Examples of typical 
deficiencies are:
    (a) Variation of data between tail numbers.
    (b) Frequency response of microphones.
    (c) Repeatability of the measurements.

                Table C2C--Example of Continuing Qualification Frequency Response Test Tolerance
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                                    Continuing
                                                                      Initial      qualification     Absolute
                      Band center frequency                           results         results       difference
                                                                      (dBSPL)         (dBSPL)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
50..............................................................            75.0            73.8             1.2
63..............................................................            75.9            75.6             0.3
80..............................................................            77.1            76.5             0.6
100.............................................................            78.0            78.3             0.3
125.............................................................            81.9            81.3             0.6
160.............................................................            79.8            80.1             0.3
200.............................................................            83.1            84.9             1.8
250.............................................................            78.6            78.9             0.3
315.............................................................            79.5            78.3             1.2
400.............................................................            80.1            79.5             0.9
500.............................................................            80.7            79.8             0.9
630.............................................................            81.9            80.4             1.5
800.............................................................            73.2            74.1             0.9
1000............................................................            79.2            80.1             0.9
1250............................................................            80.7            82.8             2.1

[[Page 276]]

 
1600............................................................            81.6            78.6             3.0
2000............................................................            76.2            74.4             1.8
2500............................................................            79.5            80.7             1.2
3150............................................................            80.1            77.1             3.0
4000............................................................            78.9            78.6             0.3
5000............................................................            80.1            77.1             3.0
6300............................................................            80.7            80.4             0.3
8000............................................................            84.3            85.5             1.2
10000...........................................................            81.3            79.8             1.5
12500...........................................................            80.7            80.1             0.6
16000...........................................................            71.1            71.1             0.0
                                                                 -----------------------------------------------
                                                                              Average                        1.1
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

 8. Additional Information About Flight Simulator Qualification for New 
                        or Derivative Helicopters

    a. Typically, a helicopter manufacturer's approved final data for 
performance, handling qualities, systems or avionics is not available 
until well after a new or derivative helicopter has entered service. 
However, flight crew training and certification often begins several 
months prior to the entry of the first helicopter into service. 
Consequently, it may be necessary to use preliminary data provided by 
the helicopter manufacturer for interim qualification of flight 
simulators.
    b. In these cases, the NSPM may accept certain partially validated 
preliminary helicopter and systems data, and early release (``red 
label'') avionics data in order to permit the necessary program schedule 
for training, certification, and service introduction.
    c. Simulator sponsors seeking qualification based on preliminary 
data should consult the NSPM to make special arrangements for using 
preliminary data for flight simulator qualification. The sponsor should 
also consult the helicopter and flight simulator manufacturers to 
develop a data plan and flight simulator qualification plan.
    d. The procedure to be followed to gain NSPM acceptance of 
preliminary data will vary from case to case and between helicopter 
manufacturers. Each helicopter manufacturer's new helicopter development 
and test program is designed to suit the needs of the particular project 
and may not contain the same events or sequence of events as another 
manufacturer's program or even the same manufacturer's program for a 
different helicopter. Therefore, there cannot be a prescribed invariable 
procedure for acceptance of preliminary data; instead there should be a 
statement describing the final sequence of events, data sources, and 
validation procedures agreed by the simulator sponsor, the helicopter 
manufacturer, the flight simulator manufacturer, and the NSPM.
    Note: A description of helicopter manufacturer-provided data needed 
for flight simulator modeling and validation is to be found in the 
``Royal Aeronautical Society Data Package Requirements for Design and 
Performance Evaluation of Rotary Wing Synthetic Training Devices.''
    e. The preliminary data should be the manufacturer's best 
representation of the helicopter, with assurance that the final data 
will not deviate significantly from the preliminary estimates. Data 
derived from these predictive or preliminary techniques should be 
validated by available sources including, at least, the following:
    (1) Manufacturer's engineering report. The report should explain the 
predictive method used and illustrate past success of the method on 
similar projects. For example, the manufacturer could show the 
application of the method to an earlier helicopter model or predict the 
characteristics of an earlier model and compare the results to final 
data for that model.
    (2) Early flight test results. This data is often derived from 
helicopter certification tests and should be used to maximum advantage 
for early flight simulator validation. Certain critical tests that would 
normally be done early in the helicopter certification program should be 
included to validate essential pilot training and certification 
maneuvers. These tests include cases where a pilot is expected to cope 
with a helicopter failure mode or an engine failure. The early data 
available will depend on the helicopter manufacturer's flight test 
program design and may not be the same in each case. The flight test 
program of the helicopter manufacturer should include provisions for 
generation of very early flight tests results for flight simulator 
validation.

[[Page 277]]

    f. The use of preliminary data is not indefinite. The helicopter 
manufacturer's final data should be available within 12 months after the 
helicopter first entry into service or as agreed by the NSPM, the 
simulator sponsor, and the helicopter manufacturer. When applying for 
interim qualification using preliminary data, the simulator sponsor and 
the NSPM should agree on the update program. This includes specifying 
that the final data update will be installed in the flight simulator 
within a period of 12 months following the final data release, unless 
special conditions exist and a different schedule is acceptable. The 
flight simulator performance and handling validation would then be based 
on data derived from flight tests. Initial helicopter systems data 
should be updated after engineering tests. Final helicopter systems data 
should also be used for flight simulator programming and validation.
    g. Flight simulator avionics should stay essentially in step with 
helicopter avionics (hardware and software) updates. The permitted time 
lapse between helicopter and flight simulator updates should be minimal. 
It may depend on the magnitude of the update and whether the QTG and 
pilot training and certification are affected. Differences in helicopter 
and flight simulator avionics versions and the resulting effects on 
flight simulator qualification should be agreed between the simulator 
sponsor and the NSPM. Consultation with the flight simulator 
manufacturer is desirable throughout the qualification process.
    h. The following describes an example of the design data and sources 
that might be used in the development of an interim qualification plan.
    (1) The plan should consist of the development of a QTG based upon a 
mix of flight test and engineering simulation data. For data collected 
from specific helicopter flight tests or other flights the required 
design model or data changes necessary to support an acceptable Proof of 
Match (POM) should be generated by the helicopter manufacturer.
    (2) For proper validation of the two sets of data, the helicopter 
manufacturer should compare their simulation model responses against the 
flight test data, when driven by the same control inputs and subjected 
to the same atmospheric conditions as recorded in the flight test. The 
model responses should result from a simulation where the following 
systems are run in an integrated fashion and are consistent with the 
design data released to the flight simulator manufacturer:
    (a) Propulsion.
    (b) Aerodynamics.
    (c) Mass properties.
    (d) Flight controls.
    (e) Stability augmentation.
    (f) Brakes/landing gear.
    i. A qualified test pilot should be used to assess handling 
qualities and performance evaluations for the qualification of flight 
simulators of new helicopter types.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

                9. Engineering Simulator--Validation Data

    a. When a fully validated simulation (i.e., validated with flight 
test results) is modified due to changes to the simulated helicopter 
configuration, the helicopter manufacturer or other acceptable data 
supplier must coordinate with the NSPM to supply validation data from an 
``audited'' engineering simulator/simulation to selectively supplement 
flight test data. The NSPM must be provided an opportunity to audit the 
use of the engineering simulation or the engineering simulator during 
the acquisition of the data that will be used as validation data. 
Audited data may be used for changes that are incremental in nature. 
Manufacturers or other data suppliers must be able to demonstrate that 
the predicted changes in helicopter performance are based on acceptable 
aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid outcomes. 
This must include comparisons of predicted and flight test validated 
data.
    b. Helicopter manufacturers or other acceptable data suppliers 
seeking to use an engineering simulator for simulation validation data 
as an alternative to flight-test derived validation data, must contact 
the NSPM and provide the following:
    (1) A description of the proposed aircraft changes, a description of 
the proposed simulation model changes, and the use of an integral 
configuration management process, including an audit of the actual 
simulation model modifications that includes a step-by-step description 
leading from the original model(s) to the current model(s).
    (2) A schedule for review by the NSPM of the proposed plan and the 
subsequent validation data to establish acceptability of the proposal.
    (3) Validation data from an audited engineering simulator/simulation 
to supplement specific segments of the flight test data.
    c. To be qualified to supply engineering simulator validation data, 
for aerodynamic, engine, flight control, or ground handling models, a 
helicopter manufacturer or other acceptable data supplier must:
    (1) Be able to verify their ability to:
    (a) Develop and implement high fidelity simulation models; and
    (b) Predict the handling and performance characteristics of a 
helicopter with sufficient accuracy to avoid additional flight test

[[Page 278]]

activities for those handling and performance characteristics.
    (2) Have an engineering simulator that:
    (a) Is a physical entity, complete with a flight deck representative 
of the simulated class of helicopter;
    (b) Has controls sufficient for manual flight;
    (c) Has models that run in an integrated manner;
    (d) Had fully flight-test validated simulation models as the 
original or baseline simulation models;
    (e) Has an out-of-the-flight deck visual system;
    (f) Has actual avionics boxes interchangeable with the equivalent 
software simulations to support validation of released software;
    (g) Uses the same models as released to the training community 
(which are also used to produce stand-alone proof-of-match and checkout 
documents);
    (h) Is used to support helicopter development and certification; and
    (i) Has been found to be a high fidelity representation of the 
helicopter by the manufacturer's pilots (or other acceptable data 
supplier), certificate holders, and the NSPM.
    (3) Use the engineering simulator to produce a representative set of 
integrated proof-of-match cases.
    (4) Use a configuration control system covering hardware and 
software for the operating components of the engineering simulator.
    (5) Demonstrate that the predicted effects of the change(s) are 
within the provisions of sub-paragraph ``a'' of this section, and 
confirm that additional flight test data are not required.
    d. Additional Requirements for Validation Data
    (1) When used to provide validation data, an engineering simulator 
must meet the simulator standards currently applicable to training 
simulators except for the data package.
    (2) The data package used must be:
    (a) Comprised of the engineering predictions derived from the 
helicopter design, development, or certification process;
    (b) Based on acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success 
history and valid outcomes for aerodynamics, engine operations, avionics 
operations, flight control applications, or ground handling;
    (c) Verified with existing flight-test data; and
    (d) Applicable to the configuration of a production helicopter, as 
opposed to a flight-test helicopter.
    (3) Where engineering simulator data are used as part of a QTG, an 
essential match must exist between the training simulator and the 
validation data.
    (4) Training flight simulator(s) using these baseline and modified 
simulation models must be qualified to at least internationally 
recognized standards, such as contained in the ICAO Document 9625, the 
``Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators.''

                           End QPS Requirement

________________________________________________________________________

                             10. [Reserved]

                     11. Validation Test Tolerances

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. Non-Flight-Test Tolerances. If engineering simulator data or 
other non-flight-test data are used as an allowable form of reference 
validation data for the objective tests listed in Table C2A of this 
attachment, the data provider must supply a well-documented mathematical 
model and testing procedure that enables a replication of the 
engineering simulation results within 20% of the corresponding flight 
test tolerances.
    b. Background
    (1) The tolerances listed in Table C2A of this attachment are 
designed to measure the quality of the match using flight-test data as a 
reference.
    (2) Good engineering judgment should be applied to all tolerances in 
any test. A test is failed when the results fall outside of the 
prescribed tolerance(s).
    (3) Engineering simulator data are acceptable because the same 
simulation models used to produce the reference data are also used to 
test the flight training simulator (i.e., the two sets of results should 
be ``essentially'' similar).
    (4) The results from the two sources may differ for the following 
reasons:
    (a) Hardware (avionics units and flight controls);
    (b) Iteration rates;
    (c) Execution order;
    (d) Integration methods;
    (e) Processor architecture;
    (f) Digital drift, including:
    (i) Interpolation methods;
    (ii) Data handling differences;
    (iii) Auto-test trim tolerances.
    (5) The tolerance limit between the reference data and the flight 
simulator results is generally 20% of the corresponding ``flight-test'' 
tolerances. However, there may be cases where the simulator models used 
are of higher fidelity, or the manner in which they are cascaded in the 
integrated testing loop have the effect of a higher fidelity, than those 
supplied by the data provider. Under these circumstances, it is possible 
that an error greater than 20% may be generated. An error greater than 
20% may be acceptable if

[[Page 279]]

the simulator sponsor can provide an adequate explanation.
    (6) Guidelines are needed for the application of tolerances to 
engineering-simulator-generated validation data because:
    (a) Flight-test data are often not available due to sound technical 
reasons;
    (b) Alternative technical solutions are being advanced; and
    (c) The costs are high.

                       12. Validation Data Roadmap

    a. Helicopter manufacturers or other data suppliers should supply a 
validation data roadmap (VDR) document as part of the data package. A 
VDR document contains guidance material from the helicopter validation 
data supplier recommending the best possible sources of data to be used 
as validation data in the QTG. A VDR is of special value when requesting 
interim qualification, qualification of simulators for helicopters 
certificated prior to 1992, and qualification of alternate engine or 
avionics fits. A sponsor seeking to have a device qualified in 
accordance with the standards contained in this QPS appendix should 
submit a VDR to the NSPM as early as possible in the planning stages. 
The NSPM is the final authority to approve the data to be used as 
validation material for the QTG. The NSPM and the Joint Aviation 
Authorities' Synthetic Training Devices Advisory Board have committed to 
maintain a list of agreed VDRs.
    b. The VDR should identify (in matrix format) sources of data for 
all required tests. It should also provide guidance regarding the 
validity of these data for a specific engine type, thrust rating 
configuration, and the revision levels of all avionics affecting 
helicopter handling qualities and performance. The VDR should include 
rationale or explanation in cases where data or parameters are missing, 
engineering simulation data are to be used, flight test methods require 
explanation, or where there is any deviation from data requirements. 
Additionally, the document should refer to other appropriate sources of 
validation data (e.g., sound and vibration data documents).
    c. The Sample Validation Data Roadmap (VDR) for helicopters, shown 
in Table C2D, depicts a generic roadmap matrix identifying sources of 
validation data for an abbreviated list of tests. This sample document 
uses fixed wing parameters instead of helicopter values. It is merely a 
sample and does not provide actual data. A complete matrix should 
address all test conditions for helicopter application and provide 
actual data and data sources.
    d. Two examples of rationale pages are presented in Appendix F of 
IATA Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements document. 
These illustrate the type of helicopter and avionics configuration 
information and descriptive engineering rationale used to describe data 
anomalies or provide an acceptable basis for using alternative data for 
QTG validation requirements.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

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[[Page 281]]



                            Begin Information

________________________________________________________________________

                             13. [Reserved]

   14. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics (Flight-Related 
                       Computers and Controllers)

                              a. Background

    (1) For a new helicopter type, the majority of flight validation 
data are collected on the first helicopter configuration with a 
``baseline'' flight-related avionics ship-set; (see subparagraph b.(2) 
of this section). These data are then used to validate all flight 
simulators representing that helicopter type.
    (2) Additional validation data may be needed for flight simulators 
representing a helicopter with avionics of a different hardware design 
than the baseline, or a different software revision than that of 
previously validated configurations.
    (3) When a flight simulator with additional or alternate avionics 
configurations is to be qualified, the QTG should contain tests against 
validation data for selected cases where avionics differences are 
expected to be significant.

        b. Approval Guidelines For Validating Alternate Avionics

    (1) The following guidelines apply to flight simulators representing 
helicopters with a revised avionics configuration, or more than one 
avionics configuration.
    (2) The baseline validation data should be based on flight test 
data, except where other data are specifically allowed (e.g., 
engineering flight simulator data).
    (3) The helicopter avionics can be segmented into two groups, 
systems or components whose functional behavior contributes to the 
aircraft response presented in the QTG results, and systems that do not. 
The following avionics are examples of contributory systems for which 
hardware design changes or software revisions may lead to significant 
differences in the aircraft response relative to the baseline avionics 
configuration: Flight control computers and controllers for engines, 
autopilot, braking system, and nosewheel steering system, if applicable. 
Related avionics such as augmentation systems should also be considered.
    (4) The acceptability of validation data used in the QTG for an 
alternative avionics fit should be determined as follows:
    (a) For changes to an avionics system or component that do not 
affect QTG validation test response, the QTG test can be based on 
validation data from the previously validated avionics configuration.
    (b) For an avionics change to a contributory system, where a 
specific test is not affected by the change (e.g., the avionics change 
is a Built In Test Equipment (BITE) update or a modification in a 
different flight phase), the QTG test can be based on validation data 
from the previously-validated avionics configuration. The QTG should 
include authoritative justification (e.g., from the helicopter 
manufacturer or system supplier) that this avionics change does not 
affect the test.
    (c) For an avionics change to a contributory system, the QTG may be 
based on validation data from the previously-validated avionics 
configuration if no new functionality is added and the impact of the 
avionics change on the helicopter response is based on acceptable 
aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid outcomes. 
This should be supplemented with avionics-specific validation data from 
the helicopter manufacturer's engineering simulation, generated with the 
revised avionics configuration. The QTG should include an explanation of 
the nature of the change and its effect on the helicopter response.
    (d) For an avionics change to a contributory system that 
significantly affects some tests in the QTG, or where new functionality 
is added, the QTG should be based on validation data from the previously 
validated avionics configuration and supplemental avionics-specific 
flight test data sufficient to validate the alternate avionics revision. 
Additional flight test validation data may not be needed if the avionics 
changes were certified without the need for testing with a comprehensive 
flight instrumentation package. The helicopter manufacturer should 
coordinate flight simulator data requirements in advance with the NSPM.
    (5) A matrix or ``roadmap'' should be provided with the QTG 
indicating the appropriate validation data source for each test. The 
roadmap should include identification of the revision state of those 
contributory avionics systems that could affect specific test responses.

                       15. Transport Delay Testing

    a. This paragraph describes how to determine the introduced 
transport delay through the flight simulator system so that it does not 
exceed a specific time delay. The transport delay should be measured 
from control inputs through the interface, through each of the host 
computer modules and back through the interface to motion, flight 
instrument, and visual systems. The transport delay should not exceed 
the maximum allowable interval.
    b. Four specific examples of transport delay are:
    (1) Simulation of classic non-computer controlled aircraft;
    (2) Simulation of Computer Controlled Aircraft using real helicopter 
black boxes;

[[Page 282]]

    (3) Simulation of Computer Controlled Aircraft using software 
emulation of helicopter boxes;
    (4) Simulation using software avionics or rehosted instruments.
    c. Figure C2C illustrates the total transport delay for a non-
computer-controlled helicopter or the classic transport delay test. 
Since there are no helicopter-induced delays for this case, the total 
transport delay is equivalent to the introduced delay.
    d. Figure C2D illustrates the transport delay testing method using 
the real helicopter controller system.
    e. To obtain the induced transport delay for the motion, instrument 
and visual signal, the delay induced by the helicopter controller should 
be subtracted from the total transport delay. This difference represents 
the introduced delay and should not exceed the standards prescribed in 
Table C1A.
    f. Introduced transport delay is measured from the flight deck 
control input to the reaction of the instruments and motion and visual 
systems (See Figure C2C).
    g. The control input may also be introduced after the helicopter 
controller system input and the introduced transport delay may be 
measured directly from the control input to the reaction of the 
instruments, and simulator motion and visual systems (See Figure C2D).
    h. Figure C2E illustrates the transport delay testing method used on 
a flight simulator that uses a software emulated helicopter controller 
system.
    i. It is not possible to measure the introduced transport delay 
using the simulated helicopter controller system architecture for the 
pitch, roll and yaw axes. Therefore, the signal should be measured 
directly from the pilot controller. The flight simulator manufacturer 
should measure the total transport delay and subtract the inherent delay 
of the actual helicopter components because the real helicopter 
controller system has an inherent delay provided by the helicopter 
manufacturer. The flight simulator manufacturer should ensure that the 
introduced delay does not exceed the standards prescribed in Table C1A.
    j. Special measurements for instrument signals for flight simulators 
using a real helicopter instrument display system instead of a simulated 
or re-hosted display. For flight instrument systems, the total transport 
delay should be measured and the inherent delay of the actual helicopter 
components subtracted to ensure that the introduced delay does not 
exceed the standards prescribed in Table C1A.
    (1) Figure C2FA illustrates the transport delay procedure without 
helicopter display simulation. The introduced delay consists of the 
delay between the control movement and the instrument change on the data 
bus.
    (2) Figure C2FB illustrates the modified testing method required to 
measure introduced delay due to software avionics or re-hosted 
instruments. The total simulated instrument transport delay is measured 
and the helicopter delay should be subtracted from this total. This 
difference represents the introduced delay and should not exceed the 
standards prescribed in Table C1A. The inherent delay of the helicopter 
between the data bus and the displays is indicated in figure C2FA. The 
display manufacturer should provide this delay time.
    k. Recorded signals. The signals recorded to conduct the transport 
delay calculations should be explained on a schematic block diagram. The 
flight simulator manufacturer should also provide an explanation of why 
each signal was selected and how they relate to the above descriptions.
    l. Interpretation of results. Flight simulator results vary over 
time from test to test due to ``sampling uncertainty.'' All flight 
simulators run at a specific rate where all modules are executed 
sequentially in the host computer. The flight controls input can occur 
at any time in the iteration, but these data will not be processed 
before the start of the new iteration. For example, a flight simulator 
running at 60 Hz may have a difference of as much as 16.67 msec between 
results. This does not mean that the test has failed. Instead, the 
difference is attributed to variation in input processing. In some 
conditions, the host simulator and the visual system do not run at the 
same iteration rate, so the output of the host computer to the visual 
system will not always be synchronized.
    m. The transport delay test should account for both daylight and 
night modes of operation of the visual system. In both cases, the 
tolerances prescribed in Table C1A should be met and the motion response 
should occur before the end of the first video scan containing new 
information.

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[[Page 284]]


[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.038

     16. Continuing Qualification Evaluations--Validation Test Data 
                              Presentation

                              a. Background

    (1) The MQTG is created during the initial evaluation of a flight 
simulator. This is the master document, as amended, to which flight 
simulator continuing qualification evaluation test results are compared.
    (2) The currently accepted method of presenting continuing 
qualification evaluation test results is to provide flight simulator 
results over-plotted with reference data. Test results are carefully 
reviewed to determine if the test is within the specified tolerances. 
This can be a time consuming process, particularly when reference data 
exhibits rapid variations or an apparent anomaly requiring engineering 
judgment in the application of

[[Page 285]]

the tolerances. In these cases, the solution is to compare the results 
to the MQTG. The continuing qualification results are compared to the 
results in the MQTG for acceptance. The flight simulator operator and 
the NSPM should look for any change in the flight simulator performance 
since initial qualification.

    b. Continuing Qualification Evaluation Test Results Presentation

    (1) Flight simulator operators are encouraged to over-plot 
continuing qualification validation test results with MQTG flight 
simulator results recorded during the initial evaluation and as amended. 
Any change in a validation test will be readily apparent. In addition to 
plotting continuing qualification validation test and MQTG results, 
operators may elect to plot reference data.
    (2) There are no suggested tolerances between flight simulator 
continuing qualification and MQTG validation test results. Investigation 
of any discrepancy between the MQTG and continuing qualification flight 
simulator performance is left to the discretion of the flight simulator 
operator and the NSPM.
    (3) Differences between the two sets of results, other than 
variations attributable to repeatability issues that cannot be explained 
should be investigated.
    (4) The flight simulator should retain the ability to over-plot both 
automatic and manual validation test results with reference data.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

 17. Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation: Level B 
                             Simulators Only

    a. Sponsors are not required to use the alternative data sources, 
procedures, and instrumentation. However, any sponsor choosing to use 
alternative sources must comply with the requirements in Table C2E.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    b. It has become standard practice for experienced simulator 
manufacturers to use such techniques as a means of establishing data 
bases for new simulator configurations while awaiting the availability 
of actual flight test data. The data generated from the aerodynamic 
modeling techniques is then compared to the flight test data when it 
becomes available. The results of such comparisons have become 
increasingly consistent, indicating that these techniques, applied with 
appropriate experience, are dependable and accurate for the development 
of aerodynamic models for use in Level B simulators.
    c. Based on this history of successful comparisons, the NSPM has 
concluded that those who are experienced in the development of 
aerodynamic models for simulator application can successfully use these 
modeling techniques to alter the method for acquiring flight test data 
for Level B simulators.
    d. The information in Table C2E (Alternative Data Sources, 
Procedures, and Information) is presented to describe an acceptable 
alternative to data sources for simulator modeling and validation and an 
acceptable alternative to the procedures and instrumentation 
traditionally used to gather such modeling and validation data.
    (1) Alternative data sources that may be used for part or all of a 
data requirement are the Helicopter Maintenance Manual, the Rotorcraft 
Flight Manual (RFM), Helicopter Design Data, the Type Inspection Report 
(TIR), Certification Data or acceptable supplemental flight test data.
    (2) The sponsor should coordinate with the NSPM prior to using 
alternative data sources in a flight test or data gathering effort.
    e. The NSPM position on the use of these alternative data sources, 
procedures, and instrumentation is based on the use of a rigorously 
defined and fully mature simulation controls system model that includes 
accurate gearing and cable stretch characteristics (where applicable), 
determined from actual aircraft measurements. The model does not require 
control surface position measurements in the flight test objective data 
in these limited applications.
    f. Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and 
a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments, including 
the inclinometer; the force/position measurements of flight deck 
controls; and a clear visual directional reference for a known magnetic 
bearing (e.g., a runway centerline). Ground track and wind corrected 
heading may be used for sideslip angle.
    g. The sponsor is urged to contact the NSPM for clarification of any 
issue regarding helicopters with reversible control systems. This table 
is not applicable to Computer Controlled Aircraft flight simulators.
    h. Use of these alternate data sources, procedures, and 
instrumentation does not relieve the sponsor from compliance with the 
balance of the information contained in this document relative to Level 
B FFSs.
    i. The term ``inertial measurement system'' is used in table C2E 
includes the use of a functional global positioning system (GPS).
    j. Synchronized video for the use of alternative data sources, 
procedures, and instrumentation should have:

[[Page 286]]

    (1) sufficient resolution to allow magnification of the display to 
make appropriate measurement and comparisons; and
    (2) sufficient size and incremental marking to allow similar 
measurement and comparison. The detail provided by the video should 
provide sufficient clarity and accuracy to measure the necessary 
parameter(s) to at least \1/2\ of the tolerance authorized for the 
specific test being conducted and allow an integration of the 
parameter(s) in question to obtain a rate of change.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                      Table C2E--Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation
 [The standards in this table are required if the data gathering methods described in paragraph 9 of Appendix C
                                                  are not used]
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                    QPS requirements                                           Information
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Table of objective tests
--------------------------------------  Level By only      Alternative data sources,              Notes
     Test entry number and title                        procedures, and instrumentation
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1.a. Performance. Engine Start                 X   Data may be acquired using a
 and Accelerations.                                     synchronized video recording of
                                                        all engine instruments, start
                                                        buttons, means for fuel
                                                        introduction and means for
                                                        moving from ``idle'' to
                                                        ``flight.'' A stopwatch is
                                                        necessary.
1.a.1.b. Performance. Steady State                 X   Data may be acquired using a
 Idle and Operating RPM Conditions.                     synchronized video recording of
                                                        all engine instruments, and
                                                        include the status of the means
                                                        for moving from ``idle'' to
                                                        ``flight.''.
1.a.2. Performance. Power Turbine                  X   Data may be acquired using a
 Speed Trim.                                            synchronized video recording of
                                                        all engine instruments. Speed
                                                        trim actuator position may be
                                                        hand recorded.
1.a.3. Performance. Engine and Rotor               X   Data may be acquired by using a
 Speed Governing.                                       synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls.
1.b.1. Performance. On Surface Taxi.               X   TIR, AFM, or Design data may be
 Minimum Radius Turn.                                   used.
1.b.2. Performance. On Surface Taxi                X   Data may be acquired by using a   A single procedure may
 Rate of Turn vs. Nosewheel Steering                    constant tiller position          not be adequate for
 Angle.                                                 (measured with a protractor),     all rotorcraft
                                                        or full pedal application for     steering systems.
                                                        steady state turn, and            Appropriate
                                                        synchronized video of heading     measurement procedures
                                                        indicator. If less than full      must be devised and
                                                        pedal is used, pedal position     proposed for NSPM
                                                        must be recorded.                 concurrence.
1.b.3. Performance. Taxi.............              X   Data may be acquired by using a
                                                        synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls.
1.b.4. Performance. Brake............              X   Data may be acquired using a
                                                        stopwatch and a means for
                                                        measuring distance such as
                                                        runway distance markers
                                                        conforming with runway distance
                                                        marker standards.
1.c.1. Performance. Running Takeoff..              X   Preliminary certification data
                                                        may be used. Data may be
                                                        acquired by using a
                                                        synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls. Collective,
                                                        cyclic, and pedal position time
                                                        history must be recorded from
                                                        the start of collective
                                                        movement through to normal
                                                        climb. Indicated torque
                                                        settings may be hand recorded
                                                        at the moment of lift-off and
                                                        in a steady normal climb.
1.c.2. Performance. One Engine                     X   Data may be acquired by using a
 Inoperative (OEI), continued takeoff.                  synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls. Collective,
                                                        cyclic, and pedal position time
                                                        history must be recorded from
                                                        the start of collective
                                                        movement through to normal OEI
                                                        climb. Indicated torque
                                                        settings may be hand recorded
                                                        at the moment of lift-off and
                                                        in a steady normal OEI climb.
1.f. Performance. Level Flight.                    X   Data may be acquired by using a
 Trimmed Flight Control Positions.                      synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls.
1.g. Performance. Normal Climb.                    X   Data may be acquired by using a
 Trimmed Flight Control Positions.                      synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls.

[[Page 287]]

 
1.h.1. Descent Performance and                     X   Data may be acquired by using a
 Trimmed Flight Control Positions.                      synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls.
1.h.2. Autorotation Performance and                X   Data may be acquired by using a
 Trimmed Flight Control Positions.                      synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls.
1.j.1. Performance. Running Landing                X   Data may be acquired by using a
 All Engines.                                           synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls.
1.j.2. Performance. Running Landing                X   Data may be acquired by using a
 One Engine Inoperative.                                synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls.
1.j.3. Performance. Balked Landing...              X   Data may be acquired by using a
                                                        synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls. The synchronized
                                                        video must record the time of
                                                        the ``balk landing'' decision.
2.a.1. Handling Qualities. Static                  X   Control positions can be
 Control Checks. Cyclic Controller                      obtained using continuous
 Position vs. Force.                                    control position recordings.
                                                        Force data may be acquired by
                                                        using a hand held force gauge
                                                        so that the forces can be cross-
                                                        plotted against control
                                                        position in each of the control
                                                        axes.
2.a.2. Handling Qualities. Static                  X   Control positions can be
 Control Checks. Collective/Pedals                      obtained using continuous
 vs. Force.                                             control position recordings.
                                                        Force data may be acquired by
                                                        using a hand held force gauge
                                                        so that the forces can be cross-
                                                        plotted against control
                                                        position in each of the control
                                                        axes.
2.a.3. Handling Qualities. Brake                   X   Brake pedal positions can be
 Pedal Force vs. Position.                              obtained using continuous
                                                        position recordings. Force data
                                                        may be acquired by using a hand
                                                        held force gauge so that the
                                                        forces can be cross-plotted
                                                        against brake pedal position.
2.a.4. Handling Qualities. Trim                    X   Control positions can be
 System Rate (all applicable systems).                  obtained using continuous
                                                        control position recordings
                                                        plotted against time to provide
                                                        rate in each applicable system.
2.a.6. Handling Qualities. Control                 X   Data may be acquired by direct
 System Freeplay.                                       measurement.
2.c.1. Longitudinal Handling                       X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Qualities. Control Response.                           inertial measurement system, a
                                                        synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls.
2.c.2. Longitudinal Handling                       X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Qualities. Static Stability.                           inertial measurement system, a
                                                        synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls.
2.c.3.a. Longitudinal Handling                     X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Qualities. Dynamic Stability, Long                     inertial measurement system, a
 Term Response.                                         synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls.
2.c.3.b. Longitudinal Handling                     X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Qualities. Dynamic Stability, Short                    inertial measurement system, a
 Term Response.                                         synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls.
2.c.4. Longitudinal Handling                       X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Qualities. Maneuvering stability.                      inertial measurement system, a
                                                        synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls.
2.d.1.a. Lateral Handling Qualities.               X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Control Response.                                      inertial measurement system, a
                                                        synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and the force/
                                                        position measurements of flight
                                                        deck controls.
2.d.1.b Directional Handling                       X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Qualities. Control Response..                          inertial measurement system and
                                                        a synchronized video of
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and force/position
                                                        measurements of flight deck
                                                        directional controls.
2.d.2. Handling Qualities.                         X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Directional Static Stability.                          inertial measurement system and
                                                        a synchronized video of
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments and force/position
                                                        measurements of flight deck
                                                        directional controls.

[[Page 288]]

 
2.d.3.a. Handling Qualities. Dynamic               X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Lateral and Directional Stability                      inertial measurement system and
 Lateral-Directional Oscillations.                      a synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments, the force/position
                                                        measurements of flight deck
                                                        controls, and a stop watch.
2.d.3.b. Handling Qualities. Dynamic               X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Lateral and Directional Stability                      inertial measurement system and
 Spiral Stability.                                      a synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments, the force/position
                                                        measurements of flight deck
                                                        controls, and a stop watch.
2.d.3.c. Handling Qualities. Dynamic               X   Data may be acquired by using an
 Lateral and Directional Stability.                     inertial measurement system and
 Adverse/Proverse Yaw.                                  a synchronized video of the
                                                        calibrated helicopter
                                                        instruments, the force/position
                                                        measurements of flight deck
                                                        controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                       18. Visual Display Systems.

    a. Basic principles of a FFS collimated display:
    (1) The essential feature of a collimated display is that light rays 
coming from a given point in a picture are parallel. There are two main 
implications of the parallel rays:
    (a) The viewer's eyes focus at infinity and have zero convergence, 
providing a cue that the object is distant; and
    (b) The angle to any given point in the picture does not change when 
viewed from a different position so the object behaves geometrically as 
though it were located at a significant distance from the viewer. These 
cues are self-consistent, and are appropriate for any object that has 
been modeled as being at a significant distance from the viewer.
    (2) In an ideal situation the rays are perfectly parallel, but most 
implementations provide only an approximation to the ideal. Typically, 
an FFS display provides an image located not closer than about 20-33 ft 
(6-10 m) from the viewer, with the distance varying over the field-of-
view. A schematic representation of a collimated display is provided in 
Figure C2A.
    (3) Collimated displays are well suited to many simulation 
applications as the area of interest is relatively distant from the 
observer so the angles to objects should remain independent of viewing 
position. Consider the view of the runway seen by the flight crew lined 
up on an approach. In the real world, the runway is distant and the 
light rays from the runway to the eyes are parallel. The runway appears 
to be straight ahead to both crew members. This situation is well 
simulated by a collimated display and is presented in Figure C2B. Note 
that the distance to the runway has been shortened for clarity. If drawn 
to scale, the runway would be farther away and the rays from the two 
seats would be closer to being parallel.
    (4) While the horizontal field-of-view of a collimated display can 
be extended to approximately 210[deg]-220[deg], the vertical field-of-
view has been limited to about 40[deg]-45[deg]. These limitations result 
from tradeoffs in optical quality and interference between the display 
components and flight deck structures, but were sufficient to meet FFS 
regulatory approval for Helicopter FFSs. However, recent designs have 
been introduced with vertical fields of view of up to 60[deg] for 
helicopter applications.
    b. Basic principles of a FFS dome (or non-collimated) display:
    (1) The situation in a dome display is shown in Figure C2C. As the 
angles can be correct for only one eye point at a time, the visual 
system in the figure has been aligned for the right seat eye point 
position. The runway appears to be straight ahead of the aircraft for 
this viewer. For the left seat viewer, however, the runway appears to be 
somewhat to the right of the aircraft. As the aircraft is still moving 
towards the runway, the perceived velocity vector will be directed 
towards the runway and this will be interpreted as the aircraft having 
some yaw offset.
    (2) The situation is substantially different for near field objects 
encountered in helicopter operations close to the ground. In those 
cases, objects that should be interpreted as being close to the viewer 
will be misinterpreted as being distant in a collimated display. The 
errors can actually be reduced in a dome display.

[[Page 289]]

    (3) The field-of-view possible with a dome display can be larger 
than that of a collimated display. Depending on the configuration, a 
field-of-view of 240[deg] by 90[deg] is possible and can be exceeded.

                  c. Additional display considerations

    (1) While the situations described above are for discrete viewing 
positions, the same arguments can be extended to moving eye points 
produced by the viewer's head movement. In the real world, the parallax 
effects resulting from head movement provide distance cues. The effect 
is particularly strong for relative movement of flight deck structure in 
the near field and modeled objects in the distance. Collimated displays 
will provide accurate parallax cues for distant objects, but 
increasingly inaccurate cues for near field objects. The situation is 
reversed for dome displays.
    (2) Stereopsis cues resulting from the different images presented to 
each eye for objects relatively close to the viewer also provide depth 
cues. Again, the collimated and dome displays provide more or less 
accurate cues depending on the modeled distance of the objects being 
viewed.

                        d. Training implications

    (1) In view of the basic principles described above, it is clear 
that neither display approach provides a completely accurate image for 
all possible object distances. The sponsor should consider the training 
role of the FFS when configuring the display system to make the optimum 
choice. Factors that should be considered include relative importance of 
training tasks at low altitudes, the role of the two crew members in the 
flying tasks, and the field-of-view required for specific training 
tasks.

[[Page 290]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.039

 Attachment 3 to Appendix C to Part 60--Simulator Subjective Evaluation

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                             1. Requirements

    a. Except for special use airport models, all airport models 
required by this part must be representations of real-world, operational 
airports or representations of fictional airports and must meet the 
requirements set out in Tables C3B or C3C of this attachment, as 
appropriate.
    b. If fictional airports are used, the sponsor must ensure that 
navigational aids and all appropriate maps, charts, and other 
navigational reference material for the fictional

[[Page 291]]

airports (and surrounding areas as necessary) are compatible, complete, 
and accurate with respect to the visual presentation and airport model 
of this fictional airport. An SOC must be submitted that addresses 
navigation aid installation and performance and other criteria 
(including obstruction clearance protection) for all instrument 
approaches to the fictional airports that are available in the 
simulator. The SOC must reference and account for information in the 
terminal instrument procedures manual and the construction and 
availability of the required maps, charts, and other navigational 
material. This material must be clearly marked ``for training purposes 
only.''
    c. When the simulator is being used by an instructor or evaluator 
for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter, only 
airport models classified as Class I, Class II, or Class III may be used 
by the instructor or evaluator. Detailed descriptions/definitions of 
these classifications are found in Appendix F of this part.
    d. When a person sponsors an FFS maintained by a person other than a 
U.S. certificate holder, the sponsor is accountable for that FFS 
originally meeting, and continuing to meet, the criteria under which it 
was originally qualified and the appropriate Part 60 criteria, including 
the visual scenes and airport models that may be used by instructors or 
evaluators for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this 
chapter.
    e. Neither Class II nor Class III airport visual models are required 
to appear on the SOQ, and the method used for keeping instructors and 
evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class 
III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the sponsor, 
but the method used must be available for review by the TPAA.
    f. When an airport model represents a real world airport and a 
permanent change is made to that real world airport (e.g., a new runway, 
an extended taxiway, a new lighting system, a runway closure) without a 
written extension grant from the NSPM (described in paragraph 1.g., of 
this section), an update to that airport model must be made in 
accordance with the following time limits:
    (1) For a new airport runway, a runway extension, a new airport 
taxiway, a taxiway extension, or a runway/taxiway closure--within 90 
days of the opening for use of the new airport runway, runway extension, 
new airport taxiway, or taxiway extension; or within 90 days of the 
closure of the runway or taxiway.
    (2) For a new or modified approach light system--within 45 days of 
the activation of the new or modified approach light system.
    (3) For other facility or structural changes on the airport (e.g., 
new terminal, relocation of Air Traffic Control Tower)--within 180 days 
of the opening of the new or changed facility or structure.
    g. If a sponsor desires an extension to the time limit for an update 
to a visual scene or airport model or has an objection to what must be 
updated in the specific airport model requirement, the sponsor must 
provide a written extension request to the NSPM stating the reason for 
the update delay and a proposed completion date or provide an 
explanation for the objection, explaining why the identified airport 
change will not have an impact on flight training, testing, or checking. 
A copy of this request or objection must also be sent to the POI/TCPM. 
The NSPM will send the official response to the sponsor and a copy to 
the POI/TCPM; however, if there is an objection, after consultation with 
the appropriate POI/TCPM regarding the training, testing, or checking 
impact, the NSPM will send the official response to the sponsor and a 
copy to the POI/TCPM.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              2. Discussion

    a. The subjective tests provide a basis for evaluating the 
capability of the simulator to perform over a typical utilization 
period; determining that the simulator competently simulates each 
required maneuver, procedure, or task; and verifying correct operation 
of the simulator controls, instruments, and systems. The items listed in 
the following Tables are for simulator evaluation purposes only. They 
may not be used to limit or exceed the authorizations for use of a given 
level of simulator as described on the SOQ or as approved by the TPAA. 
All items in the following paragraphs are subject to an examination.
    b. The tests in Table C3A, Operations Tasks, in this attachment 
address pilot functions, including maneuvers and procedures (called 
flight tasks), and are divided by flight phases. The performance of 
these tasks by the NSPM includes an operational examination of the 
visual system and special effects. There are flight tasks included to 
address some features of advanced technology helicopters and innovative 
training programs.
    c. The tests in Table C3A, Operations Tasks, and Table C3G, 
Instructor Operating Station, in this attachment address the overall 
function and control of the simulator including the various simulated 
environmental conditions; simulated helicopter system operation (normal, 
abnormal, and emergency); visual system displays; and special effects 
necessary to meet flight crew training, evaluation, or flight experience 
requirements.

[[Page 292]]

    d. All simulated helicopter systems functions will be assessed for 
normal and, where appropriate, alternate operations. Normal, abnormal, 
and emergency operations associated with a flight phase will be assessed 
during the evaluation of flight tasks or events within that flight 
phase. Simulated helicopter systems are listed separately under ``Any 
Flight Phase'' to ensure appropriate attention to systems checks. 
Operational navigation systems (including inertial navigation systems, 
global positioning systems, or other long-range systems) and the 
associated electronic display systems will be evaluated if installed. 
The NSP pilot will include in his report to the TPAA, the effect of the 
system operation and any system limitation.
    e. Simulators demonstrating a satisfactory circling approach will be 
qualified for the circling approach maneuver and may be approved for 
such use by the TPAA in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training 
program. To be considered satisfactory, the circling approach will be 
flown at maximum gross weight for landing, with minimum visibility for 
the helicopter approach category, and must allow proper alignment with a 
landing runway at least 90[deg] different from the instrument approach 
course while allowing the pilot to keep an identifiable portion of the 
airport in sight throughout the maneuver (reference--14 CFR 91.175(e)).
    f. At the request of the TPAA, the NSP Pilot may assess the 
simulator for a special aspect of a sponsor's training program during 
the functions and subjective portion of an evaluation. Such an 
assessment may include a portion of a Line Oriented Flight Training 
(LOFT) scenario or special emphasis items in the sponsor's training 
program. Unless directly related to a requirement for the qualification 
level, the results of such an evaluation would not affect the 
qualification of the simulator.
    g. This appendix addresses helicopter simulators at Levels B, C, and 
D because there are no Level A Helicopter simulators.
    h. The FAA intends to allow the use of Class III airport models on a 
limited basis when the sponsor provides the TPAA (or other regulatory 
authority) an appropriate analysis of the skills, knowledge, and 
abilities (SKAs) necessary for competent performance of the tasks in 
which this particular media element is used. The analysis should 
describe the ability of the FFS/visual media to provide an adequate 
environment in which the required SKAs are satisfactorily performed and 
learned. The analysis should also include the specific media element, 
such as the visual scene or airport model. Additional sources of 
information on the conduct of task and capability analysis may be found 
on the FAA's Advanced Qualification Program (AQP) Web site at: http://
www.faa.gov/education--research/training/aqp/.
    h. The TPAA may accept Class III airport models without individual 
observation provided the sponsor provides the TPAA with an acceptable 
description of the process for determining the acceptability of a 
specific airport model, outlines the conditions under which such an 
airport model may be used, and adequately describes what restrictions 
will be applied to each resulting airport or landing area model. 
Examples of situations that may warrant Class III model designation by 
the TPAA include the following:
    (a) Training, testing, or checking on very low visibility 
operations, including SMGCS operations.
    (b) Instrument operations training (including instrument takeoff, 
departure, arrival, approach, and missed approach training, testing, or 
checking) using--
    (i) A specific model that has been geographically ``moved'' to a 
different location and aligned with an instrument procedure for another 
airport.
    (ii) A model that does not match changes made at the real-world 
airport (or landing area for helicopters) being modeled.
    (iii) A model generated with an ``off-board'' or an ``on-board'' 
model development tool (by providing proper latitude/longitude 
reference; correct runway or landing area orientation, length, width, 
marking, and lighting information; and appropriate adjacent taxiway 
location) to generate a facsimile of a real world airport or landing 
area.
    i. Previously qualified simulators with certain early generation 
Computer Generated Image (CGI) visual systems, are limited by the 
capability of the Image Generator or the display system used. These 
systems are:
    (1) Early CGI visual systems that are exempt from the necessity of 
including runway numbers as a part of the specific runway marking 
requirements are:
    (a) Link NVS and DNVS.
    (b) Novoview 2500 and 6000.
    (c) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and including, VITAL III, but 
not beyond.
    (d) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2.
    (2) Early CGI visual systems are excepted from the necessity of 
including runway numbers unless the runway is used for LOFT training 
sessions. These LOFT airport models require runway numbers, but only for 
the specific runway end (one direction) used in the LOFT session. The 
systems required to display runway numbers only for LOFT scenes are:
    (a) FlightSafety VITAL IV.
    (b) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T.
    (c) Link-Miles Image II.
    (3) The following list of previously qualified CGI and display 
systems are incapable of generating blue lights. These systems are not 
required to have accurate taxi-way edge lighting are:
    (a) Redifusion SP1 and SP1T.
    (b) FlightSafety Vital IV.

[[Page 293]]

    (c) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT
    (d) XKD displays (even though the XKD image generator is capable of 
generating blue colored lights, the display cannot accommodate that 
color).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                                    Table C3A--Functions and Subjective Tests
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                QPS requirements
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                                                     Simulator
                                                                                                       level
               Entry No.                                     Operations tasks                     --------------
                                                                                                    B    C    D
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the helicopter simulated as indicated in the
 SOQ Configuration List or the level of simulator qualification involved. Items not installed or not functional
 on the simulator and, therefore, not appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed as
 exceptions on the SOQ.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preparation for Flight
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a...................................  Flight deck check: Switches, indicators, systems, and       X    X    X
                                         equipment.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. APU/Engine start and run-up
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a...................................  Normal start procedures..................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b...................................  Alternate start procedures...............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c...................................  Abnormal starts and shutdowns (e.g., hot start, hung        X    X    X
                                         start).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d...................................  Rotor engagement.........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e...................................  System checks............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Taxiing--Ground
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a...................................  Power required to taxi...................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b...................................  Brake effectiveness......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c...................................  Ground handling..........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d...................................  Water handling (if applicable)...........................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e...................................  Abnormal/emergency procedures:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.1.................................  Brake system failure.....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.2.................................  Ground resonance.........................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.3.................................  Dynamic rollover.........................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.4.................................  Deployment of emergency floats/water landing.............        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.5.................................  Others listed on the SOQ.................................   A    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Taxiing--Hover
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a...................................  Takeoff to a hover.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b...................................  Instrument response:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.1.................................  Engine instruments.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.2.................................  Flight instruments.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.3.................................  Hovering turns...........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c...................................  Hover power checks:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1.................................  In ground effect (IGE)...................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2.................................  Out of ground effect (OGE)...............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d...................................  Crosswind/tailwind hover.................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 294]]

 
4.e...................................  Translating tendency.....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f...................................  External load operations:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.1.................................  Hookup...................................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.2.................................  Release..................................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.3.................................  Winch operations.........................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g...................................  Abnormal/emergency procedures:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.1.................................  Engine failure...........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.2.................................  Fuel governing system failure............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.3.................................  Settling with power (OGE)................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.4.................................  Hovering autorotation....................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.5.................................  Stability augmentation system failure....................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.6.................................  Directional control malfunction..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.7.................................  Loss of tail rotor effectiveness (LTE)...................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.8.................................  Others listed on the SOQ.................................   A    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.h...................................  Pre-takeoff checks.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Takeoff/Translational Flight
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a...................................  Forward (up to effective translational lift).............        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b...................................  Sideward (up to limiting airspeed).......................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c...................................  Rearward (up to limiting airspeed).......................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Takeoff and Departure Phase
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a...................................  Normal...................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.1.................................  From ground..............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.2.................................  From hover...............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.2.a...............................  Cat A....................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.2.b...............................  Cat B....................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.3.................................  Running..................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.4.................................  Crosswind/tailwind.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.5.................................  Maximum performance......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.6.................................  Instrument...............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.7.................................  Takeoff from a confined area.............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.8.................................  Takeoff from a pinnacle/platform.........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.9.................................  Takeoff from a slope.....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.10................................  External load operations.................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b...................................  Abnormal/emergency procedures:...........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.................................  Takeoff with engine failure after critical decision point   X    X    X
                                         (CDP).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 295]]

 
6.b.1.a...............................  Cat A....................................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.b...............................  Cat B....................................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c...................................  Rejected takeoff.........................................
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c.1.................................  Land.....................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c.2.................................  Water (if appropriate)...................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.d...................................  Instrument departure.....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.e...................................  Others as listed on the SOQ..............................   A    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Climb
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a...................................  Normal...................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b...................................  Obstacle clearance.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c...................................  Vertical.................................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d...................................  One engine inoperative...................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e...................................  Others as listed on the SOQ..............................   A    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. Cruise
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a...................................  Performance..............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b...................................  Flying qualities.........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c...................................  Turns....................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.1.................................  Timed....................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.2.................................  Normal...................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.3.................................  Steep....................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d...................................  Accelerations and decelerations..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e...................................  High speed vibrations....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f...................................  External Load Operations (see entry 4.f. of this table)..        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g...................................  Abnormal/emergency procedures............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.1.................................  Engine fire..............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.2.................................  Engine failure...........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.3.................................  Inflight engine shutdown and restart.....................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.4.................................  Fuel governing system failures...........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.5.................................  Directional control malfunction..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.6.................................  Hydraulic failure........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.7.................................  Stability system failure.................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.8.................................  Rotor vibrations.........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g.9.................................  Recovery from unusual attitudes..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9. Descent
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.a...................................  Normal...................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 296]]

 
9.b...................................  Maximum rate.............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.c...................................  Autorotative.............................................
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.c.1.................................  Straight-in..............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.c.2.................................  With turn................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.d...................................  External Load............................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10. Approach
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a..................................  Non-precision............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.1................................  All engines operating....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.2................................  One or more engines inoperative..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.3................................  Approach procedures:                                        X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.3.a..............................  NDB......................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.3.b..............................  VOR, RNAV, TACAN.........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.3.c..............................  ASR......................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.3.d..............................  Circling.................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.3.e..............................  Helicopter only..........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.4................................  Missed approach..........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.4.a..............................  All engines operating....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a.4.b..............................  One or more engines inoperative..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b..................................  Precision................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.1................................  All engines operating....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.2................................  Manually controlled--one or more engines inoperative.....   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3................................  Approach procedures:                                        X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.a..............................  PAR......................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.b..............................  MLS......................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.c..............................  ILS......................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.c..............................  (1) Manual (raw data)....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.c..............................  (2) Flight director only.................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.c..............................  (3) Autopilot * only.....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.c..............................  (4) Cat I................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.c..............................  (5) Cat II...............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.4................................  Missed approach:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.4.a..............................  All engines operating....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.4.b..............................  One or more engines inoperative..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.4.c..............................  Stability system failure.................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.c..................................  Others as listed on the SOQ..............................   A    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 297]]

 
11. Landings and Approaches to Landings
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.a..................................  Visual Approaches:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.a.1................................  Normal...................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.a.2................................  Steep....................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.a.3................................  Shallow..................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.a.4................................  Crosswind................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.a.5................................  Category A profile.......................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.a.6................................  Category B profile.......................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.a.7................................  External Load............................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.b..................................  Abnormal/emergency procedures:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.b.1................................  Directional control failure..............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.b.2................................  Hydraulics failure.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.b.3................................  Fuel governing failure...................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.b.4................................  Autorotation.............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.b.5................................  Stability system failure.................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.b.6................................  Others listed on the SOQ.................................   A    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11c...................................  Landings:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.1................................  Normal:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.1.a..............................  Running..................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.1.b..............................  From Hover...............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.2................................  Pinnacle/platform........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.3................................  Confined area............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.4................................  Slope....................................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.5................................  Crosswind................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.6................................  Tailwind.................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.7................................  Rejected Landing.........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.8................................  Abnormal/emergency procedures:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.8.a..............................  From autorotation........................................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.8.b..............................  One or more engines inoperative..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.8.c..............................  Directional control failure..............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.8.d..............................  Hydraulics failure.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.8.e..............................  Stability augmentation system failure....................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.c.9................................  Other (listed on the SOQ)................................   A    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12. Any Flight Phase
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.1................................  Air conditioning.........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 298]]

 
12.a.2................................  Anti-icing/deicing.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.3................................  Auxiliary power-plant....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.4................................  Communications...........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.5................................  Electrical...............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.6................................  Fire detection and suppression...........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.7................................  Stabilizer...............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.8................................  Flight controls..........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.9................................  Fuel and oil.............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.10...............................  Hydraulic................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.11...............................  Landing gear.............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.12...............................  Oxygen...................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.13...............................  Pneumatic................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.14...............................  Powerplant...............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.15...............................  Flight control computers.................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.a.16...............................  Stability and control augmentation.......................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b..................................  Flight management and guidance system:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b.1................................  Airborne radar...........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b.2................................  Automatic landing aids...................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b.3................................  Autopilot................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b.4................................  Collision avoidance system...............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b.5................................  Flight data displays.....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b.6................................  Flight management computers..............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b.7................................  Heads-up displays........................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.b.8................................  Navigation systems.......................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.c..................................  Airborne procedures:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.c.1................................  Holding..................................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.c.2................................  Air hazard avoidance.....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.c.3................................  Retreating blade stall recovery..........................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.c.4................................  Mast bumping.............................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.c.5................................  Loss of directional control..............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.c.6................................  Loss of tail rotor effectiveness.........................        X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.c.7................................  Other (listed on the SOQ)................................   A    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13. Engine Shutdown and Parking
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13.a..................................  Engine and systems operation.............................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13.b..................................  Parking brake operation..................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 299]]

 
13.c..................................  Rotor brake operation....................................   X    X    X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13.d..................................  Abnormal/emergency procedures............................   X    X   X
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
* ``Autopilot'' means attitude retention mode of operation.
Note: An ``A'' in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate
  aircraft system or control is simulated in the FFS and is working properly.


                Table C3B--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                             Simulator
                    Visual requirements for qualification      level
     Entry No.       at the stated level  class I airport --------------
                            or landing area models          B    C    D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
This table specifies the minimum airport visual model content and
 functionality to qualify a simulator at the indicated level. This table
 applies only to the airport scenes required for simulator
 qualification; i.e., two helicopter landing area models for Level B
 simulators; four helicopter landing area models for Level C and Level D
 simulators.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.................  Functional test content requirements
                    The following is the minimum airport/landing area
                     model content requirement to satisfy visual
                     capability tests, and provides suitable visual cues
                     to allow completion of all functions and subjective
                     tests described in this attachment for simulators
                     at Level B.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a...............  A minimum of one (1) representative     X
                     airport and one (1) representative
                     helicopter landing area model. The
                     airport and the helicopter landing
                     area may be contained within the
                     same model. If but if this option is
                     selected, the approach path to the
                     airport runway(s) and the approach
                     path to the helicopter landing area
                     must be different. The model(s) used
                     to meet the following requirements
                     may be demonstrated at either a
                     fictional or a real-world airport or
                     helicopter landing area, but each
                     must be acceptable to the sponsor's
                     TPAA, selectable from the IOS, and
                     listed on the SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b...............  The fidelity of the visual scene must   X
                     be sufficient for the aircrew to
                     visually identify the airport and/or
                     helicopter landing area; determine
                     the position of the simulated
                     helicopter within the visual scene;
                     successfully accomplish take-offs,
                     approaches, and landings; and
                     maneuver around the airport on the
                     ground, or hover taxi, as necessary.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c...............  Runways:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.1.............  Visible runway number................   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.2.............  Runway threshold elevations and         X
                     locations must be modeled to provide
                     sufficient correlation with
                     helicopter systems (e.g., altimeter).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.3.............  Runway surface and markings..........   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.4.............  Lighting for the runway in use          X
                     including runway edge and centerline.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.5.............  Lighting, visual approach aid (VASI     X
                     or PAPI) and approach lighting of
                     appropriate colors.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.6.............  Representative taxiway lights........   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d...............  Other helicopter landing area:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.1.............  Standard heliport designation (``H'')   X
                     marking, properly sized and oriented.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.2.............  Perimeter markings for the Touchdown    X
                     and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) or the
                     Final Approach and Takeoff Area
                     (FATO), as appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.3.............  Perimeter lighting for the TLOF or      X
                     the FATO areas, as appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.4.............  Appropriate markings and lighting to    X
                     allow movement from the runway or
                     helicopter landing area to another
                     part of the landing facility.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.................  Functional test content requirements for Level C and
                     Level D simulators

[[Page 300]]

 
                    The following is the minimum airport/landing area
                     model content requirement to satisfy visual
                     capability tests, and provide suitable visual cues
                     to allow completion of all functions and subjective
                     tests described in this attachment for simulators
                     at Level C and Level D. Not all of the elements
                     described in this section must be found in a single
                     airport/landing area scene. However, all of the
                     elements described in this section must be found
                     throughout a combination of the four (4) airport/
                     landing area models described in entry 2.a. The
                     representations of the hazards (as described in
                     2.d.) must be ``hard objects'' that interact as
                     such if contacted by the simulated helicopter.
                     Additionally, surfaces on which the helicopter
                     lands must be ``hard surfaces.'' The model(s) used
                     to meet the following requirements must be
                     demonstrated at either a fictional or a real-world
                     airport or helicopter landing area, and each must
                     be acceptable to the sponsor's TPAA, selectable
                     from the IOS, and listed on the SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a...............  There must be at least the following airport/
                     helicopter landing areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1.............  At least one (1) representative              X    X
                     airport.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2.............  At least three representative non-airport landing
                     areas, as follows:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2.a...........  At least one (1) representative              X    X
                     helicopter landing area situated on
                     a substantially elevated surface
                     with respect to the surrounding
                     structures or terrain (e.g.,
                     building top, offshore oil rig).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2.b...........  At least one (1) helicopter landing          X    X
                     area that meets the definition of a
                     ``confined landing area''.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2.c...........  At least one (1) helicopter landing          X    X
                     area on a sloped surface where the
                     slope is at least 2\1/2\[deg].
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b...............  For each of the airport/helicopter           X    X
                     landing areas described in 2.a., the
                     simulator must be able to provide at
                     least the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.1.............  A night and twilight (dusk)                  X    X
                     environment..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.2.............  A daylight environment...............             X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c...............  Non-airport helicopter landing areas must have the
                     following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.1.............  Representative buildings, structures,        X    X
                     and lighting within appropriate
                     distances.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.2.............  Representative moving and static             X    X
                     clutter (e.g., other aircraft, power
                     carts, tugs, fuel trucks).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.3.............  Representative depiction of terrain          X    X
                     and obstacles as well as significant
                     and identifiable natural and
                     cultural features, within 25 NM of
                     the reference landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.4.............  Standard heliport designation (``H'')        X    X
                     marking, properly sized and oriented.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.5.............  Perimeter markings for the Touchdown         X    X
                     and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) or the
                     Final Approach and Takeoff Area
                     (FATO), as appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.6.............  Perimeter lighting for the TLOF or           X    X
                     the FATO areas, as appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.7.............  Appropriate markings and lighting to         X    X
                     allow movement from the area to
                     another part of the landing
                     facility, if appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.8.............  Representative markings, lighting,           X    X
                     and signage, including a windsock
                     that gives appropriate wind cues.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.9.............  Appropriate markings, lighting, and          X    X
                     signage necessary for position
                     identification, and to allow
                     movement from the landing area to
                     another part of the landing facility.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.10............  Representative moving and static             X    X
                     ground traffic (e.g., vehicular and
                     aircraft), including the ability to
                     present surface hazards (e.g.,
                     conflicting traffic, vehicular or
                     aircraft, on or approaching the
                     landing area).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.11............  Portrayal of landing surface                 X    X
                     contaminants, including lighting
                     reflections when wet and partially
                     obscured lights when snow is
                     present, or suitable alternative
                     effects.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d...............  All of the following three (3) hazards must be
                     presented in a combination of the three (3) non-
                     airport landing areas (described in entry 2.a.2. of
                     this table) and each of these non-airport landing
                     areas must have at least one of the following
                     hazards:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.1.............  Other airborne traffic...............        X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 301]]

 
2.d.2.............  Buildings, trees, or other vertical          X    X
                     obstructions in the immediate
                     landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3.............  Suspended wires in the immediate             X    X
                     landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e...............  Airport applications. Each airport must have the
                     following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.1.............  At least one runway designated as            X    X
                     ``in-use'', appropriately marked and
                     capable of being lighted fully.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.2.............  Runway threshold elevations and         X    X    X
                     locations must be modeled to provide
                     sufficient correlation with
                     helicopter systems (e.g., HGS, GPS,
                     altimeter). Slopes in runways,
                     taxiways, and ramp areas, if
                     depicted in the visual scene, may
                     not cause distracting or unrealistic
                     effects, including pilot eye-point
                     height variation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.3.............  Appropriate approach lighting systems        X    X
                     and airfield lighting for a VFR
                     circuit and landing, non-precision
                     approaches and landings, and
                     precision approaches and landings,
                     as appropriate..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e.4.............  Representative taxiway lights........             X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.................  Airport or landing area model management
                    The following is the minimum visual scene management
                     requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a...............  Runway and helicopter landing area      X    X    X
                     approach lighting must fade into
                     view in accordance with the
                     environmental conditions set in the
                     simulator.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b...............  The direction of strobe lights,         X    X    X
                     approach lights, runway edge lights,
                     visual landing aids, runway
                     centerline lights, threshold lights,
                     touchdown zone lights, and TLOF or
                     FATO lights must be replicated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.................  Visual feature recognition.
                    The following are the minimum distances at which
                     runway features must be visible. Distances are
                     measured from runway threshold or a helicopter
                     landing area to a helicopter aligned with the
                     runway or helicopter landing area on an extended
                     3[deg] glide-slope in simulated meteorological
                     conditions. For circling approaches, all tests
                     apply to the runway used for the initial approach
                     and to the runway of intended landing
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a...............  For runways: Runway definition,         X    X    X
                     strobe lights, approach lights, and
                     runway edge lights from 5 sm (8 km)
                     of the runway threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b...............  For runways: Centerline lights and      X    X    X
                     taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c...............  For runways: Visual Approach Aid        X
                     lights (VASI or PAPI) from 3 sm (5
                     km) of the threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d...............  For runways: Visual Approach Aid             X    X
                     lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8
                     km) of the threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e...............  For runways: Runway threshold lights    X    X    X
                     and touchdown zone lights from 2 sm
                     (3 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f...............  For runways and helicopter landing      X    X    X
                     areas: Markings within range of
                     landing lights for night/twilight
                     scenes and the surface resolution
                     test on daylight scenes, as required.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g...............  For circling approaches, the runway     X    X    X
                     of intended landing and associated
                     lighting must fade into view in a
                     non-distracting manner.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.h...............  For helicopter landing areas: Landing   X    X    X
                     direction lights and raised FATO
                     lights from 1 sm (1.5 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.i...............  For helicopter landing areas: Flush               X
                     mounted FATO lights, TOFL lights,
                     and the lighted windsock from 0.5 sm
                     (750 m).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.j...............  Hover taxiway lighting (yellow/blue/              X
                     yellow cylinders) from TOFL area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.................  Airport or helicopter landing area model content

[[Page 302]]

 
                    The following prescribes the minimum requirements
                     for an airport/helicopter landing area model and
                     identifies other aspects of the environment that
                     must correspond with that model for simulators at
                     Level B, Level C, and Level D. For circling
                     approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for
                     the initial approach and to the runway of intended
                     landing. If all runways or landing areas in a
                     visual model used to meet the requirements of this
                     attachment are not designated as ``in use,'' then
                     the ``in use'' runways/landing areas must be listed
                     on the SOQ (e.g., KORD, Rwys 9R, 14L, 22R). Models
                     of airports or helicopter landing areas with more
                     than one runway or landing area must have all
                     significant runways or landing areas not ``in-use''
                     visually depicted for airport runway/landing area
                     recognition purposes. The use of white or off-white
                     light strings that identify the runway or landing
                     area for twilight and night scenes are acceptable
                     for this requirement; and rectangular surface
                     depictions are acceptable for daylight scenes. A
                     visual system's capabilities must be balanced
                     between providing visual models with an accurate
                     representation of the airport and a realistic
                     representation of the surrounding environment. Each
                     runway or helicopter landing area designated as an
                     ``in-use'' runway or area must include the
                     following detail that is developed using airport
                     pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other
                     similar data, or developed in accordance with
                     published regulatory material; however, this does
                     not require that such models contain details that
                     are beyond the design capability of the currently
                     qualified visual system. Only one ``primary'' taxi
                     route from parking to the runway end or helicopter
                     takeoff/landing area will be required for each ``in-
                     use'' runway or helicopter takeoff/landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a...............  The surface and markings for each ``in-use'' runway
                     or helicopter landing area must include the
                     following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.1.............  For airports: Runway threshold          X    X    X
                     markings, runway numbers, touchdown
                     zone markings, fixed distance
                     markings, runway edge markings, and
                     runway centerline stripes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a.2.............  For helicopter landing areas:           X    X    X
                     Markings for standard heliport
                     identification (``H'') and TOFL,
                     FATO, and safety areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b...............  The lighting for each ``in-use'' runway or
                     helicopter landing area must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.1.............  For airports: Runway approach,          X    X    X
                     threshold, edge, end, centerline (if
                     applicable), touchdown zone (if
                     applicable), leadoff, and visual
                     landing aid lights or light systems
                     for that runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.2.............  For helicopter landing areas: landing   X    X    X
                     direction, raised and flush FATO,
                     TOFL, windsock lighting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c...............  The taxiway surface and markings associated with
                     each ``in-use'' runway or helicopter landing area
                     must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.1.............  For airports: Taxiway edge,             X    X    X
                     centerline (if appropriate), runway
                     hold lines, and ILS critical area(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.2.............  For helicopter landing areas:           X    X    X
                     taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d...............  The taxiway lighting associated with each ``in-use''
                     runway or helicopter landing area must include the
                     following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.1.............  For airports: Runway edge, centerline   X    X    X
                     (if appropriate), runway hold lines,
                     ILS critical areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.2.............  For helicopter landing areas:           X    X    X
                     taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3.............  For airports: taxiway lighting of                 X
                     correct color.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e...............  Airport signage associated with each ``in-use''
                     runway or helicopter landing area must include the
                     following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.1.............  For airports: Signs for runway          X    X    X
                     distance remaining, intersecting
                     runway with taxiway, and
                     intersecting taxiway with taxiway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.2.............  For helicopter landing areas: as        X    X    X
                     appropriate for the model used.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.f...............  Required visual model correlation with other aspects
                     of the airport or helicopter landing environment
                     simulation:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.f.1.............  The airport or helicopter landing       X    X    X
                     area model must be properly aligned
                     with the navigational aids that are
                     associated with operations at the
                     ``in-use'' runway or helicopter
                     landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.f.2.............  The simulation of runway or                  X    X
                     helicopter landing area contaminants
                     must be correlated with the
                     displayed runway surface and
                     lighting where applicable.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.................  Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment
                    The following are the minimum correlation
                     comparisons that must be made for simulators at
                     Level B, Level C, and Level D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a...............  Visual system compatibility with        X    X    X
                     aerodynamic programming.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 303]]

 
6.b...............  Visual cues to assess sink rate and     X    X    X
                     depth perception during landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c...............  Accurate portrayal of environment       X    X    X
                     relating to flight simulator
                     attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.d...............  The visual scene must correlate with         X    X
                     integrated helicopter systems (e.g.,
                     terrain, traffic and weather
                     avoidance systems and Head-up
                     Guidance System (HGS)).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.e...............  Representative visual effects for       X    X    X
                     each visible, own-ship, helicopter
                     external light(s)--taxi and landing
                     light lobes (including independent
                     operation, if appropriate).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.f...............  The effect of rain removal devices...        X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.................  Scene quality
                    The following are the minimum scene quality tests
                     that must be conducted for simulators at Level B,
                     Level C, and Level D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a...............  Surfaces and textural cues must be           X    X
                     free from apparent and distracting
                     quantization (aliasing).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b...............  System capable of portraying full            X    X
                     color realistic textural cues.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c...............  The system light points must be free    X    X    X
                     from distracting jitter, smearing or
                     streaking.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d...............  Demonstration of occulting through      X    X    X
                     each channel of the system in an
                     operational scene.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e...............  Demonstration of a minimum of ten            X    X
                     levels of occulting through each
                     channel of the system in an
                     operational scene.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.f...............  System capable of providing focus            X    X
                     effects that simulate rain..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.g...............  System capable of providing focus            X    X
                     effects that simulate light point
                     perspective growth.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.h...............  Runway light controls capable of six    X    X    X
                     discrete light steps (0-5).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.................  Environmental effects.
                    The following are the minimum environmental effects
                     that must be available in simulators at Level B,
                     Level C, and Level D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a...............  The displayed scene corresponding to              X
                     the appropriate surface contaminants
                     and include appropriate lighting
                     reflections for wet, partially
                     obscured lights for snow, or
                     alternative effects.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b...............  Special weather representations which include:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.1.............  The sound, motion and visual effects              X
                     of light, medium and heavy
                     precipitation near a thunderstorm on
                     take-off, approach, and landings at
                     and below an altitude of 2,000 ft
                     (600 m) above the surface and within
                     a radius of 10 sm (16 km) from the
                     airport or helicopter landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.2.............  One airport or helicopter landing                 X
                     area with a snow scene to include
                     terrain snow and snow-covered
                     surfaces.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c...............  In-cloud effects such as variable            X    X
                     cloud density, speed cues and
                     ambient changes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d...............  The effect of multiple cloud layers          X    X
                     representing few, scattered, broken
                     and overcast conditions giving
                     partial or complete obstruction of
                     the ground scene.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e...............  Visibility and RVR measured in terms    X    X    X
                     of distance. Visibility/RVR checked
                     at 2,000 ft (600 m) above the
                     airport or helicopter landing area
                     and at two heights below 2,000 ft
                     with at least 500 ft of separation
                     between the measurements. The
                     measurements must be taken within a
                     radius of 10 sm (16 km) from the
                     airport or helicopter landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f...............  Patchy fog giving the effect of                   X
                     variable RVR.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g...............  Effects of fog on airport lighting           X    X
                     such as halos and defocus.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.h...............  Effect of own-ship lighting in               X    X
                     reduced visibility, such as
                     reflected glare, including landing
                     lights, strobes, and beacons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.i...............  Wind cues to provide the effect of                X
                     blowing snow or sand across a dry
                     runway or taxiway selectable from
                     the instructor station.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 304]]

 
8.j...............  ``White-out'' or ``Brown-out''                    X
                     effects due to rotor downwash
                     beginning at a distance above the
                     ground equal to the rotor diameter.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.................  Instructor control of the following:
                    The following are the minimum instructor controls
                     that must be available in Level B, Level C, and
                     Level D simulators, as indicated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.a...............  Environmental effects, e.g. cloud       X    X    X
                     base, cloud effects, cloud density,
                     visibility in statute miles/
                     kilometers and RVR in feet/meters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b...............  Airport or helicopter landing area      X    X    X
                     selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.c...............  Airport or helicopter landing area      X    X    X
                     lighting, including variable
                     intensity.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.d...............  Dynamic effects including ground and         X    X
                     flight traffic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                           End QPS Requirement
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            Begin Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10................  An example of being able to ``combine two airport
                     models to achieve two ``in-use'' runways: One
                     runway designated as the ``in-use'' runway in the
                     first model of the airport, and the second runway
                     designated as the ``in-use'' runway in the second
                     model of the same airport. For example, the
                     clearance is for the ILS approach to Runway 27,
                     Circle to Land on Runway 18 right. Two airport
                     visual models might be used: the first with Runway
                     27 designated as the ``in use'' runway for the
                     approach to runway 27, and the second with Runway
                     18 Right designated as the ``in use'' runway. When
                     the pilot breaks off the ILS approach to runway 27,
                     the instructor may change to the second airport
                     visual model in which runway 18 Right is designated
                     as the ``in use'' runway, and the pilot would make
                     a visual approach and landing. This process is
                     acceptable to the FAA as long as the temporary
                     interruption due to the visual model change is not
                     distracting to the pilot.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
11................  Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of
                     a runway, but the detail that is provided should be
                     correct within reasonable limits.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                             End Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------


                Table C3C--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                       Visual scene content additional       Simulator
                    airport or landing area models beyond      level
     Entry No.        minimum required for qualification  --------------
                       Class II airport or landing area
                                    models                  B    C    D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
This table specifies the minimum airport or helicopter landing area
 visual model content and functionality necessary to add visual models
 to a simulator's visual model library (i.e., beyond those necessary for
 qualification at the stated level) without the necessity of further
 involvement of the NSPM or TPAA.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.................  Airport or landing area model management
                    The following is the minimum visual scene management
                     requirements for simulators at Levels B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a...............  The installation and direction of the following
                     lights must be replicated for the ``in-use''
                     surface:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1.............  For ``in-use'' runways: Strobe          X    X    X
                     lights, approach lights, runway edge
                     lights, visual landing aids, runway
                     centerline lights, threshold lights,
                     and touchdown zone lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.2.............  For ``in-use'' helicopter landing       X    X    X
                     areas: ground level TLOF perimeter
                     lights, elevated TLOF perimeter
                     lights (if applicable), Optional
                     TLOF lights (if applicable), ground
                     FATO perimeter lights, elevated TLOF
                     lights (if applicable), landing
                     direction lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.................  Visual feature recognition
                    The following are the minimum distances at which
                     runway or landing area features must be visible for
                     simulators at Levels B, C, and D. Distances are
                     measured from runway threshold or a helicopter
                     landing area to an aircraft aligned with the runway
                     or helicopter landing area on a 3[deg] glide-slope
                     from the aircraft to the touchdown point, in
                     simulated meteorological conditions. For circling
                     approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for
                     the initial approach and to the runway of intended
                     landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 305]]

 
2.a...............  For Runways:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1.............  Strobe lights, approach lights, and     X    X    X
                     edge lights from 5 sm (8 km) of the
                     threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2.............  Centerline lights and taxiway           X    X    X
                     definition from 3 sm (5 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3.............  Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or     X
                     PAPI) from 3 sm (5 km) of the
                     threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.4.............  Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or          X    X
                     PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) of the
                     threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.5.............  Threshold lights and touchdown zone     X    X    X
                     lights from 2 sm (3 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.6.............  Markings within range of landing        X    X    X
                     lights for night/twilight (dusk)
                     scenes and as required by the
                     surface resolution test on daylight
                     scenes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.7.............  For circling approaches, the runway     X    X    X
                     of intended landing and associated
                     lighting must fade into view in a
                     non-distracting manner.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b...............  For Helicopter landing areas:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.1.............  Landing direction lights and raised     X    X    X
                     FATO lights from 1 sm (1.5 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.2.............  Flush mounted FATO lights, TOFL              X    X
                     lights, and the lighted windsock
                     from 0.5 sm (750 m).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3.............  Hover taxiway lighting (yellow/blue/         X    X
                     yellow cylinders) from TOFL area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.4.............  Markings within range of landing        X    X    X
                     lights for night/twilight (dusk)
                     scenes and as required by the
                     surface resolution test on daylight
                     scenes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.................  Airport or Helicopter landing area model content
                    The following prescribes the minimum requirements
                     for what must be provided in an airport visual
                     model and identifies other aspects of the airport
                     environment that must correspond with that model
                     for simulators at Level B, C, and D. The detail
                     must be developed using airport pictures,
                     construction drawings and maps, or other similar
                     data, or developed in accordance with published
                     regulatory material; however, this does not require
                     that airport or helicopter landing area models
                     contain details that are beyond the designed
                     capability of the currently qualified visual
                     system. For circling approaches, all requirements
                     of this section apply to the runway used for the
                     initial approach and to the runway of intended
                     landing. Only one ``primary'' taxi route from
                     parking to the runway end or helicopter takeoff/
                     landing area will be required for each ``in-use''
                     runway or helicopter takeoff/landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a...............  The surface and markings for each ``in-use'' runway
                     or helicopter landing area must include the
                     following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.1.............  For airports: Runway threshold          X    X    X
                     markings, runway numbers, touchdown
                     zone markings, fixed distance
                     markings, runway edge markings, and
                     runway centerline stripes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.2.............  For helicopter landing areas:           X    X    X
                     Standard heliport marking (``H''),
                     TOFL, FATO, and safety areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b...............  The lighting for each ``in-use'' runway or
                     helicopter landing area must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.1.............  For airports: Runway approach,          X    X    X
                     threshold, edge, end, centerline (if
                     applicable), touchdown zone (if
                     applicable), leadoff, and visual
                     landing aid lights or light systems
                     for that runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.2.............  For helicopter landing areas: Landing   X    X    X
                     direction, raised and flush FATO,
                     TOFL, windsock lighting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c...............  The taxiway surface and markings associated with
                     each ``in-use'' runway or helicopter landing area
                     must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c.1.............  For airports: Taxiway edge,             X    X    X
                     centerline (if appropriate), runway
                     hold lines, and ILS critical area(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c.2.............  For helicopter landing areas:           X    X    X
                     Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d...............  The taxiway lighting associated with each ``in-use''
                     runway or helicopter landing area must include the
                     following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d.1.............  For airports: Runway edge, centerline   X    X    X
                     (if appropriate), runway hold lines,
                     ILS critical areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d.2.............  For helicopter landing areas:           X    X    X
                     Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d.3.............  For airports: Taxiway lighting of                 X
                     correct color.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.................  Required visual model correlation with other aspects
                     of the airport environment simulation

[[Page 306]]

 
                    The following are the minimum visual model
                     correlation tests that must be conducted for Level
                     B, Level C, and Level D simulators, as indicated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a...............  The airport model must be properly      X    X    X
                     aligned with the navigational aids
                     that are associated with operations
                     at the ``in-use'' runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b...............  Slopes in runways, taxiways, and ramp   X    X    X
                     areas, if depicted in the visual
                     scene, must not cause distracting or
                     unrealistic effects.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.................  Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment
                    The following are the minimum correlation
                     comparisons that must be made for simulators at
                     Level B, C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a...............  Visual system compatibility with        X    X    X
                     aerodynamic programming.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b...............  Accurate portrayal of environment       X    X    X
                     relating to flight simulator
                     attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c...............  Visual cues to assess sink rate and     X    X    X
                     depth perception during landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.................  Scene quality
                    The following are the minimum scene quality tests
                     that must be conducted for simulators at Level B,
                     C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a...............  Light points free from distracting      X    X    X
                     jitter, smearing or streaking.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b...............  Surfaces and textural cues free from         X    X
                     apparent and distracting
                     quantization (aliasing).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c...............  Correct color and realistic textural              X
                     cues.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.................  Instructor controls of the following:
                    The following are the minimum instructor controls
                     that must be available in Level B, Level C, and
                     Level D simulators, as indicated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a...............  Environmental effects, e.g., cloud      X    X    X
                     base (if used), cloud effects, cloud
                     density, visibility in statute miles/
                     kilometers and RVR in feet/meters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b...............  Airport/Heliport selection...........   X    X    X
7.c...............  Airport lighting including variable     X    X    X
                     intensity.
7.d...............  Dynamic effects including ground and         X    X
                     flight traffic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                          End QPS Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            Begin Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.................  Sponsors are not required to provide    X    X    X
                     every detail of a runway or
                     helicopter landing area, but the
                     detail that is provided must be
                     correct within the capabilities of
                     the system.
ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½ï¿½
                             End Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------


                                    Table C3D--Functions and Subjective Tests
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                  QPS requirements                                           Information
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                  Simulator level
       Entry No.               Motion system (and special      ---------------------            Notes
                               aerodynamic model) effects         B      C      D
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
This table specifies motion effects that are required to indicate the threshold at which a flight crewmember
 must be able to recognize an event or situation. Where applicable, flight simulator pitch, side loading and
 directional control characteristics must be representative of the helicopter.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 307]]

 
1......................  Runway rumble, oleo deflection,           X      X      X   If time permits, different
                          ground speed, uneven runway, runway                         gross weights can also be
                          and taxiway centerline light                                selected as this may also
                          characteristics:                                            affect the associated
                         Procedure: After the helicopter has                          vibrations depending on
                          been pre-set to the takeoff position                        helicopter type. The
                          and then released, taxi at various                          associated motion effects
                          speeds with a smooth runway and note                        for the above tests should
                          the general characteristics of the                          also include an assessment
                          simulated runway rumble effects of                          of the effects of rolling
                          oleo deflections. Repeat the                                over centerline lights,
                          maneuver with a runway roughness of                         surface discontinuities of
                          50%, then with maximum roughness.                           uneven runways, and
                          Note the associated motion                                  various taxiway
                          vibrations affected by ground speed                         characteristics.
                          and runway roughness
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2......................  Friction Drag from Skid-type Landing             X      X
                          Gear:
                         Procedure: Perform a running takeoff
                          or a running landing and note an
                          increase in a fuselage vibration (as
                          opposed to rotor vibration) due to
                          the friction of dragging the skid
                          along the surface. This vibration
                          will lessen as the ground speed
                          decreases
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3......................  Rotor Out-of-Track and/or Out-of-         X      X      X   Does not require becoming
                          Balance condition:                                          airborne. The abnormal
                         Procedure: Select the malfunction or                         vibration for Out-of-Track
                          condition from the IOS. Start the                           and Out-of-Balance
                          engine(s) normally and check for an                         conditions should be
                          abnormal vibration for an Out-of-                           recognized in the
                          Track condition and check for an                            frequency range of the
                          abnormal vibration for an Out-of-                           inverse of the period for
                          Balance condition                                           each; i.e., 1/P for
                                                                                      vertical vibration, and 1/
                                                                                      P for lateral vibration.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4......................  Bumps associated with the landing         X      X      X   When the landing gear is
                          gear:                                                       extended or retracted,
                         Procedure: Perform a normal take-off                         motion bumps can be felt
                          paying special attention to the                             when the gear locks into
                          bumps that could be perceptible due                         position.
                          to maximum oleo extension after lift-
                          off
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5......................  Buffet during extension and               X      X      X
                          retraction of landing gear:
                         Procedure: Operate the landing gear.
                          Check that the motion cues of the
                          buffet experienced represent the
                          actual helicopter
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6......................  Failure of Dynamic Vibration Absorber     X      X      X
                          or similar system as appropriate for
                          the helicopter (e.g., droop stop or
                          static stop):
                         Procedure: May be accomplished any
                          time the rotor is engaged. Select
                          the appropriate failure at the IOS,
                          note an appropriate increase in
                          vibration and check that the
                          vibration intensity and frequency
                          increases with an increase in RPM
                          and an increase in collective
                          application
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7......................  Tail Rotor Drive Failure:                 X      X      X   The tail rotor operates in
                         Procedure: With the engine(s) running                        the medium frequency
                          and the rotor engaged--select the                           range, normally estimated
                          malfunction and note the immediate                          by multiplying the tail
                          increase of medium frequency                                rotor gear box ratio by
                          vibration                                                   the main rotor RPM. The
                                                                                      failure can be recognized
                                                                                      by an increase in the
                                                                                      vibrations in this
                                                                                      frequency range.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8......................  Touchdown cues for main and nose          X      X      X
                          gear:
                         Procedure: Conduct several normal
                          approaches with various rates of
                          descent. Check that the motion cues
                          for the touchdown bumps for each
                          descent rate are representative of
                          the actual helicopter
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 308]]

 
9......................  Tire failure dynamics:                           X      X   The pilot may notice some
                         Procedure: Simulate a single tire                            yawing with a multiple
                          failure and a multiple tire failure                         tire failure selected on
                                                                                      the same side. This should
                                                                                      require the use of the
                                                                                      pedal to maintain control
                                                                                      of the helicopter.
                                                                                      Dependent on helicopter
                                                                                      type, a single tire
                                                                                      failure may not be noticed
                                                                                      by the pilot and may not
                                                                                      cause any special motion
                                                                                      effect. Sound or vibration
                                                                                      may be associated with the
                                                                                      actual tire losing
                                                                                      pressure.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.....................  Engine malfunction and engine damage:     X      X      X
                         Procedure: The characteristics of an
                          engine malfunction as prescribed in
                          the malfunction definition document
                          for the particular flight simulator
                          must describe the special motion
                          effects felt by the pilot. Note the
                          associated engine instruments
                          varying according to the nature of
                          the malfunction and note the
                          replication of the effects of the
                          airframe vibration
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11.....................  Tail boom strikes:                        X      X      X   The motion effect should be
                         Procedure: Tail-strikes can be                               felt as a noticeable nose
                          checked by over-rotation of the                             down pitching moment.
                          helicopter at a quick stop or
                          autorotation to the ground
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12.....................  Vortex Ring State (Settling with                 X      X   When the aircraft begins to
                          Power):                                                     shudder, the application
                         Procedure: Specific procedures may                           of additional up
                          differ between helicopters and may                          collective increases the
                          be prescribed by the Helicopter                             vibration and sink rate.
                          Manufacturer or other subject matter                        One recovery method is to
                          expert. However, the following                              decrease collective to
                          information is provided for                                 enter vertical
                          illustrative purposes * * * To enter                        autorotation and/or use
                          the maneuver, reduce power below                            cyclic inputs to gain
                          hover power. Hold altitude with aft                         horizontal airspeed and
                          cyclic until the airspeed approaches                        exit from vortex ring
                          20 knots. Then allow the sink rate                          state.
                          to increase to 300 feet per minute
                          or more as the attitude is adjusted
                          to obtain an airspeed of less than
                          10 knots
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13.....................  Retreating Blade Stall:                          X      X   Correct recovery from
                         Procedure: Specific procedures may                           retreating blade stall
                          differ between helicopters and may                          requires the collective to
                          be prescribed by the Helicopter                             be lowered first, which
                          Manufacturer or other subject matter                        reduces blade angles and
                          expert. However, the following                              the angle of attack. Aft
                          information is provided for                                 cyclic can then be used to
                          illustrative purposes: To enter the                         slow the helicopter.
                          maneuver, increase forward airspeed;
                          the effect will be recognized
                          through the development of a low
                          frequency vibration, pitching up of
                          the nose, and a roll in the
                          direction of the retreating blade.
                          High weight, low rotor RPM, high
                          density altitude, turbulence or
                          steep, abrupt turns are all
                          conducive to retreating blade stall
                          at high forward airspeeds
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 309]]

 
14.....................  Translational Lift Effects:               X      X      X   ...........................
                         Procedure: From a stabilized in-
                          ground-effect (IGE) Hover begin a
                          forward acceleration. When passing
                          through the effective translational
                          lift range, the noticeable effect
                          will be a possible nose pitch-up in
                          some helicopters, an increase in the
                          rate of climb, and a temporary
                          increase in vibration level (in some
                          cases this vibration may be
                          pronounced). This effect is
                          experienced again upon deceleration
                          through the appropriate speed range.
                          During deceleration, the pitch and
                          rate of climb will have the reverse
                          effect, but there will be a similar,
                          temporary increase in vibration
                          level
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


                Table C3E--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS Requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                       Simulator level
    Entry number               Sound system         --------------------
                                                       B      C      D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
The following checks are performed during a normal flight profile,
 motion system ON.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1...................  Precipitation................            X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2...................  Rain removal equipment.......            X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3...................  Helicopter noises used by the            X      X
                       pilot for normal helicopter
                       operation..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4...................  Abnormal operations for which            X      X
                       there are associated sound
                       cues, including engine
                       malfunctions, landing gear
                       or tire malfunctions, tail
                       boom.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5...................  Sound of a crash when the                X      X
                       flight simulator is landed
                       in excess of limitations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


                Table C3F--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS Requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                       Simulator level
    Entry number             Special effects        --------------------
                                                       B      C      D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
This table specifies the minimum special effects necessary for the
 specified simulator level.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1...................  Braking Dynamics:............            X      X
                      Representations of the
                       dynamics of brake failure
                       (flight simulator pitch,
                       side-loading, and
                       directional control
                       characteristics
                       representative of the
                       helicopter), including
                       antiskid and decreased brake
                       efficiency due to high brake
                       temperatures (based on
                       helicopter related data),
                       sufficient to enable pilot
                       identification of the
                       problem and implementation
                       of appropriate procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2...................  Effects of Airframe and                  X      X
                       Engine Icing: Required only
                       for those helicopters
                       authorized for operations in
                       known icing conditions.
                      Procedure: With the simulator
                       airborne, in a clean
                       configuration, nominal
                       altitude and cruise
                       airspeed, autopilot on and
                       auto-throttles off, engine
                       and airfoil anti-ice/de-ice
                       systems deactivated;
                       activate icing conditions at
                       a rate that allows
                       monitoring of simulator and
                       systems response.
                      Icing recognition will
                       include an increase in gross
                       weight, airspeed decay,
                       change in simulator pitch
                       attitude, change in engine
                       performance indications
                       (other than due to airspeed
                       changes), and change in data
                       from pitot/static system, or
                       rotor out-of-track/balance.
                       Activate heating, anti-ice,
                       or de-ice systems
                       independently. Recognition
                       will include proper effects
                       of these systems, eventually
                       returning the simulated
                       helicopter to normal flight.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 310]]


                Table C3G--Functions and Subjective Tests
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS Requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                       Simulator level
    Entry number       Instructor Operating Station --------------------
                                  (IOS)                B      C      D
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Functions in this table are subject to evaluation only if appropriate
 for the helicopter or the system is installed on the specific
 simulator.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1...................  Simulator Power Switch(es)...     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2...................  Helicopter conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.................  Gross weight, center of           X      X      X
                       gravity, fuel loading and
                       allocation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.................  Helicopter systems status....     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.................  Ground crew functions........     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3...................  Airports/Heliports.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.................  Number and selection.........     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.................  Runway or landing area            X      X      X
                       selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c.................  Landing surface conditions        X      X      X
                       (rough, smooth, icy, wet,
                       dry, snow).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d.................  Preset positions.............     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e.................  Lighting controls............     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4...................  Environmental controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.................  Visibility (statute miles/        X      X      X
                       kilometers).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.................  Runway visual range (in feet/     X      X      X
                       meters).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.................  Temperature..................     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d.................  Climate conditions...........     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.................  Wind speed and direction.....     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5...................  Helicopter system                 X      X      X
                       malfunctions (Insertion/
                       deletion)..
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6...................  Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.................  Problem (all) freeze/release.     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.................  Position (geographic) freeze/     X      X      X
                       release.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c.................  Repositioning (locations,         X      X      X
                       freezes, and releases).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.d.................  Ground speed control.........     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7...................  Remote IOS...................     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8...................  Sound Controls. On/off/           X      X      X
                       adjustment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9...................  Motion/Control Loading System.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.a.................  On/off/emergency stop........     X      X      X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10..................  Observer Seats/Stations.          X      X      X
                       Position/Adjustment/Positive
                       restraint system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 311]]

         Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60--SAMPLE DOCUMENTS

                            Table of Contents

                             Title of Sample

Figure C4A Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement 
Evaluation.
Figure C4B Attachment: FFS Information Form
Figure A4C Sample Letter of Compliance
Figure C4D Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page
Figure C4E Sample Statement of Qualification--Certificate
Figure C4F Sample Statement of Qualification--Configuration List
Figure C4G Sample Statement of Qualification--List of Qualified Tasks
Figure C4H Sample Continuing Qualification Evaluation Requirements Page
Figure C4I Sample MQTG Index of Effective FFS Directives

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  Attachment 5 to Appendix C to Part 60--FSTD DIRECTIVES APPLICABLE TO 
                             HELICOPTER FFSs

           Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD) Directive

    FSTD Directive 1. Applicable to all FFSs, regardless of the original 
qualification basis and qualification date (original or upgrade), having 
Class II or Class III airport models available.
    Agency: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT
    Action: This is a retroactive requirement to have all Class II or 
Class III airport models meet current requirements.
________________________________________________________________________
    Summary: Notwithstanding the authorization listed in paragraph 13b 
in Appendices A and C of this part, this FSTD Directive requires each 
certificate holder to ensure that by May 30, 2009, except for the 
airport model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the designated level, 
each airport model used by the certificate holder's instructors or 
evaluators for training, checking, or testing under this chapter in an 
FFS, meets the definition of a Class II or Class III airport model as 
defined in 14CFR part 60. The completion of this requirement will not 
require a report, and the method used for keeping instructors and 
evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class 
III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the 
certificate holder whose employees are using the FFS, but the method 
used must be available for review by the TPAA for that certificate 
holder.
    Dates: FSTD Directive 1 becomes effective on May 30, 2008.
    For Further Information Contact: Ed Cook, Senior Advisor to the 
Division Manager, Air Transportation Division, AFS-200, 800 Independence 
Ave, SW, Washington, DC, 20591: telephone: (404) 832-4701; fax: (404) 
761-8906.

                         Specific Requirements:

    1. Part 60 requires that each FSTD be:
    a. Sponsored by a person holding or applying for an FAA operating 
certificate under Part 119, Part 141, or Part 142, or holding or 
applying for an FAA-approved training program under Part 63, Appendix C, 
for flight engineers, and
    b. Evaluated and issued an SOQ for a specific FSTD level.
    2. FFSs also require the installation of a visual system that is 
capable of providing an out-of-the-flight-deck view of airport models. 
However, historically these airport models were not routinely evaluated 
or required to meet any standardized criteria. This has led to qualified 
simulators containing airport models being used to meet FAA-approved 
training, testing, or checking requirements with potentially incorrect 
or inappropriate visual references.

[[Page 325]]

    3. To prevent this from occurring in the future, by May 30, 2009, 
except for the airport model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the 
designated level, each certificate holder must assure that each airport 
model used for training, testing, or checking under this chapter in a 
qualified FFS meets the definition of a Class II or Class III airport 
model as defined in Appendix F of this part.
    4. These references describe the requirements for visual scene 
management and the minimum distances from which runway or landing area 
features must be visible for all levels of simulator. The visual scene 
or airport model must provide, for each ``in-use runway'' or ``in-use 
landing area,'' runway or landing area surface and markings, runway or 
landing area lighting, taxiway surface and markings, and taxiway 
lighting. Additional requirements include correlation of the visual 
scenes or airport models with other aspects of the airport environment, 
correlation of the aircraft and associated equipment, scene quality 
assessment features, and the extent to which the instructor is able to 
exercise control of these scenes or models.
    5. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply 
to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of 
intended landing.
    6. The details in these scenes or models must be developed using 
airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, 
or be developed in accordance with published regulatory material. 
However, FSTD Directive 1 does not require that airport models contain 
details that are beyond the initially designed capability of the visual 
system, as currently qualified. The recognized limitations to visual 
systems are as follows:
    a. Visual systems not required to have runway numbers as a part of 
the specific runway marking requirements are:
    (1) Link NVS and DNVS.
    (2) Novoview 2500 and 6000.
    (3) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and including, VITAL III, but 
not beyond.
    (4) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2.
    b. Visual systems required to display runway numbers only for LOFT 
scenes are:
    (1) FlightSafety VITAL IV.
    (2) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T.
    (3) Link-Miles Image II.
    c. Visual systems not required to have accurate taxiway edge 
lighting are:
    (1) Redifusion SP1.
    (2) FlightSafety Vital IV.
    (3) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT
    (4) XKD displays (even though the XKD image generator is capable of 
generating blue colored lights, the display cannot accommodate that 
color).
    7. A copy of this Directive must be filed in the MQTG in the 
designated FSTD Directive Section, and its inclusion must be annotated 
on the Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart. See Attachment 4, 
Appendices A through D of this part for a sample MQTG Index of Effective 
FSTD Directives chart.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26491, May 9, 2008]



  Sec. Appendix D to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for 

                   Helicopter Flight Training Devices

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    This appendix establishes the standards for Helicopter Flight 
Training Device (FTD) evaluation and qualification at Level 4, Level 5, 
Level 6, or Level 7. The NSPM is responsible for the development, 
application, and implementation of the standards contained within this 
appendix. The procedures and criteria specified in this appendix will be 
used by the NSPM, or a person or persons assigned by the NSPM when 
conducting helicopter FTD evaluations.

                            Table of Contents

    1. Introduction.
    2. Applicability (Sec. Sec. 60.1, 60.2).
    3. Definitions (Sec. 60.3).
    4. Qualification Performance Standards (Sec. 60.4).
    5. Quality Management System (Sec. 60.5).
    6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.7).
    7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (Sec. 60.9).
    8. FTD Use (Sec. 60.11).
    9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (Sec. 60.13).
    10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification 
of the FTD (Sec. 60.14).
    11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.15).
    12. Additional Qualifications for Currently Qualified FTDs (Sec. 
60.16).
    13. Previously Qualified FTDs (Sec. 60.17).
    14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance 
Requirements (Sec. 60.19).
    15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (Sec. 60.20).
    16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Helicopter Types or Models 
(Sec. 60.21).
    17. Modifications to FTDs (Sec. 60.23).
    18. Operations with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative 
Components (Sec. 60.25).
    19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration 
of Qualification (Sec. 60.27).
    20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
Qualification (Sec. 60.29).
    21. Recordkeeping and Reporting (Sec. 60.31).
    22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, 
Falsification, or Incorrect Statements (Sec. 60.33).

[[Page 326]]

    23. [Reserved]
    24. Levels of FTD.
    25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
Agreement (BASA) (Sec. 60.37).
    Attachment 1 to Appendix D to Part 60--General FTD Requirements.
    Attachment 2 to Appendix D to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD) 
Objective Tests.
    Attachment 3 to Appendix D to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD) 
Subjective Evaluation.
    Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60--Sample Documents.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                             1. Introduction

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. This appendix contains background information as well as 
regulatory and informative material as described later in this section. 
To assist the reader in determining what areas are required and what 
areas are permissive, the text in this appendix is divided into two 
sections: ``QPS Requirements'' and ``Information.'' The QPS Requirements 
sections contain details regarding compliance with the part 60 rule 
language. These details are regulatory, but are found only in this 
appendix. The Information sections contain material that is advisory in 
nature, and designed to give the user general information about the 
regulation.
    b. Questions regarding the contents of this publication should be 
sent to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation 
Administration, Flight Standards Service, National Simulator Program 
Staff, AFS-205, 100 Hartsfield Centre Parkway, Suite 400, Atlanta, 
Georgia 30354. Telephone contact numbers for the NSP are: Phone, 404-
832-4700; fax, 404-761-8906. The general e-mail address for the NSP 
office is: [email protected]. The NSP Internet Web Site address 
is: http://www.faa.gov/safety/programs--initiatives/aircraft--aviation/
nsp/. On this Web Site you will find an NSP personnel list with 
telephone and e-mail contact information for each NSP staff member, a 
list of qualified flight simulation devices, ACs, a description of the 
qualification process, NSP policy, and an NSP ``In-Works'' section. Also 
linked from this site are additional information sources, handbook 
bulletins, frequently asked questions, a listing and text of the Federal 
Aviation Regulations, Flight Standards Inspector's handbooks, and other 
FAA links.
    c. The NSPM encourages the use of electronic media for all 
communication, including any record, report, request, test, or statement 
required by this appendix. The electronic media used must have adequate 
security provisions and be acceptable to the NSPM. The NSPM recommends 
inquiries on system compatibility, and minimum system requirements are 
also included on the NSP Web site.
    d. Related Reading References.
    (1) 14 CFR part 60.
    (2) 14 CFR part 61.
    (3) 14 CFR part 63.
    (4) 14 CFR part 119.
    (5) 14 CFR part 121.
    (6) 14 CFR part 125.
    (7) 14 CFR part 135.
    (8) 14 CFR part 141.
    (9) 14 CFR part 142.
    (10) AC 120-28, as amended, Criteria for Approval of Category III 
Landing Weather Minima.
    (11) AC 120-29, as amended, Criteria for Approving Category I and 
Category II Landing Minima for part 121 operators.
    (12) AC 120-35, as amended, Line Operational Simulations: Line-
Oriented Flight Training, Special Purpose Operational Training, Line 
Operational Evaluation.
    (13) AC 120-41, as amended, Criteria for Operational Approval of 
Airborne Wind Shear Alerting and Flight Guidance Systems.
    (14) AC 120-57, as amended, Surface Movement Guidance and Control 
System (SMGCS).
    (15) AC 120-63, as amended, Helicopter Simulator Qualification.
    (16) AC 150/5300-13, as amended, Airport Design.
    (17) AC 150/5340-1, as amended, Standards for Airport Markings.
    (18) AC 150/5340-4, as amended, Installation Details for Runway 
Centerline Touchdown Zone Lighting Systems.
    (19) AC 150/5390-2, as amended, Heliport Design.
    (20) AC 150/5340-19, as amended, Taxiway Centerline Lighting System.
    (21) AC 150/5340-24, as amended, Runway and Taxiway Edge Lighting 
System.
    (22) AC 150/5345-28, as amended, Precision Approach Path Indicator 
(PAPI) Systems.
    (23) International Air Transport Association document, ``Flight 
Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,'' as amended.
    (24) AC 29-2, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of 
Transport Category Rotorcraft.
    (25) AC 27-1, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of 
Normal Category Rotorcraft.
    (26) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Manual of 
Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators, as amended.

[[Page 327]]

    (27) Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volume I, as 
amended and Volume II, as amended, The Royal Aeronautical Society, 
London, UK.
    (28) FAA Publication FAA-S-8081 series (Practical Test Standards for 
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and 
Instrument Ratings).
    (29) The FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). An electronic 
version of the AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/atpubs.
    (30) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document number 436, 
Guidelines For Electronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended).
    (31) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document 610, Guidance for 
Design and Integration of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simulators (as 
amended).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                 2. Applicability (Sec. 60.1 and 60.2)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.1, Applicability, or to Sec. 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to 
person who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized 
activities.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                       3. Definitions (Sec. 60.3)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    See Appendix F of this part for a list of definitions and 
abbreviations from part 1, part 60, and the QPS appendices of part 60.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

           4. Qualification Performance Standards (Sec. 60.4)

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.4, Qualification Performance Standards.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                5. Quality Management System (Sec. 60.5)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    Additional regulatory material and informational material regarding 
Quality Management Systems for FTDs may be found in Appendix E of this 
part.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

           6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.7)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The intent of the language in Sec. 60.7(b) is to have a specific 
FTD, identified by the sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-approved 
flight training program for the helicopter simulated during the 12-month 
period described. The identification of the specific FTD may change from 
one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor 
sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least once during the prescribed 
period. There is no minimum number of hours or minimum FTD periods 
required.
    b. The following examples describe acceptable operational practices:
    (1) Example One.
    (a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, specific FTD for its own use, 
in its own facility or elsewhere--this single FTD forms the basis for 
the sponsorship. The sponsor uses that FTD at least once in each 12-
month period in that sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for 
the helicopter simulated. This 12-month period is established according 
to the following schedule:
    (i) If the FTD was qualified prior to May 30, 2008, the 12-month 
period begins on the date of the first continuing qualification 
evaluation conducted in accordance with Sec. 60.19 after May 30, 2008, 
and continues for each subsequent 12-month period;
    (ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, 2008, will be required 
to undergo an initial or upgrade evaluation in accordance with Sec. 
60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation is complete, the first 
continuing qualification evaluation will be conducted within 6 months. 
The 12 month continuing qualification evaluation cycle begins on that 
date and continues for each subsequent 12-month period.
    (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FTD use required.
    (c) The identification of the specific FTD may change from one 12-
month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor 
sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least once during the prescribed 
period.
    (2) Example Two.
    (a) A sponsor sponsors an additional number of FTDs, in its facility 
or elsewhere. Each additionally sponsored FTD must be--
    (i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight 
training program for the helicopter simulated (as described in Sec. 
60.7(d)(1)); or

[[Page 328]]

    (ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder in that other 
certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the 
helicopter simulated (as described in Sec. 60.7(d)(1)). This 12-month 
period is established in the same manner as in example one; or
    (iii) Provided a statement each year from a qualified pilot, (after 
having flown the helicopter not the subject FTD or another FTD, during 
the preceding 12-month period) stating that the subject FTD's 
performance and handling qualities represent the helicopter (as 
described in Sec. 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is provided at least once 
in each 12-month period established in the same manner as in example 
one.
    (b) There is no minimum number of hours of FTD use required.
    (3) Example Three.
    (a) A sponsor in New York (in this example, a Part 142 certificate 
holder) establishes ``satellite'' training centers in Chicago and 
Moscow.
    (b) The satellite function means that the Chicago and Moscow centers 
must operate under the New York center's certificate (in accordance with 
all of the New York center's practices, procedures, and policies; e.g., 
instructor and/or technician training/checking requirements, record 
keeping, QMS program).
    (c) All of the FTDs in the Chicago and Moscow centers could be dry-
leased (i.e., the certificate holder does not have and use FAA-approved 
flight training programs for the FTDs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) 
because--
    (i) Each FTD in the Chicago center and each FTD in the Moscow center 
is used at least once each 12-month period by another FAA certificate 
holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training 
program for the helicopter (as described in Sec. 60.7(d)(1)); or
    (ii) A statement is obtained from a qualified pilot (having flown 
the helicopter, not the subject FTD or another FTD during the preceding 
12-month period) stating that the performance and handling qualities of 
each FTD in the Chicago and Moscow centers represents the helicopter (as 
described in Sec. 60.7(d)(2)).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

       7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (Sec. 60.9)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    The phrase ``as soon as practicable'' in Sec. 60.9(a) means without 
unnecessarily disrupting or delaying beyond a reasonable time the 
training, evaluation, or experience being conducted in the FTD.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                        8. FTD Use (Sec. 60.11).

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.11, FTD Use.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

            9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (Sec. 60.13)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. Flight test data used to validate FTD performance and handling 
qualities must have been gathered in accordance with a flight test 
program containing the following:
    (1) A flight test plan consisting of:
    (a) The maneuvers and procedures required for aircraft certification 
and simulation programming and validation.
    (b) For each maneuver or procedure--
    (i) The procedures and control input the flight test pilot and/or 
engineer used.
    (ii) The atmospheric and environmental conditions.
    (iii) The initial flight conditions.
    (iv) The helicopter configuration, including weight and center of 
gravity.
    (v) The data to be gathered.
    (vi) All other information necessary to recreate the flight test 
conditions in the FTD.
    (2) Appropriately qualified flight test personnel.
    (3) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisition equipment or 
system(s), including appropriate data reduction and analysis methods and 
techniques, acceptable to the FAA's Aircraft Certification Service.
    b. The data, regardless of source, must be presented:
    (1) In a format that supports the FTD validation process;
    (2) In a manner that is clearly readable and annotated correctly and 
completely;
    (3) With resolution sufficient to determine compliance with the 
tolerances set forth in Attachment 2, Table D2A Appendix D;
    (4) With any necessary guidance information provided; and
    (5) Without alteration, adjustments, or bias. Data may be corrected 
to address known data calibration errors provided that an explanation of 
the methods used to correct the errors appears in the QTG. The corrected 
data may be re-scaled, digitized, or otherwise manipulated to fit the 
desired presentation

[[Page 329]]

    c. After completion of any additional flight test, a flight test 
report must be submitted in support of the validation data. The report 
must contain sufficient data and rationale to support qualification of 
the FTD at the level requested.
    d. As required by Sec. 60.13(f), the sponsor must notify the NSPM 
when it becomes aware that an addition to or a revision of the flight 
related data or helicopter systems related data is available if this 
data is used to program and operate a qualified FTD. The data referred 
to in this sub-section is data used to validate the performance, 
handling qualities, or other characteristics of the aircraft, including 
data related to any relevant changes occurring after the type 
certification is issued. The sponsor must--
    (1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the NSPM of the existence of 
this data; and
    (a) Within 45 calendar days, notify the NSPM of--
    (b) The schedule to incorporate this data into the FTD; or
    (c) The reason for not incorporating this data into the FTD.
    e. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a 
``snapshot test'' or a ``series of snapshot tests'' results in lieu of a 
time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that 
a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the 
``snapshot.'' The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior 
to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap 
shot.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    f. The FTD sponsor is encouraged to maintain a liaison with the 
manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the 
aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the 
manufacturer is no longer in business), and if appropriate, with the 
person having supplied the aircraft data package for the FTD in order to 
facilitate the notification described in this paragraph.
    g. It is the intent of the NSPM that for new aircraft entering 
service, at a point well in advance of preparation of the QTG, the 
sponsor should submit to the NSPM for approval, a descriptive document 
(see Appendix C of this part, Table C2D, Sample Validation Data Roadmap 
for Helicopters) containing the plan for acquiring the validation data, 
including data sources. This document should clearly identify sources of 
data for all required tests, a description of the validity of these data 
for a specific engine type and thrust rating configuration, and the 
revision levels of all avionics affecting the performance or flying 
qualities of the aircraft. Additionally, this document should provide 
other information such as the rationale or explanation for cases where 
data or data parameters are missing, instances where engineering 
simulation data are used, or where flight test methods require further 
explanations. It should also provide a brief narrative describing the 
cause and effect of any deviation from data requirements. The aircraft 
manufacturer may provide this document.
    h. There is no requirement for any flight test data supplier to 
submit a flight test plan or program prior to gathering flight test 
data. However, the NSPM notes that inexperienced data gatherers often 
provide data that is irrelevant, improperly marked, or lacking adequate 
justification for selection. Other problems include inadequate 
information regarding initial conditions or test maneuvers. The NSPM has 
been forced to refuse these data submissions as validation data for an 
FTD evaluation. For this reason the NSPM recommends that any data 
supplier not previously experienced in this area review the data 
necessary for programming and for validating the performance of the FTD 
and discuss the flight test plan anticipated for acquiring such data 
with the NSPM well in advance of commencing the flight tests.
    i. The NSPM will consider, on a case-by-case basis, whether to 
approve supplemental validation data derived from flight data recording 
systems such as a Quick Access Recorder or Flight Data Recorder.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of 
                         the FTD (Sec. 60.14).

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. In the event that the NSPM determines that special equipment or 
specifically qualified persons will be required to conduct an 
evaluation, the NSPM will make every attempt to notify the sponsor at 
least one (1) week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in advance of the 
evaluation. Examples of special equipment include flight control 
measurement devices, accelerometers, or oscilloscopes. Examples of 
specially qualified personnel include individuals specifically qualified 
to install or use any special equipment when its use is required.
    b. Examples of a special evaluation include an evaluation conducted 
after an FTD is moved; at the request of the TPAA; or as a result of 
comments received from users of the FTD that raise questions about the 
continued qualification or use of the FTD.

[[Page 330]]

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (Sec. 60.15).

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

    a. In order to be qualified at a particular qualification level, the 
FTD must:
    (1) Meet the general requirements listed in Attachment 1 of this 
appendix.
    (2) Meet the objective testing requirements listed in Attachment 2 
of this appendix (Level 4 FTDs do not require objective tests).
    (3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjective tests listed in 
Attachment 3 of this appendix.
    b. The request described in Sec. 60.15(a) must include all of the 
following:
    (1) A statement that the FTD meets all of the applicable provisions 
of this part and all applicable provisions of the QPS.
    (2) A confirmation that the sponsor will forward to the NSPM the 
statement described in Sec. 60.15(b) in such time as to be received no 
later than 5 business days prior to the scheduled evaluation and may be 
forwarded to the NSPM via traditional or electronic means.
    (3) Except for a Level 4 FTD, a QTG, acceptable to the NSPM, that 
includes all of the following:
    (a) Objective data obtained from aircraft testing or another 
approved source.
    (b) Correlating objective test results obtained from the performance 
of the FTD as prescribed in the appropriate QPS.
    (c) The result of FTD subjective tests prescribed in the appropriate 
QPS.
    (d) A description of the equipment necessary to perform the 
evaluation for initial qualification and the continuing qualification 
evaluations.
    c. The QTG described in paragraph a(3) of this section must provide 
the documented proof of compliance with the FTD objective tests in 
Attachment 2, Table D2A of this appendix.
    d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by the sponsor, or the 
sponsor's agent on behalf of the sponsor, to the NSPM for review and 
approval, and must include, for each objective test:
    (1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions.
    (2) Pertinent and complete instructions for conducting automatic and 
manual tests.
    (3) A means of comparing the FTD test results to the objective data.
    (4) Any other information as necessary to assist in the evaluation 
of the test results.
    (5) Other information appropriate to the qualification level of the 
FTD.
    e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, 
must include the following:
    (1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and FAA approval signature blocks 
(see Attachment 4, Figure D4C, of this appendix, for a sample QTG cover 
page).
    (2) A continuing qualification evaluation requirements page. This 
page will be used by the NSPM to establish and record the frequency with 
which continuing qualification evaluations must be conducted and any 
subsequent changes that may be determined by the NSPM in accordance with 
Sec. 60.19. See Attachment 4, Figure D4G, of this appendix for a sample 
Continuing Qualification Evaluation Requirements page.
    (3) An FTD information page that provides the information listed in 
this paragraph, if applicable (see Attachment 4, Figure D4B, of this 
appendix, for a sample FTD information page). For convertible FTDs, the 
sponsor must submit a separate page for each configuration of the FTD.
    (a) The sponsor's FTD identification number or code.
    (b) The helicopter model and series being simulated.
    (c) The aerodynamic data revision number or reference.
    (d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model and the aerodynamic 
coefficient data used to modify the basic model.
    (e) The engine model(s) and its data revision number or reference.
    (f) The flight control data revision number or reference.
    (g) The flight management system identification and revision level.
    (h) The FTD model and manufacturer.
    (i) The date of FTD manufacture.
    (j) The FTD computer identification.
    (k) The visual system model and manufacturer, including display 
type.
    (l) The motion system type and manufacturer, including degrees of 
freedom.
    (4) A Table of Contents.
    (5) A log of revisions and a list of effective pages.
    (6) List of all relevant data references.
    (7) A glossary of terms and symbols used (including sign conventions 
and units).
    (8) Statements of Compliance and Capability (SOC) with certain 
requirements.
    (9) Recording procedures or equipment required to accomplish the 
objective tests.
    (10) The following information for each objective test designated in 
Attachment 2 of this appendix, as applicable to the qualification level 
sought:
    (a) Name of the test.
    (b) Objective of the test.
    (c) Initial conditions.
    (d) Manual test procedures.
    (e) Automatic test procedures (if applicable).

[[Page 331]]

    (f) Method for evaluating FTD objective test results.
    (g) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the 
automatic test(s).
    (h) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the 
manual test(s).
    (i) Tolerances for relevant parameters.
    (j) Source of Validation Data (document and page number).
    (k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located in a separate binder, a 
cross reference for the identification and page number for pertinent 
data location must be provided).
    (l) FTD Objective Test Results as obtained by the sponsor. Each test 
result must reflect the date completed and must be clearly labeled as a 
product of the device being tested.
    f. A convertible FTD is addressed as a separate FTD for each model 
and series helicopter to which it will be converted and for the FAA 
qualification level sought. The NSPM will conduct an evaluation for each 
configuration. If a sponsor seeks qualification for two or more models 
of a helicopter type using a convertible FTD, the sponsor must provide a 
QTG for each helicopter model, or a QTG for the first helicopter model 
and a supplement to that QTG for each additional helicopter model. The 
NSPM will conduct evaluations for each helicopter model.
    g. The form and manner of presentation of objective test results in 
the QTG must include the following:
    (1) The sponsor's FTD test results must be recorded in a manner 
acceptable to the NSPM, that allows easy comparison of the FTD test 
results to the validation data (e.g., use of a multi-channel recorder, 
line printer, cross plotting, overlays, transparencies).
    (2) FTD results must be labeled using terminology common to 
helicopter parameters as opposed to computer software identifications.
    (3) Validation data documents included in a QTG may be 
photographically reduced only if such reduction will not alter the 
graphic scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpretation or 
resolution.
    (4) Scaling on graphical presentations must provide the resolution 
necessary to evaluate the parameters shown in Attachment 2, Table D2A of 
this appendix.
    (5) Tests involving time histories, data sheets (or transparencies 
thereof) and FTD test results must be clearly marked with appropriate 
reference points to ensure an accurate comparison between FTD and 
helicopter with respect to time. Time histories recorded via a line 
printer are to be clearly identified for cross-plotting on the 
helicopter data. Over-plots may not obscure the reference data.
    h. The sponsor may elect to complete the QTG objective and 
subjective tests at the manufacturer's facility or at the sponsor's 
training facility. If the tests are conducted at the manufacturer's 
facility, the sponsor must repeat at least one-third of the tests at the 
sponsor's training facility in order to substantiate FTD performance. 
The QTG must be clearly annotated to indicate when and where each test 
was accomplished. Tests conducted at the manufacturer's facility and at 
the sponsor's training facility must be conducted after the FTD is 
assembled with systems and sub-systems functional and operating in an 
interactive manner. The test results must be submitted to the NSPM.
    i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the MQTG at the FTD location.
    j. All FTDs for which the initial qualification is conducted after 
May 30, 2014, must have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including all 
objective data obtained from helicopter testing, or another approved 
source (reformatted or digitized), together with correlating objective 
test results obtained from the performance of the FTD (reformatted or 
digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The eMQTG must also contain 
the general FTD performance or demonstration results (reformatted or 
digitized) prescribed in this appendix, and a description of the 
equipment necessary to perform the initial qualification evaluation and 
the continuing qualification evaluations. The eMQTG must include the 
original validation data used to validate FTD performance and handling 
qualities in either the original digitized format from the data supplier 
or an electronic scan of the original time-history plots that were 
provided by the data supplier. A copy of the eMQTG must be provided to 
the NSPM.
    k. All other FTDs (not covered in subparagraph ``j'') must have an 
electronic copy of the MQTG by and after May 30, 2014. An electronic 
copy of the MQTG must be provided to the NSPM. This may be provided by 
an electronic scan presented in a Portable Document File (PDF), or 
similar format acceptable to the NSPM.
    l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualification evaluation 
conducted by the NSPM, the sponsor must also provide a person 
knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the operation of 
the FTD.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    m. Only those FTDs that are sponsored by a certificate holder as 
defined in Appendix F of this part will be evaluated by the NSPM. 
However, other FTD evaluations may be conducted on a case-by-case basis 
as the Administrator deems appropriate, but only in accordance with 
applicable agreements.
    n. The NSPM will conduct an evaluation for each configuration, and 
each FTD must be evaluated as completely as possible. To ensure a 
thorough and uniform evaluation,

[[Page 332]]

each FTD is subjected to the general FTD requirements in Attachment 1 of 
this appendix, the objective tests listed in Attachment 2 of this 
appendix, and the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this 
appendix. The evaluations described herein will include, but not 
necessarily be limited to the following:
    (1) Helicopter responses, including longitudinal and lateral-
directional control responses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix).
    (2) Performance in authorized portions of the simulated helicopter's 
operating envelope, to include tasks evaluated by the NSPM in the areas 
of surface operations, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach and 
landing, as well as abnormal and emergency operations (see Attachment 2 
of this appendix).
    (3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this 
appendix).
    (4) Flight deck configuration (see Attachment 1 of this appendix).
    (5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor station functions checks 
(see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix).
    (6) Helicopter systems and sub-systems (as appropriate) as compared 
to the helicopter simulated (see attachment 1 and attachment 3 of this 
appendix).
    (7) FTD systems and sub-systems, including force cueing (motion), 
visual, and aural (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attachment 1 and 
Attachment 2 of this appendix).
    (8) Certain additional requirements, depending upon the 
qualification level sought, including equipment or circumstances that 
may become hazardous to the occupants. The sponsor may be subject to 
Occupational Safety and Health Administration requirements.
    o. The NSPM administers the objective and subjective tests, which 
include an examination of functions. The tests include a qualitative 
assessment of the FTD by an NSP pilot. The NSP evaluation team leader 
may assign other qualified personnel to assist in accomplishing the 
functions examination and/or the objective and subjective tests 
performed during an evaluation when required.
    (1) Objective tests provide a basis for measuring and evaluating FTD 
performance and determining compliance with the requirements of this 
part.
    (2) Subjective tests provide a basis for:
    (a) Evaluating the capability of the FTD to perform over a typical 
utilization period;
    (b) Determining that the FTD satisfactorily simulates each required 
task;
    (c) Verifying correct operation of the FTD controls, instruments, 
and systems; and
    (d) Demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this part.
    p. The tolerances for the test parameters listed in Attachment 2 of 
this appendix reflect the range of tolerances acceptable to the NSPM for 
FTD validation and are not to be confused with design tolerances 
specified for FTD manufacture. In making decisions regarding tests and 
test results, the NSPM relies on the use of operational and engineering 
judgment in the application of data (including consideration of the way 
in which the flight test was flown and way the data was gathered and 
applied), data presentations, and the applicable tolerances for each 
test.
    q. In addition to the scheduled continuing qualification evaluation, 
each FTD is subject to evaluations conducted by the NSPM at any time 
without prior notification to the sponsor. Such evaluations would be 
accomplished in a normal manner (i.e., requiring exclusive use of the 
FTD for the conduct of objective and subjective tests and an examination 
of functions) if the FTD is not being used for flight crewmember 
training, testing, or checking. However, if the FTD were being used, the 
evaluation would be conducted in a non-exclusive manner. This non-
exclusive evaluation will be conducted by the FTD evaluator accompanying 
the check airman, instructor, Aircrew Program Designee (APD), or FAA 
inspector aboard the FTD along with the student(s) and observing the 
operation of the FTD during the training, testing, or checking 
activities.
    r. Problems with objective test results are handled as follows:
    (1) If a problem with an objective test result is detected by the 
NSP evaluation team during an evaluation, the test may be repeated or 
the QTG may be amended.
    (2) If it is determined that the results of an objective test do not 
support the qualification level requested but do support a lower level, 
the NSPM may qualify the FTD at a lower level.
    s. After an FTD is successfully evaluated, the NSPM issues an SOQ to 
the sponsor. The NSPM recommends the FTD to the TPAA, who will approve 
the FTD for use in a flight training program. The SOQ will be issued at 
the satisfactory conclusion of the initial or continuing qualification 
evaluation and will list the tasks for which the FTD is qualified, 
referencing the tasks described in Table D1B in Attachment 1 of this 
appendix. However, it is the sponsor's responsibility to obtain TPAA 
approval prior to using the FTD in an FAA-approved flight training 
program.
    t. Under normal circumstances, the NSPM establishes a date for the 
initial or upgrade evaluation within ten (10) working days after 
determining that a complete QTG is acceptable. Unusual circumstances may 
warrant establishing an evaluation date before this determination is 
made. A sponsor may schedule an evaluation date as early as 6 months in 
advance. However, there may be a delay of 45 days or more in 
rescheduling and completing the evaluation if the sponsor is unable to 
meet the scheduled date. See Attachment 4, of this appendix, Figure D4A,

[[Page 333]]

Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation.
    u. The numbering system used for objective test results in the QTG 
should closely follow the numbering system set out in Attachment 2, FTD 
Objective Tests, Table D2A of this appendix.
    v. Contact the NSPM or visit the NSPM Web site for additional 
information regarding the preferred qualifications of pilots used to 
meet the requirements of Sec. 60.15(d).
    w. Examples of the exclusions for which the FTD might not have been 
subjectively tested by the sponsor or the NSPM and for which 
qualification might not be sought or granted, as described in Sec. 
60.15(g)(6), include approaches to and departures from slopes and 
pinnacles.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

12. Additional Qualifications for Currently Qualified FTDs (Sec. 60.16)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.16, Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FTD.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

               13. Previously Qualified FTDs (Sec. 60.17)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. In instances where a sponsor plans to remove an FTD from active 
status for a period of less than two years, the following procedures 
apply:
    (1) The NSPM must be notified in writing and the notification must 
include an estimate of the period that the FTD will be inactive.
    (2) Continuing Qualification evaluations will not be scheduled 
during the inactive period.
    (3) The NSPM will remove the FTD from the list of qualified FTDs on 
a mutually established date not later than the date on which the first 
missed continuing qualification evaluation would have been scheduled.
    (4) Before the FTD is restored to qualified status, it must be 
evaluated by the NSPM. The evaluation content and the time required to 
accomplish the evaluation is based on the number of continuing 
qualification evaluations and sponsor-conducted quarterly inspections 
missed during the period of inactivity.
    (5) The sponsor must notify the NSPM of any changes to the original 
scheduled time out of service.
    b. FTDs and replacement FTD systems qualified prior to May 30, 2008, 
are not required to meet the general FTD requirements, the objective 
test requirements, and the subjective test requirements of Attachments 
1, 2, and 3, respectively, of this appendix as long as the FTD continues 
to meet the test requirements contained in the MQTG developed under the 
original qualification basis.
    c. After (1 year after date of publication of the final rule in the 
Federal Register) each visual scene and airport model installed in and 
available for use in a qualified FTD must meet the requirements 
described in Attachment 3 of this appendix.
    d. Simulators qualified prior to May 30, 2008, may be updated. If an 
evaluation is deemed appropriate or necessary by the NSPM after such an 
update, the evaluation will not require an evaluation to standards 
beyond those against which the simulator was originally qualified.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    e. Other certificate holders or persons desiring to use an FTD may 
contract with FTD sponsors to use FTDs previously qualified at a 
particular level for a helicopter type and approved for use within an 
FAA-approved flight training program. Such FTDs are not required to 
undergo an additional qualification process, except as described in 
Sec. 60.16.
    f. Each FTD user must obtain approval from the appropriate TPAA to 
use any FTD in an FAA-approved flight training program.
    g. The intent of the requirement listed in Sec. 60.17(b), for each 
FTD to have an SOQ within 6 years, is to have the availability of that 
statement (including the configuration list and the limitations to 
authorizations) to provide a complete picture of the FTD inventory 
regulated by the FAA. The issuance of the statement will not require any 
additional evaluation or require any adjustment to the evaluation basis 
for the FTD.
    h. Downgrading of an FTD is a permanent change in qualification 
level and will necessitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to reflect the 
revised qualification level, as appropriate. If a temporary restriction 
is placed on an FTD because of a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative 
component or on-going repairs, the restriction is not a permanent change 
in qualification level. Instead, the restriction is temporary and is 
removed when the reason for the restriction has been resolved.
    i. It is not the intent of the NSPM to discourage the improvement of 
existing simulation (e.g., the ``updating'' of a control loading system, 
or the replacement of the IOS with a more capable unit) by requiring the

[[Page 334]]

``updated'' device to meet the qualification standards current at the 
time of the update. Depending on the extent of the update, the NSPM may 
require that the updated device be evaluated and may require that an 
evaluation include all or a portion of the elements of an initial 
evaluation. However, the standards against which the device would be 
evaluated are those that are found in the MQTG for that device.
    j. The NSPM will determine the evaluation criteria for an FTD that 
has been removed from active status for a prolonged period. The criteria 
will be based on the number of continuing qualification evaluations and 
quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity. For 
example, if the FTD were out of service for a 1 year period, it would be 
necessary to complete the entire QTG, since all of the quarterly 
evaluations would have been missed. The NSPM will also consider how the 
FTD was stored, whether parts were removed from the FTD and whether the 
FTD was disassembled.
    k. The FTD will normally be requalified using the FAA-approved MQTG 
and the criteria that was in effect prior to its removal from 
qualification. However, inactive periods of 2 years or more will require 
re-qualification under the standards in effect and current at the time 
of requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification, Evaluation, and Maintenance 
                       Requirements (Sec. 60.19)

________________________________________________________________________

                          Begin QPS Requirement

    a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of four evenly spaced 
inspections throughout the year. The objective test sequence and content 
of each inspection in this sequence must be developed by the sponsor and 
must be acceptable to the NSPM.
    b. The description of the functional preflight check must be 
contained in the sponsor's QMS.
    c. Record ``functional preflight'' in the FTD discrepancy log book 
or other acceptable location, including any item found to be missing, 
malfunctioning, or inoperative.
    d. During the continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the 
NSPM, the sponsor must also provide a person knowledgeable about the 
operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FTD.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    e. The sponsor's test sequence and the content of each quarterly 
inspection required in Sec. 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a 
mix from the objective test requirement areas listed as follows:
    (1) Performance.
    (2) Handling qualities.
    (3) Motion system (where appropriate).
    (4) Visual system (where appropriate).
    (5) Sound system (where appropriate).
    (6) Other FTD systems.
    f. If the NSP evaluator plans to accomplish specific tests during a 
normal continuing qualification evaluation that requires the use of 
special equipment or technicians, the sponsor will be notified as far in 
advance of the evaluation as practical; but not less than 72 hours. 
Examples of such tests include latencies and control sweeps.
    g. The continuing qualification evaluations described in Sec. 
60.19(b) will normally require 4 hours of FTD time. However, flexibility 
is necessary to address abnormal situations or situations involving 
aircraft with additional levels of complexity (e.g., computer controlled 
aircraft). The sponsor should anticipate that some tests may require 
additional time. The continuing qualification evaluations will consist 
of the following:
    (1) Review of the results of the quarterly inspections conducted by 
the sponsor since the last scheduled continuing qualification 
evaluation.
    (2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 objective tests from the 
MQTG that provide an adequate opportunity to evaluate the performance of 
the FTD. The tests chosen will be performed either automatically or 
manually and should be able to be conducted within approximately one-
third (1/3) of the allotted FTD time.
    (3) A subjective evaluation of the FTD to perform a representative 
sampling of the tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appendix. This 
portion of the evaluation should take approximately two-thirds (2/3) of 
the allotted FTD time.
    (4) An examination of the functions of the FTD may include the 
motion system, visual system, sound system as applicable, instructor 
operating station, and the normal functions and simulated malfunctions 
of the simulated helicopter systems. This examination is normally 
accomplished simultaneously with the subjective evaluation requirements.
    h. The requirement established in Sec. 60.19(b)(4) regarding the 
frequency of NSPM-conducted continuing qualification evaluations for 
each FTD is typically 12 months. However, the establishment and 
satisfactory implementation of an approved QMS for a sponsor will 
provide a basis for adjusting the frequency of evaluations to exceed 12-
month intervals.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 335]]

               15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (Sec. 60.20)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.20. Logging FTD Discrepancies.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Helicopter Types or Models 
                              (Sec. 60.21)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.21, Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Helicopter Types or Models.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                 17. Modifications to FTDs (Sec. 60.23)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. The notification described in Sec. 60.23(c)(2) must include a 
complete description of the planned modification, with a description of 
the operational and engineering effect the proposed modification will 
have on the operation of the FTD and the results that are expected with 
the modification incorporated.
    b. Prior to using the modified FTD:
    (1) All the applicable objective tests completed with the 
modification incorporated, including any necessary updates to the MQTG 
(e.g., accomplishment of FSTD Directives) must be acceptable to the 
NSPM; and
    (2) The sponsor must provide the NSPM with a statement signed by the 
MR that the factors listed in Sec. 60.15(b) are addressed by the 
appropriate personnel as described in that section.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    c. FSTD Directives are considered modification of an FTD. See 
Attachment 4 of this appendix, Figure D4H for a sample index of 
effective FSTD Directives. See Attachment 6 of this appendix for a list 
of all effective FSTD Directives applicable to Helicopter FTDs.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 18. Operation with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components 
                              (Sec. 60.25)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The sponsor's responsibility with respect to Sec. 60.25(a) is 
satisfied when the sponsor fairly and accurately advises the user of the 
current status of an FTD, including any missing, malfunctioning, or 
inoperative (MMI) component(s).
    b. It is the responsibility of the instructor, check airman, or 
representative of the administrator conducting training, testing, or 
checking to exercise reasonable and prudent judgment to determine if any 
MMI component is necessary for the satisfactory completion of a specific 
maneuver, procedure, or task.
    c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day period described in Sec. 
60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend 
the deadline until the next business day.
    d. In accordance with the authorization described in Sec. 60.25(b), 
the sponsor may develop a discrepancy prioritizing system to accomplish 
repairs based on the level of impact on the capability of the FTD. 
Repairs having a larger impact on the FTD's ability to provide the 
required training, evaluation, or flight experience will have a higher 
priority for repair or replacement.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
                       Qualification (Sec. 60.27)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FTD will be maintained 
during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, 
hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic 
fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FTD is to be 
maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the NSPM will be able to 
determine the amount of testing that is required for requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of 
                       Qualification (Sec. 60.29)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FTD will be maintained 
during its out-of-

[[Page 336]]

service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, hydraulic, and 
electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; control of 
the environmental factors in which the FTD is to be maintained) there is 
a greater likelihood that the NSPM will be able to determine the amount 
of testing that is required for requalification.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

             21. Record Keeping and Reporting (Sec. 60.31)

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. FTD modifications can include hardware or software changes. For 
FTD modifications involving software programming changes, the record 
required by Sec. 60.31(a)(2) must consist of the name of the aircraft 
system software, aerodynamic model, or engine model change, the date of 
the change, a summary of the change, and the reason for the change.
    b. If a coded form for record keeping is used, it must provide for 
the preservation and retrieval of information with appropriate security 
or controls to prevent the inappropriate alteration of such records 
after the fact.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Falsification, 
                  or Incorrect Statements (Sec. 60.33)

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.33, Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, 
Falsification, or Incorrect Statements

                             23. [Reserved]

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                            24. Levels of FTD

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    a. The following is a general description of each level of FTD. 
Detailed standards and tests for the various levels of FTDs are fully 
defined in Attachments 1 through 3 of this appendix.
    (1) Level 4. A Level 4 device is one that may have an open 
helicopter-specific flight deck area, or an enclosed helicopter-specific 
flight deck and at least one operating system. Air/ground logic is 
required (no aerodynamic programming required). All displays may be 
flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in 
the aircraft. All controls, switches, and knobs may be touch sensitive 
activation (not capable of manual manipulation of the flight controls) 
or may physically replicate the aircraft in control operation.
    (2) Level 5. A Level 5 device is one that may have an open 
helicopter-specific flight deck area, or an enclosed helicopter-specific 
flight deck and a generic aerodynamic program with at least one 
operating system and control loading representative of the simulated 
helicopter. The control loading need only represent the helicopter at an 
approach speed and configuration. All displays may be flat/LCD panel 
representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft. 
Primary and secondary flight controls (e.g., rudder, aileron, elevator, 
flaps, spoilers/speed brakes, engine controls, landing gear, nosewheel 
steering, trim, brakes) must be physical controls. All other controls, 
switches, and knobs may be touch sensitive activation.
    (3) Level 6. A Level 6 device is one that has an enclosed 
helicopter-specific flight deck and aerodynamic program with all 
applicable helicopter systems operating and control loading that is 
representative of the simulated helicopter throughout its ground and 
flight envelope and significant sound representation. All displays may 
be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays 
in the aircraft, but all controls, switches, and knobs must physically 
replicate the aircraft in control operation.
    (4) Level 7. A Level 7 device is one that has an enclosed 
helicopter-specific flight deck and aerodynamic program with all 
applicable helicopter systems operating and control loading that is 
representative of the simulated helicopter throughout its ground and 
flight envelope and significant sound representation. All displays may 
be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays 
in the aircraft, but all controls, switches, and knobs must physically 
replicate the aircraft in control operation. It also has a visual system 
that provides an out-of-the-flight deck view, providing cross-flight 
deck viewing (for both pilots simultaneously) of a field-of-view of at 
least 146[deg] horizontally and 36[deg] vertically as well as a 
vibration cueing system for characteristic helicopter vibrations noted 
at the pilot station(s).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

   25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
                     Agreement (BASA) (Sec. 60.37)

________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 337]]

                            Begin Information

    No additional regulatory or informational material applies to Sec. 
60.37, FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety 
Agreement (BASA).

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

     Attachment 1 to Appendix D to Part 60--GENERAL FTD REQUIREMENTS

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                             1. Requirements

    a. Certain requirements included in this appendix must be supported 
with an SOC as defined in Appendix F, which may include objective and 
subjective tests. The requirements for SOCs are indicated in the 
``General FTD Requirements'' column in Table D1A of this appendix.
    b. Table D1A describes the requirements for the indicated level of 
FTD. Many devices include operational systems or functions that exceed 
the requirements outlined in this section. In any event, all systems 
will be tested and evaluated in accordance with this appendix to ensure 
proper operation.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              2. Discussion

    a. This attachment describes the general requirements for qualifying 
Level 4 through Level 7 FTDs. The sponsor should also consult the 
objectives tests in Attachment 2 of this appendix and the examination of 
functions and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix 
to determine the complete requirements for a specific level FTD.
    b. The material contained in this attachment is divided into the 
following categories:
    (1) General Flight Deck Configuration.
    (2) Programming.
    (3) Equipment Operation.
    (4) Equipment and Facilities for Instructor/Evaluator Functions.
    (5) Motion System.
    (6) Visual System.
    (7) Sound System.
    c. Table D1A provides the standards for the General FTD 
Requirements.
    d. Table D1B provides the tasks that the sponsor will examine to 
determine whether the FTD satisfactorily meets the requirements for 
flight crew training, testing, and experience.
    e. Table D1C provides the functions that an instructor/check airman 
must be able to control in the simulator.
    f. It is not required that all of the tasks that appear on the List 
of Qualified Tasks (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the initial 
or continuing qualification evaluation.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                                       Table D1A--Minimum FTD Requirements
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                               QPS requirements                                            Information
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                 FTD level
       Entry No.              General FTD requirements     --------------------               Notes
                                                             4    5    6    7
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. General Flight Deck Configuration.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 338]]

 
1.a....................  The FTD must have a flight deck    ...  ...   X    X   For FTD purposes, the flight
                          that is a replica of the                               deck consists of all that space
                          helicopter, or set of                                  forward of a cross section of
                          helicopters simulated with                             the flight deck at the most
                          controls, equipment, observable                        extreme aft setting of the
                          flight deck indicators, circuit                        pilots' seats including
                          breakers, and bulkheads properly                       additional, required crewmember
                          located, functionally accurate                         duty stations and those
                          and replicating the helicopter                         required bulkheads aft of the
                          or set of helicopters. The                             pilot seats. Bulkheads
                          direction of movement of                               containing only items such as
                          controls and switches must be                          landing gear pin storage
                          identical to that in the                               compartments, fire axes and
                          helicopter or set of                                   extinguishers, spare light
                          helicopters. Crewmember seats                          bulbs, and aircraft documents
                          must afford the capability for                         pouches are not considered
                          the occupant to be able to                             essential and may be omitted.
                          achieve the design ``eye                               If omitted, these items, or the
                          position.'' Equipment for the                          silhouettes of these items, may
                          operation of the flight deck                           be placed on the wall of the
                          windows must be included, but                          simulator, or in any other
                          the actual windows need not be                         location as near as practical
                          operable. Those circuit breakers                       to the original position of
                          that affect procedures or result                       these items.
                          in observable flight deck
                          indications must be properly
                          located and functionally
                          accurate. Fire axes,
                          extinguishers, landing gear
                          pins, and spare light bulbs must
                          be available, and may be
                          represented in silhouette, in
                          the flight simulator. This
                          equipment must be present as
                          near as practical to the
                          original position
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b....................  The FTD must have equipment         X    X
                          (i.e., instruments, panels,
                          systems, circuit breakers, and
                          controls) simulated sufficiently
                          for the authorized training/
                          checking events to be
                          accomplished. The installed
                          equipment, must be located in a
                          spatially correct configuration,
                          and may be in a flight deck or
                          an open flight deck area. Those
                          circuit breakers that affect
                          procedures or result in
                          observable flight deck
                          indications must be properly
                          located and functionally
                          accurate. Additional equipment
                          required for the authorized
                          training and checking events
                          must be available in the FTD but
                          may be located in a suitable
                          location as near as practical to
                          the spatially correct position.
                          Actuation of this equipment must
                          replicate the appropriate
                          function in the helicopter. Fire
                          axes, landing gear pins, and any
                          similar purpose instruments need
                          only be represented in
                          silhouette
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Programming.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a....................  The FTD must provide the proper    ...   X    X    X
                          effect of aerodynamic changes
                          for the combinations of drag and
                          thrust normally encountered in
                          flight. This must include the
                          effect of change in helicopter
                          attitude, thrust, drag,
                          altitude, temperature, and
                          configuration. Levels 6 and 7
                          additionally require the effects
                          of changes in gross weight and
                          center of gravity.Level 5
                          requires only generic
                          aerodynamic programming.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b....................  The FTD must have the computer      X    X    X    X
                          (analog or digital) capability
                          (i.e., capacity, accuracy,
                          resolution, and dynamic
                          response) needed to meet the
                          qualification level sought.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 339]]

 
2.c....................  Relative responses of the flight   ...   X    X    X   The intent is to verify that the
                          deck instruments must be                               FTD provides instrument cues
                          measured by latency tests or                           that are, within the stated
                          transport delay tests, and may                         time delays, like the
                          not exceed 150 milliseconds. The                       helicopter responses. For
                          instruments must respond to                            helicopter response,
                          abrupt input at the pilot's                            acceleration in the
                          position within the allotted                           appropriate, corresponding
                          time, but not before the time                          rotational axis is preferred.
                          that the helicopter or set of
                          helicopters respond under the
                          same conditions
                          Latency: The
                          FTD instrument and, if
                          applicable, the motion system
                          and the visual system response
                          must not be prior to that time
                          when the helicopter responds and
                          may respond up to 150
                          milliseconds after that time
                          under the same conditions.
                          Transport
                          Delay: As an alternative to the
                          Latency requirement, a transport
                          delay objective test may be used
                          to demonstrate that the FTD
                          system does not exceed the
                          specified limit. The sponsor
                          must measure all the delay
                          encountered by a step signal
                          migrating from the pilot's
                          control through all the
                          simulation software modules in
                          the correct order, using a
                          handshaking protocol, finally
                          through the normal output
                          interfaces to the instrument
                          display and, if applicable, the
                          motion system, and the visual
                          system.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Equipment Operation.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a....................  All relevant instrument             A    X    X    X
                          indications involved in the
                          simulation of the helicopter
                          must automatically respond to
                          control movement or external
                          disturbances to the simulated
                          helicopter or set of
                          helicopters; e.g., turbulence or
                          winds
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b....................  Navigation equipment must be        A    X    X    X
                          installed and operate within the
                          tolerances applicable for the
                          helicopter or set of
                          helicopters. Levels 6 and 7 must
                          also include communication
                          equipment (inter-phone and air/
                          ground) like that in the
                          helicopter. Level 5 only needs
                          that navigation equipment
                          necessary to fly an instrument
                          approach
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c....................  Installed systems must simulate     A    X    X    X
                          the applicable helicopter system
                          operation both on the ground and
                          in flight. At least one
                          helicopter system must be
                          represented. Systems must be
                          operative to the extent that
                          applicable normal, abnormal, and
                          emergency operating procedures
                          included in the sponsor's
                          training programs can be
                          accomplished. Levels 6 and 7
                          must simulate all applicable
                          helicopter flight, navigation,
                          and systems operation. Level 5
                          must have functional flight and
                          navigational controls, displays,
                          and instrumentation
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d....................  The lighting environment for        X    X    X    X   Back-lighted panels and
                          panels and instruments must be                         instruments may be installed
                          sufficient for the operation                           but are not required.
                          being conducted
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 340]]

 
3.e....................  The FTD must provide control       ...  ...   X    X
                          forces and control travel that
                          correspond to the replicated
                          helicopter or set of
                          helicopters. Control forces must
                          react in the same manner as in
                          the helicopter or set of
                          helicopters under the same
                          flight conditions
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.f....................  The FTD must provide control       ...   X
                          forces and control travel of
                          sufficient precision to manually
                          fly an instrument approach. The
                          control forces must react in the
                          same manner as in the helicopter
                          or set of helicopters under the
                          same flight conditions
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Instructor or Evaluator Facilities.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a....................  In addition to the flight           X    X    X    X   These seats need not be a
                          crewmember stations, suitable                          replica of an aircraft seat and
                          seating arrangements for an                            may be as simple as an office
                          instructor/check airman and FAA                        chair placed in an appropriate
                          Inspector must be available.                           position.
                          These seats must provide
                          adequate view of crewmember's
                          panel(s)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b....................  The FTD must have instructor        X    X    X    X
                          controls that permit activation
                          of normal, abnormal, and
                          emergency conditions, as
                          appropriate. Once activated,
                          proper system operation must
                          result from system management by
                          the crew and not require input
                          from the instructor controls.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Motion System
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a....................  A motion system may be installed    X    X    X    X
                          in an FTD. If installed, the
                          motion system operation must not
                          be distracting. If a motion
                          system is installed and
                          additional training, testing, or
                          checking credits are being
                          sought, sensory cues must also
                          be integrated. The motion system
                          must respond to abrupt input at
                          the pilot's position within the
                          allotted time, but not before
                          the time when the helicopter
                          responds under the same
                          conditions. The motion system
                          must be measured by latency
                          tests or transport delay tests
                          and may not exceed 150
                          milliseconds. Instrument
                          response must not occur prior to
                          motion onset
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b....................  The FTD must have at least a       ...  ...  ...   X   May be accomplished by a ``seat
                          vibration cueing system for                            shaker'' or a bass speaker
                          characteristic helicopter                              sufficient to provide the
                          vibrations noted at the pilot                          necessary cueing.
                          station(s)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Visual System
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a....................  The FTD may have a visual system,
                          if desired, although it is not
                          required. If a visual system is
                          installed, it must meet the
                          following criteria:
6.a.1..................  The visual system must respond to   X    X    X
                          abrupt input at the pilot's
                          position.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.2..................  The visual system must be at        X    X    X
                          least a single channel, non-
                          collimated display.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 341]]

 
6.a.3..................  The visual system must provide at   X    X    X
                          least a field-of-view of 18[deg]
                          vertical/24[deg] horizontal for
                          the pilot flying.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.4..................  The visual system must provide      X    X    X
                          for a maximum parallax of
                          10[deg] per pilot.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.5..................  The visual scene content may not    X    X    X
                          be distracting.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.6..................  The minimum distance from the       X    X    X
                          pilot's eye position to the
                          surface of a direct view display
                          may not be less than the
                          distance to any front panel
                          instrument.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.7..................  The visual system must provide      X    X    X
                          for a minimum resolution of 5
                          arc-minutes for both computed
                          and displayed pixel size.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b....................  If a visual system is installed     X    X    X
                          and additional training,
                          testing, or checking credits are
                          being sought on the basis of
                          having a visual system, a visual
                          system meeting the standards set
                          out for at least a Level A FFS
                          (see Appendix A of this part)
                          will be required. A ``direct-
                          view,'' non-collimated visual
                          system (with the other
                          requirements for a Level A
                          visual system met) may be
                          considered satisfactory for
                          those installations where the
                          visual system design ``eye
                          point'' is appropriately
                          adjusted for each pilot's
                          position such that the parallax
                          error is at or less than 10[deg]
                          simultaneously for each pilot.
                         An SOC is required...............
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c....................  The FTD must provide a continuous  ...  ...  ...   X   Optimization of the vertical
                          visual field-of-view of at least                       field-of-view may be considered
                          146[deg] horizontally and                              with respect to the specific
                          36[deg] vertically for both                            helicopter flight deck cut-off
                          pilot seats, simultaneously. The                       angle. When considering the
                          minimum horizontal field-of-view                       installation/use of augmented
                          coverage must be plus and minus                        fields of view, as described
                          one-half (\1/2\) of the minimum                        here, it will be the
                          continuous field-of-view                               responsibility of the sponsor
                          requirement, centered on the                           to meet with the NSPM to
                          zero degree azimuth line                               determine the training,
                          relative to the aircraft                               testing, checking, or
                          fuselage. Additional horizontal                        experience tasks for which the
                          field-of-view capability may be                        augmented field-of-view
                          added at the sponsor's                                 capability may be critical to
                          discretion provided the minimum                        that approval.
                          field-of-view is retained.
                          Capability for a field-of-view
                          in excess of these minima is not
                          required for qualification at
                          Level 7. However, where specific
                          tasks require extended fields of
                          view beyond the 146[deg] by
                          36[deg] (e.g., to accommodate
                          the use of ``chin windows''
                          where the accommodation is
                          either integral with or separate
                          from the primary visual system
                          display), then such extended
                          fields of view must be provided.
                         An SOC is required and must
                          explain the geometry of the
                          installation.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Sound System
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 342]]

 
7.a....................  The FTD must simulate significant  ...  ...   X    X
                          flight deck sounds resulting
                          from pilot actions that
                          correspond to those heard in the
                          helicopter
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Note: An ``A'' in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate
  helicopter system or control is simulated in the FTD and is working properly.


                   Table D1B--Minimum FTD Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   QPS requirements                       Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   Subjective           FTD level
                requirements  The --------------------
                FTD must be able
                 to perform the
  Entry No.     tasks associated                             Notes
                with the level of   4    5    6    7
                  qualification
                     sought.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a..........  Preflight            A    A    X    X
                Inspection
                (Flight Deck
                Only) switches,
                indicators,
                systems, and
                equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b..........  APU/Engine start
                and run-up.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1........  Normal start         A    A    X    X
                procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2........  Alternate start      A    A    X    X
                procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.3........  Abnormal starts      A    A    X    X
                and shutdowns
                (hot start, hung
                start).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c..........  Taxiing--Ground...  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d..........  Taxiing--Hover....  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e..........  Pre-takeoff Checks   A    A    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Takeoff and Departure Phase
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a..........  Normal takeoff....
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1........  From ground.......  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2........  From hover........  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3........  Running...........  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b..........  Instrument........  ...  ...   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c..........  Powerplant Failure  ...  ...   X    X
                During Takeoff.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d..........  Rejected Takeoff..  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e..........  Instrument          ...  ...   X    X
                Departure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Climb
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a..........  Normal............  ...  ...   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b..........  Obstacle clearance  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c..........  Vertical..........  ...  ...   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d..........  One engine          ...  ...   X    X
                inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. In-flight Maneuvers
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a..........  Turns (timed,       ...   X    X    X
                normal, steep).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b..........  Powerplant          ...  ...   X    X
                Failure--Multieng
                ine Helicopters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 343]]

 
4.c..........  Powerplant          ...  ...   X    X
                Failure--Single-
                Engine
                Helicopters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d..........  Recovery From       ...  ...  ...   X
                Unusual Attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e..........  Settling with       ...  ...  ...   X
                Power.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Instrument Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a..........  Instrument Arrival  ...  ...   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b..........  Holding...........  ...  ...   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c..........  Precision
                Instrument
                Approach
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.1........  Normal--All         ...   X    X    X
                engines operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.2........  Manually            ...  ...   X    X
                controlled--One
                or more engines
                inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d..........  Non-precision       ...   X    X    X
                Instrument
                Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e..........  Missed Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.1........  All engines         ...  ...   X    X
                operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.2........  One or more         ...  ...   X    X
                engines
                inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.3........  Stability           ...  ...   X    X
                augmentation
                system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Landings and Approaches to Landings
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a..........  Visual Approaches   ...   X    X    X
                (normal, steep,
                shallow).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b..........  Landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1........  Normal/crosswind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.a......  Running...........  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.b......  From Hover........  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.2........  One or more         ...  ...  ...   X
                engines
                inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
 6.b.3.......  Rejected Landing..  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Normal and Abnormal Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a..........  Powerplant........   A    A    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b..........  Fuel System.......   A    A    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c..........  Electrical System.   A    A    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d..........  Hydraulic System..   A    A    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e..........  Environmental        A    A    X    X
                System(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.f..........  Fire Detection and   A    A    X    X
                Extinguisher
                Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.g..........  Navigation and       A    A    X    X
                Aviation Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.h..........  Automatic Flight     A    A    X    X
                Control System,
                Electronic Flight
                Instrument
                System, and
                Related
                Subsystems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.i..........  Flight Control       A    A    X    X
                Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.j..........  Anti-ice and Deice   A    A    X    X
                Systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 344]]

 
7.k..........  Aircraft and         A    A    X    X
                Personal
                Emergency
                Equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.l..........  Special Missions    ...  ...  ...   X
                tasks (e.g.,
                Night Vision
                goggles, Forward
                Looking Infrared
                System, External
                Loads and as
                listed on the
                SOQ.).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. Emergency procedures (as applicable)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a..........  Emergency Descent.  ...  ...   X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b..........  Inflight Fire and   ...  ...   X    X
                Smoke Removal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c..........  Emergency           ...  ...   X    X
                Evacuation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d..........  Ditching..........  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e..........  Autorotative        ...  ...  ...   X
                Landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f..........  Retreating blade    ...  ...  ...   X
                stall recovery.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g..........  Mast bumping......  ...  ...  ...   X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.h..........  Loss of tail rotor  ...  ...   X    X
                effectiveness.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9. Postflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.a..........  After-Landing        A    A    X    X
                Procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b..........  Parking and
                Securing
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b.1........  Rotor brake          A    A    X    X
                operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b.2........  Abnormal/emergency   A    A    X    X
                procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Note: An ``A'' in the table indicates that the system, task, or
  procedure may be examined if the appropriate aircraft system or
  control is simulated in the FTD and is working properly.


                  Table D1C--Table of FTD System Tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   QPS requirements                        Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                   Subjective            FTD level
                requirements  In   --------------------
             order to be qualified
                   at the FTD
              qualification level
 Entry No.     indicated, the FTD                             Notes
                must be able to      4    5    6    7
              perform at least the
              tasks associate with
                 that level of
                 qualification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Instructor Operating Station (IOS)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a........  Power switch(es).....   A    X    X    X
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b........  Helicopter conditions   A    A    X    X   e.g., GW, CG,
                                                         Fuel loading,
                                                         Systems,
                                                         Ground. Crew.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c........  Airports/Heliports/     A    X    X    X   e.g., Selection,
              Helicopter Landing                         Surface,
              Areas.                                     Presets,
                                                         Lighting
                                                         controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d........  Environmental           A    X    X    X   e.g., Temp and
              controls.                                  Wind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e........  Helicopter system       A    A    X    X
              malfunctions
              (Insertion/deletion).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f........  Locks, Freezes, and     A    X    X    X
              Repositioning (as
              appropriate).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.g........  Sound Controls. (On/   ...   X    X    X
              off/adjustment).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.h........  Motion/Control         ...   A    X    X
              Loading System, as
              appropriate. On/off/
              emergency stop.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Observer Seats/Stations
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 345]]

 
2.a........  Position/Adjustment/    A    X    X    X
              Positive restraint
              system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Note: An ``A'' in the table indicates that the system, task, or
  procedure may be examined if the appropriate simulator system or
  control is in the FTD and is working properly.

  Attachment 2 to Appendix D to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD) 
                             Objective Tests

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              1. Discussion

    a. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind 
vector (magnitude and direction) should be noted as part of the data 
presentation, expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the 
runway being used for the test.
    b. The format for numbering the objective tests in Appendix C of 
this part, Attachment 2, Table C2A, and the objective tests in Appendix 
D of this part, Attachment 2, Table D2A, is identical. However, each 
test required for FFSs is not necessarily required for FTDs, and each 
test required for FTDs is not necessarily required for FFSs. When a test 
number (or series of numbers) is not required, the term ``Reserved'' is 
used in the table at that location. Following this numbering format 
provides a degree of commonality between the two tables and 
substantially reduces the potential for confusion when referring to 
objective test numbers for either FFSs or FTDs.
    c. A Level 4 FTD does not require objective tests and is not 
addressed in the following table.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                          2. Test Requirements

    a. The ground and flight tests required for qualification are listed 
in Table D2A Objective Evaluation Tests. Computer generated FTD test 
results must be provided for each test except where an alternate test is 
specifically authorized by the NSPM. If a flight condition or operating 
condition is required for the test but does not apply to the helicopter 
being simulated or to the qualification level sought, it may be 
disregarded (e.g., engine out climb capability for a single-engine 
helicopter). Each test result is compared against the validation data 
described in Sec. 60.13, and in Appendix B of this part. The results 
must be produced on an appropriate recording device acceptable to the 
NSPM and must include FTD number, date, time, conditions, tolerances, 
and appropriate dependent variables portrayed in comparison to the 
validation data. Time histories are required unless otherwise indicated 
in Table D2A. All results must be labeled using the tolerances and units 
given.
    b. Table D2A in this attachment sets out the test results required, 
including the parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions for FTD 
validation. Tolerances are provided for the listed tests because 
mathematical modeling and acquisition and development of reference data 
are often inexact. All tolerances listed in the following tables are 
applied to FTD performance. When two tolerance values are given for a 
parameter, the less restrictive may be used unless otherwise indicated. 
In those cases where a tolerance is expressed only as a percentage, the 
tolerance percentage applies to the maximum value of that parameter 
within its normal operating range as measured from the neutral or zero 
position unless otherwise indicated.
    c. Certain tests included in this attachment must be supported with 
an SOC. In Table D2A, requirements for SOCs are indicated in the ``Test 
Details'' column.
    d. When operational or engineering judgment is used in making 
assessments for flight test data applications for FTD validity, such 
judgment must not be limited to a single parameter. For example, data 
that exhibit rapid variations of the measured parameters may require 
interpolations or a ``best fit'' data section. All relevant parameters 
related to a given maneuver or flight condition must be provided to 
allow overall interpretation. When it is difficult or impossible to 
match FTD to helicopter data throughout a time history, differences must 
be justified by providing a comparison of other related variables for 
the condition being assessed.
    e. The FTD may not be programmed so that the mathematical modeling 
is correct only at the validation test points. Unless noted otherwise, 
tests must represent helicopter performance and handling qualities at 
operating weights and centers of gravity (CG) typical of normal 
operation. If a test is

[[Page 346]]

supported by aircraft data at one extreme weight or CG, another test 
supported by aircraft data at mid-conditions or as close as possible to 
the other extreme is necessary. Certain tests that are relevant only at 
one extreme CG or weight condition need not be repeated at the other 
extreme. The results of the tests for Level 6 are expected to be 
indicative of the device's performance and handling qualities throughout 
all of the following:
    (1) The helicopter weight and CG envelope.
    (2) The operational envelope.
    (3) Varying atmospheric ambient and environmental conditions--
including the extremes authorized for the respective helicopter or set 
of helicopters.
    f. When comparing the parameters listed to those of the helicopter, 
sufficient data must also be provided to verify the correct flight 
condition and helicopter configuration changes. For example, to show 
that control force is within the parameters for a static stability test, 
data to show the correct airspeed, power, thrust or torque, helicopter 
configuration, altitude, and other appropriate datum identification 
parameters must also be given. If comparing short period dynamics, 
normal acceleration may be used to establish a match to the helicopter, 
but airspeed, altitude, control input, helicopter configuration, and 
other appropriate data must also be given. If comparing landing gear 
change dynamics, pitch, airspeed, and altitude may be used to establish 
a match to the helicopter, but landing gear position must also be 
provided. All airspeed values must be properly annotated (e.g., 
indicated versus calibrated). In addition, the same variables must be 
used for comparison (e.g., compare inches to inches rather than inches 
to centimeters).
    g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must clearly describe how the FTD 
will be set up and operated for each test. Each FTD subsystem may be 
tested independently, but overall integrated testing of the FTD must be 
accomplished to assure that the total FTD system meets the prescribed 
standards. A manual test procedure with explicit and detailed steps for 
completing each test must also be provided.
    h. For previously qualified FTDs, the tests and tolerances of this 
attachment may be used in subsequent continuing qualification 
evaluations for any given test if the sponsor has submitted a proposed 
MQTG revision to the NSPM and has received NSPM approval.
    i. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of 
augmentation devices. FTDs for highly augmented helicopters will be 
validated both in the unaugmented configuration (or failure state with 
the maximum permitted degradation in handling qualities) and the 
augmented configuration. Where various levels of handling qualities 
result from failure states, validation of the effect of the failure is 
necessary. For those performance and static handling qualities tests 
where the primary concern is control position in the unaugmented 
configuration, unaugmented data are not required if the design of the 
system precludes any affect on control position. In those instances 
where the unaugmented helicopter response is divergent and non-
repeatable, it may not be feasible to meet the specified tolerances. 
Alternative requirements for testing will be mutually agreed upon by the 
sponsor and the NSPM on a case-by-case basis.
    j. Some tests will not be required for helicopters using helicopter 
hardware in the FTD flight deck (e.g., ``helicopter modular 
controller''). These exceptions are noted in Section 2 ``Handling 
Qualities'' in Table D2A of this attachment. However, in these cases, 
the sponsor must provide a statement that the helicopter hardware meets 
the appropriate manufacturer's specifications and the sponsor must have 
supporting information to that fact available for NSPM review.
    k. In cases where light-class helicopters are being simulated, prior 
coordination with the NSPM on acceptable weight ranges is required. The 
terms ``light,'' ``medium,'' and ``near maximum,'' may not be 
appropriate for the simulation of light-class helicopters.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    l. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a 
``snapshot test'' or a ``series of snapshot test'' results in lieu of a 
time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that 
a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the 
``snapshot.'' The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior 
to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap 
shot.
    m. Refer to AC 120-27, Aircraft Weight and Balance; and FAA-H-8083-
1, Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook, for more information.

                             End Information



[[Page 347]]

________________________________________________________________________

                                                 Table D2A--Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                         QPS requirements                                                               Information
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                     Test                                                                                             FTD level
----------------------------------------------       Tolerances         Flight conditions         Test details     ---------------         Notes
       Entry No.                Title                                                                                5    6    7
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.                      Performance
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a...................  Engine Assessment.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1.................  Start Operations.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1.a...............  Engine start and       Light Off Time--10%    Brake Used and Not     start from the
                         (transient).           or 1 sec.                                 start sequence to
                                                Torque--5%                            and from steady
                                                Rotor Speed--3%                            operating RPM.
                                                Fuel Flow--10%
                                                Gas Generator Speed--
                                                5% Power Turbine
                                                Speed--5%
                                                Gas Turbine Temp--
                                                30 [deg]C.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1.b...............  Steady State Idle and  Torque--3%                            state idle and
                         conditions.            Rotor Speed--1.5%                          conditions. May be a
                                                Fuel Flow--5%                            tests.
                                                Gas Generator Speed--
                                                2% Power Turbine
                                                Speed--2%
                                                Turbine Gas Temp--
                                                20 [deg]C.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.2.................  Power Turbine Speed    10% of total                               response to trim
                                                change of power                               system actuation in
                                                turbine speed; or                             both directions.
                                                0.5% change of
                                                rotor speed.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.3.................  Engine and Rotor       Torque--5%                            a step input to the
                                                Rotor Speed--1.5%.                         conducted
                                                                                              concurrently with
                                                                                              climb and descent
                                                                                              performance tests.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b...................  Reserved.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c...................  Takeoff.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 348]]

 
1.c.1.................  All Engines..........  Airspeed--3      Initial Segment of     takeoff flight path
                                                kt, Altitude--20                            takeoff from a
                                                ft (6.1 m) Torque--                           hover). The criteria
                                                3%, Rotor Speed--                          segments at
                                                1.5%, Vertical                             effective
                                                Velocity--100                           Results must be
                                                fpm (0.50 m/sec) or                           recorded from the
                                                10%, Pitch Attitude--                         initiation of the
                                                1.5[deg], Bank                             200 ft (61 m) AGL.
                                                Attitude--2[de
                                                g], Heading--2[de
                                                g], Longitudinal
                                                Control Position--
                                                10%, Lateral
                                                Control Position--
                                                10%, Directional
                                                Control Position--
                                                10%, Collective
                                                Control Position--
                                                10%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.2. through 1.c.3..  Reserved.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d...................  Hover.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                        Performance..........  Torque--3%,    (IGE); and Out of      light and heavy
                                                Pitch Attitude--       Ground Effect (OGE).   gross weights. May
                                                1.5[deg], Bank                             snapshot tests.
                                                Attitude--1.5[
                                                deg], Longitudinal
                                                Control Position--
                                                5%, Lateral
                                                Control Position--
                                                5%, Directional
                                                Control Position--
                                                5%, Collective
                                                Control Position--
                                                5%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e...................  Vertical Climb.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                        Performance..........  Vertical Velocity--    From OGE Hover.......  Record results for     ...  ...   X
                                                100 fpm (0.50 m/                           gross weights. May
                                                sec) or 10%,                          snapshot tests.
                                                Directional Control
                                                Position--5%,
                                                Collective Control
                                                Position--5%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.f...................  Level Flight.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                        Performance and        Torque--3%     On and Off).           two gross weight and                  performance at
                         Control Positions.     Pitch Attitude--                              CG combinations with                  speeds above maximum
                                                1.5[deg] Sideslip                          throughout the
                                                Angle--2[de                          May be a series of
                                                g] Longitudinal                               snapshot tests.
                                                Control Position--
                                                5% Lateral
                                                Control position--
                                                5% Directional
                                                Control Position--
                                                5% Collective
                                                Control Position--
                                                5%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.g...................  Climb.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 349]]

 
                        Performance and        Vertical Velocity--    All engines operating  Record results for      X    X    X
                         Trimmed Flight         100 fpm (61 m/      inoperative.           CG combinations. The
                                                sec) or 10%    System(s) On and Off.  be for normal climb
                                                Pitch Attitude--                              power conditions.
                                                1.5[deg] Sideslip                          snapshot tests.
                                                Angle--2[de
                                                g] Longitudinal
                                                Control Position--
                                                5% Lateral
                                                Control Position--
                                                5% Directional
                                                Control Position--
                                                5% Collective
                                                Control Position--
                                                5%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.h...................  Descent.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.h.1.................  Descent Performance    Torque--3%     (5 m/sec) rate of      two gross weight and
                         Control Positions.     Pitch Attitude--       descent (RoD) at       CG combinations. May
                                                1.5[deg] Sideslip   speed.                 snapshot tests.
                                                Angle--2[de   System(s) On and Off.
                                                g] Longitudinal
                                                Control Position--
                                                5% Lateral
                                                Control Position--
                                                5% Directional
                                                Control Position--
                                                5% Collective
                                                Control Position--
                                                5%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.h.2.................  Autorotation           Pitch Attitude--1.5[   Augmentation           two gross weight
                         Trimmed Flight         deg] Sideslip Angle--  System(s) On and Off.  conditions. Data
                         Control Positions.     2[deg]                                     normal operating
                                                Longitudinal Control                          RPM. (Rotor speed
                                                Position--5%                            only if collective
                                                Lateral Control                               control position is
                                                Position--5%                            must be recorded for
                                                Directional Control                           speeds from 50 kts,
                                                Position--5%                            eq>5 kts through at
                                                Collective Control                            least maximum glide
                                                Position--5%.                           May be a series of
                                                                                              snapshot tests.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.i...................  Autorotation.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                        Entry................  Rotor Speed--3%                            rapid throttle
                                                Pitch Attitude 2[de                          If accomplished in
                                                g] Roll Attitude--                            cruise, results must
                                                3[deg] Yaw                                 range airspeed. If
                                                Attitude--5[de                          climb, results must
                                                g] Airspeed--5                             rate of climb
                                                kts. Vertical                                 airspeed at or near
                                                Velocity--200                           power.
                                                fpm (1.00 m/sec) or
                                                10%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.j...................  Landing.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 350]]

 
1.j.1.................  All Engines..........  Airspeed--3                             approach and landing
                                                kts, Altitude--20                            landing or approach
                                                ft (6.1 m) Torque--                           to a hover). The
                                                3%, Rotor Speed--                          to those segments at
                                                1.5%, Pitch                                effective
                                                Attitude--1.5[                          Record the results
                                                deg], Bank Attitude--                         from 200 ft AGL (61
                                                1.5[deg],                                  to where the hover
                                                Heading--2[de                          to landing.
                                                g], Longitudinal
                                                Control Position--
                                                10%, Lateral
                                                Control Position--
                                                10%, Directional
                                                Control Position--
                                                10%, Collective
                                                Control Position--
                                                10%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.j.2. through 1.j.3..  Reserved.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.j.4.................  Autorotational         Torque--3%,                           an autorotational                     containing all
                                                Rotor Speed--3%,                           landing from a                        for a complete power-
                                                Vertical Velocity--                           stabilized                            off landing is not
                                                100 fpm (0.50 m/                           descent, to touch                     aircraft
                                                sec) or 10%, Pitch                            down.                                 manufacturer for
                                                Attitude--2[de                                                                qualified flight
                                                g], Bank Attitude--                                                                 test personnel are
                                                2[deg], Heading--                                                                acquire this data,
                                                5[deg],                                                                          coordinate with the
                                                Longitudinal Control                                                                NSPM to determine if
                                                Position--10%,                                                                appropriate to
                                                Lateral Control                                                                     accept alternative
                                                Position--10%,                                                                Alternative
                                                Directional Control                                                                 approaches to this
                                                Position--10%,                                                                that may be
                                                Collective Control                                                                  acceptable are: (1)
                                                Position--10%.                                                                autorotational flare
                                                                                                                                    and reduction of
                                                                                                                                    rate of descent
                                                                                                                                    (ROD) at altitude;
                                                                                                                                    or (2) a power-on
                                                                                                                                    termination
                                                                                                                                    following an
                                                                                                                                    autorotational
                                                                                                                                    approach and flare.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 351]]

 
2.                      Handling Qualities
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a...................  Control System         Contact the NSPM for
                         Mechanical             clarification of any
                         Characteristics.       issue regarding
                                                helicopters with
                                                reversible controls.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1.................  Cyclic...............  Breakout--0.25   conditions. Trim On    uninterrupted
                                                lbs (0.112 daN) or     and Off. Friction      control sweep to the
                                                25%. Force--1.0    and Off.               does not apply if
                                                lb (0.224 daN) or                             aircraft hardware
                                                10%.                                          modular controllers
                                                                                              are used.).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2.................  Collective and Pedals  Breakout--0.5    conditions. Trim On    uninterrupted
                                                lb (0.224 daN) or      and Off. Friction      control sweep to the
                                                25%. Force--1.0    and Off.
                                                lb (0.224 daN) or
                                                10%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3.................  Brake Pedal Force vs.  5 lbs (2.224 daN)   conditions.
                                                or 10%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.4.................  Trim System Rate (all  Rate--10%.            conditions. Trim On.   to the recorded
                                                                       Friction Off.          value of the trim
                                                                                              rate.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.5.................  Control Dynamics (all  10% of time for     Friction Off.          recorded for a                        irreversible control
                                                first zero crossing                           normal control                        systems may be
                                                and 10 (N+1)% of                           directions in each                    ground/static
                                                period thereafter.                            axis, using 25% to                    condition. Refer to
                                                10% of amplitude                                                                 attachment for
                                                of first overshoot.                                                                 additional
                                                20% of amplitude                                                                 is the sequential
                                                of 2nd and                                                                          period of a full
                                                subsequent                                                                          cycle of
                                                overshoots greater                                                                  oscillation.
                                                than 5% of initial
                                                displacement. 1
                                                overshoot.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.6.................  Freeplay.............  0.10 in. (2.5                           controls.
                                                mm).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b...................  Low Airspeed Handling Qualities.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.1.................  Trimmed Flight         Torque 3% Pitch        IGE--Sideward,         several airspeed
                                                Attitude 1.5[   forward flight.        translational
                                                deg] Bank Attitude     Augmentation On and    airspeed limits and
                                                2[deg]                                     airspeed. May be a
                                                Longitudinal Control                          series of snapshot
                                                Position 5%
                                                Lateral Control
                                                Position 5%
                                                Directional Control
                                                Position 5%
                                                Collective Control
                                                Position 5%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 352]]

 
2.b.2.................  Critical Azimuth.....  Torque 3% Pitch        Augmentation On and    three relative wind
                                                Attitude 1.5[                          (including the most
                                                deg], Bank Attitude                           critical case) in
                                                2[deg],                                    quadrant. May be a
                                                Longitudinal Control                          series of snapshot
                                                Position 5%,
                                                Lateral Control
                                                Position 5%,
                                                Directional Control
                                                Position 5%,
                                                Collective Control
                                                Position 5%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3.................  Control Response.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3.a...............  Longitudinal.........  Pitch Rate--10%    On and Off.            step control input.                   time'' test.
                                                or 2[deg]/sec.                            response must show
                                                Pitch Attitude                                correct trend for
                                                Change--10%                           This test must be
                                                or 1.5[deg].                                  conducted in a
                                                                                              hover, in ground
                                                                                              effect, without
                                                                                              entering
                                                                                              translational flight.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3.b...............  Lateral..............  Roll Rate--10%    and Off.               step control input.                   time'' test
                                                or 3[deg]/sec.                            response must show                    hover, in ground
                                                Roll Attitude                                 correct trend for                     effect, without
                                                Change--10%                                                                 translational
                                                or 3[deg].                                                                      better visual
                                                                                                                                    reference.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3.c...............  Directional..........  Yaw Rate--10%    and Off.               step control input.                   time'' test.
                                                or 2[deg]/sec.                            response must show
                                                Heading Change--                              correct trend for
                                                10% or 2[de                          conducted in a
                                                g].                                           hover, in ground
                                                                                              effect, without
                                                                                              entering
                                                                                              translational flight.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3.d...............  Vertical.............  Normal Acceleration    Hover Augmentation On  Record results for a   ...  ...   X
                                                0.1g.                                      The Off-axis
                                                                                              response must show
                                                                                              correct trend for
                                                                                              unaugmented cases.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c...................  Longitudinal Handling Qualities.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 353]]

 
2.c.1.................  Control Response.....  Pitch Rate--10%    On and Off.            recorded for two
                                                or 2[deg]/sec.                            include minimum
                                                Pitch Attitude                                power required
                                                Change--10%                           for a step control
                                                or 1.5[deg].                              response must show
                                                                                              correct trend for
                                                                                              unaugmented cases.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.2.................  Static Stability.....  Longitudinal Control   Cruise or Climb.       Record results for a    X    X    X
                                                Position: 10%    Augmentation On and    speeds on each side
                                                of change from trim    Off.                   of the trim speed.
                                                or 0.25 in. (6.3                          snapshot tests.
                                                mm) or Longitudinal
                                                Control Force: 0.5
                                                lb. (0.223 daN) or
                                                10%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.3.................  Dynamic Stability.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.3.a...............  Long Term Response...  10% of calculated   On and Off.            three full cycles (6                  certain helicopters
                                                period. 10%                           input completed) or                   throughout the
                                                of time to \1/2\ or                           that sufficient to                    stated time. In
                                                double amplitude, or                          determine time to \1/                 these cases, the
                                                0.02 of damping                            amplitude, whichever                  least that a
                                                ratio. For non-                               is less. For non-                     divergence is
                                                periodic responses,                           periodic responses,                   identifiable. For
                                                the time history                              the test may be                       example: Displacing
                                                must be matched                               terminated prior to                   the cyclic for a
                                                within 3[de                          pilot determines                      excites this test or
                                                g] pitch; and 5                             becoming                              attitude is achieved
                                                kts airspeed over a                           uncontrollably                        and then return the
                                                20 sec period                                 divergent. Displace                   cyclic to the
                                                following release of                          the cyclic for one                    original position.
                                                the controls.                                 second or less to                     For non-periodic
                                                                                              excite the test. The                  responses, results
                                                                                              result will be                        should show the same
                                                                                              either convergent or                  convergent or
                                                                                              divergent and must                    divergent character
                                                                                              be recorded. If this                  as the flight test
                                                                                              method fails to                       data.
                                                                                              excite the test,
                                                                                              displace the cyclic
                                                                                              to the predetermined
                                                                                              maximum desired
                                                                                              pitch attitude and
                                                                                              return to the
                                                                                              original position.
                                                                                              If this method is
                                                                                              used, record the
                                                                                              results.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 354]]

 
2.c.3.b...............  Short Term Response..  1.5[deg] Pitch or   Augmentation On and    least two airspeeds.                  inserted at the
                                                2[deg]/sec. Pitch                                                                the aircraft
                                                Rate. 0.1 g Normal                                                                 this test. However,
                                                Acceleration.                                                                       while input doublets
                                                                                                                                    are preferred over
                                                                                                                                    pulse inputs for
                                                                                                                                    Augmentation-Off
                                                                                                                                    tests, for
                                                                                                                                    Augmentation-On
                                                                                                                                    cases, when the
                                                                                                                                    short term response
                                                                                                                                    exhibits 1st-order
                                                                                                                                    or deadbeat
                                                                                                                                    characteristics,
                                                                                                                                    longitudinal pulse
                                                                                                                                    inputs may produce a
                                                                                                                                    more coherent
                                                                                                                                    response.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.4.................  Maneuvering Stability  Longitudinal Control   Cruise or Climb.       Record results for at  ...   X    X
                                                Position--10%    Off.                   at 30[deg]-45[deg]
                                                of change from trim                           bank angle. The
                                                or 0.25 in. (6.3                          as a cross plot for
                                                mm) or Longitudinal                           irreversible
                                                Control Forces--                              systems. May be a
                                                0.5 lb. (0.223                             tests.
                                                daN) or 10%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d...................  Lateral and Directional Handling Qualities.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.1.................  Control Response.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.1.a...............  Lateral..............  Roll Rate--10%    On and Offd.           least two airspeeds,
                                                or 3[deg]/sec.                            at or near the
                                                Roll Attitude                                 minimum power
                                                Change--10%                           Record results for a
                                                or 3[deg].                                The Off-axis
                                                                                              response must show
                                                                                              correct trend for
                                                                                              unaugmented cases.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 355]]

 
2.d.1.b...............  Directional..........  Yaw Rate--10%    On and Off.            least two Airspeeds,
                                                or 2[deg]/sec.                            at or near the
                                                Yaw Attitude Change--                         minimum power
                                                10% or 2[de                          step control input.
                                                g].                                           The Off-axis
                                                                                              response must show
                                                                                              correct trend for
                                                                                              unaugmented cases.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.2.................  Directional Static     Lateral Control        Cruise; or Climb (may  Record results for at   X    X    X   This is a steady
                         Stability.             Position--10%    of Climb if desired)   angles on either                      test at a fixed
                                                of change from trim    Augmentation On and    side of the trim                      collective position.
                                                or 0.25 in. (6.3                          be shown as a cross
                                                mm) or Lateral                                plot for
                                                Control Force--0.5                           systems. May be a
                                                lb. (0.223 daN) or                            series of snapshot
                                                10%. Roll Attitude--                          tests.
                                                1.5 Directional
                                                Control Position--
                                                10% of change
                                                from trim or 0.25
                                                in. (6.3 mm) or
                                                Directional Control
                                                Force--1
                                                lb. (0.448 daN) or
                                                10%. Longitudinal
                                                Control Position--
                                                10% of change
                                                from trim or 0.25
                                                in. (6.3 mm).
                                                Vertical Velocity--
                                                100 fpm (0.50m/
                                                sec) or 10%.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3.................  Dynamic Lateral and Directional Stability.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3.a...............  Lateral-Directional    0.5 sec. or 10%    Off.                   The test must be
                                                of period. 10%                           cyclic or a pedal
                                                of time to \1/2\ or                           doublet input.
                                                double amplitude or                           Record results for
                                                0.02 of damping                            overshoots after
                                                ratio. 20%                           that sufficient to
                                                or 1 sec of time                          2\ or double
                                                difference between                            amplitude, whichever
                                                peaks of bank and                             is less. The test
                                                sideslip. For non-                            may be terminated
                                                periodic responses,                           prior to 20 sec if
                                                the time history                              the test pilot
                                                must be matched                               determines that the
                                                within 10                            uncontrollably
                                                knots Airspeed;                               divergent.
                                                5[deg]/s Roll
                                                Rate or 5[de
                                                g] Roll Attitude;
                                                4[deg]/s Yaw Rate
                                                or 4[deg] Yaw
                                                Angle over a 20 sec
                                                period roll angle
                                                following release of
                                                the controls.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d.3.b...............  Spiral Stability.....  2[deg] or 10%    Off.                   only or cyclic only
                                                roll angle.                                   turns for 20 sec.
                                                                                              Results must be
                                                                                              recorded from turns
                                                                                              in both directions.
                                                                                              Terminate check at
                                                                                              zero roll angle or
                                                                                              when the test pilot
                                                                                              determines that the
                                                                                              attitude is becoming
                                                                                              uncontrollably
                                                                                              divergent.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 356]]

 
2.d.3.c...............  Adverse/Proverse Yaw.  Correct Trend, 2[de   Augmentation On and    history of initial
                                                g] transient           Off.                   entry into cyclic
                                                sideslip angle.                               only turns, using
                                                                                              only a moderate rate
                                                                                              for cyclic input.
                                                                                              Results must be
                                                                                              recorded for turns
                                                                                              in both directions.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.                      Reserved
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.                      Visual System
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a...................  Visual System Response Time: (Choose either test 4.a.1. or 4.a.2. to satisfy test 4.a., Visual   ...  ...
                         System Response Time Test. This test is also sufficient for flight deck instrument response
                         timing.)
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.1.................  Latency.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                               150 ms (or less)       Takeoff, climb, and    One test is required   ...  ...   X
                                                after helicopter       descent.               in each axis (pitch,
                                                response.                                     roll and yaw) for
                                                                                              each of the three
                                                                                              conditions (take-
                                                                                              off, cruise, and
                                                                                              approach or landing).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.2.................  Transport Delay.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                               150 ms (or less)       N/A..................  A separate test is     ...  ...   X
                                                after controller                              required in each
                                                movement.                                     axis (pitch, roll,
                                                                                              and yaw).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b...................  Field-of-view.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.1.................  Reserved.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 357]]

 
4.b.2.................  Continuous visual      Minimum continuous     N/A..................  An SOC is required     ...  ...   X   Horizontal field-of-
                         field-of-view.         field-of-view                                 and must explain the                  view is centered on
                                                providing 146[deg]                            geometry of the                       the zero degree
                                                horizontal and                                installation.                         azimuth line
                                                36[deg] vertical                              Horizontal field-of-                  relative to the
                                                field-of-view for                             view must not be                      aircraft fuselage.
                                                each pilot                                    less than a total of
                                                simultaneously and                            146[deg] (including
                                                any geometric error                           not less than
                                                between the Image                             73[deg] measured
                                                Generator eye point                           either side of the
                                                and the pilot eye                             center of the design
                                                point is 8[deg] or                            eye point).
                                                less.                                         Additional
                                                                                              horizontal field-of-
                                                                                              view capability may
                                                                                              be added at the
                                                                                              sponsor's discretion
                                                                                              provided the minimum
                                                                                              field-of-view is
                                                                                              retained. Vertical
                                                                                              field-of-view: Not
                                                                                              less than a total of
                                                                                              36[deg] measured
                                                                                              from the pilot's and
                                                                                              co-pilot's eye point.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.3.................  Reserved.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c...................  Surface contrast       Not less than 5:1....  N/A..................  The ratio is           ...  ...   X   Measurements may be
                         ratio.                                                               calculated by                         made using a 1[deg]
                                                                                              dividing the                          spot photometer and
                                                                                              brightness level of                   a raster drawn test
                                                                                              the center, bright                    pattern filling the
                                                                                              square (providing at                  entire visual scene
                                                                                              least 2 foot-                         (all channels) with
                                                                                              lamberts or 7 cd/                     a test pattern of
                                                                                              m\2\) by the                          black and white
                                                                                              brightness level of                   squares, 5 per
                                                                                              any adjacent dark                     square, with a white
                                                                                              square.                               square in the center
                                                                                                                                    of each channel.
                                                                                                                                    During contrast
                                                                                                                                    ratio testing,
                                                                                                                                    simulator aft-cab
                                                                                                                                    and flight deck
                                                                                                                                    ambient light levels
                                                                                                                                    should be zero.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d...................  Highlight brightness.  Not less than three    N/A..................  Measure the            ...  ...   X   Measurements may be
                                                (3) foot-lamberts                             brightness of the                     made using a 1[deg]
                                                (10 cd/m\2\).                                 center white square                   spot photometer and
                                                                                              while superimposing                   a raster drawn test
                                                                                              a highlight on that                   pattern filling the
                                                                                              white square. The                     entire visual scene
                                                                                              use of calligraphic                   (all channels) with
                                                                                              capabilities to                       a test pattern of
                                                                                              enhance the raster                    black and white
                                                                                              brightness is                         squares, 5 per
                                                                                              acceptable, but                       square, with a white
                                                                                              measuring light                       square in the center
                                                                                              points is not                         of each channel.
                                                                                              acceptable.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 358]]

 
4.e...................  Surface resolution...  Not greater than two   N/A..................  An SOC is required     ...  ...   X   When the eye is
                                                (2) arc minutes.                              and must include the                  positioned on a
                                                                                              relevant                              3[deg] glide slope
                                                                                              calculations.                         at the slant range
                                                                                                                                    distances indicated
                                                                                                                                    with white runway
                                                                                                                                    markings on a black
                                                                                                                                    runway surface, the
                                                                                                                                    eye will subtend two
                                                                                                                                    (2) arc minutes: (1)
                                                                                                                                    A slant range of
                                                                                                                                    6,876 ft with
                                                                                                                                    stripes 150 ft long
                                                                                                                                    and 16 ft wide,
                                                                                                                                    spaced 4 ft apart.
                                                                                                                                    (2) For
                                                                                                                                    Configuration A; a
                                                                                                                                    slant range of 5,157
                                                                                                                                    feet with stripes
                                                                                                                                    150 ft long and 12
                                                                                                                                    ft wide, spaced 3 ft
                                                                                                                                    apart. (3) For
                                                                                                                                    Configuration B; a
                                                                                                                                    slant range of 9,884
                                                                                                                                    feet, with stripes
                                                                                                                                    150 ft long and 5.75
                                                                                                                                    ft wide, spaced 5.75
                                                                                                                                    ft apart.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f...................  Light point size.....  Not greater than five  N/A..................  An SOC is required     ...  ...   X   Light point size may
                                                (5) arc-minutes.                              and must include the                  be measured using a
                                                                                              relevant                              test pattern
                                                                                              calculations.                         consisting of a
                                                                                                                                    centrally located
                                                                                                                                    single row of light
                                                                                                                                    points reduced in
                                                                                                                                    length until
                                                                                                                                    modulation is just
                                                                                                                                    discernible in each
                                                                                                                                    visual channel. A
                                                                                                                                    row of 48 lights
                                                                                                                                    will form a 4[deg]
                                                                                                                                    angle or less.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 359]]

 
4.g...................  Light point contrast   .....................  .....................  .....................  ...  ...  ...  A 1[deg] spot
                         ratio.                                                                                                     photometer may be
                                                                                                                                    used to measure a
                                                                                                                                    square of at least
                                                                                                                                    1[deg] filled with
                                                                                                                                    light points (where
                                                                                                                                    light point
                                                                                                                                    modulation is just
                                                                                                                                    discernible) and
                                                                                                                                    compare the results
                                                                                                                                    to the measured
                                                                                                                                    adjacent background.
                                                                                                                                    During contrast
                                                                                                                                    ratio testing,
                                                                                                                                    simulator aft-cab
                                                                                                                                    and flight deck
                                                                                                                                    ambient light levels
                                                                                                                                    should be zero.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.1.................  Reserved.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g.2.................  .....................  Not less than 25:1...  N/A..................  An SOC is required     ...  ...   X
                                                                                              and must include the
                                                                                              relevant
                                                                                              calculations.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.h...................  Visual ground segment.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 360]]

 
                                               The visible segment    Landing                The QTG must contain   ...  ...   X   Pre-position for this
                                                in the simulator       configuration,         relevant                              test is encouraged,
                                                must be within 20%     trimmed for            calculations and a                    but may be achieved
                                                of the segment         appropriate            drawing showing the                   via manual or
                                                computed to be         airspeed, at 100 ft    data used to                          autopilot control to
                                                visible from the       (30m) above the        establish the                         the desired
                                                helicopter flight      touchdown zone, on     helicopter location                   position.
                                                deck. The              glide slope with an    and the segment of
                                                tolerance(s) may be    RVR value set at       the ground that is
                                                applied at either      1,200 ft (350m).       visible considering
                                                end or at both ends                           design eyepoint,
                                                of the displayed                              helicopter attitude,
                                                segment. However,                             flight deck cut-off
                                                lights and ground                             angle, and a
                                                objects computed to                           visibility of 1200
                                                be visible from the                           ft (350 m) RVR.
                                                helicopter flight                             Simulator
                                                deck at the near end                          performance must be
                                                of the visible                                measured against the
                                                segment must be                               QTG calculations.
                                                visible in the                                The data submitted
                                                simulator.                                    must include at
                                                                                              least the following:
                                                                                              (1) Static
                                                                                              helicopter
                                                                                              dimensions as
                                                                                              follows: (i)
                                                                                              Horizontal and
                                                                                              vertical distance
                                                                                              from main landing
                                                                                              gear (MLG) to
                                                                                              glideslope reception
                                                                                              antenna. (ii)
                                                                                              Horizontal and
                                                                                              vertical distance
                                                                                              from MLG to pilot's
                                                                                              eyepoint. (iii)
                                                                                              Static flight deck
                                                                                              cutoff angle. (2)
                                                                                              Approach data as
                                                                                              follows: (i)
                                                                                              Identification of
                                                                                              runway. (ii)
                                                                                              Horizontal distance
                                                                                              from runway
                                                                                              threshold to
                                                                                              glideslope intercept
                                                                                              with runway. (iii)
                                                                                              Glideslope angle.
                                                                                              (iv) Helicopter
                                                                                              pitch angle on
                                                                                              approach. (3)
                                                                                              Helicopter data for
                                                                                              manual testing: (i)
                                                                                              Gross weight. (ii)
                                                                                              Helicopter
                                                                                              configuration. (iii)
                                                                                              Approach airspeed.
                                                                                              If non-homogenous
                                                                                              fog is used to
                                                                                              obscure visibility,
                                                                                              the vertical
                                                                                              variation in
                                                                                              horizontal
                                                                                              visibility must be
                                                                                              described and be
                                                                                              included in the
                                                                                              slant range
                                                                                              visibility
                                                                                              calculation used in
                                                                                              the computations.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.                      Reserved
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 361]]

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                           3. Control Dynamics

    a. The characteristics of a helicopter flight control system have a 
major effect on the handling qualities. A significant consideration in 
pilot acceptability of a helicopter is the ``feel'' provided through the 
flight deck controls. Considerable effort is expended on helicopter feel 
system design in order to deliver a system with which pilots will be 
comfortable and consider the helicopter desirable to fly. In order for 
an FTD to be representative, it too must present the pilot with the 
proper feel; that of the respective helicopter. Compliance with this 
requirement is determined by comparing a recording of the control feel 
dynamics of the FFS to actual helicopter measurements in the hover and 
cruise configurations.
    (1) Recordings such as free response to an impulse or step function 
are classically used to estimate the dynamic properties of 
electromechanical systems. It is only possible to estimate the dynamic 
properties as a result of only being able to estimate true inputs and 
responses. Therefore, it is imperative that the best possible data be 
collected since close matching of the FTD control loading system to the 
helicopter systems is essential. Control feel dynamic tests are 
described in the Table of Objective Tests in this appendix. Where 
accomplished, the free response is measured after a step or pulse input 
is used to excite the system.
    (2) For initial and upgrade evaluations, it is required that control 
dynamic characteristics be measured at and recorded directly from the 
flight deck controls. This procedure is usually accomplished by 
measuring the free response of the controls using a step or pulse input 
to excite the system. The procedure must be accomplished in hover, 
climb, cruise, and autorotation. For helicopters with irreversible 
control systems, measurements may be obtained on the ground. The 
procedure should be accomplished in the hover and cruise flight 
conditions and configurations. Proper pitot-static inputs (if 
appropriate) must be provided to represent airspeeds typical of those 
encountered in flight.
    (3) It may be shown that for some helicopters, climb, cruise, and 
autorotation have like effects. Thus, some tests for one may suffice for 
some tests for another. If either or both considerations apply, 
engineering validation or helicopter manufacturer rationale must be 
submitted as justification for ground tests or for eliminating a 
configuration. For FTDs requiring static and dynamic tests at the 
controls, special test fixtures will not be required during initial and 
upgrade evaluations if the sponsor's QTG shows both test fixture results 
and the results of an alternative approach, such as computer plots which 
were produced concurrently and show satisfactory agreement. Repeat of 
the alternative method during the initial evaluation satisfies this test 
requirement.
    b. Control Dynamics Evaluations. The dynamic properties of control 
systems are often stated in terms of frequency, damping, and a number of 
other classical measurements which can be found in texts on control 
systems. In order to establish a consistent means of validating test 
results for FTD control loading, criteria are needed that will clearly 
define the interpretation of the measurements and the tolerances to be 
applied. Criteria are needed for both the underdamped system and the 
overdamped system, including the critically damped case. In the case of 
an underdamped system with very light damping, the system may be 
quantified in terms of frequency and damping. In critically damped or 
overdamped systems, the frequency and damping is not readily measured 
from a response time history. Therefore, some other measurement must be 
used.
    (1) Tests to verify that control feel dynamics represent the 
helicopter must show that the dynamic damping cycles (free response of 
the control) match that of the helicopter within specified tolerances. 
The method of evaluating the response and the tolerance to be applied 
are described below for the underdamped and critically damped cases.
    (a) Underdamped Response. Two measurements are required for the 
period, the time to first zero crossing (in case a rate limit is 
present) and the subsequent frequency of oscillation. It is necessary to 
measure cycles on an individual basis in case there are nonuniform 
periods in the response. Each period will be independently compared to 
the respective period of the helicopter control system and, 
consequently, will enjoy the full tolerance specified for that period.
    (b) The damping tolerance will be applied to overshoots on an 
individual basis. Care must be taken when applying the tolerance to 
small overshoots since the significance of such overshoots becomes 
questionable. Only those overshoots larger than 5 percent of the total 
initial displacement will be considered significant. The residual band, 
labeled T(Ad) on Figure 1 of this attachment is 5 percent of the initial displacement amplitude, 
Ad, from the steady state value of the oscillation. 
Oscillations within the residual band are considered insignificant. When 
comparing simulator data to helicopter data, the process would begin by 
overlaying or aligning the simulator and helicopter steady state values 
and then comparing amplitudes of oscillation peaks, the time of the 
first zero crossing, and individual periods of oscillation. To be 
satisfactory, the simulator must show the same number of significant 
overshoots to within one when compared against

[[Page 362]]

the helicopter data. The procedure for evaluating the response is 
illustrated in Figure 1 of this attachment.
    (c) Critically Damped and Overdamped Response. Due to the nature of 
critically damped responses (no overshoots), the time to reach 90 
percent of the steady state (neutral point) value must be the same as 
the helicopter within 10 percent. The simulator 
response must be critically damped also. Figure 2 of this attachment 
illustrates the procedure.
    (d) Special considerations. Control systems that exhibit 
characteristics other than classical overdamped or underdamped responses 
should meet specified tolerances. In addition, special consideration 
should be given to ensure that significant trends are maintained.
    (2) Tolerances.
    (a) The following summarizes the tolerances, ``T'' for underdamped 
systems, and ``n'' is the sequential period of a full cycle of 
oscillation. See Figure D2A of this attachment for an illustration of 
the referenced measurements.

T(P0) 10% of P0
T(P1) 20% of P1
T(P2) 30% of P2
T(Pn) 10(n+1)% of Pn
T(An) 10% of A1
T(Ad) 5% of Ad = residual 
band
Significant overshoots First overshoot and 1 
subsequent overshoots

    (b) The following tolerance applies to critically damped and 
overdamped systems only. See Figure D2B for an illustration of the 
reference measurements:

T(P0) 10% of P0

[[Page 363]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09MY08.053

    c. Alternative method for control dynamics evaluation.
    (1) An alternative means for validating control dynamics for 
aircraft with hydraulically powered flight controls and artificial feel 
systems is by the measurement of control force and rate of movement. For 
each axis of pitch, roll, and yaw, the control must be forced to its 
maximum extreme position for the following distinct rates. These tests 
are conducted under normal flight and ground conditions.

[[Page 364]]

    (a) Static test--Slowly move the control so that a full sweep is 
achieved within 95-105 seconds. A full sweep is defined as movement of 
the controller from neutral to the stop, usually aft or right stop, then 
to the opposite stop, then to the neutral position.
    (b) Slow dynamic test--Achieve a full sweep within 8-12 seconds.
    (c) Fast dynamic test--Achieve a full sweep within 3-5 seconds.

    Note: Dynamic sweeps may be limited to forces not exceeding 100 lbs. 
(44.5 daN).

    (d) Tolerances.
    (i) Static test; see Table D2A, Flight Training Device (FTD) 
Objective Tests, Entries 2.a.1., 2.a.2., and 2.a.3.
    (ii) Dynamic test-- 2 lbs (0.9 daN) or  10% on dynamic increment above static test.

                           End QPS Requirement

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    d. The FAA is open to alternative means that are justified and 
appropriate to the application. For example, the method described here 
may not apply to all manufacturers' systems and certainly not to 
aircraft with reversible control systems. Each case is considered on its 
own merit on an ad hoc basis. If the FAA finds that alternative methods 
do not result in satisfactory performance, more conventionally accepted 
methods will have to be used.

 4. For Additional Information on the Following Topics, Please Refer to 
   Appendix C of This Part, Attachment 2, and the Indicated Paragraph 
                         Within That Attachment

     Additional Information About Flight Simulator 
Qualification for New or Derivative Helicopters, paragraph 8.
     Engineering Simulator Validation Data, paragraph 
9.
     Validation Test Tolerances, paragraph 11.
     Validation Data Road Map, paragraph 12.
     Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics, 
paragraph 13.
     Transport Delay Testing, paragraph 15.
     Continuing Qualification Evaluation Validation 
Data Presentation, paragraph 16.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

  Attachment 3 to Appendix D to Part 60--FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICE (FTD) 
                          SUBJECTIVE EVALUATION

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                             1. Requirements

    a. Except for special use airport models, all airport models 
required by this part must be representations of real-world, operational 
airports or representations of fictional airports and must meet the 
requirements set out in Tables D3B or D3C of this attachment, as 
appropriate.
    b. If fictional airports are used, the sponsor must ensure that 
navigational aids and all appropriate maps, charts, and other 
navigational reference material for the fictional airports (and 
surrounding areas as necessary) are compatible, complete, and accurate 
with respect to the visual presentation and the airport model of this 
fictional airport. An SOC must be submitted that addresses navigation 
aid installation and performance and other criteria (including 
obstruction clearance protection) for all instrument approaches to the 
fictional airports that are available in the simulator. The SOC must 
reference and account for information in the terminal instrument 
procedures manual and the construction and availability of the required 
maps, charts, and other navigational material. This material must be 
clearly marked ``for training purposes only.''
    c. When the simulator is being used by an instructor or evaluator 
for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter, only 
airport models classified as Class I, Class II, or Class III may be used 
by the instructor or evaluator. Detailed descriptions/definitions of 
these classifications are found in Appendix F of this part.
    d. When a person sponsors an FTD maintained by a person other than a 
U.S. certificate holder, the sponsor is accountable for that FTD 
originally meeting, and continuing to meet, the criteria under which it 
was originally qualified and the appropriate Part 60 criteria, including 
the visual scenes and airport models that may be used by instructors or 
evaluators for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this 
chapter.
    e. Neither Class II nor Class III airport visual models are required 
to appear on the SOQ, and the method used for keeping instructors and 
evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class 
III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the sponsor, 
but the method used must be available for review by the TPAA.
    f. When an airport model represents a real world airport and a 
permanent change is made to that real world airport (e.g., a new runway, 
an extended taxiway, a new lighting system, a runway closure) without a 
written extension grant from the NSPM (described in paragraph 1.g., of 
this section), an update to that airport model must be made in 
accordance with the following time limits:

[[Page 365]]

    (1) For a new airport runway, a runway extension, a new airport 
taxiway, a taxiway extension, or a runway/taxiway closure--within 90 
days of the opening for use of the new airport runway, runway extension, 
new airport taxiway, or taxiway extension; or within 90 days of the 
closure of the runway or taxiway.
    (2) For a new or modified approach light system--within 45 days of 
the activation of the new or modified approach light system.
    (3) For other facility or structural changes on the airport (e.g., 
new terminal, relocation of Air Traffic Control Tower)--within 180 days 
of the opening of the new or changed facility or structure.
    g. If a sponsor desires an extension to the time limit for an update 
to a visual scene or airport model or has an objection to what must be 
updated in the specific airport model requirement, the sponsor must 
provide a written extension request to the NPSM stating the reason for 
the update delay and a proposed completion date or provide an 
explanation for the objection, explaining why the identified airport 
change will not have an impact on flight training, testing, or checking. 
A copy of this request or objection must also be sent to the POI/TCPM. 
The NSPM will send the official response to the sponsor and a copy to 
the POI/TCPM; however, if there is an objection, after consultation with 
the appropriate POI/TCPM regarding the training, testing, or checking 
impact, the NSPM will send the official response to the sponsor and a 
copy to the POI/TCPM.
    h. Examples of situations that may warrant Class--III model 
designation by the TPAA include the following:
    (a) Training, testing, or checking on very low visibility 
operations, including SMGCS operations.
    (b) Instrument operations training (including instrument takeoff, 
departure, arrival, approach, and missed approach training, testing, or 
checking) using--
    (i) A specific model that has been geographically ``moved'' to a 
different location and aligned with an instrument procedure for another 
airport.
    (ii) A model that does not match changes made at the real-world 
airport (or landing area for helicopters) being modeled.
    (iii) A model generated with an ``off-board'' or an ``on-board'' 
model development tool (by providing proper latitude/longitude 
reference; correct runway or landing area orientation, length, width, 
marking, and lighting information; and appropriate adjacent taxiway 
location) to generate a facsimile of a real world airport or landing 
area.
    These airport models may be accepted by the TPAA without individual 
observation provided the sponsor provides the TPAA with an acceptable 
description of the process for determining the acceptability of a 
specific airport model, outlines the conditions under which such an 
airport model may be used, and adequately describes what restrictions 
will be applied to each resulting airport or landing area model.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

                              2. Discussion

    a. The subjective tests and the examination of functions provide a 
basis for evaluating the capability of the FTD to perform over a typical 
utilization period; determining that the FTD satisfactorily meets the 
appropriate training/testing/checking objectives and competently 
simulates each required maneuver, procedure, or task; and verifying 
correct operation of the FTD controls, instruments, and systems. The 
items in the list of operations tasks are for FTD evaluation purposes 
only. They must not be used to limit or exceed the authorizations for 
use of a given level of FTD as found in the Practical Test Standards or 
as approved by the TPAA. All items in the following paragraphs are 
subject to an examination of function.
    b. The List of Operations Tasks in Table D3A addressing pilot 
functions and maneuvers is divided by flight phases. All simulated 
helicopter systems functions will be assessed for normal and, where 
appropriate, alternate operations. Normal, abnormal, and emergency 
operations associated with a flight phase will be assessed during the 
evaluation of maneuvers or events within that flight phase.
    c. Systems to be evaluated are listed separately under ``Any Flight 
Phase'' to ensure appropriate attention to systems checks. Operational 
navigation systems (including inertial navigation systems, global 
positioning systems, or other long-range systems) and the associated 
electronic display systems will be evaluated if installed. The NSP pilot 
will include in his report to the TPAA, the effect of the system 
operation and any system limitation.
    d. At the request of the TPAA, the NSP Pilot may assess the FTD for 
a special aspect of a sponsor's training program during the functions 
and subjective portion of an evaluation. Such an assessment may include 
a portion of a specific operation (e.g., a Line Oriented Flight Training 
(LOFT) scenario) or special emphasis items in the sponsor's training 
program. Unless directly related to a requirement for the qualification 
level, the results of such an evaluation would not necessarily affect 
the qualification of the FTD.
    e. The FAA intends to allow the use of Class III airport models on a 
limited basis when the sponsor provides the TPAA (or other regulatory 
authority) an appropriate

[[Page 366]]

analysis of the skills, knowledge, and abilities (SKAs) necessary for 
competent performance of the tasks in which this particular media 
element is used. The analysis should describe the ability of the FTD/
visual media to provide an adequate environment in which the required 
SKAs are satisfactorily performed and learned. The analysis should also 
include the specific media element, such as the visual scene or airport 
model. Additional sources of information on the conduct of task and 
capability analysis may be found on the FAA's Advanced Qualification 
Program (AQP) Web site at: http://www.faa.gov/education--research/
training/aqp.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

     Table D3A--Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 7 FTD
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Entry No.                         Operations tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the
 helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or a
 Level 7 FTD. Items not installed, not functional on the FTD, and not
 appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed
 as exceptions on the SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a....................  Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only)
                          switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b....................  APU/Engine start and run-up.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1..................  Normal start procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2..................  Alternate start procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.3..................  Abnormal starts and shutdowns (hot start, hung
                          start).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.4..................  Rotor engagement.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.5..................  System checks.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c....................  Taxiing--Ground.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.1..................  Power required to taxi.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.2..................  Brake effectiveness.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.3..................  Ground handling.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.4..................  Abnormal/emergency procedures, for example:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.4.a................  Brake system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.4.b................  Ground resonance.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.4.c................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d....................  Taxiing--Hover.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.1..................  Takeoff to a hover.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.2..................  Instrument response.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.2.a................  Engine instruments.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.2.a................  Flight instruments.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.3..................  Hovering turns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.4..................  Hover power checks.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.4.a................  In ground effect (IGE).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.4.b................  Out of ground effect (OGE).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.5..................  Crosswind/tailwind hover.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.6..................  Abnormal/emergency procedures:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.6.a................  Engine failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 367]]

 
1.d.6.b................  Fuel governing system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.6.c................  Settling with power (OGE).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.6.d................  Stability augmentation system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.6.e................  Directional control malfunction (including Loss
                          of Tail Rotor Effectiveness, LTE).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.6.f................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.e....................  Pre-takeoff Checks.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Takeoff and Departure Phase
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a....................  Normal and Crosswind Takeoff.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1..................  From ground.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2..................  From hover.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3..................  Running.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.4..................  Crosswind/tailwind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.5..................  Maximum performance.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b....................  Instrument.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c....................  Powerplant Failure During Takeoff.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.c.1..................  Takeoff with engine failure after critical
                          decision point (CDP).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.d....................  Rejected Takeoff.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.e....................  Instrument Departure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.f....................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Climb
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a....................  Normal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b....................  Obstacle clearance.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c....................  Vertical.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d....................  One engine inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e....................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Inflight Maneuvers
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a....................  Performance.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b....................  Flying qualities.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c....................  Turns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1..................  Timed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2..................  Normal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.3..................  Steep.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d....................  Accelerations and decelerations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e....................  High-speed vibrations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f....................  Abnormal/emergency procedures, for example:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.1..................  Engine fire.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 368]]

 
4.f.2..................  Engine failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.2.a................  Powerplant Failure--Multiengine Helicopters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.2.b................  Powerplant Failure--Single-Engine Helicopters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.3..................  Inflight engine shutdown (and restart, if
                          applicable).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.4..................  Fuel governing system failures (e.g., FADEC
                          malfunction).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.5..................  Directional control malfunction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.6..................  Hydraulic failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.7..................  Stability augmentation system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.8..................  Rotor vibrations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.9..................  Recovery From Unusual Attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.10.................  Settling with Power.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.g....................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Instrument Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a....................  Instrument Arrival.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b....................  Holding.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c....................  Precision Instrument Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.1..................  Normal--All engines operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.2..................  Manually controlled--One or more engines
                          inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3..................  Approach procedures:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3.a................  PAR.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3.b................  GPS.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3.c................  ILS.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3.c.1..............  Manual (raw data).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3.c.2..............  Autopilot * only.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3.c.3..............  Flight director only.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3.c.4..............  Autopilot * and flight director (if
                          appropriate) coupled.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3.d................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d....................  Non-precision Instrument Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.1..................  Normal--All engines operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.2..................  One or more engines inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3..................  Approach procedures:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3.a................  NDB.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3.b................  VOR, RNAV, TACAN, GPS.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3.c................  ASR.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3.d................  Circling.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3.e................  Helicopter only.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 369]]

 
5.d.3.f................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e....................  Missed Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.1..................  All engines operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.2..................  One or more engines inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.3..................  Stability augmentation system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e.4..................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Landings and Approaches to Landings
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a....................  Visual Approaches.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.1..................  Normal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.2..................  Steep.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.3..................  Shallow.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.4..................  Crosswind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b....................  Landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1..................  Normal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.a................  Running.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1.b................  From Hover.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.2..................  Crosswind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.3..................  Tailwind.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.4..................  One or more engines inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.5..................  Rejected Landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.6..................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a....................  Helicopter and powerplant systems operation (as
                          applicable).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.1..................  Anti-icing/deicing systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.2..................  Auxiliary powerplant.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.3..................  Communications.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.4..................  Electrical system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.5..................  Environmental system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.6..................  Fire detection and suppression.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.7..................  Flight control system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.8..................  Fuel system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.9..................  Engine oil system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.10.................  Hydraulic system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.11.................  Landing gear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.12.................  Oxygen.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.13.................  Pneumatic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 370]]

 
7.a.14.................  Powerplant.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.15.................  Flight control computers.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.16.................  Fly-by-wire controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.17.................  Stabilizer.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.18.................  Stability augmentation and control augmentation
                          system(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a.19.................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b....................  Flight management and guidance system (as
                          applicable).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.1..................  Airborne radar.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.2..................  Automatic landing aids.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.3..................  Autopilot.*
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.4..................  Collision avoidance system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.5..................  Flight data displays.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.6..................  Flight management computers.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.7..................  Head-up displays.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.8..................  Navigation systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b.9..................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. Emergency Procedures (as applicable)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a....................  Autorotative Landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b....................  Air hazard avoidance.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c....................  Ditching.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d....................  Emergency evacuation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e....................  Inflight fire and smoke removal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f....................  Retreating blade stall recovery.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g....................  Mast bumping.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.h....................  Loss of tail rotor effectiveness.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.i....................  Other (listed on the SOQ).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9. Postflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.a....................  After-Landing Procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b....................  Parking and Securing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b.1..................  Engine and systems operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b.2..................  Parking brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b.3..................  Rotor brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9.b.4..................  Abnormal/emergency procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.a...................  Power Switch(es).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b...................  Helicopter conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 371]]

 
10.b.1.................  Gross weight, center of gravity, fuel loading
                          and allocation, etc.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.2.................  Helicopter systems status.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.b.3.................  Ground crew functions (e.g., ext. power).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.c...................  Airports.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.c.1.................  Selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.c.2.................  Runway selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.c.3.................  Preset positions (e.g., ramp, over final
                          approach fix).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.d...................  Environmental controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.d.1.................  Temperature.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.d.2.................  Climate conditions (e.g., ice, rain).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.d.3.................  Wind speed and direction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.e...................  Helicopter system malfunctions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.e.1.................  Insertion/deletion.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.e.2.................  Problem clear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.f...................  Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.f.1.................  Problem (all) freeze/release.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.f.2.................  Position (geographic) freeze/release.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.f.3.................  Repositioning (locations, freezes, and
                          releases).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.f.4.................  Ground speed control.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.g...................  Sound Controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.g.1.................  On/off/adjustment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.h...................  Control Loading System (as applicable).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.h.1.................  On/off/emergency stop.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.i...................  Observer Stations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.i.1.................  Position.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.i.2.................  Adjustments.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
* ``Autopilot'' means attitude retention mode of operation.


  Table D3B--Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Airport or Landing
       Area Content Requirements for Qualification at Level 7 FTD
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Entry No.                         Operations tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
This table specifies the minimum airport visual model content and
 functionality to qualify an FTD at the indicated level. This table
 applies only to the airport/helicopter landing area scenes required for
 FTD qualification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1......................  Functional test content requirements for Level
                          7 FTDs. The following is the minimum airport/
                          landing area model content requirement to
                          satisfy visual capability tests, and provides
                          suitable visual cues to allow completion of
                          all functions and subjective tests described
                          in this attachment for Level 7 FTDs.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 372]]

 
1.a....................  A minimum of one (1) representative airport and
                          one (1) representative helicopter landing area
                          model. The airport and the helicopter landing
                          area may be contained within the same visual
                          model. If this option is selected, the
                          approach path to the airport runway(s) and the
                          approach path to the helicopter landing area
                          must be different. The model(s) used to meet
                          the following requirements may be demonstrated
                          at either a fictional or a real-world airport
                          or helicopter landing area, but each must be
                          acceptable to the sponsor's TPAA, selectable
                          from the IOS, and listed on the SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b....................  Fidelity of the Visual Scene. The fidelity of
                          the visual scene must be sufficient for the
                          aircrew to visually identify the airport and/
                          or helicopter landing area; determine the
                          position of the simulated helicopter within
                          the visual scene; successfully accomplish take-
                          offs, approaches, and landings; and maneuver
                          around the airport and/or helicopter landing
                          area on the ground, or hover taxi, as
                          necessary.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1..................  For each of the airport/helicopter landing
                          areas described in 1.a., the FTD visual system
                          must be able to provide at least the
                          following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1.a................  A night and twilight (dusk) environment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1.b................  A daylight environment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c....................  Runways:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.1..................  Visible runway number.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.2..................  Runway threshold elevations and locations must
                          be modeled to provide sufficient correlation
                          with helicopter systems (e.g., altimeter).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.3..................  Runway surface and markings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.4..................  Lighting for the runway in use including runway
                          edge and centerline.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.5..................  Lighting, visual approach aid (VASI or PAPI)
                          and approach lighting of appropriate colors.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.c.6..................  Taxiway lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d....................  Helicopter landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.1..................  Standard heliport designation (``H'') marking,
                          properly sized and oriented.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.2..................  Perimeter markings for the Touchdown and Lift-
                          Off Area (TLOF) or the Final Approach and
                          Takeoff Area (FATO), as appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.3..................  Perimeter lighting for the TLOF or the FATO
                          areas, as appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.d.4..................  Appropriate markings and lighting to allow
                          movement from the runway or helicopter landing
                          area to another part of the landing facility.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2......................  Visual scene management.
                         The following is the minimum visual scene
                          management requirements for a Level 7 FTD.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a....................  Runway and helicopter landing area approach
                          lighting must fade into view appropriately in
                          accordance with the environmental conditions
                          set in the FTD.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b....................  The direction of strobe lights, approach
                          lights, runway edge lights, visual landing
                          aids, runway centerline lights, threshold
                          lights, touchdown zone lights, and TLOF or
                          FATO lights must be replicated.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3......................  Visual feature recognition.
                         The following are the minimum distances at
                          which runway features must be visible.
                          Distances are measured from runway threshold
                          or a helicopter landing area to a helicopter
                          aligned with the runway or helicopter landing
                          area on an extended 3[deg] glide-slope in
                          simulated meteorological conditions. For
                          circling approaches, all tests apply to the
                          runway used for the initial approach and to
                          the runway of intended landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a....................  For runways: Runway definition, strobe lights,
                          approach lights, and edge lights from 5 sm (8
                          km) of the threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b....................  For runways: Centerline lights and taxiway
                          definition from 3 sm (5 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c....................  For runways: Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI
                          or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 373]]

 
3.d....................  For runways: Runway threshold lights and
                          touchdown zone from 2 sm (3 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.e....................  For runways and helicopter landing areas:
                          Markings within range of landing lights for
                          night/twilight scenes and the surface
                          resolution test on daylight scenes, as
                          required.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.f....................  For circling approaches: The runway of intended
                          landing and associated lighting must fade into
                          view in a non-distracting manner.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.g....................  For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction
                          lights and raised FATO lights from 1 sm (1.5
                          km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.h....................  For helicopter landing areas: Flush mounted
                          FATO lights, TLOF lights, and the lighted
                          windsock from 0.5 sm (750 m).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4......................  Airport or Helicopter Landing Area Model
                          Content.
                         The following prescribes the minimum
                          requirements for an airport/helicopter landing
                          area visual model and identifies other aspects
                          of the environment that must correspond with
                          that model for a Level 7 FTD. For circling
                          approaches, all tests apply to the runway used
                          for the initial approach and to the runway of
                          intended landing. If all runways or landing
                          areas in a visual model used to meet the
                          requirements of this attachment are not
                          designated as ``in use,'' then the ``in use''
                          runways/landing areas must be listed on the
                          SOQ (e.g., KORD, Rwys 9R, 14L, 22R). Models of
                          airports or helicopter landing areas with more
                          than one runway or landing area must have all
                          significant runways or landing areas not ``in-
                          use'' visually depicted for airport/runway/
                          landing area recognition purposes. The use of
                          white or off white light strings that identify
                          the runway or landing area for twilight and
                          night scenes are acceptable for this
                          requirement; and rectangular surface
                          depictions are acceptable for daylight scenes.
                          A visual system's capabilities must be
                          balanced between providing visual models with
                          an accurate representation of the airport and
                          a realistic representation of the surrounding
                          environment. Each runway or helicopter landing
                          area designated as an ``in-use'' runway or
                          area must include the following detail that is
                          developed using airport pictures, construction
                          drawings and maps, or other similar data, or
                          developed in accordance with published
                          regulatory material; however, this does not
                          require that such models contain details that
                          are beyond the design capability of the
                          currently qualified visual system. Only one
                          ``primary'' taxi route from parking to the
                          runway end or helicopter takeoff/landing area
                          will be required for each ``in-use'' runway or
                          helicopter takeoff/landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a....................  The surface and markings for each ``in-use''
                          runway or helicopter landing area must include
                          the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.1..................  For airports: Runway threshold markings, runway
                          numbers, touchdown zone markings, fixed
                          distance markings, runway edge markings, and
                          runway centerline stripes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a.2..................  For helicopter landing areas: Markings for
                          standard heliport identification (``H'') and
                          TLOF, FATO, and safety areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b....................  The lighting for each ``in-use'' runway or
                          helicopter landing area must include the
                          following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.1..................  For airports: Runway approach, threshold, edge,
                          end, centerline (if applicable), touchdown
                          zone (if applicable), leadoff, and visual
                          landing aid lights or light systems for that
                          runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b.2..................  For helicopter landing areas: Landing
                          direction, raised and flush FATO, TLOF,
                          windsock lighting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c....................  The taxiway surface and markings associated
                          with each ``in-use'' runway or helicopter
                          landing area must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1..................  For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if
                          appropriate), runway hold lines, and ILS
                          critical area(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2..................  For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi
                          routes, and aprons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d....................  The taxiway lighting associated with each ``in-
                          use'' runway or helicopter landing area must
                          include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d.1..................  For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if
                          appropriate), runway hold lines, ILS critical
                          areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d.2..................  For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi
                          routes, and aprons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d.3..................  For airports: Taxiway lighting of correct
                          color.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e....................  Airport signage associated with each ``in-use''
                          runway or helicopter landing area must include
                          the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.1..................  For airports: Signs for runway distance
                          remaining, intersecting runway with taxiway,
                          and intersecting taxiway with taxiway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 374]]

 
4.e.2..................  For helicopter landing areas: As appropriate
                          for the model used.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f....................  Required visual model correlation with other
                          aspects of the airport or helicopter landing
                          environment simulation:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.1..................  The airport or helicopter landing area model
                          must be properly aligned with the navigational
                          aids that are associated with operations at
                          the ``in-use'' runway or helicopter landing
                          area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.f.2..................  The simulation of runway or helicopter landing
                          area contaminants must be correlated with the
                          displayed runway surface and lighting, if
                          applicable.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5......................  Correlation with helicopter and associated
                          equipment.
                         The following are the minimum correlation
                          comparisons that must be made for a Level 7
                          FTD.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a....................  Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic
                          programming.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b....................  Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth
                          perception during landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c....................  Accurate portrayal of environment relating to
                          FTD attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d....................  The visual scene must correlate with integrated
                          helicopter systems, where installed (e.g.,
                          terrain, traffic and weather avoidance systems
                          and Head-up Guidance System (HGS)).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.e....................  Representative visual effects for each visible,
                          own-ship, helicopter external light(s)--taxi
                          and landing light lobes (including independent
                          operation, if appropriate).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.f....................  The effect of rain removal devices.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6......................  Scene quality.
                         The following are the minimum scene quality
                          tests that must be conducted for a Level 7
                          FTD.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a....................  System light points must be free from
                          distracting jitter, smearing and streaking.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b....................  Demonstration of occulting through each channel
                          of the system in an operational scene.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c....................  Six discrete light step controls (0-5).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7......................  Special weather representations, which include
                          visibility and RVR, measured in terms of
                          distance.
                         Visibility/RVR checked at 2,000 ft (600 m)
                          above the airport or helicopter landing area
                          and at two heights below 2,000 ft with at
                          least 500 ft of separation between the
                          measurements. The measurements must be taken
                          within a radius of 10 sm (16 km) from the
                          airport or helicopter landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a....................  Effects of fog on airport lighting such as
                          halos and defocus.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b....................  Effect of own-ship lighting in reduced
                          visibility, such as reflected glare, including
                          landing lights, strobes, and beacons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8......................  Instructor control of the following:
                         The following are the minimum instructor
                          controls that must be available in a Level 7
                          FTD.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a....................  Environmental effects: E.g., cloud base, cloud
                          effects, cloud density, visibility in statute
                          miles/kilometers and RVR in feet/meters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b....................  Airport or helicopter landing area selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c....................  Airport or helicopter landing area lighting,
                          including variable intensity.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d....................  Dynamic effects including ground and flight
                          traffic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 375]]

 
                           End QPS Requirement
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            Begin Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
9......................  An example of being able to combine two airport
                          models to achieve two ``in-use'' runways: One
                          runway designated as the ``in-use'' runway in
                          the first model of the airport, and the second
                          runway designated as the ``in-use'' runway in
                          the second model of the same airport. For
                          example, the clearance is for the ILS approach
                          to Runway 27, Circle to Land on Runway 18
                          right. Two airport visual models might be
                          used: The first with Runway 27 designated as
                          the ``in use'' runway for the approach to
                          runway 27, and the second with Runway 18 Right
                          designated as the ``in use'' runway. When the
                          pilot breaks off the ILS approach to runway
                          27, the instructor may change to the second
                          airport visual model in which runway 18 Right
                          is designated as the ``in use'' runway, and
                          the pilot would make a visual approach and
                          landing. This process is acceptable to the FAA
                          as long as the temporary interruption due to
                          the visual model change is not distracting to
                          the pilot.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
10.....................  Sponsors are not required to provide every
                          detail of a runway, but the detail that is
                          provided should be correct within reasonable
                          limits.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                             End Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------


  Table D3C--Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 7 FTD Visual
    Requirements Additional Visual Models Beyond Minimum Required for
    Qualification Class II Airport or Helicopter Landing Area Models
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Entry No.                         Operations tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
This table specifies the minimum airport or helicopter landing area
 visual model content and functionality necessary to add visual models
 to an FTD's visual model library (i.e., beyond those necessary for
 qualification at the stated level) without the necessity of further
 involvement of the NSPM or TPAA.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1......................  Visual scene management.
                         The following is the minimum visual scene
                          management requirements.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a....................  The installation and direction of the following
                          lights must be replicated for the ``in-use''
                          surface:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.1..................  For ``in-use'' runways: Strobe lights, approach
                          lights, runway edge lights, visual landing
                          aids, runway centerline lights, threshold
                          lights, and touchdown zone lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a.2..................  For ``in-use'' helicopter landing areas: Ground
                          level TLOF perimeter lights, elevated TLOF
                          perimeter lights (if applicable), Optional
                          TLOF lights (if applicable), ground FATO
                          perimeter lights, elevated TLOF lights (if
                          applicable), landing direction lights.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2......................  Visual feature recognition.
                         The following are the minimum distances at
                          which runway or landing area features must be
                          visible. Distances are measured from runway
                          threshold or a helicopter landing area to an
                          aircraft aligned with the runway or helicopter
                          landing area on a 3[deg] glide-slope from the
                          aircraft to the touchdown point, in simulated
                          meteorological conditions. For circling
                          approaches, all tests apply to the runway used
                          for the initial approach and to the runway of
                          intended landing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a....................  For Runways.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.1..................  Strobe lights, approach lights, and edge lights
                          from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.2..................  Centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3
                          sm (5 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.3..................  Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from
                          5 sm (8 km) of the threshold.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.4..................  Threshold lights and touchdown zone lights from
                          2 sm (3 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.5..................  Markings within range of landing lights for
                          night/twilight (dusk) scenes and as required
                          by the surface resolution test on daylight
                          scenes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a.6..................  For circling approaches, the runway of intended
                          landing and associated lighting must fade into
                          view in a non-distracting manner.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b....................  For Helicopter landing areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 376]]

 
2.b.1..................  Landing direction lights and raised FATO lights
                          from 2 sm (3 km).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.2..................  Flush mounted FATO lights, TOFL lights, and the
                          lighted windsock from 1 sm (1500 m).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.3..................  Hover taxiway lighting (yellow/blue/yellow
                          cylinders) from TOFL area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b.4..................  Markings within range of landing lights for
                          night/twilight (dusk) scenes and as required
                          by the surface resolution test on daylight
                          scenes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3......................  Airport or Helicopter Landing Area Model
                          Content.
                         The following prescribes the minimum
                          requirements for what must be provided in an
                          airport visual model and identifies other
                          aspects of the airport environment that must
                          correspond with that model. The detail must be
                          developed using airport pictures, construction
                          drawings and maps, or other similar data, or
                          developed in accordance with published
                          regulatory material; however, this does not
                          require that airport or helicopter landing
                          area models contain details that are beyond
                          the designed capability of the currently
                          qualified visual system. For circling
                          approaches, all requirements of this section
                          apply to the runway used for the initial
                          approach and to the runway of intended
                          landing. Only one ``primary'' taxi route from
                          parking to the runway end or helicopter
                          takeoff/landing area will be required for each
                          ``in-use'' runway or helicopter takeoff/
                          landing area.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a....................  The surface and markings for each ``in-use''
                          runway or helicopter landing area must include
                          the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.1..................  For airports: Runway threshold markings, runway
                          numbers, touchdown zone markings, fixed
                          distance markings, runway edge markings, and
                          runway centerline stripes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a.2..................  For helicopter landing areas: Standard heliport
                          marking (``H''), TOFL, FATO, and safety areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b....................  The lighting for each ``in-use'' runway or
                          helicopter landing area must include the
                          following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.1..................  For airports: Runway approach, threshold, edge,
                          end, centerline (if applicable), touchdown
                          zone (if applicable), leadoff, and visual
                          landing aid lights or light systems for that
                          runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b.2..................  For helicopter landing areas: Landing
                          direction, raised and flush FATO, TOFL,
                          windsock lighting.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c....................  The taxiway surface and markings associated
                          with each ``in-use'' runway or helicopter
                          landing area must include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c.1..................  For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if
                          appropriate), runway hold lines, and ILS
                          critical area(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c.2..................  For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi
                          routes, and aprons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d....................  The taxiway lighting associated with each ``in-
                          use'' runway or helicopter landing area must
                          include the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d.1..................  For airports: Runway edge, centerline (if
                          appropriate), runway hold lines, ILS critical
                          areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.d.2..................  For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi
                          routes, and aprons.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4......................  Required visual model correlation with other
                          aspects of the airport environment simulation.
                         The following are the minimum visual model
                          correlation tests that must be conducted for
                          Level 7 FTD.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a....................  The airport model must be properly aligned with
                          the navigational aids that are associated with
                          operations at the ``in-use'' runway.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b....................  Slopes in runways, taxiways, and ramp areas, if
                          depicted in the visual scene, must not cause
                          distracting or unrealistic effects.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5......................  Correlation with helicopter and associated
                          equipment.
                         The following are the minimum correlation
                          comparisons that must be made.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a....................  Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic
                          programming.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b....................  Accurate portrayal of environment relating to
                          flight simulator attitudes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c....................  Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth
                          perception during landings.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6......................  Scene quality.
                         The following are the minimum scene quality
                          tests that must be conducted.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 377]]

 
6.a....................  Light points free from distracting jitter,
                          smearing or streaking.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b....................  Surfaces and textural cues free from apparent
                          and distracting quantization (aliasing).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7......................  Instructor controls of the following.
                         The following are the minimum instructor
                          controls that must be available.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a....................  Environmental effects, e.g., cloud base (if
                          used), cloud effects, cloud density,
                          visibility in statute miles/kilometers and RVR
                          in feet/meters.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b....................  Airport/Heliport selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c....................  Airport/Heliport lighting including variable
                          intensity.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d....................  Dynamic effects including ground and flight
                          traffic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                          End QPS Requirements
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            Begin Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8......................  Sponsors are not required to provide every
                          detail of a runway or helicopter landing area,
                          but the detail that is provided must be
                          correct within the capabilities of the system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                             End Information
------------------------------------------------------------------------


     Table D3D--Table of Functions And Subjective Tests Level 6 FTD
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Entry No.                         Operations tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the
 helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or for
 a Level 6 FTD. Items not installed or not functional on the FTD and not
 appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed
 as exceptions on the SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a....................  Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only)
                          switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b....................  APU/Engine start and run-up.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1..................  Normal start procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2..................  Alternate start procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.3..................  Abnormal starts and shutdowns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.4..................  Rotor engagement.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.5..................  System checks.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Takeoff and Departure Phase
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a....................  Instrument.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b....................  Takeoff with engine failure after critical
                          decision point (CDP).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Climb
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a....................  Normal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b....................  One engine inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Inflight Maneuvers
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a....................  Performance.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b....................  Flying qualities.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 378]]

 
4.c....................  Turns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1..................  Timed.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2..................  Normal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.3..................  Steep.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.d....................  Accelerations and decelerations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e....................  Abnormal/emergency procedures:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.1..................  Engine fire.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.2..................  Engine failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.3..................  In-flight engine shutdown (and restart, if
                          applicable).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.4..................  Fuel governing system failures (e.g., FADEC
                          malfunction).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.5..................  Directional control malfunction (restricted to
                          the extent that the maneuver may not terminate
                          in a landing).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.6..................  Hydraulic failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.e.7..................  Stability augmentation system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Instrument Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a....................  Holding.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b....................  Precision Instrument Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.1..................  All engines operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.2..................  One or more engines inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.3..................  Approach procedures:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.4..................  PAR.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.5..................  ILS.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.6..................  Manual (raw data).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.7..................  Flight director only.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b.8..................  Autopilot* and flight director (if appropriate)
                          coupled.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c....................  Non-precision Instrument Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c....................  Normal--All engines operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c....................  One or more engines inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c....................  Approach procedures:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.1..................  NDB.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.2..................  VOR, RNAV, TACAN, GPS.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.3..................  ASR.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.c.4..................  Helicopter only.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d....................  Missed Approach.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.1..................  All engines operating.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.2..................  One or more engines inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.d.3..................  Stability augmentation system failure.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 379]]

 
6. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a....................  Helicopter and powerplant systems operation (as
                          applicable).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.1..................  Anti-icing/deicing systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.2..................  Auxiliary power-plant.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.3..................  Communications.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.4..................  Electrical system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.5..................  Environmental system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.6..................  Fire detection and suppression.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.7..................  Flight control system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.8..................  Fuel system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.9..................  Engine oil system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.10.................  Hydraulic system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.11.................  Landing gear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.12.................  Oxygen.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.13.................  Pneumatic.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.14.................  Powerplant.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.15.................  Flight control computers.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a.16.................  Stability augmentation and control augmentation
                          system(s).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b....................  Flight management and guidance system (as
                          applicable).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.1..................  Airborne radar.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.2..................  Automatic landing aids.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.3..................  Autopilot.*
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.4..................  Collision avoidance system.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.5..................  Flight data displays.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.6..................  Flight management computers.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b.7..................  Navigation systems.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Postflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a....................  Parking and Securing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b....................  Engine and systems operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c....................  Parking brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d....................  Rotor brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e....................  Abnormal/emergency procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.a....................  Power Switch(es).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.1..................  Helicopter conditions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.2..................  Gross weight, center of gravity, fuel loading
                          and allocation, etc.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 380]]

 
8.b.3..................  Helicopter systems status.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.b.4..................  Ground crew functions (e.g., ext. power).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c....................  Airports and landing areas.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.1..................  Number and selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.2..................  Runway or landing area selection.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.3..................  Preset positions (e.g., ramp, over FAF).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.c.4..................  Lighting controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d....................  Environmental controls.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d.1..................  Temperature.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d.2..................  Climate conditions (e.g., ice, rain).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.d.3..................  Wind speed and direction.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e....................  Helicopter system malfunctions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e.1..................  Insertion/deletion.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.e.2..................  Problem clear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f....................  Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.1..................  Problem (all) freeze/release.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.2..................  Position (geographic) freeze/release.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.3..................  Repositioning (locations, freezes, and
                          releases).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.f.4..................  Ground speed control.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.g....................  Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.h....................  Control Loading System (as applicable) On/off/
                          emergency stop.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.i....................  Observer Stations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.i.1..................  Position.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
8.i.2..................  Adjustments.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
* ``Autopilot'' means attitude retention mode of operation.


     Table D3E--Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 5 FTD
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Entry No.                         Operations tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the
 helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or for
 a Level 5 FTD. Items not installed or not functional on the FTD and not
 appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed
 as exceptions on the SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a....................  Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only)
                          switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b....................  APU/Engine start and run-up.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1..................  Normal start procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.2..................  Alternate start procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.3..................  Abnormal starts and shutdowns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 381]]

 
2. Climb
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a....................  Normal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Inflight Maneuvers
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a....................  Performance.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b....................  Turns, Normal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Instrument Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a....................  Coupled instrument approach maneuvers (as
                          applicable for the systems installed).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.a....................  Normal system operation (installed systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
5.b....................  Abnormal/Emergency system operation (installed
                          systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Postflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.a....................  Parking and Securing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.b....................  Engine and systems operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.c....................  Parking brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.d....................  Rotor brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
6.e....................  Abnormal/emergency procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.a....................  Power Switch(es).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.b....................  Preset positions (ground; air)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c....................  Helicopter system malfunctions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c.1..................  Insertion/deletion.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.c.2..................  Problem clear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.d....................  Control Loading System (as applicable) On/off/
                          emergency stop.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e....................  Observer Stations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e.1..................  Position.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
7.e.2..................  Adjustments.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------------


     Table D3F--Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 4 FTD
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                            QPS requirements
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Entry No.                         Operations tasks
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the
 helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or for
 a Level 4 FTD. Items not installed or not functional on the FTD and not
 appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed
 as exceptions on the SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Preflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.a....................  Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only)
                          switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b....................  APU/Engine start and run-up.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.1..................  Normal start procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 382]]

 
1.b.2..................  Alternate start procedures.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1.b.3..................  Abnormal starts and shutdowns.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.a....................  Normal system operation (installed systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2.b....................  Abnormal/Emergency system operation (installed
                          systems).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Postflight Procedures
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.a....................  Parking and Securing.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.b....................  Engine and systems operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
3.c....................  Parking brake operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.a....................  Power Switch(es).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.b....................  Preset positions (ground; air)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c....................  Helicopter system malfunctions.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.1..................  Insertion/deletion.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
4.c.2..................  Problem clear.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

         Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60--Sample Documents

                            Table of Contents

Figure D4A Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement 
          Evaluation
Figure D4B Attachment: FTD Information Form
Figure A4C Sample Letter of Compliance
Figure D4D Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page
Figure D4E Sample Statement of Qualification--Certificate
Figure D4F Sample Statement of Qualification--Configuration List
Figure D4G Sample Statement of Qualification--List of Qualified Tasks
Figure D4H Sample Continuing Qualification Evaluation Requirements Page
Figure D4I Sample MQTG Index of Effective FTD Directives

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[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26491, May 9, 2008]



  Sec. Appendix E to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for 

    Quality Management Systems for Flight Simulation Training Devices

________________________________________________________________________

                         Begin QPS Requirements

    a. Not later than May 30, 2010, each current sponsor of an FSTD must 
submit to the NSPM a proposed Quality Management System (QMS) program as 
described in this appendix. The NSPM will notify the sponsor of the 
acceptability of the program, including any required adjustments. Within 
6 months of the notification of acceptability, the sponsor must 
implement the program, conduct internal audits, make required program 
adjustments as a result of any internal audit, and schedule the NSPM 
initial audit.
    b. First-time FSTD sponsors must submit to the NSPM the proposed QMS 
program no later than 120 days before the initial FSTD evaluation. The 
NSPM will notify the sponsor of the acceptability of the program, 
including any required adjustments. Within 6 months of the notification 
of acceptability, the sponsor must implement the program, conduct 
internal audits, make required program adjustments as a result of any 
internal audit, and schedule the NSPM initial audit.
    c. The Director of Operations for a Part 119 certificate holder, the 
Chief Instructor for a Part 141 certificate holder, or the equivalent 
for a Part 142 or Flight Engineer School sponsor must designate a 
Management Representative (MR) who has the authority to establish and 
modify the sponsor's policies, practices, and procedures regarding the 
QMS program for the recurring qualification and the daily use of each 
FSTD.
    d. The minimum content required for an acceptable QMS is found in 
Table E1. The policies, processes, or procedures described in this table 
must be maintained in a Quality Manual and will serve as the basis for 
the following:
    (1) The sponsor-conducted initial and recurring periodic 
assessments;
    (2) The NSPM-conducted initial and recurring periodic assessments; 
and
    (3) The continuing surveillance and analysis by the NSPM of the 
sponsor's performance and effectiveness in providing a satisfactory FSTD 
for use on a regular basis.
    e. The sponsor must conduct assessments of its QMS program in 
segments. The segments will be established by the NSPM at the initial 
assessment, and the interval for the segment assessments will be every 6

[[Page 396]]

months. The intervals for the segment assessments may be extended beyond 
6 months as the QMS program matures, but will not be extended beyond 12 
months. The entire QMS program must be assessed every 24 months.
    f. The periodic assessments conducted by the NSPM will be conducted 
at intervals not less than once every 24 months, and include a 
comprehensive review of the QMS program. These reviews will be conducted 
more frequently if warranted.

                          End QPS Requirements

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    g. An example of a segment assessment--At the initial QMS 
assessment, the NSPM will divide the QMS program into segments (e.g., 6 
separate segments). There must be an assessment of a certain number of 
segments every 6 months (i.e., segments 1 and 2 at the end of the first 
6 month period; segments 3 and 4 at the end of the second 6 month period 
(or one year); and segments 5 and 6 at the end of the third 6 month 
period (or 18 months). As the program matures, the interval between 
assessments may be extended to 12 months (e.g., segments 1, 2, and 3 at 
the end of the first year; and segments 4, 5, and 6 at the end of the 
second year). In both cases, the entire QMS program is assessed at least 
every 24 months.
    h. The following materials are presented to assist sponsors in 
preparing for an NSPM evaluation of the QMS program. The sample 
documents include:
    (1) The NSPM desk assessment tool for initial evaluation of the 
required elements of a QMS program.
    (2) The NSPM on-site assessment tool for initial and continuing 
evaluation of the required elements of a QMS program.
    (3) An Element Assessment Table that describes the circumstances 
that exist to warrant a finding of ``non-compliance,'' or ``non-
conformity''; ``partial compliance,'' or ``partial conformity''; and 
``acceptable compliance,'' or ``acceptable conformity.''
    (4) A sample Continuation Sheet for additional comments that may be 
added by the sponsor or the NSPM during a QMS evaluation.
    (5) A sample Sponsor Checklist to assist the sponsor in verifying 
the elements that comprise the required QMS program.
    (6) A table showing the essential functions, processes, and 
procedures that relate to the required QMS components and a cross-
reference to each represented task.
    i. Additional Information.
    (1) In addition to specifically designated QMS evaluations, the NSPM 
will evaluate the sponsor's QMS program as part of regularly scheduled 
FSTD continuing qualification evaluations and no-notice FSTD 
evaluations, focusing in part on the effectiveness and viability of the 
QMS program and its contribution to the overall capability of the FSTD 
to meet the requirements of this part.
    (2) The sponsor or MR may delegate duties associated with 
maintaining the qualification of the FSTD (e.g., corrective and 
preventive maintenance, scheduling and conducting tests or inspections, 
functional preflight checks) but retain the responsibility and authority 
for the day-to-day qualification of the FSTD. One person may serve as 
the sponsor or MR for more than one FSTD, but one FSTD may not have more 
than one sponsor or MR.
    (3) A QMS program may be applicable to more than one certificate 
holder (e.g., part 119 and part 142 or two part 119 certificate holders) 
and an MR may work for more than one certificate holder (e.g., part 119 
and part 142 or two part 119 certificate holders) as long as the 
sponsor's QMS program requirements and the MR requirements are met for 
each certificate holder.
    (4) Standard Measurements for Flight Simulator Quality: A quality 
system based on FSTD performance will improve and maintain training 
quality. See http://www.faa.gov/safety/programs--initiatives/aircraft--
aviation/nsp/sqms/ for more information on measuring FSTD performance.
    j. The FAA does not mandate a specific QMS program format, but an 
acceptable QMS program should contain the following:.
    (1) A Quality Policy. This is a formal written Quality Policy 
Statement that is a commitment by the sponsor outlining what the Quality 
System will achieve.
    (2) A MR who has overall authority for monitoring the on-going 
qualification of assigned FSTDs to ensure that all FSTD qualification 
issues are resolved as required by this part. The MR should ensure that 
the QMS program is properly implemented and maintained, and should:
    (a) Brief the sponsor's management on the qualification processes;
    (b) Serve as the primary contact point for all matters between the 
sponsor and the NSPM regarding the qualification of the assigned FSTDs; 
and
    (c) Oversee the day-to-day quality control.
    (3) The system and processes outlined in the QMS should enable the 
sponsor to monitor compliance with all applicable regulations and ensure 
correct maintenance and performance of the FSTD in accordance with part 
60.
    (4) A QMS program and a statement acknowledging completion of a 
periodic review by the MR should include the following:
    (a) A maintenance facility that provides suitable FSTD hardware and 
software tests and maintenance capability.
    (b) A recording system in the form of a technical log in which 
defects, deferred defects, and development projects are listed,

[[Page 397]]

assigned and reviewed within a specified time period.
    (c) Routine maintenance of the FSTD and performance of the QTG tests 
with adequate staffing to cover FSTD operating periods.
    (d) A planned internal assessment schedule and a periodic review 
should be used to verify that corrective action was complete and 
effective. The assessor should have adequate knowledge of FSTDs and 
should be acceptable to the NSPM.
    (5) The MR should receive Quality System training and brief other 
personnel on the procedures.

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

                Table E1--FSTD Quality Management System
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                          Information
     Entry No.                QPS requirement             (reference)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.1...............  A QMS manual that prescribes the  Sec.  60.5(a).
                      policies, processes, or
                      procedures outlined in this
                      table.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.2...............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.5(b).
                      specifying how the sponsor will
                      identify deficiencies in the
                      QMS.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.3...............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.5(b).
                      specifying how the sponsor will
                      document how the QMS program
                      will be changed to address
                      deficiencies.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.4...............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.5(c).
                      specifying how the sponsor will
                      address proposed program
                      changes (for programs that do
                      not meet the minimum
                      requirements as notified by the
                      NSPM) to the NSPM and receive
                      approval prior to their
                      implementation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.5...............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.
                      specifying how the sponsor will   60.7(b)(5).
                      document that at least one FSTD
                      is used within the sponsor's
                      FAA-approved flight training
                      program for the aircraft or set
                      of aircraft at least once
                      within the 12-month period
                      following the initial or
                      upgrade evaluation conducted by
                      the NSPM and at least once
                      within each subsequent 12-month
                      period thereafter.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.6...............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.
                      specifying how the sponsor will   60.7(b)(6).
                      document that at least one FSTD
                      is used within the sponsor's
                      FAA-approved flight training
                      program for the aircraft or set
                      of aircraft at least once
                      within the 12-month period
                      following the first continuing
                      qualification evaluation
                      conducted by the NSP and at
                      least once within each
                      subsequent 12-month period
                      thereafter.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.7...............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.5(b)(7)
                      specifying how the sponsor will   and Sec.
                      obtain an annual written          60.7(d)(2).
                      statement from a qualified
                      pilot (who has flown the
                      subject aircraft or set of
                      aircraft during the preceding
                      12-month period) that the
                      performance and handling
                      qualities of the subject FSTD
                      represents the subject aircraft
                      or set of aircraft (within the
                      normal operating envelope).
                      Required only if the subject
                      FSTD is not used in the
                      sponsor's FAA-approved flight
                      training program for the
                      aircraft or set of aircraft at
                      least once within the preceding
                      12-month period.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.8...............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.
                      specifying how independent        60.9(b)(1).
                      feedback (from persons recently
                      completing training,
                      evaluation, or obtaining flight
                      experience; instructors and
                      check airmen using the FSTD for
                      training, evaluation, or flight
                      experience sessions; and FSTD
                      technicians and maintenance
                      personnel) will be received and
                      addressed by the sponsor
                      regarding the FSTD and its
                      operation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.9...............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.
                      specifying how and where the      60.9(b)(2).
                      FSTD SOQ will be posted, or
                      accessed by an appropriate
                      terminal or display, in or
                      adjacent to the FSTD.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.10..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.9(c)
                      specifying how the sponsor's      and Appendix E,
                      management representative (MR)    paragraph (d).
                      is selected and identified by
                      name to the NSPM.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.11..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.
                      specifying the MR authority and   60.9(c)(2), (3),
                      responsibility for the            and (4).
                      following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.11.a............  Monitoring the on-going
                      qualification of assigned FSTDs
                      to ensure all matters regarding
                      FSTD qualification are
                      completed as required by this
                      part.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.11.b............  Ensuring that the QMS is
                      properly maintained by
                      overseeing the QMS policies,
                      practices, or procedures and
                      modifying as necessary.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 398]]

 
E1.11.c............  Regularly briefing sponsor's
                      management on the status of the
                      on-going FSTD qualification
                      program and the effectiveness
                      and efficiency of the QMS.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.11.d............  Serving as the primary contact
                      point for all matters between
                      the sponsor and the NSPM
                      regarding the qualification of
                      assigned FSTDs.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.11.e............  Delegating the MR assigned
                      duties to an individual at each
                      of the sponsor's locations, as
                      appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.12..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.13; QPS
                      specifying how the sponsor        Appendices A, B,
                      will:                             C, and D.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.12.a............  Ensure that the data made
                      available to the NSPM (the
                      validation data package)
                      includes the aircraft
                      manufacturer's flight test data
                      (or other data approved by the
                      NSPM) and all relevant data
                      developed after the type
                      certificate was issued (e.g.,
                      data developed in response to
                      an airworthiness directive) if
                      the data results from a change
                      in performance, handling
                      qualities, functions, or other
                      characteristics of the aircraft
                      that must be considered for
                      flight crewmember training,
                      evaluation, or experience
                      requirements.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.12.b............  Notify the NSPM within 10
                      working days of becoming aware
                      that an addition to or a
                      revision of the flight related
                      data or airplane systems
                      related data is available if
                      this data is used to program or
                      operate a qualified FSTD.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.12.c............  Maintain a liaison with the
                      manufacturer of the aircraft
                      being simulated (or with the
                      holder of the aircraft type
                      certificate for the aircraft
                      being simulated if the
                      manufacturer is no longer in
                      business), and if appropriate,
                      with the person who supplied
                      the aircraft data package for
                      the FFS for the purposes of
                      receiving notification of data
                      package changes.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.13..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.14.
                      specifying how the sponsor will
                      make available all special
                      equipment and qualified
                      personnel needed to conduct
                      tests during initial,
                      continuing qualification, or
                      special evaluations.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.14..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.15(a)-
                      specifying how the sponsor will   (d); Sec.
                      submit to the NSPM a request to   60.15(b); Sec.
                      evaluate the FSTD for initial     60.15(b)(i);
                      qualification at a specific       Sec.
                      level and simultaneously          60.15(b)(ii);
                      request the TPAA forward a        Sec.
                      concurring letter to the NSPM;    60.15(b)(iii).
                      including how the MR will use
                      qualified personnel to confirm
                      the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.14.a............  That the performance and
                      handling qualities of the FSTD
                      represent those of the aircraft
                      or set of aircraft within the
                      normal operating envelope.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.14.b............  The FSTD systems and sub-systems
                      (including the simulated
                      aircraft systems) functionally
                      represent those in the aircraft
                      or set of aircraft.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.14.c............  The flight deck represents the
                      configuration of the specific
                      type or aircraft make, model,
                      and series aircraft being
                      simulated, as appropriate.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.15..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.15(e).
                      specifying how the subjective
                      and objective tests are
                      completed at the sponsor's
                      training facility for an
                      initial evaluation.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.16..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.15(h).
                      specifying how the sponsor will
                      update the QTG with the results
                      of the FAA-witnessed tests and
                      demonstrations together with
                      the results of the objective
                      tests and demonstrations after
                      the NSPM completes the
                      evaluation for initial
                      qualification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.17..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.15(i).
                      specifying how the sponsor will
                      make the MQTG available to the
                      NSPM upon request.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.18..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.16(a);
                      specifying how the sponsor will   Sec.
                      apply to the NSPM for             60.16(a)(1)(i);
                      additional qualification(s) to    and Sec.
                      the SOQ.                          60.16(a)(1)(ii).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.19..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.
                      specifying how the sponsor        60.19(a)(1) QPS
                      completes all required            Appendices A, B,
                      Attachment 2 objective tests      C, or D.
                      each year in a minimum of four
                      evenly spaced inspections as
                      specified in the appropriate
                      QPS.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.20..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.
                      specifying how the sponsor        60.19(a)(2) QPS
                      completes and records a           Appendices A, B,
                      functional preflight check of     C, or D.
                      the FSTD within the preceding
                      24 hours of FSTD use, including
                      a description of the functional
                      preflight.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 399]]

 
E1.21..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.
                      specifying how the sponsor        60.19(b)(2).
                      schedules continuing
                      qualification evaluations with
                      the NSPM.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.22..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.
                      specifying how the sponsor        60.19(b)(5)-(6).
                      ensures that the FSTD has
                      received a continuing
                      qualification evaluation at the
                      interval described in the MQTG.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.23..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.19(c);
                      describing how discrepancies      Sec.
                      are recorded in the FSTD          60.19(c)(2)(i);
                      discrepancy log, including:       Sec.
                                                        60.19(c)(2)(ii).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.23.a............  A description of how the
                      discrepancies are entered and
                      maintained in the log until
                      corrected.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.23.b............  A description of the corrective
                      action taken for each
                      discrepancy, the identity of
                      the individual taking the
                      action, and the date that
                      action is taken.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.24..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.
                      specifying how the discrepancy    60.19(c)(2)(iii)
                      log is kept in a form and         .
                      manner acceptable to the
                      Administrator and kept in or
                      adjacent to the FSTD. (An
                      electronic log that may be
                      accessed by an appropriate
                      terminal or display in or
                      adjacent to the FSTD is
                      satisfactory.).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.25..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.20.
                      that requires each instructor,
                      check airman, or representative
                      of the Administrator conducting
                      training, evaluation, or flight
                      experience, and each person
                      conducting the preflight
                      inspection, who discovers a
                      discrepancy, including any
                      missing, malfunctioning, or
                      inoperative components in the
                      FSTD, to write or cause to be
                      written a description of that
                      discrepancy into the
                      discrepancy log at the end of
                      the FSTD preflight or FSTD use
                      session.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.26..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.21(c).
                      specifying how the sponsor will
                      apply for initial qualification
                      based on the final aircraft
                      data package approved by the
                      aircraft manufacturer if
                      operating an FSTD based on an
                      interim qualification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.27..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.
                      specifying how the sponsor        60.23(a)(1)-(2).
                      determines whether an FSTD
                      change qualifies as a
                      modification as defined in Sec.
                        60.23.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.28..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.23(b).
                      specifying how the sponsor will
                      ensure the FSTD is modified in
                      accordance with any FSTD
                      Directive regardless of the
                      original qualification basis.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.29..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.
                      specifying how the sponsor will   60.23(c)(1)(i),
                      notify the NSPM and TPAA of       (ii), and (iv).
                      their intent to use a modified
                      FSTD and to ensure that the
                      modified FSTD will not be used
                      prior to:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.29.a............  Twenty-one days since the
                      sponsor notified the NSPM and
                      the TPAA of the proposed
                      modification and the sponsor
                      has not received any response
                      from either the NSPM or the
                      TPAA; or
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.29.b............  Twenty-one days since the
                      sponsor notified the NSPM and
                      the TPAA of the proposed
                      modification and one has
                      approved the proposed
                      modification and the other has
                      not responded; or
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.29.c............  The FSTD successfully completing
                      any evaluation the NSPM may
                      require in accordance with the
                      standards for an evaluation for
                      initial qualification or any
                      part thereof before the
                      modified FSTD is placed in
                      service.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.30..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.23(d)-
                      specifying how, after an FSTD     (e).
                      modification is approved by the
                      NSPM, the sponsor will:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.30.a............  Post an addendum to the SOQ
                      until as the NSPM issues a
                      permanent, updated SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.30.b............  Update the MQTG with current
                      objective test results and
                      appropriate objective data for
                      each affected objective test or
                      other MQTG section affected by
                      the modification.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.30.c............  File in the MQTG the requirement
                      from the NSPM to make the
                      modification and the record of
                      the modification completion.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

[[Page 400]]

 
E1.31..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.25(b)-
                      specifying how the sponsor will   (c), and QPS
                      track the length of time a        Appendices A, B,
                      component has been missing,       C, or D.
                      malfunctioning, or inoperative
                      (MMI), including:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.31.a............  How the sponsor will post a list
                      of MMI components in or
                      adjacent to the FSTD.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.31.b............  How the sponsor will notify the
                      NSPM if the MMI has not been
                      repaired or replaced within 30
                      days.*
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.32..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.
                      specifying how the sponsor will   60.27(a)(3).
                      notify the NSPM and how the
                      sponsor will seek
                      requalification of the FSTD if
                      the FSTD is moved and
                      reinstalled in a different
                      location.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.33..............  A policy, process, or procedure   Sec.  60.31.
                      specifying how the sponsor will
                      maintain control of the
                      following: (The sponsor must
                      specify how these records are
                      maintained in plain language
                      form or in coded form; but if
                      the coded form is used, the
                      sponsor must specify how the
                      preservation and retrieval of
                      information will be conducted.).
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.33.a............  The MQTG and each amendment.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.33.b............  A record of all FSTD
                      modifications required by this
                      part since the issuance of the
                      original SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.33.c............  Results of the qualification
                      evaluations (initial and each
                      upgrade) since the issuance of
                      the original SOQ.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.33.d............  Results of the objective tests
                      conducted in accordance with
                      this part for a period of 2
                      years.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.33.e............  Results of the previous three
                      continuing qualification
                      evaluations, or the continuing
                      qualification evaluations from
                      the previous 2 years, whichever
                      covers a longer period.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.33.f............  Comments obtained in accordance
                      with Sec.  60.9(b);
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.33.g............  A record of all discrepancies
                      entered in the discrepancy log
                      over the previous 2 years,
                      including the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.33.g.1..........  A list of the components or
                      equipment that were or are
                      missing, malfunctioning, or
                      inoperative.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.33.g.2..........  The action taken to correct the
                      discrepancy.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.33.g.3..........  The date the corrective action
                      was taken.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.33.g.4..........  The identity of the person
                      determining that the
                      discrepancy has been corrected.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
* Note: If the sponsor has an approved discrepancy prioritization
  system, this item is satisfied by describing how discrepancies are
  prioritized, what actions are taken, and how the sponsor will notify
  the NSPM if the MMI has not been repaired or replaced within the
  specified timeframe.


[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26491, May 9, 2008]



  Sec. Appendix F to Part 60--Definitions and Abbreviations for Flight 

                       Simulation Training Devices

________________________________________________________________________

                            Begin Information

    1. Some of the definitions presented below are repeated from the 
    definitions found in 14 CFR part 1, as indicated parenthetically

                             End Information

________________________________________________________________________

[[Page 401]]

                         Begin QPS Requirements

                             2. Definitions

    1st Segment--the portion of the takeoff profile from liftoff to gear 
retraction.
    2nd Segment--the portion of the takeoff profile from after gear 
retraction to initial flap/slat retraction.
    3rd Segment--the portion of the takeoff profile after flap/slat 
retraction is complete.
    Aircraft Data Package--a combination of the various types of data 
used to design, program, manufacture, modify, and test the FSTD.
    Airspeed--calibrated airspeed unless otherwise specified and 
expressed in terms of nautical miles per hour (knots).
    Airport Model--
    Class I. Whether modeling real world or fictional airports (or 
landing areas for helicopters), these airport models (or landing areas 
for helicopters) are those that meet the requirements of Table A3B or 
C3B, found in attachment 2 of Appendix A or C, as appropriate, are 
evaluated by the NSPM, and are listed on the SOQ.
    Class II. Whether modeling real world or fictional airports (or 
landing areas for helicopters), these airport models (or landing areas 
for helicopters) are those models that are in excess of those used for 
simulator qualification at a specified level. The FSTD sponsor is 
responsible for determining that these models meet the requirements set 
out in Table A3C or C3C, found in attachment 2 of Appendix A or C, as 
appropriate.
    Class III. This is a special class of airport model (or landing area 
for helicopters), used for specific purposes, and includes models that 
may be incomplete or inaccurate when viewed without restriction, but 
when appropriate limits are applied (e.g., ``valid for use only in 
visibility conditions less than \1/2\ statue mile or RVR2400 feet,'' 
``valid for use only for approaches to Runway 22L and 22R''), those 
features that may be incomplete or inaccurate may not be able to be 
recognized as such by the crewmember being trained, tested, or checked. 
Class III airport models used for training, testing, or checking 
activities under this Chapter requires the certificate holder to submit 
to the TPAA an appropriate analysis of the skills, knowledge, and 
abilities necessary for competent performance of the task(s) in which 
this particular model is to be used, and requires TPAA acceptance of 
each Class III model.
    Altitude--pressure altitude (meters or feet) unless specified 
otherwise.
    Angle of Attack--the angle between the airplane longitudinal axis 
and the relative wind vector projected onto the airplane plane of 
symmetry.
    Automatic Testing--FSTD testing where all stimuli are under computer 
control.
    Bank--the airplane attitude with respect to or around the 
longitudinal axis, or roll angle (degrees).
    Breakout--the force required at the pilot's primary controls to 
achieve initial movement of the control position.
    Certificate Holder--a person issued a certificate under parts 119, 
141, or 142 of this chapter or a person holding an approved course of 
training for flight engineers in accordance with part 63 of this 
chapter.
    Closed Loop Testing--a test method where the input stimuli are 
generated by controllers that drive the FSTD to follow a pre-defined 
target response.
    Computer Controlled Aircraft--an aircraft where all pilot inputs to 
the control surfaces are transferred and augmented by computers.
    Confined Area (helicopter operations)--an area where the flight of 
the helicopter is limited in some direction by terrain or the presence 
of natural or man-made obstructions (e.g., a clearing in the woods, a 
city street, or a road bordered by trees or power lines are regarded as 
confined areas).
    Control Sweep--movement of the appropriate pilot controller from 
neutral to an extreme limit in one direction (Forward, Aft, Right, or 
Left), a continuous movement back through neutral to the opposite 
extreme position, and then a return to the neutral position.
    Convertible FSTD--an FSTD in which hardware and software can be 
changed so that the FSTD becomes a replica of a different model, usually 
of the same type aircraft. The same FSTD platform, flight deck shell, 
motion system, visual system, computers, and peripheral equipment can be 
used in more than one simulation.
    Critical Engine Parameter--the parameter that is the most accurate 
measure of propulsive force.
    Deadband--the amount of movement of the input for a system for which 
there is no reaction in the output or state of the system observed.
    Distance--the length of space between two points, expressed in terms 
of nautical miles unless otherwise specified.
    Discrepancy--as used in this part, an aspect of the FSTD that is not 
correct with respect to the aircraft being simulated. This includes 
missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative components that are required to 
be present and operate correctly for training, evaluation, and 
experience functions to be creditable. It also includes errors in the 
documentation used to support the FSTD (e.g., MQTG errors, information 
missing from the MQTG, or required statements from appropriately 
qualified personnel).
    Downgrade--a permanent change in the qualification level of an FSTD 
to a lower level.

[[Page 402]]

    Driven--a test method where the input stimulus or variable is 
positioned by automatic means, usually a computer input.
    Electronic Copy of the MQTG--an electronic copy of the MQTG provided 
by an electronic scan presented in a format, acceptable to the NSPM.
    Electronic Master Qualification Test Guide--an electronic version of 
the MQTG (eMQTG), where all objective data obtained from airplane 
testing, or another approved source, together with correlating objective 
test results obtained from the performance of the FSTD and a description 
of the equipment necessary to perform the evaluation for the initial and 
the continuing qualification evaluations is stored, archived, or 
presented in either reformatted or digitized electronic format.
    Engine--as used in this part, the appliance or structure that 
supplies propulsive force for movement of the aircraft: i.e., The 
turbine engine for turbine powered aircraft; the turbine engine and 
propeller assembly for turbo-propeller powered aircraft; and the 
reciprocating engine and propeller assembly for reciprocating engine 
powered aircraft. For purposes of this part, engine failure is the 
failure of either the engine or propeller assembly to provide thrust 
higher than idle power thrust due to a failure of either the engine or 
the propeller assembly.
    Evaluation--with respect to an individual, the checking, testing, or 
review associated with flight crewmember qualification, training, and 
certification under parts 61, 63, 121, or 135 of this chapter. With 
respect to an FSTD, the qualification activities for the device (e.g., 
the objective and subjective tests, the inspections, or the continuing 
qualification evaluations) associated with the requirements of this 
part.
    Fictional Airport--a visual model of an airport that is a collection 
of ``non-real world'' terrain, instrument approach procedures, 
navigation aids, maps, and visual modeling detail sufficient to enable 
completion of an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate or Type Rating.
    Flight Experience--recency of flight experience for landing credit 
purposes.
    Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD)--a full flight simulator 
(FFS) or a flight training device (FTD). (Part 1)
    Flight Test Data--(a subset of objective data) aircraft data 
collected by the aircraft manufacturer or other acceptable data supplier 
during an aircraft flight test program.
    Flight Training Device (FTD)--a replica of aircraft instruments, 
equipment, panels, and controls in an open flight deck area or an 
enclosed aircraft flight deck replica. It includes the equipment and 
computer programs necessary to represent aircraft (or set of aircraft) 
operations in ground and flight conditions having the full range of 
capabilities of the systems installed in the device as described in part 
60 of this chapter and the qualification performance standard (QPS) for 
a specific FTD qualification level. (Part 1)
    Free Response--the response of the FSTD after completion of a 
control input or disturbance.
    Frozen--a test condition where one or more variables are held 
constant with time.
    FSTD Approval--the extent to which an FSTD may be used by a 
certificate holder as authorized by the FAA.
    FSTD Directive--a document issued by the FAA to an FSTD sponsor 
requiring a modification to the FSTD due to a safety-of-flight issue and 
amending the qualification basis for the FSTD.
    FSTD Latency--the additional time for the FSTD to respond to input 
that is beyond the response time of the aircraft.
    FSTD Performance--the overall performance of the FSTD, including 
aircraft performance (e.g., thrust/drag relationships, climb, range) and 
flight and ground handling.
    Full Flight Simulator (FFS)--a replica of a specific type, make, 
model, or series aircraft. It includes the equipment and computer 
programs necessary to represent aircraft operations in ground and flight 
conditions, a visual system providing an out-of-the-flight deck view, a 
system that provides cues at least equivalent to those of a three-
degree-of-freedom motion system, and has the full range of capabilities 
of the systems installed in the device as described in part 60 of this 
chapter and the QPS for a specific FFS qualification level. (Part 1)
    Gate Clutter--the static and moving ground traffic (e.g., other 
airplanes; tugs; power or baggage carts; fueling, catering, or cargo 
trucks; pedestrians) presented to pose a potential conflict with the 
simulated aircraft during ground operations around the point where the 
simulated airplane is to be parked between flights
    Generic Airport Model--a Class III visual model that combines 
correct navigation aids for a real world airport with a visual model 
that does not depict that same airport.
    Grandfathering--as used in this part, the practice of assigning a 
qualification basis for an FSTD based on the period of time during which 
a published set of standards governed the requirements for the initial 
and continuing qualification of FSTDs. Each FSTD manufactured during 
this specified period of time is ``grandfathered'' or held to the 
standards that were in effect during that time period. The grandfathered 
standards remain applicable to each FSTD manufactured during the stated 
time period regardless of any subsequent modification to those standards 
and regardless of the sponsor, as long as the FSTD remains qualified or 
is maintained in a non-qualified status in accordance with the specific 
requirements and time periods prescribed in this part.

[[Page 403]]

    Gross Weight--For objective test purposes:
    Basic Operating Weight (BOW)--the empty weight of the aircraft plus 
the weight of the following: Normal oil quantity; lavatory servicing 
fluid; potable water; required crewmembers and their baggage; and 
emergency equipment.
    Light Gross Weight--a weight chosen by the sponsor or data provider 
that is not more than 120% of the BOW of the aircraft being simulated or 
the minimum practical operating weight of the test aircraft.
    Medium Gross Weight--a weight chosen by the sponsor or data provider 
that is within 10% of the average of the numerical values of the BOW and 
the maximum certificated gross weight.
    Near Maximum Gross Weight--a weight chosen by the sponsor or data 
provider that is not less than the BOW of the aircraft being simulated 
plus 80% of the difference between the maximum certificated gross weight 
(either takeoff weight or landing weight, as appropriate for the test) 
and the BOW.
    Ground Effect--the change in aerodynamic characteristics due to of 
the change in the airflow past the aircraft caused by the proximity of 
the earth's surface to the airplane.
    Hands Off--a test maneuver conducted without pilot control inputs.
    Hands On--a test maneuver conducted with pilot control inputs as 
required.
    Heave--FSTD movement with respect to or along the vertical axis.
    Height--the height above ground level (or AGL) expressed in meters 
or feet.
    ``In Use'' Runway--as used in this part, the runway that is 
currently selected, able to be used for takeoffs and landings, and has 
the surface lighting and markings required by this part. Also known as 
the ``active'' runway.
    Integrated Testing--testing of the FSTD so that all aircraft system 
models are active and contribute appropriately to the results. With 
integrated testing, none of the models used are substituted with models 
or other algorithms intended for testing only.
    Irreversible Control System--a control system where movement of the 
control surface will not backdrive the pilot's control on the flight 
deck.
    Locked--a test condition where one or more variables are held 
constant with time.
    Manual Testing--FSTD testing conducted without computer inputs 
except for initial setup, and all modules of the simulation are active.
    Master Qualification Test Guide (MQTG)--the FAA-approved 
Qualification Test Guide with the addition of the FAA-witnessed test 
results, applicable to each individual FSTD.
    Medium--the normal operational weight for a given flight segment.
    National Simulator Program Manager (NSPM)--the FAA manager 
responsible for the overall administration and direction of the National 
Simulator Program (NSP), or a person approved by that FAA manager.
    Near Limiting Performance--the performance level the operating 
engine must be required to achieve to have sufficient power to land a 
helicopter after experiencing a single engine failure during takeoff of 
a multiengine helicopter. The operating engine must be required to 
operate within at least 5 percent of the maximum RPM or temperature 
limits of the gas turbine or power turbine, or operate within at least 5 
percent of the maximum drive train torque limits. Near limiting 
performance is based on the existing combination of density altitude, 
temperature, and helicopter gross weight.
    Nominal--the normal operating configuration, atmospheric conditions, 
and flight parameters for the specified flight segment.
    Non-Normal Control--a term used in reference to Computer Controlled 
Aircraft. It is the state where one or more of the intended control, 
augmentation, or protection functions are not fully working. Note: 
Specific terms such as ALTERNATE, DIRECT, SECONDARY, or BACKUP may be 
used to define an actual level of degradation.
    Normal Control--a term used in reference to Computer Controlled 
Aircraft. It is the state where the intended control, augmentation, and 
protection functions are fully working.
    Objective Data--quantitative data, acceptable to the NSPM, used to 
evaluate the FSTD.
    Objective Test--a quantitative measurement and evaluation of FSTD 
performance.
    Pitch--the airplane attitude with respect to, or around, the lateral 
axis expressed in degrees.
    Power Lever Angle (PLA)--the angle of the pilot's primary engine 
control lever(s) on the flight deck. This may also be referred to as 
THROTTLE or POWER LEVER.
    Predicted Data--estimations or extrapolations of existing flight 
test data or data from other simulation models using engineering 
analyses, engineering simulations, design data, or wind tunnel data.
    Protection Functions--systems functions designed to protect an 
airplane from exceeding its flight maneuver limitations.
    Pulse Input--a step input to a control followed by an immediate 
return to the initial position.
    Qualification Level--the categorization of an FSTD established by 
the NSPM based on the FSTDs demonstrated technical and operational 
capabilities as prescribed in this part.
    Qualification Performance Standard (QPS)--the collection of 
procedures and criteria used when conducting objective and subjective 
tests, to establish FSTD qualification levels. The QPS are published in 
the appendices to this part, as follows: Appendix A, for Airplane 
Simulators; Appendix B, for Airplane

[[Page 404]]

Flight Training Devices; Appendix C, for Helicopter Simulators; Appendix 
D, for Helicopter Flight Training Devices; Appendix E, for Quality 
Management Systems for Flight Simulation Training Devices; and Appendix 
F, for Definitions and Abbreviations for Flight Simulation Training 
Devices.
    Qualification Test Guide (QTG)--the primary reference document used 
for evaluating an aircraft FSTD. It contains test results, statements of 
compliance and capability, the configuration of the aircraft simulated, 
and other information for the evaluator to assess the FSTD against the 
applicable regulatory criteria.
    Quality Management System (QMS)--a flight simulation quality-systems 
that can be used for external quality-assurance purposes. It is designed 
to identify the processes needed, determine the sequence and interaction 
of the processes, determine criteria and methods required to ensure the 
effective operation and control of the processes, ensure the 
availability of information necessary to support the operation and 
monitoring of the processes, measure, monitor, and analyze the 
processes, and implement the actions necessary to achieve planned 
results.
    Real-World Airport--as used in this part in reference to airport 
visual models, a computer generated visual depiction of an existing 
airport.
    Representative--when used as an adjective in this part, typical, 
demonstrative, or characteristic of, the feature being described. For 
example, ``representative sampling of tests'' means a sub-set of the 
complete set of all tests such that the sample includes one or more of 
the tests in each of the major categories, the results of which provide 
the evaluator with an overall understanding of the performance and 
handling characteristics of the FSTD.
    Reversible Control System--a control system in which movement of the 
control surface will backdrive the pilot's control on the flight deck.
    Roll--the airplane attitude with respect to, or around, the 
longitudinal axis expressed in degrees.
    Set of Aircraft--aircraft that share similar handling and operating 
characteristics, similar operating envelopes, and have the same number 
and type of engines or powerplants.
    Sideslip Angle--the angle between the relative wind vector and the 
airplane plane of symmetry. (Note: this definition replaces the current 
definition of ``sideslip.'')
    Simulation Quality Management System (SQMS)--the elements of a 
quality management system for FSTD continuing qualification.
    Snapshot--a presentation of one or more variables at a given instant 
of time.
    Special Evaluation--an evaluation of the FSTD for purposes other 
than initial, upgrade, or continuing qualification. Circumstances that 
may require a special evaluation include movement of the FSTD to a 
different location, or an update to FSTD software or hardware that might 
affect performance or flying qualities.
    Sponsor--a certificate holder who seeks or maintains FSTD 
qualification and is responsible for the prescribed actions as 
prescribed in this part and the QPS for the appropriate FSTD and 
qualification level.
    Statement of Compliance and Capability (SOC)--a declaration that a 
specific requirement has been met and explaining how the requirement was 
met (e.g., gear modeling approach, coefficient of friction sources). The 
SOC must also describe the capability of the FSTD to meet the 
requirement, including references to sources of information for showing 
compliance, rationale to explain how the referenced material is used, 
mathematical equations and parameter values used, and conclusions 
reached.
    Step Input--an abrupt control input held at a constant value.
    Subjective Test--a qualitative assessment of the performance and 
operation of the FSTD.
    Surge--FSTD movement with respect to or along the longitudinal axis.
    Sway--FSTD movement with respect to or along the lateral axis.
    Tf--Total time of the flare maneuver.
    Ti--Total time from initial throttle movement until a 10% response 
of a critical engine parameter.
    Tt--Total time from initial throttle movement to an increase of 90% 
of go around power or a decrease of 90% from maximum take-off power.
    Time History--a presentation of the change of a variable with 
respect to time.
    Training Program Approval Authority (TPAA)--a person authorized by 
the Administrator to approve the aircraft flight training program in 
which the FSTD will be used.
    Training Restriction--a temporary condition where an FSTD with 
missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI) components may continue to 
be used at the qualification level indicated on its SOQ, but restricted 
from completing the tasks for which the correct function of the MMI 
component is required.
    Transport Delay or ``Throughput''--the total FSTD system processing 
time required for an input signal from a pilot primary flight control 
until motion system, visual system, or instrument response. It is the 
overall time delay incurred from signal input to output response. It 
does not include the characteristic delay of the airplane simulated.
    Update--an improvement to or modernization of the quality or the 
accuracy of the FSTD without affecting the qualification level of the 
FSTD.
    Upgrade--the improvement or enhancement of an FSTD for the purpose 
of achieving a higher qualification level.

[[Page 405]]

    Validation Data--objective data used to determine if the FSTD 
performance is within the tolerances prescribed in the QPS.
    Validation Test--an objective test where FSTD parameters are 
compared to the relevant validation data to ensure that the FSTD 
performance is within the tolerances prescribed in the QPS.
    Visual Data Base--a display that may include one or more airport 
models.
    Visual System Response Time--the interval from a control input to 
the completion of the visual display scan of the first video field 
containing the resulting different information.
    Yaw--the airplane attitude with respect to, or around, the vertical 
axis expressed in degrees.
    3. Abbreviations
AFM Airplane Flight Manual.
AGL Above Ground Level (meters or feet).
AOA Angle of Attack (degrees).
APD Aircrew Program Designee.
CCA Computer Controlled Aircraft.
cd/m2 candela/meter2, 3.4263 candela/m2 = 1 ft-
Lambert.
CFR Code of Federal Regulations.
cm(s) centimeter, centimeters.
daN decaNewtons, one (1) decaNewton = 2.27 pounds.
deg(s) degree, degrees.
DOF Degrees-of-freedom.
eMQTG Electronic Master Qualification Test Guide.
EPR Engine Pressure Ratio.
FAA Federal Aviation Administration (U.S.).
FATO Final Approach and Take Off area
fpm feet per minute.
ft foot/feet, 1 foot = 0.304801 meters.
ft-Lambert foot-Lambert, 1 ft-Lambert = 3.4263 candela/m2.
g Acceleration due to Gravity (meters or feet/sec2); 1g = 
9.81 m/sec2 or 32.2 feet/sec2.
G/S Glideslope.
IATA International Airline Transport Association.
ICAO International Civil Aviation Organization.
IGE In ground effect.
ILS Instrument Landing System.
IOS Instructor Operating Station.
IQTG International Qualification Test Guide.
km Kilometers; 1 km = 0.62137 Statute Miles.
kPa KiloPascal (Kilo Newton/Meters2). 1 psi = 6.89476 kPa.
kts Knots calibrated airspeed unless otherwise specified, 1 knot = 
0.5148 m/sec or 1.689 ft/sec.
lb(s) pound(s), one (1) pound = 0.44 decaNewton.
LDP Landing decision point.
MQTG Master Qualification Test Guide
M,m Meters, 1 Meter = 3.28083 feet.
Min(s) Minute, minutes.
MLG Main Landing Gear.
Mpa MegaPascals (1 psi = 6894.76 pascals).
ms millisecond(s).
N NORMAL CONTROL Used in reference to Computer Controlled Aircraft.
nm Nautical Mile(s) 1 Nautical Mile = 6,080 feet.
NN NON-NORMAL CONTROL Used in reference to Computer Controlled Aircraft.
N1 Low Pressure Rotor revolutions per minute, expressed in percent of 
maximum.
N2 High Pressure Rotor revolutions per minute, expressed in percent of 
maximum.
N3 High Pressure Rotor revolutions per minute, expressed in percent of 
maximum.
NSPM National Simulator Program Manager.
NWA Nosewheel Angle (degrees).
OGE Out of ground effect.
PAPI Precision Approach Path Indicator System.
Pf Impact or Feel Pressure, often expressed as ``q.''
PLA Power Lever Angle.
PLF Power for Level Flight.
psi pounds per square inch.
QPS Qualification Performance Standard.
QTG Qualification Test Guide.
RAE Royal Aerospace Establishment.
R/C Rate of Climb (meters/sec or feet/min).
R/D Rate of Descent (meters/sec or feet/min).
REIL Runway End Identifier Lights.
RVR Runway Visual Range (meters or feet).
s second(s).
sec(s) second, seconds.
sm Statute Mile(s) 1 Statute Mile = 5,280 feet.
SMGCS Surface Movement Guidance and Control System.
SOC Statement of Compliance and Capability.
SOQ Statement of Qualification.
TIR Type Inspection Report.
TLOF Touchdown and Loft Off area.
T/O Takeoff.
VASI Visual Approach Slope Indicator System.
VGS Visual Ground Segment.
V1 Decision speed.
V2 Takeoff safety speed.
Vmc Minimum Control Speed.
Vmca Minimum Control Speed in the air.
Vmcg Minimum Control Speed on the ground.
Vmcl Minimum Control Speed--Landing.
Vmu The speed at which the last main landing gear leaves the ground.
VR Rotate Speed.
VS Stall Speed or minimum speed in the stall.
WAT Weight, Altitude, Temperature.

                          End QPS Requirements

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26491, May 9, 2008]

[[Page 406]]



PART 61_CERTIFICATION: PILOTS, FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS, AND GROUND INSTRUCTORS--

Table of Contents




Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 73
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 93
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100-1
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 108

                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
61.1 Applicability and definitions.
61.3 Requirement for certificates, ratings, and authorizations.
61.4 Qualification and approval of flight simulators and flight training 
          devices.
61.5 Certificates and ratings issued under this part.
61.7 Obsolete certificates and ratings.
61.9 [Reserved]
61.11 Expired pilot certificates and reissuance.
61.13 Issuance of airman certificates, ratings, and authorizations.
61.14 Refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test.
61.15 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.
61.16 Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results.
61.17 Temporary certificate.
61.18 Security disqualification.
61.19 Duration of pilot and instructor certificates.
61.21 Duration of a Category II and a Category III pilot authorization 
          (for other than part 121 and part 135 use).
61.23 Medical certificates: Requirement and duration.
61.25 Change of name.
61.27 Voluntary surrender or exchange of certificate.
61.29 Replacement of a lost or destroyed airman or medical certificate 
          or knowledge test report.
61.31 Type rating requirements, additional training, and authorization 
          requirements.
61.33 Tests: General procedure.
61.35 Knowledge test: Prerequisites and passing grades.
61.37 Knowledge tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.
61.39 Prerequisites for practical tests.
61.41 Flight training received from flight instructors not certificated 
          by the FAA.
61.43 Practical tests: General procedures.
61.45 Practical tests: Required aircraft and equipment.
61.47 Status of an examiner who is authorized by the Administrator to 
          conduct practical tests.
61.49 Retesting after failure.
61.51 Pilot logbooks.
61.52 Use of aeronautical experience obtained in ultralight vehicles.
61.53 Prohibition on operations during medical deficiency.
61.55 Second-in-command qualifications.
61.56 Flight review.
61.57 Recent flight experience: Pilot in command.
61.58 Pilot-in-command proficiency check: Operation of aircraft 
          requiring more than one pilot flight crewmember.
61.59 Falsification, reproduction, or alteration of applications, 
          certificates, logbooks, reports, or records.
61.60 Change of address.

           Subpart B_Aircraft Ratings and Pilot Authorizations

61.61 Applicability.
61.63 Additional aircraft ratings (other than on an airline transport 
          pilot certificate).
61.64 [Reserved]
61.65 Instrument rating requirements.
61.67 Category II pilot authorization requirements.
61.68 Category III pilot authorization requirements.
61.69 Glider and unpowered ultralight vehicle towing: Experience and 
          training requirements.
61.71 Graduates of an approved training program other than under this 
          part: Special rules.
61.73 Military pilots or former military pilots: Special rules.
61.75 Private pilot certificate issued on the basis of a foreign pilot 
          license.
61.77 Special purpose pilot authorization: Operation of U.S.-registered 
          civil aircraft leased by a person who is not a U.S. citizen.

                        Subpart C_Student Pilots

61.81 Applicability.
61.83 Eligibility requirements for student pilots.
61.85 Application.
61.87 Solo requirements for student pilots.
61.89 General limitations.
61.91 [Reserved]
61.93 Solo cross-country flight requirements.
61.94 Student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate or a recreational 
          pilot certificate: Operations at airports within, and in 
          airspace located within, Class B, C, and D airspace, or at 
          airports with an operational control tower in other airspace.
61.95 Operations in Class B airspace and at airports located within 
          Class B airspace.

[[Page 407]]

                      Subpart D_Recreational Pilots

61.96 Applicability and eligibility requirements: General.
61.97 Aeronautical knowledge.
61.98 Flight proficiency.
61.99 Aeronautical experience.
61.100 Pilots based on small islands.
61.101 Recreational pilot privileges and limitations.

                        Subpart E_Private Pilots

61.102 Applicability.
61.103 Eligibility requirements: General.
61.105 Aeronautical knowledge.
61.107 Flight proficiency.
61.109 Aeronautical experience.
61.110 Night flying exceptions.
61.111 Cross-country flights: Pilots based on small islands.
61.113 Private pilot privileges and limitations: Pilot in command.
61.115 Balloon rating: Limitations.
61.117 Private pilot privileges and limitations: Second in command of 
          aircraft requiring more than one pilot.
61.118-61.120 [Reserved]

                       Subpart F_Commercial Pilots

61.121 Applicability.
61.123 Eligibility requirements: General.
61.125 Aeronautical knowledge.
61.127 Flight proficiency.
61.129 Aeronautical experience.
61.131 Exceptions to the night flying requirements.
61.133 Commercial pilot privileges and limitations.
61.135-61.141 [Reserved]

                   Subpart G_Airline Transport Pilots

61.151 Applicability.
61.153 Eligibility requirements: General.
61.155 Aeronautical knowledge.
61.157 Flight proficiency.
61.158 [Reserved]
61.159 Aeronautical experience: Airplane category rating.
61.161 Aeronautical experience: Rotorcraft category and helicopter class 
          rating.
61.163 Aeronautical experience: Powered-lift category rating.
61.165 Additional aircraft category and class ratings.
61.167 Privileges.
61.169-61.171 [Reserved]

Subpart H_Flight Instructors Other Than Flight Instructors With a Sport 
                              Pilot Rating

61.181 Applicability.
61.183 Eligibility requirements.
61.185 Aeronautical knowledge.
61.187 Flight proficiency.
61.189 Flight instructor records.
61.191 Additional flight instructor ratings.
61.193 Flight instructor privileges.
61.195 Flight instructor limitations and qualifications.
61.197 Renewal of flight instructor certificates.
61.199 Expired flight instructor certificates and ratings.
61.201 [Reserved]

                      Subpart I_Ground Instructors

61.211 Applicability.
61.213 Eligibility requirements.
61.215 Ground instructor privileges.
61.217 Recent experience requirements.

                         Subpart J_Sport Pilots

61.301 What is the purpose of this subpart and to whom does it apply?
61.303 If I want to operate a light-sport aircraft, what operating 
          limits and endorsement requirements in this subpart must I 
          comply with?
61.305 What are the age and language requirements for a sport pilot 
          certificate?
61.307 What tests do I have to take to obtain a sport pilot certificate?
61.309 What aeronautical knowledge must I have to apply for a sport 
          pilot certificate?
61.311 What flight proficiency requirements must I meet to apply for a 
          sport pilot certificate?
61.313 What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for a sport 
          pilot certificate?
61.315 What are the privileges and limits of my sport pilot certificate?
61.317 Is my sport pilot certificate issued with aircraft category and 
          class ratings?
61.319 Can I operate a make and model of aircraft other than the make 
          and model for which I have received an endorsement?
61.321 How do I obtain privileges to operate an additional category or 
          class of light-sport aircraft?
61.323 How do I obtain privileges to operate a make and model of lights-
          port aircraft in the same category and class within a 
          different set of aircraft?
61.325 How do I obtain privileges to operate a light-sport aircraft at 
          an airport within, or in airspace within, Class B, C, and D 
          airspace, or in other airspace with an airport having an 
          operational control tower?
61.327 How do I obtain privileges to operate a light-sport aircraft that 
          has a VH greater than 87 knots CAS?
61.329 Are there special provisions for obtaining a sport pilot 
          certificate for persons who are registered ultralight pilots 
          with an FAA-recognized ultralight organization?

[[Page 408]]

         Subpart K_Flight Instructors With a Sport Pilot Rating

61.401 What is the purpose of this subpart?
61.403 What are the age, language, and pilot certificate requirements 
          for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?
61.405 What tests do I have to take to obtain a flight instructor 
          certificate with a sport pilot rating?
61.407 What aeronautical knowledge must I have to apply for a flight 
          instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?
61.409 What flight proficiency requirements must I meet to apply for a 
          flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?
61.411 What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for a flight 
          instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?
61.413 What are the privileges of my flight instructor certificate with 
          a sport pilot rating?
61.415 What are the limits of a flight instructor certificate with a 
          sport pilot rating?
61.417 Will my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating 
          list aircraft category and class ratings?
61.419 How do I obtain privileges to provide training in an additional 
          category or class of light-sport aircraft?
61.421 May I give myself an endorsement?
61.423 What are the recordkeeping requirements for a flight instructor 
          with a sport pilot rating?
61.425 How do I renew my flight instructor certificate?
61.427 What must I do if my flight instructor certificate with a sport 
          pilot rating expires?
61.429 May I exercise the privileges of a flight instructor certificate 
          with a sport pilot rating if I hold a flight instructor 
          certificate with another rating?
61.431 Are there special provisions for obtaining a flight instructor 
          certificate with a sport pilot rating for persons who are 
          registered ultralight instructors with an FAA-recognized 
          ultralight organization?

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 
45102-45103, 45301-45302.

    Source: Docket No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, unless 
otherwise noted.



  Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 73--Robinson R-22/R-44 

              Special Training and Experience Requirements

                                Sections

    1. Applicability.
    2. Required training, aeronautical experience, endorsements, and 
flight review.
    3. Expiration date.
    1. Applicability. Under the procedures prescribed herein, this SFAR 
applies to all persons who seek to manipulate the controls or act as 
pilot in command of a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter. The 
requirements stated in this SFAR are in addition to the current 
requirements of part 61.
    2. Required training, aeronautical experience, endorsements, and 
flight review.
    (a) Awareness Training:
    (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, no 
person may manipulate the controls of a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 
helicopter after March 27, 1995, for the purpose of flight unless the 
awareness training specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section is 
completed and the person's logbook has been endorsed by a certified 
flight instructor authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
    (2) A person who holds a rotorcraft category and helicopter class 
rating on that person's pilot certificate and meets the experience 
requirements of paragraph (b)(1) or paragraph (b)(2) of this section may 
not manipulate the controls of a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter 
for the purpose of flight after April 26, 1995, unless the awareness 
training specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section is completed and 
the person's logbook has been endorsed by a certified flight instructor 
authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
    (3) Awareness training must be conducted by a certified flight 
instructor who has been endorsed under paragraph (b)(5) of this section 
and consists of instruction in the following general subject areas:
    (i) Energy management;
    (ii) Mast bumping;
    (iii) Low rotor RPM (blade stall);
    (iv) Low G hazards; and
    (v) Rotor RPM decay.
    (4) A person who can show satisfactory completion of the 
manufacturer's safety course after January 1, 1994, may obtain an 
endorsement from an FAA aviation safety inspector in lieu of completing 
the awareness training required in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this 
section.
    (b) Aeronautical Experience:
    (1) No person may act as pilot in command of a Robinson model R-22 
unless that person:
    (i) Has had at least 200 flight hours in helicopters, at least 50 
flight hours of which were in the Robinson R-22; or
    (ii) Has had at least 10 hours dual instruction in the Robinson R-22 
and has received an endorsement from a certified flight instructor 
authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this section that the individual 
has been given the training required by this paragraph and is proficient 
to act as pilot in command of an R-22. Beginning 12 calendar

[[Page 409]]

months after the date of the endorsement, the individual may not act as 
pilot in command unless the individual has completed a flight review in 
an R-22 within the preceding 12 calendar months and obtained an 
endorsement for that flight review. The dual instruction must include at 
least the following abnormal and emergency procedures flight training:
    (A) Enhanced training in autorotation procedures,
    (B) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor,
    (C) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery, and
    (D) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper recovery procedures.
    (2) No person may act as pilot in command of a Robinson R-44 unless 
that person--
    (i) Has had at least 200 flight hours in helicopters, at least 50 
flight hours of which were in the Robinson R-44. The pilot in command 
may credit up to 25 flight hours in the Robinson R-22 toward the 50 hour 
requirement in the Robinson R-44; or
    (ii) Has had at least 10 hours dual instruction in a Robinson 
helicopter, at least 5 hours of which must have been accomplished in the 
Robinson R-44 helicopter and has received an endorsement from a 
certified flight instructor authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this 
section that the individual has been given the training required by this 
paragraph and is proficient to act as pilot in command of an R-44. 
Beginning 12 calendar months after the date of the endorsement, the 
individual may not act as pilot in command unless the individual has 
completed a flight review in a Robinson R-44 within the preceding 12 
calendar months and obtained an endorsement for that flight review. The 
dual instruction must include at least the following abnormal and 
emergency procedures flight training--
    (A) Enhanced training in autorotation procedures;
    (B) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor;
    (C) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery; and
    (D) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper recovery procedures.
    (3) A person who does not hold a rotorcraft category and helicopter 
class rating must have had at least 20 hours of dual instruction in a 
Robinson R-22 helicopter prior to operating it in solo flight. In 
addition, the person must obtain an endorsement from a certified flight 
instructor authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this section that 
instruction has been given in those maneuvers and procedures, and the 
instructor has found the applicant proficient to solo a Robinson R-22. 
This endorsement is valid for a period of 90 days. The dual instruction 
must include at least the following abnormal and emergency procedures 
flight training:
    (i) Enhanced training in autorotation procedures,
    (ii) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor,
    (iii) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery, and
    (iv) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper recovery procedures.
    (4) A person who does not hold a rotorcraft category and helicopter 
class rating must have had at least 20 hours of dual instruction in a 
Robinson R-44 helicopter prior to operating it in solo flight. In 
addition, the person must obtain an endorsement from a certified flight 
instructor authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this section that 
instruction has been given in those maneuvers and procedures, and the 
instructor has found the applicant proficient to solo a Robinson R-44. 
This endorsement is valid for a period of 90 days. The dual instruction 
must include at least the following abnormal and emergency procedures 
flight training:
    (i) Enhanced training in autorotation procedures,
    (ii) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor,
    (iii) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery, and
    (iv) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper recovery procedures.
    (5) No certificated flight instructor may provide instruction or 
conduct a flight review in a Robinson R-22 or R-44 unless that 
instructor--
    (i) Completes the awareness training in paragraph 2(a) of this SFAR.
    (ii) For the Robinson R-22, has had at least 200 flight hours in 
helicopters, at least 50 flight hours of which were in the Robinson R-
22, or for the Robinson R-44, has had at least 200 flight hours in 
helicopters, 50 flight hours of which were in Robinson helicopters. Up 
to 25 flight hours of Robinson R-22 flight time may be credited toward 
the 50 hour requirement.
    (iii) Has completed flight training in a Robinson R-22, R-44, or 
both, on the following abnormal and emergency procedures--
    (A) Enhanced training in autorotation procedures;
    (B) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor;
    (C) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery; and
    (D) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper recovery procedures.
    (iv) Has been authorized by endorsement from an FAA aviation safety 
inspector or authorized designated examiner that the instructor has 
completed the appropriate training, meets the experience requirements 
and has satisfactorily demonstrated an ability to provide instruction on 
the general subject areas of paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR,

[[Page 410]]

and the flight training identified in paragraph 2(b)(5)(iii) of this 
SFAR.
    (c) Flight Review:
    (1) No flight review completed to satisfy Sec. 61.56 by an 
individual after becoming eligible to function as pilot in command in a 
Robinson R-22 helicopter shall be valid for the operation of R-22 
helicopter unless that flight review was taken in an R-22.
    (2) No flight review completed to satisfy Sec. 61.56 by individual 
after becoming eligible to function as pilot in command in a Robinson R-
44 helicopter shall be valid for the operation of R-44 helicopter unless 
that flight review was taken in the R-44.
    (3) The flight review will include a review of the awareness 
training subject areas of paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR and the flight 
training identified in paragraph 2(b) of this SFAR.
    (d) Currency Requirements: No person may act as pilot in command of 
a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter carrying passengers unless the 
pilot in command has met the recency of flight experience requirements 
of Sec. 61.57 in an R-22 or R-44, as appropriate.
    3. Expiration date. This SFAR number 73 shall remain in effect until 
June 30, 2009.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by SFAR 73-1, 63 
FR 666, Jan. 7, 1998; 68 FR 43, Jan. 2, 2003; Amdt. 61-120, 73 FR 17246, 
Apr. 1, 2008]



Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 93--Temporary Extension of 

             Time To Allow for Certain Training and Testing

    1. Applicability. This SFAR applies to all part 121 and 135 check 
airmen (simulator) and flight instructors (simulator), part 121 aircraft 
dispatchers, and part 142 training center instructors who were required 
to complete qualification requirements, an inflight line observation 
program, or operating familiarization in September 2001 to become 
qualified, or remain qualified, to perform their assigned duties. It 
also applies to persons who have satisfactorily accomplished the part 61 
aeronautical knowledge test or the part 63 written test, either one of 
which has an expiration date of September 2001 for pilot, flight 
instructor, or flight engineer certification.
    2. Special Qualification Requirements. The sections of 14 CFR that 
prescribes these requirements are sections 61.39(a)(1); 63.35(d); 
121.411(f); 121.412(f); 121.463(a)(2); 121.463(c); 135.337(f); 
135.338(f); 142.53(b)(2) and (b)(3).
    3. Extension of Time to Fulfill Certain Qualification Requirements. 
Persons identified in paragraph 1 of this SFAR who had until the end of 
September 2001 to complete the specified qualification requirements in 
September 2001 will be deemed to have completed those requirements in 
September 2001 provided they satisfactorily complete those requirements 
by November 30, 2001. For those persons identified in paragraph 1, who 
are qualifying for the first time to be a check airmen (simulator), 
flight instructor (simulator), aircraft dispatcher, or training center 
instructor, they must fulfill the applicable qualification requirements 
before they may serve as a check airmen (simulator), flight instructor 
(simulator), aircraft dispatcher, or training center instructor, as 
appropriate. This extension does not change the 12-calendar-month 
requirement for aircraft dispatchers or the anniversary month for check 
airmen, flight instructors and training center instructors. Therefore, 
if you were due for qualification in September 2001 you will be due for 
qualification September 2002, regardless of this extension for 2001.
    4. Termination Date. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation 
expires November 30, 2001.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-10797, 66 FR 52279, Oct. 12, 2001]



  Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100-1--Relief for U.S. 

  Military and Civilian Personnel Who are Assigned Outside the United 

            States in Support of U.S. Armed Forces Operations

    1. Applicability. Flight Standards District Offices are authorized 
to accept from an eligible person, as described in paragraph 2 of this 
SFAR, the following:
    (a) An expired flight instructor certificate to show eligibility for 
renewal of a flight instructor certificate under Sec. 61.197, or an 
expired written test report to show eligibility under part 61 to take a 
practical test;
    (b) An expired written test report to show eligibility under 
Sec. Sec. 63.33 and 63.57 to take a practical test; and
    (c) An expired written test report to show eligibility to take a 
practical test required under part 65 or an expired inspection 
authorization to show eligibility for renewal under Sec. 65.93.
    2. Eligibility. A person is eligible for the relief described in 
paragraph 1 of this SFAR if:
    (a) The person served in a U.S. military or civilian capacity 
outside the United States in support of the U.S. Armed Forces' operation 
during some period of time from September 11, 2001, through June 20, 
2010;
    (b) The person's flight instructor certificate, airman written test 
report, or inspection authorization expired some time between September 
11, 2001, and 6 calendar months after returning to the United States, or 
June 20, 2010, whichever is earlier; and
    (c) The person complies with Sec. Sec. 61.197 or 65.93 of this 
chapter, as appropriate, or completes the appropriate practical test 
within 6 calendar months after returning to the

[[Page 411]]

United States, or June 20, 2010, whichever is earlier.
    3. Required documents. The person must send the Airman Certificate 
and/or Rating Application (FAA Form 8710-1) to the appropriate Flight 
Standards District Office. The person must include with the application 
one of the following documents, which must show the date of assignment 
outside the United States and the date of return to the United States:
    (a) An official U.S. Government notification of personnel action, or 
equivalent document, showing the person was a civilian on official duty 
for the U.S. Government outside the United States and was assigned to a 
U.S. Armed Forces' operation some time between September 11, 2001, 
through June 20, 2010;
    (b) Military orders showing the person was assigned to duty outside 
the United States and was assigned to a U.S. Armed Forces' operation 
some time between September 11, 2001 through June 20, 2010; or
    (c) A letter from the person's military commander or civilian 
supervisor providing the dates during which the person served outside 
the United States and was assigned to a U.S. Armed Forces' operation 
some time between September 11, 2001 through June 20, 2010.
    4. Expiration date. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation No.100-
1 expires June 20, 2010, unless sooner superseded or rescinded.

[Doc. No. FAA-2005-15431, 70 FR 37948, June 30, 2005]

    Effective Date Note: By Doc. No. FAA-2005-15431, 70 FR 37948, June 
30, 2005, SFAR No. 100-1 was added, effective June 30, 2005 through June 
20, 2010.



            Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 108

    Note: For the text of SFAR No. 108, see part 91 of this chapter.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 61.1  Applicability and definitions.

    (a) This part prescribes:
    (1) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and 
ground instructor certificates and ratings; the conditions under which 
those certificates and ratings are necessary; and the privileges and 
limitations of those certificates and ratings.
    (2) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and 
ground instructor authorizations; the conditions under which those 
authorizations are necessary; and the privileges and limitations of 
those authorizations.
    (3) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and 
ground instructor certificates and ratings for persons who have taken 
courses approved by the Administrator under other parts of this chapter.
    (b) For the purpose of this part:
    (1) Aeronautical experience means pilot time obtained in an 
aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device for meeting the 
appropriate training and flight time requirements for an airman 
certificate, rating, flight review, or recency of flight experience 
requirements of this part.
    (2) Authorized instructor means--
    (i) A person who holds a valid ground instructor certificate issued 
under part 61 or part 143 of this chapter when conducting ground 
training in accordance with the privileges and limitations of his or her 
ground instructor certificate;
    (ii) A person who holds a current flight instructor certificate 
issued under part 61 of this chapter when conducting ground training or 
flight training in accordance with the privileges and limitations of his 
or her flight instructor certificate; or
    (iii) A person authorized by the Administrator to provide ground 
training or flight training under SFAR No. 58, or part 61, 121, 135, or 
142 of this chapter when conducting ground training or flight training 
in accordance with that authority.
    (3) Cross-country time means--
    (i) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(3)(ii) through (b)(3)(vi) 
of this section, time acquired during flight--
    (A) Conducted by a person who holds a pilot certificate;
    (B) Conducted in an aircraft;
    (C) That includes a landing at a point other than the point of 
departure; and
    (D) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic 
navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems to navigate to 
the landing point.
    (ii) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience 
requirements (except for a rotorcraft category rating), for a private 
pilot certificate (except for a powered parachute category rating), a 
commercial pilot certificate,

[[Page 412]]

or an instrument rating, or for the purpose of exercising recreational 
pilot privileges (except in a rotorcraft) under Sec. 61.101 (c), time 
acquired during a flight--
    (A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft;
    (B) That includes a point of landing that was at least a straight-
line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of 
departure; and
    (C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic 
navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems to navigate to 
the landing point.
    (iii) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience 
requirements for a sport pilot certificate (except for powered parachute 
privileges), time acquired during a flight conducted in an appropriate 
aircraft that--
    (A) Includes a point of landing at least a straight line distance of 
more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (B) Involves, as applicable, the use of dead reckoning; pilotage; 
electronic navigation aids; radio aids; or other navigation systems to 
navigate to the landing point.
    (iv) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience 
requirements for a sport pilot certificate with powered parachute 
privileges or a private pilot certificate with a powered parachute 
category rating, time acquired during a flight conducted in an 
appropriate aircraft that--
    (A) Includes a point of landing at least a straight line distance of 
more than 15 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (B) Involves, as applicable, the use of dead reckoning; pilotage; 
electronic navigation aids; radio aids; or other navigation systems to 
navigate to the landing point.
    (v) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience 
requirements for any pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category rating 
or an instrument-helicopter rating, or for the purpose of exercising 
recreational pilot privileges, in a rotorcraft, under Sec. 61.101(c), 
time acquired during a flight--
    (A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft;
    (B) That includes a point of landing that was at least a straight-
line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of 
departure; and
    (C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic 
navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems to navigate to 
the landing point.
    (vi) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience 
requirements for an airline transport pilot certificate (except with a 
rotorcraft category rating), time acquired during a flight--
    (A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft;
    (B) That is at least a straight-line distance of more than 50 
nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic 
navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems.
    (vii) For a military pilot who qualifies for a commercial pilot 
certificate (except with a rotorcraft category rating) under Sec. 61.73 
of this part, time acquired during a flight--
    (A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft;
    (B) That is at least a straight-line distance of more than 50 
nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic 
navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems.
    (4) Examiner means any person who is authorized by the Administrator 
to conduct a pilot proficiency test or a practical test for an airman 
certificate or rating issued under this part, or a person who is 
authorized to conduct a knowledge test under this part.
    (5) Flight simulator means a device that--
    (i) Is a full-size aircraft cockpit replica of a specific type of 
aircraft, or make, model, and series of aircraft;
    (ii) Includes the hardware and software necessary to represent the 
aircraft in ground operations and flight operations;
    (iii) Uses a force cueing system that provides cues at least 
equivalent to

[[Page 413]]

those cues provided by a 3 degree freedom of motion system;
    (iv) Uses a visual system that provides at least a 45 degree 
horizontal field of view and a 30 degree vertical field of view 
simultaneously for each pilot; and
    (v) Has been evaluated, qualified, and approved by the 
Administrator.
    (6) Flight training means that training, other than ground training, 
received from an authorized instructor in flight in an aircraft.
    (7) Flight training device means a device that--
    (i) Is a full-size replica of the instruments, equipment, panels, 
and controls of an aircraft, or set of aircraft, in an open flight deck 
area or in an enclosed cockpit, including the hardware and software for 
the systems installed, that is necessary to simulate the aircraft in 
ground and flight operations;
    (ii) Need not have a force (motion) cueing or visual system; and
    (iii) Has been evaluated, qualified, and approved by the 
Administrator.
    (8) Ground training means that training, other than flight training, 
received from an authorized instructor.
    (9) Instrument approach means an approach procedure defined in part 
97 of this chapter.
    (10) Instrument training means that time in which instrument 
training is received from an authorized instructor under actual or 
simulated instrument conditions.
    (11) Knowledge test means a test on the aeronautical knowledge areas 
required for an airman certificate or rating that can be administered in 
written form or by a computer.
    (12) Pilot time means that time in which a person--
    (i) Serves as a required pilot flight crewmember;
    (ii) Receives training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, 
flight simulator, or flight training device; or
    (iii) Gives training as an authorized instructor in an aircraft, 
flight simulator, or flight training device.
    (13) Practical test means a test on the areas of operations for an 
airman certificate, rating, or authorization that is conducted by having 
the applicant respond to questions and demonstrate maneuvers in flight, 
in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device.
    (14) Set of aircraft means aircraft that share similar performance 
characteristics, such as similar airspeed and altitude operating 
envelopes, similar handling characteristics, and the same number and 
type of propulsion systems.
    (15) Student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate means a person 
who has received an endorsement--
    (i) To exercise student pilot privileges from a certificated flight 
instructor with a sport pilot rating; or
    (ii) That includes a limitation for the operation of a light-sport 
aircraft specified in Sec. 61.89(c) issued by a certificated flight 
instructor with other than a sport pilot rating.
    (16) Training time means training received--
    (i) In flight from an authorized instructor;
    (ii) On the ground from an authorized instructor; or
    (iii) In a flight simulator or flight training device from an 
authorized instructor.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40893, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.3  Requirement for certificates, ratings, and authorizations.

    (a) Pilot certificate. A person may not act as pilot in command or 
in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil 
aircraft of U.S. registry, unless that person--
    (1) Has a valid pilot certificate or special purpose pilot 
authorization issued under this part in that person's physical 
possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the 
privileges of that pilot certificate or authorization. However, when the 
aircraft is operated within a foreign country, a current pilot license 
issued by the country in which the aircraft is operated may be used; and
    (2) Has a photo identification that is in that person's physical 
possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the 
privileges of that pilot certificate or authorization. The photo 
identification must be a:

[[Page 414]]

    (i) Valid driver's license issued by a State, the District of 
Columbia, or territory or possession of the United States;
    (ii) Government identification card issued by the Federal 
government, a State, the District of Columbia, or a territory or 
possession of the United States;
    (iii) U.S. Armed Forces' identification card;
    (iv) Official passport;
    (v) Credential that authorizes unescorted access to a security 
identification display area at an airport regulated under 49 CFR part 
1542; or
    (vi) Other form of identification that the Administrator finds 
acceptable.
    (b) Required pilot certificate for operating a foreign-registered 
aircraft. A person may not act as pilot in command or in any other 
capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft of 
foreign registry within the United States, unless that person's pilot 
certificate:
    (1) Is valid and in that person's physical possession, or readily 
accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot 
certificate; and
    (2) Has been issued under this part, or has been issued or validated 
by the country in which the aircraft is registered.
    (c) Medical certificate. (1) Except as provided for in paragraph 
(c)(2) of this section, a person may not act as pilot in command or in 
any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of an aircraft, 
under a certificate issued to that person under this part, unless that 
person has a current and appropriate medical certificate that has been 
issued under part 67 of this chapter, or other documentation acceptable 
to the Administrator, which is in that person's physical possession or 
readily accessible in the aircraft.
    (2) A person is not required to meet the requirements of paragraph 
(c)(1) of this section if that person--
    (i) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate 
while seeking a pilot certificate with a glider category rating, a 
balloon class rating, or glider or balloon privileges;
    (ii) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate 
while seeking a sport pilot certificate with other than glider or 
balloon privileges and holds a current and valid U.S. driver's license;
    (iii) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate 
while seeking a pilot certificate with a weight-shift-control aircraft 
category rating or a powered parachute category rating and holds a 
current and valid U.S. driver's license;
    (iv) Is exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate with 
glider or balloon privileges;
    (v) Is exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate with 
other than glider or balloon privileges and holds a current and valid 
U.S. driver's license. A person who has applied for or held a medical 
certificate may exercise the privileges of a sport pilot certificate 
using a current and valid U.S. driver's license only if that person--
    (A) Has been found eligible for the issuance of at least a third-
class airman medical certificate at the time of his or her most recent 
application; and
    (B) Has not had his or her most recently issued medical certificate 
suspended or revoked or most recent Authorization for a Special Issuance 
of a Medical Certificate withdrawn.
    (vi) Is holding a pilot certificate with a balloon class rating and 
is piloting or providing training in a balloon as appropriate;
    (vii) Is holding a pilot certificate or a flight instructor 
certificate with a glider category rating, and is piloting or providing 
training in a glider, as appropriate;
    (viii) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(vii) of this section, 
is exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate, 
provided the person is not acting as pilot in command or as a required 
pilot flight crewmember;
    (ix) Is exercising the privileges of a ground instructor 
certificate;
    (x) Is operating an aircraft within a foreign country using a pilot 
license issued by that country and possesses evidence of current medical 
qualification for that license; or
    (xi) Is operating an aircraft with a U.S. pilot certificate, issued 
on the basis of a foreign pilot license, issued under Sec. 61.75 of 
this part, and holds a current medical certificate issued by

[[Page 415]]

the foreign country that issued the foreign pilot license, which is in 
that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft 
when exercising the privileges of that airman certificate.
    (d) Flight instructor certificate. (1) A person who holds a flight 
instructor certificate issued under this part must have that 
certificate, or other documentation acceptable to the Administrator, in 
that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft 
when exercising the privileges of that flight instructor certificate.
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, no 
person other than the holder of a flight instructor certificate issued 
under this part with the appropriate rating on that certificate may--
    (i) Give training required to qualify a person for solo flight and 
solo cross-country flight;
    (ii) Endorse an applicant for a--
    (A) Pilot certificate or rating issued under this part;
    (B) Flight instructor certificate or rating issued under this part; 
or
    (C) Ground instructor certificate or rating issued under this part;
    (iii) Endorse a pilot logbook to show training given; or
    (iv) Endorse a student pilot certificate and logbook for solo 
operating privileges.
    (3) A flight instructor certificate issued under this part is not 
necessary--
    (i) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is given 
by the holder of a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air 
rating, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges 
of the certificate in a lighter-than-air aircraft;
    (ii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is 
given by the holder of an airline transport pilot certificate with a 
rating appropriate to the aircraft in which the training is given, 
provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the 
certificate and conducted in accordance with an approved air carrier 
training program approved under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter;
    (iii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is 
given by a person who is qualified in accordance with subpart C of part 
142 of this chapter, provided the training is conducted in accordance 
with an approved part 142 training program;
    (iv) Under paragraphs (d)(2)(i), (d)(2)(ii)(C), and (d)(2)(iii) of 
this section, if the training is given by the holder of a ground 
instructor certificate in accordance with the privileges of the 
certificate; or
    (v) Under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, if the training is 
given by an authorized flight instructor under Sec. 61.41 of this part.
    (e) Instrument rating. No person may act as pilot in command of a 
civil aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums 
prescribed for VFR flight unless that person holds:
    (1) The appropriate aircraft category, class, type (if required), 
and instrument rating on that person's pilot certificate for any 
airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift being flown;
    (2) An airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate 
aircraft category, class, and type rating (if required) for the aircraft 
being flown;
    (3) For a glider, a pilot certificate with a glider category rating 
and an airplane instrument rating; or
    (4) For an airship, a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-
than-air category rating and airship class rating.
    (f) Category II pilot authorization. Except for a pilot conducting 
Category II operations under part 121 or part 135, a person may not:
    (1) Act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft during Category II 
operations unless that person--
    (i) Holds a current Category II pilot authorization for that 
category or class of aircraft, and the type of aircraft, if applicable; 
or
    (ii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is 
authorized by the country of registry to act as pilot in command of that 
aircraft in Category II operations.
    (2) Act as second in command of a civil aircraft during Category II 
operations unless that person--
    (i) Holds a valid pilot certificate with category and class ratings 
for that aircraft and a current instrument rating for that category 
aircraft;

[[Page 416]]

    (ii) Holds an airline transport pilot certificate with category and 
class ratings for that aircraft; or
    (iii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is 
authorized by the country of registry to act as second in command of 
that aircraft during Category II operations.
    (g) Category III pilot authorization. Except for a pilot conducting 
Category III operations under part 121 or part 135, a person may not:
    (1) Act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft during Category III 
operations unless that person--
    (i) Holds a current Category III pilot authorization for that 
category or class of aircraft, and the type of aircraft, if applicable; 
or
    (ii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is 
authorized by the country of registry to act as pilot in command of that 
aircraft in Category III operations.
    (2) Act as second in command of a civil aircraft during Category III 
operations unless that person--
    (i) Holds a valid pilot certificate with category and class ratings 
for that aircraft and a current instrument rating for that category 
aircraft;
    (ii) Holds an airline transport pilot certificate with category and 
class ratings for that aircraft; or
    (iii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is 
authorized by the country of registry to act as second in command of 
that aircraft during Category III operations.
    (h) Category A aircraft pilot authorization. The Administrator may 
issue a certificate of authorization for a Category II or Category III 
operation to the pilot of a small aircraft that is a Category A 
aircraft, as identified in Sec. 97.3(b)(1) of this chapter if:
    (1) The Administrator determines that the Category II or Category 
III operation can be performed safely by that pilot under the terms of 
the certificate of authorization; and
    (2) The Category II or Category III operation does not involve the 
carriage of persons or property for compensation or hire.
    (i) Ground instructor certificate. (1) Each person who holds a 
ground instructor certificate issued under this part or part 143 must 
have that certificate in that person's physical possession or 
immediately accessible when exercising the privileges of that 
certificate.
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(3) of this section, no 
person other than the holder of a ground instructor certificate, issued 
under this part or part 143, with the appropriate rating on that 
certificate may--
    (i) Give ground training required to qualify a person for solo 
flight and solo cross-country flight;
    (ii) Endorse an applicant for a knowledge test required for a pilot, 
flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating issued 
under this part; or
    (iii) Endorse a pilot logbook to show ground training given.
    (3) A ground instructor certificate issued under this part is not 
necessary--
    (i) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given 
by the holder of a flight instructor certificate issued under this part 
in accordance with the privileges of that certificate;
    (ii) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is 
given by the holder of a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-
than-air rating, provided the training is given in accordance with the 
privileges of the certificate in a lighter-than-air aircraft;
    (iii) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is 
given by the holder of an airline transport pilot certificate with a 
rating appropriate to the aircraft in which the training is given, 
provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the 
certificate and conducted in accordance with an approved air carrier 
training program approved under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter;
    (iv) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is 
given by a person who is qualified in accordance with subpart C of part 
142 of this chapter, provided the training is conducted in accordance 
with an approved part 142 training program; or
    (v) Under paragraph (i)(2)(iii) of this section, if the training is 
given by an authorized flight instructor under Sec. 61.41 of this part.
    (j) Age limitation for certain operations--(1) Age limitation. 
Except as provided in paragraph (j)(3) of this section,

[[Page 417]]

no person who holds a pilot certificate issued under this part shall 
serve as a pilot on a civil airplane of U.S. registry in the following 
operations if the person has reached his or her 60th birthday--
    (i) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in 
turbojet-powered airplanes;
    (ii) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in 
airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than nine 
passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat;
    (iii) Nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation 
or hire in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than 
30 passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat; or
    (iv) Scheduled international air services, or nonscheduled 
international air transportation for compensation or hire, in airplanes 
having a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds.
    (2) Definitions. (i) ``International air service,'' as used in 
paragraph (j) of this section, means scheduled air service performed in 
airplanes for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in 
which the service passes through the airspace over the territory of more 
than one country.
    (ii) ``International air transportation,'' as used in paragraph (j) 
of this section, means air transportation performed in airplanes for the 
public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the service 
passes through the airspace over the territory of more than one country.
    (3) Delayed pilot age limitation. Until December 20, 1999, a person 
may serve as a pilot in operations covered by this paragraph after that 
person has reached his or her 60th birthday if, on March 20, 1997, that 
person was employed as a pilot in operations covered by this paragraph.
    (k) Special purpose pilot authorization. Any person that is required 
to hold a special purpose pilot authorization, issued in accordance with 
Sec. 61.77 of this part, must have that authorization and the person's 
foreign pilot license in that person's physical possession or have it 
readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of 
that authorization.
    (l) Inspection of certificate. Each person who holds an airman 
certificate, medical certificate, authorization, or license required by 
this part must present it and their photo identification as described in 
paragraph (a)(2) of this section for inspection upon a request from:
    (1) The Administrator;
    (2) An authorized representative of the National Transportation 
Safety Board;
    (3) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer; or
    (4) An authorized representative of the Transportation Security 
Administration.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40894, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-111, 67 FR 65861, Oct. 28, 2002; Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.4  Qualification and approval of flight simulators and flight training 

devices.

    (a) Except as specified in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, 
each flight simulator and flight training device used for training, and 
for which an airman is to receive credit to satisfy any training, 
testing, or checking requirement under this chapter, must be qualified 
and approved by the Administrator for--
    (1) The training, testing, and checking for which it is used;
    (2) Each particular maneuver, procedure, or crewmember function 
performed; and
    (3) The representation of the specific category and class of 
aircraft, type of aircraft, particular variation within the type of 
aircraft, or set of aircraft for certain flight training devices.
    (b) Any device used for flight training, testing, or checking that 
has been determined to be acceptable to or approved by the Administrator 
prior to August 1, 1996, which can be shown to function as originally 
designed, is considered to be a flight training device, provided it is 
used for the same purposes for which it was originally accepted or 
approved and only to the extent of such acceptance or approval.
    (c) The Administrator may approve a device other than a flight 
simulator or

[[Page 418]]

flight training device for specific purposes.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40895, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.5  Certificates and ratings issued under this part.

    (a) The following certificates are issued under this part to an 
applicant who satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification 
requirements for the certificate sought:
    (1) Pilot certificates--
    (i) Student pilot.
    (ii) Sport pilot.
    (iii) Recreational pilot.
    (iv) Private pilot.
    (v) Commercial pilot.
    (vi) Airline transport pilot.
    (2) Flight instructor certificates.
    (3) Ground instructor certificates.
    (b) The following ratings are placed on a pilot certificate (other 
than student pilot) when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the 
training and certification requirements for the rating sought:
    (1) Aircraft category ratings--
    (i) Airplane.
    (ii) Rotorcraft.
    (iii) Glider.
    (iv) Lighter-than-air.
    (v) Powered-lift.
    (vi) Powered parachute.
    (vii) Weight-shift-control aircraft.
    (2) Airplane class ratings--
    (i) Single-engine land.
    (ii) Multiengine land.
    (iii) Single-engine sea.
    (iv) Multiengine sea.
    (3) Rotorcraft class ratings--
    (i) Helicopter.
    (ii) Gyroplane.
    (4) Lighter-than-air class ratings--
    (i) Airship.
    (ii) Balloon.
    (5) Weight-shift-control aircraft class ratings--
    (i) Weight-shift-control aircraft land.
    (ii) Weight-shift-control aircraft sea.
    (6) Powered parachute class ratings--
    (i) Powered parachute land.
    (ii) Powered parachute sea.
    (7) Aircraft type ratings--
    (i) Large aircraft other than lighter-than-air.
    (ii) Turbojet-powered airplanes.
    (iii) Other aircraft type ratings specified by the Administrator 
through the aircraft type certification procedures.
    (iv) Second-in-command pilot type rating for aircraft that is 
certificated for operations with a minimum crew of at least two pilots.
    (8) Instrument ratings (on private and commercial pilot certificates 
only)--
    (i) Instrument--Airplane.
    (ii) Instrument--Helicopter.
    (iii) Instrument--Powered-lift.
    (c) The following ratings are placed on a flight instructor 
certificate when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the training 
and certification requirements for the rating sought:
    (1) Aircraft category ratings--
    (i) Airplane.
    (ii) Rotorcraft.
    (iii) Glider.
    (iv) Powered-lift.
    (2) Airplane class ratings--
    (i) Single-engine.
    (ii) Multiengine.
    (3) Rotorcraft class ratings--
    (i) Helicopter.
    (ii) Gyroplane.
    (4) Instrument ratings--
    (i) Instrument--Airplane.
    (ii) Instrument--Helicopter.
    (iii) Instrument--Powered-lift.
    (5) Sport pilot rating.
    (d) The following ratings are placed on a ground instructor 
certificate when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the training 
and certification requirements for the rating sought:
    (1) Basic.
    (2) Advanced.
    (3) Instrument.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-113, 70 FR 45271, Aug. 4, 2005]



Sec. 61.7  Obsolete certificates and ratings.

    (a) The holder of a free-balloon pilot certificate issued before 
November 1, 1973, may not exercise the privileges of that certificate.
    (b) The holder of a pilot certificate that bears any of the 
following category ratings without an associated class rating may not 
exercise the privileges of that category rating:
    (1) Rotorcraft.

[[Page 419]]

    (2) Lighter-than-air.
    (3) Helicopter.
    (4) Autogyro.



Sec. 61.9  [Reserved]



Sec. 61.11  Expired pilot certificates and reissuance.

    (a) No person who holds an expired pilot certificate or rating may:
    (1) Exercise the privileges of that pilot certificate or rating; or
    (2) Act as pilot in command or as a required pilot flight crewmember 
of an aircraft of the same category and class specified on the expired 
pilot certificate or rating.
    (b) The following pilot certificates and ratings have expired and 
will not be reissued:
    (1) An airline transport pilot certificate issued before May 1, 
1949, or an airline transport pilot certificate that contains a 
horsepower limitation;
    (2) A private or commercial pilot certificate issued before July 1, 
1945; and
    (3) A pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air or free-balloon 
rating issued before July 1, 1945.
    (c) A pilot certificate issued on the basis of a foreign pilot 
license will expire on the date the foreign license expires unless 
otherwise specified on the U.S. pilot certificate. A certificate without 
an expiration date is issued to the holder of the expired certificate 
only if that person meets the requirements of Sec. 61.75 for the 
issuance of a pilot certificate based on a foreign pilot license.
    (d) An airline transport pilot certificate issued after April 30, 
1949, that bears an expiration date but does not contain a horsepower 
limitation may be reissued without an expiration date.
    (e) A private or commercial pilot certificate issued after June 30, 
1945, that bears an expiration date may be reissued without an 
expiration date.
    (f) A pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air or free-balloon 
rating issued after June 30, 1945, that bears an expiration date may be 
reissued without an expiration date.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40895, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.13  Issuance of airman certificates, ratings, and authorizations.

    (a) Application. (1) An applicant for an airman certificate, rating, 
or authorization under this part must make that application on a form 
and in a manner acceptable to the Administrator.
    (2) An applicant--
    (i) Must show evidence that the appropriate fee prescribed in 
appendix A to part 187 of this chapter has been paid when that person 
applies for airmen certification services administered outside the 
United States.
    (A) Student pilot certificate that is issued outside the United 
States; or
    (B) Knowledge test or practical test for an airman certificate or 
rating issued under this part, if the test is administered outside the 
United States.
    (ii) May be refused issuance of any U.S. airman certificate, rating, 
or authorization by the Administrator.
    (3) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, an 
applicant who satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification 
requirements for the certificate, rating, or authorization sought is 
entitled to receive that airman certificate, rating, or authorization.
    (b) Limitations. (1) An applicant who cannot comply with certain 
areas of operation required on the practical test because of physical 
limitations may be issued an airman certificate, rating, or 
authorization with the appropriate limitation placed on the applicant's 
airman certificate provided the--
    (i) Applicant is able to meet all other certification requirements 
for the airman certificate, rating, or authorization sought;
    (ii) Physical limitation has been recorded with the FAA on the 
applicant's medical records; and
    (iii) Administrator determines that the applicant's inability to 
perform the particular area of operation will not adversely affect 
safety.
    (2) A limitation placed on a person's airman certificate may be 
removed, provided that person demonstrates for an examiner satisfactory 
proficiency in the area of operation appropriate to the airman 
certificate, rating, or authorization sought.

[[Page 420]]

    (c) Additional requirements for Category II and Category III pilot 
authorizations. (1) A Category II or Category III pilot authorization is 
issued by a letter of authorization as part of an applicant's instrument 
rating or airline transport pilot certificate.
    (2) Upon original issue, the authorization contains the following 
limitations:
    (i) For Category II operations, the limitation is 1,600 feet RVR and 
a 150-foot decision height; and
    (ii) For Category III operations, each initial limitation is 
specified in the authorization document.
    (3) The limitations on a Category II or Category III pilot 
authorization may be removed as follows:
    (i) In the case of Category II limitations, a limitation is removed 
when the holder shows that, since the beginning of the sixth preceding 
month, the holder has made three Category II ILS approaches with a 150-
foot decision height to a landing under actual or simulated instrument 
conditions.
    (ii) In the case of Category III limitations, a limitation is 
removed as specified in the authorization.
    (4) To meet the experience requirements of paragraph (c)(3) of this 
section, and for the practical test required by this part for a Category 
II or a Category III pilot authorization, a flight simulator or flight 
training device may be used if it is approved by the Administrator for 
such use.
    (d) Application during suspension or revocation. (1) Unless 
otherwise authorized by the Administrator, a person whose pilot, flight 
instructor, or ground instructor certificate has been suspended may not 
apply for any certificate, rating, or authorization during the period of 
suspension.
    (2) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, a person whose 
pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate has been 
revoked may not apply for any certificate, rating, or authorization for 
1 year after the date of revocation.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40895, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-116, 
72 FR 18558, Apr. 12, 2007]



Sec. 61.14  Refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test.

    (a) This section applies to an individual who holds a certificate 
under this part and is subject to the types of testing required under 
appendix I to part 121 or appendix J to part 121 of this chapter.
    (b) Refusal by the holder of a certificate issued under this part to 
take a drug test required under the provisions of appendix I to part 121 
or an alcohol test required under the provisions of appendix J to part 
121 is grounds for:
    (1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after 
the date of such refusal; and
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part.

[Doc. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-114, 71 
FR 35763, June 21, 2006]



Sec. 61.15  Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.

    (a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or State statute 
relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, 
possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, 
or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for:
    (1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after 
the date of final conviction; or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part.
    (b) Committing an act prohibited by Sec. 91.17(a) or Sec. 91.19(a) 
of this chapter is grounds for:
    (1) Denial of an application for a certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after 
the date of that act; or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part.
    (c) For the purposes of paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this 
section, a motor vehicle action means:
    (1) A conviction after November 29, 1990, for the violation of any 
Federal or

[[Page 421]]

State statute relating to the operation of a motor vehicle while 
intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, while impaired by alcohol or a drug, 
or while under the influence of alcohol or a drug;
    (2) The cancellation, suspension, or revocation of a license to 
operate a motor vehicle after November 29, 1990, for a cause related to 
the operation of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, 
while impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under the influence of 
alcohol or a drug; or
    (3) The denial after November 29, 1990, of an application for a 
license to operate a motor vehicle for a cause related to the operation 
of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, while 
impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under the influence of alcohol 
or a drug.
    (d) Except for a motor vehicle action that results from the same 
incident or arises out of the same factual circumstances, a motor 
vehicle action occurring within 3 years of a previous motor vehicle 
action is grounds for:
    (1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after 
the date of the last motor vehicle action; or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part.
    (e) Each person holding a certificate issued under this part shall 
provide a written report of each motor vehicle action to the FAA, Civil 
Aviation Security Division (AMC-700), P.O. Box 25810, Oklahoma City, OK 
73125, not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. The report 
must include:
    (1) The person's name, address, date of birth, and airman 
certificate number;
    (2) The type of violation that resulted in the conviction or the 
administrative action;
    (3) The date of the conviction or administrative action;
    (4) The State that holds the record of conviction or administrative 
action; and
    (5) A statement of whether the motor vehicle action resulted from 
the same incident or arose out of the same factual circumstances related 
to a previously reported motor vehicle action.
    (f) Failure to comply with paragraph (e) of this section is grounds 
for:
    (1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after 
the date of the motor vehicle action; or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part.



Sec. 61.16  Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results.

    A refusal to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight 
of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer in 
accordance with Sec. 91.17(c) of this chapter, or a refusal to furnish 
or authorize the release of the test results requested by the 
Administrator in accordance with Sec. 91.17(c) or (d) of this chapter, 
is grounds for:
    (a) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after 
the date of that refusal; or
    (b) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or 
authorization issued under this part.



Sec. 61.17  Temporary certificate.

    (a) A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor 
certificate or rating is issued for up to 120 days, at which time a 
permanent certificate will be issued to a person whom the Administrator 
finds qualified under this part.
    (b) A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor 
certificate or rating expires:
    (1) On the expiration date shown on the certificate;
    (2) Upon receipt of the permanent certificate; or
    (3) Upon receipt of a notice that the certificate or rating sought 
is denied or revoked.



Sec. 61.18  Security disqualification.

    (a)Eligibility standard. No person is eligible to hold a 
certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part when the 
Transportation Security Administration (TSA) has notified the FAA in 
writing that the person poses a security threat.

[[Page 422]]

    (b) Effect of the issuance by the TSA of an Initial Notification of 
Threat Assessment. (1) The FAA will hold in abeyance pending the outcome 
of the TSA's final threat assessment review an application for any 
certificate, rating, or authorization under this part by any person who 
has been issued an Initial Notification of Threat Assessment by the TSA.
    (2) The FAA will suspend any certificate, rating, or authorization 
issued under this part after the TSA issues to the holder an Initial 
Notification of Threat Assessment.
    (c) Effect of the issuance by the TSA of a Final Notification of 
Threat Assessment. (1) The FAA will deny an application for any 
certificate, rating, or authorization under this part to any person who 
has been issued a Final Notification of Threat Assessment.
    (2) The FAA will revoke any certificate, rating, or authorization 
issued under this part after the TSA has issued to the holder a Final 
Notification of Threat Assessment.

[Doc. FAA-2003-14293, 68 FR 3774, Jan. 24, 2003]



Sec. 61.19  Duration of pilot and instructor certificates.

    (a) General. The holder of a certificate with an expiration date may 
not, after that date, exercise the privileges of that certificate.
    (b) Student pilot certificate. A student pilot certificate expires 
24 calendar months from the month in which it is issued.
    (c) Other pilot certificates. A pilot certificate (other than a 
student pilot certificate) issued under this part is issued without a 
specific expiration date. The holder of a pilot certificate issued on 
the basis of a foreign pilot license may exercise the privileges of that 
certificate only while that person's foreign pilot license is effective.
    (d) Flight instructor certificate. A flight instructor certificate:
    (1) Is effective only while the holder has a current pilot 
certificate; and
    (2) Except as specified in Sec. 61.197(b) of this part, expires 24 
calendar months from the month in which it was issued or renewed.
    (e) Ground instructor certificate. (1) A ground instructor 
certificate issued under this part is issued without a specific 
expiration date.
    (2) Except for temporary certificates issued under Sec. 61.17, the 
holder of a paper ground instructor certificate issued under this part 
may not exercise the privileges of that certificate after March 31, 
2013.
    (f) Surrender, suspension, or revocation. Any certificate issued 
under this part ceases to be effective if it is surrendered, suspended, 
or revoked.
    (g) Return of certificates. The holder of any certificate issued 
under this part that has been suspended or revoked must return that 
certificate to the FAA when requested to do so by the Administrator.
    (h) Duration of pilot certificates. Except for a temporary 
certificate issued under Sec. 61.17 or a student pilot certificate 
issued under paragraph (b) of this section, the holder of a paper pilot 
certificate issued under this part may not exercise the privileges of 
that certificate after March 31, 2010.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-118, 
73 FR 10668, Feb. 28, 2008]



Sec. 61.21  Duration of a Category II and a Category III pilot authorization 

(for other than part 121 and part 135 use).

    (a) A Category II pilot authorization or a Category III pilot 
authorization expires at the end of the sixth calendar month after the 
month in which it was issued or renewed.
    (b) Upon passing a practical test for a Category II or Category III 
pilot authorization, the authorization may be renewed for each type of 
aircraft for which the authorization is held.
    (c) A Category II or Category III pilot authorization for a specific 
type aircraft for which an authorization is held will not be renewed 
beyond 12 calendar months from the month the practical test was 
accomplished in that type aircraft.
    (d) If the holder of a Category II or Category III pilot 
authorization passes the practical test for a renewal in the month 
before the authorization expires, the holder is considered to have 
passed it during the month the authorization expired.

[[Page 423]]



Sec. 61.23  Medical certificates: Requirement and duration.

    (a) Operations requiring a medical certificate. Except as provided 
in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a person--
    (1) Must hold a first-class medical certificate when exercising the 
privileges of an airline transport pilot certificate;
    (2) Must hold at least a second-class medical certificate when 
exercising the privileges of a commercial pilot certificate; or
    (3) Must hold at least a third-class medical certificate--
    (i) When exercising the privileges of a private pilot certificate;
    (ii) When exercising the privileges of a recreational pilot 
certificate;
    (iii) When exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate;
    (iv) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor 
certificate, except for a flight instructor certificate with a glider 
category rating or sport pilot rating, if the person is acting as pilot 
in command or is serving as a required flight crewmember; or
    (v) Except for a glider category rating or a balloon class rating, 
prior to taking a practical test that is performed in an aircraft for a 
certificate or rating at the recreational, private, commercial, or 
airline transport pilot certificate level.
    (b) Operations not requiring a medical certificate. A person is not 
required to hold a valid medical certificate--
    (1) When exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate 
while seeking--
    (i) A sport pilot certificate with glider or balloon privileges; or
    (ii) A pilot certificate with a glider category rating or balloon 
class rating;
    (2) When exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate with 
privileges in a glider or balloon;
    (3) When exercising the privileges of a pilot certificate with a 
glider category or balloon class rating;
    (4) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor 
certificate with--
    (i) A sport pilot rating in a glider or balloon; or
    (ii) A glider category rating;
    (5) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor 
certificate if the person is not acting as pilot in command or serving 
as a required pilot flight crewmember;
    (6) When exercising the privileges of a ground instructor 
certificate;
    (7) When serving as an examiner or check airman during the 
administration of a test or check for a certificate, rating, or 
authorization conducted in a flight simulator or flight training device; 
or
    (8) When taking a test or check for a certificate, rating, or 
authorization conducted in a flight simulator or flight training device.
    (c) Operations requiring either a medical certificate or U.S. 
driver's license. (1) A person must hold and possess either a valid 
medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter or a current 
and valid U.S. driver's license when exercising the privileges of--
    (i) A student pilot certificate while seeking sport pilot privileges 
in a light-sport aircraft other than a glider or balloon;
    (ii) A sport pilot certificate in a light-sport aircraft other than 
a glider or balloon; or
    (iii) A flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating 
while acting as pilot in command or serving as a required flight 
crewmember of a light-sport aircraft other than a glider or balloon.
    (2) A person using a current and valid U.S. driver's license to meet 
the requirements of this paragraph must--
    (i) Comply with each restriction and limitation imposed by that 
person's U.S. driver's license and any judicial or administrative order 
applying to the operation of a motor vehicle;
    (ii) Have been found eligible for the issuance of at least a third-
class airman medical certificate at the time of his or her most recent 
application (if the person has applied for a medical certificate);
    (iii) Not have had his or her most recently issued medical 
certificate (if the person has held a medical certificate) suspended or 
revoked or most recent Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical 
Certificate withdrawn; and
    (iv) Not know or have reason to know of any medical condition that 
would make that person unable to operate a light-sport aircraft in a 
safe manner.

[[Page 424]]

    (d) Duration of a medical certificate. Use the following table to 
determine duration for each class of medical certificate:

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                                           Then your medical
                                      And on the date of                                certificate expires, for
            If you hold              examination for your   And you are conducting an    that operation, at the
                                     most recent medical      operation  requiring       end of the last day of
                                     certificate you were                                         the
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(1) A first-class medical           (i) Under age 40.....  an airline transport pilot  12th month after the
 certificate.                                               certificate.                month of the date of
                                                                                        examination shown on the
                                                                                        medical certificate.
                                    (ii) Age 40 or older.  an airline transport pilot  6th month after the month
                                                            certificate.                of the date of
                                                                                        examination shown on the
                                                                                        medical certificate.
                                    (iii) Any age........  a commercial pilot          12th month after the
                                                            certificate or an air       month of the date of
                                                            traffic control tower       examination shown on the
                                                            operator certificate.       medical certificate.
                                    (iv) Under age 40....  a recreational pilot        60th month after the
                                                            certificate, a private      month of the date of
                                                            pilot certificate, a        examination shown on the
                                                            flight instructor           medical certificate.
                                                            certificate (when acting
                                                            as pilot in command or a
                                                            required pilot flight
                                                            crewmember in operations
                                                            other than glider or
                                                            balloon), a student pilot
                                                            certificate, or a sport
                                                            pilot certificate (when
                                                            not using a U.S. driver's
                                                            license as medical
                                                            qualification).
                                    (v) Age 40 or older..  a recreational pilot        24th month after the
                                                            certificate, a private      month of the date of
                                                            pilot certificate, a        examination shown on the
                                                            flight instructor           medical certificate.
                                                            certificate (when acting
                                                            as pilot in command or a
                                                            required pilot flight
                                                            crewmember in operations
                                                            other than glider or
                                                            balloon), a student pilot
                                                            certificate, or a sport
                                                            pilot certificate (when
                                                            not using a U.S. driver's
                                                            license as medical
                                                            qualification).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(2) A second-class medical          (i) Any age..........  a commercial pilot          12th month after the
 certificate.                                               certificate or an air       month of the date of
                                                            traffic control tower       examination shown on the
                                                            operator certificate.       medical certificate.
                                    (ii) Under age 40....  a recreational pilot        60th month after the
                                                            certificate, a private      month of the date of
                                                            pilot certificate, a        examination shown on the
                                                            flight instructor           medical certificate.
                                                            certificate (when acting
                                                            as pilot in command or a
                                                            required pilot flight
                                                            crewmember in operations
                                                            other than glider or
                                                            balloon), a student pilot
                                                            certificate, or a sport
                                                            pilot certificate (when
                                                            not using a U.S. driver's
                                                            license as medical
                                                            qualification).
                                    (iii) Age 40 or older  a recreational pilot        24th month after the
                                                            certificate, a private      month of the date of
                                                            pilot certificate, a        examination shown on the
                                                            flight instructor           medical certificate.
                                                            certificate (when acting
                                                            as pilot in command or a
                                                            required pilot flight
                                                            crewmember in operations
                                                            other than glider or
                                                            balloon), a student pilot
                                                            certificate, or a sport
                                                            pilot certificate (when
                                                            not using a U.S. driver's
                                                            license as medical
                                                            qualification).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(3) A third-class medical           (i) Under age 40.....  a recreational pilot        60th month after the
 certificate.                                               certificate, a private      month of the date of
                                                            pilot certificate, a        examination shown on the
                                                            flight instructor           medical certificate.
                                                            certificate (when acting
                                                            as pilot in command or a
                                                            required pilot flight
                                                            crewmember in operations
                                                            other than glider or
                                                            balloon), a student pilot
                                                            certificate, or a sport
                                                            pilot certificate (when
                                                            not using a U.S. driver's
                                                            license as medical
                                                            qualification).
                                    (ii) Age 40 or older.  a recreational pilot        24th month after the
                                                            certificate, a private      month of the date of
                                                            pilot certificate, a        examination shown on the
                                                            flight instructor           medical certificate.
                                                            certificate (when acting
                                                            as pilot in command or a
                                                            required pilot flight
                                                            crewmember in operations
                                                            other than glider or
                                                            balloon), a student pilot
                                                            certificate, or a sport
                                                            pilot certificate (when
                                                            not using a U.S. driver's
                                                            license as medical
                                                            qualification).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 425]]


[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40895, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004, as amended by 
Amdt. 61-121, 73 FR 43064, July 24, 2008; Amdt. 61-121, 73 FR 48125, 
Aug. 18, 2008]



Sec. 61.25  Change of name.

    (a) An application to change the name on a certificate issued under 
this part must be accompanied by the applicant's:
    (1) Current airman certificate; and
    (2) A copy of the marriage license, court order, or other document 
verifying the name change.
    (b) The documents in paragraph (a) of this section will be returned 
to the applicant after inspection.



Sec. 61.27  Voluntary surrender or exchange of certificate.

    (a) The holder of a certificate issued under this part may 
voluntarily surrender it for:
    (1) Cancellation;
    (2) Issuance of a lower grade certificate; or
    (3) Another certificate with specific ratings deleted.
    (b) Any request made under paragraph (a) of this section must 
include the following signed statement or its equivalent: ``This request 
is made for my own reasons, with full knowledge that my (insert name of 
certificate or rating, as appropriate) may not be reissued to me unless 
I again pass the tests prescribed for its issuance.''



Sec. 61.29  Replacement of a lost or destroyed airman or medical certificate 

or knowledge test report.

    (a) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed airman 
certificate issued under this part must be made by letter to the 
Department of Transportation, FAA, Airman Certification Branch, P.O. Box 
25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, and must be accompanied by a check or 
money order for the appropriate fee payable to the FAA.
    (b) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed medical 
certificate must be made by letter to the Department of Transportation, 
FAA, Aerospace Medical Certification Division, P.O. Box 26200, Oklahoma 
City, OK 73125, and must be accompanied by a check or money order for 
the appropriate fee payable to the FAA.
    (c) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed knowledge 
test report must be made by letter to the Department of Transportation, 
FAA, Airman Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 
73125, and must be accompanied by a check or money order for the 
appropriate fee payable to the FAA.
    (d) The letter requesting replacement of a lost or destroyed airman 
certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report must state:
    (1) The name of the person;
    (2) The permanent mailing address (including ZIP code), or if the 
permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, then the 
person's current residential address;
    (3) The social security number;
    (4) The date and place of birth of the certificate holder; and
    (5) Any available information regarding the--
    (i) Grade, number, and date of issuance of the certificate, and the 
ratings, if applicable;
    (ii) Date of the medical examination, if applicable; and
    (iii) Date the knowledge test was taken, if applicable.
    (e) A person who has lost an airman certificate, medical 
certificate, or knowledge test report may obtain a facsimile from the 
FAA Aeromedical Certification Branch or the Airman Certification Branch, 
as appropriate, confirming that it was issued and the:
    (1) Facsimile may be carried as an airman certificate, medical 
certificate, or knowledge test report, as appropriate, for up to 60 days 
pending the person's receipt of a duplicate under paragraph (a), (b), or 
(c) of this section, unless the person has been notified that the 
certificate has been suspended or revoked.
    (2) Request for such a facsimile must include the date on which a 
duplicate certificate or knowledge test report was previously requested.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40896, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-121, 73 FR 43065, July 24, 2008]

[[Page 426]]



Sec. 61.31  Type rating requirements, additional training, and authorization 

requirements.

    (a) Type ratings required. A person who acts as a pilot in command 
of any of the following aircraft must hold a type rating for that 
aircraft:
    (1) Large aircraft (except lighter-than-air).
    (2) Turbojet-powered airplanes.
    (3) Other aircraft specified by the Administrator through aircraft 
type certificate procedures.
    (b) Authorization in lieu of a type rating. A person may be 
authorized to operate without a type rating for up to 60 days an 
aircraft requiring a type rating, provided--
    (1) The Administrator has authorized the flight or series of 
flights;
    (2) The Administrator has determined that an equivalent level of 
safety can be achieved through the operating limitations on the 
authorization;
    (3) The person shows that compliance with paragraph (a) of this 
section is impracticable for the flight or series of flights; and
    (4) The flight--
    (i) Involves only a ferry flight, training flight, test flight, or 
practical test for a pilot certificate or rating;
    (ii) Is within the United States;
    (iii) Does not involve operations for compensation or hire unless 
the compensation or hire involves payment for the use of the aircraft 
for training or taking a practical test; and
    (iv) Involves only the carriage of flight crewmembers considered 
essential for the flight.
    (5) If the flight or series of flights cannot be accomplished within 
the time limit of the authorization, the Administrator may authorize an 
additional period of up to 60 days to accomplish the flight or series of 
flights.
    (c) Aircraft category, class, and type ratings: Limitations on the 
carriage of persons, or operating for compensation or hire. Unless a 
person holds a category, class, and type rating (if a class and type 
rating is required) that applies to the aircraft, that person may not 
act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying another person, 
or is operated for compensation or hire. That person also may not act as 
pilot in command of that aircraft for compensation or hire.
    (d) Aircraft category, class, and type ratings: Limitations on 
operating an aircraft as the pilot in command. To serve as the pilot in 
command of an aircraft, a person must--
    (1) Hold the appropriate category, class, and type rating (if a 
class rating and type rating are required) for the aircraft to be flown;
    (2) Be receiving training for the purpose of obtaining an additional 
pilot certificate and rating that are appropriate to that aircraft, and 
be under the supervision of an authorized instructor; or
    (3) Have received training required by this part that is appropriate 
to the aircraft category, class, and type rating (if a class or type 
rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown, and have received the 
required endorsements from an instructor who is authorized to provide 
the required endorsements for solo flight in that aircraft.
    (e) Additional training required for operating complex airplanes. 
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, no person 
may act as pilot in command of a complex airplane (an airplane that has 
a retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller; 
or, in the case of a seaplane, flaps and a controllable pitch 
propeller), unless the person has--
    (i) Received and logged ground and flight training from an 
authorized instructor in a complex airplane, or in a flight simulator or 
flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane, and 
has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane; 
and
    (ii) Received a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an 
authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate 
a complex airplane.
    (2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (e)(1) of 
this section is not required if the person has logged flight time as 
pilot in command of a complex airplane, or in a flight simulator or 
flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane 
prior to August 4, 1997.
    (f) Additional training required for operating high-performance 
airplanes. (1)

[[Page 427]]

Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, no person may 
act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane (an airplane with 
an engine of more than 200 horsepower), unless the person has--
    (i) Received and logged ground and flight training from an 
authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane, or in a flight 
simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high-
performance airplane, and has been found proficient in the operation and 
systems of the airplane; and
    (ii) Received a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an 
authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate 
a high-performance airplane.
    (2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (f)(1) of 
this section is not required if the person has logged flight time as 
pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, or in a flight 
simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high-
performance airplane prior to August 4, 1997.
    (g) Additional training required for operating pressurized aircraft 
capable of operating at high altitudes. (1) Except as provided in 
paragraph (g)(3) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command 
of a pressurized aircraft (an aircraft that has a service ceiling or 
maximum operating altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000 feet MSL), 
unless that person has received and logged ground training from an 
authorized instructor and obtained an endorsement in the person's 
logbook or training record from an authorized instructor who certifies 
the person has satisfactorily accomplished the ground training. The 
ground training must include at least the following subjects:
    (i) High-altitude aerodynamics and meteorology;
    (ii) Respiration;
    (iii) Effects, symptoms, and causes of hypoxia and any other high-
altitude sickness;
    (iv) Duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen;
    (v) Effects of prolonged usage of supplemental oxygen;
    (vi) Causes and effects of gas expansion and gas bubble formation;
    (vii) Preventive measures for eliminating gas expansion, gas bubble 
formation, and high-altitude sickness;
    (viii) Physical phenomena and incidents of decompression; and
    (ix) Any other physiological aspects of high-altitude flight.
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3) of this section, no 
person may act as pilot in command of a pressurized aircraft unless that 
person has received and logged training from an authorized instructor in 
a pressurized aircraft, or in a flight simulator or flight training 
device that is representative of a pressurized aircraft, and obtained an 
endorsement in the person's logbook or training record from an 
authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the operation 
of a pressurized aircraft. The flight training must include at least the 
following subjects:
    (i) Normal cruise flight operations while operating above 25,000 
feet MSL;
    (ii) Proper emergency procedures for simulated rapid decompression 
without actually depressurizing the aircraft; and
    (iii) Emergency descent procedures.
    (3) The training and endorsement required by paragraphs (g)(1) and 
(g)(2) of this section are not required if that person can document 
satisfactory accomplishment of any of the following in a pressurized 
aircraft, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is 
representative of a pressurized aircraft:
    (i) Serving as pilot in command before April 15, 1991;
    (ii) Completing a pilot proficiency check for a pilot certificate or 
rating before April 15, 1991;
    (iii) Completing an official pilot-in-command check conducted by the 
military services of the United States; or
    (iv) Completing a pilot-in-command proficiency check under part 121, 
125, or 135 of this chapter conducted by the Administrator or by an 
approved pilot check airman.
    (h) Additional aircraft type-specific training. No person may serve 
as pilot in command of an aircraft that the Administrator has determined 
requires aircraft type-specific training unless that person has--
    (1) Received and logged type-specific training in the aircraft, or 
in a flight

[[Page 428]]

simulator or flight training device that is representative of that type 
of aircraft; and
    (2) Received a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who 
has found the person proficient in the operation of the aircraft and its 
systems.
    (i) Additional training required for operating tailwheel airplanes. 
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, no person 
may act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane unless that person 
has received and logged flight training from an authorized instructor in 
a tailwheel airplane and received an endorsement in the person's logbook 
from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the 
operation of a tailwheel airplane. The flight training must include at 
least the following maneuvers and procedures:
    (i) Normal and crosswind takeoffs and landings;
    (ii) Wheel landings (unless the manufacturer has recommended against 
such landings); and
    (iii) Go-around procedures.
    (2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (i)(1) of 
this section is not required if the person logged pilot-in-command time 
in a tailwheel airplane before April 15, 1991.
    (j) Additional training required for operating a glider. (1) No 
person may act as pilot in command of a glider--
    (i) Using ground-tow procedures, unless that person has 
satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training on ground-tow 
procedures and operations, and has received an endorsement from an 
authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the 
pilot has been found proficient in ground-tow procedures and operations;
    (ii) Using aerotow procedures, unless that person has satisfactorily 
accomplished ground and flight training on aerotow procedures and 
operations, and has received an endorsement from an authorized 
instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the pilot has been 
found proficient in aerotow procedures and operations; or
    (iii) Using self-launch procedures, unless that person has 
satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training on self-launch 
procedures and operations, and has received an endorsement from an 
authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the 
pilot has been found proficient in self-launch procedures and 
operations.
    (2) The holder of a glider rating issued prior to August 4, 1997, is 
considered to be in compliance with the training and logbook endorsement 
requirements of this paragraph for the specific operating privilege for 
which the holder is already qualified.
    (k) Exceptions. (1) This section does not require a category and 
class rating for aircraft not type-certificated as airplanes, 
rotorcraft, gliders, lighter-than-air aircraft, powered-lifts, powered 
parachutes, or weight-shift-control aircraft.
    (2) The rating limitations of this section do not apply to--
    (i) An applicant when taking a practical test given by an examiner;
    (ii) The holder of a student pilot certificate;
    (iii) The holder of a pilot certificate when operating an aircraft 
under the authority of--
    (A) A provisional type certificate; or
    (B) An experimental certificate, unless the operation involves 
carrying a passenger;
    (iv) The holder of a pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air 
category rating when operating a balloon;
    (v) The holder of a recreational pilot certificate operating under 
the provisions of Sec. 61.101(h); or
    (vi) The holder of a sport pilot certificate when operating a light-
sport aircraft.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40896, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 
63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.33  Tests: General procedure.

    Tests prescribed by or under this part are given at times and 
places, and by persons designated by the Administrator.



Sec. 61.35  Knowledge test: Prerequisites and passing grades.

    (a) An applicant for a knowledge test must have:
    (1) Received an endorsement, if required by this part, from an 
authorized

[[Page 429]]

instructor certifying that the applicant accomplished the appropriate 
ground-training or a home-study course required by this part for the 
certificate or rating sought and is prepared for the knowledge test; and
    (2) Proper identification at the time of application that contains 
the applicant's--
    (i) Photograph;
    (ii) Signature;
    (iii) Date of birth, which shows the applicant meets or will meet 
the age requirements of this part for the certificate sought before the 
expiration date of the airman knowledge test report; and
    (iv) Actual residential address, if different from the applicant's 
mailing address.
    (b) The Administrator shall specify the minimum passing grade for 
the knowledge test.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 
63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998]



Sec. 61.37  Knowledge tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.

    (a) An applicant for a knowledge test may not:
    (1) Copy or intentionally remove any knowledge test;
    (2) Give to another applicant or receive from another applicant any 
part or copy of a knowledge test;
    (3) Give assistance on, or receive assistance on, a knowledge test 
during the period that test is being given;
    (4) Take any part of a knowledge test on behalf of another person;
    (5) Be represented by, or represent, another person for a knowledge 
test;
    (6) Use any material or aid during the period that the test is being 
given, unless specifically authorized to do so by the Administrator; and
    (7) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act 
prohibited by this paragraph.
    (b) An applicant who the Administrator finds has committed an act 
prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section is prohibited, for 1 year 
after the date of committing that act, from:
    (1) Applying for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued 
under this chapter; and
    (2) Applying for and taking any test under this chapter.
    (c) Any certificate or rating held by an applicant may be suspended 
or revoked if the Administrator finds that person has committed an act 
prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section.



Sec. 61.39  Prerequisites for practical tests.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, to 
be eligible for a practical test for a certificate or rating issued 
under this part, an applicant must:
    (1) Pass the required knowledge test within the 24-calendar-month 
period preceding the month the applicant completes the practical test, 
if a knowledge test is required;
    (2) Present the knowledge test report at the time of application for 
the practical test, if a knowledge test is required;
    (3) Have satisfactorily accomplished the required training and 
obtained the aeronautical experience prescribed by this part for the 
certificate or rating sought;
    (4) Hold at least a current third-class medical certificate, if a 
medical certificate is required;
    (5) Meet the prescribed age requirement of this part for the 
issuance of the certificate or rating sought;
    (6) Have an endorsement, if required by this part, in the 
applicant's logbook or training record that has been signed by an 
authorized instructor who certifies that the applicant--
    (i) Has received and logged training time within 60 days preceding 
the date of application in preparation for the practical test;
    (ii) Is prepared for the required practical test; and
    (iii) Has demonstrated satisfactory knowledge of the subject areas 
in which the applicant was deficient on the airman knowledge test; and
    (7) Have a completed and signed application form.
    (b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of 
this section, an applicant for an airline transport pilot certificate or 
an additional rating to an airline transport certificate may

[[Page 430]]

take the practical test for that certificate or rating with an expired 
knowledge test report, provided that the applicant:
    (1) Is employed as a flight crewmember by a certificate holder under 
part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter at the time of the practical test 
and has satisfactorily accomplished that operator's approved--
    (i) Pilot in command aircraft qualification training program that is 
appropriate to the certificate and rating sought; and
    (ii) Qualification training requirements appropriate to the 
certificate and rating sought; or
    (2) Is employed as a flight crewmember in scheduled U.S. military 
air transport operations at the time of the practical test, and has 
accomplished the pilot in command aircraft qualification training 
program that is appropriate to the certificate and rating sought.
    (c) A person is not required to comply with the provisions of 
paragraph (a)(6) of this section if that person:
    (1) Holds a foreign-pilot license issued by a contracting State to 
the Convention on International Civil Aviation that authorizes at least 
the pilot privileges of the airman certificate sought;
    (2) Is applying for a type rating only, or a class rating with an 
associated type rating; or
    (3) Is applying for an airline transport pilot certificate or an 
additional rating to an airline transport pilot certificate in an 
aircraft that does not require an aircraft type rating practical test.
    (d) If all increments of the practical test for a certificate or 
rating are not completed on one date, all remaining increments of the 
test must be satisfactorily completed not more than 60 calendar days 
after the date on which the applicant began the test.
    (e) If all increments of the practical test for a certificate or a 
rating are not satisfactorily completed within 60 calendar days after 
the date on which the applicant began the test, the applicant must 
retake the entire practical test, including those increments 
satisfactorily completed.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, 
July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998]



Sec. 61.41  Flight training received from flight instructors not certificated 

by the FAA.

    (a) A person may credit flight training toward the requirements of a 
pilot certificate or rating issued under this part, if that person 
received the training from:
    (1) A flight instructor of an Armed Force in a program for training 
military pilots of either--
    (i) The United States; or
    (ii) A foreign contracting State to the Convention on International 
Civil Aviation.
    (2) A flight instructor who is authorized to give such training by 
the licensing authority of a foreign contracting State to the Convention 
on International Civil Aviation, and the flight training is given 
outside the United States.
    (b) A flight instructor described in paragraph (a) of this section 
is only authorized to give endorsements to show training given.



Sec. 61.43  Practical tests: General procedures.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the ability 
of an applicant for a certificate or rating issued under this part to 
perform the required tasks on the practical test is based on that 
applicant's ability to safely:
    (1) Perform the tasks specified in the areas of operation for the 
certificate or rating sought within the approved standards;
    (2) Demonstrate mastery of the aircraft with the successful outcome 
of each task performed never seriously in doubt;
    (3) Demonstrate satisfactory proficiency and competency within the 
approved standards;
    (4) Demonstrate sound judgment; and
    (5) Demonstrate single-pilot competence if the aircraft is type 
certificated for single-pilot operations.

[[Page 431]]

    (b) If an applicant does not demonstrate single pilot proficiency, 
as required in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, a limitation of 
``Second in Command Required'' will be placed on the applicant's airman 
certificate. The limitation may be removed if the applicant passes the 
appropriate practical test by demonstrating single-pilot competency in 
the aircraft in which single-pilot privileges are sought.
    (c) If an applicant fails any area of operation, that applicant 
fails the practical test.
    (d) An applicant is not eligible for a certificate or rating sought 
until all the areas of operation are passed.
    (e) The examiner or the applicant may discontinue a practical test 
at any time:
    (1) When the applicant fails one or more of the areas of operation; 
or
    (2) Due to inclement weather conditions, aircraft airworthiness, or 
any other safety-of-flight concern.
    (f) If a practical test is discontinued, the applicant is entitled 
credit for those areas of operation that were passed, but only if the 
applicant:
    (1) Passes the remainder of the practical test within the 60-day 
period after the date the practical test was discontinued;
    (2) Presents to the examiner for the retest the original notice of 
disapproval form or the letter of discontinuance form, as appropriate;
    (3) Satisfactorily accomplishes any additional training needed and 
obtains the appropriate instructor endorsements, if additional training 
is required; and
    (4) Presents to the examiner for the retest a properly completed and 
signed application.



Sec. 61.45  Practical tests: Required aircraft and equipment.

    (a) General. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section 
or when permitted to accomplish the entire flight increment of the 
practical test in a flight simulator or a flight training device, an 
applicant for a certificate or rating issued under this part must 
furnish:
    (1) An aircraft of U.S. registry for each required test that--
    (i) Is of the category, class, and type, if applicable, for which 
the applicant is applying for a certificate or rating; and
    (ii) Has a current standard airworthiness certificate or special 
airworthiness certificate in the limited, primary, or light-sport 
category.
    (2) At the discretion of the examiner who administers the practical 
test, the applicant may furnish--
    (i) An aircraft that has a current airworthiness certificate other 
than a standard airworthiness certificate or special airworthiness 
certificate in the limited, primary, or light-sport category, but that 
otherwise meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
    (ii) An aircraft of the same category, class, and type, if 
applicable, of foreign registry that is properly certificated by the 
country of registry; or
    (iii) A military aircraft of the same category, class, and type, if 
applicable, for which the applicant is applying for a certificate or 
rating.
    (b) Required equipment (other than controls). (1) Except as provided 
in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, an aircraft used for a practical 
test must have--
    (i) The equipment for each area of operation required for the 
practical test;
    (ii) No prescribed operating limitations that prohibit its use in 
any of the areas of operation required for the practical test;
    (iii) Except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, 
at least two pilot stations with adequate visibility for each person to 
operate the aircraft safely; and
    (iv) Cockpit and outside visibility adequate to evaluate the 
performance of the applicant when an additional jump seat is provided 
for the examiner.
    (2) An applicant for a certificate or rating may use an aircraft 
with operating characteristics that preclude the applicant from 
performing all of the tasks required for the practical test. However, 
the applicant's certificate or rating, as appropriate, will be issued 
with an appropriate limitation.
    (c) Required controls. An aircraft (other than a lighter-than-air 
aircraft) used for a practical test must have engine power controls and 
flight controls that are easily reached and operable in a conventional 
manner by both pilots,

[[Page 432]]

unless the examiner determines that the practical test can be conducted 
safely in the aircraft without the controls being easily reached.
    (d) Simulated instrument flight equipment. An applicant for a 
practical test that involves maneuvering an aircraft solely by reference 
to instruments must furnish:
    (1) Equipment on board the aircraft that permits the applicant to 
pass the areas of operation that apply to the rating sought; and
    (2) A device that prevents the applicant from having visual 
reference outside the aircraft, but does not prevent the examiner from 
having visual reference outside the aircraft, and is otherwise 
acceptable to the Administrator.
    (e) Aircraft with single controls. A practical test may be conducted 
in an aircraft having a single set of controls, provided the:
    (1) Examiner agrees to conduct the test;
    (2) Test does not involve a demonstration of instrument skills; and
    (3) Proficiency of the applicant can be observed by an examiner who 
is in a position to observe the applicant.
    (f) Light-sport aircraft with a single seat. A practical test for a 
sport pilot certificate may be conducted in a light-sport aircraft 
having a single seat provided that the--
    (1) Examiner agrees to conduct the test;
    (2) Examiner is in a position to observe the operation of the 
aircraft and evaluate the proficiency of the applicant; and
    (3) Pilot certificate of an applicant successfully passing the test 
is issued a pilot certificate with a limitation ``No passenger carriage 
and flight in a single-seat light-sport aircraft only.''

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.47  Status of an examiner who is authorized by the Administrator to 

conduct practical tests.

    (a) An examiner represents the Administrator for the purpose of 
conducting practical tests for certificates and ratings issued under 
this part and to observe an applicant's ability to perform the areas of 
operation on the practical test.
    (b) The examiner is not the pilot in command of the aircraft during 
the practical test unless the examiner agrees to act in that capacity 
for the flight or for a portion of the flight by prior arrangement with:
    (1) The applicant; or
    (2) A person who would otherwise act as pilot in command of the 
flight or for a portion of the flight.
    (c) Notwithstanding the type of aircraft used during the practical 
test, the applicant and the examiner (and any other occupants authorized 
to be on board by the examiner) are not subject to the requirements or 
limitations for the carriage of passengers that are specified in this 
chapter.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.49  Retesting after failure.

    (a) An applicant for a knowledge or practical test who fails that 
test may reapply for the test only after the applicant has received:
    (1) The necessary training from an authorized instructor who has 
determined that the applicant is proficient to pass the test; and
    (2) An endorsement from an authorized instructor who gave the 
applicant the additional training.
    (b) An applicant for a flight instructor certificate with an 
airplane category rating or, for a flight instructor certificate with a 
glider category rating, who has failed the practical test due to 
deficiencies in instructional proficiency on stall awareness, spin 
entry, spins, or spin recovery must:
    (1) Comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section 
before being retested;
    (2) Bring an aircraft to the retest that is of the appropriate 
aircraft category for the rating sought and is certificated for spins; 
and
    (3) Demonstrate satisfactory instructional proficiency on stall 
awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery to an examiner during 
the retest.



Sec. 61.51  Pilot logbooks.

    (a) Training time and aeronautical experience. Each person must 
document

[[Page 433]]

and record the following time in a manner acceptable to the 
Administrator:
    (1) Training and aeronautical experience used to meet the 
requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review of this part.
    (2) The aeronautical experience required for meeting the recent 
flight experience requirements of this part.
    (b) Logbook entries. For the purposes of meeting the requirements of 
paragraph (a) of this section, each person must enter the following 
information for each flight or lesson logged:
    (1) General--
    (i) Date.
    (ii) Total flight time or lesson time.
    (iii) Location where the aircraft departed and arrived, or for 
lessons in a flight simulator or flight training device, the location 
where the lesson occurred.
    (iv) Type and identification of aircraft, flight simulator, or 
flight training device, as appropriate.
    (v) The name of a safety pilot, if required by Sec. 91.109(b) of 
this chapter.
    (2) Type of pilot experience or training--
    (i) Solo.
    (ii) Pilot in command.
    (iii) Second in command.
    (iv) Flight and ground training received from an authorized 
instructor.
    (v) Training received in a flight simulator or flight training 
device from an authorized instructor.
    (3) Conditions of flight--
    (i) Day or night.
    (ii) Actual instrument.
    (iii) Simulated instrument conditions in flight, a flight simulator, 
or a flight training device.
    (c) Logging of pilot time. The pilot time described in this section 
may be used to:
    (1) Apply for a certificate or rating issued under this part or a 
privilege authorized under this part; or
    (2) Satisfy the recent flight experience requirements of this part.
    (d) Logging of solo flight time. Except for a student pilot 
performing the duties of pilot in command of an airship requiring more 
than one pilot flight crewmember, a pilot may log as solo flight time 
only that flight time when the pilot is the sole occupant of the 
aircraft.
    (e) Logging pilot-in-command flight time. (1) A sport, recreational, 
private, or commercial pilot may log pilot-in-command time only for that 
flight time during which that person--
    (i) Is the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft for which 
the pilot is rated or has privileges;
    (ii) Is the sole occupant of the aircraft; or
    (iii) Except for a recreational pilot, is acting as pilot in command 
of an aircraft on which more than one pilot is required under the type 
certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight 
is conducted.
    (2) An airline transport pilot may log as pilot-in-command time all 
of the flight time while acting as pilot-in-command of an operation 
requiring an airline transport pilot certificate.
    (3) An authorized instructor may log as pilot-in-command time all 
flight time while acting as an authorized instructor.
    (4) A student pilot may log pilot-in-command time only when the 
student pilot--
    (i) Is the sole occupant of the aircraft or is performing the duties 
of pilot of command of an airship requiring more than one pilot flight 
crewmember;
    (ii) Has a current solo flight endorsement as required under Sec. 
61.87 of this part; and
    (iii) Is undergoing training for a pilot certificate or rating.
    (f) Logging second-in-command flight time. A person may log second-
in-command time only for that flight time during which that person:
    (1) Is qualified in accordance with the second-in-command 
requirements of Sec. 61.55 of this part, and occupies a crewmember 
station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot by the 
aircraft's type certificate; or
    (2) Holds the appropriate category, class, and instrument rating (if 
an instrument rating is required for the flight) for the aircraft being 
flown, and more than one pilot is required under the type certification 
of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is being 
conducted.
    (g) Logging instrument flight time. (1) A person may log instrument 
time only

[[Page 434]]

for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by 
reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight 
conditions.
    (2) An authorized instructor may log instrument time when conducting 
instrument flight instruction in actual instrument flight conditions.
    (3) For the purposes of logging instrument time to meet the recent 
instrument experience requirements of Sec. 61.57(c) of this part, the 
following information must be recorded in the person's logbook--
    (i) The location and type of each instrument approach accomplished; 
and
    (ii) The name of the safety pilot, if required.
    (4) A flight simulator or approved flight training device may be 
used by a person to log instrument time, provided an authorized 
instructor is present during the simulated flight.
    (h) Logging training time. (1) A person may log training time when 
that person receives training from an authorized instructor in an 
aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device.
    (2) The training time must be logged in a logbook and must:
    (i) Be endorsed in a legible manner by the authorized instructor; 
and
    (ii) Include a description of the training given, the length of the 
training lesson, and the authorized instructor's signature, certificate 
number, and certificate expiration date.
    (i) Presentation of required documents. (1) Persons must present 
their pilot certificate, medical certificate, logbook, or any other 
record required by this part for inspection upon a reasonable request 
by--
    (i) The Administrator;
    (ii) An authorized representative from the National Transportation 
Safety Board; or
    (iii) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.
    (2) A student pilot must carry the following items in the aircraft 
on all solo cross-country flights as evidence of the required authorized 
instructor clearances and endorsements--
    (i) Pilot logbook;
    (ii) Student pilot certificate; and
    (iii) Any other record required by this section.
    (3) A sport pilot must carry his or her logbook or other evidence of 
required authorized instructor endorsements on all flights.
    (4) A recreational pilot must carry his or her logbook with the 
required authorized instructor endorsements on all solo flights--
    (i) That exceed 50 nautical miles from the airport at which training 
was received;
    (ii) Within airspace that requires communication with air traffic 
control;
    (iii) Conducted between sunset and sunrise; or
    (iv) In an aircraft for which the pilot does not hold an appropriate 
category or class rating.
    (5) A flight instructor with a sport pilot rating must carry his or 
her logbook or other evidence of required authorized instructor 
endorsements on all flights when providing flight training.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.52  Use of aeronautical experience obtained in ultralight vehicles.

    (a) A person may use aeronautical experience obtained in an 
ultralight vehicle to meet the requirements for the following 
certificates and ratings issued under this part:
    (1) A sport pilot certificate.
    (2) A flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating;
    (3) A private pilot certificate with a weight-shift-control or 
powered parachute category rating.
    (b) A person may use aeronautical experience obtained in an 
ultralight vehicle to meet the provisions of Sec. Sec. 61.69 and 
61.415(e).
    (c) A person using aeronautical experience obtained in an ultralight 
vehicle to meet the requirements for a certificate or rating specified 
in paragraph (a) of this section or the requirements of paragraph (b) of 
this section must--
    (1) Have been a registered ultralight pilot with an FAA-recognized 
ultralight organization when that aeronautical experience was obtained;
    (2) Document and log that aeronautical experience in accordance with

[[Page 435]]

the provisions for logging aeronautical experience specified by an FAA-
recognized ultralight organization and in accordance with provisions for 
logging pilot time in aircraft as specified in Sec. 61.51; and
    (3) Obtain the experience in a category and class of vehicle 
corresponding to the rating or privileges sought.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.53  Prohibition on operations during medical deficiency.

    (a) Operations that require a medical certificate. Except as 
provided for in paragraph (b) of this section, a person who holds a 
current medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter shall 
not act as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required 
pilot flight crewmember, while that person:
    (1) Knows or has reason to know of any medical condition that would 
make the person unable to meet the requirements for the medical 
certificate necessary for the pilot operation; or
    (2) Is taking medication or receiving other treatment for a medical 
condition that results in the person being unable to meet the 
requirements for the medical certificate necessary for the pilot 
operation.
    (b) Operations that do not require a medical certificate. For 
operations provided for in Sec. 61.23(b) of this part, a person shall 
not act as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required 
pilot flight crewmember, while that person knows or has reason to know 
of any medical condition that would make the person unable to operate 
the aircraft in a safe manner.
    (c) Operations requiring a medical certificate or a U.S. driver's 
license. For operations provided for in Sec. 61.23(c), a person must 
meet the provisions of--
    (1) Paragraph (a) of this section if that person holds a valid 
medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter and does not 
hold a current and valid U.S. driver's license.
    (2) Paragraph (b) of this section if that person holds a current and 
valid U.S. driver's license.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44866, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.55  Second-in-command qualifications.

    (a) A person may serve as a second-in-command of an aircraft type 
certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or in 
operations requiring a second-in-command pilot flight crewmember only if 
that person holds:
    (1) At least a current private pilot certificate with the 
appropriate category and class rating; and
    (2) An instrument rating or privilege that applies to the aircraft 
being flown if the flight is under IFR; and
    (3) The appropriate pilot type rating for the aircraft unless the 
flight will be conducted as domestic flight operations within United 
States airspace.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person 
may serve as a second-in-command of an aircraft type certificated for 
more than one required pilot flight crewmember or in operations 
requiring a second-in-command unless that person has within the previous 
12 calendar months:
    (1) Become familiar with the following information for the specific 
type aircraft for which second-in-command privileges are requested--
    (i) Operational procedures applicable to the powerplant, equipment, 
and systems.
    (ii) Performance specifications and limitations.
    (iii) Normal, abnormal, and emergency operating procedures.
    (iv) Flight manual.
    (v) Placards and markings.
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, performed 
and logged pilot time in the type of aircraft or in a flight simulator 
that represents the type of aircraft for which second-in-command 
privileges are requested, which includes--
    (i) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop as the sole 
manipulator of the flight controls;
    (ii) Engine-out procedures and maneuvering with an engine out while 
executing the duties of pilot in command; and
    (iii) Crew resource management training.
    (c) If a person complies with the requirements in paragraph (b) of 
this section in the calendar month before or

[[Page 436]]

the calendar month after the month in which compliance with this section 
is required, then that person is considered to have accomplished the 
training and practice in the month it is due.
    (d) A person may receive a second-in-command pilot type rating for 
an aircraft after satisfactorily completing the second-in-command 
familiarization training requirements under paragraph (b) of this 
section in that type of aircraft provided the training was completed 
within the 12 calendar months before the month of application for the 
SIC pilot type rating. The person must comply with the following 
application and pilot certification procedures:
    (1) The person who provided the training must sign the applicant's 
logbook or training record after each lesson in accordance with Sec. 
61.51(h)(2) of this part. In lieu of the trainer, it is permissible for 
a qualified management official within the organization to sign the 
applicant's training records or logbook and make the required 
endorsement. The qualified management official must hold the position of 
Chief Pilot, Director of Training, Director of Operations, or another 
comparable management position within the organization that provided the 
training and must be in a position to verify the applicant's training 
records and that the training was given.
    (2) The trainer or qualified management official must make an 
endorsement in the applicant's logbook that states ``[Applicant's Name 
and Pilot Certificate Number] has demonstrated the skill and knowledge 
required for the safe operation of the [Type of Aircraft], relevant to 
the duties and responsibilities of a second in command.''
    (3) If the applicant's flight experience and/or training records are 
in an electronic form, the applicant must present a paper copy of those 
records containing the signature of the trainer or qualified management 
official to an FAA Flight Standards District Office or Examiner.
    (4) The applicant must complete and sign an Airman Certificate and/
or Rating Application, FAA Form 8710-1, and present the application to 
an FAA Flight Standards District Office or to an Examiner.
    (5) The person who provided the ground and flight training to the 
applicant must sign the ``Instructor's Recommendation'' section of the 
Airman Certificate and/or Rating Application, FAA Form 8710-1. In lieu 
of the trainer, it is permissible for a qualified management official 
within the organization to sign the applicant's FAA Form 8710-1.
    (6) The applicant must appear in person at a FAA Flight Standards 
District Office or to an Examiner with his or her logbook/training 
records and with the completed and signed FAA Form 8710-1.
    (7) There is no practical test required for the issuance of the 
``SIC Privileges Only'' pilot type rating.
    (e) A person may receive a second-in-command pilot type rating for 
the type of aircraft after satisfactorily completing an approved second-
in-command training program, proficiency check, or competency check 
under subpart K of part 91, part 121, part 125, or part 135, as 
appropriate, in that type of aircraft provided the training was 
completed within the 12 calendar months before the month of application 
for the SIC pilot type rating. The person must comply with the following 
application and pilot certification procedures:
    (1) The person who provided the training must sign the applicant's 
logbook or training record after each lesson in accordance with Sec. 
61.51(h)(2) of this part. In lieu of the trainer, it is permissible for 
a qualified management official within the organization to sign the 
applicant's training records or logbook and make the required 
endorsement. The qualified management official must hold the position of 
Chief Pilot, Director of Training, Director of Operations, or another 
comparable management position within the organization that provided the 
training and must be in a position to verify the applicant's training 
records and that the training was given.
    (2) The trainer or qualified management official must make an 
endorsement in the applicant's logbook that states ``[Applicant's Name 
and Pilot Certificate Number] has demonstrated the skill and knowledge 
required for

[[Page 437]]

the safe operation of the [Type of Aircraft], relevant to the duties and 
responsibilities of a second in command.''
    (3) If the applicant's flight experience and/or training records are 
in an electronic form, the applicant must provide a paper copy of those 
records containing the signature of the trainer or qualified management 
official to an FAA Flight Standards District Office, an Examiner, or an 
Aircrew Program Designee.
    (4) The applicant must complete and sign an Airman Certificate and/
or Rating Application, FAA Form 8710-1, and present the application to 
an FAA Flight Standards District Office or to an Examiner or to an 
authorized Aircrew Program Designee.
    (5) The person who provided the ground and flight training to the 
applicant must sign the ``Instructor's Recommendation'' section of the 
Airman Certificate and/or Rating Application, FAA Form 8710-1. In lieu 
of the trainer, it is permissible for a qualified management official 
within the organization to sign the applicant's FAA Form 8710-1.
    (6) The applicant must appear in person at an FAA Flight Standards 
District Office or to an Examiner or to an authorized Aircrew Program 
Designee with his or her logbook/training records and with the completed 
and signed FAA Form 8710-1.
    (7) There is no practical test required for the issuance of the 
``SIC Privileges Only'' pilot type rating.
    (f) The familiarization training requirements of paragraph (b) of 
this section do not apply to a person who is:
    (1) Designated and qualified as pilot in command under subpart K of 
part 91, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter in that specific type of 
aircraft;
    (2) Designated as the second in command under subpart K of part 91, 
part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter in that specific type of aircraft;
    (3) Designated as the second in command in that specific type of 
aircraft for the purpose of receiving flight training required by this 
section, and no passengers or cargo are carried on the aircraft; or
    (4) Designated as a safety pilot for purposes required by Sec. 
91.109(b) of this chapter.
    (g) The holder of a commercial or airline transport pilot 
certificate with the appropriate category and class rating is not 
required to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, 
provided the pilot:
    (1) Is conducting a ferry flight, aircraft flight test, or 
evaluation flight of an aircraft's equipment; and
    (2) Is not carrying any person or property on board the aircraft, 
other than necessary for conduct of the flight.
    (h) For the purpose of meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of 
this section, a person may serve as second in command in that specific 
type aircraft, provided:
    (1) The flight is conducted under day VFR or day IFR; and
    (2) No person or property is carried on board the aircraft, other 
than necessary for conduct of the flight.
    (i) The training under paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section and 
the training, proficiency check, and competency check under paragraph 
(e) of this section may be accomplished in a flight simulator that is 
used in accordance with an approved training course conducted by a 
training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter or under 
subpart K of part 91, part 121 or part 135 of this chapter.
    (j) When an applicant for an initial second-in-command qualification 
for a particular type of aircraft receives all the training in a flight 
simulator, that applicant must satisfactorily complete one takeoff and 
one landing in an aircraft of the same type for which the qualification 
is sought. This requirement does not apply to an applicant who completes 
a proficiency check under part 121 or competency check under subpart K, 
part 91, part 125, or part 135 for the particular type of aircraft.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40898, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-109, 68 FR 54559, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 61-113, 
70 FR 45271, Aug. 4, 2005; Amdt. 61-109, 70 FR 61890, Oct. 27, 2005]

[[Page 438]]



Sec. 61.56  Flight review.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section, a 
flight review consists of a minimum of 1 hour of flight training and 1 
hour of ground training. The review must include:
    (1) A review of the current general operating and flight rules of 
part 91 of this chapter; and
    (2) A review of those maneuvers and procedures that, at the 
discretion of the person giving the review, are necessary for the pilot 
to demonstrate the safe exercise of the privileges of the pilot 
certificate.
    (b) Glider pilots may substitute a minimum of three instructional 
flights in a glider, each of which includes a flight to traffic pattern 
altitude, in lieu of the 1 hour of flight training required in paragraph 
(a) of this section.
    (c) Except as provided in paragraphs (d), (e), and (g) of this 
section, no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft unless, 
since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which 
that pilot acts as pilot in command, that person has--
    (1) Accomplished a flight review given in an aircraft for which that 
pilot is rated by an authorized instructor and
    (2) A logbook endorsed from an authorized instructor who gave the 
review certifying that the person has satisfactorily completed the 
review.
    (d) A person who has, within the period specified in paragraph (c) 
of this section, passed a pilot proficiency check conducted by an 
examiner, an approved pilot check airman, or a U.S. Armed Force, for a 
pilot certificate, rating, or operating privilege need not accomplish 
the flight review required by this section.
    (e) A person who has, within the period specified in paragraph (c) 
of this section, satisfactorily accomplished one or more phases of an 
FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency award program need not accomplish the 
flight review required by this section.
    (f) A person who holds a current flight instructor certificate who 
has, within the period specified in paragraph (c) of this section, 
satisfactorily completed a renewal of a flight instructor certificate 
under the provisions in Sec. 61.197 need not accomplish the 1 hour of 
ground training specified in paragraph (a) of this section.
    (g) A student pilot need not accomplish the flight review required 
by this section provided the student pilot is undergoing training for a 
certificate and has a current solo flight endorsement as required under 
Sec. 61.87 of this part.
    (h) The requirements of this section may be accomplished in 
combination with the requirements of Sec. 61.57 and other applicable 
recent experience requirements at the discretion of the authorized 
instructor conducting the flight review.
    (i) A flight simulator or flight training device may be used to meet 
the flight review requirements of this section subject to the following 
conditions:
    (1) The flight simulator or flight training device must be used in 
accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center 
certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (2) Unless the flight review is undertaken in a flight simulator 
that is approved for landings, the applicant must meet the takeoff and 
landing requirements of Sec. 61.57(a) or Sec. 61.57(b) of this part.
    (3) The flight simulator or flight training device used must 
represent an aircraft or set of aircraft for which the pilot is rated.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40898, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998]



Sec. 61.57  Recent flight experience: Pilot in command.

    (a) General experience. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of 
this section, no person may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft 
carrying passengers or of an aircraft certificated for more than one 
pilot flight crewmember unless that person has made at least three 
takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days, and--
    (i) The person acted as the sole manipulator of the flight controls; 
and
    (ii) The required takeoffs and landings were performed in an 
aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is 
required), and, if the aircraft to be flown is an airplane with a 
tailwheel, the takeoffs and landings

[[Page 439]]

must have been made to a full stop in an airplane with a tailwheel.
    (2) For the purpose of meeting the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) 
of this section, a person may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft 
under day VFR or day IFR, provided no persons or property are carried on 
board the aircraft, other than those necessary for the conduct of the 
flight.
    (3) The takeoffs and landings required by paragraph (a)(1) of this 
section may be accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training 
device that is--
    (i) Approved by the Administrator for landings; and
    (ii) Used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a 
training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (b) Night takeoff and landing experience. (1) Except as provided in 
paragraph (e) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of 
an aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning 1 hour after 
sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, unless within the preceding 90 
days that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings to 
a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 
hour before sunrise, and--
    (i) That person acted as sole manipulator of the flight controls; 
and
    (ii) The required takeoffs and landings were performed in an 
aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is 
required).
    (2) The takeoffs and landings required by paragraph (b)(1) of this 
section may be accomplished in a flight simulator that is--
    (i) Approved by the Administrator for takeoffs and landings, if the 
visual system is adjusted to represent the period described in paragraph 
(b)(1) of this section; and
    (ii) Used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a 
training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (c) Instrument experience. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of 
this section, no person may act as pilot in command under IFR or in 
weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR, unless 
within the preceding 6 calendar months, that person has:
    (1) For the purpose of obtaining instrument experience in an 
aircraft (other than a glider), performed and logged under actual or 
simulated instrument conditions, either in flight in the appropriate 
category of aircraft for the instrument privileges sought or in a flight 
simulator or flight training device that is representative of the 
aircraft category for the instrument privileges sought--
    (i) At least six instrument approaches;
    (ii) Holding procedures; and
    (iii) Intercepting and tracking courses through the use of 
navigation systems.
    (2) For the purpose of obtaining instrument experience in a glider, 
performed and logged under actual or simulated instrument conditions--
    (i) At least 3 hours of instrument time in flight, of which 1\1/2\ 
hours may be acquired in an airplane or a glider if no passengers are to 
be carried; or
    (ii) 3 hours of instrument time in flight in a glider if a passenger 
is to be carried.
    (d) Instrument proficiency check. Except as provided in paragraph 
(e) of this section, a person who does not meet the instrument 
experience requirements of paragraph (c) of this section within the 
prescribed time, or within 6 calendar months after the prescribed time, 
may not serve as pilot in command under IFR or in weather conditions 
less than the minimums prescribed for VFR until that person passes an 
instrument proficiency check consisting of a representative number of 
tasks required by the instrument rating practical test.
    (1) The instrument proficiency check must be--
    (i) In an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category;
    (ii) For other than a glider, in a flight simulator or flight 
training device that is representative of the aircraft category; or
    (iii) For a glider, in a single-engine airplane or a glider.
    (2) The instrument proficiency check must be given by--
    (i) An examiner;

[[Page 440]]

    (ii) A person authorized by the U.S. Armed Forces to conduct 
instrument flight tests, provided the person being tested is a member of 
the U.S. Armed Forces;
    (iii) A company check pilot who is authorized to conduct instrument 
flight tests under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter or subpart K of 
part 91 of this chapter, and provided that both the check pilot and the 
pilot being tested are employees of that operator or fractional 
ownership program manager, as applicable;
    (iv) An authorized instructor; or
    (v) A person approved by the Administrator to conduct instrument 
practical tests.
    (e) Exceptions. (1) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not 
apply to a pilot in command who is employed by a certificate holder 
under part 125 and engaged in a flight operation for that certificate 
holder if the pilot is in compliance with Sec. Sec. 125.281 and 125.285 
of this chapter.
    (2) This section does not apply to a pilot in command who is 
employed by an air carrier certificated under part 121 or 135 and is 
engaged in a flight operation under part 91, 121, or 135 for that air 
carrier if the pilot is in compliance with Sec. Sec. 121.437 and 
121.439, or Sec. Sec. 135.243 and 135.247 of this chapter, as 
appropriate.
    (3) Paragraph (b) of this section does not apply to a pilot in 
command of a turbine-powered airplane that is type certificated for more 
than one pilot crewmember, provided that pilot has complied with the 
requirements of paragraph (e)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section:
    (i) The pilot in command must hold at least a commercial pilot 
certificate with the appropriate category, class, and type rating for 
each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot 
crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, and:
    (A) That pilot must have logged at least 1,500 hours of aeronautical 
experience as a pilot;
    (B) In each airplane that is type certificated for more than one 
pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, 
that pilot must have accomplished and logged the daytime takeoff and 
landing recent flight experience of paragraph (a) of this section, as 
the sole manipulator of the flight controls;
    (C) Within the preceding 90 days prior to the operation of that 
airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, 
the pilot must have accomplished and logged at least 15 hours of flight 
time in the type of airplane that the pilot seeks to operate under this 
alternative; and
    (D) That pilot has accomplished and logged at least 3 takeoffs and 3 
landings to a full stop, as the sole manipulator of the flight controls, 
in a turbine-powered airplane that requires more than one pilot 
crewmember. The pilot must have performed the takeoffs and landings 
during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before 
sunrise within the preceding 6 months prior to the month of the flight.
    (ii) The pilot in command must hold at least a commercial pilot 
certificate with the appropriate category, class, and type rating for 
each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot 
crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, and:
    (A) That pilot must have logged at least 1,500 hours of aeronautical 
experience as a pilot;
    (B) In each airplane that is type certificated for more than one 
pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, 
that pilot must have accomplished and logged the daytime takeoff and 
landing recent flight experience of paragraph (a) of this section, as 
the sole manipulator of the flight controls;
    (C) Within the preceding 90 days prior to the operation of that 
airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, 
the pilot must have accomplished and logged at least 15 hours of flight 
time in the type of airplane that the pilot seeks to operate under this 
alternative; and
    (D) Within the preceding 12 months prior to the month of the flight, 
the pilot must have completed a training program that is approved under 
part 142 of this chapter. The approved training program must have 
required and the pilot must have performed, at least 6 takeoffs and 6 
landings to a full stop as the sole manipulator of the controls

[[Page 441]]

in a flight simulator that is representative of a turbine-powered 
airplane that requires more than one pilot crewmember. The flight 
simulator's visual system must have been adjusted to represent the 
period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40898, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-106, 64 FR 23529, Apr. 30, 1999; Amdt. 61-109, 
68 FR 54559, Sept. 17, 2003]



Sec. 61.58  Pilot-in-command proficiency check: Operation of aircraft 

requiring more than one pilot flight crewmember.

    (a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, to serve as pilot 
in command of an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one 
required pilot flight crewmember, a person must--
    (1) Within the preceding 12 calendar months, complete a pilot-in-
command proficiency check in an aircraft that is type certificated for 
more than one required pilot flight crewmember; and
    (2) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, complete a pilot-in-
command proficiency check in the particular type of aircraft in which 
that person will serve as pilot in command.
    (b) This section does not apply to persons conducting operations 
under subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, 133, 135, or 137 of this 
chapter, or persons maintaining continuing qualification under an 
Advanced Qualification program approved under subpart Y of part 121 of 
this chapter.
    (c) The pilot-in-command proficiency check given in accordance with 
the provisions of subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, or 135 of this 
chapter may be used to satisfy the requirements of this section.
    (d) The pilot-in-command proficiency check required by paragraph (a) 
of this section may be accomplished by satisfactory completion of one of 
the following:
    (1) A pilot-in-command proficiency check conducted by a person 
authorized by the Administrator, consisting of the maneuvers and 
procedures required for a type rating, in an aircraft type certificated 
for more than one required pilot flight crewmember;
    (2) The practical test required for a type rating, in an aircraft 
type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember;
    (3) The initial or periodic practical test required for the issuance 
of a pilot examiner or check airman designation, in an aircraft type 
certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember; or
    (4) A military flight check required for a pilot in command with 
instrument privileges, in an aircraft that the military requires to be 
operated by more than one pilot flight crewmember.
    (e) A check or test described in paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(4) of 
this section may be accomplished in a flight simulator under part 142 of 
this chapter, subject to the following:
    (1) Except as provided for in paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this 
section, if an otherwise qualified and approved flight simulator used 
for a pilot-in-command proficiency check is not qualified and approved 
for a specific required maneuver--
    (i) The training center must annotate, in the applicant's training 
record, the maneuver or maneuvers omitted; and
    (ii) Prior to acting as pilot in command, the pilot must demonstrate 
proficiency in each omitted maneuver in an aircraft or flight simulator 
qualified and approved for each omitted maneuver.
    (2) If the flight simulator used pursuant to paragraph (e) of this 
section is not qualified and approved for circling approaches--
    (i) The applicant's record must include the statement, ``Proficiency 
in circling approaches not demonstrated''; and
    (ii) The applicant may not perform circling approaches as pilot in 
command when weather conditions are less than the basic VFR conditions 
described in Sec. 91.155 of this chapter, until proficiency in circling 
approaches has been successfully demonstrated in a flight simulator 
qualified and approved for circling approaches or in an aircraft to a 
person authorized by the Administrator to conduct the check required by 
this section.

[[Page 442]]

    (3) If the flight simulator used pursuant to paragraph (e) of this 
section is not qualified and approved for landings, the applicant must--
    (i) Hold a type rating in the airplane represented by the simulator; 
and
    (ii) Have completed within the preceding 90 days at least three 
takeoffs and three landings (one to a full stop) as the sole manipulator 
of the flight controls in the type airplane for which the pilot-in-
command proficiency check is sought.
    (f) For the purpose of meeting the pilot-in-command proficiency 
check requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a person may act as 
pilot in command of a flight under day VFR conditions or day IFR 
conditions if no person or property is carried, other than as necessary 
to demonstrate compliance with this part.
    (g) If a pilot takes the pilot-in-command proficiency check required 
by this section in the calendar month before or the calendar month after 
the month in which it is due, the pilot is considered to have taken it 
in the month in which it was due for the purpose of computing when the 
next pilot-in-command proficiency check is due.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40899, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-109, 
68 FR 54559, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 61-112, 70 FR 54814, Sept. 16, 2005]



Sec. 61.59  Falsification, reproduction, or alteration of applications, 

certificates, logbooks, reports, or records.

    (a) No person may make or cause to be made:
    (1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement on any 
application for a certificate, rating, authorization, or duplicate 
thereof, issued under this part;
    (2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, 
record, or report that is required to be kept, made, or used to show 
compliance with any requirement for the issuance or exercise of the 
privileges of any certificate, rating, or authorization under this part;
    (3) Any reproduction for fraudulent purpose of any certificate, 
rating, or authorization, under this part; or
    (4) Any alteration of any certificate, rating, or authorization 
under this part.
    (b) The commission of an act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this 
section is a basis for suspending or revoking any airman certificate, 
rating, or authorization held by that person.



Sec. 61.60  Change of address.

    The holder of a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor 
certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, 
after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of the certificate 
unless the holder has notified in writing the FAA, Airman Certification 
Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, of the new permanent 
mailing address, or if the permanent mailing address includes a post 
office box number, then the holder's current residential address.



           Subpart B_Aircraft Ratings and Pilot Authorizations



Sec. 61.61  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of 
additional aircraft ratings after a pilot certificate is issued, and the 
requirements for and limitations of pilot authorizations issued by the 
Administrator.



Sec. 61.63  Additional aircraft ratings (other than on an airline transport 

pilot certificate).

    (a) General. To be eligible for an additional aircraft rating to a 
pilot certificate, for other than an airline transport pilot 
certificate, an applicant must meet the appropriate requirements of this 
section for the additional aircraft rating sought.
    (b) Additional category rating. An applicant who holds a pilot 
certificate and applies to add a category rating to that pilot 
certificate:
    (1) Must have received the required training and possess the 
aeronautical experience prescribed by this part that applies to the 
pilot certificate for the aircraft category and, if applicable, class 
rating sought;
    (2) Must have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training 
record from

[[Page 443]]

an authorized instructor, and that endorsement must attest that the 
applicant has been found competent in the aeronautical knowledge areas 
appropriate to the pilot certificate for the aircraft category and, if 
applicable, class rating sought;
    (3) Must have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training 
record from an authorized instructor, and that endorsement must attest 
that the applicant has been found proficient on the areas of operation 
that are appropriate to the pilot certificate for the aircraft category 
and, if applicable, class rating sought;
    (4) Must pass the required practical test that is appropriate to the 
pilot certificate for the aircraft category and, if applicable, class 
rating sought; and
    (5) Need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the 
applicant holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating 
at that pilot certificate level.
    (c) Additional class rating. Any person who applies for an 
additional class rating to be added on a pilot certificate:
    (1) Must have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training 
record from an authorized instructor and that endorsement must attest 
that the applicant has been found competent in the aeronautical 
knowledge areas appropriate to the pilot certificate for the aircraft 
class rating sought;
    (2) Must have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training 
record from an authorized instructor, and that endorsement must attest 
that the applicant has been found proficient in the areas of operation 
appropriate to the pilot certificate for the aircraft class rating 
sought;
    (3) Must pass the required practical test that is appropriate to the 
pilot certificate for the aircraft class rating sought;
    (4) Need not meet the specified training time requirements 
prescribed by this part that apply to the pilot certificate for the 
aircraft class rating sought unless the person holds a lighter-than-air 
category rating with a balloon class rating and is seeking an airship 
class rating and
    (5) Need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the 
applicant holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating 
at that pilot certificate level.
    (d) Additional type rating. Except as specified in paragraph (d)(7) 
of this section, a person who applies for an additional aircraft type 
rating to be added on a pilot certificate, or the addition of an 
aircraft type rating that is accomplished concurrently with an 
additional aircraft category or class rating:
    (1) Must hold or concurrently obtain an instrument rating that is 
appropriate to the aircraft category, class, or type rating sought;
    (2) Must have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training 
record from an authorized instructor, and that endorsement must attest 
that the applicant has been found competent in the aeronautical 
knowledge areas appropriate to the pilot certificate for the aircraft 
category, class, or type rating sought;
    (3) Must have an endorsement in his or her logbook, or training 
record from an authorized instructor, and that endorsement must attest 
that the applicant has been found proficient in the areas of operation 
required for the issuance of an airline transport pilot certificate for 
the aircraft category, class, and type rating sought;
    (4) Must pass the required practical test appropriate to the airline 
transport pilot certificate for the aircraft category, class, and type 
rating sought;
    (5) Must perform the practical test in actual or simulated 
instrument conditions, unless the aircraft's type certificate makes the 
aircraft incapable of operating under instrument flight rules. If the 
practical test cannot be accomplished for this reason, the person may 
obtain a type rating limited to ``VFR only.'' The ``VFR only'' 
limitation may be removed for that aircraft type when the person passes 
the practical test in actual or simulated instrument conditions. When an 
instrument rating is issued to a person who holds one or more type 
ratings, the type ratings on the amended pilot certificate shall bear 
the ``VFR only'' limitation for each aircraft type rating for which the 
person has not demonstrated instrument competency;
    (6) Need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the 
applicant

[[Page 444]]

holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating on their 
pilot certificate; and
    (7) In the case of a pilot employee of a certificate holder 
operating under part 121 or 135 of this chapter or of a fractional 
ownership program manager under subpart K of part 91 of this chapter, 
must have--
    (i) Met the appropriate requirements of paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(4), 
and (d)(5) of this section for the aircraft type rating sought; and
    (ii) Received an endorsement in his or her flight training record 
from the certificate holder or program manager attesting that the 
applicant has completed the certificate holder's or program manager's 
approved ground and flight training program appropriate to the aircraft 
type rating sought.
    (e) Use of a flight simulator or flight training device for an 
additional rating in an airplane. The areas of operation required to be 
performed by paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section shall be 
performed as follows:
    (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the 
areas of operation must be performed in an airplane of the same 
category, class, and type, if applicable, as the airplane for which the 
additional rating is sought.
    (2) Subject to the limitations of paragraph (e)(3) through (e)(12) 
of this section, the areas of operation may be performed in a flight 
simulator or flight training device that represents the airplane for 
which the additional rating is sought.
    (3) The use of a flight simulator or flight training device 
permitted by paragraph (e)(2) of this section shall be conducted in 
accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated 
under part 142 of this chapter.
    (4) To complete all training and testing (except preflight 
inspection) for an additional airplane rating without limitations when 
using a flight simulator--
    (i) The flight simulator must be qualified and approved as Level C 
or Level D; and
    (ii) The applicant must meet at least one of the following:
    (A) Hold a type rating for a turbojet airplane of the same class of 
airplane for which the type rating is sought, or have been appointed by 
a military service as a pilot in command of an airplane of the same 
class of airplane for which the type rating is sought, if a type rating 
in a turbojet airplane is sought.
    (B) Hold a type rating for a turbopropeller airplane of the same 
class of airplane for which the type rating is sought, or have been 
designated by a military service as a pilot in command of an airplane of 
the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought, if a 
type rating in a turbopropeller airplane is sought.
    (C) Have at least 2,000 hours of flight time, of which 500 hours is 
in turbine-powered airplanes of the same class of airplane for which the 
type rating is sought.
    (D) Have at least 500 hours of flight time in the same type airplane 
as the airplane for which the rating is sought.
    (E) Have at least 1,000 hours of flight time in at least two 
different airplanes requiring a type rating.
    (5) Subject to the limitation of paragraph (e)(6) of this section, 
an applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(4) of 
this section may complete all training and testing (except for preflight 
inspection) for an additional rating when using a flight simulator if--
    (i) The flight simulator is qualified and approved as a Level C or 
Level D; and
    (ii) The applicant meets at least one of the following:
    (A) Holds a type rating in a propeller-driven airplane if a type 
rating in a turbojet airplane is sought, or holds a type rating in a 
turbojet airplane if a type rating in a propeller-driven airplane is 
sought; or
    (B) Since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before the month 
in which the applicant completes the practical test for an additional 
airplane rating, has logged:
    (1) At least 100 hours of flight time in airplanes of the same class 
for which the type rating is sought and which requires a type rating; 
and
    (2) At least 25 hours of flight time in airplanes of the same type 
for which the rating is sought.
    (6) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (e)(5) 
of this

[[Page 445]]

section will be issued an additional rating with a limitation.
    (7) The limitation on a certificate issued under the provisions of 
paragraph (e)(6) of this section shall state, ``This certificate is 
subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.''
    (8) An applicant who has been issued a pilot certificate with the 
limitation specified in paragraph (e)(7) of this section--
    (i) May not act as pilot in command of that airplane for which the 
additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section 
until the limitation is removed from the pilot certificate; and
    (ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 15 hours of 
supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the 
supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat 
normally occupied by the pilot in command, in the same type of airplane 
to which the limitation applies.
    (9) An applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph 
(e)(4) or paragraph (e)(5) of this section may be issued an additional 
rating after successful completion of one of the following requirements:
    (i) Compliance with paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section and 
the following tasks, which must be successfully completed on a static 
airplane or in flight, as appropriate:
    (A) Preflight inspection;
    (B) Normal takeoff;
    (C) Normal ILS approach;
    (D) Missed approach; and
    (E) Normal landing.
    (ii) Compliance with paragraphs (e)(2), (e)(3), and (e)(10) through 
(e)(12) of this section.
    (10) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph 
(e)(9)(ii) of this section will be issued an additional rating with a 
limitation.
    (11) The limitation on a certificate issued under the provisions of 
paragraph (e)(10) of this section shall state, ``This certificate is 
subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.''
    (12) An applicant who has been issued a pilot certificate with the 
limitation specified in paragraph (e)(11) of this section--
    (i) May not act as pilot in command of that airplane for which the 
additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section 
until the limitation is removed from the pilot certificate; and
    (ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 25 hours of 
supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the 
supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat 
normally occupied by the pilot in command, in that airplane of the same 
type to which the limitation applies.
    (f) Use of a flight simulator or flight training device for an 
additional rating in a helicopter. The areas of operation required to be 
performed by paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section shall be 
performed as follows:
    (1) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the 
areas of operation must be performed in a helicopter of the same type 
for the additional rating sought.
    (2) Subject to the limitations of paragraph (f)(3) through (f)(12) 
of this section, the areas of operation may be performed in a flight 
simulator or flight training device that represents that helicopter for 
the additional rating sought.
    (3) The use of a flight simulator or flight training device 
permitted by paragraph (f)(2) of this section shall be conducted in 
accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated 
under part 142 of this chapter.
    (4) To complete all training and testing (except preflight 
inspection) for an additional helicopter rating without limitations when 
using a flight simulator--
    (i) The flight simulator must be qualified and approved as Level C 
or Level D; and
    (ii) The applicant must meet at least one of the following if a type 
rating is sought in a turbine-powered helicopter:
    (A) Hold a type rating in a turbine-powered helicopter or have been 
appointed by a military service as a pilot in command of a turbine-
powered helicopter.

[[Page 446]]

    (B) Have at least 2,000 hours of flight time that includes at least 
500 hours in turbine-powered helicopters.
    (C) Have at least 500 hours of flight time in turbine-powered 
helicopters.
    (D) Have at least 1,000 hours of flight time in at least two 
different turbine-powered helicopters.
    (5) Subject to the limitation of paragraph (f)(6) of this section, 
an applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (f)(4) of 
this section may complete all training and testing (except for preflight 
inspection) for an additional rating when using a flight simulator if--
    (i) The flight simulator is qualified and approved as Level C or 
Level D; and
    (ii) The applicant meets at least one of the following:
    (A) Holds a type rating in a turbine-powered helicopter if a type 
rating in a turbine-powered helicopter is sought; or
    (B) Since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before the month 
in which the applicant completes the practical test for an additional 
helicopter rating, has logged at least 25 hours of flight time in 
helicopters of the same type for which the rating is sought.
    (6) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (f)(5) 
of this section will be issued an additional rating with a limitation.
    (7) The limitation on a certificate issued under the provisions of 
paragraph (f)(6) of this section shall state, ``This certificate is 
subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.''
    (8) An applicant who is issued a pilot certificate with the 
limitation specified in paragraph (f)(7) of this section--
    (i) May not act as pilot in command of that helicopter for which the 
additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section 
until the limitation is removed from the pilot certificate; and
    (ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 15 hours of 
supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the 
supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat 
normally occupied by the pilot in command, in the same type of 
helicopter to which the limitation applies.
    (9) An applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph 
(f)(4) or paragraph (f)(5) of this section may be issued an additional 
rating after successful completion of one of the following requirements:
    (i) Compliance with paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) of this section and 
the following tasks, which must be successfully completed on a static 
helicopter or in flight, as appropriate:
    (A) Preflight inspection;
    (B) Normal takeoff;
    (C) Normal ILS approach;
    (D) Missed approach; and
    (E) Normal landing.
    (ii) Compliance with paragraphs (f)(2), (f)(3), and (f)(10) through 
(f)(12) of this section.
    (10) A applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph 
(f)(9)(ii) of this section will be issued an additional rating with a 
limitation.
    (11) The limitation on a certificate issued under the provisions of 
paragraph (f)(10) of this section shall state, ``This certificate is 
subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.''
    (12) An applicant who has been issued a pilot certificate with the 
limitation specified in paragraph (f)(11) of this section--
    (i) May not act as pilot in command of that helicopter for which the 
additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section 
until the limitation is removed from the pilot certificate; and
    (ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 25 hours of 
supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the 
supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat 
normally occupied by the pilot in command, in that helicopter of the 
same type as to which the limitation applies.
    (g) Use of a flight simulator or flight training device for an 
additional rating in a powered-lift. The areas of operation required to 
be performed by paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section shall be 
performed as follows:
    (1) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, the 
areas of operation must be performed in a powered-

[[Page 447]]

lift of the same type for the additional rating sought.
    (2) Subject to the limitations of paragraphs (g)(3) through (g)(12) 
of this section, the areas of operation may be performed in a flight 
simulator or flight training device that represents that powered-lift 
for the additional rating sought.
    (3) The use of a flight simulator or flight training device 
permitted by paragraph (g)(2) of this section shall be conducted in 
accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated 
under part 142 of this chapter.
    (4) To complete all training and testing (except preflight 
inspection) for an additional powered-lift rating without limitations 
when using a flight simulator--
    (i) The flight simulator must be qualified and approved as Level C 
or Level D; and
    (ii) The applicant must meet at least one of the following if a type 
rating is sought in a turbine powered-lift:
    (A) Hold a type rating in a turbine powered-lift or have been 
appointed by a military service as a pilot in command of a turbine 
powered-lift.
    (B) Have at least 2,000 hours of flight time that includes at least 
500 hours in turbine powered-lifts.
    (C) Have at least 500 hours of flight time in turbine powered-lifts.
    (D) Have at least 1,000 hours of flight time in at least two 
different turbine powered-lifts.
    (5) Subject to the limitation of paragraph (g)(6) of this section, 
an applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (g)(4) of 
this section may complete all training and testing (except for preflight 
inspection) for an additional rating when using a flight simulator if--
    (i) The flight simulator is qualified and approved as Level C or 
Level D; and
    (ii) The applicant meets at least one of the following:
    (A) Holds a type rating in a turbine powered-lift if a type rating 
in a turbine powered-lift is sought; or
    (B) Since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before the month 
in which the applicant completes the practical test for an additional 
powered-lift rating, has logged at least 25 hours of flight time in 
powered-lifts of the same type for which the rating is sought.
    (6) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (g)(5) 
of this section will be issued an additional rating with a limitation.
    (7) The limitation on a certificate issued under the provisions of 
paragraph (g)(6) of this section shall state, ``This certificate is 
subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the additional rating.''
    (8) An applicant who is issued a pilot certificate with the 
limitation specified in paragraph (g)(7) of this section--
    (i) May not act as pilot in command of that powered-lift for which 
the additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section 
until the limitation is removed from the pilot certificate; and
    (ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 15 hours of 
supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the 
supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat 
normally occupied by the pilot in command, in the same type of powered-
lift to which the limitation applies.
    (9) An applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph 
(g)(4) or paragraph (g)(5) of this section may be issued an additional 
rating after successful completion of one of the following requirements:
    (i) Compliance with paragraphs (g)(2) and (g)(3) of this section and 
the following tasks, which must be successfully completed on a static 
powered-lift or in flight, as appropriate:
    (A) Preflight inspection;
    (B) Normal takeoff;
    (C) Normal ILS approach;
    (D) Missed approach; and
    (E) Normal landing.
    (ii) Compliance with paragraphs (g)(2), (g)(3), and (g)(10) through 
(g)(12) of this section.
    (10) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph 
(g)(9)(ii) of this section will be issued an additional rating with a 
limitation.
    (11) The limitation on a certificate issued under the provisions of 
paragraph (g)(10) of this section shall state, ``This certificate is 
subject to pilot-in-

[[Page 448]]

command limitations for the additional rating.''
    (12) An applicant who has been issued a pilot certificate with the 
limitation specified in paragraph (g)(11) of this section--
    (i) May not act as pilot in command of that powered-lift for which 
the additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section 
until the limitation is removed from the pilot certificate; and
    (ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 25 hours of 
supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the 
supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat 
normally occupied by the pilot in command, in that powered-lift of the 
same type as to which the limitation applies.
    (h) Aircraft not capable of instrument maneuvers and procedures. An 
applicant for a type rating who provides an aircraft not capable of the 
instrument maneuvers and procedures required by the appropriate 
requirements contained in Sec. 61.157 of this part for the practical 
test may--
    (1) Obtain a type rating limited to ``VFR only''; and
    (2) Remove the ``VFR only'' limitation for each aircraft type in 
which the applicant demonstrates compliance with the appropriate 
instrument requirements contained in Sec. 61.157 or Sec. 61.73 of this 
part.
    (i) Multiengine, single-pilot station airplane. An applicant for a 
type rating in a multiengine, single-pilot station airplane may meet the 
requirements of this part in a multiseat version of that multiengine 
airplane.
    (j) Single-engine, single-pilot station airplane. An applicant for a 
type rating in a single-engine, single-pilot station airplane may meet 
the requirements of this part in a multiseat version of that single-
engine airplane.
    (k) Category class ratings for the operation of aircraft with 
experimental certificates: Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs 
(b) and (c) of this section, a person holding at least a recreational 
pilot certificate may apply for a category and class rating limited to a 
specific make and model of experimental aircraft, provided--
    (1) The person has logged at least 5 hours flight time while acting 
as pilot in command in the same category, class, make, and model of 
aircraft that has been issued an experimental certificate;
    (2) The person has received a logbook endorsement from an authorized 
instructor who has determined that he or she is proficient to act as 
pilot in command of the same category, class, make, and model of 
aircraft for which application is made; and
    (3) The flight time specified in paragraph (k)(1) of this section 
must be logged between September 1, 2004 and August 31, 2005.
    (l) Waivers. Unless the Administrator requires certain or all tasks 
to be performed, the examiner who conducts the practical test may waive 
any of the tasks for which the Administrator approves waiver authority.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40899, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44866, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.64  [Reserved]



Sec. 61.65  Instrument rating requirements.

    (a) General. A person who applies for an instrument rating must:
    (1) Hold at least a current private pilot certificate with an 
airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift rating appropriate to the 
instrument rating sought;
    (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet any of these requirements 
due to a medical condition, the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on the applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for 
the safe operation of the aircraft;
    (3) Receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor or 
accomplish a home-study course of training on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the instrument 
rating sought;
    (4) Receive a logbook or training record endorsement from an 
authorized instructor certifying that the person is prepared to take the 
required knowledge test;

[[Page 449]]

    (5) Receive and log training on the areas of operation of paragraph 
(c) of this section from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, flight 
simulator, or flight training device that represents an airplane, 
helicopter, or powered-lift appropriate to the instrument rating sought;
    (6) Receive a logbook or training record endorsement from an 
authorized instructor certifying that the person is prepared to take the 
required practical test;
    (7) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas of paragraph (b) of this section; however, an applicant is not 
required to take another knowledge test when that person already holds 
an instrument rating; and
    (8) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation in 
paragraph (c) of this section in--
    (i) An airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift appropriate to the 
rating sought; or
    (ii) A flight simulator or a flight training device appropriate to 
the rating sought and for the specific maneuver or instrument approach 
procedure performed. If an approved flight training device is used for 
the practical test, the instrument approach procedures conducted in that 
flight training device are limited to one precision and one nonprecision 
approach, provided the flight training device is approved for the 
procedure performed.
    (b) Aeronautical knowledge. A person who applies for an instrument 
rating must have received and logged ground training from an authorized 
instructor or accomplished a home-study course on the following 
aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to the instrument rating sought:
    (1) Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that apply to 
flight operations under IFR;
    (2) Appropriate information that applies to flight operations under 
IFR in the ``Aeronautical Information Manual;''
    (3) Air traffic control system and procedures for instrument flight 
operations;
    (4) IFR navigation and approaches by use of navigation systems;
    (5) Use of IFR en route and instrument approach procedure charts;
    (6) Procurement and use of aviation weather reports and forecasts 
and the elements of forecasting weather trends based on that information 
and personal observation of weather conditions;
    (7) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft under instrument flight 
rules and conditions;
    (8) Recognition of critical weather situations and windshear 
avoidance;
    (9) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and
    (10) Crew resource management, including crew communication and 
coordination.
    (c) Flight proficiency. A person who applies for an instrument 
rating must receive and log training from an authorized instructor in an 
aircraft, or in a flight simulator or flight training device, in 
accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, that includes the 
following areas of operation:
    (1) Preflight preparation;
    (2) Preflight procedures;
    (3) Air traffic control clearances and procedures;
    (4) Flight by reference to instruments;
    (5) Navigation systems;
    (6) Instrument approach procedures;
    (7) Emergency operations; and
    (8) Postflight procedures.
    (d) Aeronautical experience. A person who applies for an instrument 
rating must have logged the following:
    (1) At least 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in 
command, of which at least 10 hours must be in airplanes for an 
instrument--airplane rating; and
    (2) A total of 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time on 
the areas of operation of this section, to include--
    (i) At least 15 hours of instrument flight training from an 
authorized instructor in the aircraft category for which the instrument 
rating is sought;
    (ii) At least 3 hours of instrument training that is appropriate to 
the instrument rating sought from an authorized instructor in 
preparation for the practical test within the 60 days preceding the date 
of the test;
    (iii) For an instrument--airplane rating, instrument training on 
cross-

[[Page 450]]

country flight procedures specific to airplanes that includes at least 
one cross-country flight in an airplane that is performed under IFR, and 
consists of--
    (A) A distance of at least 250 nautical miles along airways or ATC-
directed routing;
    (B) An instrument approach at each airport; and
    (C) Three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation 
systems;
    (iv) For an instrument--helicopter rating, instrument training 
specific to helicopters on cross-country flight procedures that includes 
at least one cross-country flight in a helicopter that is performed 
under IFR, and consists of--
    (A) A distance of at least 100 nautical miles along airways or ATC-
directed routing;
    (B) An instrument approach at each airport; and
    (C) Three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation 
systems; and
    (v) For an instrument--powered-lift rating, instrument training 
specific to a powered-lift on cross-country flight procedures that 
includes at least one cross-country flight in a powered-lift that is 
performed under IFR and consists of--
    (A) A distance of at least 250 nautical miles along airways or ATC-
directed routing;
    (B) An instrument approach at each airport; and
    (C) Three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation 
systems.
    (e) Use of flight simulators or flight training devices. If the 
instrument training was provided by an authorized instructor in a flight 
simulator or flight training device--
    (1) A maximum of 30 hours may be performed in that flight simulator 
or flight training device if the training was accomplished in accordance 
with part 142 of this chapter; or
    (2) A maximum of 20 hours may be performed in that flight simulator 
or flight training device if the training was not accomplished in 
accordance with part 142 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.67  Category II pilot authorization requirements.

    (a) General. A person who applies for a Category II pilot 
authorization must hold:
    (1) At least a private or commercial pilot certificate with an 
instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate;
    (2) A type rating for the aircraft for which the authorization is 
sought if that aircraft requires a type rating; and
    (3) A category and class rating for the aircraft for which the 
authorization is sought.
    (b) Experience requirements. An applicant for a Category II pilot 
authorization must have at least--
    (1) 50 hours of night flight time as pilot in command.
    (2) 75 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated instrument 
conditions that may include not more than--
    (i) A combination of 25 hours of simulated instrument flight time in 
a flight simulator or flight training device; or
    (ii) 40 hours of simulated instrument flight time if accomplished in 
an approved course conducted by an appropriately rated training center 
certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (3) 250 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command.
    (c) Practical test requirements. (1) A practical test must be passed 
by a person who applies for--
    (i) Issuance or renewal of a Category II pilot authorization; and
    (ii) The addition of another type aircraft to the applicant's 
Category II pilot authorization.
    (2) To be eligible for the practical test for an authorization under 
this section, an applicant must--
    (i) Meet the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; 
and
    (ii) If the applicant has not passed a practical test for this 
authorization during the 12 calendar months preceding the month of the 
test, then that person must--

[[Page 451]]

    (A) Meet the requirements of Sec. 61.57(c); and
    (B) Have performed at least six ILS approaches during the 6 calendar 
months preceding the month of the test, of which at least three of the 
approaches must have been conducted without the use of an approach 
coupler.
    (3) The approaches specified in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this 
section--
    (i) Must be conducted under actual or simulated instrument flight 
conditions;
    (ii) Must be conducted to the decision height for the ILS approach 
in the type aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted;
    (iii) Need not be conducted to the decision height authorized for 
Category II operations;
    (iv) Must be conducted to the decision height authorized for 
Category II operations only if conducted in a flight simulator or flight 
training device; and
    (v) Must be accomplished in an aircraft of the same category and 
class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the practical 
test is to be conducted or in a flight simulator that--
    (A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, 
as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; and
    (B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a 
training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (4) The flight time acquired in meeting the requirements of 
paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section may be used to meet the 
requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.
    (d) Practical test procedures. The practical test consists of an 
oral increment and a flight increment.
    (1) Oral increment. In the oral increment of the practical test an 
applicant must demonstrate knowledge of the following:
    (i) Required landing distance;
    (ii) Recognition of the decision height;
    (iii) Missed approach procedures and techniques using computed or 
fixed attitude guidance displays;
    (iv) Use and limitations of RVR;
    (v) Use of visual clues, their availability or limitations, and 
altitude at which they are normally discernible at reduced RVR readings;
    (vi) Procedures and techniques related to transition from nonvisual 
to visual flight during a final approach under reduced RVR;
    (vii) Effects of vertical and horizontal windshear;
    (viii) Characteristics and limitations of the ILS and runway 
lighting system;
    (ix) Characteristics and limitations of the flight director system, 
auto approach coupler (including split axis type if equipped), auto 
throttle system (if equipped), and other required Category II equipment;
    (x) Assigned duties of the second in command during Category II 
approaches, unless the aircraft for which authorization is sought does 
not require a second in command; and
    (xi) Instrument and equipment failure warning systems.
    (2) Flight increment. The following requirements apply to the flight 
increment of the practical test:
    (i) The flight increment must be conducted in an aircraft of the 
same category, class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which 
the authorization is sought or in a flight simulator that--
    (A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, 
as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; and
    (B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a 
training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (ii) The flight increment must consist of at least two ILS 
approaches to 100 feet AGL including at least one landing and one missed 
approach.
    (iii) All approaches performed during the flight increment must be 
made with the use of an approved flight control guidance system, except 
if an approved auto approach coupler is installed, at least one approach 
must be hand flown using flight director commands.
    (iv) If a multiengine airplane with the performance capability to 
execute a missed approach with one engine inoperative is used for the 
practical test, the flight increment must include the performance of one 
missed approach with an engine, which shall be the

[[Page 452]]

most critical engine, if applicable, set at idle or zero thrust before 
reaching the middle marker.
    (v) If a multiengine flight simulator or multiengine flight training 
device is used for the practical test, the applicant must execute a 
missed approach with the most critical engine, if applicable, failed.
    (vi) For an authorization for an aircraft that requires a type 
rating, the practical test must be performed in coordination with a 
second in command who holds a type rating in the aircraft in which the 
authorization is sought.
    (vii) Oral questioning may be conducted at any time during a 
practical test.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.68  Category III pilot authorization requirements.

    (a) General. A person who applies for a Category III pilot 
authorization must hold:
    (1) At least a private pilot certificate or commercial pilot 
certificate with an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot 
certificate;
    (2) A type rating for the aircraft for which the authorization is 
sought if that aircraft requires a type rating; and
    (3) A category and class rating for the aircraft for which the 
authorization is sought.
    (b) Experience requirements. An applicant for a Category III pilot 
authorization must have at least--
    (1) 50 hours of night flight time as pilot in command.
    (2) 75 hours of instrument flight time during actual or simulated 
instrument conditions that may include not more than--
    (i) A combination of 25 hours of simulated instrument flight time in 
a flight simulator or flight training device; or
    (ii) 40 hours of simulated instrument flight time if accomplished in 
an approved course conducted by an appropriately rated training center 
certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (3) 250 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command.
    (c) Practical test requirements. (1) A practical test must be passed 
by a person who applies for--
    (i) Issuance or renewal of a Category III pilot authorization; and
    (ii) The addition of another type of aircraft to the applicant's 
Category III pilot authorization.
    (2) To be eligible for the practical test for an authorization under 
this section, an applicant must--
    (i) Meet the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; 
and
    (ii) If the applicant has not passed a practical test for this 
authorization during the 12 calendar months preceding the month of the 
test, then that person must--
    (A) Meet the requirements of Sec. 61.57(c); and
    (B) Have performed at least six ILS approaches during the 6 calendar 
months preceding the month of the test, of which at least three of the 
approaches must have been conducted without the use of an approach 
coupler.
    (3) The approaches specified in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this 
section--
    (i) Must be conducted under actual or simulated instrument flight 
conditions;
    (ii) Must be conducted to the alert height or decision height for 
the ILS approach in the type aircraft in which the practical test is to 
be conducted;
    (iii) Need not be conducted to the decision height authorized for 
Category III operations;
    (iv) Must be conducted to the alert height or decision height, as 
applicable, authorized for Category III operations only if conducted in 
a flight simulator or flight training device; and
    (v) Must be accomplished in an aircraft of the same category and 
class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the practical 
test is to be conducted or in a flight simulator that--
    (A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, 
as applicable, as the aircraft for which the authorization is sought; 
and
    (B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a 
training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (4) The flight time acquired in meeting the requirements of 
paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section may be used to meet the 
requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.

[[Page 453]]

    (d) Practical test procedures. The practical test consists of an 
oral increment and a flight increment.
    (1) Oral increment. In the oral increment of the practical test an 
applicant must demonstrate knowledge of the following:
    (i) Required landing distance;
    (ii) Determination and recognition of the alert height or decision 
height, as applicable, including use of a radar altimeter;
    (iii) Recognition of and proper reaction to significant failures 
encountered prior to and after reaching the alert height or decision 
height, as applicable;
    (iv) Missed approach procedures and techniques using computed or 
fixed attitude guidance displays and expected height loss as they relate 
to manual go-around or automatic go-around, and initiation altitude, as 
applicable;
    (v) Use and limitations of RVR, including determination of 
controlling RVR and required transmissometers;
    (vi) Use, availability, or limitations of visual cues and the 
altitude at which they are normally discernible at reduced RVR readings 
including--
    (A) Unexpected deterioration of conditions to less than minimum RVR 
during approach, flare, and rollout;
    (B) Demonstration of expected visual references with weather at 
minimum conditions;
    (C) The expected sequence of visual cues during an approach in which 
visibility is at or above landing minima; and
    (D) Procedures and techniques for making a transition from 
instrument reference flight to visual flight during a final approach 
under reduced RVR.
    (vii) Effects of vertical and horizontal windshear;
    (viii) Characteristics and limitations of the ILS and runway 
lighting system;
    (ix) Characteristics and limitations of the flight director system 
auto approach coupler (including split axis type if equipped), auto 
throttle system (if equipped), and other Category III equipment;
    (x) Assigned duties of the second in command during Category III 
operations, unless the aircraft for which authorization is sought does 
not require a second in command;
    (xi) Recognition of the limits of acceptable aircraft position and 
flight path tracking during approach, flare, and, if applicable, 
rollout; and
    (xii) Recognition of, and reaction to, airborne or ground system 
faults or abnormalities, particularly after passing alert height or 
decision height, as applicable.
    (2) Flight increment. The following requirements apply to the flight 
increment of the practical test--
    (i) The flight increment may be conducted in an aircraft of the same 
category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft for which 
the authorization is sought, or in a flight simulator that--
    (A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, 
as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; and
    (B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a 
training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (ii) The flight increment must consist of at least two ILS 
approaches to 100 feet AGL, including one landing and one missed 
approach initiated from a very low altitude that may result in a 
touchdown during the go-around maneuver;
    (iii) All approaches performed during the flight increment must be 
made with the approved automatic landing system or an equivalent landing 
system approved by the Administrator;
    (iv) If a multiengine aircraft with the performance capability to 
execute a missed approach with one engine inoperative is used for the 
practical test, the flight increment must include the performance of one 
missed approach with the most critical engine, if applicable, set at 
idle or zero thrust before reaching the middle or outer marker;
    (v) If a multiengine flight simulator or multiengine flight training 
device is used, a missed approach must be executed with an engine, which 
shall be the most critical engine, if applicable, failed;
    (vi) For an authorization for an aircraft that requires a type 
rating, the practical test must be performed in coordination with a 
second in command who holds a type rating in the aircraft in which the 
authorization is sought;

[[Page 454]]

    (vii) Oral questioning may be conducted at any time during the 
practical test;
    (viii) Subject to the limitations of this paragraph, for Category 
IIIb operations predicated on the use of a fail-passive rollout control 
system, at least one manual rollout using visual reference or a 
combination of visual and instrument references must be executed. The 
maneuver required by this paragraph shall be initiated by a fail-passive 
disconnect of the rollout control system--
    (A) After main gear touchdown;
    (B) Prior to nose gear touchdown;
    (C) In conditions representative of the most adverse lateral 
touchdown displacement allowing a safe landing on the runway; and
    (D) In weather conditions anticipated in Category IIIb operations.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.69  Glider and unpowered ultralight vehicle towing: Experience and 

training requirements.

    (a) No person may act as pilot in command for towing a glider or 
unpowered ultralight vehicle unless that person--
    (1) Holds at least a private pilot certificate with a category 
rating for powered aircraft;
    (2) Has logged at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the 
aircraft category, class and type, if required, that the pilot is using 
to tow a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle;
    (3) Has a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who 
certifies that the person has received ground and flight training in 
gliders or unpowered ultralight vehicles and is proficient in--
    (i) The techniques and procedures essential to the safe towing of 
gliders or unpowered ultralight vehicles, including airspeed 
limitations;
    (ii) Emergency procedures;
    (iii) Signals used; and
    (iv) Maximum angles of bank.
    (4) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, has logged 
at least three flights as the sole manipulator of the controls of an 
aircraft towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle simulating 
towing flight procedures while accompanied by a pilot who meets the 
requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section;
    (5) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, has 
received a logbook endorsement from the pilot, described in paragraph 
(a)(4) of this section, certifying that the person has accomplished at 
least 3 flights in an aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered 
ultralight vehicle, or while simulating towing flight procedures; and
    (6) Within the preceding 12 months has--
    (i) Made at least three actual or simulated tows of a glider or 
unpowered ultralight vehicle while accompanied by a qualified pilot who 
meets the requirements of this section; or
    (ii) Made at least three flights as pilot in command of a glider or 
unpowered ultralight vehicle towed by an aircraft.
    (b) Any person who, before May 17, 1967, has made and logged 10 or 
more flights as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider or 
unpowered ultralight vehicle in accordance with a certificate of waiver 
need not comply with paragraphs (a)(4) and (a)(5) of this section.
    (c) The pilot, described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, who 
endorses the logbook of a person seeking towing privileges must have--
    (1) Met the requirements of this section prior to endorsing the 
logbook of the person seeking towing privileges; and
    (2) Logged at least 10 flights as pilot in command of an aircraft 
while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle.
    (d) If the pilot described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section holds 
only a private pilot certificate, then that pilot must have--
    (1) Logged at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in airplanes, 
or 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in a combination of powered and 
other-than-powered aircraft; and
    (2) Performed and logged at least three flights within the 12 
calendar months preceding the month that pilot accompanies or endorses 
the logbook of a person seeking towing privileges--

[[Page 455]]

    (i) In an aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight 
vehicle accompanied by another pilot who meets the requirements of this 
section; or
    (ii) As pilot in command of a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle 
being towed by another aircraft.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44866, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.71  Graduates of an approved training program other than under this 

part: Special rules.

    (a) A person who graduates from an approved training program under 
part 141 or part 142 of this chapter is considered to have met the 
applicable aeronautical experience, aeronautical knowledge, and areas of 
operation requirements of this part if that person presents the 
graduation certificate and passes the required practical test within the 
60-day period after the date of graduation.
    (b) A person may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate, 
type rating, or both under this part, and will be considered to have met 
the applicable requirements under Sec. 61.157 of this part for that 
certificate and rating, if that person has:
    (1) Satisfactorily accomplished an approved training program and the 
pilot-in-command proficiency check for that airplane type, in accordance 
with the pilot-in-command requirements under subparts N and O of part 
121 of this chapter; and
    (2) Applied for the airline transport pilot certificate, type 
rating, or both within the 60-day period from the date the person 
satisfactorily accomplished the approved training program and pilot-in-
command proficiency check for that airplane type.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40901, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.73  Military pilots or former military pilots: Special rules.

    (a) General. Except for a rated military pilot or former rated 
military pilot who has been removed from flying status for lack of 
proficiency, or because of disciplinary action involving aircraft 
operations, a rated military pilot or former rated military pilot who 
meets the applicable requirements of this section may apply, on the 
basis of his or her military training, for:
    (1) A commercial pilot certificate;
    (2) An aircraft rating in the category and class of aircraft for 
which that military pilot is qualified;
    (3) An instrument rating with the appropriate aircraft rating for 
which that military pilot is qualified; or
    (4) A type rating, if appropriate.
    (b) Military pilots on active flying status within the past 12 
months. A rated military pilot or former rated military pilot who has 
been on active flying status within the 12 months before applying must:
    (1) Pass a knowledge test on the appropriate parts of this chapter 
that apply to pilot privileges and limitations, air traffic and general 
operating rules, and accident reporting rules;
    (2) Present documentation showing compliance with the requirements 
of paragraph (d) of this section for at least one aircraft category 
rating; and
    (3) Present documentation showing that the applicant is or was, at 
any time during the 12 calendar months before the month of application--
    (i) A rated military pilot on active flying status in an armed force 
of the United States; or
    (ii) A rated military pilot of an armed force of a foreign 
contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, 
assigned to pilot duties (other than flight training) with an armed 
force of the United States and holds, at the time of application, a 
current civil pilot license issued by that contracting State authorizing 
at least the privileges of the pilot certificate sought.
    (c) Military pilots not on active flying status during the 12 
calendar months before the month of application. A rated military pilot 
or former rated military pilot who has not been on active flying status 
within the 12 calendar months before the month of application must:
    (1) Pass the appropriate knowledge and practical tests prescribed in 
this part for the certificate or rating sought; and
    (2) Present documentation showing that the applicant was, before the 
beginning of the 12th calendar month before the month of application, a 
rated

[[Page 456]]

military pilot as prescribed by paragraph (b)(3)(i) or paragraph 
(b)(3)(ii) of this section.
    (d) Aircraft category, class, and type ratings. A rated military 
pilot or former rated military pilot who applies for an aircraft 
category, class, or type rating, if applicable, is issued that rating at 
the commercial pilot certificate level if the pilot presents documentary 
evidence that shows satisfactory accomplishment of:
    (1) An official U.S. military pilot check and instrument proficiency 
check in that aircraft category, class, or type, if applicable, as pilot 
in command during the 12 calendar months before the month of 
application;
    (2) At least 10 hours of pilot-in-command time in that aircraft 
category, class, or type, if applicable, during the 12 calendar months 
before the month of application; or
    (3) An FAA practical test in that aircraft after--
    (i) Meeting the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this 
section; and
    (ii) Having received an endorsement from an authorized instructor 
who certifies that the pilot is proficient to take the required 
practical test, and that endorsement is made within the 60-day period 
preceding the date of the practical test.
    (e) Instrument rating. A rated military pilot or former rated 
military pilot who applies for an airplane instrument rating, a 
helicopter instrument rating, or a powered-lift instrument rating to be 
added to his or her commercial pilot certificate may apply for an 
instrument rating if the pilot has, within the 12 calendar months 
preceding the month of application:
    (1) Passed an instrument proficiency check by a U.S. Armed Force in 
the aircraft category for the instrument rating sought; and
    (2) Received authorization from a U.S. Armed Force to conduct IFR 
flights on Federal airways in that aircraft category and class for the 
instrument rating sought.
    (f) Aircraft type rating. An aircraft type rating is issued only for 
aircraft types that the Administrator has certificated for civil 
operations.
    (g) Aircraft type rating placed on an airline transport pilot 
certificate. A rated military pilot or former rated military pilot who 
holds an airline transport pilot certificate and who requests an 
aircraft type rating to be placed on that person's airline transport 
pilot certificate may be issued that aircraft type rating at the airline 
transport pilot certificate level, provided that person:
    (1) Holds a category and class rating for that type of aircraft at 
the airline transport pilot certificate level; and
    (2) Passed an official U.S. military pilot check and instrument 
proficiency check in that type of aircraft as pilot in command during 
the 12 calendar months before the month of application.
    (h) Evidentiary documents. The following documents are satisfactory 
evidence for the purposes indicated:
    (1) An official identification card issued to the pilot by an armed 
force may be used to demonstrate membership in the armed forces.
    (2) An original or a copy of a certificate of discharge or release 
may be used to demonstrate discharge or release from an armed force or 
former membership in an armed force.
    (3) Current or previous status as a rated military pilot with a U.S. 
Armed Force may be demonstrated by--
    (i) An official U.S. Armed Force order to flight status as a 
military pilot;
    (ii) An official U.S. Armed Force form or logbook showing military 
pilot status; or
    (iii) An official order showing that the rated military pilot 
graduated from a U.S. military pilot school and received a rating as a 
military pilot.
    (4) A certified U.S. Armed Force logbook or an appropriate official 
U.S. Armed Force form or summary may be used to demonstrate flight time 
in military aircraft as a member of a U.S. Armed Force.
    (5) An official U.S. Armed Force record of a military checkout as 
pilot in command may be used to demonstrate pilot in command status.
    (6) A current instrument grade slip that is issued by a U.S. Armed 
Force, or an official record of satisfactory accomplishment of an 
instrument proficiency check during the 12 calendar

[[Page 457]]

months preceding the month of the application may be used to demonstrate 
instrument pilot qualification.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40901, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.75  Private pilot certificate issued on the basis of a foreign pilot 

license.

    (a) General. A person who holds a current foreign pilot license 
issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil 
Aviation may apply for and be issued a private pilot certificate with 
the appropriate ratings when the application is based on the foreign 
pilot license that meets the requirements of this section.
    (b) Certificate issued. A U.S. private pilot certificate that is 
issued under this section shall specify the person's foreign license 
number and country of issuance. A person who holds a current foreign 
pilot license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on 
International Civil Aviation may be issued a private pilot certificate 
based on the foreign pilot license without any further showing of 
proficiency, provided the applicant:
    (1) Meets the requirements of this section;
    (2) Holds a foreign pilot license that--
    (i) Is not under an order of revocation or suspension by the foreign 
country that issued the foreign pilot license; and
    (ii) Does not contain an endorsement stating that the applicant has 
not met all of the standards of ICAO for that license;
    (3) Does not currently hold a U.S. pilot certificate;
    (4) Holds a current medical certificate issued under part 67 of this 
chapter or a current medical certificate issued by the country that 
issued the person's foreign pilot license; and
    (5) Is able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for 
the safe operation of the aircraft.
    (c) Aircraft ratings issued. Aircraft ratings listed on a person's 
foreign pilot license, in addition to any issued after testing under the 
provisions of this part, may be placed on that person's U.S. pilot 
certificate.
    (d) Instrument ratings issued. A person who holds an instrument 
rating on the foreign pilot license issued by a contracting State to the 
Convention on International Civil Aviation may be issued an instrument 
rating on a U.S. private pilot certificate provided:
    (1) The person's foreign pilot license authorizes instrument 
privileges;
    (2) Within 24 months preceding the month in which the person applies 
for the instrument rating, the person passes the appropriate knowledge 
test; and
    (3) The person is able to read, speak, write, and understand the 
English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these 
requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place 
such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are 
necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft.
    (e) Operating privileges and limitations. A person who receives a 
U.S. private pilot certificate that has been issued under the provisions 
of this section:
    (1) May act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry in 
accordance with the private pilot privileges authorized by this part;
    (2) Is limited to the privileges placed on the certificate by the 
Administrator;
    (3) Is subject to the limitations and restrictions on the person's 
U.S. certificate and foreign pilot license when exercising the 
privileges of that U.S. pilot certificate in an aircraft of U.S. 
registry operating within or outside the United States; and
    (4) Shall not exercise the privileges of that U.S. private pilot 
certificate when the person's foreign pilot license has been revoked or 
suspended.
    (f) Limitation on licenses used as the basis for a U.S. certificate. 
Only one foreign pilot license may be used as a basis for issuing a U.S. 
private pilot certificate. The foreign pilot license and medical 
certification used as a basis for issuing a U.S. private pilot 
certificate under this section must be

[[Page 458]]

in the English language or accompanied by an English language 
transcription that has been signed by an official or representative of 
the foreign aviation authority that issued the foreign pilot license.
    (g) Limitation placed on a U.S. private pilot certificate. A U.S. 
private pilot certificate issued under this section is valid only when 
the holder has the foreign pilot license upon which the issuance of the 
U.S. private pilot certificate was based in the holder's personal 
possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.



Sec. 61.77  Special purpose pilot authorization: Operation of U.S.-registered 

civil aircraft leased by a person who is not a U.S. citizen.

    (a) General. The holder of a foreign pilot license issued by a 
contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation who 
meets the requirements of this section may be issued a special purpose 
pilot authorization by the Administrator for the purpose of performing 
pilot duties--
    (1) On a civil aircraft of U.S. registry that is leased to a person 
who is not a citizen of the United States, and
    (2) For carrying persons or property for compensation or hire on 
that aircraft.
    (b) Eligibility. To be eligible for the issuance or renewal of a 
special purpose pilot authorization, an applicant must present the 
following to an FAA Flight Standards District Office:
    (1) A current foreign pilot license that has been issued by the 
aeronautical authority of a contracting State to the Convention on 
International Civil Aviation from which the person holds citizenship or 
resident status and that contains the appropriate aircraft category, 
class, instrument rating, and type rating, if appropriate, for the 
aircraft to be flown;
    (2) A current certification by the lessee of the aircraft--
    (i) Stating that the applicant is employed by the lessee;
    (ii) Specifying the aircraft type on which the applicant will 
perform pilot duties; and
    (iii) Stating that the applicant has received ground and flight 
instruction that qualifies the applicant to perform the duties to be 
assigned on the aircraft.
    (3) Documentation showing when the applicant will reach the age of 
60 years (an official copy of the applicant's birth certificate or other 
official documentation);
    (4) Documentation that the applicant meets the medical standards for 
the issuance of the foreign pilot license from the aeronautical 
authority of the contracting State to the Convention on International 
Civil Aviation where the applicant holds citizenship or resident status;
    (5) Documentation that the applicant meets the recent flight 
experience requirements of this part (a logbook or flight record); and
    (6) A statement that the applicant does not already hold a special 
purpose pilot authorization; however, if the applicant already holds a 
special purpose pilot authorization, then that special purpose pilot 
authorization must be surrendered to either the FAA Flight Standards 
District Office that issued it, or the FAA Flight Standards District 
Office processing the application for the authorization, prior to being 
issued another special purpose pilot authorization.
    (c) Privileges. A person issued a special purpose pilot 
authorization under this section--
    (1) May exercise the privileges prescribed on the special purpose 
pilot authorization; and
    (2) Must comply with the limitations specified in this section and 
any additional limitations specified on the special purpose pilot 
authorization.
    (d) General limitations. A special purpose pilot authorization is 
valid only--
    (1) For flights between foreign countries or for flights in foreign 
air commerce within the time period allotted on the authorization;
    (2) If the foreign pilot license required by paragraph (b)(1) of 
this section, the medical documentation required by paragraph (b)(4) of 
this section, and the special purpose pilot authorization issued under 
this section are in the holder's physical possession or immediately 
accessible in the aircraft;

[[Page 459]]

    (3) While the holder is employed by the person to whom the aircraft 
described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this 
section is leased;
    (4) While the holder is performing pilot duties on the U.S.-
registered aircraft described in the certification required by paragraph 
(b)(2) of this section; and
    (5) If the holder has only one special purpose pilot authorization 
as provided in paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
    (e) Age limitation. Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this 
section, no person who holds a special purpose pilot authorization 
issued under this part, and no person who holds a special purpose pilot 
certificate issued under this part before August 4, 1997, shall serve as 
a pilot on a civil airplane of U.S. registry if the person has reached 
his or her 60th birthday, in the following operations:
    (1) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in 
turbojet-powered airplanes;
    (2) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in 
airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than nine 
passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat;
    (3) Nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation 
or hire in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than 
30 passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat; or
    (4) Scheduled international air services, or nonscheduled 
international air transportation for compensation or hire, in airplanes 
having a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds.
    (f) Definitions. (1) International air service, as used in paragraph 
(e) of this section, means scheduled air service performed in airplanes 
for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the 
service passes through the air space over the territory of more than one 
country.
    (2) International air transportation, as used in paragraph (e) of 
this section, means air transportation performed in airplanes for the 
public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which service passes 
through the air space over the territory of more than one country.
    (g) Delayed pilot age limitations for certain operations. Until 
December 20, 1999, a person may serve as a pilot in the operations 
specified in paragraph (e) of this section after that person has reached 
his or her 60th birthday, if, on March 20, 1997, that person was 
employed as a pilot in any of the following operations:
    (1) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in 
nontransport category turbopropeller-powered airplanes type certificated 
after December 31, 1964, that have a passenger-seat configuration of 10 
to 19 seats;
    (2) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in 
transport category turbopropeller-powered airplanes that have a 
passenger-seat configuration of 20 to 30 seats; or
    (3) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in 
turbojet-powered airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of 1 to 
30 seats.
    (h) Expiration date. Each special purpose pilot authorization issued 
under this section expires--
    (1) 60 calendar months from the month it was issued, unless sooner 
suspended or revoked;
    (2) When the lease agreement for the aircraft expires or the lessee 
terminates the employment of the person who holds the special purpose 
pilot authorization;
    (3) Whenever the person's foreign pilot license has been suspended, 
revoked, or is no longer valid; or
    (4) When the person no longer meets the medical standards for the 
issuance of the foreign pilot license.
    (i) Renewal. A person exercising the privileges of a special purpose 
pilot authorization may apply for a 60-calendar-month extension of that 
authorization, provided the person--
    (1) Continues to meet the requirements of this section; and
    (2) Surrenders the expired special purpose pilot authorization upon 
receipt of the new authorization.
    (j) Surrender. The holder of a special purpose pilot authorization 
must surrender the authorization to the Administrator within 7 days 
after the date the authorization terminates.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40901, July 30, 1997]

[[Page 460]]



                        Subpart C_Student Pilots



Sec. 61.81  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of student 
pilot certificates, the conditions under which those certificates are 
necessary, and the general operating rules and limitations for the 
holders of those certificates.



Sec. 61.83  Eligibility requirements for student pilots.

    To be eligible for a student pilot certificate, an applicant must:
    (a) Be at least 16 years of age for other than the operation of a 
glider or balloon.
    (b) Be at least 14 years of age for the operation of a glider or 
balloon.
    (c) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for 
the safe operation of the aircraft.



Sec. 61.85  Application.

    An application for a student pilot certificate is made on a form and 
in a manner provided by the Administrator and is submitted to:
    (a) A designated aviation medical examiner if applying for an FAA 
medical certificate under part 67 of this chapter;
    (b) An examiner; or
    (c) A Flight Standards District Office.



Sec. 61.87  Solo requirements for student pilots.

    (a) General. A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo 
flight unless that student has met the requirements of this section. The 
term ``solo flight'' as used in this subpart means that flight time 
during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft or 
that flight time during which the student performs the duties of a pilot 
in command of a gas balloon or an airship requiring more than one pilot 
flight crewmember.
    (b) Aeronautical knowledge. A student pilot must demonstrate 
satisfactory aeronautical knowledge on a knowledge test that meets the 
requirements of this paragraph:
    (1) The test must address the student pilot's knowledge of--
    (i) Applicable sections of parts 61 and 91 of this chapter;
    (ii) Airspace rules and procedures for the airport where the solo 
flight will be performed; and
    (iii) Flight characteristics and operational limitations for the 
make and model of aircraft to be flown.
    (2) The student's authorized instructor must--
    (i) Administer the test; and
    (ii) At the conclusion of the test, review all incorrect answers 
with the student before authorizing that student to conduct a solo 
flight.
    (c) Pre-solo flight training. Prior to conducting a solo flight, a 
student pilot must have:
    (1) Received and logged flight training for the maneuvers and 
procedures of this section that are appropriate to the make and model of 
aircraft to be flown; and
    (2) Demonstrated satisfactory proficiency and safety, as judged by 
an authorized instructor, on the maneuvers and procedures required by 
this section in the make and model of aircraft or similar make and model 
of aircraft to be flown.
    (d) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
single-engine airplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for a 
single-engine airplane rating or privileges must receive and log flight 
training for the following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;
    (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;
    (5) Climbs and climbing turns;
    (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure 
procedures;
    (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance;

[[Page 461]]

    (8) Descents, with and without turns, using high and low drag 
configurations;
    (9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight;
    (10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power 
combinations with recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, 
and recovery from a full stall;
    (11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;
    (12) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (13) Approaches to a landing area with simulated engine 
malfunctions;
    (14) Slips to a landing; and
    (15) Go-arounds.
    (e) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
multiengine airplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for a 
multiengine airplane rating must receive and log flight training for the 
following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;
    (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;
    (5) Climbs and climbing turns;
    (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure 
procedures;
    (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance;
    (8) Descents, with and without turns, using high and low drag 
configurations;
    (9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight;
    (10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power 
combinations with recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, 
and recovery from a full stall;
    (11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;
    (12) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (13) Approaches to a landing area with simulated engine 
malfunctions; and
    (14) Go-arounds.
    (f) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
helicopter. A student pilot who is receiving training for a helicopter 
rating must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers 
and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;
    (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;
    (5) Climbs and climbing turns;
    (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure 
procedures;
    (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance;
    (8) Descents with and without turns;
    (9) Flight at various airspeeds;
    (10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;
    (11) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (12) Approaches to the landing area;
    (13) Hovering and hovering turns;
    (14) Go-arounds;
    (15) Simulated emergency procedures, including autorotational 
descents with a power recovery and power recovery to a hover;
    (16) Rapid decelerations; and
    (17) Simulated one-engine-inoperative approaches and landings for 
multiengine helicopters.
    (g) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
gyroplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for a gyroplane 
rating or privileges must receive and log flight training for the 
following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;
    (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;
    (5) Climbs and climbing turns;
    (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure 
procedures;
    (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance;
    (8) Descents with and without turns;
    (9) Flight at various airspeeds;

[[Page 462]]

    (10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;
    (11) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (12) Approaches to the landing area;
    (13) High rates of descent with power on and with simulated power 
off, and recovery from those flight configurations;
    (14) Go-arounds; and
    (15) Simulated emergency procedures, including simulated power-off 
landings and simulated power failure during departures.
    (h) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
powered-lift. A student pilot who is receiving training for a powered-
lift rating must receive and log flight training in the following 
maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;
    (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;
    (5) Climbs and climbing turns;
    (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure 
procedures;
    (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance;
    (8) Descents with and without turns;
    (9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight;
    (10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power 
combinations with recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, 
and recovery from a full stall;
    (11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;
    (12) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (13) Approaches to a landing with simulated engine malfunctions;
    (14) Go-arounds;
    (15) Approaches to the landing area;
    (16) Hovering and hovering turns; and
    (17) For multiengine powered-lifts, simulated one-engine-inoperative 
approaches and landings.
    (i) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
glider. A student pilot who is receiving training for a glider rating or 
privileges must receive and log flight training for the following 
maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning, preparation, aircraft systems, and, if appropriate, powerplant 
operations;
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups, if applicable;
    (3) Launches, including normal and crosswind;
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions, if 
applicable;
    (5) Airport traffic patterns, including entry procedures;
    (6) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance;
    (7) Descents with and without turns using high and low drag 
configurations;
    (8) Flight at various airspeeds;
    (9) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;
    (10) Ground reference maneuvers, if applicable;
    (11) Inspection of towline rigging and review of signals and release 
procedures, if applicable;
    (12) Aerotow, ground tow, or self-launch procedures;
    (13) Procedures for disassembly and assembly of the glider;
    (14) Stall entry, stall, and stall recovery;
    (15) Straight glides, turns, and spirals;
    (16) Landings, including normal and crosswind;
    (17) Slips to a landing;
    (18) Procedures and techniques for thermalling; and
    (19) Emergency operations, including towline break procedures.
    (j) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in an 
airship. A student pilot who is receiving training for an airship rating 
or privileges must receive and log flight training for the following 
maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;
    (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;
    (5) Climbs and climbing turns;

[[Page 463]]

    (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure 
procedures;
    (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance;
    (8) Descents with and without turns;
    (9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight;
    (10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;
    (11) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (12) Rigging, ballasting, and controlling pressure in the ballonets, 
and superheating; and
    (13) Landings with positive and with negative static trim.
    (k) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
balloon. A student pilot who is receiving training in a balloon must 
receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and 
procedures:
    (1) Layout and assembly procedures;
    (2) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, and aircraft systems;
    (3) Ascents and descents;
    (4) Landing and recovery procedures;
    (5) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;
    (6) Operation of hot air or gas source, ballast, valves, vents, and 
rip panels, as appropriate;
    (7) Use of deflation valves or rip panels for simulating an 
emergency;
    (8) The effects of wind on climb and approach angles; and
    (9) Obstruction detection and avoidance techniques.
    (l) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
powered parachute. A student pilot who is receiving training for a 
powered parachute rating or privileges must receive and log flight 
training for the following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, preflight assembly and rigging, aircraft 
systems, and powerplant operations.
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including run-ups.
    (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind.
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions.
    (5) Climbs, and climbing turns in both directions.
    (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure 
procedures.
    (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance.
    (8) Descents, and descending turns in both directions.
    (9) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions.
    (10) Ground reference maneuvers.
    (11) Straight glides, and gliding turns in both directions.
    (12) Go-arounds.
    (13) Approaches to landing areas with a simulated engine 
malfunction.
    (14) Procedures for canopy packing and aircraft disassembly.
    (m) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a 
weight-shift-control aircraft. A student pilot who is receiving training 
for a weight-shift-control aircraft rating or privileges must receive 
and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight 
planning and preparation, preflight assembly and rigging, aircraft 
systems, and powerplant operations.
    (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including run-ups.
    (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind.
    (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions.
    (5) Climbs, and climbing turns in both directions.
    (6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure 
procedures.
    (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence 
avoidance.
    (8) Descents, and descending turns in both directions.
    (9) Flight at various airspeeds from maximum cruise to slow flight.
    (10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions.
    (11) Ground reference maneuvers.
    (12) Stall entry, stall, and stall recovery.
    (13) Straight glides, and gliding turns in both directions.
    (14) Go-arounds.
    (15) Approaches to landing areas with a simulated engine 
malfunction.
    (16) Procedures for disassembly.
    (n) Limitations on student pilots operating an aircraft in solo 
flight. A student

[[Page 464]]

pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that student 
pilot has received:
    (1) An endorsement from an authorized instructor on his or her 
student pilot certificate for the specific make and model aircraft to be 
flown; and
    (2) An endorsement in the student's logbook for the specific make 
and model aircraft to be flown by an authorized instructor, who gave the 
training within the 90 days preceding the date of the flight.
    (o) Limitations on student pilots operating an aircraft in solo 
flight at night. A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo 
flight at night unless that student pilot has received:
    (1) Flight training at night on night flying procedures that 
includes takeoffs, approaches, landings, and go-arounds at night at the 
airport where the solo flight will be conducted;
    (2) Navigation training at night in the vicinity of the airport 
where the solo flight will be conducted; and
    (3) An endorsement in the student's logbook for the specific make 
and model aircraft to be flown for night solo flight by an authorized 
instructor who gave the training within the 90-day period preceding the 
date of the flight.
    (p) Limitations on flight instructors authorizing solo flight. (1) 
No instructor may authorize a student pilot to perform a solo flight 
unless that instructor has--
    (i) Given that student pilot training in the make and model of 
aircraft or a similar make and model of aircraft in which the solo 
flight is to be flown;
    (ii) Determined the student pilot is proficient in the maneuvers and 
procedures prescribed in this section;
    (iii) Determined the student pilot is proficient in the make and 
model of aircraft to be flown;
    (iv) Ensured that the student pilot's certificate has been endorsed 
by an instructor authorized to provide flight training for the specific 
make and model aircraft to be flown; and
    (v) Endorsed the student pilot's logbook for the specific make and 
model aircraft to be flown, and that endorsement remains current for 
solo flight privileges, provided an authorized instructor updates the 
student's logbook every 90 days thereafter.
    (2) The flight training required by this section must be given by an 
instructor authorized to provide flight training who is appropriately 
rated and current.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44866, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.89  General limitations.

    (a) A student pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft:
    (1) That is carrying a passenger;
    (2) That is carrying property for compensation or hire;
    (3) For compensation or hire;
    (4) In furtherance of a business;
    (5) On an international flight, except that a student pilot may make 
solo training flights from Haines, Gustavus, or Juneau, Alaska, to White 
Horse, Yukon, Canada, and return over the province of British Columbia;
    (6) With a flight or surface visibility of less than 3 statute miles 
during daylight hours or 5 statute miles at night;
    (7) When the flight cannot be made with visual reference to the 
surface; or
    (8) In a manner contrary to any limitations placed in the pilot's 
logbook by an authorized instructor.
    (b) A student pilot may not act as a required pilot flight 
crewmember on any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by 
the type certificate of the aircraft or regulations under which the 
flight is conducted, except when receiving flight training from an 
authorized instructor on board an airship, and no person other than a 
required flight crewmember is carried on the aircraft.
    (c) A student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate must comply 
with the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and may 
not act as pilot in command--
    (1) Of an aircraft other than a light-sport aircraft;
    (2) At night;
    (3) At an altitude of more than 10,000 feet MSL; and
    (4) In Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, 
C, or D airspace, and to, from, through, or on

[[Page 465]]

an airport having an operational control tower without having received 
the ground and flight training specified in Sec. 61.94 and an 
endorsement from an authorized instructor.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44867, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.91  [Reserved]



Sec. 61.93  Solo cross-country flight requirements.

    (a) General. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this 
section, a student pilot must meet the requirements of this section 
before--
    (i) Conducting a solo cross-country flight, or any flight greater 
than 25 nautical miles from the airport from where the flight 
originated.
    (ii) Making a solo flight and landing at any location other than the 
airport of origination.
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a student 
pilot who seeks solo cross-country flight privileges must:
    (i) Have received flight training from an instructor authorized to 
provide flight training on the maneuvers and procedures of this section 
that are appropriate to the make and model of aircraft for which solo 
cross-country privileges are sought;
    (ii) Have demonstrated cross-country proficiency on the appropriate 
maneuvers and procedures of this section to an authorized instructor;
    (iii) Have satisfactorily accomplished the pre-solo flight maneuvers 
and procedures required by Sec. 61.87 of this part in the make and 
model of aircraft or similar make and model of aircraft for which solo 
cross-country privileges are sought; and
    (iv) Comply with any limitations included in the authorized 
instructor's endorsement that are required by paragraph (c) of this 
section.
    (3) A student pilot who seeks solo cross-country flight privileges 
must have received ground and flight training from an authorized 
instructor on the cross-country maneuvers and procedures listed in this 
section that are appropriate to the aircraft to be flown.
    (b) Authorization to perform certain solo flights and cross-country 
flights. A student pilot must obtain an endorsement from an authorized 
instructor to make solo flights from the airport where the student pilot 
normally receives training to another location. A student pilot who 
receives this endorsement must comply with the requirements of this 
paragraph.
    (1) Solo flights may be made to another airport that is within 25 
nautical miles from the airport where the student pilot normally 
receives training, provided--
    (i) An authorized instructor has given the student pilot flight 
training at the other airport, and that training includes flight in both 
directions over the route, entering and exiting the traffic pattern, and 
takeoffs and landings at the other airport;
    (ii) The authorized instructor who gave the training endorses the 
student pilot's logbook authorizing the flight;
    (iii) The student pilot has current solo flight endorsements in 
accordance with Sec. 61.87 of this part;
    (iv) The authorized instructor has determined that the student pilot 
is proficient to make the flight; and
    (v) The purpose of the flight is to practice takeoffs and landings 
at that other airport.
    (2) Repeated specific solo cross-country flights may be made to 
another airport that is within 50 nautical miles of the airport from 
which the flight originated, provided--
    (i) The authorized instructor has given the student flight training 
in both directions over the route, including entering and exiting the 
traffic patterns, takeoffs, and landings at the airports to be used;
    (ii) The authorized instructor who gave the training has endorsed 
the student's logbook certifying that the student is proficient to make 
such flights;
    (iii) The student has current solo flight endorsements in accordance 
with Sec. 61.87 of this part; and
    (iv) The student has current solo cross-country flight endorsements 
in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section; however, for repeated 
solo cross-country flights to another airport within 50 nautical miles 
from which the flight originated, separate endorsements are not required 
to be made for each flight.

[[Page 466]]

    (c) Endorsements for solo cross-country flights. Except as specified 
in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a student pilot must have the 
endorsements prescribed in this paragraph for each cross-country flight:
    (1) Student pilot certificate endorsement. A student pilot must have 
a solo cross-country endorsement from the authorized instructor who 
conducted the training, and that endorsement must be placed on that 
person's student pilot certificate for the specific category of aircraft 
to be flown.
    (2) Logbook endorsement. (i) A student pilot must have a solo cross-
country endorsement from an authorized instructor that is placed in the 
student pilot's logbook for the specific make and model of aircraft to 
be flown.
    (ii) For each cross-country flight, the authorized instructor who 
reviews the cross-country planning must make an endorsement in the 
person's logbook after reviewing that person's cross-country planning, 
as specified in paragraph (d) of this section. The endorsement must--
    (A) Specify the make and model of aircraft to be flown;
    (B) State that the student's preflight planning and preparation is 
correct and that the student is prepared to make the flight safely under 
the known conditions; and
    (C) State that any limitations required by the student's authorized 
instructor are met.
    (d) Limitations on authorized instructors to permit solo cross-
country flights. An authorized instructor may not permit a student pilot 
to conduct a solo cross-country flight unless that instructor has:
    (1) Determined that the student's cross-country planning is correct 
for the flight;
    (2) Reviewed the current and forecast weather conditions and has 
determined that the flight can be completed under VFR;
    (3) Determined that the student is proficient to conduct the flight 
safely;
    (4) Determined that the student has the appropriate solo cross-
country endorsement for the make and model of aircraft to be flown; and
    (5) Determined that the student's solo flight endorsement is current 
for the make and model aircraft to be flown.
    (e) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a 
single-engine airplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for 
cross-country flight in a single-engine airplane must receive and log 
flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight;
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight;
    (4) Emergency procedures;
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown;
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications;
    (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications;
    (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures, including short-
field, soft-field, and crosswind takeoffs, approaches, and landings;
    (11) Climbs at best angle and best rate; and
    (12) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight 
instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, 
climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives.
    (f) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a 
multiengine airplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for 
cross-country flight in a multiengine airplane must receive and log 
flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:

[[Page 467]]

    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight;
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight;
    (4) Emergency procedures;
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown;
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications;
    (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications;
    (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures, including short-
field, soft-field, and crosswind takeoffs, approaches, and landings;
    (11) Climbs at best angle and best rate; and
    (12) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight 
instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, 
climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives.
    (g) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a 
helicopter. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country 
flight in a helicopter must receive and log flight training for the 
following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight;
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight;
    (4) Emergency procedures;
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown;
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications;
    (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications; and
    (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures.
    (h) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a 
gyroplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country 
flight in a gyroplane must receive and log flight training in the 
following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight;
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight;
    (4) Emergency procedures;
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown;
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in

[[Page 468]]

the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications;
    (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications; and
    (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures, including short-
field and soft-field takeoffs, approaches, and landings.
    (i) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a 
powered-lift. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-
country flight training in a powered-lift must receive and log flight 
training in the following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight;
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight;
    (4) Emergency procedures;
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown;
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications;
    (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications;
    (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures that include high-
altitude, steep, and shallow takeoffs, approaches, and landings; and
    (11) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight 
instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, 
climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives.
    (j) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a 
glider. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country 
flight in a glider must receive and log flight training in the following 
maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight;
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight;
    (4) Emergency procedures;
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown;
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications;
    (9) Landings accomplished without the use of the altimeter from at 
least 2,000 feet above the surface; and
    (10) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions favorable for 
cross-country soaring, ascending and descending flight, and altitude 
control.
    (k) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in an 
airship. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country 
flight in an airship must receive and log flight training for the 
following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight;
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight;

[[Page 469]]

    (4) Emergency procedures;
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown;
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications;
    (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications;
    (10) Control of air pressure with regard to ascending and descending 
flight and altitude control;
    (11) Control of the airship solely by reference to flight 
instruments; and
    (12) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions conducive for 
the direction of cross-country flight.
    (l) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a 
powered parachute. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-
country flight in a powered parachute must receive and log flight 
training in the following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass, as appropriate.
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight.
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognizing critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight.
    (4) Emergency procedures.
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach.
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance.
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown.
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications.
    (9) If equipped for flight with navigation radios, the use of radios 
for VFR navigation.
    (10) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions favorable for 
the cross-country flight.
    (11) Takeoff, approach and landing procedures.
    (m) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a 
weight-shift-control aircraft. A student pilot who is receiving training 
for cross-country flight in a weight-shift-control aircraft must receive 
and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:
    (1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and 
dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass, as appropriate.
    (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country 
flight.
    (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and 
forecasts, including recognizing critical weather situations and 
estimating visibility while in flight.
    (4) Emergency procedures.
    (5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area 
arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach.
    (6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake 
turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance.
    (7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of 
hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-
country flight will be flown.
    (8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed 
in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper 
operational procedures and indications.
    (9) If equipped for flight using navigation radios, the use of 
radios for VFR navigation.
    (10) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions favorable for 
the cross-country flight.

[[Page 470]]

    (11) Takeoff, approach and landing procedures, including crosswind 
approaches and landings.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44867, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.94  Student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate or a recreational 

pilot certificate: Operations at airports within, and in airspace located 

within, Class B, C, and D airspace, or at airports with an operational 

control tower in other airspace.

    (a) A student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate or a 
recreational pilot certificate who wants to obtain privileges to operate 
in Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D 
airspace, and to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational 
control tower, must receive and log ground and flight training from an 
authorized instructor in the following aeronautical knowledge areas and 
areas of operation:
    (1) The use of radios, communications, navigation systems and 
facilities, and radar services.
    (2) Operations at airports with an operating control tower, to 
include three takeoffs and landings to a full stop, with each landing 
involving a flight in the traffic pattern, at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (3) Applicable flight rules of part 91 of this chapter for 
operations in Class B, C, and D airspace and air traffic control 
clearances.
    (4) Ground and flight training for the specific Class B, C, or D 
airspace for which the solo flight is authorized, if applicable, within 
the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight in that airspace. The 
flight training must be received in the specific airspace area for which 
solo flight is authorized.
    (5) Ground and flight training for the specific airport located in 
Class B, C, or D airspace for which the solo flight is authorized, if 
applicable, within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight at 
that airport. The flight and ground training must be received at the 
specific airport for which solo flight is authorized.
    (b) The authorized instructor who provides the training specified in 
paragraph (a) of this section must provide a logbook endorsement that 
certifies the student has received that training and is proficient to 
conduct solo flight in that specific airspace or at that specific 
airport and in those aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation 
specified in this section.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44867, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.95  Operations in Class B airspace and at airports located within 

Class B airspace.

    (a) A student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight in 
Class B airspace unless:
    (1) The student pilot has received both ground and flight training 
from an authorized instructor on that Class B airspace area, and the 
flight training was received in the specific Class B airspace area for 
which solo flight is authorized;
    (2) The logbook of that student pilot has been endorsed by the 
authorized instructor who gave the student pilot flight training, and 
the endorsement is dated within the 90-day period preceding the date of 
the flight in that Class B airspace area; and
    (3) The logbook endorsement specifies that the student pilot has 
received the required ground and flight training, and has been found 
proficient to conduct solo flight in that specific Class B airspace 
area.
    (b) A student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight to, 
from, or at an airport located within Class B airspace pursuant to Sec. 
91.131(b) of this chapter unless:
    (1) The student pilot has received both ground and flight training 
from an instructor authorized to provide training to operate at that 
airport, and the flight and ground training has been received at the 
specific airport for which the solo flight is authorized;
    (2) The logbook of that student pilot has been endorsed by an 
authorized instructor who gave the student pilot flight training, and 
the endorsement is dated within the 90-day period preceding the date of 
the flight at that airport; and
    (3) The logbook endorsement specifies that the student pilot has 
received the required ground and flight training, and has been found 
proficient to

[[Page 471]]

conduct solo flight operations at that specific airport.
    (c) This section does not apply to a student pilot seeking a sport 
pilot certificate or a recreational pilot certificate.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004]



                      Subpart D_Recreational Pilots



Sec. 61.96  Applicability and eligibility requirements: General.

    (a) This subpart prescribes the requirement for the issuance of 
recreational pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which 
those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating 
rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings.
    (b) To be eligible for a recreational pilot certificate, a person 
who applies for that certificate must:
    (1) Be at least 17 years of age;
    (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for 
the safe operation of the aircraft;
    (3) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor 
who--
    (i) Conducted the training or reviewed the applicant's home study on 
the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in Sec. 61.97(b) of this part 
that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and
    (ii) Certified that the applicant is prepared for the required 
knowledge test.
    (4) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas listed in Sec. 61.97(b) of this part;
    (5) Receive flight training and a logbook endorsement from an 
authorized instructor who--
    (i) Conducted the training on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.98(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class 
rating sought; and
    (ii) Certified that the applicant is prepared for the required 
practical test.
    (6) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of Sec. 61.99 of 
this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought 
before applying for the practical test;
    (7) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation 
listed in Sec. 61.98(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft 
category and class rating sought; and
    (8) Comply with the sections of this part that apply to the aircraft 
category and class rating sought.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.97  Aeronautical knowledge.

    (a) General. A person who applies for a recreational pilot 
certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized 
instructor or complete a home-study course on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the aircraft 
category and class rating sought.
    (b) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation 
Regulations of this chapter that relate to recreational pilot 
privileges, limitations, and flight operations;
    (2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation 
Safety Board;
    (3) Use of the applicable portions of the ``Aeronautical Information 
Manual'' and FAA advisory circulars;
    (4) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage 
with the aid of a magnetic compass;
    (5) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and 
in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of 
aeronautical weather reports and forecasts;
    (6) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision 
avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence;
    (7) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance;
    (8) Weight and balance computations;
    (9) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems;
    (10) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery 
techniques, if applying for an airplane single-engine rating;
    (11) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and
    (12) Preflight action that includes--

[[Page 472]]

    (i) How to obtain information on runway lengths at airports of 
intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and 
forecasts, and fuel requirements; and
    (ii) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be 
completed or delays are encountered.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.98  Flight proficiency.

    (a) General. A person who applies for a recreational pilot 
certificate must receive and log ground and flight training from an 
authorized instructor on the areas of operation of this section that 
apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.
    (b) Areas of operation. (1) For a single-engine airplane rating: (i) 
Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Slow flight and stalls;
    (ix) Emergency operations; and
    (x) Postflight procedures.
    (2) For a helicopter rating: (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and heliport operations;
    (iv) Hovering maneuvers;
    (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (vi) Performance maneuvers;
    (vii) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (viii) Navigation;
    (ix) Emergency operations; and
    (x) Postflight procedures.
    (3) For a gyroplane rating: (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Flight at slow airspeeds;
    (ix) Emergency operations; and
    (x) Postflight procedures.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.99  Aeronautical experience.

    A person who applies for a recreational pilot certificate must 
receive and log at least 30 hours of flight time that includes at 
least--
    (a) 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor on the 
areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.98 of this part that consists of 
at least:
    (1) Except as provided in Sec. 61.100 of this part, 2 hours of 
flight training en route to an airport that is located more than 25 
nautical miles from the airport where the applicant normally trains, 
which includes at least three takeoffs and three landings at the airport 
located more than 25 nautical miles from the airport where the applicant 
normally trains; and
    (2) 3 hours of flight training in the aircraft for the rating sought 
in preparation for the practical test within the 60 days preceding the 
date of the practical test.
    (b) 3 hours of solo flying in the aircraft for the rating sought, on 
the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.98 of this part that apply to 
the aircraft category and class rating sought.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.100  Pilots based on small islands.

    (a) An applicant located on an island from which the flight training 
required in Sec. 61.99(a)(1) of this part cannot be accomplished 
without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the 
nearest shoreline need not comply with the requirements of that section. 
However, if other airports that permit civil operations are available to 
which a flight may be made without flying over water for more than 10 
nautical miles from the nearest shoreline, the applicant must show 
completion of a dual flight between two airports, which must include 
three landings at the other airport.
    (b) An applicant who complies with paragraph (a) of this section and 
meets all requirements for the issuance of a recreational pilot 
certificate, except the requirements of Sec. 61.99(a)(1) of this part, 
will be issued a pilot certificate with an endorsement containing the

[[Page 473]]

following limitation, ``Passenger carrying prohibited on flights more 
than 10 nautical miles from (the appropriate island).'' The limitation 
may be subsequently amended to include another island if the applicant 
complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section for 
another island.
    (c) Upon meeting the requirements of Sec. 61.99(a)(1) of this part, 
the applicant may have the limitation(s) in paragraph (b) of this 
section removed.



Sec. 61.101  Recreational pilot privileges and limitations.

    (a) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may:
    (1) Carry no more than one passenger; and
    (2) Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses 
of a flight with a passenger, provided the expenses involve only fuel, 
oil, airport expenses, or aircraft rental fees.
    (b) A person who holds a current and valid recreational pilot 
certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft on a flight 
within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport, provided that 
person has--
    (1) Received ground and flight training for takeoff, departure, 
arrival, and landing procedures at the departure airport;
    (2) Received ground and flight training for the area, terrain, and 
aids to navigation that are in the vicinity of the departure airport;
    (3) Been found proficient to operate the aircraft at the departure 
airport and the area within 50 nautical miles from that airport; and
    (4) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, 
which is carried in the person's possession in the aircraft, that 
permits flight within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport.
    (c) A person who holds a current and valid recreational pilot 
certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft on a flight that 
exceeds 50 nautical miles from the departure airport, provided that 
person has--
    (1) Received ground and flight training from an authorized 
instructor on the cross-country training requirements of subpart E of 
this part that apply to the aircraft rating held;
    (2) Been found proficient in cross-country flying; and
    (3) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, 
which is carried on the person's possession in the aircraft, that 
certifies the person has received and been found proficient in the 
cross-country training requirements of subpart E of this part that apply 
to the aircraft rating held.
    (d) A person who holds a current and valid recreational pilot 
certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft in Class B, C, 
and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, and 
to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower, 
provided that person has--
    (1) Received and logged ground and flight training from an 
authorized instructor on the following aeronautical knowledge areas and 
areas of operation, as appropriate to the aircraft rating held:
    (i) The use of radios, communications, navigation system and 
facilities, and radar services.
    (ii) Operations at airports with an operating control tower to 
include three takeoffs and landings to a full stop, with each landing 
involving a flight in the traffic pattern at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (iii) Applicable flight rules of part 91 of this chapter for 
operations in Class B, C, and D airspace and air traffic control 
clearances;
    (2) Been found proficient in those aeronautical knowledge areas and 
areas of operation specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; and
    (3) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, 
which is carried on the person's possession or readily accessible in the 
aircraft, that certifies the person has received and been found 
proficient in those aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation 
specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
    (e) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (i) of this section, a 
recreational pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft--
    (1) That is certificated--
    (i) For more than four occupants;
    (ii) With more than one powerplant;
    (iii) With a powerplant of more than 180 horsepower; or

[[Page 474]]

    (iv) With retractable landing gear;
    (2) That is classified as a multiengine airplane, powered-lift, 
glider, airship, balloon, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control 
aircraft;
    (3) That is carrying a passenger or property for compensation or 
hire;
    (4) For compensation or hire;
    (5) In furtherance of a business;
    (6) Between sunset and sunrise;
    (7) In Class A, B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class 
B, C, or D airspace, or to, from, through, or at an airport having an 
operational control tower;
    (8) At an altitude of more than 10,000 feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL, 
whichever is higher;
    (9) When the flight or surface visibility is less than 3 statute 
miles;
    (10) Without visual reference to the surface;
    (11) On a flight outside the United States, unless authorized by the 
country in which the flight is conducted;
    (12) To demonstrate that aircraft in flight as an aircraft 
salesperson to a prospective buyer;
    (13) That is used in a passenger-carrying airlift and sponsored by a 
charitable organization; and
    (14) That is towing any object.
    (f) A recreational pilot may not act as a pilot flight crewmember on 
any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by the type 
certificate of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is 
conducted, except when:
    (1) Receiving flight training from a person authorized to provide 
flight training on board an airship; and
    (2) No person other than a required flight crewmember is carried on 
the aircraft.
    (g) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate, has logged 
fewer than 400 flight hours, and has not logged pilot-in-command time in 
an aircraft within the 180 days preceding the flight shall not act as 
pilot in command of an aircraft until the pilot receives flight training 
and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor, and the 
instructor certifies that the person is proficient to act as pilot in 
command of the aircraft. This requirement can be met in combination with 
the requirements of Sec. Sec. 61.56 and 61.57 of this part, at the 
discretion of the authorized instructor.
    (h) A recreational pilot certificate issued under this subpart 
carries the notation, ``Holder does not meet ICAO requirements.''
    (i) For the purpose of obtaining additional certificates or ratings 
while under the supervision of an authorized instructor, a recreational 
pilot may fly as the sole occupant of an aircraft:
    (1) For which the pilot does not hold an appropriate category or 
class rating;
    (2) Within airspace that requires communication with air traffic 
control; or
    (3) Between sunset and sunrise, provided the flight or surface 
visibility is at least 5 statute miles.
    (j) In order to fly solo as provided in paragraph (h) of this 
section, the recreational pilot must meet the appropriate aeronautical 
knowledge and flight training requirements of Sec. 61.87 for that 
aircraft. When operating an aircraft under the conditions specified in 
paragraph (h) of this section, the recreational pilot shall carry the 
logbook that has been endorsed for each flight by an authorized 
instructor who:
    (1) Has given the recreational pilot training in the make and model 
of aircraft in which the solo flight is to be made;
    (2) Has found that the recreational pilot has met the applicable 
requirements of Sec. 61.87; and
    (3) Has found that the recreational pilot is competent to make solo 
flights in accordance with the logbook endorsement.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004]



                        Subpart E_Private Pilots



Sec. 61.102  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of private 
pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those 
certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating rules 
for persons who hold those certificates and ratings.

[[Page 475]]



Sec. 61.103  Eligibility requirements: General.

    To be eligible for a private pilot certificate, a person must:
    (a) Be at least 17 years of age for a rating in other than a glider 
or balloon.
    (b) Be at least 16 years of age for a rating in a glider or balloon.
    (c) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for 
the safe operation of the aircraft.
    (d) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who:
    (1) Conducted the training or reviewed the person's home study on 
the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in Sec. 61.105(b) of this part 
that apply to the aircraft rating sought; and
    (2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required knowledge 
test.
    (e) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas listed in Sec. 61.105(b) of this part.
    (f) Receive flight training and a logbook endorsement from an 
authorized instructor who:
    (1) Conducted the training in the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.107(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought; and
    (2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required practical 
test.
    (g) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this part that 
apply to the aircraft rating sought before applying for the practical 
test.
    (h) Pass a practical test on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.107(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought.
    (i) Comply with the appropriate sections of this part that apply to 
the aircraft category and class rating sought.



Sec. 61.105  Aeronautical knowledge.

    (a) General. A person who is applying for a private pilot 
certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized 
instructor or complete a home-study course on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the aircraft 
category and class rating sought.
    (b) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation 
Regulations of this chapter that relate to private pilot privileges, 
limitations, and flight operations;
    (2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation 
Safety Board;
    (3) Use of the applicable portions of the ``Aeronautical Information 
Manual'' and FAA advisory circulars;
    (4) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage, 
dead reckoning, and navigation systems;
    (5) Radio communication procedures;
    (6) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and 
in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of 
aeronautical weather reports and forecasts;
    (7) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision 
avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence;
    (8) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance;
    (9) Weight and balance computations;
    (10) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems;
    (11) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery 
techniques for the airplane and glider category ratings;
    (12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and
    (13) Preflight action that includes--
    (i) How to obtain information on runway lengths at airports of 
intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and 
forecasts, and fuel requirements; and
    (ii) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be 
completed or delays are encountered.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.107  Flight proficiency.

    (a) General. A person who applies for a private pilot certificate 
must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized 
instructor on the areas of operation of this section that apply to the 
aircraft category and class rating sought.

[[Page 476]]

    (b) Areas of operation. (1) For an airplane category rating with a 
single-engine class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Slow flight and stalls;
    (ix) Basic instrument maneuvers;
    (x) Emergency operations;
    (xi) Night operations, except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this 
part; and
    (xii) Postflight procedures.
    (2) For an airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Slow flight and stalls;
    (ix) Basic instrument maneuvers;
    (x) Emergency operations;
    (xi) Multiengine operations;
    (xii) Night operations, except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this 
part; and
    (xiii) Postflight procedures.
    (3) For a rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and heliport operations;
    (iv) Hovering maneuvers;
    (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (vi) Performance maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Emergency operations;
    (ix) Night operations, except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this 
part; and
    (x) Postflight procedures.
    (4) For a rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Flight at slow airspeeds;
    (ix) Emergency operations;
    (x) Night operations, except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this 
part; and
    (xi) Postflight procedures.
    (5) For a powered-lift category rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and heliport operations;
    (iv) Hovering maneuvers;
    (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (vi) Performance maneuvers;
    (vii) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (viii) Navigation;
    (ix) Slow flight and stalls;
    (x) Basic instrument maneuvers;
    (xi) Emergency operations;
    (xii) Night operations, except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this 
part; and
    (xiii) Postflight procedures.
    (6) For a glider category rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and gliderport operations;
    (iv) Launches and landings;
    (v) Performance speeds;
    (vi) Soaring techniques;
    (vii) Performance maneuvers;
    (viii) Navigation;
    (ix) Slow flight and stalls;
    (x) Emergency operations; and
    (xi) Postflight procedures.
    (7) For a lighter-than-air category rating with an airship class 
rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Emergency operations; and
    (ix) Postflight procedures.
    (8) For a lighter-than-air category rating with a balloon class 
rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport operations;
    (iv) Launches and landings;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Navigation;
    (vii) Emergency operations; and
    (viii) Postflight procedures.
    (9) For a powered parachute category rating--

[[Page 477]]

    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations, as applicable;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Night operations, except as provided in Sec. 61.110;
    (ix) Emergency operations; and
    (x) Post-flight procedures.
    (10) For a weight-shift-control aircraft category rating--
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations, as applicable;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Slow flight and stalls;
    (ix) Night operations, except as provided in Sec. 61.110;
    (x) Emergency operations; and
    (xi) Post-flight procedures.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.109  Aeronautical experience.

    (a) For an airplane single-engine rating. Except as provided in 
paragraph (k) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot 
certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class rating 
must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 
hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of 
solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.107(b)(1) of this part, and the training must include at least--
    (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a single-engine 
airplane;
    (2) Except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of 
night flight training in a single-engine airplane that includes--
    (i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total 
distance; and
    (ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing 
involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.
    (3) 3 hours of flight training in a single-engine airplane on the 
control and maneuvering of an airplane solely by reference to 
instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed 
climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight 
attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/
facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight;
    (4) 3 hours of flight training in preparation for the practical test 
in a single-engine airplane, which must have been performed within 60 
days preceding the date of the test; and
    (5) 10 hours of solo flight time in a single-engine airplane, 
consisting of at least--
    (i) 5 hours of solo cross-country time;
    (ii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 150 nautical miles 
total distance, with full-stop landings at a minimum of three points, 
and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of 
at least 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; 
and
    (iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each 
landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (b) For an airplane multiengine rating. Except as provided in 
paragraph (k) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot 
certificate with an airplane category and multiengine class rating must 
log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of 
flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo 
flight training in the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(2) 
of this part, and the training must include at least--
    (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a multiengine 
airplane;
    (2) Except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of 
night flight training in a multiengine airplane that includes--
    (i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total 
distance; and
    (ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing 
involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.
    (3) 3 hours of flight training in a multiengine airplane on the 
control and

[[Page 478]]

maneuvering of an airplane solely by reference to instruments, including 
straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns 
to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio 
communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar 
services appropriate to instrument flight;
    (4) 3 hours of flight training in preparation for the practical test 
in a multiengine airplane, which must have been performed within the 60-
day period preceding the date of the test; and
    (5) 10 hours of solo flight time in an airplane consisting of at 
least--
    (i) 5 hours of solo cross-country time;
    (ii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 150 nautical miles 
total distance, with full-stop landings at a minimum of three points, 
and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of 
at least 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; 
and
    (iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each 
landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (c) For a helicopter rating. Except as provided in paragraph (k) of 
this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with 
rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must log at least 40 
hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training 
from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in 
the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(3) of this part, and 
the training must include at least--
    (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a helicopter;
    (2) Except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of 
night flight training in a helicopter that includes--
    (i) One cross-country flight of over 50 nautical miles total 
distance; and
    (ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing 
involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.
    (3) 3 hours of flight training in preparation for the practical test 
in a helicopter, which must have been performed within 60 days preceding 
the date of the test; and
    (4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a helicopter, consisting of at 
least--
    (i) 3 hours cross-country time;
    (ii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 75 nautical miles 
total distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one 
segment of the flight being a straight-line distance of at least 25 
nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and
    (iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each 
landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (d) For a gyroplane rating. Except as provided in paragraph (k) of 
this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with 
rotorcraft category and gyroplane class rating must log at least 40 
hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training 
from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in 
the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(4) of this part, and 
the training must include at least--
    (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a gyroplane;
    (2) Except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of 
night flight training in a gyroplane that includes--
    (i) One cross-country flight of over 50 nautical miles total 
distance; and
    (ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing 
involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.
    (3) 3 hours of flight training in preparation for the practical test 
in a gyroplane, which must have been performed within the 60-day period 
preceding the date of the test; and
    (4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a gyroplane, consisting of at 
least--
    (i) 3 hours of cross-country time;
    (ii) One solo cross-country flight of over 75 nautical miles total 
distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of 
the flight being a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles 
between the takeoff and landing locations; and
    (iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each 
landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an 
operating control tower.

[[Page 479]]

    (e) For a powered-lift rating. Except as provided in paragraph (k) 
of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate 
with a powered-lift category rating must log at least 40 hours of flight 
time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an 
authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas 
of operation listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(5) of this part, and the training 
must include at least--
    (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a powered-lift;
    (2) Except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of 
night flight training in a powered-lift that includes--
    (i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total 
distance; and
    (ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing 
involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.
    (3) 3 hours of flight training in a powered-lift on the control and 
maneuvering of a powered-lift solely by reference to instruments, 
including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and 
descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, 
radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and 
radar services appropriate to instrument flight;
    (4) 3 hours of flight training in preparation for the practical test 
in a powered-lift, which must have been performed within the 60-day 
period preceding the date of the test; and
    (5) 10 hours of solo flight time in an airplane or powered-lift 
consisting of at least--
    (i) 5 hours cross-country time;
    (ii) One cross-country flight of at least 150 nautical miles total 
distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of 
the flight being a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles 
between the takeoff and landing locations; and
    (iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each 
landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (f) For a glider category rating. (1) If the applicant for a private 
pilot certificate with a glider category rating has not logged at least 
40 hours of flight time as a pilot in a heavier-than-air aircraft, the 
applicant must log at least 10 hours of flight time in a glider in the 
areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(6) of this part, and that 
flight time must include at least--
    (i) 20 flights in a glider in the areas of operations listed in 
Sec. 61.107(b)(6) of this part, including at least 3 training flights 
in a glider with an authorized instructor in preparation for the 
practical test that must have been performed within the 60-day period 
preceding the date of the test; and
    (ii) 2 hours of solo flight time in a glider in the areas of 
operation listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(6) of this part, with not less than 
10 launches and landings being performed.
    (2) If the applicant has logged at least 40 hours of flight time in 
a heavier-than-air aircraft, the applicant must log at least 3 hours of 
flight time in a glider in the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.107(b)(6) of this part, and that flight time must include at least--
    (i) 10 solo flights in a glider in the areas of operation listed in 
Sec. 61.107(b)(6) of this part; and
    (ii) 3 training flights in a glider with an authorized instructor in 
preparation for the practical test that must have been performed within 
the 60-day period preceding the date of the test.
    (g) For an airship rating. A person who applies for a private pilot 
certificate with a lighter-than-air category and airship class rating 
must log at least:
    (1) 25 hours of flight training in airships on the areas of 
operation listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(7) of this part, which consists of 
at least:
    (i) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in an airship;
    (ii) Except as provided in Sec. 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of 
night flight training in an airship that includes:
    (A) A cross-country flight of over 25 nautical miles total distance; 
and
    (B) Five takeoffs and five landings to a full stop (with each 
landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.
    (2) 3 hours of flight training in an airship on the control and 
maneuvering of an airship solely by reference to instruments, including 
straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns 
to a heading, recovery

[[Page 480]]

from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of 
navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to 
instrument flight;
    (3) 3 hours of flight training in an airship in preparation for the 
practical test within the 60 days preceding the date of the test; and
    (4) 5 hours performing the duties of pilot in command in an airship 
with an authorized instructor.
    (h) For a balloon rating. A person who applies for a private pilot 
certificate with a lighter-than-air category and balloon class rating 
must log at least 10 hours of flight training that includes at least six 
training flights with an authorized instructor in the areas of operation 
listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(8) of this part, that includes--
    (1) Gas balloon. If the training is being performed in a gas 
balloon, at least two flights of 2 hours each that consists of--
    (i) At least one training flight with an authorized instructor 
within 60 days prior to application for the rating on the areas of 
operation for a gas balloon;
    (ii) At least one flight performing the duties of pilot in command 
in a gas balloon with an authorized instructor; and
    (iii) At least one flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 
feet above the launch site.
    (2) Balloon with an airborne heater. If the training is being 
performed in a balloon with an airborne heater, at least--
    (i) Two flights of 1 hour each within 60 days prior to application 
for the rating on the areas of operation appropriate to a balloon with 
an airborne heater;
    (ii) One solo flight in a balloon with an airborne heater; and
    (iii) At least one flight involving a controlled ascent to 2,000 
feet above the launch site.
    (i) For a powered parachute rating. A person who applies for a 
private pilot certificate with a powered parachute category rating must 
log at least 25 hours of flight time in a powered parachute that 
includes at least 10 hours of flight training with an authorized 
instructor, including 30 takeoffs and landings, and 10 hours of solo 
flight training in the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.107 (b)(9) 
and the training must include at least--
    (1) One hour of cross-country flight training in a powered parachute 
that includes a 1-hour cross-country flight with a landing at an airport 
at least 25 nautical miles from the airport of departure;
    (2) Except as provided in Sec. 61.110, 3 hours of night flight 
training in a powered parachute that includes 10 takeoffs and landings 
(with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an 
airport;
    (3) Three hours of flight training in preparation for the practical 
test in a powered parachute, which must have been performed within the 
60-day period preceding the date of the test; and
    (4) Three hours of solo flight time in a powered parachute, 
consisting of at least--
    (i) One solo cross-country flight with a landing at an airport at 
least 25 nautical miles from the departure airport; and
    (ii) Twenty solo takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each 
landing involving a flight in a traffic pattern) at an airport, with at 
least 3 takeoffs and landings at an airport with an operating control 
tower.
    (j) For a weight-shift-control aircraft rating. A person who applies 
for a private pilot certificate with a weight-shift-control rating must 
log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of 
flight training with an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo 
flight training in the areas listed in Sec. 61.107(b)(10) and the 
training must include at least--
    (1) Three hours of cross-country flight training in a weight-shift-
control aircraft;
    (2) Except as provided in Sec. 61.110, 3 hours of night flight 
training in a weight-shift-control aircraft that includes--
    (i) One cross-country flight over 75 nautical miles total distance; 
and
    (ii) Ten takeoffs and landings (with each landing involving a flight 
in the traffic pattern) at an airport;
    (3) Three hours of flight training in preparation for the practical 
test in a weight-shift-control aircraft, which must have been performed 
within the

[[Page 481]]

60-day period preceding the date of the test; and
    (4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a weight-shift-control 
aircraft, consisting of at least--
    (i) Five hours of solo cross-country time;
    (ii) One solo cross-country flight over 100 nautical miles total 
distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of 
the flight being a straight line distance of at least 50 nautical miles 
between takeoff and landing locations; and
    (iii) Three takeoffs and landings (with each landing involving a 
flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control 
tower.
    (k) Permitted credit for use of a flight simulator or flight 
training device. (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (k)(2) of this 
section, a maximum of 2.5 hours of training in a flight simulator or 
flight training device representing the category, class, and type, if 
applicable, of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought, may be 
credited toward the flight training time required by this section, if 
received from an authorized instructor.
    (2) A maximum of 5 hours of training in a flight simulator or flight 
training device representing the category, class, and type, if 
applicable, of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought, may be 
credited toward the flight training time required by this section if the 
training is accomplished in a course conducted by a training center 
certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (3) Except when fewer hours are approved by the Administrator, an 
applicant for a private pilot certificate with an airplane, rotorcraft, 
or powered-lift rating, who has satisfactorily completed an approved 
private pilot course conducted by a training center certificated under 
part 142 of this chapter, need only have a total of 35 hours of 
aeronautical experience to meet the requirements of this section.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 
63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.110  Night flying exceptions.

    (a) Subject to the limitations of paragraph (b) of this section, a 
person is not required to comply with the night flight training 
requirements of this subpart if the person receives flight training in 
and resides in the State of Alaska.
    (b) A person who receives flight training in and resides in the 
State of Alaska but does not meet the night flight training requirements 
of this section:
    (1) May be issued a pilot certificate with a limitation ``Night 
flying prohibited''; and
    (2) Must comply with the appropriate night flight training 
requirements of this subpart within the 12-calendar-month period after 
the issuance of the pilot certificate. At the end of that period, the 
certificate will become invalid for use until the person complies with 
the appropriate night training requirements of this subpart. The person 
may have the ``Night flying prohibited'' limitation removed if the 
person--
    (i) Accomplishes the appropriate night flight training requirements 
of this subpart; and
    (ii) Presents to an examiner a logbook or training record 
endorsement from an authorized instructor that verifies accomplishment 
of the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart.
    (c) A person who does not meet the night flying requirements in 
Sec. 61.109(d)(2), (i)(2), or (j)(2) may be issued a private pilot 
certificate with the limitation ``Night flying prohibited.'' This 
limitation may be removed by an examiner if the holder complies with the 
requirements of Sec. 61.109(d)(2), (i)(2), or (j)(2), as appropriate.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.111  Cross-country flights: Pilots based on small islands.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an 
applicant located on an island from which the cross-country flight 
training required in Sec. 61.109 of this part cannot be accomplished 
without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the 
nearest shoreline need not comply with the requirements of that section.

[[Page 482]]

    (b) If other airports that permit civil operations are available to 
which a flight may be made without flying over water for more than 10 
nautical miles from the nearest shoreline, the applicant must show 
completion of two round-trip solo flights between those two airports 
that are farthest apart, including a landing at each airport on both 
flights.
    (c) An applicant who complies with paragraph (a) or paragraph (b) of 
this section, and meets all requirements for the issuance of a private 
pilot certificate, except the cross-country training requirements of 
Sec. 61.109 of this part, will be issued a pilot certificate with an 
endorsement containing the following limitation, ``Passenger carrying 
prohibited on flights more than 10 nautical miles from (the appropriate 
island).'' The limitation may be subsequently amended to include another 
island if the applicant complies with the requirements of paragraph (b) 
of this section for another island.
    (d) Upon meeting the cross-country training requirements of Sec. 
61.109 of this part, the applicant may have the limitation in paragraph 
(c) of this section removed.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.113  Private pilot privileges and limitations: Pilot in command.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this 
section, no person who holds a private pilot certificate may act as 
pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying passengers or property 
for compensation or hire; nor may that person, for compensation or hire, 
act as pilot in command of an aircraft.
    (b) A private pilot may, for compensation or hire, act as pilot in 
command of an aircraft in connection with any business or employment if:
    (1) The flight is only incidental to that business or employment; 
and
    (2) The aircraft does not carry passengers or property for 
compensation or hire.
    (c) A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the 
operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses 
involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
    (d) A private pilot may act as pilot in command of a charitable, 
nonprofit, or community event flight described in Sec. 91.146, if the 
sponsor and pilot comply with the requirements of Sec. 91.146.
    (e) A private pilot may be reimbursed for aircraft operating 
expenses that are directly related to search and location operations, 
provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or 
rental fees, and the operation is sanctioned and under the direction and 
control of:
    (1) A local, State, or Federal agency; or
    (2) An organization that conducts search and location operations.
    (f) A private pilot who is an aircraft salesman and who has at least 
200 hours of logged flight time may demonstrate an aircraft in flight to 
a prospective buyer.
    (g) A private pilot who meets the requirements of Sec. 61.69 may 
act as a pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider or unpowered 
ultralight vehicle.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-115, 72 FR 6910, Feb. 13, 2007]



Sec. 61.115  Balloon rating: Limitations.

    (a) If a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a 
balloon rating takes a practical test in a balloon with an airborne 
heater:
    (1) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the 
exercise of the privileges of that certificate to a balloon with an 
airborne heater; and
    (2) The limitation may be removed when the person obtains the 
required aeronautical experience in a gas balloon and receives a logbook 
endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's 
accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to 
satisfactorily operate a gas balloon.
    (b) If a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a 
balloon rating takes a practical test in a gas balloon:
    (1) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the 
exercise of the privilege of that certificate to a gas balloon; and

[[Page 483]]

    (2) The limitation may be removed when the person obtains the 
required aeronautical experience in a balloon with an airborne heater 
and receives a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who 
attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical 
experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a balloon with an 
airborne heater.



Sec. 61.117  Private pilot privileges and limitations: Second in command of 

aircraft requiring more than one pilot.

    Except as provided in Sec. 61.113 of this part, no private pilot 
may, for compensation or hire, act as second in command of an aircraft 
that is type certificated for more than one pilot, nor may that pilot 
act as second in command of such an aircraft that is carrying passengers 
or property for compensation or hire.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.118-61.120  [Reserved]



                       Subpart F_Commercial Pilots



Sec. 61.121  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of 
commercial pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which 
those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating 
rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings.



Sec. 61.123  Eligibility requirements: General.

    To be eligible for a commercial pilot certificate, a person must:
    (a) Be at least 18 years of age;
    (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for 
the safe operation of the aircraft.
    (c) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who:
    (1) Conducted the required ground training or reviewed the person's 
home study on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in Sec. 61.125 of 
this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; 
and
    (2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required knowledge 
test that applies to the aircraft category and class rating sought.
    (d) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas listed in Sec. 61.125 of this part;
    (e) Receive the required training and a logbook endorsement from an 
authorized instructor who:
    (1) Conducted the training on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.127(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class 
rating sought; and
    (2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required practical 
test.
    (f) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this subpart 
that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought before 
applying for the practical test;
    (g) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation 
listed in Sec. 61.127(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft 
category and class rating sought;
    (h) Hold at least a private pilot certificate issued under this part 
or meet the requirements of Sec. 61.73; and
    (i) Comply with the sections of this part that apply to the aircraft 
category and class rating sought.



Sec. 61.125  Aeronautical knowledge.

    (a) General. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate 
must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor, or 
complete a home-study course, on the aeronautical knowledge areas of 
paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the aircraft category and 
class rating sought.
    (b) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation 
Regulations of this chapter that relate to commercial pilot privileges, 
limitations, and flight operations;
    (2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation 
Safety Board;
    (3) Basic aerodynamics and the principles of flight;
    (4) Meteorology to include recognition of critical weather 
situations, windshear recognition and avoidance,

[[Page 484]]

and the use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts;
    (5) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft;
    (6) Weight and balance computations;
    (7) Use of performance charts;
    (8) Significance and effects of exceeding aircraft performance 
limitations;
    (9) Use of aeronautical charts and a magnetic compass for pilotage 
and dead reckoning;
    (10) Use of air navigation facilities;
    (11) Aeronautical decision making and judgment;
    (12) Principles and functions of aircraft systems;
    (13) Maneuvers, procedures, and emergency operations appropriate to 
the aircraft;
    (14) Night and high-altitude operations;
    (15) Procedures for operating within the National Airspace System; 
and
    (16) Procedures for flight and ground training for lighter-than-air 
ratings.



Sec. 61.127  Flight proficiency.

    (a) General. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate 
must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized 
instructor on the areas of operation of this section that apply to the 
aircraft category and class rating sought.
    (b) Areas of operation. (1) For an airplane category rating with a 
single-engine class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Slow flight and stalls;
    (ix) Emergency operations;
    (x) High-altitude operations; and
    (xi) Postflight procedures.
    (2) For an airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Navigation;
    (vii) Slow flight and stalls;
    (viii) Emergency operations;
    (ix) Multiengine operations;
    (x) High-altitude operations; and
    (xi) Postflight procedures.
    (3) For a rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and heliport operations;
    (iv) Hovering maneuvers;
    (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (vi) Performance maneuvers;
    (vii) Navigation;
    (viii) Emergency operations;
    (ix) Special operations; and
    (x) Postflight procedures.
    (4) For a rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport operations;
    (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (v) Performance maneuvers;
    (vi) Navigation;
    (vii) Flight at slow airspeeds;
    (viii) Emergency operations; and
    (ix) Postflight procedures.
    (5) For a powered-lift category rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and heliport operations;
    (iv) Hovering maneuvers;
    (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (vi) Performance maneuvers;
    (vii) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (viii) Navigation;
    (ix) Slow flight and stalls;
    (x) Emergency operations;
    (xi) High-altitude operations;
    (xii) Special operations; and
    (xiii) Postflight procedures.
    (6) For a glider category rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Airport and gliderport operations;
    (iv) Launches and landings;
    (v) Performance speeds;
    (vi) Soaring techniques;
    (vii) Performance maneuvers;
    (viii) Navigation;
    (ix) Slow flight and stalls;
    (x) Emergency operations; and

[[Page 485]]

    (xi) Postflight procedures.
    (7) For a lighter-than-air category rating with an airship class 
rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subjects;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;
    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Preflight procedures;
    (vi) Airport operations;
    (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (viii) Performance maneuvers;
    (ix) Navigation;
    (x) Emergency operations; and
    (xi) Postflight procedures.
    (8) For a lighter-than-air category rating with a balloon class 
rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subjects;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;
    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Preflight procedures;
    (vi) Airport operations;
    (vii) Launches and landings;
    (viii) Performance maneuvers;
    (ix) Navigation;
    (x) Emergency operations; and
    (xi) Postflight procedures.



Sec. 61.129  Aeronautical experience.

    (a) For an airplane single-engine rating. Except as provided in 
paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial 
pilot certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class 
rating must log at least 250 hours of flight time as a pilot that 
consists of at least:
    (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in 
airplanes.
    (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at 
least--
    (i) 50 hours in airplanes; and
    (ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of which at least 10 hours 
must be in airplanes.
    (3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.127(b)(1) of this part that includes at least--
    (i) 10 hours of instrument training of which at least 5 hours must 
be in a single-engine airplane;
    (ii) 10 hours of training in an airplane that has a retractable 
landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller, or is turbine-
powered, or for an applicant seeking a single-engine seaplane rating, 10 
hours of training in a seaplane that has flaps and a controllable pitch 
propeller;
    (iii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a single-
engine airplane in day VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-
line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of 
departure;
    (iv) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a single-engine 
airplane in night VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line 
distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of 
departure; and
    (v) 3 hours in a single-engine airplane in preparation for the 
practical test within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test.
    (4) 10 hours of solo flight in a single-engine airplane on the areas 
of operation listed in Sec. 61.127(b)(1) of this part, which includes 
at least--
    (i) One cross-country flight of not less than 300 nautical miles 
total distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, one of which 
is a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles from the 
original departure point. However, if this requirement is being met in 
Hawaii, the longest segment need only have a straight-line distance of 
at least 150 nautical miles; and
    (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 
landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) 
at an airport with an operating control tower.
    (b) For an airplane multiengine rating. Except as provided in 
paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial 
pilot certificate with an airplane category and multiengine class rating 
must log at least 250 hours of flight time as a pilot that consists of 
at least:
    (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in 
airplanes.
    (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at 
least--
    (i) 50 hours in airplanes; and
    (ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of which at least 10 hours 
must be in airplanes.
    (3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.127(b)(2) of this part that includes at least--

[[Page 486]]

    (i) 10 hours of instrument training of which at least 5 hours must 
be in a multiengine airplane;
    (ii) 10 hours of training in a multiengine airplane that has a 
retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable pitch propellers, or 
is turbine-powered, or for an applicant seeking a multiengine seaplane 
rating, 10 hours of training in a multiengine seaplane that has flaps 
and a controllable pitch propeller;
    (iii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a multiengine 
airplane in day VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line 
distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of 
departure;
    (iv) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a multiengine 
airplane in night VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line 
distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of 
departure; and
    (v) 3 hours in a multiengine airplane in preparation for the 
practical test within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test.
    (4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a multiengine airplane or 10 
hours of flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a 
multiengine airplane with an authorized instructor (either of which may 
be credited towards the flight time requirement in paragraph (b)(2) of 
this section), on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.127(b)(2) of 
this part that includes at least--
    (i) One cross-country flight of not less than 300 nautical miles 
total distance with landings at a minimum of three points, one of which 
is a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles from the 
original departure point. However, if this requirement is being met in 
Hawaii, the longest segment need only have a straight-line distance of 
at least 150 nautical miles; and
    (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 
landings (with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern) 
at an airport with an operating control tower.
    (c) For a helicopter rating. Except as provided in paragraph (i) of 
this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate 
with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must log at least 
150 hours of flight time as a pilot that consists of at least:
    (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in 
helicopters.
    (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at 
least--
    (i) 35 hours in helicopters; and
    (ii) 10 hours in cross-country flight in helicopters.
    (3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.127(b)(3) of this part that includes at least--
    (i) 10 hours of instrument training in an aircraft;
    (ii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a helicopter in 
day VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more 
than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure;
    (iii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a helicopter 
in night VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of 
more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (iv) 3 hours in a helicopter in preparation for the practical test 
within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test.
    (4) 10 hours of solo flight in a helicopter on the areas of 
operation listed in Sec. 61.127(b)(3) of this part, which includes at 
least--
    (i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three 
points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at 
least 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 
landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern).
    (d) For a gyroplane rating. A person who applies for a commercial 
pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category and gyroplane class rating 
must log at least 150 hours of flight time as a pilot (of which 5 hours 
may have been accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training 
device that is representative of a gyroplane) that consists of at least:
    (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 25 hours must be in 
gyroplanes.
    (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at 
least--
    (i) 10 hours in gyroplanes; and

[[Page 487]]

    (ii) 3 hours in cross-country flight in gyroplanes.
    (3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.127(b)(4) of this part that includes at least--
    (i) 5 hours of instrument training in an aircraft;
    (ii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a gyroplane in 
day VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more 
than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure;
    (iii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a gyroplane in 
night VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of 
more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (iv) 3 hours in a gyroplane in preparation for the practical test 
within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test.
    (4) 10 hours of solo flight in a gyroplane on the areas of operation 
listed in Sec. 61.127(b)(4) of this part, which includes at least--
    (i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three 
points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at 
least 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 
landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern).
    (e) For a powered-lift rating. Except as provided in paragraph (i) 
of this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate 
with a powered-lift category rating must log at least 250 hours of 
flight time as a pilot that consists of at least:
    (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in a 
powered-lift.
    (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at 
least--
    (i) 50 hours in a powered-lift; and
    (ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of which 10 hours must be in a 
powered-lift.
    (3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.127(b)(5) of this part that includes at least--
    (i) 10 hours of instrument training, of which at least 5 hours must 
be in a powered-lift;
    (ii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a powered-lift 
in day VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of 
more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure;
    (iii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a powered-lift 
in night VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of 
more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (iv) 3 hours in a powered-lift in preparation for the practical test 
within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test.
    (4) 10 hours of solo flight in a powered-lift on the areas of 
operation listed in Sec. 61.127(b)(5) of this part, which includes at 
least--
    (i) One cross-country flight of not less than 300 nautical miles 
total distance with landings at a minimum of three points, one of which 
is a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles from the 
original departure point. However, if this requirement is being met in 
Hawaii the longest segment need only have a straight-line distance of at 
least 150 nautical miles; and
    (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 
landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) 
at an airport with an operating control tower.
    (f) For a glider rating. A person who applies for a commercial pilot 
certificate with a glider category rating must log at least--
    (1) 25 hours of flight time as a pilot in a glider and that flight 
time must include at least 100 flights in a glider as pilot in command, 
including at least--
    (i) 3 hours of flight training in a glider or 10 training flights in 
a glider with an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed 
in Sec. 61.127(b)(6) of this part, including at least 3 training 
flights in a glider with an authorized instructor in preparation for the 
practical test within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test; 
and
    (ii) 2 hours of solo flight that include not less than 10 solo 
flights in a glider on the areas of operation listed in Sec. 
61.127(b)(6) of this part; or
    (2) 200 hours of flight time as a pilot in heavier-than-air aircraft 
and at

[[Page 488]]

least 20 flights in a glider as pilot in command, including at least--
    (i) 3 hours of flight training in a glider or 10 training flights in 
a glider with an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed 
in Sec. 61.127(b)(6) of this part including at least 3 training flights 
in a glider with an authorized instructor in preparation for the 
practical test within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test; 
and
    (ii) 5 solo flights in a glider on the areas of operation listed in 
Sec. 61.127(b)(6) of this part.
    (g) For an airship rating. A person who applies for a commercial 
pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and airship class 
rating must log at least 200 hours of flight time as a pilot, which 
includes at least the following hours:
    (1) 50 hours in airships.
    (2) 30 hours of pilot-in-command time in airships, which consists of 
at least--
    (i) 10 hours of cross-country flight time in airships; and
    (ii) 10 hours of night flight time in airships.
    (3) 40 hours of instrument time, which consists of at least 20 hours 
in flight, of which 10 hours must be in flight in airships.
    (4) 20 hours of flight training in airships on the areas of 
operation listed in Sec. 61.127(b)(7) of this part, which includes at 
least--
    (i) 3 hours in an airship in preparation for the practical test 
within the 60-day period preceding the date of the test;
    (ii) One cross-country flight of at least 1 hour in duration in an 
airship in day VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line 
distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of 
departure; and
    (iii) One cross-country flight of at least 1 hour in duration in an 
airship in night VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line 
distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of 
departure.
    (5) 10 hours of flight training performing the duties of pilot in 
command with an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed 
in Sec. 61.127(b)(7) of this part, which includes at least--
    (i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three 
points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at 
least 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and
    (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 
landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern).
    (h) For a balloon rating. A person who applies for a commercial 
pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and a balloon class 
rating must log at least 35 hours of flight time as a pilot, which 
includes at least the following requirements:
    (1) 20 hours in balloons;
    (2) 10 flights in balloons;
    (3) Two flights in balloons as the pilot in command; and
    (4) 10 hours of flight training that includes at least 10 training 
flights with an authorized instructor in balloons on the areas of 
operation listed in Sec. 61.127(b)(8) of this part, which consists of 
at least--
    (i) For a gas balloon--
    (A) 2 training flights of 2 hours each with an authorized instructor 
in a gas balloon on the areas of operation appropriate to a gas balloon 
within 60 days prior to application for the rating;
    (B) 2 flights performing the duties of pilot in command in a gas 
balloon with an authorized instructor on the appropriate areas of 
operation; and
    (C) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 5,000 feet above the 
launch site.
    (ii) For a balloon with an airborne heater--
    (A) 2 training flights of 1 hour each with an authorized instructor 
in a balloon with an airborne heater on the areas of operation 
appropriate to a balloon with an airborne heater within 60 days prior to 
application for the rating;
    (B) Two solo flights in a balloon with an airborne heater on the 
appropriate areas of operation; and
    (C) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 feet above the 
launch site.
    (i) Permitted credit for use of a flight simulator or flight 
training device. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this 
section, an applicant who has not accomplished the training required by 
this section in a course conducted by a

[[Page 489]]

training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter may:
    (i) Credit a maximum of 50 hours toward the total aeronautical 
experience requirements for an airplane or powered-lift rating, provided 
the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized instructor 
in a flight simulator or flight training device that represents that 
class of airplane or powered-lift category and type, if applicable, 
appropriate to the rating sought; and
    (ii) Credit a maximum of 25 hours toward the total aeronautical 
experience requirements of this section for a helicopter rating, 
provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized 
instructor in a flight simulator or flight training device that 
represents a helicopter and type, if applicable, appropriate to the 
rating sought.
    (2) An applicant who has accomplished the training required by this 
section in a course conducted by a training center certificated under 
part 142 of this chapter may:
    (i) Credit a maximum of 100 hours toward the total aeronautical 
experience requirements of this section for an airplane and powered-lift 
rating, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an 
authorized instructor in a flight simulator or flight training device 
that represents that class of airplane or powered-lift category and 
type, if applicable, appropriate to the rating sought; and
    (ii) Credit a maximum of 50 hours toward the total aeronautical 
experience requirements of this section for a helicopter rating, 
provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized 
instructor in a flight simulator or flight training device that 
represents a helicopter and type, if applicable, appropriate to the 
rating sought.
    (3) Except when fewer hours are approved by the Administrator, an 
applicant for a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane or a 
powered-lift rating who has satisfactorily completed an approved 
commercial pilot course conducted by a training center certificated 
under part 142 of this chapter need only have 190 hours of total to meet 
the aeronautical experience requirements of this section.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-101, 62 FR 16892, 
Apr. 8, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 
FR 20288, Apr. 23, 1998]



Sec. 61.131  Exceptions to the night flying requirements.

    (a) Subject to the limitations of paragraph (b) of this section, a 
person is not required to comply with the night flight training 
requirements of this subpart if the person receives flight training in 
and resides in the State of Alaska.
    (b) A person who receives flight training in and resides in the 
State of Alaska but does not meet the night flight training requirements 
of this section:
    (1) May be issued a pilot certificate with the limitation ``night 
flying prohibited.''
    (2) Must comply with the appropriate night flight training 
requirements of this subpart within the 12-calendar-month period after 
the issuance of the pilot certificate. At the end of that period, the 
certificate will become invalid for use until the person complies with 
the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart. The 
person may have the ``night flying prohibited'' limitation removed if 
the person--
    (i) Accomplishes the appropriate night flight training requirements 
of this subpart; and
    (ii) Presents to an examiner a logbook or training record 
endorsement from an authorized instructor that verifies accomplishment 
of the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.133  Commercial pilot privileges and limitations.

    (a) Privileges--(1) General. A person who holds a commercial pilot 
certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft--
    (i) Carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, provided 
the person is qualified in accordance with this part and with the 
applicable parts of

[[Page 490]]

this chapter that apply to the operation; and
    (ii) For compensation or hire, provided the person is qualified in 
accordance with this part and with the applicable parts of this chapter 
that apply to the operation.
    (2) Commercial pilots with lighter-than-air category ratings. A 
person with a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air 
category rating may--
    (i) For an airship--(A) Give flight and ground training in an 
airship for the issuance of a certificate or rating;
    (B) Give an endorsement for a pilot certificate with an airship 
rating;
    (C) Endorse a student pilot certificate or logbook for solo 
operating privileges in an airship;
    (D) Act as pilot in command of an airship under IFR or in weather 
conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight; and
    (E) Give flight and ground training and endorsements that are 
required for a flight review, an operating privilege or recency-of-
experience requirements of this part.
    (ii) For a balloon--(A) Give flight and ground training in a balloon 
for the issuance of a certificate or rating;
    (B) Give an endorsement for a pilot certificate with a balloon 
rating;
    (C) Endorse a student pilot certificate or logbook for solo 
operating privileges in a balloon; and
    (D) Give ground and flight training and endorsements that are 
required for a flight review, an operating privilege, or recency-of-
experience requirements of this part.
    (b) Limitations. (1) A person who applies for a commercial pilot 
certificate with an airplane category or powered-lift category rating 
and does not hold an instrument rating in the same category and class 
will be issued a commercial pilot certificate that contains the 
limitation, ``The carriage of passengers for hire in (airplanes) 
(powered-lifts) on cross-country flights in excess of 50 nautical miles 
or at night is prohibited.'' The limitation may be removed when the 
person satisfactorily accomplishes the requirements listed in Sec. 
61.65 of this part for an instrument rating in the same category and 
class of aircraft listed on the person's commercial pilot certificate.
    (2) If a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with 
a balloon rating takes a practical test in a balloon with an airborne 
heater--
    (i) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the 
exercise of the privileges of that certificate to a balloon with an 
airborne heater.
    (ii) The limitation specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section 
may be removed when the person obtains the required aeronautical 
experience in a gas balloon and receives a logbook endorsement from an 
authorized instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the 
required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a 
gas balloon.
    (3) If a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with 
a balloon rating takes a practical test in a gas balloon--
    (i) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the 
exercise of the privileges of that certificate to a gas balloon.
    (ii) The limitation specified in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section 
may be removed when the person obtains the required aeronautical 
experience in a balloon with an airborne heater and receives a logbook 
endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's 
accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to 
satisfactorily operate a balloon with an airborne heater.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. Sec. 61.135-61.141  [Reserved]



                   Subpart G_Airline Transport Pilots



Sec. 61.151  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of airline 
transport pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which 
those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating 
rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings.



Sec. 61.153  Eligibility requirements: General.

    To be eligible for an airline transport pilot certificate, a person 
must:
    (a) Be at least 23 years of age;

[[Page 491]]

    (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for 
the safe operation of the aircraft;
    (c) Be of good moral character;
    (d) Meet at least one of the following requirements:
    (1) Hold at least a commercial pilot certificate and an instrument 
rating;
    (2) Meet the military experience requirements under Sec. 61.73 of 
this part to qualify for a commercial pilot certificate, and an 
instrument rating if the person is a rated military pilot or former 
rated military pilot of an Armed Force of the United States; or
    (3) Hold either a foreign airline transport pilot or foreign 
commercial pilot license and an instrument rating, without limitations, 
issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil 
Aviation.
    (e) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this subpart 
that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought before 
applying for the practical test;
    (f) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of 
Sec. 61.155(c) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and 
class rating sought;
    (g) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation listed in 
Sec. 61.157(e) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and 
class rating sought; and
    (h) Comply with the sections of this part that apply to the aircraft 
category and class rating sought.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.155  Aeronautical knowledge.

    (a) General. The knowledge test for an airline transport pilot 
certificate is based on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in 
paragraph (c) of this section that are appropriate to the aircraft 
category and class rating sought.
    (b) Aircraft type rating. A person who is applying for an additional 
aircraft type rating to be added to an airline transport pilot 
certificate is not required to pass a knowledge test if that person's 
airline transport pilot certificate lists the aircraft category and 
class rating that is appropriate to the type rating sought.
    (c) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation 
Regulations of this chapter that relate to airline transport pilot 
privileges, limitations, and flight operations;
    (2) Meteorology, including knowledge of and effects of fronts, 
frontal characteristics, cloud formations, icing, and upper-air data;
    (3) General system of weather and NOTAM collection, dissemination, 
interpretation, and use;
    (4) Interpretation and use of weather charts, maps, forecasts, 
sequence reports, abbreviations, and symbols;
    (5) National Weather Service functions as they pertain to operations 
in the National Airspace System;
    (6) Windshear and microburst awareness, identification, and 
avoidance;
    (7) Principles of air navigation under instrument meteorological 
conditions in the National Airspace System;
    (8) Air traffic control procedures and pilot responsibilities as 
they relate to en route operations, terminal area and radar operations, 
and instrument departure and approach procedures;
    (9) Aircraft loading, weight and balance, use of charts, graphs, 
tables, formulas, and computations, and their effect on aircraft 
performance;
    (10) Aerodynamics relating to an aircraft's flight characteristics 
and performance in normal and abnormal flight regimes;
    (11) Human factors;
    (12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and
    (13) Crew resource management to include crew communication and 
coordination.



Sec. 61.157  Flight proficiency.

    (a) General. (1) The practical test for an airline transport pilot 
certificate is given for--
    (i) An airplane category and single-engine class rating;
    (ii) An airplane category and multiengine class rating;
    (iii) A rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating;
    (iv) A powered-lift category rating; and

[[Page 492]]

    (v) An aircraft type rating for the category and class ratings 
listed in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iv) of this section.
    (2) A person who is applying for an airline transport pilot 
practical test must meet--
    (i) The eligibility requirements of Sec. 61.153 of this part; and
    (ii) The aeronautical knowledge and aeronautical experience 
requirements of this subpart that apply to the aircraft category and 
class rating sought.
    (b) Aircraft type rating. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of 
this section, a person who is applying for an aircraft type rating to be 
added to an airline transport pilot certificate:
    (1) Must receive and log ground and flight training from an 
authorized instructor on the areas of operation in this section that 
apply to the aircraft type rating sought;
    (2) Must receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor 
certifying that the applicant completed the training on the areas of 
operation listed in paragraph (e) of this section that apply to the 
aircraft type rating sought; and
    (3) Must perform the practical test in actual or simulated 
instrument conditions, unless the aircraft's type certificate makes the 
aircraft incapable of operating under instrument flight rules. If the 
practical test cannot be accomplished for this reason, the person may 
obtain a type rating limited to ``VFR only.'' The ``VFR only'' 
limitation may be removed for that aircraft type when the person passes 
the practical test in actual or simulated instrument conditions.
    (c) Exceptions. A person who is applying for an aircraft type rating 
to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate or an aircraft 
type rating concurrently with an airline transport pilot certificate, 
and who is an employee of a certificate holder operating under part 121 
or 135 of this chapter or of a fractional ownership program manager 
operating under subpart K of part 91 of this chapter, need not comply 
with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section if the applicant 
presents a training record that shows satisfactory completion of that 
certificate holder's or program manager's approved pilot-in-command 
training program for the aircraft type rating sought.
    (d) Upgrading type ratings. Any type rating(s) on the pilot 
certificate of an applicant who successfully completes an airline 
transport pilot practical test shall be included on the airline 
transport pilot certificate with the privileges and limitations of the 
airline transport pilot certificate, provided the applicant passes the 
practical test in the same category and class of aircraft for which the 
applicant holds the type rating(s). However, if a type rating for that 
category and class of aircraft on the superseded pilot certificate is 
limited to VFR, that limitation shall be carried forward to the person's 
airline transport pilot certificate level.
    (e) Areas of operation. (1) For an airplane category--single-engine 
class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Takeoff and departure phase;
    (iv) In-flight maneuvers;
    (v) Instrument procedures;
    (vi) Landings and approaches to landings;
    (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;
    (viii) Emergency procedures; and
    (ix) Postflight procedures.
    (2) For an airplane category--multiengine class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Takeoff and departure phase;
    (iv) In-flight maneuvers;
    (v) Instrument procedures;
    (vi) Landings and approaches to landings;
    (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;
    (viii) Emergency procedures; and
    (ix) Postflight procedures.
    (3) For a powered-lift category rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Takeoff and departure phase;
    (iv) In-flight maneuvers;
    (v) Instrument procedures;
    (vi) Landings and approaches to landings;
    (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;
    (viii) Emergency procedures; and

[[Page 493]]

    (ix) Postflight procedures.
    (4) For a rotorcraft category--helicopter class rating:
    (i) Preflight preparation;
    (ii) Preflight procedures;
    (iii) Takeoff and departure phase;
    (iv) In-flight maneuvers;
    (v) Instrument procedures;
    (vi) Landings and approaches to landings;
    (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;
    (viii) Emergency procedures; and
    (ix) Postflight procedures.
    (f) Proficiency and competency checks conducted under part 121, part 
135, or subpart K of part 91. (1) Successful completion of any of the 
following checks satisfy the requirements of this section for the 
appropriate aircraft rating:
    (i) A proficiency check under Sec. 121.441 of this chapter.
    (ii) Both a competency check under Sec. 135.293 of this chapter and 
a pilot-in-command instrument proficiency check under Sec. 135.297 of 
this chapter.
    (iii) Both a competency check under Sec. 91.1065 of this chapter 
and a pilot-in-command instrument proficiency check under Sec. 91.1069 
of this chapter.
    (2) The checks specified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section must be 
conducted by an authorized designated pilot examiner or FAA aviation 
safety inspector.
    (g) Use of a flight simulator or flight training device for an 
airplane rating. If a flight simulator or flight training device is used 
for accomplishing all of the training and the required practical test 
for an airplane transport pilot certificate with an airplane category, 
class, and type rating, if applicable, the applicant, flight simulator, 
and flight training device are subject to the following requirements:
    (1) The flight simulator and flight training device must represent 
that airplane type if the rating involves a type rating in an airplane, 
or is representative of an airplane if the applicant is only seeking an 
airplane class rating and does not require a type rating.
    (2) The flight simulator and flight training device must be used in 
accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated 
under part 142 of this chapter.
    (3) All training and testing (except preflight inspection) must be 
accomplished by the applicant to receive an airplane class rating and 
type rating, if applicable, without limitations and--
    (i) The flight simulator must be qualified and approved as Level C 
or Level D; and
    (ii) The applicant must meet the aeronautical experience 
requirements of Sec. 61.159 of this part and at least one of the 
following--
    (A) Hold a type rating for a turbojet airplane of the same class of 
airplane for which the type rating is sought, or have been designated by 
a military service as a pilot in command of an airplane of the same 
class of airplane for which the type rating is sought, if a turbojet 
type rating is sought;
    (B) Hold a type rating for a turbopropeller airplane of the same 
class as the airplane for which the type rating is sought, or have been 
appointed by a military service as a pilot in command of an airplane of 
the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought, if a 
turbopropeller airplane type rating is sought;
    (C) Have at least 2,000 hours of flight time, of which 500 hours 
must be in turbine-powered airplanes of the same class as the airplane 
for which the type rating is sought;
    (D) Have at least 500 hours of flight time in the same type of 
airplane as the airplane for which the type rating is sought; or
    (E) Have at least 1,000 hours of flight time in at least two 
different airplanes requiring a type rating.
    (4) Subject to the limitation of paragraph (g)(5) of this section, 
an applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (g)(3) of 
this section may complete all training and testing (except for preflight 
inspection) for an additional rating if--
    (i) The flight simulator is qualified and approved as Level C or 
Level D; and
    (ii) The applicant meets the aeronautical experience requirements of 
Sec. 61.159 of this part and at least one of the following--
    (A) Holds a type rating in a propeller-driven airplane if a type 
rating in a turbojet airplane is sought, or holds a type rating in a 
turbojet airplane if a

[[Page 494]]

type rating in a propeller-driven airplane is sought;
    (B) Since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before the month 
in which the applicant completes the practical test for the additional 
rating, has logged--
    (1) At least 100 hours of flight time in airplanes in the same class 
as the airplane for which the type rating is sought and which requires a 
type rating; and
    (2) At least 25 hours of flight time in airplanes of the same type 
for which the type rating is sought.
    (5) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph 
(g)(4)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section will be issued an additional 
rating, or an airline transport pilot certificate with an added rating, 
as applicable, with a limitation. The limitation shall state: ``This 
certificate is subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the 
additional rating.''
    (6) An applicant who has been issued a certificate with the 
limitation specified in paragraph (g)(5) of this section--
    (i) May not act as pilot in command of the aircraft for which an 
additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section 
until the limitation is removed from the certificate; and
    (ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 15 hours of 
supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the 
supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat 
normally occupied by the pilot in command, in an airplane of the same 
type for which the limitation applies.
    (7) An applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph 
(g)(3)(ii)(A) through (E) or (g)(4)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section may 
be issued an airline transport pilot certificate or an additional rating 
to that pilot certificate after successful completion of one of the 
following requirements--
    (i) An approved course at a part 142 training center that includes 
all training and testing for that certificate or rating, followed by 
training and testing on the following tasks, which must be successfully 
completed on a static airplane or in flight, as appropriate--
    (A) Preflight inspection;
    (B) Normal takeoff;
    (C) Normal ILS approach;
    (D) Missed approach; and
    (E) Normal landing.
    (ii) An approved course at a part 142 training center that complies 
with paragraphs (g)(8) and (g)(9) of this section and includes all 
training and testing for a certificate or rating.
    (8) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph 
(g)(7)(ii) of this section will be issued an additional rating or an 
airline transport pilot certificate with an additional rating, as 
applicable, with a limitation. The limitation shall state: ``This 
certificate is subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the 
additional rating.''
    (9) An applicant issued a pilot certificate with the limitation 
specified in paragraph (g)(8) of this section--
    (i) May not act as pilot in command of the aircraft for which an 
additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section 
until the limitation is removed from the certificate; and
    (ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 25 hours of 
supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the 
supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat 
normally occupied by the pilot in command, in an airplane of the same 
type for which the limitation applies.
    (h) Use of a flight simulator or flight training device for a 
helicopter rating. If a flight simulator or flight training device is 
used for accomplishing all of the training and the required practical 
test for an airline transport pilot certificate with a helicopter class 
rating and type rating, if applicable, the applicant, flight simulator, 
and flight training device are subject to the following requirements:
    (1) The flight simulator and flight training device must represent 
that helicopter type if the rating involves a type rating in a 
helicopter, or is representative of a helicopter if the applicant is 
only seeking a helicopter class rating and does not require a type 
rating.
    (2) The flight simulator and flight training device must be used in 
accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated 
under part 142 of this chapter.

[[Page 495]]

    (3) All training and testing requirements (except preflight 
inspection) must be accomplished by the applicant to receive a 
helicopter class rating and type rating, if applicable, without 
limitations and--
    (i) The flight simulator must be qualified and approved as a Level C 
or Level D; and
    (ii) The applicant must meet the aeronautical experience 
requirements of Sec. 61.161 of this part and at least one of the 
following--
    (A) Hold a type rating for a turbine-powered helicopter, or have 
been designated by a military service as a pilot in command of a 
turbine-powered helicopter, if a turbine-powered helicopter type rating 
is sought;
    (B) Have at least 1,200 hours of flight time, of which 500 hours 
must be in turbine-powered helicopters;
    (C) Have at least 500 hours of flight time in the same type 
helicopter as the helicopter for which the type rating is sought; or
    (D) Have at least 1,000 hours of flight time in at least two 
different helicopters requiring a type rating.
    (4) Subject to the limitation of paragraph (h)(5) of this section, 
an applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (h)(3) of 
this section may complete all training and testing (except for preflight 
inspection) for an additional rating if--
    (i) The flight simulator is qualified and approved as Level C or 
Level D; and
    (ii) The applicant meets the aeronautical experience requirements of 
Sec. 61.161 of this part and, since the beginning of the 12th calendar 
month before the month in which the applicant completes the practical 
test for the additional rating, has logged--
    (A) At least 100 hours of flight time in helicopters; and
    (B) At least 15 hours of flight time in helicopters of the same type 
of helicopter for which the type rating is sought.
    (5) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph 
(h)(4)(ii) (A) and (B) of this section will be issued an additional 
rating or an airline transport pilot certificate with a limitation. The 
limitation shall state: ``This certificate is subject to pilot-in-
command limitations for the additional rating.''
    (6) An applicant who has been issued a certificate with the 
limitation specified in paragraph (h)(5) of this section--
    (i) May not act as pilot in command of the helicopter for which an 
additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section 
until the limitation is removed from the certificate; and
    (ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 15 hours of 
supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the 
supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat 
normally occupied by the pilot in command, in a helicopter of the same 
type for which the limitation applies.
    (7) An applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph 
(h)(3)(ii) (A) through (D), or (h)(4)(ii) (A) and (B) of this section 
may be issued an airline transport pilot certificate or an additional 
rating to that pilot certificate after successful completion of one of 
the following requirements--
    (i) An approved course at a part 142 training center that includes 
all training and testing for that certificate or rating, followed by 
training and testing on the following tasks, which must be successfully 
completed on a static aircraft or in flight, as appropriate--
    (A) Preflight inspection;
    (B) Normal takeoff from a hover;
    (C) Manually flown precision approach; and
    (D) Steep approach and landing to an off-airport heliport; or
    (ii) An approved course at a training center that includes all 
training and testing for that certificate or rating and compliance with 
paragraphs (h)(8) and (h)(9) of this section.
    (8) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph 
(h)(7)(ii) of this section will be issued an additional rating or an 
airline transport pilot certificate with an additional rating, as 
applicable, with a limitation. The limitation shall state: ``This 
certificate is subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the 
additional rating.''
    (9) An applicant issued a certificate with the limitation specified 
in paragraph (h)(8) of this section--

[[Page 496]]

    (i) May not act as pilot in command of the aircraft for which an 
additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section 
until the limitation is removed from the certificate; and
    (ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 25 hours of 
supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the 
supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat 
normally occupied by the pilot in command, in an aircraft of the same 
type for which the limitation applies.
    (i) Use of a flight simulator or flight training device for a 
powered-lift rating. If a flight simulator or flight training device is 
used for accomplishing all of the training and the required practical 
test for an airline transport pilot certificate with a powered-lift 
category rating and type rating, if applicable, the applicant, flight 
simulator, and flight training device are subject to the following 
requirements:
    (1) The flight simulator and flight training device must represent 
that powered-lift type, if the rating involves a type rating in a 
powered-lift, or is representative of a powered-lift if the applicant is 
only seeking a powered-lift category rating and does not require a type 
rating.
    (2) The flight simulator and flight training device must be used in 
accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated 
under part 142 of this chapter.
    (3) All training and testing requirements (except preflight 
inspection) must be accomplished by the applicant to receive a powered-
lift category rating and type rating, if applicable, without 
limitations; and--
    (i) The flight simulator must be qualified and approved as Level C 
or Level D; and
    (ii) The applicant must meet the aeronautical experience 
requirements of Sec. 61.163 of this part and at least one of the 
following--
    (A) Hold a type rating for a turbine-powered powered-lift, or have 
been designated by a military service as a pilot in command of a 
turbine-powered powered-lift, if a turbine-powered powered-lift type 
rating is sought;
    (B) Have at least 1,200 hours of flight time, of which 500 hours 
must be in turbine-powered powered-lifts;
    (C) Have at least 500 hours of flight time in the same type of 
powered-lift for which the type rating is sought; or
    (D) Have at least 1,000 hours of flight time in at least two 
different powered-lifts requiring a type rating.
    (4) Subject to the limitation of paragraph (i)(5) of this section, 
an applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (i)(3) of 
this section may complete all training and testing (except for preflight 
inspection) for an additional rating if--
    (i) The flight simulator is qualified and approved as Level C or 
Level D; and
    (ii) The applicant meets the aeronautical experience requirements of 
Sec. 61.163 of this part and, since the beginning of the 12th calendar 
month before the month in which the applicant completes the practical 
test for the additional rating, has logged--
    (A) At least 100 hours of flight time in powered-lifts; and
    (B) At least 15 hours of flight time in powered-lifts of the same 
type of powered-lift for the type rating sought.
    (5) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph 
(i)(4)(ii) (A) and (B) of this section will be issued an additional 
rating or an airline transport pilot certificate with a limitation. The 
limitation shall state: ``This certificate is subject to pilot-in-
command limitations for the additional rating.''
    (6) An applicant who has been issued a certificate with the 
limitation specified in paragraph (i)(5) of this section--
    (i) May not act as pilot in command of the powered-lift for which an 
additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section 
until the limitation is removed from the certificate; and
    (ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 15 hours of 
supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the 
supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat 
normally occupied by the pilot in command, in a powered-lift of the same 
type for which the limitation applies.
    (7) An applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph 
(i)(3)(ii)

[[Page 497]]

(A) through (D) or (i)(4)(ii) (A) and (B) of this section may be issued 
an airline transport pilot certificate or an additional rating to that 
pilot certificate after successful completion of one of the following 
requirements--
    (i) An approved course at a part 142 training center that includes 
all training and testing for that certificate or rating, followed by 
training and testing on the following tasks, which must be successfully 
completed on a static aircraft or in flight, as appropriate--
    (A) Preflight inspection;
    (B) Normal takeoff from a hover;
    (C) Manually flown precision approach; and
    (D) Steep approach and landing to an off-airport site; or
    (ii) An approved course at a training center that includes all 
training and testing for that certificate or rating and is in compliance 
with paragraphs (i)(8) and (i)(9) of this section.
    (8) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph 
(i)(7)(ii) of this section will be issued an additional rating or an 
airline transport pilot certificate with an additional rating, as 
applicable, with a limitation. The limitation shall state: ``This 
certificate is subject to pilot-in-command limitations for the 
additional rating.''
    (9) An applicant issued a pilot certificate with the limitation 
specified in paragraph (i)(8) of this section--
    (i) May not act as pilot in command of the aircraft for which an 
additional rating was obtained under the provisions of this section 
until the limitation is removed from the certificate; and
    (ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 25 hours of 
supervised operating experience as pilot in command under the 
supervision of a qualified and current pilot in command, in the seat 
normally occupied by the pilot in command, in a powered-lift of the same 
type for which the limitation applies.
    (j) Waiver authority. Unless the Administrator requires certain or 
all tasks to be performed, the examiner who conducts the practical test 
for an airline transport pilot certificate may waive any of the tasks 
for which the Administrator approves waiver authority.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20288, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-109, 
68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003]



Sec. 61.158  [Reserved]



Sec. 61.159  Aeronautical experience: Airplane category rating.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this 
section, a person who is applying for an airline transport pilot 
certificate with an airplane category and class rating must have at 
least 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least:
    (1) 500 hours of cross-country flight time.
    (2) 100 hours of night flight time.
    (3) 75 hours of instrument flight time, in actual or simulated 
instrument conditions, subject to the following:
    (i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, an 
applicant may not receive credit for more than a total of 25 hours of 
simulated instrument time in a flight simulator or flight training 
device.
    (ii) A maximum of 50 hours of training in a flight simulator or 
flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time 
requirements of paragraph (a)(3) of this section if the training was 
accomplished in a course conducted by a training center certificated 
under part 142 of this chapter.
    (iii) Training in a flight simulator or flight training device must 
be accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training device, 
representing an airplane.
    (4) 250 hours of flight time in an airplane as a pilot in command, 
or as second in command performing the duties of pilot in command while 
under the supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination thereof, 
which includes at least--
    (i) 100 hours of cross-country flight time; and
    (ii) 25 hours of night flight time.
    (5) Not more than 100 hours of the total aeronautical experience 
requirements of paragraph (a) of this section may be obtained in a 
flight simulator

[[Page 498]]

or flight training device that represents an airplane, provided the 
aeronautical experience was obtained in an approved course conducted by 
a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (b) A person who has performed at least 20 night takeoffs and 
landings to a full stop may substitute each additional night takeoff and 
landing to a full stop for 1 hour of night flight time to satisfy the 
requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section; however, not more than 
25 hours of night flight time may be credited in this manner.
    (c) A commercial pilot may credit the following second-in-command 
flight time or flight-engineer flight time toward the 1,500 hours of 
total time as a pilot required by paragraph (a) of this section:
    (1) Second-in-command time, provided the time is acquired in an 
airplane--
    (i) Required to have more than one pilot flight crewmember by the 
airplane's flight manual, type certificate, or the regulations under 
which the flight is being conducted;
    (ii) Engaged in operations under subpart K of part 91, part 121, or 
part 135 of this chapter for which a second in command is required; or
    (iii) That is required by the operating rules of this chapter to 
have more than one pilot flight crewmember.
    (2) Flight-engineer time, provided the time--
    (i) Is acquired in an airplane required to have a flight engineer by 
the airplane's flight manual or type certificate;
    (ii) Is acquired while engaged in operations under part 121 of this 
chapter for which a flight engineer is required;
    (iii) Is acquired while the person is participating in a pilot 
training program approved under part 121 of this chapter; and
    (iv) Does not exceed more than 1 hour for each 3 hours of flight 
engineer flight time for a total credited time of no more than 500 
hours.
    (d) An applicant may be issued an airline transport pilot 
certificate with the endorsement, ``Holder does not meet the pilot in 
command aeronautical experience requirements of ICAO,'' as prescribed by 
Article 39 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation, if the 
applicant:
    (1) Credits second-in-command or flight-engineer time under 
paragraph (c) of this section toward the 1,500 hours total flight time 
requirement of paragraph (a) of this section;
    (2) Does not have at least 1,200 hours of flight time as a pilot, 
including no more than 50 percent of his or her second-in-command time 
and none of his or her flight-engineer time; and
    (3) Otherwise meets the requirements of paragraph (a) of this 
section.
    (e) When the applicant specified in paragraph (d) of this section 
presents satisfactory evidence of the accumulation of 1,200 hours of 
flight time as a pilot including no more than 50 percent of his or her 
second-in-command flight time and none of his or her flight-engineer 
time, the applicant is entitled to an airline transport pilot 
certificate without the endorsement prescribed in that paragraph.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20288, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-109, 
68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003]



Sec. 61.161  Aeronautical experience: Rotorcraft category and helicopter class 

rating.

    (a) A person who is applying for an airline transport pilot 
certificate with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating, must 
have at least 1,200 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at 
least:
    (1) 500 hours of cross-country flight time;
    (2) 100 hours of night flight time, of which 15 hours are in 
helicopters;
    (3) 200 hours of flight time in helicopters, which includes at least 
75 hours as a pilot in command, or as second in command performing the 
duties of a pilot in command under the supervision of a pilot in 
command, or any combination thereof; and
    (4) 75 hours of instrument flight time in actual or simulated 
instrument meteorological conditions, of which at least 50 hours are 
obtained in flight with at least 25 hours in helicopters as a pilot in 
command, or as second in command performing the duties of a

[[Page 499]]

pilot in command under the supervision of a pilot in command, or any 
combination thereof.
    (b) Training in a flight simulator or flight training device may be 
credited toward the instrument flight time requirements of paragraph 
(a)(4) of this section, subject to the following:
    (1) Training in a flight simulator or a flight training device must 
be accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training device that 
represents a rotorcraft.
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, an 
applicant may receive credit for not more than a total of 25 hours of 
simulated instrument time in a flight simulator and flight training 
device.
    (3) A maximum of 50 hours of training in a flight simulator or 
flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time 
requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section if the aeronautical 
experience is accomplished in an approved course conducted by a training 
center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998]



Sec. 61.163  Aeronautical experience: Powered-lift category rating.

    (a) A person who is applying for an airline transport pilot 
certificate with a powered-lift category rating must have at least 1,500 
hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least:
    (1) 500 hours of cross-country flight time;
    (2) 100 hours of night flight time;
    (3) 250 hours in a powered-lift as a pilot in command, or as a 
second in command performing the duties of a pilot in command under the 
supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination thereof, which 
includes at least--
    (i) 100 hours of cross-country flight time; and
    (ii) 25 hours of night flight time.
    (4) 75 hours of instrument flight time in actual or simulated 
instrument conditions, subject to the following:
    (i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, an 
applicant may not receive credit for more than a total of 25 hours of 
simulated instrument time in a flight simulator or flight training 
device.
    (ii) A maximum of 50 hours of training in a flight simulator or 
flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time 
requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section if the training was 
accomplished in a course conducted by a training center certificated 
under part 142 of this chapter.
    (iii) Training in a flight simulator or flight training device must 
be accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training device that 
represents a powered-lift.
    (b) Not more than 100 hours of the total aeronautical experience 
requirements of paragraph (a) of this section may be obtained in a 
flight simulator or flight training device that represents a powered-
lift, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained in an approved 
course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of 
this chapter.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998]



Sec. 61.165  Additional aircraft category and class ratings.

    (a) Rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating. A person 
applying for an airline transport certificate with a rotorcraft category 
and helicopter class rating who holds an airline transport pilot 
certificate with another aircraft category rating must:
    (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of Sec. 61.153 of this part;
    (2) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of 
Sec. 61.155(c) of this part;
    (3) Comply with the requirements in Sec. 61.157(b) of this part, if 
appropriate;
    (4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of 
Sec. 61.161 of this part; and
    (5) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation of Sec. 
61.157(e)(4) of this part.
    (b) Airplane category rating with a single-engine class rating. A 
person applying for an airline transport certificate with an airplane 
category and single-engine class rating who holds an airline transport 
pilot certificate with another aircraft category rating must:

[[Page 500]]

    (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of Sec. 61.153 of this part;
    (2) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of 
Sec. 61.155(c) of this part;
    (3) Comply with the requirements in Sec. 61.157(b) of this part, if 
appropriate;
    (4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of 
Sec. 61.159 of this part; and
    (5) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation of Sec. 
61.157(e)(1) of this part.
    (c) Airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating. A 
person applying for an airline transport certificate with an airplane 
category and multiengine class rating who holds an airline transport 
certificate with another aircraft category rating must:
    (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of Sec. 61.153 of this part;
    (2) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of 
Sec. 61.155(c) of this part;
    (3) Comply with the requirements in Sec. 61.157(b) of this part, if 
appropriate;
    (4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of 
Sec. 61.159 of this part; and
    (5) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation of Sec. 
61.157(e)(2) of this part.
    (d) Powered-lift category. A person applying for an airline 
transport pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating who 
holds an airline transport certificate with another aircraft category 
rating must:
    (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of Sec. 61.153 of this part;
    (2) Pass a required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge 
areas of Sec. 61.155(c) of this part;
    (3) Comply with the requirements in Sec. 61.157(b) of this part, if 
appropriate;
    (4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of 
Sec. 61.163 of this part; and
    (5) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation of 
Sec. 61.157(e)(3) of this part.
    (e) Additional class rating within the same aircraft category. A 
person applying for an airline transport certificate with an additional 
class rating who holds an airline transport certificate in the same 
aircfaft category must--
    (1) Meet the eligibility requirements of Sec. 61.153, except 
paragraph (f) of that section;
    (2) Comply with the requirements in Sec. 61.157(b) of this part, if 
applicable;
    (3) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of 
subpart G of this part; and
    (4) Pass a practical test on the areas of operation of Sec. 
61.157(e) appropriate to the aircraft rating sought.
    (f) Category class ratings for the operation of aircraft with 
experimental certificates. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs 
(a) through (e) of this section, a person holding an airline transport 
certificate may apply for a category and class rating limited to a 
specific make and model of experimental aircraft, provided--
    (1) The person has logged at least 5 hours flight time while acting 
as pilot in command in the same category, class, make, and model of 
aircraft that has been issued an experimental certificate;
    (2) The person has received a logbook endorsement from an authorized 
instructor who has determined that he or she is proficient to act as 
pilot in command of the same category, class, make, and model of 
aircraft for which application is made; and
    (3) The flight time specified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section 
must be logged between September 1, 2004 and August 31, 2005.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, 
July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.167  Privileges.

    (a) A person who holds an airline transport pilot certificate is 
entitled to the same privileges as those afforded a person who holds a 
commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating.
    (b) An airline transport pilot may instruct--
    (1) Other pilots in air transportation service in aircraft of the 
category, class, and type, as applicable, for which the airline 
transport pilot is rated and endorse the logbook or other training 
record of the person to whom training has been given;
    (2) In flight simulators, and flight training devices representing 
the aircraft referenced in paragraph (b)(1) of

[[Page 501]]

this section, when instructing under the provisions of this section and 
endorse the logbook or other training record of the person to whom 
training has been given;
    (3) Only as provided in this section, unless the airline transport 
pilot also holds a flight instructor certificate, in which case the 
holder may exercise the instructor privileges of subpart H of part 61 
for which he or she is rated; and
    (4) In an aircraft, only if the aircraft has functioning dual 
controls, when instructing under the provisions of this section.
    (c) Excluding briefings and debriefings, an airline transport pilot 
may not instruct in aircraft, flight simulators, and flight training 
devices under this section--
    (1) For more than 8 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period; or
    (2) For more than 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.
    (d) An airline transport pilot may not instruct in Category II or 
Category III operations unless he or she has been trained and 
successfully tested under Category II or Category III operations, as 
applicable.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. Sec. 61.169-69.171  [Reserved]



Subpart H_Flight Instructors Other than Flight Instructors With a Sport 

                              Pilot Rating



Sec. 61.181  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of flight 
instructor certificates and ratings (except for flight instructor 
certificates with a sport pilot rating), the conditions under which 
those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the limitations on 
those certificates and ratings.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.183  Eligibility requirements.

    To be eligible for a flight instructor certificate or rating a 
person must:
    (a) Be at least 18 years of age;
    (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on that applicant's flight instructor certificate as are 
necessary;
    (c) Hold either a commercial pilot certificate or airline transport 
pilot certificate with:
    (1) An aircraft category and class rating that is appropriate to the 
flight instructor rating sought; and
    (2) An instrument rating, or privileges on that person's pilot 
certificate that are appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought, 
if applying for--
    (i) A flight instructor certificate with an airplane category and 
single-engine class rating;
    (ii) A flight instructor certificate with an airplane category and 
multiengine class rating;
    (iii) A flight instructor certificate with a powered-lift rating; or
    (iv) A flight instructor certificate with an instrument rating.
    (d) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor on 
the fundamentals of instructing listed in Sec. 61.185 of this part 
appropriate to the required knowledge test;
    (e) Pass a knowledge test on the areas listed in Sec. 61.185(a)(1) 
of this part, unless the applicant:
    (1) Holds a flight instructor certificate or ground instructor 
certificate issued under this part;
    (2) Holds a current teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, 
city, or municipality that authorizes the person to teach at an 
educational level of the 7th grade or higher; or
    (3) Is employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university.
    (f) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed 
in Sec. 61.185(a)(2) and (a)(3) of this part that are appropriate to 
the flight instructor rating sought;
    (g) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor on 
the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.187(b) of this part, 
appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought;
    (h) Pass the required practical test that is appropriate to the 
flight instructor rating sought in an:

[[Page 502]]

    (1) Aircraft that is representative of the category and class of 
aircraft for the aircraft rating sought; or
    (2) Flight simulator or approved flight training device that is 
representative of the category and class of aircraft for the rating 
sought, and used in accordance with a course at a training center 
certificated under part 142 of this chapter.
    (i) Accomplish the following for a flight instructor certificate 
with an airplane or a glider rating:
    (1) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor 
indicating that the applicant is competent and possesses instructional 
proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery 
procedures after providing the applicant with flight training in those 
training areas in an airplane or glider, as appropriate, that is 
certificated for spins; and
    (2) Demonstrate instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin 
entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures. However, upon presentation 
of the endorsement specified in paragraph (i)(1) of this section an 
examiner may accept that endorsement as satisfactory evidence of 
instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and 
spin recovery procedures for the practical test, provided that the 
practical test is not a retest as a result of the applicant failing the 
previous test for deficiencies in the knowledge or skill of stall 
awareness, spin entry, spins, or spin recovery instructional procedures. 
If the retest is a result of deficiencies in the ability of an applicant 
to demonstrate knowledge or skill of stall awareness, spin entry, spins, 
or spin recovery instructional procedures, the examiner must test the 
person on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery 
instructional procedures in an airplane or glider, as appropriate, that 
is certificated for spins;
    (j) Log at least 15 hours as pilot in command in the category and 
class of aircraft that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating 
sought; and
    (k) Comply with the appropriate sections of this part that apply to 
the flight instructor rating sought.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.185  Aeronautical knowledge.

    (a) A person who is applying for a flight instructor certificate 
must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on:
    (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the 
fundamentals of instructing, including:
    (i) The learning process;
    (ii) Elements of effective teaching;
    (iii) Student evaluation and testing;
    (iv) Course development;
    (v) Lesson planning; and
    (vi) Classroom training techniques.
    (2) The aeronautical knowledge areas for a recreational, private, 
and commercial pilot certificate applicable to the aircraft category for 
which flight instructor privileges are sought; and
    (3) The aeronautical knowledge areas for the instrument rating 
applicable to the category for which instrument flight instructor 
privileges are sought.
    (b) The following applicants do not need to comply with paragraph 
(a)(1) of this section:
    (1) The holder of a flight instructor certificate or ground 
instructor certificate issued under this part;
    (2) The holder of a current teacher's certificate issued by a State, 
county, city, or municipality that authorizes the person to teach at an 
educational level of the 7th grade or higher; or
    (3) A person employed as a teacher at an accredited college or 
university.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.187  Flight proficiency.

    (a) General. A person who is applying for a flight instructor 
certificate must receive and log flight and ground training from an 
authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in this section 
that apply to the flight instructor rating sought. The applicant's 
logbook must contain an endorsement from an authorized instructor 
certifying that the person is proficient to pass a practical test on 
those areas of operation.
    (b) Areas of operation. (1) For an airplane category rating with a 
single-engine class rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subject areas;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;

[[Page 503]]

    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Preflight procedures;
    (vi) Airport and seaplane base operations;
    (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (viii) Fundamentals of flight;
    (ix) Performance maneuvers;
    (x) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (xi) Slow flight, stalls, and spins;
    (xii) Basic instrument maneuvers;
    (xiii) Emergency operations; and
    (xiv) Postflight procedures.
    (2) For an airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subject areas;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;
    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Preflight procedures;
    (vi) Airport and seaplane base operations;
    (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (viii) Fundamentals of flight;
    (ix) Performance maneuvers;
    (x) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (xi) Slow flight and stalls;
    (xii) Basic instrument maneuvers;
    (xiii) Emergency operations;
    (xiv) Multiengine operations; and
    (xv) Postflight procedures.
    (3) For a rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subject areas;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;
    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Preflight procedures;
    (vi) Airport and heliport operations;
    (vii) Hovering maneuvers;
    (viii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (ix) Fundamentals of flight;
    (x) Performance maneuvers;
    (xi) Emergency operations;
    (xii) Special operations; and
    (xiii) Postflight procedures.
    (4) For a rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subject areas;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;
    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Preflight procedures;
    (vi) Airport operations;
    (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (viii) Fundamentals of flight;
    (ix) Performance maneuvers;
    (x) Flight at slow airspeeds;
    (xi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (xii) Emergency operations; and
    (xiii) Postflight procedures.
    (5) For a powered-lift category rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subject areas;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;
    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Preflight procedures;
    (vi) Airport and heliport operations;
    (vii) Hovering maneuvers;
    (viii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;
    (ix) Fundamentals of flight;
    (x) Performance maneuvers;
    (xi) Ground reference maneuvers;
    (xii) Slow flight and stalls;
    (xiii) Basic instrument maneuvers;
    (xiv) Emergency operations;
    (xv) Special operations; and
    (xvi) Postflight procedures.
    (6) For a glider category rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subject areas;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;
    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Preflight procedures;
    (vi) Airport and gliderport operations;
    (vii) Launches, landings, and go-arounds;
    (viii) Fundamentals of flight;
    (ix) Performance speeds;
    (x) Soaring techniques;
    (xi) Performance maneuvers;
    (xii) Slow flight, stalls, and spins;
    (xiii) Emergency operations; and
    (xiv) Postflight procedures.
    (7) For an instrument rating with the appropriate aircraft category 
and class rating:
    (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
    (ii) Technical subject areas;
    (iii) Preflight preparation;
    (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;
    (v) Air traffic control clearances and procedures;
    (vi) Flight by reference to instruments;

[[Page 504]]

    (vii) Navigation aids;
    (viii) Instrument approach procedures;
    (ix) Emergency operations; and
    (x) Postflight procedures.
    (c) The flight training required by this section may be 
accomplished:
    (1) In an aircraft that is representative of the category and class 
of aircraft for the rating sought; or
    (2) In a flight simulator or flight training device representative 
of the category and class of aircraft for the rating sought, and used in 
accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated 
under part 142 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.189  Flight instructor records.

    (a) A flight instructor must sign the logbook of each person to whom 
that instructor has given flight training or ground training.
    (b) A flight instructor must maintain a record in a logbook or a 
separate document that contains the following:
    (1) The name of each person whose logbook or student pilot 
certificate that instructor has endorsed for solo flight privileges, and 
the date of the endorsement; and
    (2) The name of each person that instructor has endorsed for a 
knowledge test or practical test, and the record shall also indicate the 
kind of test, the date, and the results.
    (c) Each flight instructor must retain the records required by this 
section for at least 3 years.



Sec. 61.191  Additional flight instructor ratings.

    (a) A person who applies for an additional flight instructor rating 
on a flight instructor certificate must meet the eligibility 
requirements listed in Sec. 61.183 of this part that apply to the 
flight instructor rating sought.
    (b) A person who applies for an additional rating on a flight 
instructor certificate is not required to pass the knowledge test on the 
areas listed in Sec. 61.185(a)(1) of this part.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.193  Flight instructor privileges.

    A person who holds a flight instructor certificate is authorized 
within the limitations of that person's flight instructor certificate 
and ratings to give training and endorsements that are required for, and 
relate to:
    (a) A student pilot certificate;
    (b) A pilot certificate;
    (c) A flight instructor certificate;
    (d) A ground instructor certificate;
    (e) An aircraft rating;
    (f) An instrument rating;
    (g) A flight review, operating privilege, or recency of experience 
requirement of this part;
    (h) A practical test; and
    (i) A knowledge test.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.195  Flight instructor limitations and qualifications.

    A person who holds a flight instructor certificate is subject to the 
following limitations:
    (a) Hours of training. In any 24-consecutive-hour period, a flight 
instructor may not conduct more than 8 hours of flight training.
    (b) Aircraft ratings. A flight instructor may not conduct flight 
training in any aircraft for which the flight instructor does not hold:
    (1) A pilot certificate and flight instructor certificate with the 
applicable category and class rating; and
    (2) If appropriate, a type rating.
    (c) Instrument Rating. A flight instructor who provides instrument 
flight training for the issuance of an instrument rating or a type 
rating not limited to VFR must hold an instrument rating on his or her 
flight instructor certificate and pilot certificate that is appropriate 
to the category and class of aircraft in which instrument training is 
being provided.
    (d) Limitations on endorsements. A flight instructor may not endorse 
a:
    (1) Student pilot's certificate or logbook for solo flight 
privileges, unless that flight instructor has--
    (i) Given that student the flight training required for solo flight 
privileges required by this part; and
    (ii) Determined that the student is prepared to conduct the flight 
safely under known circumstances, subject to

[[Page 505]]

any limitations listed in the student's logbook that the instructor 
considers necessary for the safety of the flight.
    (2) Student pilot's certificate and logbook for a solo cross-country 
flight, unless that flight instructor has determined the student's 
flight preparation, planning, equipment, and proposed procedures are 
adequate for the proposed flight under the existing conditions and 
within any limitations listed in the logbook that the instructor 
considers necessary for the safety of the flight;
    (3) Student pilot's certificate and logbook for solo flight in a 
Class B airspace area or at an airport within Class B airspace unless 
that flight instructor has--
    (i) Given that student ground and flight training in that Class B 
airspace or at that airport; and
    (ii) Determined that the student is proficient to operate the 
aircraft safely.
    (4) Logbook of a recreational pilot, unless that flight instructor 
has--
    (i) Given that pilot the ground and flight training required by this 
part; and
    (ii) Determined that the recreational pilot is proficient to operate 
the aircraft safely.
    (5) Logbook of a pilot for a flight review, unless that instructor 
has conducted a review of that pilot in accordance with the requirements 
of Sec. 61.56(a) of this part; or
    (6) Logbook of a pilot for an instrument proficiency check, unless 
that instructor has tested that pilot in accordance with the 
requirements of Sec. 61.57(d) of this part.
    (e) Training in an aircraft that requires a type rating. A flight 
instructor may not give flight training in an aircraft that requires the 
pilot in command to hold a type rating unless the flight instructor 
holds a type rating for that aircraft on his or her pilot certificate.
    (f) Training received in a multiengine airplane, a helicopter, or a 
powered-lift. A flight instructor may not give training required for the 
issuance of a certificate or rating in a multiengine airplane, a 
helicopter, or a powered-lift unless that flight instructor has at least 
5 flight hours of pilot-in-command time in the specific make and model 
of multiengine airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift, as appropriate.
    (g) Position in aircraft and required pilot stations for providing 
flight training. (1) A flight instructor must perform all training from 
in an aircraft that complies with the requirements of Sec. 91.109 of 
this chapter.
    (2) A flight instructor who provides flight training for a pilot 
certificate or rating issued under this part must provide that flight 
training in an aircraft that meets the following requirements--
    (i) The aircraft must have at least two pilot stations and be of the 
same category, class, and type, if appropriate, that applies to the 
pilot certificate or rating sought.
    (ii) For single-place aircraft, the pre-solo flight training must 
have been provided in an aircraft that has two pilot stations and is of 
the same category, class, and type, if appropriate.
    (h) Qualifications of the flight instructor for training first-time 
flight instructor applicants. (1) The ground training provided to an 
initial applicant for a flight instructor certificate must be given by 
an authorized instructor who--
    (i) Holds a current ground or flight instructor certificate with the 
appropriate rating, has held that certificate for at least 24 months, 
and has given at least 40 hours of ground training; or
    (ii) Holds a current ground or flight instructor certificate with 
the appropriate rating, and has given at least 100 hours of ground 
training in an FAA-approved course.
    (2) Except for an instructor who meets the requirements of paragraph 
(h)(3)(ii) of this section, a flight instructor who provides training to 
an initial applicant for a flight instructor certificate must--
    (i) Meet the eligibility requirements prescribed in Sec. 61.183 of 
this part;
    (ii) Hold the appropriate flight instructor certificate and rating;
    (iii) Have held a flight instructor certificate for at least 24 
months;
    (iv) For training in preparation for an airplane, rotorcraft, or 
powered-lift rating, have given at least 200 hours of flight training as 
a flight instructor; and
    (v) For training in preparation for a glider rating, have given at 
least 80

[[Page 506]]

hours of flight training as a flight instructor.
    (3) A flight instructor who serves as a flight instructor in an FAA-
approved course for the issuance of a flight instructor rating must hold 
a current flight instructor certificate with the appropriate rating and 
pass the required initial and recurrent flight instructor proficiency 
tests, in accordance with the requirements of the part under which the 
FAA-approved course is conducted, and must--
    (i) Meet the requirements of paragraph (h)(2) of this section; or
    (ii) Have trained and endorsed at least five applicants for a 
practical test for a pilot certificate, flight instructor certificate, 
ground instructor certificate, or an additional rating, and at least 80 
percent of those applicants passed that test on their first attempt; and
    (A) Given at least 400 hours of flight training as a flight 
instructor for training in an airplane, a rotorcraft, or for a powered-
lift rating; or
    (B) Given at least 100 hours of flight training as a flight 
instructor, for training in a glider rating.
    (i) Prohibition against self-endorsements. A flight instructor shall 
not make any self-endorsement for a certificate, rating, flight review, 
authorization, operating privilege, practical test, or knowledge test 
that is required by this part.
    (j) Additional qualifications required to give training in Category 
II or Category III operations. A flight instructor may not give training 
in Category II or Category III operations unless the flight instructor 
has been trained and tested in Category II or Category III operations, 
pursuant to Sec. 61.67 or Sec. 61.68 of this part, as applicable.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, 
July 30, 1997]



Sec. 61.197  Renewal of flight instructor certificates.

    (a) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate that has not 
expired may renew that certificate by--
    (1) Passing a practical test for--
    (i) One of the ratings listed on the current flight instructor 
certificate; or
    (ii) An additional flight instructor rating; or
    (2) Presenting to an authorized FAA Flight Standards Inspector--
    (i) A record of training students showing that, during the preceding 
24 calendar months, the flight instructor has endorsed at least five 
students for a practical test for a certificate or rating and at least 
80 percent of those students passed that test on the first attempt;
    (ii) A record showing that, within the preceding 24 calendar months, 
the flight instructor has served as a company check pilot, chief flight 
instructor, company check airman, or flight instructor in a part 121 or 
part 135 operation, or in a position involving the regular evaluation of 
pilots; or
    (iii) A graduation certificate showing that, within the preceding 3 
calendar months, the person has successfully completed an approved 
flight instructor refresher course consisting of ground training or 
flight training, or a combination of both.
    (b) The expiration month of a renewed flight instructor certificate 
shall be 24 calendar months from--
    (1) The month the renewal requirements of paragraph (a) of this 
section are accomplished; or
    (2) The month of expiration of the current flight instructor 
certificate provided--
    (i) The renewal requirements of paragraph (a) of this section are 
accomplished within the 3 calendar months preceding the expiration month 
of the current flight instructor certificate, and
    (ii) If the renewal is accomplished under paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of 
this section, the approved flight instructor refresher course must be 
completed within the 3 calendar months preceding the expiration month of 
the current flight instructor certificate.
    (c) The practical test required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section 
may be accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training device if 
the test is accomplished pursuant to an approved course conducted by a 
training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 25910, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998]

[[Page 507]]



Sec. 61.199  Expired flight instructor certificates and ratings.

    (a) Flight instructor certificates. The holder of an expired flight 
instructor certificate may exchange that certificate for a new 
certificate with the same ratings by passing a practical test as 
prescribed in Sec. 61.183(h) of this part for one of the ratings listed 
on the expired flight instructor certificate.
    (b) Flight instructor ratings. (1) A flight instructor rating or a 
limited flight instructor rating on a pilot certificate is no longer 
valid and may not be exchanged for a similar rating or a flight 
instructor certificate.
    (2) The holder of a flight instructor rating or a limited flight 
instructor rating on a pilot certificate may be issued a flight 
instructor certificate with the current ratings, but only if the person 
passes the required knowledge and practical test prescribed in this 
subpart for the issuance of the current flight instructor certificate 
and rating.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 
63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998]



Sec. 61.201  [Reserved]



                      Subpart I_Ground Instructors



Sec. 61.211  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of ground 
instructor certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those 
certificates and ratings are necessary, and the limitations upon those 
certificates and ratings.



Sec. 61.213  Eligibility requirements.

    (a) To be eligible for a ground instructor certificate or rating a 
person must:
    (1) Be at least 18 years of age;
    (2) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English 
language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements 
due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating 
limitations on that applicant's ground instructor certificate as are 
necessary;
    (3) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, pass a 
knowledge test on the fundamentals of instructing to include--
    (i) The learning process;
    (ii) Elements of effective teaching;
    (iii) Student evaluation and testing;
    (iv) Course development;
    (v) Lesson planning; and
    (vi) Classroom training techniques.
    (4) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas in--
    (i) For a basic ground instructor rating Sec. Sec. 61.97, 61.105, 
and 61.309;
    (ii) For an advanced ground instructor rating Sec. Sec. 61.97, 
61.105, 61.125, 61.155, and 61.309; and
    (iii) For an instrument ground instructor rating, Sec. 61.65.
    (b) The knowledge test specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section 
is not required if the applicant:
    (1) Holds a ground instructor certificate or flight instructor 
certificate issued under this part;
    (2) Holds a current teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, 
city, or municipality that authorizes the person to teach at an 
educational level of the 7th grade or higher; or
    (3) Is employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.215  Ground instructor privileges.

    (a) A person who holds a basic ground instructor rating is 
authorized to provide--
    (1) Ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for 
the issuance of a sport pilot certificate, recreational pilot 
certificate, private pilot certificate, or associated ratings under this 
part;
    (2) Ground training required for a sport pilot, recreational pilot, 
and private pilot flight review; and
    (3) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance 
of a sport pilot certificate, recreational pilot certificate, or private 
pilot certificate under this part.
    (b) A person who holds an advanced ground instructor rating is 
authorized to provide:
    (1) Ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for 
the issuance of any certificate or rating under this part;

[[Page 508]]

    (2) Ground training required for any flight review; and
    (3) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance 
of any certificate under this part.
    (c) A person who holds an instrument ground instructor rating is 
authorized to provide:
    (1) Ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for 
the issuance of an instrument rating under this part;
    (2) Ground training required for an instrument proficiency check; 
and
    (3) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance 
of an instrument rating under this part.
    (d) A person who holds a ground instructor certificate is 
authorized, within the limitations of the ratings on the ground 
instructor certificate, to endorse the logbook or other training record 
of a person to whom the holder has provided the training or 
recommendation specified in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 
69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 61.217  Recent experience requirements.

    The holder of a ground instructor certificate may not perform the 
duties of a ground instructor unless, within the preceding 12 months:
    (a) The person has served for at least 3 months as a ground 
instructor; or
    (b) The person has received an endorsement from an authorized ground 
or flight instructor certifying that the person has demonstrated 
safisfactory proficiency in the subject areas prescribed in Sec. 61.213 
(a)(3) and (a)(4), as applicable.

[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, 
July 30, 1997]



                         Subpart J_Sport Pilots

    Source: Docket No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, 
unless otherwise noted.



Sec. 61.301  What is the purpose of this subpart and to whom does it apply?

    (a) This subpart prescribes the following requirements that apply to 
a sport pilot certificate:
    (1) Eligibility.
    (2) Aeronautical knowledge.
    (3) Flight proficiency.
    (4) Aeronautical experience.
    (5) Endorsements.
    (6) Privileges and limits.
    (7) Transition provisions for registered ultralight pilots.
    (b) Other provisions of this part apply to the logging of flight 
time and testing.
    (c) This subpart applies to applicants for, and holders of, sport 
pilot certificates. It also applies to holders of recreational pilot 
certificates and higher, as provided in Sec. 61.303.



Sec. 61.303  If I want to operate a light-sport aircraft, what operating 

limits and endorsement requirements in this subpart must I comply with?

    (a) Use the following table to determine what operating limits and 
endorsement requirements in this subpart, if any, apply to you when you 
operate a light-sport aircraft. The medical certificate specified in 
this table must be valid. If you hold a recreational pilot certificate, 
but not a medical certificate, you must comply with cross-country 
requirements in Sec. 61.101 (c), even if your flight does not exceed 50 
nautical miles from your departure airport. You must also comply with 
requirements in other subparts of this part that apply to your 
certificate and the operation you conduct.

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
             If you hold                     And you hold         Then you may operate             And
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(1) A medical certificate............  (i) A sport pilot        (A) Any light sport      (1) You must hold any
                                        certificate,.            aircraft for which you   other endorsements
                                                                 hold the endorsements    required by this
                                                                 required for its         subpart, and comply
                                                                 category, class, make    with the limitations
                                                                 and model,               in Sec.  61.315.
                                       (ii) At least a          (A) Any light sport      (1) You do not have to
                                        recreational pilot       aircraft in that         hold any of the
                                        certificate with a       category and class,      endorsements required
                                        category and class                                by this subpart, nor
                                        rating,                                           do you have to comply
                                                                                          with the limitations
                                                                                          in Sec.  61.315.

[[Page 509]]

 
                                       (iii) At least a         (A) That light sport     (1) You must comply
                                        recreational pilot       aircraft, only if you    with the limitations
                                        certificate but not a    hold the endorsements    in Sec.  61.315,
                                        rating for the           required in Sec.        except Sec.
                                        category and class of    61.321 for its           61.315(c)(14) and, if
                                        light sport aircraft     category and class,      a private pilot or
                                        you operate,                                      higher, Sec.
                                                                                          61.315(c)(7).
(2) Only a U.S. driver's license.....  (i) A sport pilot        (A) Any light sport      (1) You must hold any
                                        certificate,             aircraft for which you   other endorsements
                                                                 hold the endorsements    required by this
                                                                 required for its         subpart, and comply
                                                                 category, class, make    with the limitations
                                                                 and model,               in Sec.  61.315.
                                       (ii) At least a          (A) Any light sport      (1) You do not have to
                                        recreational pilot       aircraft in that         hold any of the
                                        certificate with a       category and class,      endorsements required
                                        category and class                                by this subpart, but
                                        rating,                                           you must comply with
                                                                                          the limitations in
                                                                                          Sec.  61.315.
                                       (iii) At least a         (A) That light sport     (1) You must comply
                                        recreational pilot       aircraft, only if you    with the limitations
                                        certificate but not a    hold the endorsements    in Sec.  61.315,
                                        rating for the           required in Sec.        except Sec.
                                        category and class of    61.321 for its           61.315(c)(14) and, if
                                        light-sport aircraft     category and class,      a private pilot or
                                        you operate,                                      higher, Sec.
                                                                                          61.315(c)(7).
(3) Neither a medical certificate nor  (i) A sport pilot        (A) Only a light sport   (1) You must hold any
 a U.S. driver's license                certificate,             glider or balloon for    other endorsements
                                                                 which you hold the       required by this
                                                                 endorsements required    subpart, and comply
                                                                 for its category,        with the limitations
                                                                 class, make and model,   in Sec.  61.315.
                                       (ii) At least a private  (A) Only a light sport   (1) You do not have to
                                        pilot certificate with   glider or balloon in     hold any of the
                                        a category and class     that category and        endorsements required
                                        rating for glider or     class,                   by this subpart, but
                                        balloon,                                          you must comply with
                                                                                          the limitations in
                                                                                          Sec.  61.315.
                                       (iii) At least a         (A) Only a light sport   (1) You must comply
                                        private pilot            glider or balloon, if    with the limitations
                                        certificate but not a    you hold the             in Sec.  61.315,
                                        rating for glider or     endorsements required    except Sec.
                                        balloon,                 in Sec.  61.321 for     61.315(c)(14) and, if
                                                                 its category and         a private pilot or
                                                                 class,                   higher, Sec.
                                                                                          61.315(c)(7).
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (b) A person using a current and valid U.S. driver's license to meet 
the requirements of this paragraph must--
    (1) Comply with each restriction and limitation imposed by that 
person's U.S. driver's license and any judicial or administrative order 
applying to the operation of a motor vehicle;
    (2) Have been found eligible for the issuance of at least a third-
class airman medical certificate at the time of his or her most recent 
application (if the person has applied for a medical certificate);
    (3) Not have had his or her most recently issued medical certificate 
(if the person has held a medical certificate) suspended or revoked or 
most recent Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical 
Certificate withdrawn; and
    (4) Not know or have reason to know of any medical condition that 
would make that person unable to operate a light-sport aircraft in a 
safe manner.



Sec. 61.305  What are the age and language requirements for a sport pilot 

certificate?

    (a) To be eligible for a sport pilot certificate you must:
    (1) Be at least 17 years old (or 16 years old if you are applying to 
operate a glider or balloon).
    (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand English. If you 
cannot read, speak, write, and understand English because of medical 
reasons, the FAA may place limits on your certificate as are necessary 
for the safe operation of light-sport aircraft.



Sec. 61.307  What tests do I have to take to obtain a sport pilot certificate?

    To obtain a sport pilot certificate, you must pass the following 
tests:
    (a) Knowledge test. You must pass a knowledge test on the applicable 
aeronautical knowledge areas listed in Sec. 61.309. Before you may take 
the

[[Page 510]]

knowledge test for a sport pilot certificate, you must receive a logbook 
endorsement from the authorized instructor who trained you or reviewed 
and evaluated your home-study course on the aeronautical knowledge areas 
listed in Sec. 61.309 certifying you are prepared for the test.
    (b) Practical test. You must pass a practical test on the applicable 
areas of operation listed in Sec. Sec. 61.309 and 61.311. Before you 
may take the practical test for a sport pilot certificate, you must 
receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who 
provided you with flight training on the areas of operation specified in 
Sec. Sec. 61.309 and 61.311 in preparation for the practical test. This 
endorsement certifies that you meet the applicable aeronautical 
knowledge and experience requirements and are prepared for the practical 
test.



Sec. 61.309  What aeronautical knowledge must I have to apply for a sport 

pilot certificate?

    Except as specified in Sec. 61.329, to apply for a sport pilot 
certificate you must receive and log ground training from an authorized 
instructor or complete a home-study course on the following aeronautical 
knowledge areas:
    (a) Applicable regulations of this chapter that relate to sport 
pilot privileges, limits, and flight operations.
    (b) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation 
Safety Board.
    (c) Use of the applicable portions of the aeronautical information 
manual and FAA advisory circulars.
    (d) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage, 
dead reckoning, and navigation systems, as appropriate.
    (e) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and 
in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of 
aeronautical weather reports and forecasts.
    (f) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision 
avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence.
    (g) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance.
    (h) Weight and balance computations.
    (i) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems.
    (j) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery 
techniques, as applicable.
    (k) Aeronautical decision making and risk management.
    (l) Preflight actions that include--
    (1) How to get information on runway lengths at airports of intended 
use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and 
forecasts, and fuel requirements; and
    (2) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be 
completed or if you encounter delays.



Sec. 61.311  What flight proficiency requirements must I meet to apply for a 

sport pilot certificate?

    Except as specified in Sec. 61.329, to apply for a sport pilot 
certificate you must receive and log ground and flight training from an 
authorized instructor on the following areas of operation, as 
appropriate, for airplane single-engine land or sea, glider, gyroplane, 
airship, balloon, powered parachute land or sea, and weight-shift-
control aircraft land or sea privileges:
    (a) Preflight preparation.
    (b) Preflight procedures.
    (c) Airport, seaplane base, and gliderport operations, as 
applicable.
    (d) Takeoffs (or launches), landings, and go-arounds.
    (e) Performance maneuvers, and for gliders, performance speeds.
    (f) Ground reference maneuvers (not applicable to gliders and 
balloons).
    (g) Soaring techniques (applicable only to gliders).
    (h) Navigation.
    (i) Slow flight (not applicable to lighter-than-air aircraft and 
powered parachutes).
    (j) Stalls (not applicable to lighter-than-air aircraft, gyroplanes, 
and powered parachutes).
    (k) Emergency operations.
    (l) Post-flight procedures.



Sec. 61.313  What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for a sport 

pilot certificate?

    Except as specified in Sec. 61.329, use the following table to 
determine the aeronautical experience you must have to apply for a sport 
pilot certificate:

[[Page 511]]



------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                      Which must include
 If you are applying for a sport   Then you must log    at least . . .
  pilot certificate with . . .      at least . . .
------------------------------------------------------------------------
(a) Airplane category and single- (1) 20 hours of     (i) 2 hours of
 engine land or sea class          flight time,        cross-country
 privileges,                       including at        flight training,
                                   least 15 hours of   (ii) 10 takeoffs
                                   flight training     and landings to a
                                   from an             full stop (with
                                   authorized          each landing
                                   instructor in a     involving a
                                   single-engine       flight in the
                                   airplane and at     traffic pattern)
                                   least 5 hours of    at an airport,
                                   solo flight         (iii) One solo
                                   training in the     cross-country
                                   areas of            flight of at
                                   operation listed    least 75 nautical
                                   in Sec.  61.311,   miles total
                                                       distance, with a
                                                       full-stop landing
                                                       at a minimum of
                                                       two points and
                                                       one segment of
                                                       the flight
                                                       consisting of a
                                                       straight-line
                                                       distance of at
                                                       least 25 nautical
                                                       miles between the
                                                       takeoff and
                                                       landing
                                                       locations, and
                                                       (iv) 3 hours of
                                                       flight training
                                                       on those areas of
                                                       operation
                                                       specified in Sec.
                                                         61.311
                                                       preparing for the
                                                       practical test
                                                       within 60 days
                                                       before the date
                                                       of the test.
(b) Glider category privileges,   (1) 10 hours of     (i) Five solo
 and you have not logged at        flight time in a    launches and
 least 20 hours of flight time     glider, including   landings, and
 in a heavier-than-air aircraft,   10 flights in a     (ii) 3 hours of
                                   glider receiving    flight training
                                   flight training     on those areas of
                                   from an             operation
                                   authorized          specified in Sec.
                                   instructor and at     61.311
                                   least 2 hours of    preparing for the
                                   solo flight         practical test
                                   training in the     within 60 days
                                   areas of            before the date
                                   operation listed    of the test.
                                   in Sec.  61.311,
(c) Glider category privileges,   (1) 3 hours of      (i) Three solo
 and you have logged 20 hours      flight time in a    launches and
 flight time in a heavier-than-    glider, including   landings, and
 air aircraft,                     five flights in a   (ii) 3 hours of
                                   glider while        flight training
                                   receiving flight    on those areas of
                                   training from an    operation
                                   authorized          specified in Sec.
                                   instructor and at     61.311,
                                   least 1 hour of     preparing for the
                                   solo flight         practical test
                                   training in the     within 60 days
                                   areas of            before the date
                                   operation listed    of the test.
                                   in Sec.  61.311,
(d) Rotorcraft category and       (1) 20 hours of     (i) 2 hours of
 gyroplane class privileges,       flight time,        cross-country
                                   including 15        flight training,
                                   hours of flight     (ii) 10 takeoffs
                                   training from an    and landings to a
                                   authorized          full stop (with
                                   instructor in a     each landing
                                   gyroplane and at    involving a
                                   least 5 hours of    flight in the
                                   solo flight         traffic pattern)
                                   training in the     at an airport,
                                   areas of            (iii) One solo
                                   operation listed    cross-country
                                   in Sec.  61.311,   flight of at
                                                       least 50 nautical
                                                       miles total
                                                       distance, with a
                                                       full-stop landing
                                                       at a minimum of
                                                       two points, and
                                                       one segment of
                                                       the flight
                                                       consisting of a
                                                       straight-line
                                                       distance of at
                                                       least 25 nautical
                                                       miles between the
                                                       takeoff and
                                                       landing
                                                       locations, and
                                                       (iv) 3 hours of
                                                       flight training
                                                       on those areas of
                                                       operation
                                                       specified in Sec.
                                                         61.311
                                                       preparing for the
                                                       practical test
                                                       within 60 days
                                                       before the date
                                                       of the test.
(e) Lighter-than-air category     (1) 20 hours of     (i) 2 hours of
 and airship class privileges,     flight time,        cross-country
                                   including 15        flight training,
                                   hours of flight     (ii) Three
                                   training from an    takeoffs and
                                   authorized          landings to a
                                   instructor in an    full stop (with
                                   airship and at      each landing
                                   least 3 hours       involving a
                                   performing the      flight in the
                                   duties of pilot     traffic pattern)
                                   in command in an    at an airport,
                                   airship with an     (iii) One cross-
                                   authorized          country flight of
                                   instructor in the   at least 25
                                   areas of            nautical miles
                                   operation listed    between the
                                   in Sec.  61.311,   takeoff and
                                                       landing
                                                       locations, and
                                                       (iv) 3 hours of
                                                       flight training
                                                       on those areas of
                                                       operation
                                                       specified in Sec.
                                                         61.311
                                                       preparing for the
                                                       practical test
                                                       within 60 days
                                                       before the date
                                                       of the test.
(f) Lighter-than-air category     (1) 7 hours of      (i) 2 hours of
 and balloon class privileges,     flight time in a    cross-country
                                   balloon,            flight training,
                                   including three     and (ii) 3 hours
                                   flights with an     of flight
                                   authorized          training on those
                                   instructor and      areas of
                                   one flight          operation
                                   performing the      specified in Sec.
                                   duties of pilot       61.311
                                   in command in a     preparing for the
                                   balloon with an     practical test
                                   authorized          within 60 days
                                   instructor in the   before the date
                                   areas of            of the test.
                                   operation listed
                                   in Sec.  61.311,

[[Page 512]]

 
(g) Powered parachute category    (1) 12 hours of     (i) 1 hour of
 land or sea class privileges,     flight time in a    cross-country
                                   powered             flight training,
                                   parachute,          (ii) 20 takeoffs
                                   including 10        and landings to a
                                   hours flight        full stop in a
                                   training and, and   powered parachute
                                   at least 2 hours    with each landing
                                   solo flight         involving flight
                                   training in the     in the traffic
                                   areas of            pattern at an
                                   operation listed    airport; (iii) 10
                                   in Sec.  61.311.   solo takeoffs and
                                                       landings to a
                                                       full stop (with
                                                       each landing
                                                       involving a
                                                       flight in the
                                                       traffic pattern)
                                                       at an airport,
                                                       (iv) One solo
                                                       flight with a
                                                       landing at a
                                                       different airport
                                                       and one segment
                                                       of the flight
                                                       consisting of a
                                                       straight-line
                                                       distance of at
                                                       least 10 nautical
                                                       miles between
                                                       takeoff and
                                                       landing
                                                       locations, and
                                                       (v) 3 hours of
                                                       flight training
                                                       on those areas of
                                                       operation
                                                       specified in Sec.
                                                         61.311
                                                       preparing for the
                                                       practical test
                                                       within 60 days
                                                       before the date
                                                       of the test.
(h) Weight-shift-control          (1) 20 hours of     (i) 2 hours of
 aircraft category land or sea     light time,         cross-country
 class privileges,                 including 15        flight training,
                                   hours of flight     (ii) 10 takeoffs
                                   training from an    and landings to a
                                   authorized          full stop (with
                                   instructor in a     each landing
                                   weight-shift-       involving a
                                   control aircraft    flight in the
                                   and at least 5      traffic pattern)
                                   hours of solo       at an airport,
                                   flight training     (iii) One solo
                                   in the areas of     cross-country
                                   operation listed    flight of at
                                   in Sec.  61.311,   least 50 nautical
                                                       miles total
                                                       distance, with a
                                                       full-stop landing
                                                       at a minimum of
                                                       two points, and
                                                       one segment of
                                                       the flight
                                                       consisting of a
                                                       straight-line
                                                       distance of at
                                                       least 25 nautical
                                                       miles between
                                                       takeoff and
                                                       landing
                                                       locations, and
                                                       (iv) 3 hours of
                                                       flight training
                                                       on those areas of
                                                       operation
                                                       specified in Sec.
                                                         61.311
                                                       preparing for the
                                                       practical test
                                                       within 60 days
                                                       before the date
                                                       of the test.
------------------------------------------------------------------------



Sec. 61.315  What are the privileges and limits of my sport pilot certificate?

    (a) If you hold a sport pilot certificate you may act as pilot in 
command of a light-sport aircraft, except as specified in paragraph (c) 
of this section.
    (b) You may share the operating expenses of a flight with a 
passenger, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport 
expenses, or aircraft rental fees. You must pay at least half the 
operating expenses of the flight.
    (c) You may not act as pilot in command of a light-sport aircraft:
    (1) That is carrying a passenger or property for compensation or 
hire.
    (2) For compensation or hire.
    (3) In furtherance of a business.
    (4) While carrying more than one passenger.
    (5) At night.
    (6) In Class A airspace.
    (7) In Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, 
C, or D airspace, and to, from, through, or at an airport having an 
operational control tower unless you have met the requirements specified 
in Sec. 61.325.
    (8) Outside the United States, unless you have prior authorization 
from the country in which you seek to operate. Your sport pilot 
certificate carries the limit ``Holder does not meet ICAO 
requirements.''
    (9) To demonstrate the aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer if 
you are an aircraft salesperson.
    (10) In a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable 
organization.
    (11) At an altitude of more than 10,000 feet MSL.
    (12) When the flight or surface visibility is less than 3 statute 
miles.
    (13) Without visual reference to the surface.
    (14) If the aircraft has a VH that exceeds 87 knots CAS, 
unless you have met the requirements of Sec. 61.327.
    (15) Contrary to any operating limitation placed on the 
airworthiness certificate of the aircraft being flown.
    (16) Contrary to any limit or endorsement on your pilot certificate, 
airman medical certificate, or any other limit or endorsement from an 
authorized instructor.

[[Page 513]]

    (17) Contrary to any restriction or limitation on your U.S. driver's 
license or any restriction or limitation imposed by judicial or 
administrative order when using your driver's license to satisfy a 
requirement of this part.
    (18) While towing any object.
    (19) As a pilot flight crewmember on any aircraft for which more 
than one pilot is required by the type certificate of the aircraft or 
the regulations under which the flight is conducted.



Sec. 61.317  Is my sport pilot certificate issued with aircraft category and 

class ratings?

    Your sport pilot certificate does not list aircraft category and 
class ratings. When you successfully pass the practical test for a sport 
pilot certificate, regardless of the light-sport aircraft privileges you 
seek, the FAA will issue you a sport pilot certificate without any 
category and class ratings. The FAA will provide you with a logbook 
endorsement for the category, class, and make and model of aircraft in 
which you are authorized to act as pilot in command.



Sec. 61.319  Can I operate a make and model of aircraft other than the make 

and model aircraft for which I have received an endorsement?

    If you hold a sport pilot certificate you may operate any make and 
model of light-sport aircraft in the same category and class and within 
the same set of aircraft as the make and model of aircraft for which you 
have received an endorsement.



Sec. 61.321  How do I obtain privileges to operate an additional category or 

class of light-sport aircraft?

    If you hold a sport pilot certificate and seek to operate an 
additional category or class of light-sport aircraft, you must--
    (a) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who 
trained you on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas specified in 
Sec. 61.309 and areas of operation specified in Sec. 61.311. The 
endorsement certifies you have met the aeronautical knowledge and flight 
proficiency requirements for the additional light-sport aircraft 
privilege you seek;
    (b) Successfully complete a proficiency check from an authorized 
instructor other than the instructor who trained you on the aeronautical 
knowledge areas and areas of operation specified in Sec. Sec. 61.309 
and 61.311 for the additional light-sport aircraft privilege you seek;
    (c) Complete an application for those privileges on a form and in a 
manner acceptable to the FAA and present this application to the 
authorized instructor who conducted the proficiency check specified in 
paragraph (b) of this section; and
    (d) Receive a logbook endorsement from the instructor who conducted 
the proficiency check specified in paragraph (b) of this section 
certifying you are proficient in the applicable areas of operation and 
aeronautical knowledge areas, and that you are authorized for the 
additional category and class light-sport aircraft privilege.



Sec. 61.323  How do I obtain privileges to operate a make and model of light-

sport aircraft in the same category and class within a different set of 

aircraft?

    If you hold a sport pilot certificate and seek to operate a make and 
model of light-sport aircraft in the same category and class but within 
a different set of aircraft as the make and model of aircraft for which 
you have received an endorsement, you must--
    (a) Receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized 
instructor in a make and model of light-sport aircraft that is within 
the same set of aircraft as the make and model of aircraft you intend to 
operate;
    (b) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who 
provided you with the aircraft specific training specified in paragraph 
(a) of this section certifying you are proficient to operate the 
specific make and model of light-sport aircraft.



Sec. 61.325  How do I obtain privileges to operate a light-sport aircraft at 

an airport within, or in airspace within, Class B, C, and D airspace, or in 

other airspace with an airport having an operational control tower?

    If you hold a sport pilot certificate and seek privileges to operate 
a light-

[[Page 514]]

sport aircraft in Class B, C, or D airspace, at an airport located in 
Class B, C, or D airspace, or to, from, through, or at an airport having 
an operational control tower, you must receive and log ground and flight 
training. The authorized instructor who provides this training must 
provide a logbook endorsement that certifies you are proficient in the 
following aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation:
    (a) The use of radios, communications, navigation system/facilities, 
and radar services.
    (b) Operations at airports with an operating control tower to 
include three takeoffs and landings to a full stop, with each landing 
involving a flight in the traffic pattern, at an airport with an 
operating control tower.
    (c) Applicable flight rules of part 91 of this chapter for 
operations in Class B, C, and D airspace and air traffic control 
clearances.



Sec. 61.327  How do I obtain privileges to operate a light-sport aircraft that 

has a VH greater than 87 knots CAS?

    If you hold a sport pilot certificate and you seek to operate a 
light-sport aircraft that has a VH greater than 87 knots CAS 
you must--
    (a) Receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized 
instructor in an aircraft that has a VH greater than 87 knots 
CAS; and
    (b) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who 
provided the training specified in paragraph (a) of this section 
certifying that you are proficient in the operation of light-sport 
aircraft with a VH greater than 87 knots CAS.



Sec. 61.329  Are there special provisions for obtaining a sport pilot 

certificate for persons who are registered ultralight pilots with an FAA-

recognized ultralight organization?

    (a) If you are a registered ultralight pilot with an FAA-recognized 
ultralight organization use the following table to determine how to 
obtain a sport pilot certificate.

------------------------------------------------------------------------
             If you are . . .                    Then you must . . .
------------------------------------------------------------------------
(1) A registered ultralight pilot with an   (i) Not later than January
 FAA-recognized ultralight organization on   31, 2007--
 or before September 1, 2004, and you want
 to apply for a sport pilot certificate
                                            (A) Meet the eligibility
                                             requirements in Sec. Sec.
                                              61.305 and 61.23, but not
                                             the aeronautical knowledge
                                             requirements specified in
                                             Sec.  61.309, the flight
                                             proficiency requirements
                                             specified in Sec.  61.311,
                                             and the aeronautical
                                             experience requirements
                                             specified in Sec.  61.313,
                                            (B) Pass the knowledge test
                                             for a sport pilot
                                             certificate specified in
                                             Sec.  61.307 or the
                                             knowledge test for a flight
                                             instructor certificate with
                                             a sport pilot rating
                                             specified in Sec.  61.405,
                                            (C) Pass the practical test
                                             for a sport pilot
                                             certificate specified in
                                             Sec.  61.307,
                                            (D) Provide the FAA with a
                                             certified copy of your
                                             ultralight pilot records
                                             from an FAA-recognized
                                             ultralight organization,
                                             and those records must
                                            (1) Document that you are a
                                             registered ultralight pilot
                                             with that FAA-recognized
                                             ultralight organization,
                                             and
                                            (2) Indicate that you are
                                             recognized to operate each
                                             category and class of
                                             aircraft for which you seek
                                             sport pilot privileges.
(2) A registered ultralight pilot with an   (i) Meet the eligibility
 FAA-recognized ultralight organization      requirements in Sec. Sec.
 after September 1, 2004, and you want to     61.305 and 61.23,
 apply for a sport pilot certificate        (ii) Meet the aeronautical
                                             knowledge requirements
                                             specified in Sec.  61.309,
                                             the flight proficiency
                                             requirements specified in
                                             Sec.  61.311, and
                                             aeronautical experience
                                             requirements specified in
                                             Sec.  61.313; however, you
                                             may credit your ultralight
                                             aeronautical experience in
                                             accordance with Sec.
                                             61.52 toward the
                                             requirements in Sec. Sec.
                                              61.309, 61.311, and
                                             61.313,
                                            (iii) Pass the knowledge and
                                             practical tests for a sport
                                             pilot certificate specified
                                             in Sec.  61.307, and
                                            (iv) Provide the FAA with a
                                             certified copy of your
                                             ultralight pilot records
                                             from an FAA-recognized
                                             ultralight organization,
                                             and those records must
                                            (A) Document that you are a
                                             registered ultralight pilot
                                             with that FAA-recognized
                                             ultralight organization,
                                             and

[[Page 515]]

 
                                            (B) Indicate that you are
                                             recognized to operate the
                                             category and class of
                                             aircraft for which you seek
                                             sport pilot privileges.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (b) When you successfully pass the practical test for a sport pilot 
certificate, the FAA will issue you a sport pilot certificate without 
any category and class ratings. The FAA will provide you with a logbook 
endorsement for the category, class, and make and model of aircraft in 
which you have successfully passed the practical test and for which you 
are authorized to act as pilot in command. If you meet the provisions of 
paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the FAA will provide you with a 
logbook endorsement for each category, class, and make and model of 
aircraft listed on the ultralight pilot records you provide to the FAA.



         Subpart K_Flight Instructors With a Sport Pilot Rating

    Source: Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 61.401  What is the purpose of this subpart?

    (a) This part prescribes the following requirements that apply to a 
flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating:
    (1) Eligibility.
    (2) Aeronautical knowledge.
    (3) Flight proficiency.
    (4) Endorsements.
    (5) Privileges and limits.
    (6) Transition provisions for registered ultralight flight 
instructors.
    (b) Other provisions of this part apply to the logging of flight 
time and testing.



Sec. 61.403  What are the age, language, and pilot certificate requirements 

for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

    To be eligible for a flight instructor certificate with a sport 
pilot rating you must:
    (a) Be at least 18 years old.
    (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand English. If you 
cannot read, speak, write, and understand English because of medical 
reasons, the FAA may place limits on your certificate as are necessary 
for the safe operation of light-sport aircraft.
    (c) Hold at least a current and valid sport pilot certificate with 
category and class ratings or privileges, as applicable, that are 
appropriate to the flight instructor privileges sought.



Sec. 61.405  What tests do I have to take to obtain a flight instructor 

certificate with a sport pilot rating?

    To obtain a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating 
you must pass the following tests:
    (a) Knowledge test. Before you take a knowledge test, you must 
receive a logbook endorsement certifying you are prepared for the test 
from an authorized instructor who trained you or evaluated your home-
study course on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in Sec. 61.407. 
You must pass knowledge tests on--
    (1) The fundamentals of instructing listed in Sec. 61.407(a), 
unless you meet the requirements of Sec. 61.407(c); and
    (2) The aeronautical knowledge areas for a sport pilot certificate 
applicable to the aircraft category and class for which flight 
instructor privileges are sought.
    (b) Practical test. (1) Before you take the practical test, you 
must--
    (i) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who 
provided you with flight training on the areas of operation specified in 
Sec. 61.409 that apply to the category and class of aircraft privileges 
you seek. This endorsement certifies you meet the applicable 
aeronautical knowledge and experience requirements and are prepared for 
the practical test;
    (ii) If you are seeking privileges to provide instruction in an 
airplane or glider, receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized 
instructor indicating that you are competent and possess instructional 
proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery 
procedures after you have received flight training in those training 
areas in an airplane or glider, as appropriate, that is certificated for 
spins;
    (2) You must pass a practical test--

[[Page 516]]

    (i) On the areas of operation listed in Sec. 61.409 that are 
appropriate to the category and class of aircraft privileges you seek;
    (ii) In an aircraft representative of the category and class of 
aircraft for the privileges you seek;
    (iii) In which you demonstrate that you are able to teach stall 
awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures if you are 
seeking privileges to provide instruction in an airplane or glider. If 
you have not failed a practical test based on deficiencies in your 
ability to demonstrate knowledge or skill in these areas and you provide 
the endorsement required by paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, an 
examiner may accept the endorsement instead of the demonstration 
required by this paragraph. If you are taking a test because you 
previously failed a test based on not meeting the requirements of this 
paragraph, you must pass a practical test on stall awareness, spin 
entry, spins, and spin recovery instructional competency and proficiency 
in the applicable category and class of aircraft that is certificated 
for spins.



Sec. 61.407  What aeronautical knowledge must I have to apply for a flight 

instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

    (a) Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section you must 
receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on the 
fundamentals of instruction that includes:
    (1) The learning process.
    (2) Elements of effective teaching.
    (3) Student evaluation and testing.
    (4) Course development.
    (5) Lesson planning.
    (6) Classroom training techniques.
    (b) You must receive and log ground training from an authorized 
instructor on the aeronautical knowledge areas applicable to a sport 
pilot certificate for the aircraft category and class in which you seek 
flight instructor privileges.
    (c) You do not have to meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of 
this section if you--
    (1) Hold a flight instructor certificate or ground instructor 
certificate issued under this part;
    (2) Hold a current teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, 
city, or municipality; or
    (3) Are employed as a teacher at an accredited college or 
university.



Sec. 61.409  What flight proficiency requirements must I meet to apply for a 

flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

    You must receive and log ground and flight training from an 
authorized instructor on the following areas of operation for the 
aircraft category and class in which you seek flight instructor 
privileges:
    (a) Technical subject areas.
    (b) Preflight preparation.
    (c) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight.
    (d) Preflight procedures.
    (e) Airport, seaplane base, and gliderport operations, as 
applicable.
    (f) Takeoffs (or launches), landings, and go-arounds.
    (g) Fundamentals of flight.
    (h) Performance maneuvers and for gliders, performance speeds.
    (i) Ground reference maneuvers (except for gliders and lighter-than-
air).
    (j) Soaring techniques.
    (k) Slow flight (not applicable to lighter-than-air and powered 
parachutes).
    (l) Stalls (not applicable to lighter-than-air, powered parachutes, 
and gyroplanes).
    (m) Spins (applicable to airplanes and gliders).
    (n) Emergency operations.
    (o) Tumble entry and avoidance techniques (applicable to weight-
shift-control aircraft).
    (p) Post-flight procedures.



Sec. 61.411  What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for a flight 

instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

    Use the following table to determine the experience you must have 
for each aircraft category and class:

[[Page 517]]



------------------------------------------------------------------------
   If you are applying for a
 flight instructor certificate   Then you must log    Which must include
with a sport pilot rating  for     at least . . .       at least . . .
             . . .
------------------------------------------------------------------------
(a) Airplane category and       (1) 150 hours of     (i) 100 hours of
 single-engine class             flight time as a     flight time as
 privileges,                     pilot,.              pilot in command
                                                      in powered
                                                      aircraft,
                                                     (ii) 50 hours of
                                                      flight time in a
                                                      single-engine
                                                      airplane,
                                                     (iii) 25 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time,
                                                     (iv) 10 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time in a
                                                      single-engine
                                                      airplane, and
                                                     (v) 15 hours of
                                                      flight time as
                                                      pilot in command
                                                      in a single-engine
                                                      airplane that is a
                                                      light-sport
                                                      aircraft.
(b) Glider category             (1) 25 hours of
 privileges,                     flight time as
                                 pilot in command
                                 in a glider, 100
                                 flights in a
                                 glider, and 15
                                 flights as pilot
                                 in command in a
                                 glider that is a
                                 light-sport
                                 aircraft, or.
                                (2) 100 hours in
                                 heavier-than-air
                                 aircraft, 20
                                 flights in a
                                 glider, and 15
                                 flights as pilot
                                 in command in a
                                 glider that is a
                                 light-sport
                                 aircraft.
(c) Rotorcraft category and     (1) 125 hours of     (i) 100 hours of
 gyroplane class privileges,     flight time as a     flight time as
                                 pilot,.              pilot in command
                                                      in powered
                                                      aircraft,
                                                     (ii) 50 hours of
                                                      flight time in a
                                                      gyroplane,
                                                     (iii) 10 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time,
                                                     (iv) 3 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time in a
                                                      gyroplane, and
                                                     (v) 15 hours of
                                                      flight time as
                                                      pilot in command
                                                      in a gyroplane
                                                      that is a light-
                                                      sport aircraft.
(d) Lighter-than-air category   (1) 100 hours of     (i) 40 hours of
 and airship class privileges,   flight time as a     flight time in an
                                 pilot,.              airship,
                                                     (ii) 20 hours of
                                                      pilot in command
                                                      time in an
                                                      airship,
                                                     (iii) 10 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time,
                                                     (iv) 5 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time in an
                                                      airship, and
                                                     (v) 15 hours of
                                                      flight time as
                                                      pilot in command
                                                      in an airship that
                                                      is a light-sport
                                                      aircraft.
(e) Lighter-than-air category   (1) 35 hours of      (i) 20 hours of
 and balloon class privileges,   flight time as       flight time in a
                                 pilot-in-command,.   balloon,
                                                     (ii) 10 flights in
                                                      a balloon, and
                                                     (iii) 5 flights as
                                                      pilot in command
                                                      in a balloon that
                                                      is a light-sport
                                                      aircraft.
(f) Weight-shift-control        (1) 150 hours of     (i) 100 hours of
 aircraft category privileges,   flight time as a     flight time as
                                 pilot,.              pilot in command
                                                      in powered
                                                      aircraft,
                                                     (ii) 50 hours of
                                                      flight time in a
                                                      weight-shift-
                                                      control aircraft,
                                                     (iii) 25 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time,
                                                     (iv) 10 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time in a
                                                      weight-shift-
                                                      control aircraft,
                                                      and
                                                     (v) 15 hours of
                                                      flight time as
                                                      pilot in command
                                                      in a weight-shift-
                                                      control aircraft
                                                      that is a light-
                                                      sport aircraft.
(g) Powered-parachute category  (1) 100 hours of     (i) 75 hours of
 privileges,                     flight time as a     flight time as
                                 pilot,.              pilot in command
                                                      in powered
                                                      aircraft,
                                                     (ii) 50 hours of
                                                      flight time in a
                                                      powered parachute,
                                                     (iii) 15 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time,
                                                     (iv) 5 hours of
                                                      cross-country
                                                      flight time in a
                                                      powered parachute,
                                                      and
                                                     (v) 15 hours of
                                                      flight time as
                                                      pilot in command
                                                      in a powered
                                                      parachute that is
                                                      a light-sport
                                                      aircraft.
------------------------------------------------------------------------



Sec. 61.413  What are the privileges of my flight instructor certificate with 

a sport pilot rating?

    If you hold a fight flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot 
rating, you are authorized, within the limits of your certificate and 
rating, to provide training and logbook endorsements for--
    (a) A student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate;
    (b) A sport pilot certificate;

[[Page 518]]

    (c) A flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating;
    (d) A powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft rating;
    (e) Sport pilot privileges;
    (f) A flight review or operating privilege for a sport pilot;
    (g) A practical test for a sport pilot certificate, a private pilot 
certificate with a powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft 
rating or a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating;
    (h) A knowledge test for a sport pilot certificate, a private pilot 
certificate with a powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft 
rating or a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating; and
    (i) A proficiency check for an additional category, class, or make 
and model privilege for a sport pilot certificate or a flight instructor 
certificate with a sport pilot rating.



Sec. 61.415  What are the limits of a flight instructor certificate with a 

sport pilot rating?

    If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot 
rating, you are subject to the following limits:
    (a) You may not provide ground or flight training in any aircraft 
for which you do not hold:
    (1) A sport pilot certificate with applicable category and class 
privileges and make and model privileges or a pilot certificate with the 
applicable category and class rating; and
    (2) Applicable category and class privileges for your flight 
instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating.
    (b) You may not provide ground or flight training for a private 
pilot certificate with a powered parachute or weight-shift-control 
aircraft rating unless you hold:
    (1) At least a private pilot certificate with the applicable 
category and class rating; and
    (2) Applicable category and class privileges for your flight 
instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating.
    (c) You may not conduct more than 8 hours of flight training in any 
24-consecutive-hour period.
    (d) You may not endorse a:
    (1) Student pilot's certificate or logbook for solo flight 
privileges, unless you have--
    (i) Given that student the flight training required for solo flight 
privileges required by this part; and
    (ii) Determined that the student is prepared to conduct the flight 
safely under known circumstances, subject to any limitations listed in 
the student's logbook that you consider necessary for the safety of the 
flight.
    (2) Student pilot's certificate and logbook for a solo cross-country 
flight, unless you have determined the student's flight preparation, 
planning, equipment, and proposed procedures are adequate for the 
proposed flight under the existing conditions and within any limitations 
listed in the logbook that you consider necessary for the safety of the 
flight.
    (3) Student pilot's certificate and logbook for solo flight in Class 
B, C, and D airspace areas, at an airport within Class B, C, or D 
airspace and to from, through or on an airport having an operational 
control tower, unless that you have--
    (i) Given that student ground and flight training in that airspace 
or at that airport; and
    (ii) Determined that the student is proficient to operate the 
aircraft safely.
    (4) Logbook of a pilot for a flight review, unless you have 
conducted a review of that pilot in accordance with the requirements of 
Sec. 61.56.
    (e) You may not provide flight training in an aircraft unless you 
have at least 5 hours of flight time in a make and model of light-sport 
aircraft within the same set of aircraft as the aircraft in which you 
are providing training.
    (f) You may not provide training to operate a light-sport aircraft 
in Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D 
airspace, and to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational 
control tower, unless you have the endorsement specified in Sec. 
61.325, or are otherwise authorized to conduct operations in this 
airspace and at these airports.
    (g) You may not provide training in a light-sport aircraft with a 
VH greater than 87 knots CAS unless you have the endorsement 
specified in Sec. 61.327, or are

[[Page 519]]

otherwise authorized to operate that light-sport aircraft.
    (h) You must perform all training in an aircraft that complies with 
the requirements of Sec. 91.109 of this chapter.
    (i) If you provide flight training for a certificate, rating or 
privilege, you must provide that flight training in an aircraft that 
meets the following:
    (1) The aircraft must have at least two pilot stations and be of the 
same category and class appropriate to the certificate, rating or 
privilege sought.
    (2) For single place aircraft, pre-solo flight training must be 
provided in an aircraft that has two pilot stations and is of the same 
category and class appropriate to the certificate, rating, or privilege 
sought.



Sec. 61.417  Will my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating 

list aircraft category and class ratings?

    Your flight instructor certificate does not list aircraft category 
and class ratings. When you successfully pass the practical test for a 
flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, regardless of 
the light-sport aircraft privileges you seek, the FAA will issue you a 
flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating without any 
category and class ratings. The FAA will provide you with a logbook 
endorsement for the category and class of light-sport aircraft you are 
authorized to provide training in.



Sec. 61.419  How do I obtain privileges to provide training in an additional 

category or class of light-sport aircraft?

    If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot 
rating and seek to provide training in an additional category or class 
of light-sport aircraft you must--
    (a) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who 
trained you on the applicable areas of operation specified in Sec. 
61.409 certifying you have met the aeronautical knowledge and flight 
proficiency requirements for the additional category and class flight 
instructor privilege you seek;
    (b) Successfully complete a proficiency check from an authorized 
instructor other than the instructor who trained you on the areas 
specified in Sec. 61.409 for the additional category and class flight 
instructor privilege you seek;
    (c) Complete an application for those privileges on a form and in a 
manner acceptable to the FAA and present this application to the 
authorized instructor who conducted the proficiency check specified in 
paragraph (b) of this section; and
    (d) Receive a logbook endorsement from the instructor who conducted 
the proficiency check specified in paragraph (b) of this section 
certifying you are proficient in the areas of operation and authorized 
for the additional category and class flight instructor privilege.



Sec. 61.421  May I give myself an endorsement?

    No. If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot 
rating, you may not give yourself an endorsement for any certificate, 
privilege, rating, flight review, authorization, practical test, 
knowledge test, or proficiency check required by this part.



Sec. 61.423  What are the recordkeeping requirements for a flight instructor 

with a sport pilot rating?

    (a) As a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating you must:
    (1) Sign the logbook of each person to whom you have given flight 
training or ground training.
    (2) Keep a record of the name, date, and type of endorsement for:
    (i) Each person whose logbook or student pilot certificate you have 
endorsed for solo flight privileges.
    (ii) Each person for whom you have provided an endorsement for a 
knowledge test, practical test, or proficiency check, and the record 
must indicate the kind of test or check, and the results.
    (iii) Each person whose logbook you have endorsed as proficient to 
operate--
    (A) An additional category or class of light-sport aircraft;
    (B) An additional make and model of light-sport aircraft;
    (C) In Class B, C, and D airspace; at an airport located in Class B, 
C, or D airspace; and to, from, through, or at

[[Page 520]]

an airport having an operational control tower; and
    (D) A light-sport aircraft with a VH greater than 87 
knots CAS.
    (iv) Each person whose logbook you have endorsed as proficient to 
provide flight training in an additional--
    (A) Category or class of light-sport aircraft; and
    (B) Make and model of light-sport aircraft.
    (b) Within 10 days after providing an endorsement for a person to 
operate or provide training in an additional category and class of 
light-sport aircraft you must--
    (1) Complete, sign, and submit to the FAA the application presented 
to you to obtain those privileges; and
    (2) Retain a copy of the form.
    (c) You must keep the records listed in this section for 3 years. 
You may keep these records in a logbook or a separate document.



Sec. 61.425  How do I renew my flight instructor certificate?

    If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot 
rating you may renew your certificate in accordance with the provisions 
of Sec. 61.197.



Sec. 61.427  What must I do if my flight instructor certificate with a sport 

pilot rating expires?

    You may exchange your expired flight instructor certificate with a 
sport pilot rating for a new certificate with a sport pilot rating and 
any other rating on that certificate by passing a practical test as 
prescribed in Sec. 61.405(b) or Sec. 61.183(h) for one of the ratings 
listed on the expired flight instructor certificate. The FAA will 
reinstate any privilege authorized by the expired certificate.



Sec. 61.429  May I exercise the privileges of a flight instructor certificate 

with a sport pilot rating if I hold a flight instructor certificate with 

another rating?

    If you hold a current and valid flight instructor certificate, a 
commercial pilot certificate with an airship rating, or a commercial 
pilot certificate with a balloon rating issued under this part, and you 
seek to exercise the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with 
a sport pilot rating, you may do so without any further showing of 
proficiency, subject to the following limits:
    (a) You are limited to the aircraft category and class ratings 
listed on your flight instructor certificate, commercial pilot 
certificate with an airship rating, or commercial pilot certificate with 
a balloon rating, as appropriate, when exercising your flight instructor 
privileges and the privileges specified in Sec. 61.413.
    (b) You must comply with the limits specified in Sec. 61.415 and 
the recordkeeping requirements of Sec. 61.423.
    (c) If you want to exercise the privileges of your flight instructor 
certificate, commercial pilot certificate with an airship rating, or 
commercial pilot certificate with a balloon rating, as appropriate, in a 
category, class, or make and model of light-sport aircraft for which you 
are not currently rated, you must meet all applicable requirements to 
provide training in an additional category or class of light-sport 
aircraft specified in Sec. 61.419.



Sec. 61.431  Are there special provisions for obtaining a flight instructor 

certificate with a sport pilot rating for persons who are registered 

ultralight instructors with an FAA-recognized ultralight organization?

    If you are a registered ultralight instructor with an FAA-recognized 
ultralight organization on or before September 1, 2004, and you want to 
apply for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, not 
later than January 31, 2008--
    (a) You must hold either a current and valid sport pilot 
certificate, a current recreational pilot certificate and meet the 
requirements Sec. 61.101(c), or at least a current and valid private 
pilot certificate issued under this part.
    (b) You must meet the eligibility requirements in Sec. Sec. 61.403 
and 61.23. You do not have to meet the aeronautical knowledge 
requirements specified in Sec. 61.407, the flight proficiency 
requirements specified in Sec. 61.409 and the aeronautical experience 
requirements specified in Sec. 61.411, except you must meet the minimum 
total flight time requirements in the category and class of light-sport 
aircraft specified in Sec. 61.411.
    (c) You do not have to meet the aeronautical knowledge requirement 
specified in Sec. 61.407(a) if you have passed an

[[Page 521]]

FAA-recognized ultralight organization's fundamentals of instruction 
knowledge test.
    (d) You must submit a certified copy of your ultralight pilot 
records from the FAA-recognized ultralight organization. Those records 
must--
    (1) Document that you are a registered ultralight flight instructor 
with that FAA-recognized ultralight organization; and
    (2) Indicate that you are recognized to operate and provide training 
in the category and class of aircraft for which you seek privileges.
    (e) You must pass the knowledge test and practical test for a flight 
instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating applicable to the 
aircraft category and class for which you seek flight instructor 
privileges.



PART 63_CERTIFICATION: FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS OTHER THAN PILOTS--Table of Contents




Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 93 [Note]
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100-1 [Note]

                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
63.1 Applicability.
63.2 Certification of foreign flight crewmembers other than pilots.
63.3 Certificates and ratings required.
63.11 Application and issue.
63.12 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.
63.12a Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results.
63.12b Refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test.
63.13 Temporary certificate.
63.14 Security disqualification.
63.15 Duration of certificates.
63.15a [Reserved]
63.16 Change of name; replacement of lost or destroyed certificate.
63.17 Tests: General procedure.
63.18 Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.
63.19 Operations during physical deficiency.
63.20 Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records; 
          falsification, reproduction, or alteration.
63.21 Change of address.
63.23 Special purpose flight engineer and flight navigator certificates: 
          Operation of U.S.-registered civil airplanes leased by a 
          person not a U.S. citizen.

                       Subpart B_Flight Engineers

63.31 Eligibility requirements; general.
63.33 Aircraft ratings.
63.35 Knowledge requirements.
63.37 Aeronautical experience requirements.
63.39 Skill requirements.
63.41 Retesting after failure.
63.42 Flight engineer certificate issued on basis of a foreign flight 
          engineer license.
63.43 Flight engineer courses.

                       Subpart C_Flight Navigators

63.51 Eligibility requirements; general.
63.53 Knowledge requirements.
63.55 Experience requirements.
63.57 Skill requirements.
63.59 Retesting after failure.
63.61 Flight navigator courses.

Appendix A to Part 63--Test Requirements for Flight Navigator 
          Certificate
Appendix B to Part 63--Flight Navigator Training Course Requirements
Appendix C to Part 63--Flight Engineer Training Course Requirements

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 
45102-45103, 45301-45302.



             Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 93

    Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 93, see part 61 of this 
chapter.



           Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100-1

    Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 100-1, see part 61 of this 
chapter.

    Effective Date Note: By Doc. No. FAA-2005-15431, 70 FR 37948, June 
30, 2005, SFAR No. 100-1 was added, effective June 30, 2005 through June 
20, 2010.



                            Subpart A_General

    Source: Docket No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, unless otherwise 
noted.



Sec. 63.1  Applicability.

    This part prescribes the requirements for issuing flight engineer 
and flight navigator certificates and the general operating rules for 
holders of those certificates.



Sec. 63.2  Certification of foreign flight crewmembers other than pilots.

    A person who is neither a United States citizen nor a resident alien 
is issued a certificate under this part

[[Page 522]]

(other than under Sec. 63.23 or Sec. 63.42) outside the United States 
only when the Administrator finds that the certificate is needed for the 
operation of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft.

(Secs. 313, 601, 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 
U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation 
Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, Independent Offices Appropriations Act 
of 1952 (31 U.S.C. 483(a)); sec. 28, International Air Transportation 
Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. 1159(b)))

[Doc. No. 22052, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 18, 1982]



Sec. 63.3  Certificates and ratings required.

    (a) No person may act as a flight engineer of a civil aircraft of 
U.S. registry unless he has in his personal possession a current flight 
engineer certificate with appropriate ratings issued to him under this 
part and a second-class (or higher) medical certificate issued to him 
under part 67 of this chapter within the preceding 12 months. However, 
when the aircraft is operated within a foreign country, a current flight 
engineer certificate issued by the country in which the aircraft is 
operated, with evidence of current medical qualification for that 
certificate, may be used. Also, in the case of a flight engineer 
certificate issued under Sec. 63.42, evidence of current medical 
qualification accepted for the issue of that certificate is used in 
place of a medical certificate.
    (b) No person may act as a flight navigator of a civil aircraft of 
U.S. registry unless he has in his personal possession a current flight 
navigator certificate issued to him under this part and a second-class 
(or higher) medical certificate issued to him under part 67 of this 
chapter within the preceding 12 months. However, when the aircraft is 
operated within a foreign country, a current flight navigator 
certificate issued by the country in which the aircraft is operated, 
with evidence of current medical qualification for that certificate, may 
be used.
    (c) Each person who holds a flight engineer or flight navigator 
certificate, or medical certificate, shall present either or both for 
inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized 
representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any 
Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.

(Secs. 3, 6, 9, 80 Stat. 931, 49 U.S.C. 1652, 1655, 1657)

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-1, 27 
FR 10410, Oct. 25, 1962; Amdt. 63-3, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965; Amdt. 
63-7, 31 FR 13523, Oct. 20, 1966; Doc. No. 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 
1967; Amdt. 63-9, 33 FR 18613, Dec. 17, 1968; Amdt. 63-11, 35 FR 5320, 
Mar. 31, 1970]



Sec. 63.11  Application and issue.

    (a) An application for a certificate and appropriate class rating, 
or for an additional rating, under this part must be made on a form and 
in a manner prescribed by the Administrator. Each person who applies for 
airmen certification services to be administered outside the United 
States for any certificate or rating issued under this part must show 
evidence that the fee prescribed in appendix A of part 187 of this 
chapter has been paid.
    (b) An applicant who meets the requirements of this part is entitled 
to an appropriate certificate and appropriate class ratings.
    (c) Unless authorized by the Administrator, a person whose flight 
engineer certificate is suspended may not apply for any rating to be 
added to that certificate during the period of suspension.
    (d) Unless the order of revocation provides otherwise, a person 
whose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate is revoked may not 
apply for the same kind of certificate for 1 year after the date of 
revocation.

(Secs. 313, 601, 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 
U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation 
Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, Independent Offices Appropriations Act 
of 1952 (31 U.S.C. 483(a)); sec. 28, International Air Transportation 
Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. 1159(b)))

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-3, 30 
FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965; Amdt. 63-7, 31 FR 13523, Oct. 20, 1966; Amdt. 
63-22, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982; Amdt. 63-35, 72 FR 18558, Apr. 12, 
2007 ]



Sec. 63.12  Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.

    (a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or state statute 
relating to

[[Page 523]]

the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, 
transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marihuana, or 
depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for--
    (1) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued 
under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final 
conviction; or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued 
under this part.
    (b) The commission of an act prohibited by Sec. 91.17(a) or Sec. 
91.19(a) of this chapter is grounds for--
    (1) Denial of an application for a certificate or rating issued 
under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; 
or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued 
under this part.

[Doc. No. 21956, 50 FR 15379, Apr. 17, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 63-27, 
54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989]



Sec. 63.12a  Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results.

    A refusal to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight 
of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer in 
accordance with Sec. 91.11(c) of this chapter, or a refusal to furnish 
or authorize the release of the test results when requested by the 
Administrator in accordance with Sec. 91.17 (c) or (d) of this chapter, 
is grounds for--
    (a) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued 
under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that 
refusal; or
    (b) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued 
under this part.

[Docket No. 21956, 51 FR 1229, Jan. 9, 1986, as amended by Amdt. 63-27, 
54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989]



Sec. 63.12b  Refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test.

    (a) This section applies to an individual who holds a certificate 
under this part and is subject to the types of testing required under 
appendix I to part 121 or appendix J to part 121 of this chapter.
    (b) Refusal by the holder of a certificate issued under this part to 
take a drug test required under the provisions of appendix I to part 121 
or an alcohol test required under the provisions of appendix J to part 
121 is grounds for--
    (1) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued 
under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of such 
refusal; and
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued 
under this part.

[Amdt. 63-29, 59 FR 7389, Feb. 15, 1994, as amended by Amdt. 63-34, 71 
FR 35763, June 21, 2006]



Sec. 63.13  Temporary certificate.

    A certificate effective for a period of not more than 120 days may 
be issued to a qualified applicant, pending review of his application 
and supplementary documents and the issue of the certificate for which 
he applied.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 
FR 22639, May 25, 1978]



Sec. 63.14  Security disqualification.

    (a) Eligibility standard. No person is eligible to hold a 
certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part when the 
Transportation Security Administration (TSA) has notified the FAA in 
writing that the person poses a security threat.
    (b) Effect of the issuance by the TSA of an Initial Notification of 
Threat Assessment. (1) The FAA will hold in abeyance pending the outcome 
of the TSA's final threat assessment review an application for any 
certificate, rating, or authorization under this part by any person who 
has been issued an Initial Notification of Threat Assessment by the TSA.
    (2) The FAA will suspend any certificate, rating, or authorization 
issued under this part after the TSA issues to the holder an Initial 
Notification of Threat Assessment.
    (c) Effect of the issuance by the TSA of a Final Notification of 
Threat Assessment. (1) The FAA will deny an application for any 
certificate, rating, or authorization under this part to any person who 
has been issued a Final Notification of Threat Assessment.

[[Page 524]]

    (2) The FAA will revoke any certificate, rating, or authorization 
issued under this part after the TSA has issued to the holder a Final 
Notification of Threat Assessment.

[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14293, 68 FR 3774, Jan. 24, 2003]



Sec. 63.15  Duration of certificates.

    (a) Except as provided in Sec. 63.23 and paragraph (b) of this 
section, a certificate or rating issued under this part is effective 
until it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.
    (b) A flight engineer certificate (with any amendment thereto) 
issued under Sec. 63.42 expires at the end of the 24th month after the 
month in which the certificate was issued or renewed. However, the 
holder may exercise the privileges of that certificate only while the 
foreign flight engineer license on which that certificate is based is 
effective.
    (c) Any certificate issued under this part ceases to be effective if 
it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked. The holder of any certificate 
issued under this part that is suspended or revoked shall, upon the 
Administrator's request, return it to the Administrator.
    (d) Except for temporary certificate issued under Sec. 63.13, the 
holder of a paper certificate issued under this part may not exercise 
the privileges of that certificate after March 31, 2013.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655; secs. 313, 601, 602, Federal 
Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and 1422); sec. 
6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, 
Independent Offices Appropriations Act of 1952 (31 U.S.C. 483(a)); sec. 
28, International Air Transportation Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. 
1159(b)))

[Doc. No. 8846, 33 FR 18613, Dec. 17, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 63-22, 
47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982; Amdt. 63-36, 73 FR 10668, Feb. 28, 2008]



Sec. 63.15a  [Reserved]



Sec. 63.16  Change of name; replacement of lost or destroyed certificate.

    (a) An application for a change of name on a certificate issued 
under this part must be accompanied by the applicant's current 
certificate and the marriage license, court order, or other document 
verifying the change. The documents are returned to the applicant after 
inspection.
    (b) An application for a replacement of a lost or destroyed 
certificate is made by letter to the Department of Transportation, 
Federal Aviation Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Post 
Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125. The letter must--
    (1) Contain the name in which the certificate was issued, the 
permanent mailing address (including zip code), social security number 
(if any), and date and place of birth of the certificate holder, and any 
available information regarding the grade, number, and date of issue of 
the certificate, and the ratings on it; and
    (2) Be accompanied by a check or money order for $2, payable to the 
Federal Aviation Administration.
    (c) An application for a replacement of a lost or destroyed medical 
certificate is made by letter to the Department of Transportation, 
Federal Aviation Administration, Civil Aeromedical Institute, 
Aeromedical Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, 
OK 73125, accompanied by a check or money order for $2.00.
    (d) A person whose certificate issued under this part or medical 
certificate, or both, has been lost may obtain a telegram from the 
Federal Aviation Administration confirming that it was issued. The 
telegram may be carried as a certificate for a period not to exceed 60 
days pending his receiving a duplicate under paragraph (b) or (c) of 
this section, unless he has been notified that the certificate has been 
suspended or revoked. The request for such a telegram may be made by 
prepaid telegram, stating the date upon which a duplicate certificate 
was requested, or including the request for a duplicate and a money 
order for the necessary amount. The request for a telegraphic 
certificate should be sent to the office prescribed in paragraph (b) or 
(c) of this section, as appropriate. However, a request for both at the 
same time should be sent to the office prescribed in paragraph (b) of 
this section.

[Doc. No. 7258, 31 FR 13523, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Doc. No. 8084, 
32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 63-12, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970; 
Amdt. 63-13, 36 FR 28654, Feb. 11, 1971]

[[Page 525]]



Sec. 63.17  Tests: General procedure.

    (a) Tests prescribed by or under this part are given at times and 
places, and by persons, designated by the Administrator.
    (b) The minimum passing grade for each test is 70 percent.



Sec. 63.18  Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.

    (a) Except as authorized by the Administrator, no person may--
    (1) Copy, or intentionally remove, a written test under this part;
    (2) Give to another, or receive from another, any part or copy of 
that test;
    (3) Give help on that test to, or receive help on that test from, 
any person during the period that test is being given.
    (4) Take any part of that test in behalf of another person;
    (5) Use any material or aid during the period that test is being 
given; or
    (6) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act 
prohibited by this paragraph.
    (b) No person who commits an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this 
section is eligible for any airman or ground instructor certificate or 
rating under this chapter for a period of 1 year after the date of that 
act. In addition, the commission of that act is a basis for suspending 
or revoking any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held 
by that person.

[Doc. No. 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]



Sec. 63.19  Operations during physical deficiency.

    No person may serve as a flight engineer or flight navigator during 
a period of known physical deficiency, or increase in physical 
deficiency, that would make him unable to meet the physical requirements 
for his current medical certificate.



Sec. 63.20  Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records; 

falsification, reproduction, or alteration.

    (a) No person may make or cause to be made--
    (1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement on any 
application for a certificate or rating under this part;
    (2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, 
record, or report that is required to be kept, made, or used, to show 
compliance with any requirement for any certificate or rating under this 
part;
    (3) Any reproduction, for fraudulent purpose, of any certificate or 
rating under this part; or
    (4) Any alteration of any certificate or rating under this part.
    (b) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under 
paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for suspending or revoking any 
airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held by that person.

[Doc. No. 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]



Sec. 63.21  Change of address.

    Within 30 days after any change in his permanent mailing address, 
the holder of a certificate issued under this part shall notify the 
Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman 
Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, in 
writing, of his new address.

[Doc. No. 10536, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970]



Sec. 63.23  Special purpose flight engineer and flight navigator certificates: 

Operation of U.S.-registered civil airplanes leased by a person not a U.S. 

citizen.

    (a) General. The holder of a current foreign flight engineer or 
flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization issued by a 
foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil 
Aviation, who meets the requirements of this section, may hold a special 
purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, as appropriate, 
authorizing the holder to perform flight engineer or flight navigator 
duties on a civil airplane of U.S. registry, leased to a person not a 
citizen of the United States, carrying persons or property for 
compensation or hire. Special purpose flight engineer and flight 
navigator certificates are issued under this section only for airplane 
types that can have a maximum passenger seating configuration, excluding 
any flight crewmember seat, of more than

[[Page 526]]

30 seats or a maximum payload capacity (as defined in Sec. 135.2(e) of 
this chapter) of more than 7,500 pounds.
    (b) Eligibility. To be eligible for the issuance, or renewal, of a 
certificate under this section, an applicant must present the following 
to the Administrator:
    (1) A current foreign flight engineer or flight navigator 
certificate, license, or authorization issued by the aeronautical 
authority of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on 
International Civil Aviation or a facsimile acceptable to the 
Administrator. The certificate or license must authorize the applicant 
to perform the flight engineer or flight navigator duties to be 
authorized by a certificate issued under this section on the same 
airplane type as the leased airplane.
    (2) A current certification by the lessee of the airplane--
    (i) Stating that the applicant is employed by the lessee;
    (ii) Specifying the airplane type on which the applicant will 
perform flight engineer or flight navigator duties; and
    (iii) Stating that the applicant has received ground and flight 
instruction which qualifies the applicant to perform the duties to be 
assigned on the airplane.
    (3) Documentation showing that the applicant currently meets the 
medical standards for the foreign flight engineer or flight navigator 
certificate, license, or authorization required by paragraph (b)(1) of 
this section, except that a U.S. medical certificate issued under part 
67 of this chapter is not evidence that the applicant meets those 
standards unless the State which issued the applicant's foreign flight 
engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization 
accepts a U.S. medical certificate as evidence of medical fitness for a 
flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or 
authorization.
    (c) Privileges. The holder of a special purpose flight engineer or 
flight navigator certificate issued under this section may exercise the 
same privileges as those shown on the certificate, license, or 
authorization specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, subject to 
the limitations specified in this section.
    (d) Limitations. Each certificate issued under this section is 
subject to the following limitations:
    (1) It is valid only--
    (i) For flights between foreign countries and for flights in foreign 
air commerce;
    (ii) While it and the certificate, license, or authorization 
required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section are in the certificate 
holder's personal possession and are current;
    (iii) While the certificate holder is employed by the person to whom 
the airplane described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) 
of this section is leased;
    (iv) While the certificate holder is performing flight engineer or 
flight navigator duties on the U.S.-registered civil airplane described 
in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and
    (v) While the medical documentation required by paragraph (b)(3) of 
this section is in the certificate holder's personal possession and is 
currently valid.
    (2) Each certificate issued under this section contains the 
following:
    (i) The name of the person to whom the U.S.-registered civil 
airplane is leased.
    (ii) The type of airplane.
    (iii) The limitation: ``Issued under, and subject to, Sec. 63.23 of 
the Federal Aviation Regulations.''
    (iv) The limitation: ``Subject to the privileges and limitations 
shown on the holder's foreign flight (engineer or navigator) 
certificate, license, or authorization.''
    (3) Any additional limitations placed on the certificate which the 
Administrator considers necessary.
    (e) Termination. Each special purpose flight engineer or flight 
navigator certificate issued under this section terminates--
    (1) When the lease agreement for the airplane described in the 
certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section terminates;
    (2) When the foreign flight engineer or flight navigator 
certificate, license, or authorization, or the medical documentation 
required by paragraph (b) of this section is suspended, revoked, or no 
longer valid; or

[[Page 527]]

    (3) After 24 months after the month in which the special purpose 
flight engineer or flight navigator certificate was issued.
    (f) Surrender of certificate. The certificate holder shall surrender 
the special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate to 
the Administrator within 7 days after the date it terminates.
    (g) Renewal. The certificate holder may have the certificate renewed 
by complying with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section at 
the time of application for renewal.

(Secs. 313(a), 601, and 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958; as amended 
(49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of 
Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))

[Doc. No. 19300, 45 FR 5672, Jan. 24, 1980]



                       Subpart B_Flight Engineers

    Authority: Secs. 313(a), 601, and 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958; 
49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, 1422.

    Source: Docket No. 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 63.31  Eligibility requirements; general.

    To be eligible for a flight engineer certificate, a person must--
    (a) Be at least 21 years of age;
    (b) Be able to read, speak, and understand the English language, or 
have an appropriate limitation placed on his flight engineer 
certificate;
    (c) Hold at least a second-class medical certificate issued under 
part 67 of this chapter within the 12 months before the date he applies, 
or other evidence of medical qualification accepted for the issue of a 
flight engineer certificate under Sec. 63.42; and
    (d) Comply with the requirements of this subpart that apply to the 
rating he seeks.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)

[Doc. No. 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 63-9, 33 
FR 18614, Dec. 17, 1968]



Sec. 63.33  Aircraft ratings.

    (a) The aircraft class ratings to be placed on flight engineer 
certificates are--
    (1) Reciprocating engine powered;
    (2) Turbopropeller powered; and
    (3) Turbojet powered.
    (b) To be eligible for an additional aircraft class rating after his 
flight engineer certificate with a class rating is issued to him, an 
applicant must pass the written test that is appropriate to the class of 
airplane for which an additional rating is sought, and--
    (1) Pass the flight test for that class of aircraft; or
    (2) Satisfactorily complete an approved flight engineer training 
program that is appropriate to the additional class rating sought.



Sec. 63.35  Knowledge requirements.

    (a) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate must pass a 
written test on the following:
    (1) The regulations of this chapter that apply to the duties of a 
flight engineer.
    (2) The theory of flight and aerodynamics.
    (3) Basic meteorology with respect to engine operations.
    (4) Center of gravity computations.
    (b) An applicant for the original or additional issue of a flight 
engineer class rating must pass a written test for that airplane class 
on the following:
    (1) Preflight.
    (2) Airplane equipment.
    (3) Airplane systems.
    (4) Airplane loading.
    (5) Airplane procedures and engine operations with respect to 
limitations.
    (6) Normal operating procedures.
    (7) Emergency procedures.
    (8) Mathematical computation of engine operations and fuel 
consumption.
    (c) Before taking the written tests prescribed in paragraphs (a) and 
(b) of this section, an applicant for a flight engineer certificate must 
present satisfactory evidence of having completed one of the experience 
requirements of Sec. 63.37. However, he may take the written tests 
before acquiring the flight training required by Sec. 63.37.
    (d) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate or rating must 
have passed the written tests required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this 
section since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month 
in which the flight is taken. However, this limitation does not apply to 
an applicant for

[[Page 528]]

a flight engineer certificate or rating if--
    (1) The applicant--
    (i) Within the period ending 24 calendar months after the month in 
which the applicant passed the written test, is employed as a flight 
crewmember or mechanic by a U.S. air carrier or commercial operator 
operating either under part 121 or as a commuter air carrier under part 
135 (as defined in part 298 of this title) and is employed by such a 
certificate holder at the time of the flight test;
    (ii) If employed as a flight crewmember, has completed initial 
training, and, if appropriate, transition or upgrade training; and
    (iii) Meets the recurrent training requirements of the applicable 
part or, for mechanics, meets the recency of experience requirements of 
part 65; or
    (2) Within the period ending 24 calendar months after the month in 
which the applicant passed the written test, the applicant participated 
in a flight engineer or maintenance training program of a U.S. scheduled 
military air transportation service and is currently participating in 
that program.
    (e) An air carrier or commercial operator with an approved training 
program under part 121 of this chapter may, when authorized by the 
Administrator, provide as part of that program a written test that it 
may administer to satisfy the test required for an additional rating 
under paragraph (b) of this section.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655; secs. 313(a), 601 through 605 of 
the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421 through 1425); 
sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); and 14 
CFR 11.49)

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-17, 40 
FR 32830, Aug. 5, 1975; Doc. 63-21, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982]



Sec. 63.37  Aeronautical experience requirements.

    (a) Except as otherwise specified therein, the flight time used to 
satisfy the aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (b) of 
this section must have been obtained on an airplane--
    (1) On which a flight engineer is required by this chapter; or
    (2) That has at least three engines that are rated at least 800 
horsepower each or the equivalent in turbine-powered engines.
    (b) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate with a class 
rating must present, for the class rating sought, satisfactory evidence 
of one of the following:
    (1) At least 3 years of diversified practical experience in aircraft 
and aircraft engine maintenance (of which at least 1 year was in 
maintaining multiengine aircraft with engines rated at least 800 
horsepower each, or the equivalent in turbine engine powered aircraft), 
and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight 
engineer.
    (2) Graduation from at least a 2-year specialized aeronautical 
training course in maintaining aircraft and aircraft engines (of which 
at least 6 calendar months were in maintaining multiengine aircraft with 
engines rated at least 800 horsepower each or the equivalent in turbine 
engine powered aircraft), and at least 5 hours of flight training in the 
duties of a flight engineer.
    (3) A degree in aeronautical, electrical, or mechanical engineering 
from a recognized college, university, or engineering school; at least 6 
calendar months of practical experience in maintaining multiengine 
aircraft with engines rated at least 800 horsepower each, or the 
equivalent in turbine engine powered aircraft; and at least 5 hours of 
flight training in the duties of a flight engineer.
    (4) At least a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument 
rating and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight 
engineer.
    (5) At least 200 hours of flight time in a transport category 
airplane (or in a military airplane with at least two engines and at 
least equivalent weight and horsepower) as pilot in command or second in 
command performing the functions of a pilot in command under the 
supervision of a pilot in command.
    (6) At least 100 hours of flight time as a flight engineer.
    (7) Within the 90-day period before he applies, successful 
completion of an approved flight engineer ground and

[[Page 529]]

flight course of instruction as provided in appendix C of this part.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)

[Doc. No. 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 63-5, 31 
FR 9047, July 1, 1966; Amdt. 63-17, 40 FR 32830, Aug. 5, 1975]



Sec. 63.39  Skill requirements.

    (a) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate with a class 
rating must pass a practical test on the duties of a flight engineer in 
the class of airplane for which a rating is sought. The test may only be 
given on an airplane specified in Sec. 63.37(a).
    (b) The applicant must--
    (1) Show that he can satisfactorily perform preflight inspection, 
servicing, starting, pretakeoff, and postlanding procedures;
    (2) In flight, show that he can satisfactorily perform the normal 
duties and procedures relating to the airplane, airplane engines, 
propellers (if appropriate), systems, and appliances; and
    (3) In flight, in an airplane simulator, or in an approved flight 
engineer training device, show that he can satisfactorily perform 
emergency duties and procedures and recognize and take appropriate 
action for malfunctions of the airplane, engines, propellers (if 
appropriate), systems and appliances.



Sec. 63.41  Retesting after failure.

    An applicant for a flight engineer certificate who fails a written 
test or practical test for that certificate may apply for retesting--
    (a) After 30 days after the date he failed that test; or
    (b) After he has received additional practice or instruction 
(flight, synthetic trainer, or ground training, or any combination 
thereof) that is necessary, in the opinion of the Administrator or the 
applicant's instructor (if the Administrator has authorized him to 
determine the additional instruction necessary) to prepare the applicant 
for retesting.



Sec. 63.42  Flight engineer certificate issued on basis of a foreign flight 

engineer license.

    (a) Certificates issued. The holder of a current foreign flight 
engineer license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on 
International Civil Aviation, who meets the requirements of this 
section, may have a flight engineer certificate issued to him for the 
operation of civil aircraft of U.S. registry. Each flight engineer 
certificate issued under this section specifies the number and State of 
issuance of the foreign flight engineer license on which it is based. If 
the holder of the certificate cannot read, speak, or understand the 
English language, the Administrator may place any limitation on the 
certificate that he considers necessary for safety.
    (b) Medical standards and certification. An applicant must submit 
evidence that he currently meets the medical standards for the foreign 
flight engineer license on which the application for a certificate under 
this section is based. A current medical certificate issued under part 
67 of this chapter will be excepted as evidence that the applicant meets 
those standards. However, a medical certificate issued under part 67 of 
this chapter is not evidence that the applicant meets those standards 
outside the United States unless the State that issued the applicant's 
foreign flight engineer license also accepts that medical certificate as 
evidence of the applicant's physical fitness for his foreign flight 
engineer license.
    (c) Ratings issued. Aircraft class ratings listed on the applicant's 
foreign flight engineer license, in addition to any issued to him after 
testing under the provisions of this part, are placed on the applicant's 
flight engineer certificate. An applicant without an aircraft class 
rating on his foreign flight engineer license may be issued a class 
rating if he shows that he currently meets the requirements for 
exercising the privileges of his foreign flight engineer license on that 
class of aircraft.
    (d) Privileges and limitations. The holder of a flight engineer 
certificate issued under this section may act as a flight engineer of a 
civil aircraft of U.S. registry subject to the limitations of this part 
and any additional limitations placed on his certificate by the 
Administrator. He is subject to these limitations while he is acting as 
a flight engineer of the aircraft within or outside the United States. 
However, he may not act as flight engineer or in any

[[Page 530]]

other capacity as a required flight crewmember, of a civil aircraft of 
U.S. registry that is carrying persons or property for compensation or 
hire.
    (e) Renewal of certificate and ratings. The holder of a certificate 
issued under this section may have that certificate and the ratings 
placed thereon renewed if, at the time of application for renewal, the 
foreign flight engineer license on which that certificate is based is in 
effect. Application for the renewal of the certificate and ratings 
thereon must be made before the expiration of the certificate.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)

[Doc. No. 8846, 33 FR 18614, Dec. 17, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 63-20, 
45 FR 5673, Jan. 24, 1980]



Sec. 63.43  Flight engineer courses.

    An applicant for approval of a flight engineer course must submit a 
letter to the Administrator requesting approval, and must also submit 
three copies of each course outline, a description of the facilities and 
equipment, and a list of the instructors and their qualifications. An 
air carrier or commercial operator with an approved flight engineer 
training course under part 121 of this chapter may apply for approval of 
a training course under this part by letter without submitting the 
additional information required by this paragraph. Minimum requirements 
for obtaining approval of a flight engineer course are set forth in 
appendix C of this part.



                       Subpart C_Flight Navigators

    Authority: Secs. 313(a), 314, 601, and 607; 49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1355, 
1421, and 1427.

    Source: Docket No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, unless otherwise 
noted.



Sec. 63.51  Eligibility requirements; general.

    To be eligible for a flight navigator certificate, a person must--
    (a) Be at least 21 years of age;
    (b) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English 
language;
    (c) Hold at least a second-class medical certificate issued under 
part 67 of this chapter within the 12 months before the date he applies; 
and
    (d) Comply with Sec. Sec. 63.53, 63.55, and 63.57.



Sec. 63.53  Knowledge requirements.

    (a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate must pass a 
written test on--
    (1) The regulations of this chapter that apply to the duties of a 
flight navigator;
    (2) The fundamentals of flight navigation, including flight planning 
and cruise control;
    (3) Practical meteorology, including analysis of weather maps, 
weather reports, and weather forecasts; and weather sequence 
abbreviations, symbols, and nomenclature;
    (4) The types of air navigation facilities and procedures in general 
use;
    (5) Calibrating and using air navigation instruments;
    (6) Navigation by dead reckoning;
    (7) Navigation by celestial means;
    (8) Navigation by radio aids;
    (9) Pilotage and map reading; and
    (10) Interpretation of navigation aid identification signals.
    (b) A report of the test is mailed to the applicant. A passing grade 
is evidence, for a period of 24 months after the test, that the 
applicant has complied with this section.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 
FR 22639, May 25, 1978]



Sec. 63.55  Experience requirements.

    (a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate must be a 
graduate of a flight navigator course approved by the Administrator or 
present satisfactory documentary evidence of--
    (1) Satisfactory determination of his position in flight at least 25 
times by night by celestial observations and at least 25 times by day by 
celestial observations in conjunction with other aids; and
    (2) At least 200 hours of satisfactory flight navigation including 
celestial and radio navigation and dead reckoning.

A pilot who has logged 500 hours of cross-country flight time, of which 
at least 100 hours were at night, may be credited with not more than 100 
hours for the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section.

[[Page 531]]

    (b) Flight time used exclusively for practicing long-range 
navigation methods, with emphasis on celestial navigation and dead 
reckoning, is considered to be satisfactory navigation experience for 
the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section. It must be substantiated 
by a logbook, by records of an armed force or a certificated air 
carrier, or by a letter signed by a certificated flight navigator and 
attached to the application.



Sec. 63.57  Skill requirements.

    (a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate must pass a 
practical test in navigating aircraft by--
    (1) Dead reckoning;
    (2) Celestial means; and
    (3) Radio aids to navigation.
    (b) An applicant must pass the written test prescribed by Sec. 
63.53 before taking the test under this section. However, if a delay in 
taking the test under this section would inconvenience the applicant or 
an air carrier, he may take it before he receives the result of the 
written test, or after he has failed the written test.
    (c) The test requirements for this section are set forth in appendix 
A of this part.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 
FR 22639, May 25, 1978]



Sec. 63.59  Retesting after failure.

    (a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate who fails a 
written or practical test for that certificate may apply for retesting--
    (1) After 30 days after the date he failed that test; or
    (2) Before the 30 days have expired if the applicant presents a 
signed statement from a certificated flight navigator, certificated 
ground instructor, or any other qualified person approved by the 
Administrator, certifying that that person has given the applicant 
additional instruction in each of the subjects failed and that person 
considers the applicant ready for retesting.
    (b) A statement from a certificated flight navigator, or from an 
operations official of an approved navigator course, is acceptable, for 
the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, for the written test 
and for the flight test. A statement from a person approved by the 
Administrator is acceptable for the written tests. A statement from a 
supervising or check navigator with the United States Armed Forces is 
acceptable for the written test and for the practical test.
    (c) If the applicant failed the flight test, the additional 
instruction must have been administered in flight.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 
FR 22640, May 25, 1978]



Sec. 63.61  Flight navigator courses.

    An applicant for approval of a flight navigator course must submit a 
letter to the Administrator requesting approval, and must also submit 
three copies of the course outline, a description of his facilities and 
equipment, and a list of the instructors and their qualifications. 
Requirements for the course are set forth in appendix B to this part.



   Sec. Appendix A to Part 63--Test Requirements for Flight Navigator 

                               Certificate

    (a) Demonstration of skill. An applicant will be required to pass 
practical tests on the prescribed subjects. These tests may be given by 
FAA inspectors and designated flight navigator examiners.
    (b) The examination. The practical examination consists of a ground 
test and a flight test as itemized on the examination check sheet. Each 
item must be completed satisfactorily in order for the applicant to 
obtain a passing grade. Items 5, 6, 7 of the ground test may be 
completed orally, and items 17, 22, 23, 34, 36, 37, 38, and 39 of the 
flight test may be completed by an oral examination when a lack of 
ground facilities or navigation equipment makes such procedure 
necessary. In these cases a notation to that effect shall be made in the 
``Remarks'' space on the check sheet.
    (c) Examination procedure. (1) An applicant will provide an aircraft 
in which celestial observations can be taken in all directions. Minimum 
equipment shall include a table for plotting, a drift meter or absolute 
altimeter, an instrument for taking visual bearings, and a radio 
direction finder.
    (2) More than one flight may be used to complete the flight test and 
any type of flight pattern may be used. The test will be conducted 
chiefly over water whenever practicable, and without regard to radio 
range legs or radials. If the test is conducted chiefly over land, a 
chart should be used which

[[Page 532]]

shows very little or no topographical and aeronautical data. The total 
flight time will cover a period of at least four hours. Only one 
applicant may be examined at one time, and no applicant may perform 
other than navigator duties during the examination.
    (3) When the test is conducted with an aircraft belonging to an air 
carrier, the navigation procedures should conform with those set forth 
in the carrier's operations manual. Items of the flight test which are 
not performed during the routine navigation of the flight will be 
completed by oral examination after the flight or at times during flight 
which the applicant indicates may be used for tests on those items. 
Since in-flight weather conditions, the reliability of the weather 
forecast, and the stability of the aircraft will have considerable 
effect on an applicant's performance, good judgment must be used by the 
agent or examiner in evaluating the tests.
    (d) Ground test. For the ground test, in the order of the numbered 
items on the examination check sheet, an applicant will be required to:
    (1) Identify without a star identifier, at least six navigational 
stars and all planets available for navigation at the time of the 
examination and explain the method of identification.
    (2) Identify two additional stars with a star identifier or sky 
diagrams and explain identification procedure.
    (3) Precompute a time-altitude curve for a period of about 20 
minutes and take 10 single observations of a celestial body which is 
rising or setting rapidly. The intervals between observations should be 
at least one minute. Mark each observation on the graph to show 
accuracy. All observations, after corrections, shall plot within 8 
minutes of arc from the time-altitude curve, and the average error shall 
not exceed 5 minutes of arc.
    (4) Take and plot one 3-star fix and 3 LOP's of the sun. Plotted fix 
or an average of LOP's must fall within 5 miles of the actual position 
of the observer.
    (5) Demonstrate or explain the compensation and swinging of a 
liquid-type magnetic compass.
    (6) Demonstrate or explain a method of aligning one type of drift 
meter.
    (7) Demonstrate or explain a method of aligning an astro-compass or 
periscopic sextant.
    (e) Flight test. For the flight test, in the order of the numbered 
items on the examination check sheet, an applicant will be required to:
    (1) Demonstrate his ability to read weather symbols and interpret 
synoptic surface and upper air weather maps with particular emphasis 
being placed on winds.
    (2) Prepare a flight plan by zones from the forecast winds or 
pressure data of an upper air chart and the operator's data.
    (3) Compute from the operator's data the predicted fuel consumption 
for each zone of the flight, including the alternate.
    (4) Determine the point-of-no-return for the flight with all engines 
running and the equitime point with one engine inoperative. Graphical 
methods which are part of the company's operations manual may be used 
for these computations.
    (5) Prepare a cruise control (howgozit) chart from the operator's 
data.
    (6) Enter actual fuel consumed on the cruise control chart and 
interpret the variations of the actual curve from the predicted curve.
    (7) Check the presence on board and operating condition of all 
navigation equipment. Normally a check list will be used. This check 
will include a time tick or chronometer comparison. Any lack of 
thoroughness during this check will justify this item being graded 
unsatisfactory.
    (8) Locate emergency equipment, such as, the nearest fire 
extinguisher, life preserver, life rafts, exits, axe, first aid kits, 
etc.
    (9) Recite the navigator's duties and stations during emergencies 
for the type of aircraft used for the test.
    (10) Demonstrate the proper use of a flux gate compass or gyrosyn 
compass (when available), with special emphasis on the caging methods 
and the location of switches, circuit breakers, and fuses. If these 
compasses are not part of the aircraft's equipment, an oral examination 
will be given.
    (11) Be accurate and use good judgment when setting and altering 
headings. Erroneous application of variation, deviation, or drift 
correction, or incorrect measurement of course on the chart will be 
graded as unsatisfactory.
    (12) Demonstrate or explain the use of characteristics of various 
chart projections used in long-range air navigation, including the 
plotting of courses and bearings, and the measuring of distances.
    (13) Demonstrate ability to identify designated landmarks by the use 
of a sectional or WAC chart.
    (14) Use a computer with facility and accuracy for the computation 
of winds, drift correction and drift angles, ground speeds, ETA's, fuel 
loads, etc.
    (15) Determine track, ground speed, and wind by the double drift 
method. When a drift meter is not part of the aircraft's equipment, an 
oral examination on the use of the drift meter and a double drift 
problem shall be completed.
    (16) Determine ground speed and wind by the timing method with a 
drift meter. When a drift meter is not part of the aircraft's equipment, 
an oral examination on the procedure and a problem shall be completed.
    (17) Demonstrate the use of air plot for determining wind between 
fixes and for plotting pressure lines of position when using

[[Page 533]]

pressure and absolute altimeter comparisons.
    (18) Give ETA's to well defined check points at least once each hour 
after the second hour of flight. The average error shall not be more 
than 5 percent of the intervening time intervals, and the maximum error 
of any one ETA shall not be more than 10 percent.
    (19) Demonstrate knowledge and use of D/F equipment and radio 
facility information. Grading on this item will be based largely on the 
applicant's selection of those radio aids which will be of most value to 
his navigation, the manner with which he uses equipment, including 
filter box controls, and the precision with which he reads bearings. The 
aircraft's compass heading and all compass corrections must be 
considered for each bearing.
    (20) Use care in tuning to radio stations to insure maximum 
reception of signal and check for interference signals. Receiver will be 
checked to ascertain that antenna and BFO (Voice-CW) switches are in 
correct positions.
    (21) Identify at least three radio stations using International 
Morse code only for identification. The agent or examiner will tune in 
these stations so that the applicant will have no knowledge of the 
direction, distance, or frequency of the stations.
    (22) Take at least one radio bearing by manual use of the loop. The 
agent or examiner will check the applicant's bearing by taking a manual 
bearing on the same station immediately after the applicant.
    (23) Show the use of good judgment in evaluating radio bearings, and 
explain why certain bearings may be of doubtful value.
    (24) Determine and apply correctly the correction required to be 
made to radio bearings before plotting them on a Mercator chart, and 
demonstrate the ability to plot bearings accurately on charts of the 
Mercator and Lambert conformal projections.
    (25) Compute the compass heading, ETA, and fuel remaining if it is 
assumed that the flight would be diverted to an alternate airport at a 
time specified by the agent or examiner.
    (26) Check the counter scales of a Loran receiver for accuracy, and 
explain the basic (face) adjustments which affect tuning and counter 
alignment. A guide sheet may be used for this test.
    (27) Demonstrate a knowledge of the basic principle of Loran and the 
ability to tune a Loran receiver, to match signals, to read time 
differences, to plot Loran LOP's, and to identify and use sky waves.
    (28) Take and plot bearings from a consol station and explain the 
precautions which must be taken when tuning a radio receiver for consol 
signals. Also, discuss those conditions which affect the reliability of 
consol bearings.
    (29) Demonstrate the ability to properly operate and read an 
absolute altimeter.
    (30) Determine the ``D'' factors for a series of compared readings 
of an absolute altimeter and a pressure altimeter.
    (31) Determine drift angle or lateral displacement from the true 
headingline by application of Bellamy's formula or a variation thereof.
    (32) Interpret the altimeter comparison data with respect to the 
pressure system found at flight level. From this data evaluate the 
accuracy of the prognostic weather map used for flight planning and 
apply this analysis to the navigation of the flight.
    (33) Interpret single LOP's for most probable position, and show how 
a series of single LOP's of the same body may be used to indicate the 
probable track and ground speed. Also, show how a series of single LOP's 
(celestial or radio) from the same celestial body or radio station may 
be used to determine position when the change of azimuth or bearing is 
30[deg] or more between observations.
    (34) Select one of the celestial LOP's used during the flight and 
explain how to make a single line of position approach to a point 
selected by the agent or examiner, giving headings, times, and ETA's.
    (35) Demonstrate the proper use of an astro-compass or periscopic 
sextant for taking bearings.
    (36) Determine compass deviation as soon as possible after reaching 
cruising altitude and whenever there is a change of compass heading of 
15[deg] or more.
    (37) Take celestial fixes at hourly intervals when conditions 
permit. The accuracy of these fixes shall be checked by means of a 
Loran, radio, or visual fix whenever practicable. After allowing for the 
probable error of a Loran, radio, or visual fix, a celestial fix under 
favorable conditions should plot within 10 miles of the actual position.
    (38) Select celestial bodies for observation, when possible, whose 
azimuths will differ by approximately 120[deg] for a 3-body fix and will 
differ by approximately 90[deg] for a 2-body fix. The altitudes of the 
selected bodies should be between 25[deg] and 75[deg] whenever 
practicable.
    (39) Have POMAR and any other required reports ready for 
transmission at time of schedule, and be able to inform the pilot in 
command promptly with regard to the aircraft's position and progress in 
comparison with the flight plan.
    (40) Keep a log with sufficient legible entries to provide a record 
from which the flight could be retraced.
    (41) Note significant weather changes which might influence the 
drift or ground speed of the aircraft, such as, temperature, ``D'' 
factors, frontal conditions, turbulence, etc.
    (42) Determine the wind between fixes as a regular practice.

[[Page 534]]

    (43) Estimate the time required and average ground speed during a 
letdown, under conditions specified by the pilot in command.
    (44) Work with sufficient speed to determine the aircraft's position 
hourly by celestial means and also make all other observations and 
records pertinent to the navigation. The applicant should be able to 
take the observation, compute, and plot a celestial LOP within a time 
limit of 8 minutes; take and plot a Loran LOP within a time limit of 3 
minutes for ground waves and 4 minutes for sky waves; observe the 
absolute and pressure altimeters and compute the drift or lateral 
displacement within a time limit of 3 minutes.
    (45) Be accurate in reading instruments and making computations. 
Errors which are made and corrected without affecting the navigation 
will be disregarded unless they cause considerable loss of time.
    An uncorrected error in computation (including reading instruments 
and books) which will affect the reported position more than 25 miles, 
the heading more than 3[deg], or any ETA more than 15 minutes will cause 
this item to be graded unsatisfactory.
    (46) Be alert to changing weather or other conditions during flight 
which might affect the navigation. An applicant should not fail to take 
celestial observations just prior to encountering a broken or overcast 
sky condition; and he should not fail to take a bearing on a radio 
station, which operates at scheduled intervals and which would be a 
valuable aid to the navigation.
    (47) Show a logical choice and sequence in using the various 
navigation methods according to time and accuracy, and check the 
positions determined by one method against positions determined by other 
methods.
    (48) Use a logical sequence in performing the various duties of a 
navigator and plan work according to a schedule. The more important 
duties should not be neglected for others of less importance.



      Sec. Appendix B to Part 63--Flight Navigator Training Course 

                              Requirements

    (a) Training course outline--(1) Format. The ground course outline 
and the flight course outline shall be combined in one looseleaf binder 
and shall include a table of contents, divided into two parts--ground 
course and flight course. Each part of the table of contents must 
contain a list of the major subjects, together with hours allotted to 
each subject and the total classroom and flight hours.
    (2) Ground course outline. (i) It is not mandatory that a course 
outline have the subject headings arranged exactly as listed in this 
paragraph. Any arrangement of general headings and subheadings will be 
satisfactory provided all the subject material listed here is included 
and the acceptable minimum number of hours is assigned to each subject. 
Each general subject shall be broken down into detail showing items to 
be covered.
    (ii) If any agency desires to include additional subjects in the 
ground training curriculum, such as international law, flight hygiene, 
or others which are not required, the hours allotted these additional 
subjects may not be included in the minimum classroom hours.
    (iii) The following subjects with classroom hours are considered the 
minimum coverage for a ground training course for flight navigators:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                               Classroom
                           Subject                               hours
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Federal Aviation Administration.............................           5
  To include Parts 63, 91, and 121 of this chapter.
Meteorology.................................................          40
  To include:
    Basic weather principles.
    Temperature.
    Pressure.
    Winds.
    Moisture in the atmosphere.
    Stability.
    Clouds.
    Hazards.
    Air masses.
    Front weather.
    Fog.
    Thunderstorms.
    Icing.
    World weather and climate.
    Weather maps and weather reports.
    Forecasting.
International Morse code:
  Ability to receive code groups of letters and numerals at
   a speed of eight words per minute
Navigation instruments (exclusive of radio and radar).......          20
  To include:
    Compasses.
    Pressure altimeters.
    Airspeed indicators.
    Driftmeters.
    Bearing indicators.
    Aircraft octants.
    Instrument calibration and alignment.
Charts and pilotage.........................................          15
To include:
  Chart projections.
  Chart symbols.
  Principles of pilotage.
Dead reckoning..............................................          30
To include:
  Air plot.
  Ground plot.
  Calculation of ETA.
  Vector analysis.
  Use of computer.
  Search.
Absolute altimeter with:
Applications................................................          15

[[Page 535]]

 
  To include:
    Principles of construction.
    Operating instructions.
    Use of Bellamy's formula.
    Flight planning with single drift correction.
Radio and long-range navigational aids......................          35
  To include:
    Principles of radio transmission and reception.
    Radio aids to navigation.
    Government publications.
    Airborne D/F equipment.
    Errors of radio bearings.
    Quadrantal correction.
    Plotting radio bearings.
    ICAO Q code for direction finding.
    Loran.
    Consol.
Celestial navigation........................................         150
  To include:
    The solar system.
    The celestial sphere.
    The astronomical triangle.
    Theory of lines of position.
    Use of the Air Almanac.
    Time and its applications.
    Navigation tables.
    Precomputation.
    Celestial line of position approach.
    Star identification.
    Corrections to celestial observations.
Flight planning and cruise control..........................          25
  To include:
    The flight plan.
    Fuel consumption charts.
    Methods of cruise control.
    Flight progress chart.
    Point-of-no-return.
    Equitime point.
Long-range flight problems..................................          15
                                                             -----------
    Total (exclusive of final examinations).................         350
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (3) Flight course outline. (i) A minimum of 150 hours of supervised 
flight training shall be given, of which at least 50 hours of flight 
training must be given at night, and celestial navigation must be used 
during flights which total at least 125 hours.
    (ii) A maximum of 50 hours of the required flight training may be 
obtained in acceptable types of synthetic flight navigator training 
devices.
    (iii) Flights should be at least four hours in length and should be 
conducted off civil airways. Some training on long-range flights is 
desirable, but is not required. There is no limit to the number of 
students that may be trained on one flight, but at least one astrodrome 
or one periscopic sextant mounting must be provided for each group of 
four students.
    (iv) Training must be given in dead reckoning, pilotage, radio 
navigation, celestial navigation, and the use of the absolute altimeter.
    (b) Equipment. (1) Classroom equipment shall include one table at 
least 24 x 32 in dimensions for each student.
    (2) Aircraft suitable for the flight training must be available to 
the approved course operator to insure that the flight training may be 
completed without undue delay.

The approved course operator may contract or obtain written agreements 
with aircraft operators for the use of suitable aircraft. A copy of the 
contract or written agreement with an aircraft operator shall be 
attached to each of the three copies of the course outline submitted for 
approval. In all cases, the approved course operator is responsible for 
the nature and quality of instruction given during flight.
    (c) Instructors. (1) Sufficient classroom instructors must be 
available to prevent an excessive ratio of students to instructors. Any 
ratio in excess of 20 to 1 will be considered unsatisfactory.
    (2) At least one ground instructor must hold a valid flight 
navigator certificate, and be utilized to coordinate instruction of 
ground school subjects.
    (3) Each instructor who conducts flight training must hold a valid 
flight navigator certificate.
    (d) Revision of training course. (1) Requests for revisions to 
course outlines, facilities, and equipment shall follow procedures for 
original approval of the course. Revisions should be submitted in such 
form that an entire page or pages of the approved outline can be removed 
and replaced by the revisions.
    (2) The list of instructors may be revised at any time without 
request for approval, provided the minimum requirement of paragraph (e) 
of this section is maintained.
    (e) Credit for previous training and experience. (1) Credit may be 
granted by an operator to students for previous training and experience 
which is provable and comparable to portions of the approved curriculum. 
When granting such credit, the approved course operator should be fully 
cognizant of the fact that he is responsible for the proficiency of his 
graduates in accordance with subdivision (i) of paragraph (3) of this 
section.
    (2) Where advanced credit is allowed, the operator shall evaluate 
the student's previous training and experience in accordance with the 
normal practices of accredited technical schools. Before credit is given 
for any ground school subject or portion thereof, the student must pass 
an appropriate examination given by the operator. The results of the 
examination, the basis for credit allowance, and the hours credited 
shall be incorporated as a part of the student's records.
    (3) Credit up to a maximum of 50 hours toward the flight training 
requirement may be given to pilots who have logged at least 500 hours 
while a member of a flight crew which required a certificated flight 
navigator or

[[Page 536]]

the Armed Forces equivalent. A similar credit may also be given to a 
licensed deck officer of the Maritime Service who has served as such for 
at least one year on ocean-going vessels. One-half of the flight time 
credited under the terms of this paragraph may be applied toward the 50 
hours of flight training required at night.
    (f) Students records and reports. Approval of a course shall not be 
continued in effect unless the course operator keeps an accurate record 
of each student, including a chronological log of all instruction, 
subjects covered and course examinations and grades, and unless he 
prepares and transmits to the local Flight Standards District Office not 
later than January 31 of each year, a report containing the following 
information for the previous calendar year:
    (1) The names of all students graduated, together with their school 
grades for ground and flight subjects.
    (2) The names of all students failed or dropped, together with their 
school grades and reasons for dropping.
    (g) Quality of instruction. Approval of a course shall not be 
continued in effect unless at least 80 percent of the students who apply 
within 90 days after graduation are able to qualify on the first attempt 
for certification as flight navigators.
    (h) Statement of graduation. Each student who successfully completes 
an approved flight navigator course shall be given a statement of 
graduation.
    (i) Inspections. Approved course operations will be inspected by 
authorized representatives of the Administrator as often as deemed 
necessary to insure that instruction is maintained at the required 
standards, but the period between inspections shall not exceed 12 
months.
    (j) Change of ownership, name, or location--(1) Change of ownership. 
Approval of a flight navigator course shall not be continued in effect 
after the course has changed ownership. The new owner must obtain a new 
approval by following the procedure prescribed for original approval.
    (2) Change in name. An approved course changed in name but not 
changed in ownership shall remain valid if the change is reported by the 
approved course operator to the local Flight Standards District Office. 
A letter of approval under the new name will be issued by the regional 
office.
    (3) Change in location. An approved course shall remain in effect 
even though the approved course operator changes location if the change 
is reported without delay by the operator to the local Flight Standards 
District Office, which will inspect the facilities to be used. If they 
are found to be adequate, a letter of approval showing the new location 
will be issued by the regional office.
    (k) Cancellation of approval. (1) Failure to meet or maintain any of 
the requirements set forth in this section for the approval or operation 
of an approved flight navigator course shall be considered sufficient 
reason for cancellation of the approval.
    (2) If an operator should desire voluntary cancellation of his 
approved course, he should submit the effective letter of approval and a 
written request for cancellation to the Administrator through the local 
Flight Standards District Office.
    (l) Duration. The authority to operate an approved flight navigator 
course shall expire 24 months after the last day of the month of 
issuance.
    (m) Renewal. Application for renewal of authority to operate an 
approved flight navigator course may be made by letter to the local 
Flight Standards District Office at any time within 60 days before to 
the expiration date. Renewal of approval will depend upon the course 
operator meeting the current conditions for approval and having a 
satisfactory record as an operator.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-6, 31 
FR 9211, July 6, 1966; Amdt. 63-28, 54 FR 39291, Sept. 25, 1989]



Sec. Appendix C to Part 63--Flight Engineer Training Course Requirements

    (a) Training course outline--(1) Format. The ground course outline 
and the flight course outline are independent. Each must be contained in 
a looseleaf binder to include a table of contents. If an applicant 
desires approval of both a ground school course and a flight school 
course, they must be combined in one looseleaf binder that includes a 
separate table of contents for each course. Separate course outlines are 
required for each type of airplane.
    (2) Ground course outline. (i) It is not mandatory that the subject 
headings be arranged exactly as listed in this paragraph. Any 
arrangement of subjects is satisfactory if all the subject material 
listed here is included and at least the minimum programmed hours are 
assigned to each subject. Each general subject must be broken down into 
detail showing the items to be covered.
    (ii) If any course operator desires to include additional subjects 
in the ground course curriculum, such as international law, flight 
hygiene, or others that are not required, the hours allotted these 
additional subjects may not be included in the minimum programmed 
classroom hours.
    (iii) The following subjects and classroom hours are the minimum 
programmed coverage for the initial approval of a ground training course 
for flight engineers. Subsequent to initial approval of a ground 
training course an applicant may apply to the Administrator for a 
reduction in the programmed hours. Approval of a reduction in

[[Page 537]]

the approved programmed hours is based on improved training 
effectiveness due to improvements in methods, training aids, quality of 
instruction, or any combination thereof.

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                               Classroom
                           Subject                               hours
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Federal Aviation Regulations................................          10
  To include the regulations of this chapter that apply to
   flight engineers
Theory of Flight and Aerodynamics...........................          10
Airplane Familiarization....................................          90
  To include as appropriate:
    Specifications.
    Construction features.
    Flight controls.
    Hydraulic systems.
    Pneumatic systems.
    Electrical systems.
    Anti-icing and de-icing systems.
    Pressurization and air-conditioning systems.
    Vacuum systems.
    Pilot static systems.
    Instrument systems.
    Fuel and oil systems.
    Emergency equipment.
Engine Familiarization......................................          45
  To include as appropriate:
    Specifications.
    Construction features.
    Lubrication.
    Ignition.
    Carburetor and induction, supercharging and fuel control
     systems
    Accessories.
    Propellers.
    Instrumentation.
    Emergency equipment.
Normal Operations (Ground and Flight).......................          50
  To include as appropriate:
    Servicing methods and procedures.
    Operation of all the airplane systems.
    Operation of all the engine systems.
    Loading and center of gravity computations.
    Cruise control (normal, long range, maximum endurance)
    Power and fuel computation.
    Meteorology as applicable to engine operation
Emergency Operations........................................          80
  To include as appropriate:
    Landing gear, brakes, flaps, speed brakes, and leading
     edge devices
    Pressurization and air-conditioning.
    Portable fire extinguishers.
    Fuselage fire and smoke control.
    Loss of electrical power.
    Engine fire control.
    Engine shut-down and restart.
    Oxygen.
                                                             -----------
      Total (exclusive of final tests)......................         235
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    The above subjects, except Theory of Flight and Aerodynamics, and 
Regulations must apply to the same type of airplane in which the student 
flight engineer is to receive flight training.
    (3) Flight Course Outline. (i) The flight training curriculum must 
include at least 10 hours of flight instruction in an airplane specified 
in Sec. 63.37(a). The flight time required for the practical test may 
not be credited as part of the required flight instruction.
    (ii) All of the flight training must be given in the same type 
airplane.
    (iii) As appropriate to the airplane type, the following subjects 
must be taught in the flight training course:

                                 Subject

                normal duties, procedures and operations

To include as appropriate:
    Airplane preflight.
    Engine starting, power checks, pretakeoff, postlanding and shut-down 
procedures.
    Power control.
    Temperature control.
    Engine operation analysis.
    Operation of all systems.
    Fuel management.
    Logbook entries.
    Pressurization and air conditioning.

          recognition and correction of in-flight malfunctions

To include:
    Analysis of abnormal engine operation.
    Analysis of abnormal operation of all systems.
    Corrective action.

                     emergency operations in flight

To include as appropriate:
    Engine fire control.
    Fuselage fire control.
    Smoke control.
    Loss of power or pressure in each system.
    Engine overspeed.
    Fuel dumping.
    Landing gear, spoilers, speed brakes, and flap extension and 
retraction.
    Engine shut-down and restart.
    Use of oxygen.
    (iv) If the Administrator finds a simulator or flight engineer 
training device to accurately reproduce the design, function, and 
control characteristics, as pertaining to the duties and 
responsibilities of a flight engineer on the type of airplane to be 
flown, the flight training time may be reduced by a ratio of 1 hour of 
flight time to 2 hours of airplane simulator time, or 3 hours of flight 
engineer training device time, as the case may be, subject to the 
following limitations:
    (a) Except as provided in subdivision (b) of this paragraph, the 
required flight instruction time in an airplane may not be less than 5 
hours.
    (b) As to a flight engineer student holding at least a commercial 
pilot certificate with an instrument rating, airplane simulator or a 
combination of airplane simulator and flight engineer training device 
time may be submitted for up to all 10 hours of the required flight 
instruction time in an airplane.

[[Page 538]]

However, not more than 15 hours of flight engineer training device time 
may be substituted for flight instruction time.
    (v) To obtain credit for flight training time, airplane simulator 
time, or flight engineer training device time, the student must occupy 
the flight engineer station and operate the controls.
    (b) Classroom equipment. Classroom equipment should consist of 
systems and procedural training devices, satisfactory to the 
Administrator, that duplicate the operation of the systems of the 
airplane in which the student is to receive his flight training.
    (c) Contracts or agreements. (1) An approved flight engineer course 
operator may contract with other persons to obtain suitable airplanes, 
airplane simulators, or other training devices or equipment.
    (2) An operator who is approved to conduct both the flight engineer 
ground course and the flight engineer flight course may contract with 
others to conduct one course or the other in its entirety but may not 
contract with others to conduct both courses for the same airplane type.
    (3) An operator who has approval to conduct a flight engineer ground 
course or flight course for a type of airplane, but not both courses, 
may not contract with another person to conduct that course in whole or 
in part.
    (4) An operator who contracts with another to conduct a flight 
engineer course may not authorize or permit the course to be conducted 
in whole or in part by a third person.
    (5) In all cases, the course operator who is approved to operate the 
course is responsible for the nature and quality of the instruction 
given.
    (6) A copy of each contract authorized under this paragraph must be 
attached to each of the 3 copies of the course outline submitted for 
approval.
    (d) Instructors. (1) Only certificated flight engineers may give the 
flight instruction required by this appendix in an airplane, simulator, 
or flight engineer training device.
    (2) There must be a sufficient number of qualified instructors 
available to prevent an excess ratio of students to instructors.
    (e) Revisions. (1) Requests for revisions of the course outlines, 
facilities or equipment must follow the procedures for original approval 
of the course. Revisions must be submitted in such form that an entire 
page or pages of the approved outline can be removed and replaced by the 
revisions.
    (2) The list of instructors may be revised at any time without 
request for approval, if the requirements of paragraph (d) of this 
appendix are maintained.
    (f) Ground school credits. (1) Credit may be granted a student in 
the ground school course by the course operator for comparable previous 
training or experience that the student can show by written evidence: 
however, the course operator must still meet the quality of instruction 
as described in paragraph (h) of this appendix.
    (2) Before credit for previous training or experience may be given, 
the student must pass a test given by the course operator on the subject 
for which the credit is to be given. The course operator shall 
incorporate results of the test, the basis for credit allowance, and the 
hours credited as part of the student's records.
    (g) Records and reports. (1) The course operator must maintain, for 
at least two years after a student graduates, fails, or drops from a 
course, a record of the student's training, including a chronological 
log of the subject course, attendance examinations, and grades.
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of this section, the course 
operator must submit to the Administrator, not later than January 31 of 
each year, a report for the previous calendar year's training, to 
include:
    (i) Name, enrollment and graduation date of each student;
    (ii) Ground school hours and grades of each student;
    (iii) Flight, airplane simulator, flight engineer training device 
hours, and grades of each student; and
    (iv) Names of students failed or dropped, together with their school 
grades and reasons for dropping.
    (3) Upon request, the Administrator may waive the reporting 
requirements of paragraph (2) of this section for an approved flight 
engineer course that is part of an approved training course under 
subpart N of part 121 of this chapter.
    (h) Quality of instruction. (1) Approval of a ground course is 
discontinued whenever less than 80 percent of the students pass the FAA 
written test on the first attempt.
    (2) Approval of a flight course is discontinued whenever less than 
80 percent of the students pass the FAA practical test on the first 
attempt.
    (3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2) of this section, approval 
of a ground or flight course may be continued when the Administrator 
finds--
    (i) That the failure rate was based on less than a representative 
number of students; or
    (ii) That the course operator has taken satisfactory means to 
improve the effectiveness of the training.
    (i) Time limitation. Each student must apply for the written test 
and the flight test within 90 days after completing the ground school 
course.
    (j) Statement of course completion. (1) The course operator shall 
give to each student who successfully completes an approved flight 
engineer ground school training course, and passes the FAA written test, 
a statement of successful completion of the course that indicates the 
date of training,

[[Page 539]]

the type of airplane on which the ground course training was based, and 
the number of hours received in the ground school course.
    (2) The course operator shall give each student who successfully 
completes an approved flight engineer flight course, and passed the FAA 
practical test, a statement of successful completion of the flight 
course that indicates the dates of the training, the type of airplane 
used in the flight course, and the number of hours received in the 
flight course.
    (3) A course operator who is approved to conduct both the ground 
course and the flight course may include both courses in a single 
statement of course completion if the provisions of paragraphs (1) and 
(2) of this section are included.
    (4) The requirements of this paragraph do not apply to an air 
carrier or commercial operator with an approved training course under 
part 121 of this chapter providing the student receives a flight 
engineer certificate upon completion of that course.
    (k) Inspections. Each course operator shall allow the Administrator 
at any time or place, to make any inspection necessary to ensure that 
the quality and effectiveness of the instruction are maintained at the 
required standards.
    (l) Change of ownership, name, or location. (1) Approval of a flight 
engineer ground course or flight course is discontinued if the ownership 
of the course changes. The new owner must obtain a new approval by 
following the procedure prescribed for original approval.
    (2) Approval of a flight engineer ground course or flight course 
does not terminate upon a change in the name of the course that is 
reported to the Administrator within 30 days. The Administrator issues a 
new letter of approval, using the new name, upon receipt of notice 
within that time.
    (3) Approval of a flight engineer ground course or flight course 
does not terminate upon a change in location of the course that is 
reported to the Administrator within 30 days. The Administrator issues a 
new letter of approval, showing the new location, upon receipt of notice 
within that time, if he finds the new facilities to be adequate.
    (m) Cancellation of approval. (1) Failure to meet or maintain any of 
the requirements of this appendix for the approval of a flight engineer 
ground course or flight course is reason for cancellation of the 
approval.
    (2) If a course operator desires to voluntarily terminate the 
course, he should notify the Administrator in writing and return the 
last letter of approval.
    (n) Duration. Except for a course operated as part of an approved 
training course under subpart N of part 121 of this chapter, the 
approval to operate a flight engineer ground course or flight course 
terminates 24 months after the last day of the month of issue.
    (o) Renewal. (1) Renewal of approval to operate a flight engineer 
ground course or flight course is conditioned upon the course operator's 
meeting the requirements of this appendix.
    (2) Application for renewal may be made to the Administrator at any 
time after 60 days before the termination date.
    (p) Course operator approvals. An applicant for approval of a flight 
engineer ground course, or flight course, or both, must meet all of the 
requirements of this appendix concerning application, approval, and 
continuing approval of that course or courses.
    (q) Practical test eligibility. An applicant for a flight engineer 
certificate and class rating under the provisions of Sec. 63.37(b)(6) 
is not eligible to take the practical test unless he has successfully 
completed an approved flight engineer ground school course in the same 
type of airplane for which he has completed an approved flight engineer 
flight course.

[Doc. No. 6458, 30 FR 14560, Nov. 23, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 63-15, 
37 FR 9758, May 17, 1972]



PART 65_CERTIFICATION: AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS--Table of Contents




Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100-1 [Note]
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 103

                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
65.1 Applicability.
65.3 Certification of foreign airmen other than flight crewmembers.
65.11 Application and issue.
65.12 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.
65.13 Temporary certificate.
65.14 Security disqualification.
65.15 Duration of certificates.
65.16 Change of name: Replacement of lost or destroyed certificate.
65.17 Tests: General procedure.
65.18 Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.
65.19 Retesting after failure.
65.20 Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records: 
          Falsification reproduction, or alteration.
65.21 Change of address.
65.23 Refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test.

              Subpart B_Air Traffic Control Tower Operators

65.31 Required certificates, and rating or qualification.
65.33 Eligibility requirements: General.

[[Page 540]]

65.35 Knowledge requirements.
65.37 Skill requirements: Operating positions.
65.39 Practical experience requirements: Facility rating.
65.41 Skill requirements: Facility ratings.
65.43 Rating privileges and exchange.
65.45 Performance of duties.
65.46 Use of prohibited drugs.
65.46a Misuse of alcohol.
65.46b Testing for alcohol.
65.47 Maximum hours.
65.49 General operating rules.
65.50 Currency requirements.

                     Subpart C_Aircraft Dispatchers

65.51 Certificate required.
65.53 Eligibility requirements: General.
65.55 Knowledge requirements.
65.57 Experience or training requirements.
65.59 Skill requirements.
65.61 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Content and minimum 
          hours.
65.63 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Application, duration, 
          and other general requirements.
65.65 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Training facilities.
65.67 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Personnel.
65.70 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Records.

                           Subpart D_Mechanics

65.71 Eligibility requirements: General.
65.73 Ratings.
65.75 Knowledge requirements.
65.77 Experience requirements.
65.79 Skill requirements.
65.80 Certificated aviation maintenance technician school students.
65.81 General privileges and limitations.
65.83 Recent experience requirements.
65.85 Airframe rating; additional privileges.
65.87 Powerplant rating; additional privileges.
65.89 Display of certificate.
65.91 Inspection authorization.
65.92 Inspection authorization: Duration.
65.93 Inspection authorization: Renewal.
65.95 Inspection authorization: Privileges and limitations.

                           Subpart E_Repairmen

65.101 Eligibility requirements: General.
65.103 Repairman certificate: Privileges and limitations.
65.104 Repairman certificate--experimental aircraft builder--
          Eligibility, privileges and limitations.
65.105 Display of certificate.
65.107 Repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft): Eligibility, 
          privileges, and limits.

                       Subpart F_Parachute Riggers

65.111 Certificate required.
65.113 Eligibility requirements: General.
65.115 Senior parachute rigger certificate: Experience, knowledge, and 
          skill requirements.
65.117 Military riggers or former military riggers: Special 
          certification rule.
65.119 Master parachute rigger certificate: Experience, knowledge, and 
          skill requirements.
65.121 Type ratings.
65.123 Additional type ratings: Requirements.
65.125 Certificates: Privileges.
65.127 Facilities and equipment.
65.129 Performance standards.
65.131 Records.
65.133 Seal.

Appendix A to Part 65--Aircraft Dispatcher Courses

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g). 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 
45102-45103, 45301-45302.

    Source: Docket No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, unless otherwise 
noted.



           Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 100-1

    Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 100-1, see part 61 of this 
chapter.

    Effective Date Note: By Doc. No. FAA-2005-15431, 70 FR 37948, June 
30, 2005, SFAR No. 100-1 was added, effective June 30, 2005 through June 
20, 2010.



Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 103--Process for Requesting 

Waiver of Mandatory Separation Age for a Federal Aviation Administration 

Air Traffic Control Specialist In Flight Service Stations, Enroute or 

Terminal Facilities, and the David J. Hurley Air Traffic Control System 

                             Command Center

    1. To whom does this SFAR apply? This Special Federal Aviation 
Regulation (SFAR) applies to you if you are an air traffic control 
specialist (ATCS) employed by the FAA in flight service stations, 
enroute facilities, terminal facilities, or at the David J. Hurley Air 
Traffic Control System Command Center who wishes to obtain a waiver of 
the mandatory separation age as provided by 5 U.S.C. section 8335(a).
    2. When must I file for a waiver? No earlier than the beginning of 
the twelfth month before, but no later than the beginning of the sixth 
month before, the month in which you turn 56, your official chain-of-
command must

[[Page 541]]

receive your written request asking for a waiver of mandatory 
separation.
    3. What if I do not file a request before six months before the 
month in which I turn 56? If your official chain-of-command does not 
receive your written request for a waiver of mandatory separation before 
the beginning of the sixth month before the month in which you turn 56, 
your request will be denied.
    4. How will the FAA determine if my request meets the filing time 
requirements of this SFAR?
    a. We consider your request to be filed in a timely manner under 
this SFAR if your official chain-of-command receives it or it is 
postmarked:
    i. After 12 a.m. on the first day of the twelfth month before the 
month in which you turn 56; and
    ii. Before 12 a.m. of the first day of the sixth month before the 
month in which you turn 56.
    b. If you file your request by mail and the postmark is not legible, 
we will consider it to comply with paragraph a.2 of this section if we 
receive it by 12 p.m. of the fifth day of the sixth month before the 
month in which you turn 56.
    c. If the last day of the time period specified in paragraph a.2 or 
paragraph b falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, we will 
consider the time period to end at 12 p.m. of the next business day.
    5. Where must I file my request for waiver and what must it include?
    a. You must file your request for waiver of mandatory separation in 
writing with the Air Traffic Manager in flight service stations, enroute 
facilities, terminal facilities, or the David J. Hurley Air Traffic 
Control System Command Center in which you are employed.
    b. Your request for waiver must include all of the following:
    i. Your name.
    ii. Your current facility.
    iii. Your starting date at the facility.
    iv. A list of positions at the facility that you are certified in 
and how many hours it took to achieve certification at the facility.
    v. Your area of specialty at the facility.
    vi. Your shift schedule.
    vii. Your statement that you have not been involved in an 
operational error, operational deviation or runway incursion in the last 
5 years while working a control position;
    viii. A list of all facilities where you have worked as a certified 
professional controller (CPC) including facility level and dates at each 
facility;
    ix. Evidence of your exceptional skills and experience as a 
controller; and
    x. Your signature.
    6. How will my waiver request be reviewed?
    a. Upon receipt of your request for waiver, the Air Traffic Manager 
of your facility will make a written recommendation that the 
Administrator either approve or deny your request. If the manager 
recommends approval of your request, he or she will certify in writing 
the accuracy of the information you provided as evidence of your 
exceptional skills and experience as a controller.
    b. The Air Traffic Manager will then forward the written 
recommendation with a copy of your request to the senior executive 
manager in the Air Traffic Manager's regional chain-of-command.
    c. The senior executive manager in the regional chain-of-command 
will make a written recommendation that the Administrator either approve 
or deny your request. If the senior executive manager recommends 
approval of your request, he or she will certify in writing the accuracy 
of the information you have provided as evidence of exceptional skills 
and experience.
    d. The senior executive manager in the regional chain-of-command 
will then forward his or her recommendation with a copy of your request 
to the appropriate Vice President at FAA Headquarters. Depending on the 
facility in which you are employed, the request will be forwarded to 
either the Vice President for Flight Services, the Vice President for 
Enroute and Oceanic Services, the Vice President for Terminal Services 
or the Vice President for Systems Operations. For example, if you work 
at a flight service station at the time that you request a waiver, the 
request will be forwarded to the Vice President for Flight Services.
    e. The appropriate Vice President will review your request and make 
a written recommendation that the Administrator either approve or deny 
your request, which will be forwarded to the Administrator.
    f. The Administrator will issue the final decision on your request.
    7. If I am granted a waiver, when will it expire?
    a. Waivers will be granted for a period of one year.
    b. No later than 90-days prior to expiration of a waiver, you may 
request that the waiver be extended using the same process identified in 
section 6.
    c. If you timely request an extension of the waiver and it is 
denied, you will receive a 60-day advance notice of your separation date 
simultaneously with notification of the denial.
    d. If you do not request an extension of the waiver granted, you 
will receive a 60-day advance notice of your separation date.
    e. Action to separate you from your covered position becomes 
effective on the last day of the month in which the 60-day notice 
expires.
    8. Under what circumstances may my waiver be terminated?
    a. The FAA/DOT may terminate your waiver under the following 
circumstances:
    i. The needs of the FAA; or

[[Page 542]]

    ii. If you are identified as a primary contributor to an operational 
error/deviation or runway incursion.
    b. If the waiver is terminated for either of the reasons identified 
in paragraph 1 of this section, the air traffic control specialist will 
receive a 60-day advance notice.
    c. Action to separate you from your covered position becomes 
effective on the last day of the month in which the 60-day notice 
expires.
    9. Appeal of denial or termination of waiver request: The denial or 
termination of a waiver of mandatory separation request is neither 
appealable nor grievable.

[Doc. No. FAA-2004-17334, 70 FR 1636, Jan. 7, 2005]



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 65.1  Applicability.

    This part prescribes the requirements for issuing the following 
certificates and associated ratings and the general operating rules for 
the holders of those certificates and ratings:
    (a) Air-traffic control-tower operators.
    (b) Aircraft dispatchers.
    (c) Mechanics.
    (d) Repairmen.
    (e) Parachute riggers.



Sec. 65.3  Certification of foreign airmen other than flight crewmembers.

    A person who is neither a U.S. citizen nor a resident alien is 
issued a certificate under subpart D of this part, outside the United 
States, only when the Administrator finds that the certificate is needed 
for the operation or continued airworthiness of a U.S.-registered civil 
aircraft.

[Doc. 65-28, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982]



Sec. 65.11  Application and issue.

    (a) Application for a certificate and appropriate class rating, or 
for an additional rating, under this part must be made on a form and in 
a manner prescribed by the Administrator. Each person who applies for 
airmen certification services to be administered outside the United 
States or for any certificate or rating issued under this part must show 
evidence that the fee prescribed in appendix A of part 187 of this 
chapter has been paid.
    (b) An applicant who meets the requirements of this part is entitled 
to an appropriate certificate and rating.
    (c) Unless authorized by the Administrator, a person whose air 
traffic control tower operator, mechanic, or parachute rigger 
certificate is suspended may not apply for any rating to be added to 
that certificate during the period of suspension.
    (d) Unless the order of revocation provides otherwise--
    (1) A person whose air traffic control tower operator, aircraft 
dispatcher, or parachute rigger certificate is revoked may not apply for 
the same kind of certificate for 1 year after the date of revocation; 
and
    (2) A person whose mechanic or repairman certificate is revoked may 
not apply for either of those kinds of certificates for 1 year after the 
date of revocation.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-9, 31 
FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966; Amdt. 65-28, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982; Amdt. 
65-49, 72 FR 18559, Apr. 12, 2007]



Sec. 65.12  Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.

    (a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or state statute 
relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, 
possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marihuana, 
or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for--
    (1) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued 
under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final 
conviction; or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued 
under this part.
    (b) The commission of an act prohibited by Sec. 91.19(a) of this 
chapter is grounds for--
    (1) Denial of an application for a certificate or rating issued 
under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; 
or
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued 
under this part.

[Doc. No. 21956, 50 FR 15379, Apr. 17, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 65-34, 
54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989]

[[Page 543]]



Sec. 65.13  Temporary certificate.

    A certificate and ratings effective for a period of not more than 
120 days may be issued to a qualified applicant, pending review of his 
application and supplementary documents and the issue of the certificate 
and ratings for which he applied.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-23, 43 
FR 22640, May 25, 1978]



Sec. 65.14  Security disqualification.

    (a) Eligibility standard. No person is eligible to hold a 
certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part when the 
Transportation Security Administration (TSA) has notified the FAA in 
writing that the person poses a security threat.
    (b) Effect of the issuance by the TSA of an Initial Notification of 
Threat Assessment. (1) The FAA will hold in abeyance pending the outcome 
of the TSA's final threat assessment review an application for any 
certificate, rating, or authorization under this part by any person who 
has been issued an Initial Notification of Threat Assessment by the TSA.
    (2) The FAA will suspend any certificate, rating, or authorization 
issued under this part after the TSA issues to the holder an Initial 
Notification of Threat Assessment.
    (c) Effect of the issuance by the TSA of a Final Notification of 
Threat Assessment. (1) The FAA will deny an application for any 
certificate, rating, or authorization under this part to any person who 
has been issued a Final Notification of Threat Assessment.
    (2) The FAA will revoke any certificate, rating, or authorization 
issued under this part after the TSA has issued to the holder a Final 
Notification of Threat Assessment.

[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14293, 68 FR 3775, Jan. 24, 2003]



Sec. 65.15  Duration of certificates.

    (a) Except for repairman certificates, a certificate or rating 
issued under this part is effective until it is surrendered, suspended, 
or revoked.
    (b) Unless it is sooner surrendered, suspended, or revoked, a 
repairman certificate is effective until the holder is relieved from the 
duties for which the holder was employed and certificated.
    (c) The holder of a certificate issued under this part that is 
suspended, revoked, or no longer effective shall return it to the 
Administrator.
    (d) Except for temporary certificates issued under Sec. 65.13, the 
holder of a paper certificate issued under this part may not exercise 
the privileges of that certificate after March 31, 2013.

[Doc. No. 22052, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982, as amended by Amdt. 65-51, 
73 FR 10668, Feb. 28, 2008]



Sec. 65.16  Change of name: Replacement of lost or destroyed certificate.

    (a) An application for a change of name on a certificate issued 
under this part must be accompanied by the applicant's current 
certificate and the marriage license, court order, or other document 
verifying the change. The documents are returned to the applicant after 
inspection.
    (b) An application for a replacement of a lost or destroyed 
certificate is made by letter to the Department of Transportation, 
Federal Aviation Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Post 
Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125. The letter must--
    (1) Contain the name in which the certificate was issued, the 
permanent mailing address (including zip code), social security number 
(if any), and date and place of birth of the certificate holder, and any 
available information regarding the grade, number, and date of issue of 
the certificate, and the ratings on it; and
    (2) Be accompanied by a check or money order for $2, payable to the 
Federal Aviation Administration.
    (c) An application for a replacement of a lost or destroyed medical 
certificate is made by letter to the Department of Transportation, 
Federal Aviation Administration, Aerospace Medical Certification 
Division, Post Office Box 26200, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, accompanied by 
a check or money order for $2.00.
    (d) A person whose certificate issued under this part or medical 
certificate, or both, has been lost may obtain a telegram from the FAA 
confirming that it was issued. The telegram may

[[Page 544]]

be carried as a certificate for a period not to exceed 60 days pending 
his receiving a duplicate certificate under paragraph (b) or (c) of this 
section, unless he has been notified that the certificate has been 
suspended or revoked. The request for such a telegram may be made by 
prepaid telegram, stating the date upon which a duplicate certificate 
was requested, or including the request for a duplicate and a money 
order for the necessary amount. The request for a telegraphic 
certificate should be sent to the office prescribed in paragraph (b) or 
(c) of this section, as appropriate. However, a request for both at the 
same time should be sent to the office prescribed in paragraph (b) of 
this section.

[Doc. No. 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Doc. No. 8084, 
32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-16, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970; 
Amdt. 65-17, 36 FR 2865, Feb. 11, 1971; Amdt. 65-52, 73 FR 43065, July 
24, 2008]



Sec. 65.17  Tests: General procedure.

    (a) Tests prescribed by or under this part are given at times and 
places, and by persons, designated by the Administrator.
    (b) The minimum passing grade for each test is 70 percent.



Sec. 65.18  Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.

    (a) Except as authorized by the Administrator, no person may--
    (1) Copy, or intentionally remove, a written test under this part;
    (2) Give to another, or receive from another, any part or copy of 
that test;
    (3) Give help on that test to, or receive help on that test from, 
any person during the period that test is being given;
    (4) Take any part of that test in behalf of another person;
    (5) Use any material or aid during the period that test is being 
given; or
    (6) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act 
prohibited by this paragraph.
    (b) No person who commits an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this 
section is eligible for any airman or ground instructor certificate or 
rating under this chapter for a period of 1 year after the date of that 
act. In addition, the commission of that act is a basis for suspending 
or revoking any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held 
by that person.

[Doc. No. 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]



Sec. 65.19  Retesting after failure.

    An applicant for a written, oral, or practical test for a 
certificate and rating, or for an additional rating under this part, may 
apply for retesting--
    (a) After 30 days after the date the applicant failed the test; or
    (b) Before the 30 days have expired if the applicant presents a 
signed statement from an airman holding the certificate and rating 
sought by the applicant, certifying that the airman has given the 
applicant additional instruction in each of the subjects failed and that 
the airman considers the applicant ready for retesting.

[Doc. No. 16383, 43 FR 22640, May 25, 1978]



Sec. 65.20  Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records: 

Falsification, reproduction, or alteration.

    (a) No person may make or cause to be made--
    (1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement on any 
application for a certificate or rating under this part;
    (2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, 
record, or report that is required to be kept, made, or used, to show 
compliance with any requirement for any certificate or rating under this 
part;
    (3) Any reproduction, for fraudulent purpose, of any certificate or 
rating under this part; or
    (4) Any alteration of any certificate or rating under this part.
    (b) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under 
paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for suspending or revoking any 
airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held by that person.

[Doc. No. 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]



Sec. 65.21  Change of address.

    Within 30 days after any change in his permanent mailing address, 
the holder of a certificate issued under this part shall notify the 
Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman 
Certification

[[Page 545]]

Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, in writing, of 
his new address.

[Doc. No. 10536, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970]



Sec. 65.23  Refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test.

    (a) General. This section applies to an individual who holds a 
certificate under this part and is subject to the types of testing 
required under appendix I to part 121 or appendix J to part 121 of this 
chapter.
    (b) Refusal by the holder of a certificate issued under this part to 
take a drug test required under the provisions of appendix I to part 121 
or an alcohol test required under the provisions of appendix J to part 
121 is grounds for--
    (1) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued 
under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of such 
refusal; and
    (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued 
under this part.

[Amdt. 65-37, 59 FR 7389, Feb. 15, 1994, as amended by Amdt. 65-47, 71 
FR 35763, June 21, 2006]



              Subpart B_Air Traffic Control Tower Operators

    Source: Docket No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 65.31  Required certificates, and rating or qualification.

    No person may act as an air traffic control tower operator at an air 
traffic control tower in connection with civil aircraft unless he--
    (a) Holds an air traffic control tower operator certificate issued 
to him under this subpart;
    (b) Holds a facility rating for that control tower issued to him 
under this subpart, or has qualified for the operating position at which 
he acts and is under the supervision of the holder of a facility rating 
for that control tower; and

For the purpose of this subpart, operating position means an air traffic 
control function performed within or directly associated with the 
control tower;
    (c) Except for a person employed by the FAA or employed by, or on 
active duty with, the Department of the Air Force, Army, or Navy or the 
Coast Guard, holds at least a second-class medical certificate issued 
under part 67 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 65-25, 
45 FR 18911, Mar. 24, 1980; Amdt. 65-31, 52 FR 17518, May 8, 1987]



Sec. 65.33  Eligibility requirements: General.

    To be eligible for an air traffic control tower operator certificate 
a person must--
    (a) Be at least 18 years of age;
    (b) Be of good moral character;
    (c) Be able to read, write, and understand the English language and 
speak it without accent or impediment of speech that would interfere 
with two-way radio conversation;
    (d) Except for a person employed by the FAA or employed by, or on 
active duty with, the Department of the Air Force, Army, or Navy or the 
Coast Guard, hold at least a second-class medical certificate issued 
under part 67 of this chapter within the 12 months before the date 
application is made; and
    (e) Comply with Sec. 65.35.

[Doc. No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 65-25, 
45 FR 18911, Mar. 24, 1980; Amdt. 65-31, 52 FR 17518, May 8, 1987]



Sec. 65.35  Knowledge requirements.

    Each applicant for an air traffic control tower operator certificate 
must pass a written test on--
    (a) The flight rules in part 91 of this chapter:
    (b) Airport traffic control procedures, and this subpart:
    (c) En route traffic control procedures;
    (d) Communications operating procedures;
    (e) Flight assistance service;
    (f) Air navigation, and aids to air navigation; and
    (g) Aviation weather.

[[Page 546]]



Sec. 65.37  Skill requirements: Operating positions.

    No person may act as an air traffic control tower operator at any 
operating position unless he has passed a practical test on--
    (a) Control tower equipment and its use;
    (b) Weather reporting procedures and use of reports;
    (c) Notices to Airmen, and use of the Airman's Information Manual;
    (d) Use of operational forms;
    (e) Performance of noncontrol operational duties; and
    (f) Each of the following procedures that is applicable to that 
operating position and is required by the person performing the 
examination:
    (1) The airport, including rules, equipment, runways, taxiways, and 
obstructions.
    (2) The terrain features, visual checkpoints, and obstructions 
within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, 
Class D, or Class E airspace designated for the airport.
    (3) Traffic patterns and associated procedures for use of 
preferential runways and noise abatement.
    (4) Operational agreements.
    (5) The center, alternate airports, and those airways, routes, 
reporting points, and air navigation aids used for terminal air traffic 
control.
    (6) Search and rescue procedures.
    (7) Terminal air traffic control procedures and phraseology.
    (8) Holding procedures, prescribed instrument approach, and 
departure procedures.
    (9) Radar alignment and technical operation.
    (10) The application of the prescribed radar and nonradar separation 
standard, as appropriate.

[Doc. No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 65-36, 
56 FR 65653, Dec. 17, 1991]



Sec. 65.39  Practical experience requirements: Facility rating.

    Each applicant for a facility rating at any air traffic control 
tower must have satisfactorily served--
    (a) As an air traffic control tower operator at that control tower 
without a facility rating for at least 6 months; or
    (b) As an air traffic control tower operator with a facility rating 
at a different control tower for at least 6 months before the date he 
applies for the rating.

However, an applicant who is a member of an Armed Force of the United 
States meets the requirements of this section if he has satisfactorily 
served as an air traffic control tower operator for at least 6 months.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-19, 36 
FR 21280, Nov. 5, 1971]



Sec. 65.41  Skill requirements: Facility ratings.

    Each applicant for a facility rating at an air traffic control tower 
must have passed a practical test on each item listed in Sec. 65.37 of 
this part that is applicable to each operating position at the control 
tower at which the rating is sought.



Sec. 65.43  Rating privileges and exchange.

    (a) The holder of a senior rating on August 31, 1970, may at any 
time after that date exchange his rating for a facility rating at the 
same air traffic control tower. However, if he does not do so before 
August 31, 1971, he may not thereafter exercise the privileges of his 
senior rating at the control tower concerned until he makes the 
exchange.
    (b) The holder of a junior rating on August 31, 1970, may not 
control air traffic, at any operating position at the control tower 
concerned, until he has met the applicable requirements of Sec. 65.37 
of this part. However, before meeting those requirements he may control 
air traffic under the supervision, where required, of an operator with a 
senior rating (or facility rating) in accordance with Sec. 65.41 of 
this part in effect before August 31, 1970.



Sec. 65.45  Performance of duties.

    (a) An air traffic control tower operator shall perform his duties 
in accordance with the limitations on his certificate and the procedures 
and practices prescribed in air traffic control manuals of the FAA, to 
provide for the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic.

[[Page 547]]

    (b) An operator with a facility rating may control traffic at any 
operating position at the control tower at which he holds a facility 
rating. However, he may not issue an air traffic clearance for IFR 
flight without authorization from the appropriate facility exercising 
IFR control at that location.
    (c) An operator who does not hold a facility rating for a particular 
control tower may act at each operating position for which he has 
qualified, under the supervision of an operator holding a facility 
rating for that control tower.

[Doc. No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 65-16, 
35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970]



Sec. 65.46  Use of prohibited drugs.

    (a) The following definitions apply for the purposes of this 
section:
    (1) An employee is a person who performs an air traffic control 
function for an employer. For the purpose of this section, a person who 
performs such a function pursuant to a contract with an employer is 
considered to be performing that function for the employer.
    (2) An ``employer'' means an air traffic control facility not 
operated by the FAA or by or under contract to the U.S. military that 
employs a person to perform an air traffic control function.
    (b) Each employer shall provide each employee performing a function 
listed in appendix I to part 121 of this chapter and his or her 
supervisor with the training specified in that appendix. No employer may 
use any contractor to perform an air traffic control function unless 
that contractor provides each of its employees performing that function 
for the employer and his or her supervisor with the training specified 
in that appendix.
    (c) No employer may knowingly use any person to perform, nor may any 
person perform for an employer, either directly or by contract, any air 
traffic control function while that person has a prohibited drug, as 
defined in appendix I to part 121 of this chapter, in his or her system.
    (d) No employer shall knowingly use any person to perform, nor may 
any person perform for an employer, either directly or by contract, any 
air traffic control function if the person has a verified positive drug 
test result on or has refused to submit to a drug test required by 
appendix I to part 121 of this chapter and the person has not met the 
requirements of appendix I to part 121 of this chapter for returning to 
the performance of safety-sensitive duties.
    (e) Each employer shall test each of its employees who performs any 
air traffic control function in accordance with appendix I to part 121 
of this chapter. No employer may use any contractor to perform any air 
traffic control function unless that contractor tests each employee 
performing such a function for the employer in accordance with that 
appendix.

[Doc. No. 25148, 53 FR 47056, Nov. 21, 1988, as amended by Amdt. 65-38, 
59 FR 42927, Aug. 19, 1994]



Sec. 65.46a  Misuse of alcohol.

    (a) This section applies to employees who perform air traffic 
control duties directly or by contract for an employer that is an air 
traffic control facility not operated by the FAA or the U.S. military 
(covered employees).
    (b) Alcohol concentration. No covered employee shall report for duty 
or remain on duty requiring the performance of safety-sensitive 
functions while having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater. No 
employer having actual knowledge that an employee has an alcohol 
concentration of 0.04 or greater shall permit the employee to perform or 
continue to perform safety-sensitive functions.
    (c) On-duty use. No covered employee shall use alcohol while 
performing safety-sensitive functions. No employer having actual 
knowledge that a covered employee is using alcohol while performing 
safety-sensitive functions shall permit the employee to perform or 
continue to perform safety-sensitive functions.
    (d) Pre-duty use. No covered employee shall perform air traffic 
control duties within 8 hours after using alcohol. No employer having 
actual knowledge that such an employee has used alcohol within 8 hours 
shall permit the employee to perform or continue to perform air traffic 
control duties.

[[Page 548]]

    (e) Use following an accident. No covered employee who has actual 
knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which he or she 
performed a safety-sensitive function at or near the time of the 
accident shall use alcohol for 8 hours following the accident, unless he 
or she has been given a post-accident test under appendix J to part 121 
of this chapter, or the employer has determined that the employee's 
performance could not have contributed to the accident.
    (f) Refusal to submit to a required alcohol test. A covered employee 
may not refuse to submit to any alcohol test required under appendix J 
to part 121 of this chapter. An employer may not permit an employee who 
refuses to submit to such a test to perform or continue to perform 
safety-sensitive functions.

[Amdt. 65-37, 59 FR 7389, Feb. 15, 1994, as amended by Amdt. 65-47, 71 
FR 35763, June 21, 2006]



Sec. 65.46b  Testing for alcohol.

    (a) Each air traffic control facility not operated by the FAA or the 
U.S. military (hereinafter employer) must establish an alcohol misuse 
prevention program in accordance with the provisions of appendix J to 
part 121 of this chapter.
    (b) No employer shall use any person who meets the definition of 
covered employee in appendix J to part 121 to perform a safety-sensitive 
function listed in that appendix unless such person is subject to 
testing for alcohol misuse in accordance with the provisions of appendix 
J.

[Amdt. 65-37, 59 FR 7389, Feb. 15, 1994]



Sec. 65.47  Maximum hours.

    Except in an emergency, a certificated air traffic control tower 
operator must be relieved of all duties for at least 24 consecutive 
hours at least once during each 7 consecutive days. Such an operator may 
not serve or be required to serve--
    (a) For more than 10 consecutive hours; or
    (b) For more than 10 hours during a period of 24 consecutive hours, 
unless he has had a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the end 
of the 10 hours of duty.



Sec. 65.49  General operating rules.

    (a) Except for a person employed by the FAA or employed by, or on 
active duty with, the Department of the Air Force, Army, or Navy, or the 
Coast Guard, no person may act as an air traffic control tower operator 
under a certificate issued to him or her under this part unless he or 
she has in his or her personal possession an appropriate current medical 
certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter.
    (b) Each person holding an air traffic control tower operator 
certificate shall keep it readily available when performing duties in an 
air traffic control tower, and shall present that certificate or his 
medical certificate or both for inspection upon the request of the 
Administrator or an authorized representative of the National 
Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law 
enforcement officer.
    (c) A certificated air traffic control tower operator who does not 
hold a facility rating for a particular control tower may not act at any 
operating position at the control tower concerned unless there is 
maintained at that control tower, readily available to persons named in 
paragraph (b) of this section, a current record of the operating 
positions at which he has qualified.
    (d) An air traffic control tower operator may not perform duties 
under his certificate during any period of known physical deficiency 
that would make him unable to meet the physical requirements for his 
current medical certificate. However, if the deficiency is temporary, he 
may perform duties that are not affected by it whenever another 
certificated and qualified operator is present and on duty.
    (e) A certificated air traffic control tower operator may not 
control air traffic with equipment that the Administrator has found to 
be inadequate.
    (f) The holder of an air traffic control tower operator certificate, 
or an applicant for one, shall, upon the reasonable request of the 
Administrator, cooperate fully in any test that is made of him.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-31, 52 
FR 17519, May 8, 1987]

[[Page 549]]



Sec. 65.50  Currency requirements.

    The holder of an air traffic control tower operator certificate may 
not perform any duties under that certificate unless--
    (a) He has served for at least three of the preceding 6 months as an 
air traffic control tower operator at the control tower to which his 
facility rating applies, or at the operating positions for which he has 
qualified; or
    (b) He has shown that he meets the requirements for his certificate 
and facility rating at the control tower concerned, or for operating at 
positions for which he has previously qualified.



                     Subpart C_Aircraft Dispatchers

    Source: Docket No. FAA-1998-4553, 64 FR 68923, Dec. 8, 1999, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 65.51  Certificate required.

    (a) No person may act as an aircraft dispatcher (exercising 
responsibility with the pilot in command in the operational control of a 
flight) in connection with any civil aircraft in air commerce unless 
that person has in his or her personal possession an aircraft dispatcher 
certificate issued under this subpart.
    (b) Each person who holds an aircraft dispatcher certificate must 
present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an 
authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, 
or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.



Sec. 65.53  Eligibility requirements: General.

    (a) To be eligible to take the aircraft dispatcher knowledge test, a 
person must be at least 21 years of age.
    (b) To be eligible for an aircraft dispatcher certificate, a person 
must--
    (1) Be at least 23 years of age;
    (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English 
language;
    (3) Pass the required knowledge test prescribed by Sec. 65.55 of 
this part;
    (4) Pass the required practical test prescribed by Sec. 65.59 of 
this part; and
    (5) Comply with the requirements of Sec. 65.57 of this part.



Sec. 65.55  Knowledge requirements.

    (a) A person who applies for an aircraft dispatcher certificate must 
pass a knowledge test on the following aeronautical knowledge areas:
    (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that 
relate to airline transport pilot privileges, limitations, and flight 
operations;
    (2) Meteorology, including knowledge of and effects of fronts, 
frontal characteristics, cloud formations, icing, and upper-air data;
    (3) General system of weather and NOTAM collection, dissemination, 
interpretation, and use;
    (4) Interpretation and use of weather charts, maps, forecasts, 
sequence reports, abbreviations, and symbols;
    (5) National Weather Service functions as they pertain to operations 
in the National Airspace System;
    (6) Windshear and microburst awareness, identification, and 
avoidance;
    (7) Principles of air navigation under instrument meteorological 
conditions in the National Airspace System;
    (8) Air traffic control procedures and pilot responsibilities as 
they relate to enroute operations, terminal area and radar operations, 
and instrument departure and approach procedures;
    (9) Aircraft loading, weight and balance, use of charts, graphs, 
tables, formulas, and computations, and their effect on aircraft 
performance;
    (10) Aerodynamics relating to an aircraft's flight characteristics 
and performance in normal and abnormal flight regimes;
    (11) Human factors;
    (12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and
    (13) Crew resource management, including crew communication and 
coordination.
    (b) The applicant must present documentary evidence satisfactory to 
the administrator of having passed an aircraft dispatcher knowledge test 
within the preceding 24 calendar months.



Sec. 65.57  Experience or training requirements.

    An applicant for an aircraft dispatcher certificate must present 
documentary evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that he or she 
has the experience prescribed in paragraph (a)

[[Page 550]]

of this section or has accomplished the training described in paragraph 
(b) of this section as follows:
    (a) A total of at least 2 years experience in the 3 years before the 
date of application, in any one or in any combination of the following 
areas:
    (1) In military aircraft operations as a--
    (i) Pilot;
    (ii) Flight navigator; or
    (iii) Meteorologist.
    (2) In aircraft operations conducted under part 121 of this chapter 
as--
    (i) An assistant in dispatching air carrier aircraft, under the 
direct supervision of a dispatcher certificated under this subpart;
    (ii) A pilot;
    (iii) A flight engineer; or
    (iv) A meteorologist.
    (3) In aircraft operations as--
    (i) An Air Traffic Controller; or
    (ii) A Flight Service Specialist.
    (4) In aircraft operations, performing other duties that the 
Administrator finds provide equivalent experience.
    (b) A statement of graduation issued or revalidated in accordance 
with Sec. 65.70(b) of this part, showing that the person has 
successfully completed an approved aircraft dispatcher course.



Sec. 65.59  Skill requirements.

    An applicant for an aircraft dispatcher certificate must pass a 
practical test given by the Administrator, with respect to any one type 
of large aircraft used in air carrier operations. The practical test 
must be based on the aircraft dispatcher practical test standards, as 
published by the FAA, on the items outlined in appendix A of this part.



Sec. 65.61  Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Content and minimum 

hours.

    (a) An approved aircraft dispatcher certification course must:
    (1) Provide instruction in the areas of knowledge and topics listed 
in appendix A of this part;
    (2) Include a minimum of 200 hours of instruction.
    (b) An applicant for approval of an aircraft dispatcher course must 
submit an outline that describes the major topics and subtopics to be 
covered and the number of hours proposed for each.
    (c) Additional subject headings for an aircraft dispatcher 
certification course may also be included, however the hours proposed 
for any subjects not listed in appendix A of this part must be in 
addition to the minimum 200 course hours required in paragraph (a) of 
this section.
    (d) For the purpose of completing an approved course, a student may 
substitute previous experience or training for a portion of the minimum 
200 hours of training. The course operator determines the number of 
hours of credit based on an evaluation of the experience or training to 
determine if it is comparable to portions of the approved course 
curriculum. The credit allowed, including the total hours and the basis 
for it, must be placed in the student's record required by Sec. 
65.70(a) of this part.



Sec. 65.63  Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Application, duration, 

and other general requirements.

    (a) Application. Application for original approval of an aircraft 
dispatcher certification course or the renewal of approval of an 
aircraft dispatcher certification course under this part must be:
    (1) Made in writing to the Administrator;
    (2) Accompanied by two copies of the course outline required under 
Sec. 65.61(b) of this part, for which approval is sought;
    (3) Accompanied by a description of the equipment and facilities to 
be used; and
    (4) Accompanied by a list of the instructors and their 
qualifications.
    (b) Duration. Unless withdrawn or canceled, an approval of an 
aircraft dispatcher certification course of study expires:
    (1) On the last day of the 24th month from the month the approval 
was issued; or
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, on the date 
that any change in ownership of the school occurs.
    (c) Renewal. Application for renewal of an approved aircraft 
dispatcher certification course must be made within

[[Page 551]]

30 days preceding the month the approval expires, provided the course 
operator meets the following requirements:
    (1) At least 80 percent of the graduates from that aircraft 
dispatcher certification course, who applied for the practical test 
required by Sec. 65.59 of this part, passed the practical test on their 
first attempt; and
    (2) The aircraft dispatcher certification course continues to meet 
the requirements of this subpart for course approval.
    (d) Course revisions. Requests for approval of a revision of the 
course outline, facilities, or equipment must be in accordance with 
paragraph (a) of this section. Proposed revisions of the course outline 
or the description of facilities and equipment must be submitted in a 
format that will allow an entire page or pages of the approved outline 
or description to be removed and replaced by any approved revision. The 
list of instructors may be revised at any time without request for 
approval, provided the minimum requirements of Sec. 65.67 of this part 
are maintained and the Administrator is notified in writing.
    (e) Withdrawal or cancellation of approval. Failure to continue to 
meet the requirements of this subpart for the approval or operation of 
an approved aircraft dispatcher certification course is grounds for 
withdrawal of approval of the course. A course operator may request 
cancellation of course approval by a letter to the Administrator. The 
operator must forward any records to the FAA as requested by the 
Administrator.
    (f) Change in ownership. A change in ownership of a part 65, 
appendix A-approved course does not terminate that aircraft dispatcher 
certification course approval if, within 10 days after the date that any 
change in ownership of the school occurs:
    (1) Application is made for an appropriate amendment to the 
approval; and
    (2) No change in the facilities, personnel, or approved aircraft 
dispatcher certification course is involved.
    (g) Change in name or location. A change in name or location of an 
approved aircraft dispatcher certification course does not invalidate 
the approval if, within 10 days after the date that any change in name 
or location occurs, the course operator of the part 65, appendix A-
approved course notifies the Administrator, in writing, of the change.



Sec. 65.65  Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Training facilities.

    An applicant for approval of authority to operate an aircraft 
dispatcher course of study must have facilities, equipment, and 
materials adequate to provide each student the theoretical and practical 
aspects of aircraft dispatching. Each room, training booth, or other 
space used for instructional purposes must be temperature controlled, 
lighted, and ventilated to conform to local building, sanitation, and 
health codes. In addition, the training facility must be so located that 
the students in that facility are not distracted by the instruction 
conducted in other rooms.



Sec. 65.67  Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Personnel.

    (a) Each applicant for an aircraft dispatcher certification course 
must meet the following personnel requirements:
    (1) Each applicant must have adequate personnel, including one 
instructor who holds an aircraft dispatcher certificate and is available 
to coordinate all training course instruction.
    (2) Each applicant must not exceed a ratio of 25 students for one 
instructor.
    (b) The instructor who teaches the practical dispatch applications 
area of the appendix A course must hold an aircraft dispatchers 
certificate



Sec. 65.70  Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Records.

    (a) The operator of an aircraft dispatcher course must maintain a 
record for each student, including a chronological log of all 
instructors, subjects covered, and course examinations and results. The 
record must be retained for at least 3 years after graduation. The 
course operator also must prepare, for its records, and transmit to the 
Administrator not later than January 31 of each year, a report 
containing the following information for the previous year:

[[Page 552]]

    (1) The names of all students who graduated, together with the 
results of their aircraft dispatcher certification courses.
    (2) The names of all the students who failed or withdrew, together 
with the results of their aircraft dispatcher certification courses or 
the reasons for their withdrawal.
    (b) Each student who successfully completes the approved aircraft 
dispatcher certification course must be given a written statement of 
graduation, which is valid for 90 days. After 90 days, the course 
operator may revalidate the graduation certificate for an additional 90 
days if the course operator determines that the student remains 
proficient in the subject areas listed in appendix A of this part.



                           Subpart D_Mechanics



Sec. 65.71  Eligibility requirements: General.

    (a) To be eligible for a mechanic certificate and associated 
ratings, a person must--
    (1) Be at least 18 years of age;
    (2) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English 
language, or in the case of an applicant who does not meet this 
requirement and who is employed outside of the United States by a U.S. 
air carrier, have his certificate endorsed ``Valid only outside the 
United States'';
    (3) Have passed all of the prescribed tests within a period of 24 
months; and
    (4) Comply with the sections of this subpart that apply to the 
rating he seeks.
    (b) A certificated mechanic who applies for an additional rating 
must meet the requirements of Sec. 65.77 and, within a period of 24 
months, pass the tests prescribed by Sec. Sec. 65.75 and 65.79 for the 
additional rating sought.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-6, 31 
FR 5950, Apr. 19, 1966]



Sec. 65.73  Ratings.

    (a) The following ratings are issued under this subpart:
    (1) Airframe.
    (2) Powerplant.
    (b) A mechanic certificate with an aircraft or aircraft engine 
rating, or both, that was issued before, and was valid on, June 15, 
1952, is equal to a mechanic certificate with an airframe or powerplant 
rating, or both, as the case may be, and may be exchanged for such a 
corresponding certificate and rating or ratings.



Sec. 65.75  Knowledge requirements.

    (a) Each applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must, after 
meeting the applicable experience requirements of Sec. 65.77, pass a 
written test covering the construction and maintenance of aircraft 
appropriate to the rating he seeks, the regulations in this subpart, and 
the applicable provisions of parts 43 and 91 of this chapter. The basic 
principles covering the installation and maintenance of propellers are 
included in the powerplant test.
    (b) The applicant must pass each section of the test before applying 
for the oral and practical tests prescribed by Sec. 65.79. A report of 
the written test is sent to the applicant.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-1, 27 
FR 10410, Oct. 25, 1962; Amdt. 65-6, 31 FR 5950, Apr. 19, 1966]



Sec. 65.77  Experience requirements.

    Each applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must present 
either an appropriate graduation certificate or certificate of 
completion from a certificated cated aviation maintenance technician 
school or documentary evidence, satisfactory to the Administrator, of--
    (a) At least 18 months of practical experience with the procedures, 
practices, materials, tools, machine tools, and equipment generally used 
in constructing, maintaining, or altering airframes, or powerplants 
appropriate to the rating sought; or
    (b) At least 30 months of practical experience concurrently 
performing the duties appropriate to both the airframe and powerplant 
ratings.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR, 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-14, 
35 FR, 5533, Apr. 3, 1970]



Sec. 65.79  Skill requirements.

    Each applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must pass an 
oral and a practical test on the rating he seeks.

[[Page 553]]

The tests cover the applicant's basic skill in performing practical 
projects on the subjects covered by the written test for that rating. An 
applicant for a powerplant rating must show his ability to make 
satisfactory minor repairs to, and minor alterations of, propellers.



Sec. 65.80  Certificated aviation maintenance technician school students.

    Whenever an aviation maintenance technician school certificated 
under part 147 of this chapter shows to an FAA inspector that any of its 
students has made satisfactory progress at the school and is prepared to 
take the oral and practical tests prescribed by Sec. 65.79, that 
student may take those tests during the final subjects of his training 
in the approved curriculum, before he meets the applicable experience 
requirements of Sec. 65.77 and before he passes each section of the 
written test prescribed by Sec. 65.75.

[Doc. No. 9444, 35 FR 5533, Apr. 3, 1970]



Sec. 65.81  General privileges and limitations.

    (a) A certificated mechanic may perform or supervise the 
maintenance, preventive maintenance or alteration of an aircraft or 
appliance, or a part thereof, for which he is rated (but excluding major 
repairs to, and major alterations of, propellers, and any repair to, or 
alteration of, instruments), and may perform additional duties in 
accordance with Sec. Sec. 65.85, 65.87, and 65.95. However, he may not 
supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of, or 
approve and return to service, any aircraft or appliance, or part 
thereof, for which he is rated unless he has satisfactorily performed 
the work concerned at an earlier date. If he has not so performed that 
work at an earlier date, he may show his ability to do it by performing 
it to the satisfaction of the Administrator or under the direct 
supervision of a certificated and appropriately rated mechanic, or a 
certificated repairman, who has had previous experience in the specific 
operation concerned.
    (b) A certificated mechanic may not exercise the privileges of his 
certificate and rating unless he understands the current instructions of 
the manufacturer, and the maintenance manuals, for the specific 
operation concerned.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-2, 29 
FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964; Amdt. 65-26, 45 FR 46737, July 10, 1980]



Sec. 65.83  Recent experience requirements.

    A certificated mechanic may not exercise the privileges of his 
certificate and rating unless, within the preceding 24 months--
    (a) The Administrator has found that he is able to do that work; or
    (b) He has, for at least 6 months--
    (1) Served as a mechanic under his certificate and rating;
    (2) Technically supervised other mechanics;
    (3) Supervised, in an executive capacity, the maintenance or 
alteration of aircraft; or
    (4) Been engaged in any combination of paragraph (b) (1), (2), or 
(3) of this section.



Sec. 65.85  Airframe rating; additional privileges.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a 
certificated mechanic with an airframe rating may approve and return to 
service an airframe, or any related part or appliance, after he has 
performed, supervised, or inspected its maintenance or alteration 
(excluding major repairs and major alterations). In addition, he may 
perform the 100-hour inspection required by part 91 of this chapter on 
an airframe, or any related part or appliance, and approve and return it 
to service.
    (b) A certificated mechanic with an airframe rating can approve and 
return to service an airframe, or any related part or appliance, of an 
aircraft with a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport 
category after performing and inspecting a major repair or major 
alteration for products that are not produced under an FAA approval 
provided the work was performed in accordance with instructions 
developed by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-10, 32 
FR 5770, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-45, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004]

[[Page 554]]



Sec. 65.87  Powerplant rating; additional privileges.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a 
certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating may approve and return to 
service a powerplant or propeller or any related part or appliance, 
after he has performed, supervised, or inspected its maintenance or 
alteration (excluding major repairs and major alterations). In addition, 
he may perform the 100-hour inspection required by part 91 of this 
chapter on a powerplant or propeller, or any part thereof, and approve 
and return it to service.
    (b) A certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating can approve and 
return to service a powerplant or propeller, or any related part or 
appliance, of an aircraft with a special airworthiness certificate in 
the light-sport category after performing and inspecting a major repair 
or major alteration for products that are not produced under an FAA 
approval, provided the work was performed in accordance with 
instructions developed by the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the 
FAA.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-10, 32 
FR 5770, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-45, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 65.89  Display of certificate.

    Each person who holds a mechanic certificate shall keep it within 
the immediate area where he normally exercises the privileges of the 
certificate and shall present it for inspection upon the request of the 
Administrator or an authorized representative of the National 
Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law 
enforcement officer.

[Doc. No. 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Doc. No. 8084, 
32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967]



Sec. 65.91  Inspection authorization.

    (a) An application for an inspection authorization is made on a form 
and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator.
    (b) An applicant who meets the requirements of this section is 
entitled to an inspection authorization.
    (c) To be eligible for an inspection authorization, an applicant 
must--
    (1) Hold a currently effective mechanic certificate with both an 
airframe rating and a powerplant rating, each of which is currently 
effective and has been in effect for a total of at least 3 years;
    (2) Have been actively engaged, for at least the 2-year period 
before the date he applies, in maintaining aircraft certificated and 
maintained in accordance with this chapter;
    (3) Have a fixed base of operations at which he may be located in 
person or by telephone during a normal working week but it need not be 
the place where he will exercise his inspection authority;
    (4) Have available to him the equipment, facilities, and inspection 
data necessary to properly inspect airframes, powerplants, propellers, 
or any related part or appliance; and
    (5) Pass a written test on his ability to inspect according to 
safety standards for returning aircraft to service after major repairs 
and major alterations and annual and progressive inspections performed 
under part 43 of this chapter.

An applicant who fails the test prescribed in paragraph (c)(5) of this 
section may not apply for retesting until at least 90 days after the 
date he failed the test.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-5, 31 
FR 3337, Mar. 3, 1966; Amdt. 65-22, 42 FR 46279, Sept. 15, 1977; Amdt. 
65-30, 50 FR 15700, Apr. 19, 1985]



Sec. 65.92  Inspection authorization: Duration.

    (a) Each inspection authorization expires on March 31 of each odd-
numbered year. However, the holder may exercise the privileges of that 
authorization only while he holds a currently effective mechanic 
certificate with both a currently effective airframe rating and a 
currently effective powerplant rating.
    (b) An inspection authorization ceases to be effective whenever any 
of the following occurs:
    (1) The authorization is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.
    (2) The holder no longer has a fixed base of operation.

[[Page 555]]

    (3) The holder no longer has the equipment, facilities, and 
inspection data required by Sec. 65.91(c) (3) and (4) for issuance of 
his authorization.
    (c) The holder of an inspection authorization that is suspended or 
revoked shall, upon the Administrator's request, return it to the 
Administrator.

[Doc. No. 12537, 42 FR 46279, Sept. 15, 1977, as amended by Amdt. 65-50, 
72 FR 4404, Jan. 30, 2007]



Sec. 65.93  Inspection authorization: Renewal.

    (a) To be eligible for renewal of an inspection authorization for a 
2-year period an applicant must present evidence during the month of 
March of each odd-numbered year, at an FAA Flight Standards District 
Office or an International Field Office, that the applicant still meets 
the requirements of Sec. 65.91(c) (1) through (4). In addition, during 
the time the applicant held the inspection authorization, the applicant 
must show completion of one of the activities in Sec. 65.93(a) (1) 
through (5) below by March 31 of the first year of the 2-year inspection 
authorization period, and completion of one of the five activities 
during the second year of the 2-year period:
    (1) Performed at least one annual inspection for each 90 days that 
the applicant held the current authority; or
    (2) Performed at least two major repairs or major alterations for 
each 90 days that the applicant held the current authority; or
    (3) Performed or supervised and approved at least one progressive 
inspection in accordance with standards prescribed by the Administrator; 
or
    (4) Attended and successfully completed a refresher course, 
acceptable to the Administrator, of not less than 8 hours of 
instruction; or
    (5) Passed an oral test by an FAA inspector to determine that the 
applicant's knowledge of applicable regulations and standards is 
current.
    (b) The holder of an inspection authorization that has been in 
effect:
    (1) for less than 90 days before the expiration date need not comply 
with paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section.
    (2) for less than 90 days before March 31 of an even-numbered year 
need not comply with paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section for 
the first year of the 2-year inspection authorization period.
    (c) An inspection authorization holder who does not complete one of 
the activities set forth in Sec. 65.93(a) (1) through (5) of this 
section by March 31 of the first year of the 2-year inspection 
authorization period may not exercise inspection authorization 
privileges after March 31 of the first year. The inspection 
authorization holder may resume exercising inspection authorization 
privileges after passing an oral test from an FAA inspector to determine 
that the applicant's knowledge of the applicable regulations and 
standards is current. An inspection authorization holder who passes this 
oral test is deemed to have completed the requirements of Sec. 65.93(a) 
(1) through (5) by March 31 of the first year.

[Docket No. FAA-2007-27108, 72 FR 4404, Jan. 30, 2007]



Sec. 65.95  Inspection authorization: Privileges and limitations.

    (a) The holder of an inspection authorization may--
    (1) Inspect and approve for return to service any aircraft or 
related part or appliance (except any aircraft maintained in accordance 
with a continuous airworthiness program under part 121 of this chapter) 
after a major repair or major alteration to it in accordance with part 
43 [New] of this chapter, if the work was done in accordance with 
technical data approved by the Administrator; and
    (2) Perform an annual, or perform or supervise a progressive 
inspection according to Sec. Sec. 43.13 and 43.15 of this chapter.
    (b) When he exercises the privileges of an inspection authorization 
the holder shall keep it available for inspection by the aircraft owner, 
the mechanic submitting the aircraft, repair, or alteration for approval 
(if any), and shall present it upon the request of the Administrator or 
an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety 
Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.

[[Page 556]]

    (c) If the holder of an inspection authorization changes his fixed 
base of operation, he may not exercise the privileges of the 
authorization until he has notified the FAA Flight Standards District 
Office or International Field Office for the area in which the new base 
is located, in writing, of the change.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-2, 29 
FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964; Amdt. 65-4, 30 FR 3638, Mar. 14, 1965; Amdt. 65-
5, 31 FR 3337, Mar. 3, 1966; Amdt. 65-9, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966; 32 
FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-35, 54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 
65-41, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001]



                           Subpart E_Repairmen



Sec. 65.101  Eligibility requirements: General.

    (a) To be eligible for a repairman certificate a person must--
    (1) Be at least 18 years of age;
    (2) Be specially qualified to perform maintenance on aircraft or 
components thereof, appropriate to the job for which he is employed;
    (3) Be employed for a specific job requiring those special 
qualifications by a certificated repair station, or by a certificated 
commercial operator or certificated air carrier, that is required by its 
operating certificate or approved operations specifications to provide a 
continuous airworthiness maintenance program according to its 
maintenance manuals;
    (4) Be recommended for certification by his employer, to the 
satisfaction of the Administrator, as able to satisfactorily maintain 
aircraft or components, appropriate to the job for which he is employed;
    (5) Have either--
    (i) At least 18 months of practical experience in the procedures, 
practices, inspection methods, materials, tools, machine tools, and 
equipment generally used in the maintenance duties of the specific job 
for which the person is to be employed and certificated; or
    (ii) Completed formal training that is acceptable to the 
Administrator and is specifically designed to qualify the applicant for 
the job on which the applicant is to be employed; and
    (6) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English 
language, or, in the case of an applicant who does not meet this 
requirement and who is employed outside the United States by a 
certificated repair station, a certificated U.S. commercial operator, or 
a certificated U.S. air carrier, described in paragraph (a)(3) of this 
section, have this certificate endorsed ``Valid only outside the United 
States.''
    (b) This section does not apply to the issuance of a repairman 
certificate (experimental aircraft builder) under Sec. 65.104 or to a 
repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) under Sec. 65.107.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-11, 32 
FR 13506, Sept. 27, 1967; Amdt. 65-24, 44 FR 46781, Aug. 9, 1979; Amdt. 
65-27, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982; Amdt. 65-45, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 
2004; 72 FR 7739, Feb. 20, 2007]



Sec. 65.103  Repairman certificate: Privileges and limitations.

    (a) A certificated repairman may perform or supervise the 
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of aircraft or 
aircraft components appropriate to the job for which the repairman was 
employed and certificated, but only in connection with duties for the 
certificate holder by whom the repairman was employed and recommended.
    (b) A certificated repairman may not perform or supervise duties 
under the repairman certificate unless the repairman understands the 
current instructions of the certificate holder by whom the repairman is 
employed and the manufacturer's instructions for continued airworthiness 
relating to the specific operations concerned.
    (c) This section does not apply to the holder of a repairman 
certificate (light-sport aircraft) while that repairman is performing 
work under that certificate.

[Doc. No. 18241, 45 FR 46738, July 10, 1980, as amended by Amdt. 65-45, 
69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 65.104  Repairman certificate--experimental aircraft builder--

Eligibility, privileges and limitations.

    (a) To be eligible for a repairman certificate (experimental 
aircraft builder), an individual must--
    (1) Be at least 18 years of age;

[[Page 557]]

    (2) Be the primary builder of the aircraft to which the privileges 
of the certificate are applicable;
    (3) Show to the satisfaction of the Administrator that the 
individual has the requisite skill to determine whether the aircraft is 
in a condition for safe operations; and
    (4) Be a citizen of the United States or an individual citizen of a 
foreign country who has lawfully been admitted for permanent residence 
in the United States.
    (b) The holder of a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft 
builder) may perform condition inspections on the aircraft constructed 
by the holder in accordace with the operating limitations of that 
aircraft.
    (c) Section 65.103 does not apply to the holder of a repairman 
certificate (experimental aircraft builder) while performing under that 
certificate.

[Doc. No. 18739, 44 FR 46781, Aug. 9, 1979]



Sec. 65.105  Display of certificate.

    Each person who holds a repairman certificate shall keep it within 
the immediate area where he normally exercises the privileges of the 
certificate and shall present it for inspection upon the request of the 
Administrator or an authorized representative of the National 
Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law 
enforcement officer.

[Doc. No. 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Doc. No. 8084, 
32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967]



Sec. 65.107  Repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft): Eligibility, 

privileges, and limits.

    (a) Use the following table to determine your eligibility for a 
repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) and appropriate rating:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
            To be eligible for                        You must
------------------------------------------------------------------------
(1) A repairman certificate (light-sport    (i) Be at least 18 years
 aircraft).                                  old,
                                            (ii) Be able to read, speak,
                                             write, and understand
                                             English. If for medical
                                             reasons you cannot meet one
                                             of these requirements, the
                                             FAA may place limits on
                                             your repairman certificate
                                             necessary to safely perform
                                             the actions authorized by
                                             the certificate and rating,
                                            (iii) Demonstrate the
                                             requisite skill to
                                             determine whether a light-
                                             sport aircraft is in a
                                             condition for safe
                                             operation, and
                                            (iv) Be a citizen of the
                                             United States, or a citizen
                                             of a foreign country who
                                             has been lawfully admitted
                                             for permanent residence in
                                             the United States.
(2) A repairman certificate (light-sport    (i) Meet the requirements of
 aircraft) with an inspection rating.        paragraph (a)(1) of this
                                             section, and
                                            (ii) Complete a 16-hour
                                             training course acceptable
                                             to the FAA on inspecting
                                             the particular class of
                                             experimental light-sport
                                             aircraft for which you
                                             intend to exercise the
                                             privileges of this rating.
(3) A repairman certificate (light-sport    (i) Meet the requirements of
 aircraft) with a maintenance rating         paragraph (a)(1) of this
                                             section, and
                                            (ii) Complete a training
                                             course acceptable to the
                                             FAA on maintaining the
                                             particular class of light-
                                             sport aircraft for which
                                             you intend to exercise the
                                             privileges of this rating.
                                             The training course must,
                                             at a minimum, provide the
                                             following number of hours
                                             of instruction:
                                            (A) For airplane class
                                             privileges--120-hours,
                                            (B) For weight-shift control
                                             aircraft class privileges--
                                             104 hours,
                                            (C) For powered parachute
                                             class privileges--104
                                             hours,
                                            (D) For lighter than air
                                             class privileges--80 hours,
                                            (E) For glider class
                                             privileges--80 hours.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (b) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) 
with an inspection rating may perform the annual condition inspection on 
a light-sport aircraft:
    (1) That is owned by the holder;
    (2) That has been issued an experimental certificate for operating a 
light-sport aircraft under Sec. 21.191(i) of this chapter; and
    (3) That is in the same class of light-sport-aircraft for which the 
holder has completed the training specified in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of 
this section.
    (c) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) 
with a maintenance rating may--
    (1) Approve and return to service an aircraft that has been issued a 
special

[[Page 558]]

airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category under Sec. 21.190 
of this chapter, or any part thereof, after performing or inspecting 
maintenance (to include the annual condition inspection and the 100-hour 
inspection required by Sec. 91.327 of this chapter), preventive 
maintenance, or an alteration (excluding a major repair or a major 
alteration on a product produced under an FAA approval);
    (2) Perform the annual condition inspection on a light-sport 
aircraft that has been issued an experimental certificate for operating 
a light-sport aircraft under Sec. 21.191(i) of this chapter; and
    (3) Only perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and an 
alteration on a light-sport aircraft that is in the same class of light-
sport aircraft for which the holder has completed the training specified 
in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section. Before performing a major 
repair, the holder must complete additional training acceptable to the 
FAA and appropriate to the repair performed.
    (d) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) 
with a maintenance rating may not approve for return to service any 
aircraft or part thereof unless that person has previously performed the 
work concerned satisfactorily. If that person has not previously 
performed that work, the person may show the ability to do the work by 
performing it to the satisfaction of the FAA, or by performing it under 
the direct supervision of a certificated and appropriately rated 
mechanic, or a certificated repairman, who has had previous experience 
in the specific operation concerned. The repairman may not exercise the 
privileges of the certificate unless the repairman understands the 
current instructions of the manufacturer and the maintenance manuals for 
the specific operation concerned.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004]



                       Subpart F_Parachute Riggers



Sec. 65.111  Certificate required.

    (a) No person may pack, maintain, or alter any personnel-carrying 
parachute intended for emergency use in connection with civil aircraft 
of the United States (including the reserve parachute of a dual 
parachute system to be used for intentional parachute jumping) unless 
that person holds an appropriate current certificate and type rating 
issued under this subpart and complies with Sec. Sec. 65.127 through 
65.133.
    (b) No person may pack, maintain, or alter any main parachute of a 
dual-parachute system to be used for intentional parachute jumping in 
connection with civil aircraft of the United States unless that person--
    (1) Has an appropriate current certificate issued under this 
subpart;
    (2) Is under the supervision of a current certificated parachute 
rigger;
    (3) Is the person making the next parachute jump with that parachute 
in accordance with Sec. 105.43(a) of this chapter; or
    (4) Is the parachutist in command making the next parachute jump 
with that parachute in a tandem parachute operation conducted under 
Sec. 105.45(b)(1) of this chapter.
    (c) Each person who holds a parachute rigger certificate shall 
present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an 
authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, 
or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.
    (d) The following parachute rigger certificates are issued under 
this part:
    (1) Senior parachute rigger.
    (2) Master parachute rigger.
    (e) Sections 65.127 through 65.133 do not apply to parachutes 
packed, maintained, or altered for the use of the armed forces.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-9, 31 
FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966; 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-42, 66 FR 
23553, May 9, 2001]



Sec. 65.113  Eligibility requirements: General.

    (a) To be eligible for a parachute rigger certificate, a person 
must--
    (1) Be at least 18 years of age;
    (2) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English 
language, or, in the case of a citizen of Puerto Rico, or a person who 
is employed outside of the United States by a U.S. air carrier, and who 
does not meet this requirement, be issued a certificate that is

[[Page 559]]

valid only in Puerto Rico or while he is employed outside of the United 
States by that air carrier, as the case may be; and
    (3) Comply with the sections of this subpart that apply to the 
certificate and type rating he seeks.
    (b) Except for a master parachute rigger certificate, a parachute 
rigger certificate that was issued before, and was valid on, October 31, 
1962, is equal to a senior parachute rigger certificate, and may be 
exchanged for such a corresponding certificate.



Sec. 65.115  Senior parachute rigger certificate: Experience, knowledge, and 

skill requirements.

    Except as provided in Sec. 65.117, an applicant for a senior 
parachute rigger certificate must--
    (a) Present evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that he has 
packed at least 20 parachutes of each type for which he seeks a rating, 
in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and under the 
supervision of a certificated parachute rigger holding a rating for that 
type or a person holding an appropriate military rating;
    (b) Pass a written test, with respect to parachutes in common use, 
on--
    (1) Their construction, packing, and maintenance;
    (2) The manufacturer's instructions;
    (3) The regulations of this subpart; and
    (c) Pass an oral and practical test showing his ability to pack and 
maintain at least one type of parachute in common use, appropriate to 
the type rating he seeks.

[Doc. No. 10468, 37 FR 13251, July 6, 1972]



Sec. 65.117  Military riggers or former military riggers: Special 

certification rule.

    In place of the procedure in Sec. 65.115, an applicant for a senior 
parachute rigger certificate is entitled to it if he passes a written 
test on the regulations of this subpart and presents satisfactory 
documentary evidence that he--
    (a) Is a member or civilian employee of an Armed Force of the United 
States, is a civilian employee of a regular armed force of a foreign 
country, or has, within the 12 months before he applies, been honorably 
discharged or released from any status covered by this paragraph;
    (b) Is serving, or has served within the 12 months before he 
applies, as a parachute rigger for such an Armed Force; and
    (c) Has the experience required by Sec. 65.115(a).



Sec. 65.119  Master parachute rigger certificate: Experience, knowledge, and 

skill requirements.

    An applicant for a master parachute rigger certificate must meet the 
following requirements:
    (a) Present evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that he has 
had at least 3 years of experience as a parachute rigger and has 
satisfactorily packed at least 100 parachutes of each of two types in 
common use, in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions--
    (1) While a certificated and appropriately rated senior parachute 
rigger; or
    (2) While under the supervision of a certificated and appropriately 
rated parachute rigger or a person holding appropriate military ratings.

An applicant may combine experience specified in paragraphs (a) (1) and 
(2) of this section to meet the requirements of this paragraph.
    (b) If the applicant is not the holder of a senior parachute rigger 
certificate, pass a written test, with respect to parachutes in common 
use, on--
    (1) Their construction, packing, and maintenance;
    (2) The manufacturer's instructions; and
    (3) The regulations of this subpart.
    (c) Pass an oral and practical test showing his ability to pack and 
maintain two types of parachutes in common use, appropriate to the type 
ratings he seeks.

[Doc. No. 10468, 37 FR 13252, July 6, 1972]



Sec. 65.121  Type ratings.

    (a) The following type ratings are issued under this subpart:
    (1) Seat.
    (2) Back.
    (3) Chest.
    (4) Lap.
    (b) The holder of a senior parachute rigger certificate who 
qualifies for a

[[Page 560]]

master parachute rigger certificate is entitled to have placed on his 
master parachute rigger certificate the ratings that were on his senior 
parachute rigger certificate.



Sec. 65.123  Additional type ratings: Requirements.

    A certificated parachute rigger who applies for an additional type 
rating must--
    (a) Present evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that he has 
packed at least 20 parachutes of the type for which he seeks a rating, 
in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and under the 
supervision of a certificated parachute rigger holding a rating for that 
type or a person holding an appropriate military rating; and
    (b) Pass a practical test, to the satisfaction of the Administrator, 
showing his ability to pack and maintain the type of parachute for which 
he seeks a rating.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-20, 37 
FR 13251, July 6, 1972]



Sec. 65.125  Certificates: Privileges.

    (a) A certificated senior parachute rigger may--
    (1) Pack or maintain (except for major repair) any type of parachute 
for which he is rated; and
    (2) Supervise other persons in packing any type of parachute for 
which that person is rated in accordance with Sec. 105.43(a) or Sec. 
105.45(b)(1) of this chapter.
    (b) A certificated master parachute rigger may--
    (1) Pack, maintain, or alter any type of parachute for which he is 
rated; and
    (2) Supervise other persons in packing, maintaining, or altering any 
type of parachute for which the certificated parachute rigger is rated 
in accordance with Sec. 105.43(a) or Sec. 105.45(b)(1) of this 
chapter.
    (c) A certificated parachute rigger need not comply with Sec. Sec. 
65.127 through 65.133 (relating to facilities, equipment, performance 
standards, records, recent experience, and seal) in packing, 
maintaining, or altering (if authorized) the main parachute of a dual 
parachute pack to be used for intentional jumping.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-20, 37 
FR 13252, July 6, 1972; Amdt. 65-42, 66 FR 23553, May 9, 2001]



Sec. 65.127  Facilities and equipment.

    No certificated parachute rigger may exercise the privileges of his 
certificate unless he has at least the following facilities and 
equipment available to him:
    (a) A smooth top table at least three feet wide by 40 feet long.
    (b) Suitable housing that is adequately heated, lighted, and 
ventilated for drying and airing parachutes.
    (c) Enough packing tools and other equipment to pack and maintain 
the types of parachutes that he services.
    (d) Adequate housing facilities to perform his duties and to protect 
his tools and equipment.

[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-27, 47 
FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982]



Sec. 65.129  Performance standards.

    No certificated parachute rigger may--
    (a) Pack, maintain, or alter any parachute unless he is rated for 
that type;
    (b) Pack a parachute that is not safe for emergency use;
    (c) Pack a parachute that has not been thoroughly dried and aired;
    (d) Alter a parachute in a manner that is not specifically 
authorized by the Administrator or the manufacturer;
    (e) Pack, maintain, or alter a parachute in any manner that deviates 
from procedures approved by the Administrator or the manufacturer of the 
parachute; or
    (f) Exercise the privileges of his certificate and type rating 
unless he understands the current manufacturer's instructions for the 
operation involved and has--
    (1) Performed duties under his certificate for at least 90 days 
within the preceding 12 months; or
    (2) Shown the Administrator that he is able to perform those duties.



Sec. 65.131  Records.

    (a) Each certificated parachute rigger shall keep a record of the 
packing,

[[Page 561]]

maintenance, and alteration of parachutes performed or supervised by 
him. He shall keep in that record, with respect to each parachute worked 
on, a statement of--
    (1) Its type and make;
    (2) Its serial number;
    (3) The name and address of its owner;
    (4) The kind and extent of the work performed;
    (5) The date when and place where the work was performed; and
    (6) The results of any drop tests made with it.
    (b) Each person who makes a record under paragraph (a) of this 
section shall keep it for at least 2 years after the date it is made.
    (c) Each certificated parachute rigger who packs a parachute shall 
write, on the parachute packing record attached to the parachute, the 
date and place of the packing and a notation of any defects he finds on 
inspection. He shall sign that record with his name and the number of 
his certificate.



Sec. 65.133  Seal.

    Each certificated parachute rigger must have a seal with an 
identifying mark prescribed by the Administrator, and a seal press. 
After packing a parachute he shall seal the pack with his seal in 
accordance with the manufacturer's recommendation for that type of 
parachute.



         Sec. Appendix A to Part 65--Aircraft Dispatcher Courses

                                Overview

    This appendix sets forth the areas of knowledge necessary to perform 
dispatcher functions. The items listed below indicate the minimum set of 
topics that must be covered in a training course for aircraft dispatcher 
certification. The order of coverage is at the discretion of the 
approved school. For the latest technological advancements refer to the 
Practical Test Standards as published by the FAA.
I. Regulations
    A. Subpart C of this part;
    B. Parts 1, 25, 61, 71, 91, 121, 139, and 175, of this chapter;
    C. 49 CFR part 830;
    D. General Operating Manual.
II. Meteorology
    A. Basic Weather Studies
    (1) The earth's motion and its effects on weather.
    (2) Analysis of the following regional weather types, 
characteristics, and structures, or combinations thereof:
    (a) Maritime.
    (b) Continental.
    (c) Polar.
    (d) Tropical.
    (3) Analysis of the following local weather types, characteristics, 
and structures or combinations thereof:
    (a) Coastal.
    (b) Mountainous.
    (c) Island.
    (d) Plains.
    (4) The following characteristics of the atmosphere:
    (a) Layers.
    (b) Composition.
    (c) Global Wind Patterns.
    (d) Ozone.
    (5) Pressure:
    (a) Units of Measure.
    (b) Weather Systems Characteristics.
    (c) Temperature Effects on Pressure.
    (d) Altimeters.
    (e) Pressure Gradient Force.
    (f) Pressure Pattern Flying Weather.
    (6) Wind:
    (a) Major Wind Systems and Coriolis Force.
    (b) Jetstreams and their Characteristics.
    (c) Local Wind and Related Terms.
    (7) States of Matter:
    (a) Solids, Liquid, and Gases.
    (b) Causes of change of state.
    (8) Clouds:
    (a) Composition, Formation, and Dissipation.
    (b) Types and Associated Precipitation.
    (c) Use of Cloud Knowledge in Forecasting.
    (9) Fog:
    (a) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation.
    (b) Types.
    (10) Ice:
    (a) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation.
    (b) Types.
    (11) Stability/Instability:
    (a) Temperature Lapse Rate, Convection.
    (b) Adiabatic Processes.
    (c) Lifting Processes.
    (d) Divergence.
    (e) Convergence.
    (12) Turbulence:
    (a) Jetstream Associated.
    (b) Pressure Pattern Recognition.
    (c) Low Level Windshear.
    (d) Mountain Waves.
    (e) Thunderstorms.
    (f) Clear Air Turbulence.
    (13) Airmasses:
    (a) Classification and Characteristics.
    (b) Source Regions.
    (c) Use of Airmass Knowledge in Forecasting.
    (14) Fronts:
    (a) Structure and Characteristics, Both Vertical and Horizontal.

[[Page 562]]

    (b) Frontal Types.
    (c) Frontal Weather Flying.
    (15) Theory of Storm Systems:
    (a) Thunderstorms.
    (b) Tornadoes.
    (c) Hurricanes and Typhoons.
    (d) Microbursts.
    (e) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation.
    B. Weather, Analysis, and Forecasts
    (1) Observations:
    (a) Surface Observations.
    (i) Observations made by certified weather observer.
    (ii) Automated Weather Observations.
    (b) Terminal Forecasts.
    (c) Significant En route Reports and Forecasts.
    (i) Pilot Reports.
    (ii) Area Forecasts.
    (iii) Sigmets, Airmets.
    (iv) Center Weather Advisories.
    (d) Weather Imagery.
    (i) Surface Analysis.
    (ii) Weather Depiction.
    (iii) Significant Weather Prognosis.
    (iv) Winds and Temperature Aloft.
    (v) Tropopause Chart.
    (vi) Composite Moisture Stability Chart.
    (vii) Surface Weather Prognostic Chart.
    (viii) Radar Meteorology.
    (ix) Satellite Meteorology.
    (x) Other charts as applicable.
    (e) Meteorological Information Data Collection Systems.
    (2) Data Collection, Analysis, and Forecast Facilities.
    (3) Service Outlets Providing Aviation Weather Products.
    C. Weather Related Aircraft Hazards
    (1) Crosswinds and Gusts.
    (2) Contaminated Runways.
    (3) Restrictions to Surface Visibility.
    (4) Turbulence and Windshear.
    (5) Icing.
    (6) Thunderstorms and Microburst.
    (7) Volcanic Ash.
III. Navigation
    A. Study of the Earth
    (1) Time reference and location (0 Longitude, UTC).
    (2) Definitions.
    (3) Projections.
    (4) Charts.
    B. Chart Reading, Application, and Use.
    C. National Airspace Plan.
    D. Navigation Systems.
    E. Airborne Navigation Instruments.
    F. Instrument Approach Procedures.
    (1) Transition Procedures.
    (2) Precision Approach Procedures.
    (3) Non-precision Approach Procedures.
    (4) Minimums and the relationship to weather.
    G. Special Navigation and Operations.
    (1) North Atlantic.
    (2) Pacific.
    (3) Global Differences.
IV. AIRCRAFT
    A. Aircraft Flight Manual.
    B. Systems Overview.
    (1) Flight controls.
    (2) Hydraulics.
    (3) Electrical.
    (4) Air Conditioning and Pressurization.
    (5) Ice and Rain protection.
    (6) Avionics, Communication, and Navigation.
    (7) Powerplants and Auxiliary Power Units.
    (8) Emergency and Abnormal Procedures.
    (9) Fuel Systems and Sources.
    C. Minimum Equipment List/Configuration Deviation List (MEL/CDL) and 
Applications.
    D. Performance.
    (1) Aircraft in general.
    (2) Principles of flight:
    (a) Group one aircraft.
    (b) Group two aircraft.
    (3) Aircraft Limitations.
    (4) Weight and Balance.
    (5) Flight instrument errors.
    (6) Aircraft performance:
    (a) Take-off performance.
    (b) En route performance.
    (c) Landing performance.
V. Communications
    A. Regulatory requirements.
    B. Communication Protocol.
    C. Voice and Data Communications.
    D. Notice to Airmen (NOTAMS).
    E. Aeronautical Publications.
    F. Abnormal Procedures.
VI. Air Traffic Control
    A. Responsibilities.
    B. Facilities and Equipment.
    C. Airspace classification and route structure.
    D. Flight Plans.
    (1) Domestic.
    (2) International.
    E. Separation Minimums.
    F. Priority Handling.
    G. Holding Procedures.
    H. Traffic Management.
VII. Emergency and Abnormal Procedures
    A. Security measures on the ground.
    B. Security measures in the air.
    C. FAA responsibility and services.
    D. Collection and dissemination of information on overdue or missing 
aircraft.
    E. Means of declaring an emergency.
    F. Responsibility for declaring an emergency.
    G. Required reporting of an emergency.
    H. NTSB reporting requirements.
VIII. Practical Dispatch Applications
    A. Human Factors.
    (1) Decisionmaking:
    (a) Situation Assessment.
    (b) Generation and Evaluation of Alternatives.
    (i) Tradeoffs and Prioritization.
    (ii) Contingency Planning.

[[Page 563]]

    (c) Support Tools and Technologies.
    (2) Human Error:
    (a) Causes.
    (i) Individual and Organizational Factors.
    (ii) Technology-Induced Error.
    (b) Prevention.
    (c) Detection and Recovery.
    (3) Teamwork:
    (a) Communication and Information Exchange.
    (b) Cooperative and Distributed Problem-Solving.
    (c) Resource Management.
    (i) Air Traffic Control (ATC) activities and workload.
    (ii) Flightcrew activities and workload.
    (iii) Maintenance activities and workload.
    (iv) Operations Control Staff activities and workload.
    B. Applied Dispatching.
    (1) Briefing techniques, Dispatcher, Pilot.
    (2) Preflight:
    (a) Safety.
    (b) Weather Analysis.
    (i) Satellite imagery.
    (ii) Upper and lower altitude charts.
    (iii) Significant en route reports and forecasts.
    (iv) Surface charts.
    (v) Surface observations.
    (vi) Terminal forecasts and orientation to Enhanced Weather 
Information System (EWINS).
    (c) NOTAMS and airport conditions.
    (d) Crew.
    (i) Qualifications.
    (ii) Limitations.
    (e) Aircraft.
    (i) Systems.
    (ii) Navigation instruments and avionics systems.
    (iii) Flight instruments.
    (iv) Operations manuals and MEL/CDL.
    (v) Performance and limitations.
    (f) Flight Planning.
    (i) Route of flight.
    1. Standard Instrument Departures and Standard Terminal Arrival 
Routes.
    2. En route charts.
    3. Operational altitude.
    4. Departure and arrival charts.
    (ii) Minimum departure fuel.
    1. Climb.
    2. Cruise.
    3. Descent.
    (g) Weight and balance.
    (h) Economics of flight overview (Performance, Fuel Tankering).
    (i) Decision to operate the flight.
    (j) ATC flight plan filing.
    (k) Flight documentation.
    (i) Flight plan.
    (ii) Dispatch release.
    (3) Authorize flight departure with concurrence of pilot in command.
    (4) In-flight operational control:
    (a) Current situational awareness.
    (b) Information exchange.
    (c) Amend original flight release as required.
    (5) Post-Flight:
    (a) Arrival verification.
    (b) Weather debrief.
    (c) Flight irregularity reports as required.

[Doc. No. FAA-1998-4553, 64 FR 68925, Dec. 8, 1999]



PART 67_MEDICAL STANDARDS AND CERTIFICATION--Table of Contents




                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
67.1 Applicability.
67.3 Issue.
67.4 Application.
67.7 Access to the National Driver Register.

            Subpart B_First-Class Airman Medical Certificate

67.101 Eligibility.
67.103 Eye.
67.105 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.
67.107 Mental.
67.109 Neurologic.
67.111 Cardiovascular.
67.113 General medical condition.
67.115 Discretionary issuance.

            Subpart C_Second-Class Airman Medical Certificate

67.201 Eligibility.
67.203 Eye.
67.205 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.
67.207 Mental.
67.209 Neurologic.
67.211 Cardiovascular.
67.213 General medical condition.
67.215 Discretionary issuance.

            Subpart D_Third-Class Airman Medical Certificate

67.301 Eligibility.
67.303 Eye.
67.305 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.
67.307 Mental.
67.309 Neurologic.
67.311 Cardiovascular.
67.313 General medical condition.
67.315 Discretionary issuance.

                   Subpart E_Certification Procedures

67.401 Special issuance of medical certificates.
67.403 Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records: 
          Falsification, reproduction, or alteration; incorrect 
          statements.

[[Page 564]]

67.405 Medical examinations: Who may perform?
67.407 Delegation of authority.
67.409 Denial of medical certificate.
67.411 [Reserved]
67.413 Medical records.
67.415 Return of medical certificate after suspension or revocation.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 
45102-45103, 45301-45303.

    Source: Docket No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, unless 
otherwise noted.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 67.1  Applicability.

    This part prescribes the medical standards and certification 
procedures for issuing medical certificates for airmen and for remaining 
eligible for a medical certificate.



Sec. 67.3  Issue.

    A person who meets the medical standards prescribed in this part, 
based on medical examination and evaluation of the person's history and 
condition, is entitled to an appropriate medical certificate.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27812, 73 FR 43065, July 24, 2008]



Sec. 67.4  Application.

    An applicant for first-, second- and third-class medical 
certification must:
    (a) Apply on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator;
    (b) Be examined by an aviation medical examiner designated in 
accordance with part 183 of this chapter. An applicant may obtain a list 
of aviation medical examiners from the FAA Office of Aerospace Medicine 
homepage on the FAA Web site, from any FAA Regional Flight Surgeon, or 
by contacting the Manager of the Aerospace Medical Education Division, 
P.O. Box 26200, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73125.
    (c) Show proof of age and identity by presenting a government-issued 
photo identification (such as a valid U.S. driver's license, 
identification card issued by a driver's license authority, military 
identification, or passport). If an applicant does not have government-
issued identification, he or she may use non-photo, government-issued 
identification (such as a birth certificate or voter registration card) 
in conjunction with photo identification (such as a work identification 
card or a student identification card).

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27812, 73 FR 43065, July 24, 2008]



Sec. 67.7  Access to the National Driver Register.

    At the time of application for a certificate issued under this part, 
each person who applies for a medical certificate shall execute an 
express consent form authorizing the Administrator to request the chief 
driver licensing official of any state designated by the Administrator 
to transmit information contained in the National Driver Register about 
the person to the Administrator. The Administrator shall make 
information received from the National Driver Register, if any, 
available on request to the person for review and written comment.



            Subpart B_First-Class Airman Medical Certificate



Sec. 67.101  Eligibility.

    To be eligible for a first-class airman medical certificate, and to 
remain eligible for a first-class airman medical certificate, a person 
must meet the requirements of this subpart.



Sec. 67.103  Eye.

    Eye standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:
    (a) Distant visual acuity of 20/20 or better in each eye separately, 
with or without corrective lenses. If corrective lenses (spectacles or 
contact lenses) are necessary for 20/20 vision, the person may be 
eligible only on the condition that corrective lenses are worn while 
exercising the privileges of an airman certificate.
    (b) Near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at 16 inches 
in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. If age 50 or 
older, near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at both 16 
inches and 32 inches in each eye separately, with or without corrective 
lenses.
    (c) Ability to perceive those colors necessary for the safe 
performance of airman duties.

[[Page 565]]

    (d) Normal fields of vision.
    (e) No acute or chronic pathological condition of either eye or 
adnexa that interferes with the proper function of an eye, that may 
reasonably be expected to progress to that degree, or that may 
reasonably be expected to be aggravated by flying.
    (f) Bifoveal fixation and vergence-phoria relationship sufficient to 
prevent a break in fusion under conditions that may reasonably be 
expected to occur in performing airman duties. Tests for the factors 
named in this paragraph are not required except for persons found to 
have more than 1 prism diopter of hyperphoria, 6 prism diopters of 
esophoria, or 6 prism diopters of exophoria. If any of these values are 
exceeded, the Federal Air Surgeon may require the person to be examined 
by a qualified eye specialist to determine if there is bifoveal fixation 
and an adequate vergence-phoria relationship. However, if otherwise 
eligible, the person is issued a medical certificate pending the results 
of the examination.



Sec. 67.105  Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.

    Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium standards for a first-class 
airman medical certificate are:
    (a) The person shall demonstrate acceptable hearing by at least one 
of the following tests:
    (1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an average conversational voice 
in a quiet room, using both ears, at a distance of 6 feet from the 
examiner, with the back turned to the examiner.
    (2) Demonstrate an acceptable understanding of speech as determined 
by audiometric speech discrimination testing to a score of at least 70 
percent obtained in one ear or in a sound field environment.
    (3) Provide acceptable results of pure tone audiometric testing of 
unaided hearing acuity according to the following table of worst 
acceptable thresholds, using the calibration standards of the American 
National Standards Institute, 1969 (11 West 42d Street, New York, NY 
10036):

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                500   1000   2000   3000
                Frequency (Hz)                   Hz    Hz     Hz     Hz
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Better ear (Db)...............................   35     30     30     40
Poorer ear (Db)...............................   35     50     50     60
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (b) No disease or condition of the middle or internal ear, nose, 
oral cavity, pharynx, or larynx that--
    (1) Interferes with, or is aggravated by, flying or may reasonably 
be expected to do so; or
    (2) Interferes with, or may reasonably be expected to interfere 
with, clear and effective speech communication.
    (c) No disease or condition manifested by, or that may reasonably be 
expected to be manifested by, vertigo or a disturbance of equilibrium.



Sec. 67.107  Mental.

    Mental standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of 
the following:
    (1) A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly 
manifested itself by overt acts.
    (2) A psychosis. As used in this section, ``psychosis'' refers to a 
mental disorder in which:
    (i) The individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly 
bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of 
this condition; or
    (ii) The individual may reasonably be expected to manifest 
delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or 
other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition.
    (3) A bipolar disorder.
    (4) Substance dependence, except where there is established clinical 
evidence, satisfactory to the Federal Air Surgeon, of recovery, 
including sustained total abstinence from the substance(s) for not less 
than the preceding 2 years. As used in this section--
    (i) ``Substance'' includes: Alcohol; other sedatives and hypnotics; 
anxiolytics; opioids; central nervous system stimulants such as cocaine, 
amphetamines, and similarly acting sympathomimetics; hallucinogens; 
phencyclidine or similarly acting arylcyclohexylamines; cannabis;

[[Page 566]]

inhalants; and other psychoactive drugs and chemicals; and
    (ii) ``Substance dependence'' means a condition in which a person is 
dependent on a substance, other than tobacco or ordinary xanthine-
containing (e.g., caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by--
    (A) Increased tolerance;
    (B) Manifestation of withdrawal symptoms;
    (C) Impaired control of use; or
    (D) Continued use despite damage to physical health or impairment of 
social, personal, or occupational functioning.
    (b) No substance abuse within the preceding 2 years defined as:
    (1) Use of a substance in a situation in which that use was 
physically hazardous, if there has been at any other time an instance of 
the use of a substance also in a situation in which that use was 
physically hazardous;
    (2) A verified positive drug test result, an alcohol test result of 
0.04 or greater alcohol concentration, or a refusal to submit to a drug 
or alcohol test required by the U.S. Department of Transportation or an 
agency of the U.S. Department of Transportation; or
    (3) Misuse of a substance that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on 
case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the 
substance involved, finds--
    (i) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (ii) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.
    (c) No other personality disorder, neurosis, or other mental 
condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and 
appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition 
involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.

[Doc. No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 67-19, 
71 FR 35764, June 21, 2006]



Sec. 67.109  Neurologic.

    Neurologic standards for a first-class airman medical certificate 
are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of 
the following:
    (1) Epilepsy;
    (2) A disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical 
explanation of the cause; or
    (3) A transient loss of control of nervous system function(s) 
without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause.
    (b) No other seizure disorder, disturbance of consciousness, or 
neurologic condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case 
history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the 
condition involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.



Sec. 67.111  Cardiovascular.

    Cardiovascular standards for a first-class airman medical 
certificate are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of 
the following:
    (1) Myocardial infarction;
    (2) Angina pectoris;
    (3) Coronary heart disease that has required treatment or, if 
untreated, that has been symptomatic or clinically significant;
    (4) Cardiac valve replacement;
    (5) Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation; or
    (6) Heart replacement;

[[Page 567]]

    (b) A person applying for first-class medical certification must 
demonstrate an absence of myocardial infarction and other clinically 
significant abnormality on electrocardiographic examination:
    (1) At the first application after reaching the 35th birthday; and
    (2) On an annual basis after reaching the 40th birthday.
    (c) An electrocardiogram will satisfy a requirement of paragraph (b) 
of this section if it is dated no earlier than 60 days before the date 
of the application it is to accompany and was performed and transmitted 
according to acceptable standards and techniques.



Sec. 67.113  General medical condition.

    The general medical standards for a first-class airman medical 
certificate are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes 
mellitus that requires insulin or any other hypoglycemic drug for 
control.
    (b) No other organic, functional, or structural disease, defect, or 
limitation that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and 
appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition 
involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.
    (c) No medication or other treatment that the Federal Air Surgeon, 
based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment 
relating to the medication or other treatment involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.



Sec. 67.115  Discretionary issuance.

    A person who does not meet the provisions of Sec. Sec. 67.103 
through 67.113 may apply for the discretionary issuance of a certificate 
under Sec. 67.401.



            Subpart C_Second-Class Airman Medical Certificate



Sec. 67.201  Eligibility.

    To be eligible for a second-class airman medical certificate, and to 
remain eligible for a second-class airman medical certificate, a person 
must meet the requirements of this subpart.



Sec. 67.203  Eye.

    Eye standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are:
    (a) Distant visual acuity of 20/20 or better in each eye separately, 
with or without corrective lenses. If corrective lenses (spectacles or 
contact lenses) are necessary for 20/20 vision, the person may be 
eligible only on the condition that corrective lenses are worn while 
exercising the privileges of an airman certificate.
    (b) Near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at 16 inches 
in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. If age 50 or 
older, near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at both 16 
inches and 32 inches in each eye separately, with or without corrective 
lenses.
    (c) Ability to perceive those colors necessary for the safe 
performance of airman duties.
    (d) Normal fields of vision.
    (e) No acute or chronic pathological condition of either eye or 
adnexa that interferes with the proper function of an eye, that may 
reasonably be expected to progress to that degree, or that may 
reasonably be expected to be aggravated by flying.
    (f) Bifoveal fixation and vergence-phoria relationship sufficient to 
prevent a break in fusion under conditions that may reasonably be 
expected to occur in performing airman duties. Tests for the factors 
named in this paragraph are not required except for persons found to 
have more than 1 prism diopter of hyperphoria, 6 prism diopters of 
esophoria, or 6 prism diopters of exophoria. If any of these

[[Page 568]]

values are exceeded, the Federal Air Surgeon may require the person to 
be examined by a qualified eye specialist to determine if there is 
bifoveal fixation and an adequate vergence-phoria relationship. However, 
if otherwise eligible, the person is issued a medical certificate 
pending the results of the examination.



Sec. 67.205  Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.

    Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium standards for a second-class 
airman medical certificate are:
    (a) The person shall demonstrate acceptable hearing by at least one 
of the following tests:
    (1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an average conversational voice 
in a quiet room, using both ears, at a distance of 6 feet from the 
examiner, with the back turned to the examiner.
    (2) Demonstrate an acceptable understanding of speech as determined 
by audiometric speech discrimination testing to a score of at least 70 
percent obtained in one ear or in a sound field environment.
    (3) Provide acceptable results of pure tone audiometric testing of 
unaided hearing acuity according to the following table of worst 
acceptable thresholds, using the calibration standards of the American 
National Standards Institute, 1969:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                500   1000   2000   3000
                Frequency (Hz)                   Hz    Hz     Hz     Hz
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Better ear (Db)...............................   35     30     30     40
Poorer ear (Db)...............................   35     50     50     60
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (b) No disease or condition of the middle or internal ear, nose, 
oral cavity, pharynx, or larynx that--
    (1) Interferes with, or is aggravated by, flying or may reasonably 
be expected to do so; or
    (2) Interferes with, or may reasonably be expected to interfere 
with, clear and effective speech communication.
    (c) No disease or condition manifested by, or that may reasonably be 
expected to be manifested by, vertigo or a disturbance of equilibrium.



Sec. 67.207  Mental.

    Mental standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of 
the following:
    (1) A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly 
manifested itself by overt acts.
    (2) A psychosis. As used in this section, ``psychosis'' refers to a 
mental disorder in which:
    (i) The individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly 
bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of 
this condition; or
    (ii) The individual may reasonably be expected to manifest 
delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or 
other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition.
    (3) A bipolar disorder.
    (4) Substance dependence, except where there is established clinical 
evidence, satisfactory to the Federal Air Surgeon, of recovery, 
including sustained total abstinence from the substance(s) for not less 
than the preceding 2 years. As used in this section--
    (i) ``Substance'' includes: Alcohol; other sedatives and hypnotics; 
anxiolytics; opioids; central nervous system stimulants such as cocaine, 
amphetamines, and similarly acting sympathomimetics; hallucinogens; 
phencyclidine or similarly acting arylcyclohexylamines; cannabis; 
inhalants; and other psychoactive drugs and chemicals; and
    (ii) ``Substance dependence'' means a condition in which a person is 
dependent on a substance, other than tobacco or ordinary xanthine-
containing (e.g., caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by--
    (A) Increased tolerance;
    (B) Manifestation of withdrawal symptoms;
    (C) Impaired control of use; or
    (D) Continued use despite damage to physical health or impairment of 
social, personal, or occupational functioning.
    (b) No substance abuse within the preceding 2 years defined as:
    (1) Use of a substance in a situation in which that use was 
physically hazardous, if there has been at any other time an instance of 
the use of a substance also in a situation in which that use was 
physically hazardous;

[[Page 569]]

    (2) A verified positive drug test result, an alcohol test result of 
0.04 or greater alcohol concentration, or a refusal to submit to a drug 
or alcohol test required by the U.S. Department of Transportation or an 
agency of the U.S. Department of Transportation; or
    (3) Misuse of a substance that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on 
case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the 
substance involved, finds--
    (i) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (ii) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.
    (c) No other personality disorder, neurosis, or other mental 
condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and 
appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition 
involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.

[Doc. No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 67-19, 
71 FR 35764, June 21, 2006]



Sec. 67.209  Neurologic.

    Neurologic standards for a second-class airman medical certificate 
are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of 
the following:
    (1) Epilepsy;
    (2) A disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical 
explanation of the cause; or
    (3) A transient loss of control of nervous system function(s) 
without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause;
    (b) No other seizure disorder, disturbance of consciousness, or 
neurologic condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case 
history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the 
condition involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.



Sec. 67.211  Cardiovascular.

    Cardiovascular standards for a second-class medical certificate are 
no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the 
following:
    (a) Myocardial infarction;
    (b) Angina pectoris;
    (c) Coronary heart disease that has required treatment or, if 
untreated, that has been symptomatic or clinically significant;
    (d) Cardiac valve replacement;
    (e) Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation; or
    (f) Heart replacement.



Sec. 67.213  General medical condition.

    The general medical standards for a second-class airman medical 
certificate are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes 
mellitus that requires insulin or any other hypoglycemic drug for 
control.
    (b) No other organic, functional, or structural disease, defect, or 
limitation that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and 
appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition 
involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.
    (c) No medication or other treatment that the Federal Air Surgeon, 
based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment 
relating to the

[[Page 570]]

medication or other treatment involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.



Sec. 67.215  Discretionary issuance.

    A person who does not meet the provisions of Sec. Sec. 67.203 
through 67.213 may apply for the discretionary issuance of a certificate 
under Sec. 67.401.



            Subpart D_Third-Class Airman Medical Certificate



Sec. 67.301  Eligibility.

    To be eligible for a third-class airman medical certificate, or to 
remain eligible for a third-class airman medical certificate, a person 
must meet the requirements of this subpart.



Sec. 67.303  Eye.

    Eye standards for a third-class airman medical certificate are:
    (a) Distant visual acuity of 20/40 or better in each eye separately, 
with or without corrective lenses. If corrective lenses (spectacles or 
contact lenses) are necessary for 20/40 vision, the person may be 
eligible only on the condition that corrective lenses are worn while 
exercising the privileges of an airman certificate.
    (b) Near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at 16 inches 
in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses.
    (c) Ability to perceive those colors necessary for the safe 
performance of airman duties.
    (d) No acute or chronic pathological condition of either eye or 
adnexa that interferes with the proper function of an eye, that may 
reasonably be expected to progress to that degree, or that may 
reasonably be expected to be aggravated by flying.



Sec. 67.305  Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.

    Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium standards for a third-class 
airman medical certificate are:
    (a) The person shall demonstrate acceptable hearing by at least one 
of the following tests:
    (1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an average conversational voice 
in a quiet room, using both ears, at a distance of 6 feet from the 
examiner, with the back turned to the examiner.
    (2) Demonstrate an acceptable understanding of speech as determined 
by audiometric speech discrimination testing to a score of at least 70 
percent obtained in one ear or in a sound field environment.
    (3) Provide acceptable results of pure tone audiometric testing of 
unaided hearing acuity according to the following table of worst 
acceptable thresholds, using the calibration standards of the American 
National Standards Institute, 1969:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                500   1000   2000   3000
                Frequency (Hz)                   Hz    Hz     Hz     Hz
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Better ear (Db)...............................   35     30     30     40
Poorer ear (Db)...............................   35     50     50     60
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (b) No disease or condition of the middle or internal ear, nose, 
oral cavity, pharynx, or larynx that--
    (1) Interferes with, or is aggravated by, flying or may reasonably 
be expected to do so; or
    (2) Interferes with clear and effective speech communication.
    (c) No disease or condition manifested by, or that may reasonably be 
expected to be manifested by, vertigo or a disturbance of equilibrium.



Sec. 67.307  Mental.

    Mental standards for a third-class airman medical certificate are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of 
the following:
    (1) A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly 
manifested itself by overt acts.
    (2) A psychosis. As used in this section, ``psychosis'' refers to a 
mental disorder in which--
    (i) The individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly 
bizarre

[[Page 571]]

or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this 
condition; or
    (ii) The individual may reasonably be expected to manifest 
delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or 
other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition.
    (3) A bipolar disorder.
    (4) Substance dependence, except where there is established clinical 
evidence, satisfactory to the Federal Air Surgeon, of recovery, 
including sustained total abstinence from the substance(s) for not less 
than the preceding 2 years. As used in this section--
    (i) ``Substance'' includes: alcohol; other sedatives and hypnotics; 
anxiolytics; opioids; central nervous system stimulants such as cocaine, 
amphetamines, and similarly acting sympathomimetics; hallucinogens; 
phencyclidine or similarly acting arylcyclohexylamines; cannabis; 
inhalants; and other psychoactive drugs and chemicals; and
    (ii) ``Substance dependence'' means a condition in which a person is 
dependent on a substance, other than tobacco or ordinary xanthine-
containing (e.g., caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by--
    (A) Increased tolerance;
    (B) Manifestation of withdrawal symptoms;
    (C) Impaired control of use; or
    (D) Continued use despite damage to physical health or impairment of 
social, personal, or occupational functioning.
    (b) No substance abuse within the preceding 2 years defined as:
    (1) Use of a substance in a situation in which that use was 
physically hazardous, if there has been at any other time an instance of 
the use of a substance also in a situation in which that use was 
physically hazardous;
    (2) A verified positive drug test result, an alcohol test result of 
0.04 or greater alcohol concentration, or a refusal to submit to a drug 
or alcohol test required by the U.S. Department of Transportation or an 
agency of the U.S. Department of Transportation; or
    (3) Misuse of a substance that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on 
case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the 
substance involved, finds--
    (i) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (ii) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.
    (c) No other personality disorder, neurosis, or other mental 
condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and 
appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition 
involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.

[Doc. No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 67-19, 
71 FR 35764, June 21, 2006]



Sec. 67.309  Neurologic.

    Neurologic standards for a third-class airman medical certificate 
are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of 
the following:
    (1) Epilepsy;
    (2) A disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical 
explanation of the cause; or
    (3) A transient loss of control of nervous system function(s) 
without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause.
    (b) No other seizure disorder, disturbance of consciousness, or 
neurologic condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case 
history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the 
condition involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman

[[Page 572]]

medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to 
perform those duties or exercise those privileges.



Sec. 67.311  Cardiovascular.

    Cardiovascular standards for a third-class airman medical 
certificate are no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of 
any of the following:
    (a) Myocardial infarction;
    (b) Angina pectoris;
    (c) Coronary heart disease that has required treatment or, if 
untreated, that has been symptomatic or clinically significant;
    (d) Cardiac valve replacement;
    (e) Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation; or
    (f) Heart replacement.



Sec. 67.313  General medical condition.

    The general medical standards for a third-class airman medical 
certificate are:
    (a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes 
mellitus that requires insulin or any other hypoglycemic drug for 
control.
    (b) No other organic, functional, or structural disease, defect, or 
limitation that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and 
appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition 
involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.
    (c) No medication or other treatment that the Federal Air Surgeon, 
based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment 
relating to the medication or other treatment involved, finds--
    (1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise 
the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or
    (2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the 
airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person 
unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.



Sec. 67.315  Discretionary issuance.

    A person who does not meet the provisions of Sec. Sec. 67.303 
through 67.313 may apply for the discretionary issuance of a certificate 
under Sec. 67.401.



                   Subpart E_Certification Procedures



Sec. 67.401  Special issuance of medical certificates.

    (a) At the discretion of the Federal Air Surgeon, an Authorization 
for Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate (Authorization), valid for 
a specified period, may be granted to a person who does not meet the 
provisions of subparts B, C, or D of this part if the person shows to 
the satisfaction of the Federal Air Surgeon that the duties authorized 
by the class of medical certificate applied for can be performed without 
endangering public safety during the period in which the Authorization 
would be in force. The Federal Air Surgeon may authorize a special 
medical flight test, practical test, or medical evaluation for this 
purpose. A medical certificate of the appropriate class may be issued to 
a person who does not meet the provisions of subparts B, C, or D of this 
part if that person possesses a valid Authorization and is otherwise 
eligible. An airman medical certificate issued in accordance with this 
section shall expire no later than the end of the validity period or 
upon the withdrawal of the Authorization upon which it is based. At the 
end of its specified validity period, for grant of a new Authorization, 
the person must again show to the satisfaction of the Federal Air 
Surgeon that the duties authorized by the class of medical certificate 
applied for can be performed without endangering public safety during 
the period in which the Authorization would be in force.
    (b) At the discretion of the Federal Air Surgeon, a Statement of 
Demonstrated Ability (SODA) may be granted, instead of an Authorization, 
to a person whose disqualifying condition is static or nonprogressive 
and

[[Page 573]]

who has been found capable of performing airman duties without 
endangering public safety. A SODA does not expire and authorizes a 
designated aviation medical examiner to issue a medical certificate of a 
specified class if the examiner finds that the condition described on 
its face has not adversely changed.
    (c) In granting an Authorization or SODA, the Federal Air Surgeon 
may consider the person's operational experience and any medical facts 
that may affect the ability of the person to perform airman duties 
including--
    (1) The combined effect on the person of failure to meet more than 
one requirement of this part; and
    (2) The prognosis derived from professional consideration of all 
available information regarding the person.
    (d) In granting an Authorization or SODA under this section, the 
Federal Air Surgeon specifies the class of medical certificate 
authorized to be issued and may do any or all of the following:
    (1) Limit the duration of an Authorization;
    (2) Condition the granting of a new Authorization on the results of 
subsequent medical tests, examinations, or evaluations;
    (3) State on the Authorization or SODA, and any medical certificate 
based upon it, any operational limitation needed for safety; or
    (4) Condition the continued effect of an Authorization or SODA, and 
any second- or third-class medical certificate based upon it, on 
compliance with a statement of functional limitations issued to the 
person in coordination with the Director of Flight Standards or the 
Director's designee.
    (e) In determining whether an Authorization or SODA should be 
granted to an applicant for a third-class medical certificate, the 
Federal Air Surgeon considers the freedom of an airman, exercising the 
privileges of a private pilot certificate, to accept reasonable risks to 
his or her person and property that are not acceptable in the exercise 
of commercial or airline transport pilot privileges, and, at the same 
time, considers the need to protect the safety of persons and property 
in other aircraft and on the ground.
    (f) An Authorization or SODA granted under the provisions of this 
section to a person who does not meet the applicable provisions of 
subparts B, C, or D of this part may be withdrawn, at the discretion of 
the Federal Air Surgeon, at any time if--
    (1) There is adverse change in the holder's medical condition;
    (2) The holder fails to comply with a statement of functional 
limitations or operational limitations issued as a condition of 
certification under this section;
    (3) Public safety would be endangered by the holder's exercise of 
airman privileges;
    (4) The holder fails to provide medical information reasonably 
needed by the Federal Air Surgeon for certification under this section; 
or
    (5) The holder makes or causes to be made a statement or entry that 
is the basis for withdrawal of an Authorization or SODA under Sec. 
67.403.
    (g) A person who has been granted an Authorization or SODA under 
this section based on a special medical flight or practical test need 
not take the test again during later physical examinations unless the 
Federal Air Surgeon determines or has reason to believe that the 
physical deficiency has or may have degraded to a degree to require 
another special medical flight test or practical test.
    (h) The authority of the Federal Air Surgeon under this section is 
also exercised by the Manager, Aeromedical Certification Division, and 
each Regional Flight Surgeon.
    (i) If an Authorization or SODA is withdrawn under paragraph (f) of 
this section the following procedures apply:
    (1) The holder of the Authorization or SODA will be served a letter 
of withdrawal, stating the reason for the action;
    (2) By not later than 60 days after the service of the letter of 
withdrawal, the holder of the Authorization or SODA may request, in 
writing, that the Federal Air Surgeon provide for review of the decision 
to withdraw. The request for review may be accompanied by supporting 
medical evidence;
    (3) Within 60 days of receipt of a request for review, a written 
final decision either affirming or reversing the

[[Page 574]]

decision to withdraw will be issued; and
    (4) A medical certificate rendered invalid pursuant to a withdrawal, 
in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, shall be surrendered 
to the Administrator upon request.
    (j) An Authorization or SODA granted under the provisions of this 
section to a person who does not meet the applicable provisions of 
subparts B, C, or D of this part must be in that person's physical 
possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.

[Docket No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 67-
20, 73 FR 43066, July 24, 2008]



Sec. 67.403  Applications, certificates, logbooks, reports, and records: 

Falsification, reproduction, or alteration; incorrect statements.

    (a) No person may make or cause to be made--
    (1) A fraudulent or intentionally false statement on any application 
for a medical certificate or on a request for any Authorization for 
Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate (Authorization) or Statement 
of Demonstrated Ability (SODA) under this part;
    (2) A fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, 
record, or report that is kept, made, or used, to show compliance with 
any requirement for any medical certificate or for any Authorization or 
SODA under this part;
    (3) A reproduction, for fraudulent purposes, of any medical 
certificate under this part; or
    (4) An alteration of any medical certificate under this part.
    (b) The commission by any person of an act prohibited under 
paragraph (a) of this section is a basis for--
    (1) Suspending or revoking all airman, ground instructor, and 
medical certificates and ratings held by that person;
    (2) Withdrawing all Authorizations or SODA's held by that person; 
and
    (3) Denying all applications for medical certification and requests 
for Authorizations or SODA's.
    (c) The following may serve as a basis for suspending or revoking a 
medical certificate; withdrawing an Authorization or SODA; or denying an 
application for a medical certificate or request for an authorization or 
SODA:
    (1) An incorrect statement, upon which the FAA relied, made in 
support of an application for a medical certificate or request for an 
Authorization or SODA.
    (2) An incorrect entry, upon which the FAA relied, made in any 
logbook, record, or report that is kept, made, or used to show 
compliance with any requirement for a medical certificate or an 
Authorization or SODA.



Sec. 67.405  Medical examinations: Who may perform?

    (a) First-class. Any aviation medical examiner who is specifically 
designated for the purpose may perform examinations for the first-class 
medical certificate.
    (b) Second- and third-class. Any aviation medical examiner may 
perform examinations for the second-or third-class medical certificate.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27812, 73 FR 43066, July 24, 2008]



Sec. 67.407  Delegation of authority.

    (a) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703 to 
issue or deny medical certificates is delegated to the Federal Air 
Surgeon to the extent necessary to--
    (1) Examine applicants for and holders of medical certificates to 
determine whether they meet applicable medical standards; and
    (2) Issue, renew, and deny medical certificates, and issue, renew, 
deny, and withdraw Authorizations for Special Issuance of a Medical 
Certificate and Statements of Demonstrated Ability to a person based 
upon meeting or failing to meet applicable medical standards.
    (b) Subject to limitations in this chapter, the delegated functions 
of the Federal Air Surgeon to examine applicants for and holders of 
medical certificates for compliance with applicable medical standards 
and to issue, renew, and deny medical certificates are also delegated to 
aviation medical examiners and to authorized representatives of the 
Federal Air Surgeon within the FAA.

[[Page 575]]

    (c) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44702, to 
reconsider the action of an aviation medical examiner is delegated to 
the Federal Air Surgeon; the Manager, Aeromedical Certification 
Division; and each Regional Flight Surgeon. Where the person does not 
meet the standards of Sec. Sec. 67.107(b)(3) and (c), 67.109(b), 
67.113(b) and (c), 67.207(b)(3) and (c), 67.209(b), 67.213(b) and (c), 
67.307(b)(3) and (c), 67.309(b), or 67.313(b) and (c), any action taken 
under this paragraph other than by the Federal Air Surgeon is subject to 
reconsideration by the Federal Air Surgeon. A certificate issued by an 
aviation medical examiner is considered to be affirmed as issued unless 
an FAA official named in this paragraph (authorized official) reverses 
that issuance within 60 days after the date of issuance. However, if 
within 60 days after the date of issuance an authorized official 
requests the certificate holder to submit additional medical 
information, an authorized official may reverse the issuance within 60 
days after receipt of the requested information.
    (d) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44709 to re-
examine any civil airman to the extent necessary to determine an 
airman's qualification to continue to hold an airman medical 
certificate, is delegated to the Federal Air Surgeon and his or her 
authorized representatives within the FAA.



Sec. 67.409  Denial of medical certificate.

    (a) Any person who is denied a medical certificate by an aviation 
medical examiner may, within 30 days after the date of the denial, apply 
in writing and in duplicate to the Federal Air Surgeon, Attention: 
Manager, Aeromedical Certification Division, AAM-300, Federal Aviation 
Administration, P.O. Box 26080, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73126, for 
reconsideration of that denial. If the person does not ask for 
reconsideration during the 30-day period after the date of the denial, 
he or she is considered to have withdrawn the application for a medical 
certificate.
    (b) The denial of a medical certificate--
    (1) By an aviation medical examiner is not a denial by the 
Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703.
    (2) By the Federal Air Surgeon is considered to be a denial by the 
Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703.
    (3) By the Manager, Aeromedical Certification Division, or a 
Regional Flight Surgeon is considered to be a denial by the 
Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703 except where the person does not 
meet the standards of Sec. Sec. 67.107(b)(3) and (c), 67.109(b), or 
67.113(b) and (c); 67.207(b)(3) and (c), 67.209(b), or 67.213(b) and 
(c); or 67.307(b)(3) and (c), 67.309(b), or 67.313(b) and (c).
    (c) Any action taken under Sec. 67.407(c) that wholly or partly 
reverses the issue of a medical certificate by an aviation medical 
examiner is the denial of a medical certificate under paragraph (b) of 
this section.
    (d) If the issue of a medical certificate is wholly or partly 
reversed by the Federal Air Surgeon; the Manager, Aeromedical 
Certification Division; or a Regional Flight Surgeon, the person holding 
that certificate shall surrender it, upon request of the FAA.



Sec. 67.411  [Reserved]



Sec. 67.413  Medical records.

    (a) Whenever the Administrator finds that additional medical 
information or history is necessary to determine whether you meet the 
medical standards required to hold a medical certificate, you must:
    (1) Furnish that information to the FAA; or
    (2) Authorize any clinic, hospital, physician, or other person to 
release to the FAA all available information or records concerning that 
history.
    (b) If you fail to provide the requested medical information or 
history or to authorize its release, the FAA may suspend, modify, or 
revoke your medical certificate or, in the case of an applicant, deny 
the application for a medical certificate.
    (c) If your medical certificate is suspended, modified, or revoked 
under paragraph (b) of this section, that suspension or modification 
remains in effect until you provide the requested information, history, 
or authorization to

[[Page 576]]

the FAA and until the FAA determines that you meet the medical standards 
set forth in this part.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27812, 73 FR 43066, July 24, 2008]



Sec. 67.415  Return of medical certificate after suspension or revocation.

    The holder of any medical certificate issued under this part that is 
suspended or revoked shall, upon the Administrator's request, return it 
to the Administrator.

[[Page 577]]



                          SUBCHAPTER E_AIRSPACE



PART 71_DESIGNATION OF CLASS A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC 

SERVICE ROUTES; AND REPORTING POINTS--Table of Contents




Sec.

Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97 [Note]
71.1 Applicability.
71.3 [Reserved]
71.5 Reporting points.
71.7 Bearings, radials, and mileages.
71.9 Overlapping airspace designations.
71.11 Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes.
71.13 Classification of Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes.
71.15 Designation of jet routes and VOR Federal airways.

                       Subpart A_Class A Airspace

71.31 Class A airspace.
71.33 Class A airspace areas.

                       Subpart B_Class B Airspace

71.41 Class B airspace.

                       Subpart C_Class C Airspace

71.51 Class C airspace.

                       Subpart D_Class D Airspace

71.61 Class D airspace.

                       Subpart E_Class E Airspace

71.71 Class E airspace.

Subparts F-G [Reserved]

                       Subpart H_Reporting Points

71.901 Applicability.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 
9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.

    Source: Amdt. 71-14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, 1991, unless otherwise 
noted.



             Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97

    Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 97, see part 91 of this 
chapter.



Sec. 71.1  Applicability.

    A listing for Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas; air traffic 
service routes; and reporting points can be found in FAA Order 7400.9S, 
Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated October 3, 2008. This 
incorporation by reference was approved by the Director of the Federal 
Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552 (a) and 1 CFR part 51. The 
approval to incorporate by reference FAA Order 7400.9S is effective 
October 31, 2008, through September 15, 2009. During the incorporation 
by reference period, proposed changes to the listings of Class A, B, C, 
D, and E airspace areas; air traffic service routes; and reporting 
points will be published in full text as proposed rule documents in the 
Federal Register. Amendments to the listings of Class A, B, C, D, and E 
airspace areas; air traffic service routes; and reporting points will be 
published in full text as final rules in the Federal Register. 
Periodically, the final rule amendments will be integrated into a 
revised edition of the Order and submitted to the Director of the 
Federal Register for approval for incorporation by reference in this 
section. Copies of FAA Order 7400.9S may be obtained from Airspace and 
Rules Group, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue, 
SW., Washington, DC 20591, (202) 267-8783. An electronic version of the 
Order is available on the FAA Web site at http://www.faa.gov/airports--
airtraffic/air--traffic/publications/. Copies of FAA Order 7400.9S may 
be inspected in Docket No. 29334 at http://www.regulations.gov or at the 
National Archives and Records Administration.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 60939, Oct. 15, 2008]



Sec. 71.3  [Reserved]



Sec. 71.5  Reporting points.

    The reporting points listed in subpart H of FAA Order 7400.9S 
(incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) consist of geographic 
locations at which the position of an aircraft must be reported in 
accordance with part 91 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 
73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008]

[[Page 578]]



Sec. 71.7  Bearings, radials, and mileages.

    All bearings and radials in this part are true and are applied from 
point of origin and all mileages in this part are stated as nautical 
miles.



Sec. 71.9  Overlapping airspace designations.

    (a) When overlapping airspace designations apply to the same 
airspace, the operating rules associated with the more restrictive 
airspace designation apply.
    (b) For the purpose of this section--
    (1) Class A airspace is more restrictive than Class B, Class C, 
Class D, Class E, or Class G airspace;
    (2) Class B airspace is more restrictive than Class C, Class D, 
Class E, or Class G airspace;
    (3) Class C airspace is more restrictive than Class D, Class E, or 
Class G airspace;
    (4) Class D airspace is more restrictive than Class E or Class G 
airspace; and
    (5) Class E is more restrictive than Class G airspace.



Sec. 71.11  Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes.

    Unless otherwise specified, the following apply:
    (a) An Air Traffic Service (ATS) route is based on a centerline that 
extends from one navigation aid, fix, or intersection, to another 
navigation aid, fix, or intersection (or through several navigation 
aids, fixes, or intersections) specified for that route.
    (b) An ATS route does not include the airspace of a prohibited area.

[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14698, 68 FR 16947, Apr. 8, 2003, as amended by Amdt. 
71-33, 70 FR 23004, May 3, 2005]



Sec. 71.13  Classification of Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes.

    Unless otherwise specified, ATS routes are classified as follows:
    (a) In subpart A of this part:
    (1) Jet routes.
    (2) Area navigation (RNAV) routes.
    (b) In subpart E of this part:
    (1) VOR Federal airways.
    (2) Colored Federal airways.
    (i) Green Federal airways.
    (ii) Amber Federal airways.
    (iii) Red Federal airways.
    (iv) Blue Federal airways.
    (3) Area navigation (RNAV) routes.

[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14698, 68 FR 16947, Apr. 8, 2003]



Sec. 71.15  Designation of jet routes and VOR Federal airways.

    Unless otherwise specified, the place names appearing in the 
descriptions of airspace areas designated as jet routes in subpart A of 
FAA Order 7400.9S, and as VOR Federal airways in subpart E of FAA Order 
7400.9S, are the names of VOR or VORTAC navigation aids. FAA Order 
7400.9S is incorporated by reference in Sec. 71.1.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 
73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008]



                       Subpart A_Class A Airspace



Sec. 71.31  Class A airspace.

    The airspace descriptions contained in Sec. 71.33 and the routes 
contained in subpart A of FAA Order 7400.9S (incorporated by reference, 
see Sec. 71.1) are designated as Class A airspace within which all 
pilots and aircraft are subject to the rating requirements, operating 
rules, and equipment requirements of part 91 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 
73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008]



Sec. 71.33  Class A airspace areas.

    (a) That airspace of the United States, including that airspace 
overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 
contiguous States, from 18,000 feet MSL to and including FL600 excluding 
the states of Alaska and Hawaii, Santa Barbara Island, Farallon Island, 
and the airspace south of latitude 25[deg]04[min]00[sec] North.
    (b) That airspace of the State of Alaska, including that airspace 
overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast, from 18,000 
feet MSL to and including FL600 but not including the airspace less than 
1,500 feet above the surface of the earth and the Alaska Peninsula west 
of longitude 160[deg]00[min]00[sec] West.
    (c) The airspace areas listed as offshore airspace areas in subpart 
A of

[[Page 579]]

FAA Order 7400.9S (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) that are 
designated in international airspace within areas of domestic radio 
navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic ATC 
procedures are applied.

[Amdt. 71-14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, 1991]

    Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting Sec. 
71.33, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the 
Finding Aids section of the printed volume and on GPO Access.



                       Subpart B_Class B Airspace



Sec. 71.41  Class B airspace.

    The Class B airspace areas listed in subpart B of FAA Order 7400.9S 
(incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) consist of specified 
airspace within which all aircraft operators are subject to the minimum 
pilot qualification requirements, operating rules, and aircraft 
equipment requirements of part 91 of this chapter. Each Class B airspace 
area designated for an airport in subpart B of FAA Order 7400.9S 
(incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) contains at least one 
primary airport around which the airspace is designated.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 
73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008]



                       Subpart C_Class C Airspace



Sec. 71.51  Class C airspace.

    The Class C airspace areas listed in subpart C of FAA Order 7400.9S 
(incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) consist of specified 
airspace within which all aircraft operators are subject to operating 
rules and equipment requirements specified in part 91 of this chapter. 
Each Class C airspace area designated for an airport in subpart C of FAA 
Order 7400.9S (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) contains at 
least one primary airport around which the airspace is designated.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 
73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008]



                       Subpart D_Class D Airspace



Sec. 71.61  Class D airspace.

    The Class D airspace areas listed in subpart D of FAA Order 7400.9S 
(incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) consist of specified 
airspace within which all aircraft operators are subject to operating 
rules and equipment requirements specified in part 91 of this chapter. 
Each Class D airspace area designated for an airport in subpart D of FAA 
Order 7400.9S (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) contains at 
least one primary airport around which the airspace is designated.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 
73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008]



                       Subpart E_Class E Airspace



Sec. 71.71  Class E airspace.

    Class E Airspace consists of:
    (a) The airspace of the United States, including that airspace 
overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 
contiguous states and Alaska, extending upward from 14,500 feet MSL up 
to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL, and the airspace above FL600, 
excluding--
    (1) The Alaska peninsula west of longitude 160[deg]00[min]00[sec] 
W.; and
    (2) The airspace below 1,500 feet above the surface of the earth.
    (b) The airspace areas designated for an airport in subpart E of FAA 
Order 7400.9S (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) within which 
all aircraft operators are subject to the operating rules specified in 
part 91 of this chapter.
    (c) The airspace areas listed as domestic airspace areas in subpart 
E of FAA Order 7400.9S (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) which 
extend upward from 700 feet or more above the surface of the earth when 
designated in conjunction with an airport for which an approved 
instrument approach procedure has been prescribed, or from 1,200 feet or 
more above the surface of the earth for the purpose of transitioning to 
or from the terminal or en route environment. When such areas are 
designated in conjunction with airways or routes, the extent of such 
designation has the lateral extent identical to that

[[Page 580]]

of a Federal airway and extends upward from 1,200 feet or higher. Unless 
otherwise specified, the airspace areas in the paragraph extend upward 
from 1,200 feet or higher above the surface to, but not including, 
14,500 feet MSL.
    (d) The Federal airways described in subpart E of FAA Order 7400.9S 
(incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1).
    (e) The airspace areas listed as en route domestic airspace areas in 
subpart E of FAA Order 7400.9S (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 
71.1). Unless otherwise specified, each airspace area has a lateral 
extent identical to that of a Federal airway and extends upward from 
1,200 feet above the surface of the earth to the overlying or adjacent 
controlled airspace.
    (f) The airspace areas listed as offshore airspace areas in subpart 
E of FAA Order 7400.9S (incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) that 
are designated in international airspace within areas of domestic radio 
navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic ATC 
procedures are applied. Unless otherwise specified, each airspace area 
extends upward from a specified altitude up to, but not including, 
18,000 feet MSL.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 
73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008]

Subparts F-G [Reserved]



                       Subpart H_Reporting Points



Sec. 71.901  Applicability.

    Unless otherwise designated:
    (a) Each reporting point listed in subpart H of FAA Order 7400.9S 
(incorporated by reference, see Sec. 71.1) applies to all directions of 
flight. In any case where a geographic location is designated as a 
reporting point for less than all airways passing through that point, or 
for a particular direction of flight along an airway only, it is so 
indicated by including the airways or direction of flight in the 
designation of geographical location.
    (b) Place names appearing in the reporting point descriptions 
indicate VOR or VORTAC facilities identified by those names.

[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 71-40, 
73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, 2008]



PART 73_SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE--Table of Contents




                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
73.1 Applicability.
73.3 Special use airspace.
73.5 Bearings; radials; miles.

                       Subpart B_Restricted Areas

73.11 Applicability.
73.13 Restrictions.
73.15 Using agency.
73.17 Controlling agency.
73.19 Reports by using agency.

                       Subpart C_Prohibited Areas

73.81 Applicability.
73.83 Restrictions.
73.85 Using agency.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 
9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.

    Source: 46 FR 779, Jan. 2, 1981, unless otherwise noted.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 73.1  Applicability.

    The airspace that is described in subpart B and subpart C of this 
part is designated as special use airspace. These parts prescribe the 
requirements for the use of that airspace.



Sec. 73.3  Special use airspace.

    (a) Special use airspace consists of airspace of defined dimensions 
identified by an area on the surface of the earth wherein activities 
must be confined because of their nature, or wherein limitations are 
imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those 
activities, or both.
    (b) The vertical limits of special use airspace are measured by 
designated altitude floors and ceilings expressed as flight levels or as 
feet above mean sea level. Unless otherwise specified, the word ``to'' 
(an altitude or flight level) means ``to and including'' (that altitude 
or flight level).

[[Page 581]]

    (c) The horizontal limits of special use airspace are measured by 
boundaries described by geographic coordinates or other appropriate 
references that clearly define their perimeter.
    (d) The period of time during which a designation of special use 
airspace is in effect is stated in the designation.



Sec. 73.5  Bearings; radials; miles.

    (a) All bearings and radials in this part are true from point of 
origin.
    (b) Unless otherwise specified, all mileages in this part are stated 
as statute miles.



                       Subpart B_Restricted Areas



Sec. 73.11  Applicability.

    This subpart designates restricted areas and prescribes limitations 
on the operation of aircraft within them.



Sec. 73.13  Restrictions.

    No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area between 
the designated altitudes and during the time of designation, unless he 
has the advance permission of
    (a) The using agency described in Sec. 73.15; or
    (b) The controlling agency described in Sec. 73.17.



Sec. 73.15  Using agency.

    (a) For the purposes of this subpart, the following are using 
agencies;
    (1) The agency, organization, or military command whose activity 
within a restricted area necessitated the area being so designated.
    (b) Upon the request of the FAA, the using agency shall execute a 
letter establishing procedures for joint use of a restricted area by the 
using agency and the controlling agency, under which the using agency 
would notify the controlling agency whenever the controlling agency may 
grant permission for transit through the restricted area in accordance 
with the terms of the letter.
    (c) The using agency shall--
    (1) Schedule activities within the restricted area;
    (2) Authorize transit through, or flight within, the restricted area 
as feasible; and
    (3) Contain within the restricted area all activities conducted 
therein in accordance with the purpose for which it was designated.



Sec. 73.17  Controlling agency.

    For the purposes of this part, the controlling agency is the FAA 
facility that may authorize transit through or flight within a 
restricted area in accordance with a joint-use letter issued under Sec. 
73.15.



Sec. 73.19  Reports by using agency.

    (a) Each using agency shall prepare a report on the use of each 
restricted area assigned thereto during any part of the preceding 12-
month period ended September 30, and transmit it by the following 
January 31 of each year to the Manager, Air Traffic Division in the 
regional office of the Federal Aviation Administration having 
jurisdiction over the area in which the restricted area is located, with 
a copy to the Program Director for Air Traffic Airspace Management, 
Federal Aviation Administration, Washington, DC 20591.
    (b) In the report under this section the using agency shall:
    (1) State the name and number of the restricted area as published in 
this part, and the period covered by the report.
    (2) State the activities (including average daily number of 
operations if appropriate) conducted in the area, and any other 
pertinent information concerning current and future electronic 
monitoring devices.
    (3) State the number of hours daily, the days of the week, and the 
number of weeks during the year that the area was used.
    (4) For restricted areas having a joint-use designation, also state 
the number of hours daily, the days of the week, and the number of weeks 
during the year that the restricted area was released to the controlling 
agency for public use.
    (5) State the mean sea level altitudes or flight levels (whichever 
is appropriate) used in aircraft operations and the maximum and average 
ordinate of surface firing (expressed in feet, mean sea level altitude) 
used on a daily, weekly, and yearly basis.

[[Page 582]]

    (6) Include a chart of the area (of optional scale and design) 
depicting, if used, aircraft operating areas, flight patterns, ordnance 
delivery areas, surface firing points, and target, fan, and impact 
areas. After once submitting an appropriate chart, subsequent annual 
charts are not required unless there is a change in the area, activity 
or altitude (or flight levels) used, which might alter the depiction of 
the activities originally reported. If no change is to be submitted, a 
statement indicating ``no change'' shall be included in the report.
    (7) Include any other information not otherwise required under this 
part which is considered pertinent to activities carried on in the 
restricted area.
    (c) If it is determined that the information submitted under 
paragraph (b) of this section is not sufficient to evaluate the nature 
and extent of the use of a restricted area, the FAA may request the 
using agency to submit supplementary reports. Within 60 days after 
receiving a request for additional information, the using agency shall 
submit such information as the Program Director for Air Traffic Airspace 
Management considers appropriate. Supplementary reports must be sent to 
the FAA officials designated in paragraph (a) of this section.

(Secs. 307 and 313(a), Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1348 and 
1354(a)))

[Doc. No. 15379, 42 FR 54798, Oct. 11, 1977, as amended by Amdt. 73-5, 
54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 73-6, 58 FR 42001, Aug. 6, 1993; 
Amdt. 73-8, 61 FR 26435, May 28, 1996; Amdt. 73-8, 63 FR 16890, Apr. 7, 
1998]

    Editorial Note: The restricted areas formerly carried as Sec. Sec. 
608.21 to 608.72 of this title were transferred to part 73 as Sec. Sec. 
73.21 to 73.72 under subpart B but are not carried in the Code of 
Federal Regulations. For Federal Register citations affecting these 
restricted areas, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears 
in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and on GPO Access.



                       Subpart C_Prohibited Areas



Sec. 73.81  Applicability.

    This subpart designates prohibited areas and prescribes limitations 
on the operation of aircraft therein.



Sec. 73.83  Restrictions.

    No person may operate an aircraft within a prohibited area unless 
authorization has been granted by the using agency.



Sec. 73.85  Using agency.

    For the purpose of this subpart, the using agency is the agency, 
organization or military command that established the requirements for 
the prohibited area.

    Editorial Note: Sections 73.87 through 73.99 are reserved for 
descriptions of designated prohibited areas. For Federal Register 
citations affecting these prohibited areas, see the List of CFR Sections 
Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed 
volume and on GPO Access.

                           PART 75 [RESERVED]



PART 77_OBJECTS AFFECTING NAVIGABLE AIRSPACE--Table of Contents




Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 98

                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
77.1 Scope.
77.2 Definition of terms.
77.3 Standards.
77.5 Kinds of objects affected.

             Subpart B_Notice of Construction or Alteration

77.11 Scope.
77.13 Construction or alteration requiring notice.
77.15 Construction or alteration not requiring notice.
77.17 Form and time of notice.
77.19 Acknowledgment of notice.

                     Subpart C_Obstruction Standards

77.21 Scope.
77.23 Standards for determining obstructions.
77.25 Civil airport imaginary surfaces.
77.27 [Reserved]
77.28 Military airport imaginary surfaces.
77.29 Airport imaginary surfaces for heliports.

  Subpart D_Aeronautical Studies of Effect of Proposed Construction on 
                           Navigable Airspace

77.31 Scope.

[[Page 583]]

77.33 Initiation of studies.
77.35 Aeronautical studies.
77.37 Discretionary review.
77.39 Effective period of determination of no hazard.

        Subpart E_Rules of Practice for Hearings Under Subpart D

77.41 Scope.
77.43 Nature of hearing.
77.45 Presiding officer.
77.47 Legal officer.
77.49 Notice of hearing.
77.51 Parties to the hearing.
77.53 Prehearing conference.
77.55 Examination of witnesses.
77.57 Evidence.
77.59 Subpoenas of witnesses and exhibits.
77.61 Revision of construction or alteration proposal.
77.63 Record of hearing.
77.65 Recommendations by parties.
77.67 Final decision of the Administrator.
77.69 Limitations on appearance and representation.

              Subpart F_Establishment of Antenna Farm Areas

77.71 Scope.
77.73 General provisions.
77.75 Establishment of antenna farm areas.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40103, 40113-40114, 44502, 44701, 
44718, 46101-46102, 46104.

    Source: Docket No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, unless otherwise 
noted.



    Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 98--Construction or 

Alteration in the Vicinity of the Private Residence of the President of 

                            the United States

    Section 1. Construction or alteration near the private residence of 
the President. This section applies to:
    (a) Any object of natural growth, terrain, or permanent or temporary 
construction or alteration, including appurtenances and equipment or 
materials used therein.
    (b) Any apparatus of a permanent or temporary character.
    Section 2. Notice of Construction/Alteration. Proponents proposing 
construction or alteration of any object described in Section 1 that 
would exceed 50 feet AGL and is within 3 NM radius of lat. 
31[deg]34[min]45 N, long. 97[deg]32[min]00 W shall notify the 
Administrator in the form and manner prescribed in 14 CFR 77.17.
    Section 3. Obstruction Standard.
    (a) Any object described in Section 1 that would exceed 50 feet AGL 
and is within 3 NM radius of lat. 31[deg]34[min]45N, long. 
97[deg]32[min]00W is an obstruction and is presumed to adversely affect 
aviation safety and therefore is a hazard to air navigation.
    (b) A Determination of No Hazard will be issued only when the FAA 
determines, based upon submitted information and in consultation with 
the USMC and the SSPPD, that the construction or alteration will not 
adversely affect safety and would not result in a hazard to air 
navigation.
    Section 4. Termination. This rule will terminate at the end of 
President George W. Bush's term in office.

[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14972, 68 FR 19732, Apr. 22, 2003; 68 FR 23584, May 
5, 2003]



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 77.1  Scope.

    This part:
    (a) Establishes standards for determining obstructions in navigable 
airspace;
    (b) Sets forth the requirements for notice to the Administrator of 
certain proposed construction or alteration;
    (c) Provides for aeronautical studies of obstructions to air 
navigation, to determine their effect on the safe and efficient use of 
airspace;
    (d) Provides for public hearings on the hazardous effect of proposed 
construction or alteration on air navigation; and
    (e) Provides for establishing antenna farm areas.



Sec. 77.2  Definition of terms.

    For the purpose of this part:
    Airport available for public use means an airport that is open to 
the general public with or without a prior request to use the airport.
    A seaplane base is considered to be an airport only if its sea lanes 
are outlined by visual markers.
    Nonprecision instrument runway means a runway having an existing 
instrument approach procedure utilizing air navigation facilities with 
only horizontal guidance, or area type navigation equipment, for which a 
straight-in nonprecision instrument approach procedure has been 
approved, or planned, and for which no precision approach facilities are 
planned, or indicated on an FAA planning document or military service 
military airport planning document.
    Precision instrument runway means a runway having an existing 
instrument

[[Page 584]]

approach procedure utilizing an Instrument Landing System (ILS), or a 
Precision Approach Radar (PAR). It also means a runway for which a 
precision approach system is planned and is so indicated by an FAA 
approved airport layout plan; a military service approved military 
airport layout plan; any other FAA planning document, or military 
service military airport planning document.
    Utility runway means a runway that is constructed for and intended 
to be used by propeller driven aircraft of 12,500 pounds maximum gross 
weight and less.
    Visual runway means a runway intended solely for the operation of 
aircraft using visual approach procedures, with no straight-in 
instrument approach procedure and no instrument designation indicated on 
an FAA approved airport layout plan, a military service approved 
military airport layout plan, or by any planning document submitted to 
the FAA by competent authority.

[Doc. No. 8276, 33 FR 5256, Apr. 2, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 77-9, 36 
FR 5969, Apr. 1, 1971]



Sec. 77.3  Standards.

    (a) The standards established in this part for determining 
obstructions to air navigation are used by the Administrator in:
    (1) Administering the Federal-aid Airport Program and the Surplus 
Airport Program;
    (2) Transferring property of the United States under section 16 of 
the Federal Airport Act;
    (3) Developing technical standards and guidance in the design and 
construction of airports; and
    (4) Imposing requirements for public notice of the construction or 
alteration of any structure where notice will promote air safety.
    (b) The standards used by the Administrator in the establishment of 
flight procedures and aircraft operational limitations are not set forth 
in this part but are contained in other publications of the 
Administrator.

[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-9, 36 
FR 5970, Apr. 1, 1971]



Sec. 77.5  Kinds of objects affected.

    This part applies to:
    (a) Any object of natural growth, terrain, or permanent or temporary 
construction or alteration, including equipment or materials used 
therein, and apparatus of a permanent or temporary character; and
    (b) Alteration of any permanent or temporary existing structure by a 
change in its height (including appurtenances), or lateral dimensions, 
including equipment or materials used therein.



             Subpart B_Notice of Construction or Alteration



Sec. 77.11  Scope.

    (a) This subpart requires each person proposing any kind of 
construction or alteration described in Sec. 77.13(a) to give adequate 
notice to the Administrator. It specifies the locations and dimensions 
of the construction or alteration for which notice is required and 
prescribes the form and manner of the notice. It also requires 
supplemental notices 48 hours before the start and upon the completion 
of certain construction or alteration that was the subject of a notice 
under Sec. 77.13(a).
    (b) Notices received under this subpart provide a basis for:
    (1) Evaluating the effect of the construction or alteration on 
operational procedures and proposed operational procedures;
    (2) Determinations of the possible hazardous effect of the proposed 
construction or alteration on air navigation;
    (3) Recommendations for identifying the construction or alteration 
in accordance with the current Federal Aviation Administration Advisory 
Circular AC 70/7460-1 entitled ``Obstruction Marking and Lighting,'' 
which is available without charge from the Department of Transportation, 
Distribution Unit, TAD 484.3, Washington, DC 20590.
    (4) Determining other appropriate measures to be applied for 
continued safety of air navigation; and

[[Page 585]]

    (5) Charting and other notification to airmen of the construction or 
alteration.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)

[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-8, 33 
FR 18614, Dec. 17, 1968; Amdt. 77-10, 37 FR 4705, Mar. 4, 1972]



Sec. 77.13  Construction or alteration requiring notice.

    (a) Except as provided in Sec. 77.15, each sponsor who proposes any 
of the following construction or alteration shall notify the 
Administrator in the form and manner prescribed in Sec. 77.17:
    (1) Any construction or alteration of more than 200 feet in height 
above the ground level at its site.
    (2) Any construction or alteration of greater height than an 
imaginary surface extending outward and upward at one of the following 
slopes:
    (i) 100 to 1 for a horizontal distance of 20,000 feet from the 
nearest point of the nearest runway of each airport specified in 
paragraph (a)(5) of this section with at least one runway more than 
3,200 feet in actual length, excluding heliports.
    (ii) 50 to 1 for a horizontal distance of 10,000 feet from the 
nearest point of the nearest runway of each airport specified in 
paragraph (a)(5) of this section with its longest runway no more than 
3,200 feet in actual length, excluding heliports.
    (iii) 25 to 1 for a horizontal distance of 5,000 feet from the 
nearest point of the nearest landing and takeoff area of each heliport 
specified in paragraph (a)(5) of this section.
    (3) Any highway, railroad, or other traverse way for mobile objects, 
of a height which, if adjusted upward 17 feet for an Interstate Highway 
that is part of the National System of Military and Interstate Highways 
where overcrossings are designed for a minimum of 17 feet vertical 
distance, 15 feet for any other public roadway, 10 feet or the height of 
the highest mobile object that would normally traverse the road, 
whichever is greater, for a private road, 23 feet for a railroad, and 
for a waterway or any other traverse way not previously mentioned, an 
amount equal to the height of the highest mobile object that would 
normally traverse it, would exceed a standard of paragraph (a) (1) or 
(2) of this section.
    (4) When requested by the FAA, any construction or alteration that 
would be in an instrument approach area (defined in the FAA standards 
governing instrument approach procedures) and available information 
indicates it might exceed a standard of subpart C of this part.
    (5) Any construction or alteration on any of the following airports 
(including heliports):
    (i) An airport that is available for public use and is listed in the 
Airport Directory of the current Airman's Information Manual or in 
either the Alaska or Pacific Airman's Guide and Chart Supplement.
    (ii) An airport under construction, that is the subject of a notice 
or proposal on file with the Federal Aviation Administration, and, 
except for military airports, it is clearly indicated that that airport 
will be available for public use.
    (iii) An airport that is operated by an armed force of the United 
States.
    (b) Each sponsor who proposes construction or alteration that is the 
subject of a notice under paragraph (a) of this section and is advised 
by an FAA regional office that a supplemental notice is required shall 
submit that notice on a prescribed form to be received by the FAA 
regional office at least 48 hours before the start of the construction 
or alteration.
    (c) Each sponsor who undertakes construction or alteration that is 
the subject of a notice under paragraph (a) of this section shall, 
within 5 days after that construction or alteration reaches its greatest 
height, submit a supplemental notice on a prescribed form to the FAA 
regional office having jurisdiction over the region involved, if--
    (1) The construction or alteration is more than 200 feet above the 
surface level of its site; or
    (2) An FAA regional office advises him that submission of the form 
is required.

[Doc. No. 8276, 33 FR 5256, Apr. 2, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 77-9, 36 
FR 5970, Apr. 1, 1971; Amdt. 77-10, 37 FR 4705, Mar. 4, 1972]

[[Page 586]]



Sec. 77.15  Construction or alteration not requiring notice.

    No person is required to notify the Administrator for any of the 
following construction or alteration:
    (a) Any object that would be shielded by existing structures of a 
permanent and substantial character or by natural terrain or topographic 
features of equal or greater height, and would be located in the 
congested area of a city, town, or settlement where it is evident beyond 
all reasonable doubt that the structure so shielded will not adversely 
affect safety in air navigation.
    (b) Any antenna structure of 20 feet or less in height except one 
that would increase the height of another antenna structure.
    (c) Any air navigation facility, airport visual approach or landing 
aid, aircraft arresting device, or meteorological device, of a type 
approved by the Administrator, or an appropriate military service on 
military airports, the location and height of which is fixed by its 
functional purpose.
    (d) Any construction or alteration for which notice is required by 
any other FAA regulation.

[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-5, 33 
FR 5257, Apr. 2, 1968; Amdt. 77-9, 36 FR 5970, Apr. 1, 1971]



Sec. 77.17  Form and time of notice.

    (a) Each person who is required to notify the Administrator under 
Sec. 77.13(a) shall send one executed form set (four copies) of FAA 
Form 7460-1, Notice of Proposed Construction or Alteration, to the 
Manager, Air Traffic Division, FAA Regional Office having jurisdiction 
over the area within which the construction or alteration will be 
located. Copies of FAA Form 7460-1 may be obtained from the headquarters 
of the Federal Aviation Administration and the regional offices.
    (b) The notice required under Sec. 77.13(a) (1) through (4) must be 
submitted at least 30 days before the earlier of the following dates:
    (1) The date the proposed construction or alteration is to begin.
    (2) The date an application for a construction permit is to be 
filed.

However, a notice relating to proposed construction or alteration that 
is subject to the licensing requirements of the Federal Communications 
Act may be sent to FAA at the same time the application for construction 
is filed with the Federal Communications Commission, or at any time 
before that filing.
    (c) A proposed structure or an alteration to an existing structure 
that exceeds 2,000 feet in height above the ground will be presumed to 
be a hazard to air navigation and to result in an inefficient 
utilization of airspace and the applicant has the burden of overcoming 
that presumption. Each notice submitted under the pertinent provisions 
of this part 77 proposing a structure in excess of 2,000 feet above 
ground, or an alteration that will make an existing structure exceed 
that height, must contain a detailed showing, directed to meeting this 
burden. Only in exceptional cases, where the FAA concludes that a clear 
and compelling showing has been made that it would not result in an 
inefficient utilization of the airspace and would not result in a hazard 
to air navigation, will a determination of no hazard be issued.
    (d) In the case of an emergency involving essential public services, 
public health, or public safety that requires immediate construction or 
alteration, the 30-day requirement in paragraph (b) of this section does 
not apply and the notice may be sent by telephone, telegraph, or other 
expeditious means, with an executed FAA Form 7460-1 submitted within 5 
days thereafter. Outside normal business hours, emergency notices by 
telephone or telegraph may be submitted to the nearest FAA Flight 
Service Station.
    (e) Each person who is required to notify the Administrator by 
paragraph (b) or (c) of Sec. 77.13, or both, shall send an executed 
copy of FAA Form 117-1, Notice of Progress of Construction or 
Alteration, to the Manager, Air Traffic Division, FAA Regional Office 
having jurisdiction over the area involved.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)

[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-2, 31 
FR 9449, July 12, 1966; Amdt. 77-8, 33 FR 18614, Dec. 17, 1968; Amdt. 
77-10, 37 FR 4705, Mar. 4, 1972; Amdt. 77-11, 54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, 
1989]

[[Page 587]]



Sec. 77.19  Acknowledgment of notice.

    (a) The FAA acknowledges in writing the receipt of each notice 
submitted under Sec. 77.13(a).
    (b) If the construction or alteration proposed in a notice is one 
for which lighting or marking standards are prescribed in the FAA 
Advisory Circular AC 70/7460-1, entitled ``Obstruction Marking and 
Lighting,'' the acknowledgment contains a statement to that effect and 
information on how the structure should be marked and lighted in 
accordance with the manual.
    (c) The acknowledgment states that an aeronautical study of the 
proposed construction or alteration has resulted in a determination that 
the construction or alteration:
    (1) Would not exceed any standard of subpart C and would not be a 
hazard to air navigation;
    (2) Would exceed a standard of subpart C but would not be a hazard 
to air navigation; or
    (3) Would exceed a standard of subpart C and further aeronautical 
study is necessary to determine whether it would be a hazard to air 
navigation, that the sponsor may request within 30 days that further 
study, and that, pending completion of any further study, it is presumed 
the construction or alteration would be a hazard to air navigation.

[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-4, 32 
FR 12997, Sept. 13, 1967; Amdt. 77-5, 33 FR 5257, Apr. 2, 1968]



                     Subpart C_Obstruction Standards



Sec. 77.21  Scope.

    (a) This subpart establishes standards for determining obstructions 
to air navigation. It applies to existing and proposed manmade objects, 
objects of natural growth, and terrain. The standards apply to the use 
of navigable airspace by aircraft and to existing air navigation 
facilities, such as an air navigation aid, airport, Federal airway, 
instrument approach or departure procedure, or approved off-airway 
route. Additionally, they apply to a planned facility or use, or a 
change in an existing facility or use, if a proposal therefor is on file 
with the Federal Aviation Administration or an appropriate military 
service on the date the notice required by Sec. 77.13(a) is filed.
    (b) At those airports having defined runways with specially prepared 
hard surfaces, the primary surface for each such runway extends 200 feet 
beyond each end of the runway. At those airports having defined strips 
or pathways that are used regularly for the taking off and landing of 
aircraft and have been designated by appropriate authority as runways, 
but do not have specially prepared hard surfaces, each end of the 
primary surface for each such runway shall coincide with the 
corresponding end of the runway. At those airports, excluding seaplane 
bases, having a defined landing and takeoff area with no defined 
pathways for the landing and taking off of aircraft, a determination 
shall be made as to which portions of the landing and takeoff area are 
regularly used as landing and takeoff pathways. Those pathways so 
determined shall be considered runways and an appropriate primary 
surface as defined in Sec. 77.25(c) will be considered as being 
longitudinally centered on each runway so determined, and each end of 
that primary surface shall coincide with the corresponding end of that 
runway.
    (c) The standards in this subpart apply to the effect of 
construction or alteration proposals upon an airport if, at the time of 
filing of the notice required by Sec. 77.13(a), that airport is--
    (1) Available for public use and is listed in the Airport Directory 
of the current Airman's Information Manual or in either the Alaska or 
Pacific Airman's Guide and Chart Supplement; or
    (2) A planned or proposed airport or an airport under construction, 
that is the subject of a notice or proposal on file with the Federal 
Aviation Administration, and, except for military airports, it is 
clearly indicated that that airport will be available for public use; 
or,
    (3) An airport that is operated by an armed force of the United 
States.

[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-5, 33 
FR 5257, Apr. 2, 1968; Amdt. 77-9, 36 FR 5970, Apr. 1, 1971]

[[Page 588]]



Sec. 77.23  Standards for determining obstructions.

    (a) An existing object, including a mobile object, is, and a future 
object would be, an obstruction to air navigation if it is of greater 
height than any of the following heights or surfaces:
    (1) A height of 500 feet above ground level at the site of the 
object.
    (2) A height that is 200 feet above ground level or above the 
established airport elevation, whichever is higher, within 3 nautical 
miles of the established reference point of an airport, excluding 
heliports, with its longest runway more than 3,200 feet in actual 
length, and that height increases in the proportion of 100 feet for each 
additional nautical mile of distance from the airport up to a maximum of 
500 feet.
    (3) A height within a terminal obstacle clearance area, including an 
initial approach segment, a departure area, and a circling approach 
area, which would result in the vertical distance between any point on 
the object and an established minimum instrument flight altitude within 
that area or segment to be less than the required obstacle clearance.
    (4) A height within an en route obstacle clearance area, including 
turn and termination areas, of a Federal airway or approved off-airway 
route, that would increase the minimum obstacle clearance altitude.
    (5) The surface of a takeoff and landing area of an airport or any 
imaginary surface established under Sec. 77.25, Sec. 77.28, or Sec. 
77.29. However, no part of the take-off or landing area itself will be 
considered an obstruction.
    (b) Except for traverse ways on or near an airport with an operative 
ground traffic control service, furnished by an air traffic control 
tower or by the airport management and coordinated with the air traffic 
control service, the standards of paragraph (a) of this section apply to 
traverse ways used or to be used for the passage of mobile objects only 
after the heights of these traverse ways are increased by:
    (1) Seventeen feet for an Interstate Highway that is part of the 
National System of Military and Interstate Highways where overcrossings 
are designed for a minimum of 17 feet vertical distance.
    (2) Fifteen feet for any other public roadway.
    (3) Ten feet or the height of the highest mobile object that would 
normally traverse the road, whichever is greater, for a private road.
    (4) Twenty-three feet for a railroad, and,
    (5) For a waterway or any other traverse way not previously 
mentioned, an amount equal to the height of the highest mobile object 
that would normally traverse it.

[Doc. No. 10183, 36 FR 5970, Apr. 1, 1971]



Sec. 77.25  Civil airport imaginary surfaces.

    The following civil airport imaginary surfaces are established with 
relation to the airport and to each runway. The size of each such 
imaginary surface is based on the category of each runway according to 
the type of approach available or planned for that runway. The slope and 
dimensions of the approach surface applied to each end of a runway are 
determined by the most precise approach existing or planned for that 
runway end.
    (a) Horizontal surface. A horizontal plane 150 feet above the 
established airport elevation, the perimeter of which is constructed by 
swinging arcs of specified radii from the center of each end of the 
primary surface of each runway of each airport and connecting the 
adjacent arcs by lines tangent to those arcs. The radius of each arc is:
    (1) 5,000 feet for all runways designated as utility or visual;
    (2) 10,000 feet for all other runways. The radius of the arc 
specified for each end of a runway will have the same arithmetical 
value. That value will be the highest determined for either end of the 
runway. When a 5,000-foot arc is encompassed by tangents connecting two 
adjacent 10,000-foot arcs, the 5,000-foot arc shall be disregarded on 
the construction of the perimeter of the horizontal surface.
    (b) Conical surface. A surface extending outward and upward from the 
periphery of the horizontal surface at a slope of 20 to 1 for a 
horizontal distance of 4,000 feet.

[[Page 589]]

    (c) Primary surface. A surface longitudinally centered on a runway. 
When the runway has a specially prepared hard surface, the primary 
surface extends 200 feet beyond each end of that runway; but when the 
runway has no specially prepared hard surface, or planned hard surface, 
the primary surface ends at each end of that runway. The elevation of 
any point on the primary surface is the same as the elevation of the 
nearest point on the runway centerline. The width of a primary surface 
is:
    (1) 250 feet for utility runways having only visual approaches.
    (2) 500 feet for utility runways having nonprecision instrument 
approaches.
    (3) For other than utility runways the width is:
    (i) 500 feet for visual runways having only visual approaches.
    (ii) 500 feet for nonprecision instrument runways having visibility 
minimums greater than three-fourths statute mile.
    (iii) 1,000 feet for a nonprecision instrument runway having a 
nonprecision instrument approach with visibility minimums as low as 
three-fourths of a statute mile, and for precision instrument runways.

The width of the primary surface of a runway will be that width 
prescribed in this section for the most precise approach existing or 
planned for either end of that runway.
    (d) Approach surface. A surface longitudinally centered on the 
extended runway centerline and extending outward and upward from each 
end of the primary surface. An approach surface is applied to each end 
of each runway based upon the type of approach available or planned for 
that runway end.
    (1) The inner edge of the approach surface is the same width as the 
primary surface and it expands uniformly to a width of:
    (i) 1,250 feet for that end of a utility runway with only visual 
approaches;
    (ii) 1,500 feet for that end of a runway other than a utility runway 
with only visual approaches;
    (iii) 2,000 feet for that end of a utility runway with a 
nonprecision instrument approach;
    (iv) 3,500 feet for that end of a nonprecision instrument runway 
other than utility, having visibility minimums greater than three-
fourths of a statute mile;
    (v) 4,000 feet for that end of a nonprecision instrument runway, 
other than utility, having a nonprecision instrument approach with 
visibility minimums as low as three-fourths statute mile; and
    (vi) 16,000 feet for precision instrument runways.
    (2) The approach surface extends for a horizontal distance of:
    (i) 5,000 feet at a slope of 20 to 1 for all utility and visual 
runways;
    (ii) 10,000 feet at a slope of 34 to 1 for all nonprecision 
instrument runways other than utility; and,
    (iii) 10,000 feet at a slope of 50 to 1 with an additional 40,000 
feet at a slope of 40 to 1 for all precision instrument runways.
    (3) The outer width of an approach surface to an end of a runway 
will be that width prescribed in this subsection for the most precise 
approach existing or planned for that runway end.
    (e) Transitional surface. These surfaces extend outward and upward 
at right angles to the runway centerline and the runway centerline 
extended at a slope of 7 to 1 from the sides of the primary surface and 
from the sides of the approach surfaces. Transitional surfaces for those 
portions of the precision approach surface which project through and 
beyond the limits of the conical surface, extend a distance of 5,000 
feet measured horizontally from the edge of the approach surface and at 
right angles to the runway centerline.

[Doc. No. 10183, 36 FR 5970, Apr. 1, 1971; 36 FR 6741, Apr. 8, 1971]



Sec. 77.27  [Reserved]



Sec. 77.28  Military airport imaginary surfaces.

    (a) Related to airport reference points. These surfaces apply to all 
military airports. For the purposes of this section a military airport 
is any airport operated by an armed force of the United States.
    (1) Inner horizontal surface. A plane is oval in shape at a height 
of 150 feet above the established airfield elevation. The plane is 
constructed by

[[Page 590]]

scribing an arc with a radius of 7,500 feet about the centerline at the 
end of each runway and interconnecting these arcs with tangents.
    (2) Conical surface. A surface extending from the periphery of the 
inner horizontal surface outward and upward at a slope of 20 to 1 for a 
horizontal distance of 7,000 feet to a height of 500 feet above the 
established airfield elevation.
    (3) Outer horizontal surface. A plane, located 500 feet above the 
established airfield elevation, extending outward from the outer 
periphery of the conical surface for a horizontal distance of 30,000 
feet.
    (b) Related to runways. These surfaces apply to all military 
airports.
    (1) Primary surface. A surface located on the ground or water 
longitudinally centered on each runway with the same length as the 
runway. The width of the primary surface for runways is 2,000 feet. 
However, at established bases where substantial construction has taken 
place in accordance with a previous lateral clearance criteria, the 
2,000-foot width may be reduced to the former criteria.
    (2) Clear zone surface. A surface located on the ground or water at 
each end of the primary surface, with a length of 1,000 feet and the 
same width as the primary surface.
    (3) Approach clearance surface. An inclined plane, symmetrical about 
the runway centerline extended, beginning 200 feet beyond each end of 
the primary surface at the centerline elevation of the runway end and 
extending for 50,000 feet. The slope of the approach clearance surface 
is 50 to 1 along the runway centerline extended until it reaches an 
elevation of 500 feet above the established airport elevation. It then 
continues horizontally at this elevation to a point 50,000 feet from the 
point of beginning. The width of this surface at the runway end is the 
same as the primary surface, it flares uniformly, and the width at 
50,000 is 16,000 feet.
    (4) Transitional surfaces. These surfaces connect the primary 
surfaces, the first 200 feet of the clear zone surfaces, and the 
approach clearance surfaces to the inner horizontal surface, conical 
surface, outer horizontal surface or other transitional surfaces. The 
slope of the transitional surface is 7 to 1 outward and upward at right 
angles to the runway centerline.

[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-1, 30 
FR 6713, May 18, 1965; Amdt. 77-9, 36 FR 5971, Apr. 1, 1971]



Sec. 77.29  Airport imaginary surfaces for heli ports.

    (a) Heliport primary surface. The area of the primary surface 
coincides in size and shape with the designated take-off and landing 
area of a heliport. This surface is a horizontal plane at the elevation 
of the established heliport elevation.
    (b) Heliport approach surface. The approach surface begins at each 
end of the heliport primary surface with the same width as the primary 
surface, and extends outward and upward for a horizontal distance of 
4,000 feet where its width is 500 feet. The slope of the approach 
surface is 8 to 1 for civil heliports and 10 to 1 for military 
heliports.
    (c) Heliport transitional surfaces These surfaces extend outward and 
upward from the lateral boundaries of the heliport primary surface and 
from the approach surfaces at a slope of 2 to 1 for a distance of 250 
feet measured horizontally from the centerline of the primary and 
approach surfaces.

[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-9, 36 
FR 5971, Apr. 1, 1971; 36 FR 6741, Apr. 8, 1971]



  Subpart D_Aeronautical Studies of Effect of Proposed Construction on 

                           Navigable Airspace



Sec. 77.31  Scope.

    (a) This subpart applies to the conduct of aeronautical studies of 
the effect of proposed construction or alteration on the use of air 
navigation facilities or navigable airspace by aircraft. In the 
aeronautical studies, present and future IFR and VFR aeronautical 
operations and procedures are reviewed and any possible changes in those 
operations and procedures and in the construction proposal that would 
eliminate or alleviate the conflicting demands are ascertained.

[[Page 591]]

    (b) The conclusion of a study made under this subpart is normally a 
determination as to whether the specific proposal studied would be a 
hazard to air navigation.

[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-6, 33 
FR 10843, July 31, 1968]



Sec. 77.33  Initiation of studies.

    (a) An aeronautical study is conducted by the FAA:
    (1) Upon the request of the sponsor or any construction or 
alteration for which a notice is submitted under subpart B of this part, 
unless that construction or alteration would be located within an 
antenna farm area established under subpart F of this part; or
    (2) Whenever the FAA determines it appropriate.

[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-4, 32 
FR 12997, Sept. 13, 1967]



Sec. 77.35  Aeronautical studies.

    (a) The Regional Manager, Air Traffic Division of the region in 
which the proposed construction or alteration would be located, or his 
designee, conducts the aeronautical study of the effect of the proposal 
upon the operation of air navigation facilities and the safe and 
efficient utilization of the navigable airspace. This study may include 
the physical and electromagnetic radiation effect the proposal may have 
on the operation of an air navigation facility.
    (b) To the extent considered necessary, the Regional Manager, Air 
Traffic Division or his designee:
    (1) Solicits comments from all interested persons;
    (2) Explores objections to the proposal and attempts to develop 
recommendations for adjustment of aviation requirements that would 
accommodate the proposed construction or alteration;
    (3) Examines possible revisions of the proposal that would eliminate 
the exceeding of the standards in subpart C of this part; and
    (4) Convenes a meeting with all interested persons for the purpose 
of gathering all facts relevant to the effect of the proposed 
construction or alteration on the safe and efficient utilization of the 
navigable airspace.
    (c) The Regional Manager, Air Traffic Division or his designee 
issues a determination as to whether the proposed construction or 
alteration would be a hazard to air navigation and sends copies to all 
known interested persons. This determination is final unless a petition 
for review is granted under Sec. 77.37.
    (d) If the sponsor revises his proposal to eliminate exceeding of 
the standards of subpart C of this part, or withdraws it, the Regional 
Manager, Air Traffic Division, or his designee, terminates the study and 
notifies all known interested persons.

[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-6, 33 
FR 10843, July 31, 1968; Amdt. 77-11, 54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, 1989]



Sec. 77.37  Discretionary review.

    (a) The sponsor of any proposed construction or alteration or any 
person who stated a substantial aeronautical objection to it in an 
aeronautical study, or any person who has a substantial aeronautical 
objection to it but was not given an opportunity to state it, may 
petition the Administrator, within 30 days after issuance of the 
determination under Sec. 77.19 or Sec. 77.35 or revision or extension 
of the determination under Sec. 77.39(c), for a review of the 
determination, revision, or extension. This paragraph does not apply to 
any acknowledgment issued under Sec. 77.19(c)(1).
    (b) The petition must be in triplicate and contain a full statement 
of the basis upon which it is made.
    (c) The Administrator examines each petition and decides whether a 
review will be made and, if so, whether it will be:
    (1) A review on the basis of written materials, including study of a 
report by the Regional Manager, Air Traffic Division of the aeronautical 
study, briefs, and related submissions by any interested party, and 
other relevant facts, with the Administrator affirming, revising, or 
reversing the determination issued under Sec. 77.19, Sec. 77.35 or 
Sec. 77.39(c); or
    (2) A review on the basis of a public hearing, conducted in 
accordance with

[[Page 592]]

the procedures prescribed in subpart E of this part.

[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-3, 32 
FR 6970, May 6, 1967; Amdt. 77-11, 54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, 1989]



Sec. 77.39  Effective period of determination of no hazard.

    (a) Unless it is otherwise extended, revised, or terminated, each 
final determination of no hazard made under this subpart or subpart B or 
E of this part expires 18 months after its effective date, regardless of 
whether the proposed construction or alteration has been started, or on 
the date the proposed construction or alteration is abandoned, whichever 
is earlier.
    (b) In any case, including a determination to which paragraph (d) of 
this section applies, where the proposed construction or alteration has 
not been started during the applicable period by actual structural work, 
such as the laying of a foundation, but not including excavation, any 
interested person may, at least 15 days before the date the final 
determination expires, petition the FAA official who issued the 
determination to:
    (1) Revise the determination based on new facts that change the 
basis on which it was made; or
    (2) Extend its effective period.
    (c) The FAA official who issued the determination reviews each 
petition presented under paragraph (b) of this section, and revises, 
extends, or affirms the determination as indicated by his findings.
    (d) In any case in which a final determination made under this 
subpart or subpart B or E of this part relates to proposed construction 
or alteration that may not be started unless the Federal Communications 
Commission issues an appropriate construction permit, the effective 
period of each final determination includes--
    (1) The time required to apply to the Commission for a construction 
permit, but not more than 6 months after the effective date of the 
determination; and
    (2) The time necessary for the Commission to process the application 
except in a case where the Administrator determines a shorter effective 
period is required by the circumstances.
    (e) If the Commission issues a construction permit, the final 
determination is effective until the date prescribed for completion of 
the construction. If the Commission refuses to issue a construction 
permit, the final determination expires on the date of its refusal.

[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-5, 33 
FR 5257, Apr. 2, 1968]



        Subpart E_Rules of Practice for Hearings Under Subpart D



Sec. 77.41  Scope.

    This subpart applies to hearings held by the FAA under titles I, 
III, and X of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. subchapters I, 
III, and X), on proposed construction or alteration that affects the use 
of navigable airspace.



Sec. 77.43  Nature of hearing.

    Sections 4, 5, 7, and 8 of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 
U.S.C. 1003, 1004, 1006, and 1007) do not apply to hearings held on 
proposed construction or alteration to determine its effect on the 
safety of aircraft and the efficient use of navigable airspace because 
those hearings are factfinding in nature. As a factfinding procedure, 
each hearing is nonadversary and there are no formal pleadings or 
adverse parties.



Sec. 77.45  Presiding officer.

    (a) If, under Sec. 79.37, the Administrator grants a public hearing 
on any proposed construction or alteration covered by this part, the 
Director, Air Traffic Operations Service designates an FAA employee to 
be the presiding officer at the hearing.
    (b) The presiding officer may:
    (1) Give notice of the date and location of the hearing and any 
prehearing conference that may be held;
    (2) Administer oaths and affirmations;
    (3) Examine witnesses;
    (4) Issue subpoenas and take depositions or have them taken;
    (5) Obtain, in the form of a public record, all pertinent and 
relevant facts relating to the subject matter of the hearing;

[[Page 593]]

    (6) Rule, with the assistance of the legal officer, upon the 
admissibility of evidence;
    (7) Regulate the course and conduct of the hearing; and
    (8) Designate parties to the hearing and revoke those designations.

[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-11, 54 
FR 39292, Sept. 25, 1989]



Sec. 77.47  Legal officer.

    The Chief Counsel designates a member of his staff to serve as legal 
officer at each hearing under this subpart. The legal officer may 
examine witnesses and assist and advise the presiding officer on 
questions of evidence or other legal questions arising during the 
hearing.

[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended at 38 FR 26444, 
Sept. 17, 1973]



Sec. 77.49  Notice of hearing.

    In designating a time and place for a hearing under this subpart the 
presiding officer considers the needs of the FAA and the convenience of 
the parties and witnesses. The time and place of each hearing is 
published in the ``Notices'' section of the Federal Register before the 
date of the hearing, unless the notice is impractical or unnecessary.



Sec. 77.51  Parties to the hearing.

    The presiding officer designates the following as parties to the 
hearing--
    (a) The proponent of the proposed construction or alteration.
    (b) Those persons whose activities would be substantially affected 
by the proposed construction or alteration.



Sec. 77.53  Prehearing conference.

    (a) The presiding officer may, in his discretion, hold a prehearing 
conference with the parties to the hearing and the legal officer before 
the hearing.
    (b) At the direction of the presiding officer, each party to a 
prehearing conference shall submit a brief written statement of the 
evidence he intends to provide through his witnesses and by questioning 
other witnesses at the hearing, and shall provide enough copies of the 
statement so that the presiding officer may keep three for the FAA and 
give one to each other party.
    (c) At the prehearing conference, the presiding officer reduces and 
simplifies the subject matter of the hearing so far as possible and 
advises the parties of the probable order of presenting the evidence.



Sec. 77.55  Examination of witnesses.

    (a) Each witness at a hearing under this subpart shall, after being 
sworn by the presiding officer, give his testimony under oath.
    (b) The party for whom a witness, other than an employee of the FAA, 
is testifying shall examine that witness. After that examination, other 
parties to the hearing may examine the witness, in the order fixed by 
the presiding officer. The presiding officer and the legal officer may 
then examine the witness. The presiding officer may grant any party an 
additional opportunity to examine any witness, if that party adequately 
justifies the additional examination.
    (c) The legal officer examines each FAA employee who is a witness, 
before the other parties examine him. After that examination, the order 
prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section applies. An FAA employee may 
testify only as to facts within his personal knowledge and the 
application of FAA regulations, standards, and policies.



Sec. 77.57  Evidence.

    (a) The presiding officer receives all testimony and exhibits that 
are relevant to the issues of the hearing. So far as possible, each 
party shall submit enough copies of his exhibits that the presiding 
officer may keep three copies for the FAA and give one to each other 
party.
    (b) The presiding officer excludes any testimony that is irrelevant, 
unduly repetitious, or consists of statements made during an 
aeronautical study in an effort to reconcile or compromise aviation or 
construction or alteration requirements. A party to the hearing may 
object to the admission of evidence only on the ground that it is 
irrelevant.

[[Page 594]]



Sec. 77.59  Subpoenas of witnesses and exhibits.

    (a) The presiding officer of a hearing may issue subpoenas for any 
witness or exhibit that he determines may be material and relevant to 
the issues of the hearing. So far as possible, each party to the hearing 
shall provide the witnesses and exhibits that he intends to present at 
the hearing.
    (b) If any party to the hearing is unable to provide his necessary 
witnesses and exhibits, he shall advise the presiding officer far enough 
in advance that the presiding officer can determine whether he should 
issue subpoenas for the desired witnesses or exhibits.



Sec. 77.61  Revision of construction or alteration proposal.

    (a) The sponsor of any proposed construction or alteration covered 
by this part may revise his proposal at any time before or during the 
hearing. If he revises it, the presiding officer decides whether the 
revision affects the proposal to the extent that he should send it to 
the Administrator for a redetermination of the need for a hearing.
    (b) If the presiding officer decides that it does not need to be 
resubmitted to the Administrator, he advises the parties of the revised 
proposal and takes the action necessary to allow all parties to 
effectively participate in the hearing on the revised proposal. Without 
limiting his discretion, the presiding officer may recess and reconvene 
the hearing, or hold another prehearing conference.



Sec. 77.63  Record of hearing.

    (a) Each hearing is recorded verbatim by an official reporter under 
an FAA contract. The transcript, and all exhibits, become a part of the 
record of the hearing.
    (b) Any person may buy a copy of the transcript of the hearing from 
the reporter at the price fixed for it.
    (c) The presiding officer may allow any party to withdraw an 
original document if he submits authenticated copies of it.
    (d) Any person may buy, from the FAA, photostatic copies of any 
exhibit by paying the copying costs.
    (e) A change in the official transcript of a hearing may be made 
only if it involves an error of substance. Any recommendation to correct 
the transcript must be filed with the presiding officer within 5 days 
after the hearing closes. The presiding officer reviews each request for 
a correction to the extent he considers appropriate and shall make any 
revisions that he finds appropriate as a result of that review.



Sec. 77.65  Recommendations by parties.

    Within 20 days after the mailing of the record of hearing by the 
official reporter, or as otherwise directed by the presiding officer, 
each party may submit to the presiding officer five copies of his 
recommendations for a final decision to be made by the Administrator.



Sec. 77.67  Final decision of the Administrator.

    After reviewing the evidence relevant to the questions of fact in a 
hearing, including the official transcript and the exhibits, The 
Administrator resolves all these questions, based on the weight of 
evidence, and makes his determination, stating the basis and reasons for 
it. He then issues an appropriate order to be served on each of the 
parties.



Sec. 77.69  Limitations on appearance and representation.

    (a) A former officer or employee of the FAA may not appear on behalf 
of, or represent, any party before the FAA in connection with any matter 
to which this part applies, if he considered or passed on that matter 
while he was an officer or employee of the FAA.
    (b) A person appearing before the FAA on any matter to which this 
part applies may not, in connection with that appearance, knowingly 
accept assistance from, or share fees with, any person who is prohibited 
by paragraph (a) of this section, from appearing himself on that matter.
    (c) A former official or employee of the FAA may not, within 6 
months after he ceases to be such an officer or employee, appear before 
the FAA on behalf of, or represent, any party in connection with any 
proceeding that was pending under this part while he

[[Page 595]]

was an officer or employee of the FAA, unless he obtains written consent 
from an appropriate officer of the FAA, based on a verified showing that 
he did not personally consider the matter concerned or gain particular 
knowledge of it while he was an officer or employee of the FAA.



              Subpart F_Establishment of Antenna Farm Areas



Sec. 77.71  Scope.

    (a) This subpart establishes antenna farm areas in which antenna 
structures may be grouped to localize their effect on the use of 
navigable airspace.
    (b) It is the policy of the FAA to encourage the use of antenna 
farms and the single structure-multiple antenna concept for radio and 
television towers whenever possible. In considering proposals for 
establishing antenna farm areas, it considers as far as possible the 
revision of aeronautical procedures and operations to accommodate 
antenna structures that will fulfill broadcasting requirements.



Sec. 77.73  General provisions.

    (a) An antenna farm area consists of a specified geographical 
location with established dimensions of area and height, where antenna 
towers with a common impact on aviation may be grouped. Each such area 
is established by appropriate rule making action.
    (b) Each proposal for an antenna farm area is evaluated on the basis 
of its effect on the use of navigable airspace. The views of the Federal 
Communications Commission are requested on the effect that each 
establishment of an antenna farm area would have on its statutory 
responsibilities. Any views submitted by it are fully considered before 
the antenna farm concerned is established. If the Commission advises 
that the establishment of any proposed antenna farm area would interfere 
with its statutory responsibility, the proposed area is not established.
    (c) The establishment of an antenna farm area is considered whenever 
it is proposed by:
    (1) The FAA;
    (2) The Federal Communications Commission;
    (3) The sponsor of a proposed antenna tower; or
    (4) Any other person having a substantial interest in a proposed 
antenna tower.

[Doc. No. 1882, 30 FR 1839, Feb. 10, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 77-10, 37 
FR 4705, Mar. 4, 1972]



Sec. 77.75  Establishment of antenna farm areas.

    The airspace areas described in the following sections of this 
subpart are established as antenna farm areas.

    Note: Sections 77.77 through 77.1100 reserved for descriptions of 
antenna farm areas.

[[Page 596]]



          SUBCHAPTER F_AIR TRAFFIC AND GENERAL OPERATING RULES



PART 91_GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES--Table of Contents




Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 50-2
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 60
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 77
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 79
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 87
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 104
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 107
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 108

                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
91.1 Applicability.
91.3 Responsibility and authority of the pilot in command.
91.5 Pilot in command of aircraft requiring more than one required 
          pilot.
91.7 Civil aircraft airworthiness.
91.9 Civil aircraft flight manual, marking, and placard requirements.
91.11 Prohibition on interference with crewmembers.
91.13 Careless or reckless operation.
91.15 Dropping objects.
91.17 Alcohol or drugs.
91.19 Carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant 
          drugs or substances.
91.21 Portable electronic devices.
91.23 Truth-in-leasing clause requirement in leases and conditional 
          sales contracts.
91.25 Aviation Safety Reporting Program: Prohibition against use of 
          reports for enforcement purposes.
91.27-91.99 [Reserved]

                         Subpart B_Flight Rules

                                 General

91.101 Applicability.
91.103 Preflight action.
91.105 Flight crewmembers at stations.
91.107 Use of safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and child restraint 
          systems.
91.109 Flight instruction; Simulated instrument flight and certain 
          flight tests.
91.111 Operating near other aircraft.
91.113 Right-of-way rules: Except water operations.
91.115 Right-of-way rules: Water operations.
91.117 Aircraft speed.
91.119 Minimum safe altitudes: General.
91.121 Altimeter settings.
91.123 Compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
91.125 ATC light signals.
91.126 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class G 
          airspace.
91.127 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class E 
          airspace.
91.129 Operations in Class D airspace.
91.130 Operations in Class C airspace.
91.131 Operations in Class B airspace.
91.133 Restricted and prohibited areas.
91.135 Operations in Class A airspace.
91.137 Temporary flight restrictions in the vicinity of disaster/hazard 
          areas.
91.138 Temporary flight restrictions in national disaster areas in the 
          State of Hawaii.
91.139 Emergency air traffic rules.
91.141 Flight restrictions in the proximity of the Presidential and 
          other parties.
91.143 Flight limitation in the proximity of space flight operations.
91.144 Temporary restriction on flight operations during abnormally high 
          barometric pressure conditions.
91.145 Management of aircraft operations in the vicinity of aerial 
          demonstrations and major sporting events.
91.146 Passenger-carrying flights for the benefit of a charitable, 
          nonprofit, or community event.
91.147 Passenger carrying flights for compensation or hire.
91.148-91.149 [Reserved]

                           Visual Flight Rules

91.151 Fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions.
91.153 VFR flight plan: Information required.
91.155 Basic VFR weather minimums.
91.157 Special VFR weather minimums.
91.159 VFR cruising altitude or flight level.
91.161 Special awareness training required for pilots flying under 
          visual flight rules within a 60-nautical mile radius of the 
          Washington, DC VOR/DME.
91.162-91.165 [Reserved]

                         Instrument Flight Rules

91.167 Fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions.
91.169 IFR flight plan: Information required.
91.171 VOR equipment check for IFR operations.

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91.173 ATC clearance and flight plan required.
91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR.
91.177 Minimum altitudes for IFR operations.
91.179 IFR cruising altitude or flight level.
91.180 Operations within airspace designated as Reduced Vertical 
          Separation Minimum airspace.
91.181 Course to be flown.
91.183 IFR communications.
91.185 IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure.
91.187 Operation under IFR in controlled airspace: Malfunction reports.
91.189 Category II and III operations: General operating rules.
91.191 Category II and Category III manual.
91.193 Certificate of authorization for certain Category II operations.
91.195-91.199 [Reserved]

      Subpart C_Equipment, Instrument, and Certificate Requirements

91.201 [Reserved]
91.203 Civil aircraft: Certifications required.
91.205 Powered civil aircraft with standard category U.S. airworthiness 
          certificates: Instrument and equipment requirements.
91.207 Emergency locator transmitters.
91.209 Aircraft lights.
91.211 Supplemental oxygen.
91.213 Inoperative instruments and equipment.
91.215 ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment and use.
91.217 Data correspondence between automatically reported pressure 
          altitude data and the pilot's altitude reference.
91.219 Altitude alerting system or device: Turbojet-powered civil 
          airplanes.
91.221 Traffic alert and collision avoidance system equipment and use.
91.223 Terrain awareness and warning system.
91.224-91.299 [Reserved]

                   Subpart D_Special Flight Operations

91.301 [Reserved]
91.303 Aerobatic flight.
91.305 Flight test areas.
91.307 Parachutes and parachuting.
91.309 Towing: Gliders and unpowered ultralight vehicles.
91.311 Towing: Other than under Sec. 91.309.
91.313 Restricted category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.
91.315 Limited category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.
91.317 Provisionally certificated civil aircraft: Operating limitations.
91.319 Aircraft having experimental certificates: Operating limitations.
91.321 Carriage of candidates in elections.
91.323 Increased maximum certificated weights for certain airplanes 
          operated in Alaska.
91.325 Primary category aircraft: Operating limitations.
91.326 [Reserved]
91.327 Aircraft having a special airworthiness certificate in the light-
          sport category: Operating limitations.
91.328-91.399 [Reserved]

     Subpart E_Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alterations

91.401 Applicability.
91.403 General.
91.405 Maintenance required.
91.407 Operation after maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, 
          or alteration.
91.409 Inspections.
91.410 [Reserved]
91.411 Altimeter system and altitude reporting equipment tests and 
          inspections.
91.413 ATC transponder tests and inspections.
91.415 Changes to aircraft inspection programs.
91.417 Maintenance records.
91.419 Transfer of maintenance records.
91.421 Rebuilt engine maintenance records.
91.423-91.499 [Reserved]

Subpart F_Large and Turbine-Powered Multiengine Airplanes and Fractional 
                       Ownership Program Aircraft

91.501 Applicability.
91.503 Flying equipment and operating information.
91.505 Familiarity with operating limitations and emergency equipment.
91.507 Equipment requirements: Over-the-top or night VFR operations.
91.509 Survival equipment for overwater operations.
91.511 Communication and navigation equipment for overwater operations.
91.513 Emergency equipment.
91.515 Flight altitude rules.
91.517 Passenger information.
91.519 Passenger briefing.
91.521 Shoulder harness.
91.523 Carry-on baggage.
91.525 Carriage of cargo.
91.527 Operating in icing conditions.
91.529 Flight engineer requirements.
91.531 Second in command requirements.
91.533 Flight attendant requirements.
91.535 Stowage of food, beverage, and passenger service equipment during 
          aircraft movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.

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91.537-91.599 [Reserved]

Subpart G_Additional Equipment and Operating Requirements for Large and 
                       Transport Category Aircraft

91.601 Applicability.
91.603 Aural speed warning device.
91.605 Transport category civil airplane weight limitations.
91.607 Emergency exits for airplanes carrying passengers for hire.
91.609 Flight data recorders and cockpit voice recorders.
91.611 Authorization for ferry flight with one engine inoperative.
91.613 Materials for compartment interiors.
91.615-91.699 [Reserved]

Subpart H_Foreign Aircraft Operations and Operations of U.S.-Registered 
Civil Aircraft Outside of the United States; and Rules Governing Persons 
                         on Board Such Aircraft

91.701 Applicability.
91.702 Persons on board.
91.703 Operations of civil aircraft of U.S. registry outside of the 
          United States.
91.705 Operations within airspace designated as Minimum Navigation 
          Performance Specification Airspace.
91.706 Operations within airspace designed as Reduced Vertical 
          Separation Minimum Airspace.
91.707 Flights between Mexico or Canada and the United States.
91.709 Operations to Cuba.
91.711 Special rules for foreign civil aircraft.
91.713 Operation of civil aircraft of Cuban registry.
91.715 Special flight authorizations for foreign civil aircraft.
91.717-91.799 [Reserved]

                    Subpart I_Operating Noise Limits

91.801 Applicability: Relation to part 36.
91.803 Part 125 operators: Designation of applicable regulations.
91.805 Final compliance: Subsonic airplanes.
91.807-91.813 [Reserved]
91.815 Agricultural and fire fighting airplanes: Noise operating 
          limitations.
91.817 Civil aircraft sonic boom.
91.819 Civil supersonic airplanes that do not comply with part 36.
91.821 Civil supersonic airplanes: Noise limits.
91.823-91.849 [Reserved]
91.851 Definitions.
91.853 Final compliance: Civil subsonic airplanes.
91.855 Entry and nonaddition rule.
91.857 Stage 2 operations outside of the 48 contiguous United States.
91.858 Special flight authorizations for non-revenue Stage 2 operations.
91.859 Modification to meet Stage 3 or Stage 4 noise levels.
91.861 Base level.
91.863 Transfers of Stage 2 airplanes with base level.
91.865 Phased compliance for operators with base level.
91.867 Phased compliance for new entrants.
91.869 Carry-forward compliance.
91.871 Waivers from interim compliance requirements.
91.873 Waivers from final compliance.
91.875 Annual progress reports.
91.877 Annual reporting of Hawaiian operations.
91.879-91.899 [Reserved]

                            Subpart J_Waivers

91.901 [Reserved]
91.903 Policy and procedures.
91.905 List of rules subject to waivers.
91.907-91.999 [Reserved]

                Subpart K_Fractional Ownership Operations

91.1001 Applicability.
91.1002 Compliance date.
91.1003 Management contract between owner and program manager.
91.1005 Prohibitions and limitations.
91.1007 Flights conducted under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter.
91.1009 Clarification of operational control.
91.1011 Operational control responsibilities and delegation.
91.1013 Operational control briefing and acknowledgment.
91.1014 Issuing or denying management specifications.
91.1015 Management specifications.
91.1017 Amending program manager's management specifications.
91.1019 Conducting tests and inspections.
91.1021 Internal safety reporting and incident/accident response.
91.1023 Program operating manual requirements.
91.1025 Program operating manual contents.
91.1027 Recordkeeping.
91.1029 Flight scheduling and locating requirements.
91.1031 Pilot in command or second in command: Designation required.
91.1033 Operating information required.
91.1035 Passenger awareness.
91.1037 Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine powered; 
          Limitations; Destination and alternate airports.
91.1039 IFR takeoff, approach and landing minimums.
91.1041 Aircraft proving and validation tests.
91.1043 [Reserved]

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91.1045 Additional equipment requirements.
91.1047 Drug and alcohol misuse education program.
91.1049 Personnel.
91.1051 Pilot safety background check.
91.1053 Crewmember experience.
91.1055 Pilot operating limitations and pairing requirement.
91.1057 Flight, duty and rest time requirements; All crewmembers.
91.1059 Flight time limitations and rest requirements: One or two pilot 
          crews.
91.1061 Augmented flight crews.
91.1062 Duty periods and rest requirements: Flight attendants.
91.1063 Testing and training: Applicability and terms used.
91.1065 Initial and recurrent pilot testing requirements.
91.1067 Initial and recurrent flight attendant crewmember testing 
          requirements.
91.1069 Flight crew: Instrument proficiency check requirements.
91.1071 Crewmember: Tests and checks, grace provisions, training to 
          accepted standards.
91.1073 Training program: General.
91.1075 Training program: Special rules.
91.1077 Training program and revision: Initial and final approval.
91.1079 Training program: Curriculum.
91.1081 Crewmember training requirements.
91.1083 Crewmember emergency training.
91.1085 Hazardous materials recognition training.
91.1087 Approval of aircraft simulators and other training device.
91.1089 Qualifications: Check pilots (aircraft) and check pilots 
          (simulator).
91.1091 Qualifications: Flight instructors (aircraft) and flight 
          instructors (simulator).
91.1093 Initial and transition training and checking: Check pilots 
          (aircraft), check pilots (simulator).
91.1095 Initial and transition training and checking: Flight instructors 
          (aircraft), flight instructors (simulator).
91.1097 Pilot and flight attendant crewmember training programs.
91.1099 Crewmember initial and recurrent training requirements.
91.1101 Pilots: Initial, transition, and upgrade ground training.
91.1103 Pilots: Initial, transition, upgrade, requalification, and 
          differences flight training.
91.1105 Flight attendants: Initial and transition ground training.
91.1107 Recurrent training.
91.1109 Aircraft maintenance: Inspection program.
91.1111 Maintenance training.
91.1113 Maintenance recordkeeping.
91.1115 Inoperable instruments and equipment.
91.1411 Continuous airworthiness maintenance program use by fractional 
          ownership program manager.
91.1413 CAMP: Responsibility for airworthiness.
91.1415 CAMP: Mechanical reliability reports.
91.1417 CAMP: Mechanical interruption summary report.
91.1423 CAMP: Maintenance organization.
91.1425 CAMP: Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration 
          programs.
91.1427 CAMP: Manual requirements.
91.1429 CAMP: Required inspection personnel.
91.1431 CAMP: Continuing analysis and surveillance.
91.1433 CAMP: Maintenance and preventive maintenance training program.
91.1435 CAMP: Certificate requirements.
91.1437 CAMP: Authority to perform and approve maintenance.
91.1439 CAMP: Maintenance recording requirements.
91.1441 CAMP: Transfer of maintenance records.
91.1443 CAMP: Airworthiness release or aircraft maintenance log entry.

        Subpart L_Continued Airworthiness and Safety Improvements

91.1501 Purpose and definition.
91.1503 [Reserved]
91.1505 Repairs assessment for pressurized fuselages.
91.1507 Fuel tank system inspection program.

Appendix A to Part 91--Category II Operations: Manual, Instruments, 
          Equipment, and Maintenance
Appendix B to Part 91--Authorizations To Exceed Mach 1 (Sec. 91.817)
Appendix C to Part 91--Operations in the North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum 
          Navigation Performance Specifications (MNPS) Airspace
Appendix D to Part 91--Airports/Locations: Special Operating 
          Restrictions
Appendix E to Part 91--Airplane Flight Recorder Specifications
Appendix F to Part 91--Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications
Appendix G to Part 91--Operations in Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum 
          (RVSM) Airspace

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 1155, 40103, 40113, 40120, 44101, 
44111, 44701, 44704, 44709, 44711, 44712, 44715, 44716, 44717, 44722, 
46306, 46315, 46316, 46504, 46506-46507, 47122, 47508, 47528-47531, 
articles 12 and 29 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation (61 
Stat. 1180).

[[Page 600]]



Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 50-2--Special Flight Rules 

in the Vicinity of the Grand Canyon National Park, AZ

    Section 1. Applicability. This rule prescribes special operating 
rules for all persons operating aircraft in the following airspace, 
designated as the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area:
    That airspace extending upward from the surface up to but not 
including 14,500 feet MSL within an area bounded by a line beginning at 
lat. 36[deg]09[min]30[sec] N., long. 114[deg]03[min]00[sec] W.; 
northeast to lat. 36[deg]14[min]00[sec] N., long. 113[deg]09[min]50[sec] 
W.; thence northeast along the boundary of the Grand Canyon National 
Park to lat. 36[deg]24[min]47[sec] N., long. 112[deg]52[min]00[sec] W.; 
to lat. 36[deg]30[min]30[sec] N., long. 112[deg]36[min]15[sec] W. to 
lat. 36[deg]21[min]30[sec] N., long. 112[deg]00[min]00[sec] W. to lat. 
36[deg]35[min]30[sec] N., long. 111[deg]53[min]10[sec] W., to lat. 
36[deg]53[min]00[sec] N., long. 111[deg]36[min]45[sec] W. to lat. 
36[deg]53[min]00[sec] N., long. 111[deg]33[min]00[sec] W.; to lat. 
36[deg]19[min]00[sec] N., long. 111[deg]50[min]50[sec] W.; to lat. 
36[deg]17[min]00[sec] N., long. 111[deg]42[min]00[sec] W.; to lat. 
35[deg]59[min]30[sec] N., long. 111[deg]42[min]00[sec] W.; to lat. 
35[deg]57[min]30[sec] N., long. 112[deg]03[min]55[sec] W.; thence 
counterclockwise via the 5 statute mile radius of the Grand Canyon 
Airport airport reference point (lat. 35[deg]57[min]09[sec] N., long. 
112[deg]08[min]47[sec] W.) to lat. 35[deg]57[min]30[sec] N., long. 
112[deg]14[min]00[sec] W.; to lat. 35[deg]57[min]30[sec] N., long. 
113[deg]11[min]00[sec] W.; to lat. 35[deg]42[min]30[sec] N., long. 
113[deg]11[min]00[sec] W.; to 35[deg]38[min]30[sec] N.; long. 
113[deg]27[min]30[sec] W.; thence counterclockwise via the 5 statute 
mile radius of the Peach Springs VORTAC to lat. 35[deg]41[min]20[sec] 
N., long. 113[deg]36[min]00[sec] W.; to lat. 35[deg]55[min]25[sec] N., 
long. 113[deg]49[min]10[sec] W.; to lat. 35[deg]57[min]45[sec] N., 
113[deg]45[min]20[sec] W.; thence northwest along the park boundary to 
lat. 36[deg]02[min]20[sec] N., long. 113[deg]50[min]15[sec] W.; to 
36[deg]00[min]10[sec] N., long. 113[deg]53[min]45[sec] W.; thence to the 
point of beginning.
    Section 3. Aircraft operations: general. Except in an emergency, no 
person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules, Area under 
VFR on or after September 22, 1988, or under IFR on or after April 6, 
1989, unless the operation--(a) Is conducted in accordance with the 
following procedures:
    Note: The following procedures do not relieve the pilot from see-
and-avoid responsibility or compliance with FAR 91.119.
    (1) Unless necessary to maintain a safe distance from other aircraft 
or terrain--
    (i) Remain clear of the areas described in Section 4; and
    (ii) Remain at or above the following altitudes in each sector of 
the canyon:
    Eastern section from Lees Ferry to North Canyon and North Canyon to 
Boundary Ridge: as prescribed in Section 5.
    Boundary Ridge to Supai Point (Yumtheska Point): 10,000 feet MSL.
    Western section from Diamond Creek to the Grant Wash Cliffs: 8,000 
feet MSL.
    (2) Proceed through the four flight corridors describe in Section 4 
at the following altitudes unless otherwise authorized in writing by the 
Flight Standards District Office:

                               Northbound

    11,500 or
    13,500 feet MSL

                               Southbound

    10,500 or
    12,500 feet MSL
    (b) Is authorized in writing by the Flight Standards District Office 
and is conducted in compliance with the conditions contained in that 
authorization. Normally authorization will be granted for operation in 
the areas described in Section 4 or below the altitudes listed in 
Section 5 only for operations of aircraft necessary for law enforcement, 
firefighting, emergency medical treatment/evacuation of persons in the 
vicinity of the Park; for support of Park maintenance or activities; or 
for aerial access to and maintenance of other property located within 
the Special Flight Rules Area. Authorization may be issued on a 
continuing basis.
    (c)(1) Prior to November 1, 1988, is conducted in accordance with a 
specific authorization to operate in that airspace incorporated in the 
operator's part 135 operations specifications in accordance with the 
provisions of SFAR 50-1, notwithstanding the provisions of Sections 4 
and 5; and
    (2) On or after November 1, 1988, is conducted in accordance with a 
specific authorization to operate in that airspace incorporated in the 
operated in the operator's operations specifications and approved by the 
Flight Standards District Office in accordance with the provisions of 
SFAR 50-2.
    (d) Is a search and rescue mission directed by the U.S. Air Force 
Rescue Coordination Center.
    (e) Is conducted within 3 nautical miles of Whitmore Airstrip, 
Pearce Ferry Airstrip, North Rim Airstrip, Cliff Dwellers Airstrip, or 
Marble Canyon Airstrip at an altitudes less than 3,000 feet above 
airport elevation, for the purpose of landing at or taking off from that 
facility. Or
    (f) Is conducted under an IFR clearance and the pilot is acting in 
accordance with ATC instructions. An IFR flight plan may not be filed on 
a route or at an altitude that would require operation in an area 
described in Section 4.
    Section 4. Flight-free zones. Except in an emergency or if otherwise 
necessary for safety of flight, or unless otherwise authorized by the 
Flight Standards District Office for a purpose listed in Section 3(b), 
no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area 
within the following areas:
    (a) Desert View Flight-Free Zone. Within an area bounded by a line 
beginning at Lat. 35[deg]59[min]30[sec] N., Long. 111[deg]46[min]20[sec] 
W. to 35[deg]59[min]30[sec] N., Long. 111[deg]52[min]45[sec] W.; to Lat. 
36[deg]04[min]50[sec] N., Long.

[[Page 601]]

111[deg]52[min]00[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]06[min]00[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]46[min]20[sec] W.; to the point of origin; but not including the 
airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 1 mile of the western 
boundary of the zone. The area between the Desert View and Bright Angel 
Flight-Free Zones is designated the ``Zuni Point Corridor.''
    (b) Bright Angel Flight-Free Zone. Within an area bounded by a line 
beginning at Lat. 35[deg]59[min]30[sec] N., Long. 111[deg]55[min]30[sec] 
W.; to Lat. 35[deg]59[min]30[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]04[min]00[sec] W.; 
thence counterclockwise via the 5 statute mile radius of the Grand 
Canyon Airport point (Lat. 35[deg]57[min]09[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]08[min]47[sec] W.) to Lat. 36[deg]01[min]30[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]11[min]00[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]06[min]15[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]12[min]50[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]14[min]40[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]08[min]50[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]14[min]40[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]57[min]30[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]12[min]30[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]53[min]50[sec] W.; to the point of origin; but not including the 
airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 1 mile of the eastern 
boundary between the southern boundary and Lat. 36[deg]04[min]50[sec] N. 
or the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 miles of the 
northwest boundary. The area bounded by the Bright Angel and Shinumo 
Flight-Free Zones is designated the ``Dragon Corridor.''
    (c) Shinumo Flight-Free Zone. Within an area bounded by a line 
beginning at Lat. 36[deg]04[min]00[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]16[min]40[sec] 
W.; northwest along the park boundary to a point at Lat. 
36[deg]12[min]47[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]30[min]53[sec] W.; to Lat. 
36[deg]21[min]15[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]20[min]20[sec] W.; east along 
the park boundary to Lat. 36[deg]21[min]15[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]13[min]55[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]14[min]40[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]11[min]25[sec] W.; to the point of origin. The area between the 
Thunder River/Toroweap and Shinumo Flight Free Zones is designated the 
``Fossil Canyon Corridor.''
    (d) Toroweap/Thunder River Flight-Free Zone. Within an area bounded 
by a line beginning at Lat. 36[deg]22[min]45[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]20[min]35[sec] W.; thence northwest along the boundary of the 
Grand Canyon National Park to Lat. 36[deg]17[min]48[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]03[min]15[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]15[min]00[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]07[min]10[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]10[min]30[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]07[min]10[sec] W.; thence east along the Colorado River to the 
confluence of Havasu Canyon (Lat. 36[deg]18[min]40[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]45[min]45[sec] W.;) including that area within a 1.5 nautical 
mile radius of Toroweap Overlook (Lat. 36[deg]12[min]45[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]03[min]30[sec] W.); to the point of origin; but not including 
the following airspace designated as the ``Tuckup Corridor'': at or 
above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 nautical miles either side of a line 
extending between Lat. 36[deg]24[min]47[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]48[min]50[sec] W. and Lat. 36[deg]17[min]10[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]48[min]50[sec] W.; to the point of origin.
    Section 5. Minimum flight altitudes. Except in an emergency or if 
otherwise necessary for safety of flight, or unless otherwise authorized 
by the Flight Standards District Office for a purpose listed in Section 
3(b), no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules Area 
at an altitude lower than the following:
    (a) Eastern section from Lees Ferry to North Canyon: 5,000 feet MSL.
    (b) Eastern section from North Canyon to Boundary Ridge: 6,000 feet 
MSL.
    (c) Boundary Ridge to Supai (Yumtheska) Point: 7,500 feet MSL.
    (d) Supai Point to Diamond Creek: 6,500 feet MSL.
    (e) Western section from Diamond Creek to the Grand Wash Cliffs: 
5,000 feet MSL.
    Section 9. Termination date. Section 1. Applicability, Section 4, 
Flight-free zones, and Section 5. Minimum flight altitudes, expire on 
April 19, 2001.
    Note: [Removed]

[66 FR 1003, Jan. 4, 2001, as amended at 66 FR 16584, Mar. 26, 2001; 72 
FR 9846, Mar. 6, 2007]



  Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 60--Air Traffic Control 

                       System Emergency Operation

    1. Each person shall, before conducting any operation under the 
Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR chapter I), be familiar with all 
available information concerning that operation, including Notices to 
Airmen issued under Sec. 91.139 and, when activated, the provisions of 
the National Air Traffic Reduced Complement Operations Plan available 
for inspection at operating air traffic facilities and Regional air 
traffic division offices, and the General Aviation Reservation Program. 
No operator may change the designated airport of intended operation for 
any flight contained in the October 1, 1990, OAG.
    2. Notwithstanding any provision of the Federal Aviation Regulations 
to the contrary, no person may operate an aircraft in the Air Traffic 
Control System:
    a. Contrary to any restriction, prohibition, procedure or other 
action taken by the Director of the Office of Air Traffic Systems 
Management (Director) pursuant to paragraph 3 of this regulation and 
announced in a Notice to Airmen pursuant to Sec. 91.139 of the Federal 
Aviation Regulations.
    b. When the National Air Traffic Reduced Complement Operations Plan 
is activated pursuant to paragraph 4 of this regulation, except in 
accordance with the pertinent provisions of the National Air Traffic 
Reduced Complement Operations Plan.
    3. Prior to or in connection with the implementation of the RCOP, 
and as conditions warrant, the Director is authorized to:
    a. Restrict, prohibit, or permit VFR and/or IFR operations at any 
airport, Class B airspace area, Class C airspace area, or other class of 
controlled airspace.
    b. Give priority at any airport to flights that are of military 
necessity, or are medical emergency flights, Presidential flights, and

[[Page 602]]

flights transporting critical Government employees.
    c. Implement, at any airport, traffic management procedures, that 
may include reduction of flight operations. Reduction of flight 
operations will be accomplished, to the extent practical, on a pro rata 
basis among and between air carrier, commercial operator, and general 
aviation operations. Flights cancelled under this SFAR at a high density 
traffic airport will be considered to have been operated for purposes of 
part 93 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.
    4. The Director may activate the National Air Traffic Reduced 
Complement Operations Plan at any time he finds that it is necessary for 
the safety and efficiency of the National Airspace System. Upon 
activation of the RCOP and notwithstanding any provision of the FAR to 
the contrary, the Director is authorized to suspend or modify any 
airspace designation.
    5. Notice of restrictions, prohibitions, procedures and other 
actions taken by the Director under this regulation with respect to the 
operation of the Air Traffic Control system will be announced in Notices 
to Airmen issued pursuant to Sec. 91.139 of the Federal Aviation 
Regulations.
    6. The Director may delegate his authority under this regulation to 
the extent he considers necessary for the safe and efficient operation 
of the National Air Traffic Control System.

Authority: 49 U.S.C. app. 1301(7), 1303, 1344, 1348, 1352 through 1355, 
1401, 1421 through 1431, 1471, 1472, 1502, 1510, 1522, and 2121 through 
2125; articles 12, 29, 31, and 32(a) of the Convention on International 
Civil Aviation (61 stat. 1180); 42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.; E.O. 11514, 35 
FR 4247, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 902; 49 U.S.C. 106(g).

[Doc. No. 26351, 55 FR 40760, Oct. 4, 1990, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 
56 FR 65652, Dec. 17, 1991]



  Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 77--Prohibition Against 

        Certain Flights Within the Territory and Airspace of Iraq

    1. Applicability. This rule applies to the following persons:
    (a) All U.S. air carriers or commercial operators;
    (b) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate 
issued by the FAA except such persons operating U.S.-registered aircraft 
for a foreign air carrier; or
    (c) All operators of aircraft registered in the United States except 
where the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.
    2. Flight prohibition. No person may conduct flight operations over 
or within the territory of Iraq except as provided in paragraphs 3 and 4 
of this SFAR or except as follows:
    (a) Overflights of Iraq may be conducted above flight level (FL) 200 
subject to the approval of, and in accordance with the conditions 
established by, the appropriate authorities of Iraq.
    (b) Flights departing from countries adjacent to Iraq whose climb 
performance will not permit operation above FL 200 prior to entering 
Iraqi airspace may operate at altitudes below FL 200 within Iraq to the 
extent necessary to permit a climb above FL 200, subject to the approval 
of, and in accordance with the conditions established by, the 
appropriate authorities of Iraq.
    (c) [Reserved]
    3. Permitted operations. This SFAR does not prohibit persons 
described in paragraph 1 from conducting flight operations within the 
territory and airspace of Iraq when such operations are authorized 
either by another agency of the United States Government with the 
approval of the FAA or by an exemption issued by the Administrator.
    4. Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate 
decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command 
of an aircraft may deviate from this SFAR to the extent required by that 
emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers or commercial operators that are 
subject to the requirements of 14 CFR parts 119, 121, or 135, each 
person who deviates from this rule shall, within ten (10) days of the 
deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to 
the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office a complete report of 
the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation including a 
description of the deviation and the reasons therefore.
    5. Expiration. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation will remain 
in effect until further notice.

[Doc. No. 28691, 61 FR 54021, Oct. 16, 1996, as amended by Doc. No. FAA-
2003-14766, 68 FR 17870, Apr. 11, 2003; 68 FR 65382, Nov. 19, 2003]



  Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 79--Prohibition Against 

   Certain Flights Within the Flight Information Region (FIR) of the 

              Democratic People's Republic of Korea (DPRK)

    1. Applicability. This rule applies to the following persons:
    (a) All U.S. air carriers or commercial operators.
    (b) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate 
issued by the FAA, except such persons operating U.S.-registered 
aircraft for a foreign air carrier.
    (c) All operators of aircraft registered in the United States except 
where the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.

[[Page 603]]

    2. Flight Prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs 3 and 4 of 
this SFAR, no person described in paragraph 1 may conduct flight 
operations through the Pyongyang FIR west of 132 degrees east longitude.
    3. Permitted Operations. This SFAR does not prohibit persons 
described in paragraph 1 from conducting flight operations within the 
Pyongyang FIR west of 132 degrees east longitude where such operations 
are authorized either by exemption issued by the Administrator or by 
another agency of the United States Government with FAA approval.
    4. Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate 
decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command 
on an aircraft may deviate from this SFAR to the extent required by that 
emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators that 
are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR parts 121, 125, or 135, each 
person who deviates from this rule shall, within ten (10) days of the 
deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to 
the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office a complete report of 
the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a 
description of the deviation and the reasons therefore.
    5. Expiration. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 79 will 
remain in effect until further notice.

[Doc. No. 28831, 62 FR 20078, Apr. 24, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 8017, 
Feb. 17, 1998; 63 FR 19286, Apr. 17, 1998]



  Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 87--Prohibition Against 

      Certain Flights Within the Territory and Airspace of Ethiopia

    1. Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) 
No. 87 applies to all U.S. air carriers or commercial operators, all 
persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate issued by the 
FAA unless that person is engaged in the operation of a U.S.-registered 
aircraft for a foreign air carrier, and all operators using aircraft 
registered in the United States except where the operator of such 
aircraft is a foreign air carrier.
    2. Flight prohibition. Except as provided in paragraphs 3 and 4 of 
this SFAR, no person described in paragraph 1 may conduct flight 
operations within the territory and airspace of Ethiopia north of 12 
degrees north latitude.
    3. Permitted operations. This SFAR does not prohibit persons 
described in paragraph 1 from conducting flight operations within the 
territory and airspace of Ethiopia where such operations are authorized 
either by exemption issued by the Administrator or by an authorization 
issued by another agency of the United States Government with the 
approval of the FAA.
    4. Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate 
decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command 
of an aircraft may deviate from this SFAR to the extent required by that 
emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators that 
are subject to the requirements of 14 CFR 121.557, 121.559, or 135.19, 
each person who deviates from this rule shall, within ten (10) days of 
the deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, 
submit to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office a complete 
report of the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, 
including a description of the deviation and the reasons therefor.
    5. Expiration. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation shall remain 
in effect until further notice.

[Doc. No. FAA-2000-7360; 65 FR 31215, May 16, 2000]



Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97--Special Operating Rules 

for the Conduct of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Area Navigation (RNAV) 

       Operations using Global Positioning Systems (GPS) in Alaska

    Those persons identified in Section 1 may conduct IFR en route RNAV 
operations in the State of Alaska and its airspace on published air 
traffic routes using TSO C145a/C146a navigation systems as the only 
means of IFR navigation. Despite contrary provisions of parts 71, 91, 
95, 121, 125, and 135 of this chapter, a person may operate aircraft in 
accordance with this SFAR if the following requirements are met.

                Section 1. Purpose, use, and limitations

    a. This SFAR permits TSO C145a/C146a GPS (RNAV) systems to be used 
for IFR en route operations in the United States airspace over and near 
Alaska (as set forth in paragraph c of this section) at Special Minimum 
En Route Altitudes (MEA) that are outside the operational service volume 
of ground-based navigation aids, if the aircraft operation also meets 
the requirements of sections 3 and 4 of this SFAR.
    b. Certificate holders and part 91 operators may operate aircraft 
under this SFAR provided that they comply with the requirements of this 
SFAR.
    c. Operations conducted under this SFAR are limited to United States 
Airspace within and near the State of Alaska as defined in the following 
area description:
    From 62[deg]00[min]00.000[sec]N, Long. 141[deg]00[min]00.00[sec]W.; 
to Lat. 59[deg]47[min]54.11[sec]N., Long. 135[deg]28[min]38.34[sec]W.; 
to Lat. 56[deg]00[min]04.11[sec]N., Long. 130[deg]00[min]07.80[sec]W.; 
to

[[Page 604]]

Lat. 54[deg]43[min]00.00[sec]N., Long. 130[deg]37[min]00.00[sec]W.; to 
Lat. 51[deg]24[min]00.00[sec]N., Long. 167[deg]49[min]00.00[sec]W.; to 
Lat. 50[deg]08[min]00.00[sec]N., Long. 176[deg]34[min]00.00[sec]W.; to 
Lat. 45[deg]42[min]00.00[sec]N., Long. -162[deg]55[min]00.00[sec]E.; to 
Lat. 50[deg]05[min]00.00[sec]N., Long. -159[deg]00[min]00.00[sec]E.; to 
Lat. 54[deg]00[min]00.00[sec]N., Long. -169[deg]00[min]00.00[sec]E.; to 
Lat. 60[deg]00 00.00[sec]N., Long. -180[deg]00[min] 00.00[sec]E; to Lat. 
65[deg]00[min]00.00[sec]N., Long. 168[deg]58[min]23.00[sec]W.; to Lat. 
90[deg]00[min]00.00[sec]N., Long. 00[deg]00[min]0.00[sec]W.; to Lat. 
62[deg]00[min]00.000[sec]N, Long. 141[deg]00[min]00.00[sec]W.
    (d) No person may operate an aircraft under IFR during the en route 
portion of flight below the standard MEA or at the special MEA unless 
the operation is conducted in accordance with sections 3 and 4 of this 
SFAR.

                Section 2. Definitions and abbreviations

    For the purposes of this SFAR, the following definitions and 
abbreviations apply.
    Area navigation (RNAV). RNAV is a method of navigation that permits 
aircraft operations on any desired flight path.
    Area navigation (RNAV) route. RNAV route is a published route based 
on RNAV that can be used by suitably equipped aircraft.
    Certificate holder. A certificate holder means a person holding a 
certificate issued under part 119 or part 125 of this chapter or holding 
operations specifications issued under part 129 of this chapter.
    Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS). GNSS is a world-wide 
position and time determination system that uses satellite ranging 
signals to determine user location. It encompasses all satellite ranging 
technologies, including GPS and additional satellites. Components of the 
GNSS include GPS, the Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite System, and 
WAAS satellites.
    Global Positioning System (GPS). GPS is a satellite-based radio 
navigational, positioning, and time transfer system. The system provides 
highly accurate position and velocity information and precise time on a 
continuous global basis to properly equipped users.
    Minimum crossing altitude (MCA). The minimum crossing altitude (MCA) 
applies to the operation of an aircraft proceeding to a higher minimum 
en route altitude when crossing specified fixes.
    Required navigation system. Required navigation system means 
navigation equipment that meets the performance requirements of TSO 
C145a/C146a navigation systems certified for IFR en route operations.
    Route segment. Route segment is a portion of a route bounded on each 
end by a fix or NAVAID.
    Special MEA. Special MEA refers to the minimum en route altitudes, 
using required navigation systems, on published routes outside the 
operational service volume of ground-based navigation aids and are 
depicted on the published Low Altitude and High Altitude En Route Charts 
using the color blue and with the suffix ``G.'' For example, a GPS MEA 
of 4000 feet MSL would be depicted using the color blue, as 4000G.
    Standard MEA. Standard MEA refers to the minimum en route IFR 
altitude on published routes that uses ground-based navigation aids and 
are depicted on the published Low Altitude and High Altitude En Route 
Charts using the color black.
    Station referenced. Station referenced refers to radio navigational 
aids or fixes that are referenced by ground based navigation facilities 
such as VOR facilities.
    Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS). WAAS is an augmentation to GPS 
that calculates GPS integrity and correction data on the ground and uses 
geo-stationary satellites to broadcast GPS integrity and correction data 
to GPS/WAAS users and to provide ranging signals. It is a safety 
critical system consisting of a ground network of reference and 
integrity monitor data processing sites to assess current GPS 
performance, as well as a space segment that broadcasts that assessment 
to GNSS users to support en route through precision approach navigation. 
Users of the system include all aircraft applying the WAAS data and 
ranging signal.

                   Section 3. Operational Requirements

    To operate an aircraft under this SFAR, the following requirements 
must be met:
    a. Training and qualification for operations and maintenance 
personnel on required navigation equipment used under this SFAR.
    b. Use authorized procedures for normal, abnormal, and emergency 
situations unique to these operations, including degraded navigation 
capabilities, and satellite system outages.
    c. For certificate holders, training of flight crewmembers and other 
personnel authorized to exercise operational control on the use of those 
procedures specified in paragraph b of this section.
    d. Part 129 operators must have approval from the State of the 
operator to conduct operations in accordance with this SFAR.
    e. In order to operate under this SFAR, a certificate holder must be 
authorized in operations specifications.

                    Section 4. Equipment Requirements

    a. The certificate holder must have properly installed, 
certificated, and functional dual required navigation systems as defined 
in section 2 of this SFAR for the en route operations covered under this 
SFAR.
    b. When the aircraft is being operated under part 91, the aircraft 
must be equipped with at least one properly installed, certificated, and 
functional required navigation system as defined in section 2 of this 
SFAR for the en route operations covered under this SFAR.

[[Page 605]]

                       Section 5. Expiration date

    This Special Federal Aviation Regulation will remain in effect until 
rescinded.

[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14305, 68 FR 14077, Mar. 21, 2003]



 Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 104--Prohibition Against 

       Certain Flights by Syrian Air Carriers to the United States

    1. Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) 
No. 104 applies to any air carrier owned or controlled by Syria that is 
engaged in scheduled international air services.
    2. Special flight restrictions. Except as provided in paragraphs 3 
and 4 of this SFAR No. 104, no air carrier described in paragraph 1 may 
take off from or land in the territory of the United States.
    3. Permitted operations. This SFAR does not prohibit overflights of 
the territory of the United States by any air carrier described in 
paragraph 1.
    4. Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate 
decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command 
of an aircraft of any air carrier described in paragraph 1 may deviate 
from this SFAR to the extent required by that emergency. Each person who 
deviates from this rule must, within 10 days of the deviation, excluding 
Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to the nearest FAA 
Flight Standards District Office a complete report of the operations or 
the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a description of the 
deviation and the reasons therefor.
    5. Duration. This SFAR No. 104 will remain in effect until further 
notice.

[Doc. No. FAA-2004-17763, 69 FR 31719, June 4, 2004]



 Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 107--Prohibition Against 

      Certain Flights Within the Territory and Airspace of Somalia

    1. Applicability. This rule applies to the following persons:
    (a) All U.S. air carriers or commercial operators;
    (b) All persons exercising the privileges of an airman certificate 
issued by the FAA except such persons operating U.S.-registered aircraft 
for a foreign air carrier; and
    (c) All operators of aircraft registered in the United States except 
where the operator of such aircraft is a foreign air carrier.
    2. Flight prohibition. Except as provided below, or in paragraphs 3 
and 4 of this SFAR, no person described in paragraph 1 may conduct 
flight operations within the territory and airspace of Somalia below 
flight level (FL) 200.
    (a) Overflights of Somalia may be conducted above FL 200 subject to 
the approval of, and in accordance with the conditions established by, 
the appropriate authorities of Somalia.
    (b) Flights departing from countries adjacent to Somalia whose climb 
performance will not permit operation above FL 200 prior to entering 
Somali airspace may operate at altitudes below FL 200 within Somalia to 
the extent necessary to permit a climb above FL 200, subject to the 
approval of, and in accordance with the conditions established by, the 
appropriate authorities of Somalia.
    3. Permitted operations. This SFAR does not prohibit persons 
described in section 1 from conducting flight operations within the 
territory and airspace below FL 200 of Somalia when such operations are 
authorized either by another agency of the United States Government with 
the approval of the FAA or by an exemption issued by the Administrator.
    4. Emergency situations. In an emergency that requires immediate 
decision and action for the safety of the flight, the pilot in command 
of an aircraft may deviate from this SFAR to the extent required by that 
emergency. Except for U.S. air carriers and commercial operators that 
are subject to the requirements of Title 14 CFR parts 119, 121, or 135, 
each person who deviates from this rule must, within 10 days of the 
deviation, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, submit to 
the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office a complete report of 
the operations of the aircraft involved in the deviation, including a 
description of the deviation and the reasons for it.
    5. Expiration. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation will remain 
in effect until further notice.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27602, 72 FR 16712, Apr. 5, 2007]



   Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 108--Mitsubishi MU-2B 

     Series Special Training, Experience, and Operating Requirements

    1. Applicability. After February 5, 2009, this Special Federal 
Aviation Regulation (SFAR) applies to all persons who operate the 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane including those who act as pilot-in-
command, act as second-in-command, or other persons who manipulate the 
controls while under the supervision of a pilot-in-command. This SFAR 
also applies to those persons who provide pilot training for the 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane. The requirements in this SFAR are in 
addition to the requirements of 14 CFR parts 61, 91, and 135 of this 
chapter.
    2. Compliance and Eligibility. (a) Except as provided in paragraph 
(b) of this section, no

[[Page 606]]

person may manipulate the controls, act as pilot-in-command, act as 
second-in-command, or provide pilot training for the Mitsubishi MU-2B 
series airplane unless that person meets the applicable requirements of 
this SFAR.
    (b) A person, who does not meet the requirements of this SFAR, may 
manipulate the controls of the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane if a 
pilot-in-command meeting the applicable requirements of this SFAR is 
occupying a pilot station, and the flight is being conducted for one of 
the following reasons--
    (1) The pilot-in-command is providing pilot training to the 
manipulator of the controls, and no passengers or cargo are carried on 
board the airplane;
    (2) The pilot-in-command is conducting a maintenance test flight 
with a second pilot or certificated mechanic, and no passengers or cargo 
are carried on board the airplane; or
    (3) The pilot-in-command is conducting simulated instrument flight 
and is using a safety pilot other than the pilot-in-command who 
manipulates the controls for the purposes of 14 CFR 91.109(b), and no 
passengers or cargo are carried on board the airplane.
    (c) A person is required to complete Initial/transition training if 
that person has fewer than--
    (1) 50 hours of documented flight time manipulating the controls 
while serving as pilot-in-command of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane 
in the preceding 24 months; or
    (2) 500 hours of documented flight time manipulating the controls 
while serving as pilot-in-command of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane.
    (d) A person is eligible to receive Requalification training in lieu 
of Initial/transition training if that person has at least--
    (1) 50 hours of documented flight time manipulating the controls 
while serving as pilot-in-command of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane 
in the preceding 24 months; or
    (2) 500 hours of documented flight time manipulating the controls 
while serving as pilot-in-command of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane.
    (e) A person is required to complete Recurrent training within the 
preceding 12 months. Successful completion of Initial/transition or 
Requalification training within the preceding 12 months satisfies the 
requirement of Recurrent training. A person must successfully complete 
Initial/transition training or Requalification training before being 
eligible to receive Recurrent training.
    (f) Successful completion of Initial/transition training or 
Requalification training is a one-time requirement. A person may elect 
to retake Initial/transition training or Requalification training in 
lieu of Recurrent training.
    (g) A person is required to complete Differences training if that 
person operates more than one MU-2B model. Differences training between 
the K and M models of the MU-2B airplane, and the J and L models of the 
MU-2B airplane, may be accomplished with Level A training. All other 
Differences training must be accomplished with Level B training. Persons 
that are operating two models of the MU-2B airplane are required to 
receive 1.5 hours of Differences training. Persons that are operating 
three or more models of the MU-2B airplane are required to receive 3.0 
hours of Differences training. An additional 1.5 hours of Differences 
training is required for each model added at a later date. Differences 
Training is not a recurring annual requirement. Once a person has 
received Differences training between the applicable different models, 
no additional Differences training between those models is required.
    3. Required Pilot Training. (a) Except as provided in section 2 
paragraph (b) of this SFAR, no person may manipulate the controls, act 
as pilot-in-command, or act as second-in-command of a Mitsubishi MU-2B 
series airplane for the purpose of flight unless--
    (1) The applicable requirements for ground and flight training on 
Initial/transition, Requalification, Recurrent, and Differences training 
have been completed, as specified in this SFAR, including Appendices A 
through D of this SFAR; and
    (2) That person's logbook has been endorsed in accordance with 
paragraph (f) of this section.
    (b) No person may manipulate the controls, act as pilot-in-command, 
or act as second-in-command, of a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane for 
the purpose of flight unless--
    (1) That person satisfactorily completes, if applicable, annual 
Recurrent pilot training on the Special Emphasis Items, and all items 
listed in the Training Course Final Phase Check as specified in Appendix 
C of this SFAR; and
    (2) That person's logbook has been endorsed in accordance with 
paragraph (f) of this section.
    (c) Satisfactory completion of the competency check required by 14 
CFR 135.293 within the preceding 12 calendar months may not be 
substituted for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane annual recurrent 
flight training of this section.
    (d) Satisfactory completion of a Federal Aviation Administration 
sponsored pilot proficiency award program, as described in 14 CFR 
61.56(e) may not be substituted for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane 
annual recurrent flight training of this section.
    (e) If a person complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) or 
(b) of this section in the calendar month before or the calendar month 
after the month in which compliance with these paragraphs are required, 
that person is considered to have accomplished the

[[Page 607]]

training requirement in the month the training is due.
    (f) The endorsement required under paragraph (a) and (b) of this 
section must be made by--
    (1) A certificated flight instructor meeting the qualifications of 
section 5 of this SFAR; or
    (2) For persons operating the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane for a 
part 119 certificate holder within the last 12 calendar months, the 14 
CFR part 119 certificate holder's flight instructor if authorized by the 
FAA and if that flight instructor meets the requirements of section 5 of 
this SFAR.
    (g) All training conducted for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane 
must be completed in accordance with the applicable MU-2B series 
checklist listed in table 1 of this SFAR or an MU-2B series airplane 
checklist that has been accepted by the Federal Aviation 
Administration's MU-2B Flight Standardization Board.

                      Table 1 to SFAR 108--MU-2B Series Airplane Manufacturer's Checklists
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                           Cockpit checklist         Date the
                                                                     ----------------------------  checklist was
                  Model                        Type certificate                                     accepted by
                                                                           MHI document No.           the FSB
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
MU-2B-60................................  A10SW.....................  YET06220C.................       2/12/2007
MU-2B-40................................  A10SW.....................  YET06256A.................       2/12/2007
MU-2B-36A...............................  A10SW.....................  YET06257B.................       2/12/2007
MU-2B-36................................  A2PC......................  YET06252B.................       2/12/2007
MU-2B-35................................  A2PC......................  YET06251B.................       2/12/2007
MU-2B-30................................  A2PC......................  YET06250A.................        3/2/2007
MU-2B-26A...............................  A10SW.....................  YET06255A.................       2/12/2007
MU-2B-26................................  A2PC......................  YET06249A.................        3/2/2007
MU-2B-26................................  A10SW.....................  YET06254A.................        3/2/2007
MU-2B-25................................  A10SW.....................  YET06253A.................        3/2/2007
MU-2B-25................................  A2PC......................  YET06248A.................        3/2/2007
MU-2B-20................................  A2PC......................  YET06247A.................       2/12/2007
MU-2B-15................................  A2PC......................  YET06246A.................        3/2/2007
MU-2B-10................................  A2PC......................  YET06245A.................        3/2/2007
MU-2B...................................  A2PC......................  YET06244A.................        3/2/2007
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    4. Aeronautical Experience. No person may act as pilot-in-command of 
a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane for the purpose of flight unless that 
person holds an airplane category and multi-engine land class rating, 
and has logged a minimum of 100 flight hours of pilot-in-command time in 
multi-engine airplanes.
    5. Instruction, Checking and Evaluation. (a) Flight Instructor 
(Airplane). No flight instructor may provide instruction or conduct a 
flight review in a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane unless that flight 
instructor meets the requirements of this paragraph.
    (1) Each flight instructor who provides flight training in the 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane must meet the pilot training and 
documentation requirements of section 3 of this SFAR before giving 
flight instruction in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane.
    (2) Each flight instructor who provides flight training in the 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane must meet the currency requirements of 
paragraphs (a) and (c) of section 6 of this SFAR before giving flight 
instruction in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane.
    (3) Each flight instructor who provides flight training in the 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane must have a minimum total pilot time of 
2,000 pilot-in-command hours, 800 pilot-in-command hours in multiengine 
airplanes.
    (4) Each flight instructor who provides flight training in the 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane must have--
    (i) 300 pilot-in-command hours in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series 
airplane, 50 hours of which must have been within the preceding 12 
months; or
    (ii) 100 pilot-in-command hours in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series 
airplane, 25 hours of which must have been within the preceding 12 
months, and 300 hours providing instruction in a FAA-approved Mitsubishi 
MU-2B simulator or FAA-approved Mitsubishi MU-2B flight training device, 
25 hours of which must have been within the preceding 12 months.
    (b) Flight Instructor (Simulator/ Flight Training Device). No flight 
instructor may provide instruction for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series 
airplane unless that instructor meets the requirements of this 
paragraph.
    (1) Each flight instructor who provides flight training for the 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane must meet the pilot training and 
documentation requirements of section 3 of this SFAR before giving 
flight instruction for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane.
    (2) Each flight instructor who provides flight training for the 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane must meet the currency requirements of 
paragraph (c) of section 6 of this SFAR before giving flight instruction 
for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane.
    (3) Each flight instructor who provides flight training for the 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane must have--
    (i) A minimum total pilot time of 2000 pilot-in-command hours and 
800 pilot-in-command hours in multiengine airplanes; and
    (ii) Within the preceding 12 months, either 50 hours of Mitsubishi 
MU-2B series airplane pilot-in-command experience or 50 hours providing 
simulator or flight training device instruction for the Mitsubishi MU-
2B.
    (c) Checking and Evaluation. No person may provide checking or 
evaluation for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane unless that person 
meets the requirements of this paragraph.
    (1) For the purpose of checking, designated pilot examiners, 
training center evaluators, and check airmen must have completed the 
appropriate training in the Mitsubishi MU-

[[Page 608]]

2B series airplane in accordance with section 3 of this SFAR.
    (2) For checking conducted in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane, 
each designated pilot examiner and check airman must have 100 hours 
pilot-in-command flight time in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane and 
maintain currency in accordance with section 6 of this SFAR.
    6. Currency Requirements and Flight Review. (a) The takeoff and 
landing currency requirements of 14 CFR 61.57 must be maintained in the 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane. Takeoff and landings in other 
multiengine airplanes do not meet the takeoff landing currency 
requirements for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane. Takeoff and 
landings in either the short-body or long-body Mitsubishi MU-2B model 
airplane may be credited toward takeoff and landing currency for both 
Mitsubishi MU-2B model groups.
    (b) Instrument experience obtained in other category and class of 
aircraft may be used to satisfy the instrument currency requirements of 
14 CFR 61.57 for the Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane.
    (c) Satisfactory completion of a flight review to satisfy the 
requirements of 14 CFR 61.56 is valid for operation of a Mitsubishi MU-
2B series airplane only if that flight review is conducted in a 
Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane. The flight review for Mitsubishi MU-2B 
series airplanes must include the Special Emphasis Items, and all items 
listed in the Training Course Final Phase Check of Appendix C of this 
SFAR.
    (d) A person who successfully completes the Initial/transition, 
Requalification, or Recurrent training requirements, as described in 
section 3 of this SFAR, also meets the requirements of 14 CFR 61.56 and 
need not accomplish a separate flight review provided that at least 1 
hour of the flight training was conducted in the Mitsubishi MU-2B series 
airplane.
    7. Operating Requirements. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) 
of this section, no person may operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B airplane in 
single pilot operations unless that airplane has a functional autopilot.
    (b) A person may operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B airplane in single pilot 
operations without a functional autopilot when--
    (1) Operating under day visual flight rule requirements; or
    (2) Authorized under a FAA approved minimum equipment list for that 
airplane, operating under instrument flight rule requirements in daytime 
visual meteorological conditions.
    (c) No person may operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane unless 
a copy of the appropriate Mitsubishi Heavy Industries MU-2B Airplane 
Flight Manual is carried on board the airplane and is accessible during 
each flight at the pilot station.
    (d) No person may operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane unless 
an MU-2B series airplane checklist, appropriate for the model being 
operated and accepted by the Federal Aviation Administration MU-2B 
Flight Standardization Board, is accessible for each flight at the pilot 
station and is used by the flight crewmembers when operating the 
airplane.
    (e) No person may operate a Mitsubishi MU-2B series airplane 
contrary to the MU-2B training program in the Appendices of this SFAR.
    (f) If there are any differences between the training and operating 
requirements of this SFAR and the MU-2B Airplane Flight Manual's 
procedures sections (Normal, Abnormal, and Emergency) and the MU-2B 
airplane series checklist specified in section 3(g), table 1, the person 
operating the airplane must operate the airplane in accordance with the 
training specified in section 3(g), table 1.
    8. Credit for Prior Training. Initial/transition or requalification 
training conducted between July 27, 2006, and April 7, 2008, using 
Mitsubishi Heavy Industries MU-2B Training Program, Part number YET 
05301, Revision Original, dated July 27, 2006, or Revision 1, dated 
September 19, 2006, is considered to be compliant with this SFAR, if the 
student met the eligibility requirements for the applicable category of 
training and the student's instructor met the experience requirements of 
this SFAR.
    9. Incorporation by Reference. You must proceed in accordance with 
the Mitsubishi Heavy Industries MU-2B Checklists as listed in Table 1 of 
this SFAR which are incorporated by reference. The Director of the 
Federal Register approved this incorporation by reference in accordance 
with 5 U.S.C. section 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The Mitsubishi Heavy 
Industries MU-2B Checklists are distributed by Turbine Aircraft 
Services, Inc. You may obtain a copy from Turbine Aircraft Services 
Inc., 4550 Jimmy Doolittle Drive, Addison, Texas 75001, USA. You may 
inspect a copy at U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Management 
Facility, Room W 12-140, West Building Ground Floor, 1200 New Jersey 
Ave., SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001, or at the National Archives and 
Records Administration at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: http://
www.archives.gov/federal--register/code--of--federal--regulations/ibr--
locations.html.
    10. Expiration. This SFAR will remain in effect until further 
notice.

       Appendix A to SFAR 108--MU-2B General Training Requirements

    (a) The Mitsubishi MU-2B Training Program consists of both ground 
and flight training. The minimum pilot training requirement hours are 
shown in Table 1 of this appendix for ground instruction and Table 2

[[Page 609]]

of this appendix for flight instruction. An additional ground training 
requirement for Differences Training is shown in Table 3.
    (b) The MU-2B is certificated by the Federal Aviation Administration 
(FAA) as a single pilot airplane. No training credit is given for second 
in command (SIC) training and no credit is given for right seat time 
under this program. Only the sole manipulator of the controls of the MU-
2B airplane, Flight Training Device (FTD), or Level C or D simulator can 
receive training credit under this program.
    (c) The training program references the applicable MU-2B airplane 
flight manual (AFM) in several sections. There may be differences 
between sequencing of procedures found in the AFM's procedures sections 
and the checklists, procedures, and techniques found within this 
training program. The FAA's Mitsubishi MU-2B SFAR requires that if there 
are any differences between the AFM's procedures sections (Normal, 
Abnormal, and Emergency) and the training and operating requirements of 
the Mitsubishi MU-2B SFAR, the person operating the airplane must 
operate the airplane in accordance with the training specified in the 
SFAR and this MU-2B training program.
    (d) Minimum Programmed Training Hours

                    Table 1 to Appendix A of SFAR 108
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                           Ground instruction
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Initial/transition           Requalificaton         Recurrent
------------------------------------------------------------------------
20 hours........................  12 hours..........  8 hours.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


                    Table 2 to Appendix A of SFAR 108
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                           Flight instruction
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
       Initial/transition           Requalification        Recurrent
------------------------------------------------------------------------
12 hours with a minimum of 6      8 hours Level C or  4 hours at Level
 hours at Level E.                 Level E.            E, or 6 hours at
                                                       Level C.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


                    Table 3 to Appendix A of SFAR 108
------------------------------------------------------------------------
 
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                          Differences training
------------------------------------------------------------------------
2 models currently........................  1.5 hours at Level A or B.
More than 2 models currently..............  3 hours at Level A or B.
Each additional model added...............  1.5 hours at Level A or B.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (e) Definitions of Levels of Training as Used in This Appendix
    (1) LEVEL A Training--Training that is conducted through self 
instruction by the pilot.
    (2) LEVEL B Training--Training that is conducted in the classroom 
environment with the aid of a qualified instructor who meets the 
requirements of this SFAR.
    (3) LEVEL C Training--Training that is accomplished in an FAA-
approved Level 5, 6, or 7 Flight Training Device (FTD). In addition to 
the basic FTD requirements, the FTD must be representative of the MU-2B 
cockpit controls and be specifically approved by the FAA for the MU-2B 
airplane.
    (4) LEVEL E Training--Training that must be accomplished in the MU-
2B airplane, Level C simulator, or Level D simulator.

    Appendix B to SFAR 108--MU-2B Ground Training Curriculum Contents

    All items in the ground training curriculum must be covered. The 
order of presentation is at the discretion of the instructor. The 
student must satisfactorily complete a written or oral exam given by the 
training provider based on this MU-2B Training Program.
I. Aircraft General
    A. Introduction
    B. Airplane (Structures/Aerodynamics/Engines) Overview
    1. Fuselage
    2. Wing
    3. Empennage
    4. Doors
    5. Windshield and Windows
    C. Airplane Systems
    1. Electrical Power
    2. Lighting
    3. Fuel System
    4. Powerplant
    5. Environmental
    6. Fire Protection
    7. Ice and Rain Protection
    8. Landing Gear and Brakes
    9. Flight Controls and Trim
    10. Pilot Static System/Flight Instruments
    11. Oxygen System
    D. Operating Limitations
    1. Weights
    2. Center of Gravity and Loading
    3. Airspeeds
    4. Maneuvering Load Factors
    5. Takeoff And Landing Operations
    6. Enroute Operations
    E. Required Placards
    F. Instrument Markings
    G. Flight Characteristics
    1. Control System
    2. Stability and Stall Characteristics
    3. Single Engine Operation
    4. Maneuvering and Trim
    5. Takeoff and Landing
II. Electrical Power
    A. General Description
    B. DC Electrical System
    1. DC Power Generation
    2. DC Power Distribution
    3. Battery System
    4. External Power System

[[Page 610]]

    C. AC Electrical System
    1. AC Power Generation
    2. Controls and Indicators
    3. AC Power Distribution
    D. Limitations
    1. General Limitations
    2. Instrument Markings
III. Lighting
    A. Exterior Lighting System
    1. Navigation Lights
    2. Anti-Collision Lights
    3. Wing Inspection Lights
    4. Taxi Lights
    5. Landing Lights
    6. Rotating Beacon
    7. Operation
    B. Interior Lighting System
    1. Flight Compartment Lights
    2. Passenger Compartment Lights
    C. Emergency Lighting System
    1. Cockpit Emergency Lighting
    2. Aircraft Emergency Lighting
    D. Procedures
    1. Normal
    2. Abnormal
    3. Emergency
IV. Master Caution System
    A. System Description and Operation
    1. Master Caution Light and Reset Switch
    2. Annunciator and Indicator Panels
    3. Operation Lights
    4. System Tests
    B. Procedures
V. Fuel System
    A. Fuel Storage
    1. Refueling/Balancing
    2. De-Fueling and Draining
    3. Tank Vent System
    B. Fuel Distribution
    1. Fuel Transfer
    2. Fuel Balancing
    3. Boost Pump Operation
    C. Fuel Indicating
    1. Fuel Quantity
    2. Low Fuel Warning
    D. Fuel System Limitations
    1. Approved Fuels
    2. Fuel Anti-Icing Additives
    3. Fuel Temperature Limitations
    4. Fuel Transfer and Fuel Imbalance
    5. Fuel Pumps
    6. Refueling
    7. Capacity
    8. Unusable Fuel
VI. Powerplant
    A. Engine Description
    1. Major Sections
    2. Cockpit Controls
    3. Instrumentation
    4. Operation
    B. Engine Systems
    1. Lubrication
    2. Fuel
    3. Ignition
    4. Engine Starting
    5. Anti-Ice
    C. Propeller System
    1. Ground Operations
    2. In-Flight Operations
    3. Synchronization
    4. De-Ice
    D. Ground Checks
    1. Overspeed Governor
    2. SRL and Delta P/P
    3. NTS and Feather Valve
    4. Supplementary NTS
    E. In Flight Post Maintenance Checks
    1. NTS In-Flight
    2. Flight Idle Fuel Flow
    F. Limitations
    1. Powerplant
    2. Engine Starting Conditions
    3. Airstart Envelope
    4. Engine Starting
    5. Oil
    6. Fuel
    7. Starter/Generator
    8. External Power
    9. Instrument Markings (as applicable)
    a. TPE331-10-511M
    b. TPE331-5/6-252/251M
    c. TPE331-1-151M
    G. Engine Malfunctions and Failures
    1. Propeller Coupling
    2. Torque Sensor
    3. Engine Overspeed
    4. Fuel Control Spline
VII. Fire Protection
    A. Introduction
    B. Engine Fire Detection
    1. System Description
    2. Annunciator
    C. Portable Fire Extinguishers
VIII. Pneumatics
    A. System Description
    B. System Operation
    1. Air Sources
    2. Limitations
    C. Wing and Tail De-Ice
    1. System Description
    2. Controls
    D. Entrance and Baggage Door Seal
    1. Air Source
    2. Operation
IX. Ice and Rain Protection
    A. General Description
    B. Wing De-Ice
    1. System Description
    2. Operation
    3. Controls and Indications
    C. Engine Anti-Ice
     1. System Description
    2. Operation
    3. Controls and Indications
    D. Window Defog
    1. Controls
    2. Operation
    E. Tail De-Ice
    1. Horizontal Stabilizer De-Ice
    2. Vertical Stabilizer De-Ice
    F. Pitot Static System Anti-Icing
    1. Pitot Tube Heating
    2. Static Port Heating
    3. AOA Transmitter Heating

[[Page 611]]

    G. Windshield De-Ice/Anti-Ice
    1. System Description
    2. Controls and Indications
    H. Windshield Wiper
    1. System Description
    2. Control and Operation
    I. Propeller De-Ice
    1. System Description
    2. Controls and Indications
    J. Ice Detector
    1. System Description
    2. Controls and Indications
    3. Operation
    K. Limitations
    1. Temperatures
    2. Cycling
X. Air Conditioning
    A. System Description and Operation
    1. Refrigeration Unit (ACM)
    2. Air Distribution
    3. Ventilation
    4. Temperature Control
    5. Water Separator
    B. Limitations
XI. Pressurization
    A. General
    B. Component Description
    1. Cabin Pressure Controller
    2. Altitude Pressure Regulator
    3. Ram Air
    4. Outflow Safety Valves
    5. Air Filters
    6. Manual Control Valve
    7. Pneumatic Relays
    8. Venturi
    C. System Operation
    1. Ground Operation
    2. Takeoff Mode
    3. In-Flight Operation
    4. Landing Operation
    D. Emergency Operation
    1. High Altitude
    2. Low Altitude
    E. Limitations
    1. Maximum Differential
    2. Landing Limitations
XII. Landing Gear and Brakes
    A. General Description
    1. Landing Gear Doors
    2. Controls and Indicators
    3. Warning Systems
    4. Emergency Extension
    B. Nosewheel Steering
    C. Landing Gear/Brakes/Tires
    D. Limitations
    1. Airspeed (with flaps)
    2. Emergency Extension
    3. Tire Speed
    4. Brake Energy
XIII. Flight Controls
    A. Primary Flight Controls (Elevator/Rudder/Spoilers)
    1. Description
    2. Operations
    B. Trim Systems
    1. System Description
    2. Roll Trim
    a. Normal Operation
    b. Emergency Operation
    3. Rudder Trim
    4. Pitch Trim
    a. General
    b. Operations
    c. Trim-in-Motion Alert System
    C. Secondary Flight Controls
    1. System Description
    2. Flaps
    D. Limitations
    1. Instrument Markings
    2. Placards
    E. Flight Characteristics
    1. Control Systems
    2. Stability and Stall Characteristics
    3. Single Engine Operation
    5. Maneuvering and Trim
    6. Takeoff and Landing
XIV. Avionics
    A. Pitot-Static System
    1. System Description
    2. Pilot's System
    3. Co-Pilot's System
    4. Alternate Static
    B. Air Data Computer
    C. Attitude Instrument Displays (EFIS and Standard)
    1. EADI
    2. Standard Attitude Gyro
    D. AHRS
    1. System Description
    2. Controls and Indications
    E. Navigation
    1. Nav Systems Descriptions
    2. Compass System Descriptions
    3. Display Systems
    4. Terrain Awareness System
    5. Traffic Avoidance System
    F. Communications
    1. VHF Communications Systems
    2. Audio Control
    G. Standby Flight Instruments
    1. System Description
    2. Controls and Indications
    H. Automatic Flight Control System
    1. Controls and Indications
    2. Yaw Damper
    3. Trim-in-Motion Alert System
    4. Autopilot Automatic Disconnect
    5. Aural Alert System
    I. Angle of Attack (AOA) System
    1. System Description
    2. Controls and Indications
    J. Limitations
XV. Oxygen System
    A. System Description
    B. Crew Oxygen
    1. Oxygen Cylinder Assembly
    2. Pressure Gauge
    3. Outlet Valves
    4. Duration
    C. Passenger Oxygen
    1. System Description
    2. Duration
    D. Limitations
XVI. Performance and Planning

[[Page 612]]

    A. Takeoff Performance Charts
    1. Runway Requirements
    2. Normal and with One Engine Inoperative
    B. Climb Performance
    1. Normal and with One Engine Inoperative
    2. Obstacle Clearance
    3. Power Assurance Charts
    C. Cruise Performance
    1. Power Charts
    2. Maximum Practical Altitude
    3. Cruise Speeds/Engine Health
    4. Buffet Boundary
    D. Landing Performance
    1. Runway Requirements
    a. Dry Runway
    b. Wet Runway
    2. Go-Around
    a. One Engine Inoperative
    b. All Engines
XVII. Weight and Balance
    A. Aircraft Loading Procedures
    B. Limitations
    1. Weight Limits
    2. C.G. Limits
    C. Plotter
    1. Description
    2. Use
    D. Calculations
    1. AFM Procedures
    2. Examples
XVIII. General Subjects
    A. Controlled Flight into Terrain Awareness
    B. CRM/SPRM
    1. Crew Resource Management
    2. Single Pilot Resource Management
    C. MU-2B Flight Standardization Board Report

  Appendix C to SFAR 108--MU-2B Final Phase Check and Flight Training 
                              Requirements

                (I) MU-2B Final Phase Check Requirements

    (A) Completion of the MU-2B Training Program in this appendix 
requires successful completion of a final phase check taken in the MU-2B 
airplane or a Level C or D simulator for Initial/Transition training. 
The final phase check for Requalification or Recurrent Training may be 
taken in the MU-2B airplane, a Level C or D simulator, or in a Level 5, 
6, or 7 FAA-approved MU-2B Flight Training Device (FTD). The final phase 
check must be conducted by a qualified flight instructor who meets the 
requirements of the MU-2B SFAR. Simultaneous training and checking is 
not allowed for Initial/Transition training.
    (B) For pilots operating under 14 CFR part 135, checking must be 
done in accordance with applicable regulations. For the purpose of 
recurrent testing in 14 CFR 135.293(b), the MU-2B is considered a 
separate type of aircraft.
    (C) The final phase check must be conducted using the standards 
contained in the FAA Commercial Pilot--Airplane Multi-Engine Land, and 
Instrument Rating--Airplane Practical Test Standards (PTS).
    (D) The final phase check portion of the training is comprised of 
the following tasks for all airmen (instrument rated and non instrument 
rated). An (*) indicates those maneuvers for Initial/Transition training 
which must be completed in the MU-2B airplane, or a Level C or D 
simulator.
    (1) Preflight Check.
    (2) Start and Taxi Procedures.
    (3) * Normal Takeoff (X-Wind) (Two Engine).
    (4) * Takeoff Engine Failure.
    (5) Rejected Takeoff.
    (6) * Steep Turns.
    (7) * Approach to Stalls (3) (must include Accelerated Stalls).
    (8) * Maneuvering with One Engine Inoperative--Loss of Directional 
Control (Vmc).
    (9) Abnormal and Emergency Procedures--To include MU-2B operation in 
icing conditions without the autopilot or without trim-in-motion or 
automatic autopilot disconnect.
    (10) * Precision Approach (One Engine Inoperative).
    (11) Go Around/Rejected Landing.
    (12) Normal Landing (X-Wind).
    (13) * Landing with One Engine Inoperative.
    (14) * Landing with Non-Standard Flap Configuration (0 or 5 
degrees).
    (15) Postflight Procedures.
    (E) The following additional tasks are required for those airmen who 
possess an instrument rating. An (*) indicates those maneuvers for 
Initial/Transition training which must be completed in the MU-2B 
airplane, or a Level C or D simulator.
    (1) Preflight Check.
    (2) Unusual Attitudes.
    (3) Abnormal and Emergency Procedures.
    (4) Basic Instrument Flight Maneuvers.
    (5) Area Arrival and Departure.
    (6) Holding.
    (7) Precision Approach (Two Engine).
    (8) * Non-Precision Approaches (2)--Must include a Non-Precision 
Approach with One Engine Inoperative.
    (9) Missed Approach from either Precision or Non Precision 
Instrument Approach (Two Engine).
    (10) Landing from a Straight-In or Circling Approach.
    (11) Circling Approach.
    (12) Postflight Procedures.
    (F) A form titled ``Training Course Final Phase Check'' has been 
included in this appendix for use in creating a training and final check 
record for the student and the training provider.

[[Page 613]]

                (II) MU-2B Required Flight Training Tasks

    (A) General Flight Training Requirements: All flight training 
maneuvers must be consistent with this training program and the 
applicable MU-2B checklist accepted by the FAA. The maneuver profiles 
shown in Appendix D to this SFAR No. 108 are presented to show the 
required training scenarios. Profiles conducted in flight require 
planning and care on the part of both the instructor and student in 
order to provide the highest level of safety possible. The maneuver 
profiles shown in Appendix D to this SFAR No. 108 do not account for 
local geographic and flight conditions. The instructor and student must 
consider local conditions when performing these maneuvers in flight.
    (B) Special Emphasis Items: Certain aspects of pilot knowledge, 
skills and abilities must be emphasized and evaluated during the 
training and checking process of the MU-2B Training Program.
    (1) Accelerated stall awareness and recovery procedures with 
emphasis on configuration management. Awareness of the margin to stall 
in all flight operations and configurations must be emphasized 
throughout training.
    (2) Vmc awareness and early recognition must be trained 
and checked. Minimum airspeeds for one engine inoperative must be 
emphasized in all configurations.
    (3) Airspeed management and recognition of airspeed deterioration 
below recommended speeds and recovery methods in this training program 
must be emphasized throughout training and checking.
    (4) Knowledge of icing conditions and encounters must be emphasized 
throughout training and checking including: Equipment requirements, 
certification standards, minimum airspeeds, and the use of the autopilot 
and other applicable AFM procedures.
    (5) Airplane performance characteristics with all engines operating 
and with one engine inoperative must be emphasized.
    (C) MU-2B Flight Training Program Proficiency Standards.
    (1) Each pilot, regardless of the level of pilot certificate held, 
must be trained to and maintain the proficiency standards described 
below.
    (a) General VFR/IFR.
(i) Bank Angle-- 5 degrees of prescribed bank 
angle
(ii) Heading-- 10 degrees
(iii) Altitude-- 100 feet
(iv) Airspeed-- 10 knots
    (b) Instrument Approach--Final Approach Segment.

                           Precision Approach

(i) Heading-- 10 degrees
(ii) Altitude-- 100 feet
(iii) Airspeed-- 10 knots prior to final
(iv) Airspeed-- 10 knots after established on 
final
(v) Glide Slope (GS)/Localizer Deviation--Within \3/4\ scale--not below 
GS

                         Non-Precision Approach

                               Straight In

(vi) Initial Approach Altitude-- 100 feet
(vii) Heading-- 10 degrees
(viii) Altitude (MDA)-- + 100, -0 feet
(ix) Airspeed-- + 10 knots
(x) Course Deviation Indicator--Within \3/4\ scale or  10 degrees on RMI

                            Circling Approach

(xi) Maximum Bank--30 degrees
(xii) Heading--Within 10 degrees
(xiii) Altitude-- +100, -0 feet
(xiv) Airspeed--Within 10 knots but not less than Vref
    (c) In all cases, a pilot must show complete mastery of the 
aircraft with the outcome of each maneuver or procedure never seriously 
in doubt.
    (D) Maneuvers and Procedures. All flight training maneuvers and 
procedures must be conducted as they are applicable to the MU-2B and 
each type of operations involved.

                                Preflight

    (1) Preflight Inspection--The pilot must--
    (a) Conduct an actual visual inspection of the exterior and interior 
of the airplane, locating each item and explaining briefly the purpose 
of inspecting it; and
    (b) Demonstrate the use of the appropriate checklist, appropriate 
control system checks, starting procedures, radio and electronic 
equipment checks, and the selection of proper navigation and 
communications radio facilities and frequencies prior to flight.
    (2) Taxiing--this maneuver includes taxiing in compliance with 
instructions issued by the appropriate ATC facility or by the person 
conducting the check.
    (3) Pre-Takeoff Checks--The pilot must satisfactorily complete all 
pre-takeoff aircraft systems and powerplant checks before takeoff.

                          Takeoff and Departure

    (1) Normal--One normal takeoff, which for the purpose of this 
maneuver, begins when the airplane is taxied into position on the runway 
to be used.
    (2) Instrument Takeoff--Takeoff with simulated instrument conditions 
at or before reaching an altitude of 200 feet above the airport 
elevation and visibility of 1800 RVR.
    (3) Crosswind--One crosswind takeoff, if practical, under the 
existing meteorological, airport and traffic conditions.

[[Page 614]]

    (4) Powerplant Failure--One takeoff with a simulated failure of the 
most critical powerplant at a point after Vlof. In the MU-2B airplane, 
all simulated powerplant failures must only be initiated when the person 
conducting the training or checking determines that it is safe under the 
prevailing conditions. The instructor must assure that the power lever 
does not move beyond the flight idle gate.
    (5) Rejected Takeoff--A rejected takeoff performed in an airplane 
during a normal takeoff run after reaching a reasonable speed determined 
by giving due consideration to aircraft characteristics, runway length, 
surface conditions, wind direction and velocity, brake heat energy, and 
any other pertinent factors that may adversely affect safety or the 
airplane.
    (6) Area departure--Demonstrate adequate knowledge of departure 
procedures, establishing appropriate ATC communications and following 
clearances.

                     Flight Maneuvers and Procedures

    (1) Steep bank turns--Each steep turn must involve a bank angle of 
50 degrees with a heading change of at least 180 degrees but no more 
than 360 degrees.
    (2) Approaches to stalls--Must be performed in each of the following 
configurations; takeoff, clean, and landing. One approach to a stall 
must be performed in either the takeoff, clean, or landing configuration 
while in a turn with a bank angle between 15 degrees and 30 degrees.
    (3) Accelerated stalls--must be done in the flaps 20 and flaps 0 
configurations.
    (4) Recovery procedures must be initiated at the first indication of 
a stall.

              Normal and Abnormal Procedures and Operations

    (1) Runway trim.
    (2) Normal and abnormal operations of the following systems:
    (a) Pressurization.
    (b) Pneumatic.
    (c) Air conditioning.
    (d) Fuel.
    (e) Electrical.
    (f) Flight control.
    (g) Anti-icing and de-icing.
    (h) Autopilot.
    (i) Stall warning devices, as applicable.
    (j) Airborne radar and weather detection devices.
    (k) Other systems, devices or aids available.
    (l) Electrical, flight control and flight instrument system 
malfunction or failure.
    (m) Landing gear and flap system malfunction or failure.
    (n) Failure of navigation or communications equipment.

                       Flight Emergency Procedures

    (1) Powerplant failure.
    (2) Powerplant, cabin, flight deck, wing and electrical fires.
    (3) Smoke control.
    (4) Fuel jettisoning, as applicable.
    (5) Any other emergency procedures outlined in the appropriate AFM 
or FAA-accepted checklist.

                          Instrument Procedures

    (1) Area departure.
    (2) Use of navigation systems including adherence to assigned course 
and/or radial.
    (3) Holding procedures.
    (4) Aircraft approach category airspeeds.
    (5) Approach procedures: Each instrument approach must be performed 
according to all procedures and limitations approved for that facility. 
An instrument approach procedure begins when the airplane is over the 
initial approach fix for the approach procedure being used and ends when 
the airplane touches down on the runway or when transition to missed 
approach configuration is completed.
    (a) ILS, ILS/DME, approach.
    (i) A manually controlled ILS with a powerplant inoperative; 
occurring before initiating the final approach course and continuing to 
full stop or through the missed approach procedure.
    (ii) A manually controlled ILS utilizing raw data to 200 feet or 
decision height (DH).
    (iii) An ILS with the autopilot coupled.
    (b) Non-precision approaches.
    (i) NDB, NDB/DME approach, straight in or circle.
    (ii) VOR, VOR/DME, straight in or circle.
    (iii) LOC, LOC/DME, LOC backcourse.
    (iv) GPS approach (If the aircraft/FTD/flight simulator has a GPS 
installed, the applicant must demonstrate GPS approach proficiency.)
    (v) ASR approach.
    (c) Missed approach procedure: One missed approach procedure must be 
a complete approved missed approach procedure as published or as 
assigned by ATC.
    (i) From a precision approach.
    (ii) From a non-precision approach.
    (iii) With a simulated powerplant failure.
    (d) Circling approach.
    (i) The circling approach must be made to the authorized MDA and 
followed by a change in heading and the necessary maneuvering (by visual 
reference) to maintain a flight path that permits a normal landing on 
the runway.
    (ii) The circling approach must be performed without excessive 
maneuvering and without exceeding the normal operating limits of the 
airplane and the angle of bank must not exceed 30[deg].

                   Landings and Approaches to Landings

    (1) Airport orientation.

[[Page 615]]

    (2) Normal landings with stabilized approach.
    (3) Crosswind landings.
    (4) From a precision instrument approach.
    (5) From a precision instrument approach with a powerplant 
inoperative.
    (6) From a non-precision instrument approach.
    (7) From a non-precision instrument approach with a powerplant 
inoperative.
    (8) From a circling approach or VFR traffic pattern.
    (9) Go Around/Rejected landings--a normal missed approach procedure 
or a visual go-around after the landing is rejected. The landing should 
be rejected at approximately 50 feet and approximately over the runway 
threshold.
    (10) Zero flap landing.
    (a) Runway requirements.
    (b) Airspeeds.

[[Page 616]]

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             Appendix D to SFAR 108--MU-2B Maneuver Profiles

    (A) The Maneuver Profiles are provided to develop pilot proficiency 
with the procedures and techniques contained within this MU-2B Flight 
Training Program.
    (B) Though constructed for use in the airplane they may also be used 
in the Flight Training Device (FTD). When an FTD is

[[Page 617]]

used, a maneuver may be performed at lower altitudes or carried to its 
completion. When training is conducted in the MU-2B airplane, all 
maneuvers must be performed in a manner sufficient to evaluate the 
performance of the student while never jeopardizing the safety of the 
flight.
    (C) The maneuvers profiles are broken down into three sections by 
similar aircraft model groups. The three sections of this program are:
    (1) Marquise (-60), Solitaire (-40), N (-36A), P (-26A)--Figures A-1 
through A-28
    (2) J (-35), K (-25), L (-;36), M (-26)--Figures B-1 through B-28
    (3) B, D (-10), F (-20), G (-30)--Figures C-1 through C-28


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    (D) Each MU-2B profile in its respective section follows the outline 
below.
    (1) Normal Takeoff (5- and 20-degrees flaps).
    (2) Takeoff Engine Failure (5- and 20-degrees flaps).
    (3) Takeoff Engine Failure on Runway or Rejected Takeoff.
    (4) Takeoff Engine Failure after Liftoff--Unable to Climb (Classroom 
or FTD only).
    (5) Steep Turns.
    (6) Slow Flight Maneuvers.
    (7) One Engine Inoperative Maneuvering/Loss of Directional Control.
    (8) Approach to Stall (clean configuration/wings level).

[[Page 724]]

    (9) Approach to Stall (takeoff configuration/15- to 30-degrees 
bank).
    (10) Approach to Stall (landing configuration/gear down/40-degrees 
flaps).
    (11) Accelerated Stall (no flaps).
    (12) Emergency Descent (low speed).
    (13) Emergency Descent (high speed).
    (14) Unusual Altitude Recovery (nose high).
    (15) Unusual Altitude Recovery (nose low).
    (16) Normal Landing (20- and 40-degrees flaps).
    (17) Go Around/Rejected Landing.
    (18) No Flap or 5-degrees flaps Landing.
    (19) One Engine Inoperative Landing (5- and 20-degrees flaps).
    (20) Crosswind Landing.
    (21) ILS and Missed Approach.
    (22) Two Engine Missed Approach.
    (23) One Engine Inoperative ILS and Missed Approach.
    (24) One Engine Inoperative Missed Approach.
    (25) Non-Precision and Missed Approach.
    (26) One Engine Inoperative Non-Precision and Missed Approach.
    (27) Circling Approach at Weather Minimums.
    (28) One Engine Inoperative Circling Approach at Weather Minimums.

                           Engine Performance

    (A) The following should be considered in reference to power 
settings and airspeeds:
    (1) Power settings shown in italics are provided as guidance only 
during training and are not referenced in the AFM. Power setting 
guidance is provided to show the approximate power setting that will 
produce the desired airspeed or flight condition. Actual power settings 
may be different from those stated and should be noted by the instructor 
and student for reference during other maneuvers. Power settings in the 
profiles are stated in torque or PSI and will vary with aircraft model, 
engine model, weight, and density altitude. Power settings are based on 
standard atmospheric conditions.
    (2) Some pilots prefer to set power initially using fuel flow, 
because the fuel flow system is not field adjustable. Fuel flow settings 
refer to engine operations only. If fuel flow is used to set power for 
takeoff, check torque and temperature after setting fuel flow and adjust 
torque or temperature, whichever is limiting, for maximum takeoff power 
prior to liftoff.
    (3) Improperly adjusted torque or improperly calibrated temperatures 
are a safety of flight issue and must be checked and corrected prior to 
conducting flight training.
    (4) The pilot should refer to the performance section of the 
airplane flight manual to determine actual speeds required for his/her 
particular model and specific weight for any given operation.

                          In Flight Maneuvering

    (A) Maneuvers conducted at altitude such as stalls and steep turns 
must always be preceded by clearing turns and at least one crew member 
must continually clear the flying area during the maneuver. The 
instructor must emphasize the importance of clearing the area, even if 
the maneuvers are being done in an FTD or simulator. This will create 
the habit pattern in the pilot to clear the area before practicing 
maneuvers.
    (B) During stalling maneuvers and upon recognition of the indication 
of a stall, the pilot must call the ``stall'' to the instructor and then 
proceed with the recovery. In addition, during training, the pilot must 
announce the completion of the stall recovery maneuver. Instructors must 
exercise caution when conducting stall maneuvers and be prepared to take 
the controls if the safe outcome of the maneuver is in doubt.
    (C) During accelerated stall maneuvers, it is important that the 
instructor pay close attention to the position of the ball throughout 
the maneuver and recovery so as to maintain coordinated flight. Stall 
recognition and recovery is the completion criteria, and it is not 
necessary to continue the stall beyond the stick shaker to aerodynamic 
buffet.
    (D) When demonstrating a loss of directional control with one engine 
inoperative, the engine failure must only be simulated. During the 
slowing of the aircraft to demonstrate loss of directional control, the 
instructor should use the rudder block method to allow the student to 
experience the loss of directional control associated with VMC, at a 
speed of approximately 10 knots above actual VMC.
    Note: To accurately simulate single engine operations, zero thrust 
must be established. The zero thrust torque setting will vary greatly 
from model to model. It is important to establish to zero thrust torque 
setting for your aircraft. This requires that the aircraft be flown on 
one engine to establish the zero thrust setting. This is accomplished by 
establishing single engine flight with one propeller feathered and 
noting the performance with the operating engine at maximum torque or 
temperature. It is suggested that two airspeeds be established for zero 
thrust power settings. They are 120 kts, flaps 20, gear up for takeoff 
and 140 knots, flaps 5, gear up for in-flight and approach maneuvering. 
Once performance has been established and recorded for each airspeed, 
restart the other engine and find the torque setting that duplicates the 
performance (climb or descent rate, airspeed) as was recorded with that 
propeller feathered. This torque setting will be zero thrust for the 
simulated inoperative engine. The student/pilot should note that the 
performance experienced with one engine operating at flight idle, may 
produce

[[Page 725]]

greater performance than if the engine were stopped and the propeller 
feathered.
    Pre-maneuver briefings for any maneuver that requires either an 
actual engine shutdown or a simulated engine failure must be undertaken 
when using an aircraft. In the case of an actual engine shutdown, a 
minimum altitude of 3,000 ft above ground level (agl) must be used and 
done in a position where a safe landing can be made at an airport in the 
event of difficulty.

                           Takeoff and Landing

    (A) When using the profiles to establish the procedure for 
configuring the aircraft for takeoff or landing, it is important to 
understand that each task for the procedure, as noted on the procedure 
diagram, establishes the point at which each task should have been 
completed and not the exact point at which the task should be 
accomplished unless otherwise stated in the task box. Numbers which 
represent performance such as descent rates or other maneuvering 
information that is not contained in the aircraft flight manual are 
shown in italics.
    (B) In all takeoff profiles the prompt for the gear to be retracted 
is ``No Runway Remaining, Gear Up''. This should set the decision point 
for making a landback after an engine failure and should normally be 
reached at altitudes of less than 100 ft AGL. It is impractical to 
attempt a landback from above 100 ft AGL, because it can require 
distances up to 10,000 ft from the beginning of the takeoff run to bring 
the aircraft to a stop. But, even on very long runways, landback will 
not be necessary above 100 ft AGL and above Vyse for the flap 
configurations, if the single engine climb capability found in the POM 
charts, with the gear up, is positive (250 fpm or better) and obstacles 
clearance is not an issue.
    (C) The manufacturers FAA-accepted checklists and checklist in 
Appendix C to this SFAR No. 108 describe a procedure for the 
discontinuance of flight following an engine failure after takeoff and 
the realization that the aircraft cannot climb. The corresponding flight 
profile in this training program is ``Takeoff Engine Failure, Unable to 
Climb''. This maneuver must not be attempted in the aircraft, but must 
be the subject of a classroom discussion or be demonstrated in the FTD.
    (D) The focus of all landing procedures, whether two engine or 
engine out, is on a stabilized approach from an altitude of 500 feet. 
This will not be possible for all approach procedure maneuvering, 
especially during non-precision or circle to land approaches. Approach 
procedures for these two approaches should be stabilized from the point 
at which the pilot leaves the Minimum Descent Altitude for the landing.
    (E) When performing one engine inoperative approaches, landings or 
missed approaches, the instructor must be prepared to add power to the 
simulated failed engine at the first sign of deteriorating airspeed or 
other situation that indicates the student's inability to correctly 
perform the maneuver.
    (F) While maneuvering in the pattern or during instrument approach 
procedures with one engine inoperative, a 30[deg] bank angle must not be 
exceeded. This will become especially important when executing non-
precision and circle to land approaches.

                    Emergency and Abnormal Procedures

    (A) During training, either in the FTD or in the aircraft, the 
performance of emergency and abnormal procedures is critical to the 
completion of the training program. All emergency and abnormal 
procedures should be simulated when training in the MU-2B airplane.
    (B) When presenting emergency scenarios to the student, the 
instructor must not introduce multiple emergencies concurrently.

                      Scenario Based Training (SBT)

    SBT flight training creates an environment of realism. The SBT 
programs utilize a highly structured flight operation scenario to 
simulate the overall flight environment. The pilot is required to plan a 
routine, point-to-point flight and initiate the flight. During the 
conduct of the flight, ``reality-based'' abnormal or emergency events 
are introduced without warning. Because the pilot is constantly 
operating in the world of unknowns, this type of training also builds in 
the ``startle factor'', and just as in the real-world, the consequences 
of the pilot's actions (decisions, judgment, airmanship, tactile skills, 
etc.) will continue to escalate and affect the outcome of the planned 
flight. Although flying skills are an integral part of this type of 
training, SBT enables the pilot to gain experience in dealing with 
unexpected events and more importantly further enhances the development 
of good judgment and decisionmaking.

[Doc. No. FAA-2006-24981, 73 FR 7051, Feb. 6, 2008]



                            Subpart A_General

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.1  Applicability.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and 
Sec. Sec. 91.701 and 91.703, this part prescribes rules governing the 
operation of aircraft (other than moored balloons, kites, unmanned 
rockets, and unmanned free balloons, which are governed by part

[[Page 726]]

101 of this chapter, and ultralight vehicles operated in accordance with 
part 103 of this chapter) within the United States, including the waters 
within 3 nautical miles of the U.S. coast.
    (b) Each person operating an aircraft in the airspace overlying the 
waters between 3 and 12 nautical miles from the coast of the United 
States must comply with Sec. Sec. 91.1 through 91.21; Sec. Sec. 91.101 
through 91.143; Sec. Sec. 91.151 through 91.159; Sec. Sec. 91.167 
through 91.193; Sec. 91.203; Sec. 91.205; Sec. Sec. 91.209 through 
91.217; Sec. 91.221; Sec. Sec. 91.303 through 91.319; Sec. Sec. 
91.323 through 91.327; Sec. 91.605; Sec. 91.609; Sec. Sec. 91.703 
through 91.715; and Sec. 91.903.
    (c) This part applies to each person on board an aircraft being 
operated under this part, unless otherwise specified.
    (d) This part also establishes requirements for operators to take 
actions to support the continued airworthiness of each airplane.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-257, 
64 FR 1079, Jan. 7, 1999; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004; 
Amdt. 91-297, 72 FR 63410, Nov. 8, 2007]



Sec. 91.3  Responsibility and authority of the pilot in command.

    (a) The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, 
and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.
    (b) In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot 
in command may deviate from any rule of this part to the extent required 
to meet that emergency.
    (c) Each pilot in command who deviates from a rule under paragraph 
(b) of this section shall, upon the request of the Administrator, send a 
written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)



Sec. 91.5  Pilot in command of aircraft requiring more than one required 

pilot.

    No person may operate an aircraft that is type certificated for more 
than one required pilot flight crewmember unless the pilot in command 
meets the requirements of Sec. 61.58 of this chapter.



Sec. 91.7  Civil aircraft airworthiness.

    (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless it is in an 
airworthy condition.
    (b) The pilot in command of a civil aircraft is responsible for 
determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight. The 
pilot in command shall discontinue the flight when unairworthy 
mechanical, electrical, or structural conditions occur.



Sec. 91.9  Civil aircraft flight manual, marking, and placard requirements.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person 
may operate a civil aircraft without complying with the operating 
limitations specified in the approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight 
Manual, markings, and placards, or as otherwise prescribed by the 
certificating authority of the country of registry.
    (b) No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft--
    (1) For which an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual is required by 
Sec. 21.5 of this chapter unless there is available in the aircraft a 
current, approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual or the manual 
provided for in Sec. 121.141(b); and
    (2) For which an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual is not 
required by Sec. 21.5 of this chapter, unless there is available in the 
aircraft a current approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual, 
approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination 
thereof.
    (c) No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft unless 
that aircraft is identified in accordance with part 45 of this chapter.
    (d) Any person taking off or landing a helicopter certificated under 
part 29 of this chapter at a heliport constructed over water may make 
such momentary flight as is necessary for takeoff or landing through the 
prohibited range of the limiting height-speed envelope established for 
the helicopter if that flight through the prohibited range takes place 
over water on which a safe ditching can be accomplished and if the 
helicopter is amphibious or

[[Page 727]]

is equipped with floats or other emergency flotation gear adequate to 
accomplish a safe emergency ditching on open water.



Sec. 91.11  Prohibition on interference with crewmembers.

    No person may assault, threaten, intimidate, or interfere with a 
crewmember in the performance of the crewmember's duties aboard an 
aircraft being operated.



Sec. 91.13  Careless or reckless operation.

    (a) Aircraft operations for the purpose of air navigation. No person 
may operate an aircraft in a careless or reckless manner so as to 
endanger the life or property of another.
    (b) Aircraft operations other than for the purpose of air 
navigation. No person may operate an aircraft, other than for the 
purpose of air navigation, on any part of the surface of an airport used 
by aircraft for air commerce (including areas used by those aircraft for 
receiving or discharging persons or cargo), in a careless or reckless 
manner so as to endanger the life or property of another.



Sec. 91.15  Dropping objects.

    No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be 
dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or 
property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any 
object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to 
persons or property.



Sec. 91.17  Alcohol or drugs.

    (a) No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil 
aircraft--
    (1) Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage;
    (2) While under the influence of alcohol;
    (3) While using any drug that affects the person's faculties in any 
way contrary to safety; or
    (4) While having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater in a 
blood or breath specimen. Alcohol concentration means grams of alcohol 
per deciliter of blood or grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath.
    (b) Except in an emergency, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a 
person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or 
physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs 
(except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in that 
aircraft.
    (c) A crewmember shall do the following:
    (1) On request of a law enforcement officer, submit to a test to 
indicate the alcohol concentration in the blood or breath, when--
    (i) The law enforcement officer is authorized under State or local 
law to conduct the test or to have the test conducted; and
    (ii) The law enforcement officer is requesting submission to the 
test to investigate a suspected violation of State or local law 
governing the same or substantially similar conduct prohibited by 
paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(4) of this section.
    (2) Whenever the FAA has a reasonable basis to believe that a person 
may have violated paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(4) of this section, 
on request of the FAA, that person must furnish to the FAA the results, 
or authorize any clinic, hospital, or doctor, or other person to release 
to the FAA, the results of each test taken within 4 hours after acting 
or attempting to act as a crewmember that indicates an alcohol 
concentration in the blood or breath specimen.
    (d) Whenever the Administrator has a reasonable basis to believe 
that a person may have violated paragraph (a)(3) of this section, that 
person shall, upon request by the Administrator, furnish the 
Administrator, or authorize any clinic, hospital, doctor, or other 
person to release to the Administrator, the results of each test taken 
within 4 hours after acting or attempting to act as a crewmember that 
indicates the presence of any drugs in the body.
    (e) Any test information obtained by the Administrator under 
paragraph (c) or (d) of this section may be evaluated in determining a 
person's qualifications for any airman certificate or possible 
violations of this chapter and may be used as evidence in any legal

[[Page 728]]

proceeding under section 602, 609, or 901 of the Federal Aviation Act of 
1958.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-291, 
June 21, 2006]



Sec. 91.19  Carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant 

drugs or substances.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person 
may operate a civil aircraft within the United States with knowledge 
that narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or 
substances as defined in Federal or State statutes are carried in the 
aircraft.
    (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to any carriage of 
narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or 
substances authorized by or under any Federal or State statute or by any 
Federal or State agency.



Sec. 91.21  Portable electronic devices.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person 
may operate, nor may any operator or pilot in command of an aircraft 
allow the operation of, any portable electronic device on any of the 
following U.S.-registered civil aircraft:
    (1) Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating 
certificate or an operating certificate; or
    (2) Any other aircraft while it is operated under IFR.
    (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to--
    (1) Portable voice recorders;
    (2) Hearing aids;
    (3) Heart pacemakers;
    (4) Electric shavers; or
    (5) Any other portable electronic device that the operator of the 
aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation 
or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used.
    (c) In the case of an aircraft operated by a holder of an air 
carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate, the 
determination required by paragraph (b)(5) of this section shall be made 
by that operator of the aircraft on which the particular device is to be 
used. In the case of other aircraft, the determination may be made by 
the pilot in command or other operator of the aircraft.



Sec. 91.23  Truth-in-leasing clause requirement in leases and conditional 

sales contracts.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the parties 
to a lease or contract of conditional sale involving a U.S.-registered 
large civil aircraft and entered into after January 2, 1973, shall 
execute a written lease or contract and include therein a written truth-
in-leasing clause as a concluding paragraph in large print, immediately 
preceding the space for the signature of the parties, which contains the 
following with respect to each such aircraft:
    (1) Identification of the Federal Aviation Regulations under which 
the aircraft has been maintained and inspected during the 12 months 
preceding the execution of the lease or contract of conditional sale, 
and certification by the parties thereto regarding the aircraft's status 
of compliance with applicable maintenance and inspection requirements in 
this part for the operation to be conducted under the lease or contract 
of conditional sale.
    (2) The name and address (printed or typed) and the signature of the 
person responsible for operational control of the aircraft under the 
lease or contract of conditional sale, and certification that each 
person understands that person's responsibilities for compliance with 
applicable Federal Aviation Regulations.
    (3) A statement that an explanation of factors bearing on 
operational control and pertinent Federal Aviation Regulations can be 
obtained from the nearest FAA Flight Standards district office.
    (b) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply--
    (1) To a lease or contract of conditional sale when--
    (i) The party to whom the aircraft is furnished is a foreign air 
carrier or certificate holder under part 121, 125, 135, or 141 of this 
chapter, or
    (ii) The party furnishing the aircraft is a foreign air carrier or a 
person operating under part 121, 125, and 141 of this chapter, or a 
person operating under

[[Page 729]]

part 135 of this chapter having authority to engage in on-demand 
operations with large aircraft.
    (2) To a contract of conditional sale, when the aircraft involved 
has not been registered anywhere prior to the execution of the contract, 
except as a new aircraft under a dealer's aircraft registration 
certificate issued in accordance with Sec. 47.61 of this chapter.
    (c) No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S. registry 
that is subject to a lease or contract of conditional sale to which 
paragraph (a) of this section applies, unless--
    (1) The lessee or conditional buyer, or the registered owner if the 
lessee is not a citizen of the United States, has mailed a copy of the 
lease or contract that complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) 
of this section, within 24 hours of its execution, to the Aircraft 
Registration Branch, Attn: Technical Section, P.O. Box 25724, Oklahoma 
City, OK 73125;
    (2) A copy of the lease or contract that complies with the 
requirements of paragraph (a) of this section is carried in the 
aircraft. The copy of the lease or contract shall be made available for 
review upon request by the Administrator, and
    (3) The lessee or conditional buyer, or the registered owner if the 
lessee is not a citizen of the United States, has notified by telephone 
or in person the FAA Flight Standards district office nearest the 
airport where the flight will originate. Unless otherwise authorized by 
that office, the notification shall be given at least 48 hours before 
takeoff in the case of the first flight of that aircraft under that 
lease or contract and inform the FAA of--
    (i) The location of the airport of departure;
    (ii) The departure time; and
    (iii) The registration number of the aircraft involved.
    (d) The copy of the lease or contract furnished to the FAA under 
paragraph (c) of this section is commercial or financial information 
obtained from a person. It is, therefore, privileged and confidential 
and will not be made available by the FAA for public inspection or 
copying under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) unless recorded with the FAA under part 
49 of this chapter.
    (e) For the purpose of this section, a lease means any agreement by 
a person to furnish an aircraft to another person for compensation or 
hire, whether with or without flight crewmembers, other than an 
agreement for the sale of an aircraft and a contract of conditional sale 
under section 101 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958. The person 
furnishing the aircraft is referred to as the lessor, and the person to 
whom it is furnished the lessee.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-212, 
54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 91-253, 62 FR 13253, Mar. 19, 1997; 
Amdt. 91-267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001]



Sec. 91.25  Aviation Safety Reporting Program: Prohibition against use of 

reports for enforcement purposes.

    The Administrator of the FAA will not use reports submitted to the 
National Aeronautics and Space Administration under the Aviation Safety 
Reporting Program (or information derived therefrom) in any enforcement 
action except information concerning accidents or criminal offenses 
which are wholly excluded from the Program.



Sec. Sec. 91.27-91.99  [Reserved]



                         Subpart B_Flight Rules

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.

                                 General



Sec. 91.101  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes flight rules governing the operation of 
aircraft within the United States and within 12 nautical miles from the 
coast of the United States.



Sec. 91.103  Preflight action.

    Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become 
familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This 
information must include--
    (a) For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an 
airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives 
available if

[[Page 730]]

the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of 
which the pilot in command has been advised by ATC;
    (b) For any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use, and 
the following takeoff and landing distance information:
    (1) For civil aircraft for which an approved Airplane or Rotorcraft 
Flight Manual containing takeoff and landing distance data is required, 
the takeoff and landing distance data contained therein; and
    (2) For civil aircraft other than those specified in paragraph 
(b)(1) of this section, other reliable information appropriate to the 
aircraft, relating to aircraft performance under expected values of 
airport elevation and runway slope, aircraft gross weight, and wind and 
temperature.



Sec. 91.105  Flight crewmembers at stations.

    (a) During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required 
flight crewmember shall--
    (1) Be at the crewmember station unless the absence is necessary to 
perform duties in connection with the operation of the aircraft or in 
connection with physiological needs; and
    (2) Keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station.
    (b) Each required flight crewmember of a U.S.-registered civil 
aircraft shall, during takeoff and landing, keep his or her shoulder 
harness fastened while at his or her assigned duty station. This 
paragraph does not apply if--
    (1) The seat at the crewmember's station is not equipped with a 
shoulder harness; or
    (2) The crewmember would be unable to perform required duties with 
the shoulder harness fastened.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-231, 
57 FR 42671, Sept. 15, 1992]



Sec. 91.107  Use of safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and child restraint 

systems.

    (a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator--
    (1) No pilot may take off a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a 
free balloon that incorporates a basket or gondola, or an airship type 
certificated before November 2, 1987) unless the pilot in command of 
that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to 
fasten and unfasten that person's safety belt and, if installed, 
shoulder harness.
    (2) No pilot may cause to be moved on the surface, take off, or land 
a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that 
incorporates a basket or gondola, or an airship type certificated before 
November 2, 1987) unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures 
that each person on board has been notified to fasten his or her safety 
belt and, if installed, his or her shoulder harness.
    (3) Except as provided in this paragraph, each person on board a 
U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that incorporates 
a basket or gondola or an airship type certificated before November 2, 
1987) must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt and, if 
installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during 
movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. For seaplane and float 
equipped rotorcraft operations during movement on the surface, the 
person pushing off the seaplane or rotorcraft from the dock and the 
person mooring the seaplane or rotorcraft at the dock are excepted from 
the preceding seating and safety belt requirements. Notwithstanding the 
preceding requirements of this paragraph, a person may:
    (i) Be held by an adult who is occupying an approved seat or berth, 
provided that the person being held has not reached his or her second 
birthday and does not occupy or use any restraining device;
    (ii) Use the floor of the aircraft as a seat, provided that the 
person is on board for the purpose of engaging in sport parachuting; or
    (iii) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this chapter, occupy 
an approved child restraint system furnished by the operator or one of 
the persons described in paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A) of this section 
provided that:

[[Page 731]]

    (A) The child is accompanied by a parent, guardian, or attendant 
designated by the child's parent or guardian to attend to the safety of 
the child during the flight;
    (B) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(B)(4) of this 
action, the approved child restraint system bears one or more labels as 
follows:
    (1) Seats manufactured to U.S. standards between January 1, 1981, 
and February 25, 1985, must bear the label: ``This child restraint 
system conforms to all applicable Federal motor vehicle safety 
standards'';
    (2) Seats manufactured to U.S. standards on or after February 26, 
1985, must bear two labels:
    (i) ``This child restraint system conforms to all applicable Federal 
motor vehicle safety standards''; and
    (ii) ``THIS RESTRAINT IS CERTIFIED FOR USE IN MOTOR VEHICLES AND 
AIRCRAFT'' in red lettering;
    (3) Seats that do not qualify under paragraphs (a)(3)(iii)(B)(1) and 
(a)(3)(iii)(B)(2) of this section must bear a label or markings showing:
    (i) That the seat was approved by a foreign government;
    (ii) That the seat was manufactured under the standards of the 
United Nations; or
    (iii) That the seat or child restraint device furnished by the 
operator was approved by the FAA through Type Certificate or 
Supplemental Type Certificate.
    (iv) That the seat or child restraint device furnished by the 
operator, or one of the persons described in paragraph (a) (3) (iii) (A) 
of this section, was approved by the FAA in accordance with Sec. 
21.305(d) or Technical Standard Order C-100b, or a later version.
    (4) Except as provided in Sec. 91.107(a)(3)(iii)(B)(3)(iii) and 
Sec. 91.107(a)(3)(iii)(B)(3)(iv), booster-type child restraint systems 
(as defined in Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard No. 213 (49 CFR 
571.213)), vest- and harness-type child restraint systems, and lap held 
child restraints are not approved for use in aircraft; and
    (C) The operator complies with the following requirements:
    (1) The restraint system must be properly secured to an approved 
forward-facing seat or berth;
    (2) The child must be properly secured in the restraint system and 
must not exceed the specified weight limit for the restraint system; and
    (3) The restraint system must bear the appropriate label(s).
    (b) Unless otherwise stated, this section does not apply to 
operations conducted under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter. 
Paragraph (a)(3) of this section does not apply to persons subject to 
Sec. 91.105.

[Doc. No. 26142, 57 FR 42671, Sept. 15, 1992, as amended by Amdt. 91-
250, 61 FR 28421, June 4, 1996; Amdt. 91-289, 70 FR 50906, Aug. 26, 
2005; Amdt. 91-292, 71 FR 40009, July 14, 2006]



Sec. 91.109  Flight instruction; Simulated instrument flight and certain 

flight tests.

    (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft (except a manned free 
balloon) that is being used for flight instruction unless that aircraft 
has fully functioning dual controls. However, instrument flight 
instruction may be given in a single-engine airplane equipped with a 
single, functioning throwover control wheel in place of fixed, dual 
controls of the elevator and ailerons when--
    (1) The instructor has determined that the flight can be conducted 
safely; and
    (2) The person manipulating the controls has at least a private 
pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings.
    (b) No person may operate a civil aircraft in simulated instrument 
flight unless--
    (1) The other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot who 
possesses at least a private pilot certificate with category and class 
ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown.
    (2) The safety pilot has adequate vision forward and to each side of 
the aircraft, or a competent observer in the aircraft adequately 
supplements the vision of the safety pilot; and
    (3) Except in the case of lighter-than-air aircraft, that aircraft 
is equipped with fully functioning dual controls. However, simulated 
instrument flight may be conducted in a single-engine

[[Page 732]]

airplane, equipped with a single, functioning, throwover control wheel, 
in place of fixed, dual controls of the elevator and ailerons, when--
    (i) The safety pilot has determined that the flight can be conducted 
safely; and
    (ii) The person manipulating the controls has at least a private 
pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings.
    (c) No person may operate a civil aircraft that is being used for a 
flight test for an airline transport pilot certificate or a class or 
type rating on that certificate, or for a part 121 proficiency flight 
test, unless the pilot seated at the controls, other than the pilot 
being checked, is fully qualified to act as pilot in command of the 
aircraft.



Sec. 91.111  Operating near other aircraft.

    (a) No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft 
as to create a collision hazard.
    (b) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by 
arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
    (c) No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, 
in formation flight.



Sec. 91.113  Right-of-way rules: Except water operations.

    (a) Inapplicability. This section does not apply to the operation of 
an aircraft on water.
    (b) General. When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether 
an operation is conducted under instrument flight rules or visual flight 
rules, vigilance shall be maintained by each person operating an 
aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft. When a rule of this 
section gives another aircraft the right-of-way, the pilot shall give 
way to that aircraft and may not pass over, under, or ahead of it unless 
well clear.
    (c) In distress. An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over 
all other air traffic.
    (d) Converging. When aircraft of the same category are converging at 
approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the 
aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way. If the aircraft are 
of different categories--
    (1) A balloon has the right-of-way over any other category of 
aircraft;
    (2) A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, powered 
parachute, weight-shift-control aircraft, airplane, or rotorcraft.
    (3) An airship has the right-of-way over a powered parachute, 
weight-shift-control aircraft, airplane, or rotorcraft.
    However, an aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the 
right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft.
    (e) Approaching head-on. When aircraft are approaching each other 
head-on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to 
the right.
    (f) Overtaking. Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-
of-way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to 
the right to pass well clear.
    (g) Landing. Aircraft, while on final approach to land or while 
landing, have the right-of-way over other aircraft in flight or 
operating on the surface, except that they shall not take advantage of 
this rule to force an aircraft off the runway surface which has already 
landed and is attempting to make way for an aircraft on final approach. 
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of 
landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it 
shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which 
is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-282, 
69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 91.115  Right-of-way rules: Water operations.

    (a) General. Each person operating an aircraft on the water shall, 
insofar as possible, keep clear of all vessels and avoid impeding their 
navigation, and shall give way to any vessel or other aircraft that is 
given the right-of-way by any rule of this section.
    (b) Crossing. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are on 
crossing courses, the aircraft or vessel to the other's right has the 
right-of-way.
    (c) Approaching head-on. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, 
are approaching head-on, or nearly so, each

[[Page 733]]

shall alter its course to the right to keep well clear.
    (d) Overtaking. Each aircraft or vessel that is being overtaken has 
the right-of-way, and the one overtaking shall alter course to keep well 
clear.
    (e) Special circumstances. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a 
vessel, approach so as to involve risk of collision, each aircraft or 
vessel shall proceed with careful regard to existing circumstances, 
including the limitations of the respective craft.



Sec. 91.117  Aircraft speed.

    (a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may 
operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed of 
more than 250 knots (288 m.p.h.).
    (b) Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may 
operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 
nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace 
area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph.). This 
paragraph (b) does not apply to any operations within a Class B airspace 
area. Such operations shall comply with paragraph (a) of this section.
    (c) No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a 
Class B airspace area designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor 
designated through such a Class B airspace area, at an indicated 
airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph).
    (d) If the minimum safe airspeed for any particular operation is 
greater than the maximum speed prescribed in this section, the aircraft 
may be operated at that minimum speed.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-219, 
55 FR 34708, Aug. 24, 1990; Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65657, Dec. 17, 1991; 
Amdt. 91-233, 58 FR 43554, Aug. 17, 1993]



Sec. 91.119  Minimum safe altitudes: General.

    Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate 
an aircraft below the following altitudes:
    (a) Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an 
emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the 
surface.
    (b) Over congested areas. Over any congested area of a city, town, 
or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, an altitude of 
1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 
2,000 feet of the aircraft.
    (c) Over other than congested areas. An altitude of 500 feet above 
the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In 
those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to 
any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
    (d) Helicopters. Helicopters may be operated at less than the 
minimums prescribed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section if the 
operation is conducted without hazard to persons or property on the 
surface. In addition, each person operating a helicopter shall comply 
with any routes or altitudes specifically prescribed for helicopters by 
the Administrator.



Sec. 91.121  Altimeter settings.

    (a) Each person operating an aircraft shall maintain the cruising 
altitude or flight level of that aircraft, as the case may be, by 
reference to an altimeter that is set, when operating--
    (1) Below 18,000 feet MSL, to--
    (i) The current reported altimeter setting of a station along the 
route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft;
    (ii) If there is no station within the area prescribed in paragraph 
(a)(1)(i) of this section, the current reported altimeter setting of an 
appropriate available station; or
    (iii) In the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio, the 
elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting 
available before departure; or
    (2) At or above 18,000 feet MSL, to 29.92[sec] Hg.
    (b) The lowest usable flight level is determined by the atmospheric 
pressure in the area of operation as shown in the following table:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                 Lowest
                                                                 usable
                   Current altimeter setting                     flight
                                                                  level
------------------------------------------------------------------------
29.92 (or higher).............................................       180
29.91 through 29.42...........................................       185
29.41 through 28.92...........................................       190
28.91 through 28.42...........................................       195

[[Page 734]]

 
28.41 through 27.92...........................................       200
27.91 through 27.42...........................................       205
27.41 through 26.92...........................................       210
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (c) To convert minimum altitude prescribed under Sec. Sec. 91.119 
and 91.177 to the minimum flight level, the pilot shall take the flight 
level equivalent of the minimum altitude in feet and add the appropriate 
number of feet specified below, according to the current reported 
altimeter setting:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                              Adjustment
                  Current altimeter setting                     factor
------------------------------------------------------------------------
29.92 (or higher)...........................................       None
29.91 through 29.42.........................................        500
29.41 through 28.92.........................................      1,000
28.91 through 28.42.........................................      1,500
28.41 through 27.92.........................................      2,000
27.91 through 27.42.........................................      2,500
27.41 through 26.92.........................................      3,000
------------------------------------------------------------------------



Sec. 91.123  Compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.

    (a) When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may 
deviate from that clearance unless an amended clearance is obtained, an 
emergency exists, or the deviation is in response to a traffic alert and 
collision avoidance system resolution advisory. However, except in Class 
A airspace, a pilot may cancel an IFR flight plan if the operation is 
being conducted in VFR weather conditions. When a pilot is uncertain of 
an ATC clearance, that pilot shall immediately request clarification 
from ATC.
    (b) Except in an emergency, no person may operate an aircraft 
contrary to an ATC instruction in an area in which air traffic control 
is exercised.
    (c) Each pilot in command who, in an emergency, or in response to a 
traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory, 
deviates from an ATC clearance or instruction shall notify ATC of that 
deviation as soon as possible.
    (d) Each pilot in command who (though not deviating from a rule of 
this subpart) is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall submit a 
detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that 
ATC facility, if requested by ATC.
    (e) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person operating an 
aircraft may operate that aircraft according to any clearance or 
instruction that has been issued to the pilot of another aircraft for 
radar air traffic control purposes.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)

[Doc. No. 18834, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 
56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-244, 60 FR 50679, Sept. 29, 1995]



Sec. 91.125  ATC light signals.

    ATC light signals have the meaning shown in the following table:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                     Meaning with
                                      respect to         Meaning with
    Color and type of signal        aircraft on the       respect to
                                        surface       aircraft in flight
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Steady green....................  Cleared for         Cleared to land.
                                   takeoff.
Flashing green..................  Cleared to taxi...  Return for landing
                                                       (to be followed
                                                       by steady green
                                                       at proper time).
Steady red......................  Stop..............  Give way to other
                                                       aircraft and
                                                       continue
                                                       circling.
Flashing red....................  Taxi clear of       Airport unsafe--do
                                   runway in use.      not land.
Flashing white..................  Return to starting  Not applicable.
                                   point on airport.
Alternating red and green.......  Exercise extreme    Exercise extreme
                                   caution.            caution.
------------------------------------------------------------------------



Sec. 91.126  Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class G 

airspace.

    (a) General. Unless otherwise authorized or required, each person 
operating an aircraft on or in the vicinity of an airport in a Class G 
airspace area must comply with the requirements of this section.
    (b) Direction of turns. When approaching to land at an airport 
without an operating control tower in Class G airspace--
    (1) Each pilot of an airplane must make all turns of that airplane 
to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual 
markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which 
case the pilot must make all turns to the right; and
    (2) Each pilot of a helicopter or a powered parachute must avoid the 
flow of fixed-wing aircraft.
    (c) Flap settings. Except when necessary for training or 
certification, the pilot in command of a civil turbojet-powered aircraft 
must use, as a final

[[Page 735]]

flap setting, the minimum certificated landing flap setting set forth in 
the approved performance information in the Airplane Flight Manual for 
the applicable conditions. However, each pilot in command has the final 
authority and responsibility for the safe operation of the pilot's 
airplane, and may use a different flap setting for that airplane if the 
pilot determines that it is necessary in the interest of safety.
    (d) Communications with control towers. Unless otherwise authorized 
or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, 
or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way 
radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the 
control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical 
miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. However, if 
the aircraft radio fails in flight, the pilot in command may operate 
that aircraft and land if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR 
weather minimums, visual contact with the tower is maintained, and a 
clearance to land is received. If the aircraft radio fails while in 
flight under IFR, the pilot must comply with Sec. 91.185.

[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-239, 
59 FR 11693, Mar. 11, 1994; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 91.127  Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class E 

airspace.

    (a) Unless otherwise required by part 93 of this chapter or unless 
otherwise authorized or required by the ATC facility having jurisdiction 
over the Class E airspace area, each person operating an aircraft on or 
in the vicinity of an airport in a Class E airspace area must comply 
with the requirements of Sec. 91.126.
    (b) Departures. Each pilot of an aircraft must comply with any 
traffic patterns established for that airport in part 93 of this 
chapter.
    (c) Communications with control towers. Unless otherwise authorized 
or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, 
or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way 
radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the 
control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical 
miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. However, if 
the aircraft radio fails in flight, the pilot in command may operate 
that aircraft and land if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR 
weather minimums, visual contact with the tower is maintained, and a 
clearance to land is received. If the aircraft radio fails while in 
flight under IFR, the pilot must comply with Sec. 91.185.

[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-239, 
59 FR 11693, Mar. 11, 1994]



Sec. 91.129  Operations in Class D airspace.

    (a) General. Unless otherwise authorized or required by the ATC 
facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area, each person 
operating an aircraft in Class D airspace must comply with the 
applicable provisions of this section. In addition, each person must 
comply with Sec. Sec. 91.126 and 91.127. For the purpose of this 
section, the primary airport is the airport for which the Class D 
airspace area is designated. A satellite airport is any other airport 
within the Class D airspace area.
    (b) Deviations. An operator may deviate from any provision of this 
section under the provisions of an ATC authorization issued by the ATC 
facility having jurisdiction over the airspace concerned. ATC may 
authorize a deviation on a continuing basis or for an individual flight, 
as appropriate.
    (c) Communications. Each person operating an aircraft in Class D 
airspace must meet the following two-way radio communications 
requirements:
    (1) Arrival or through flight. Each person must establish two-way 
radio communications with the ATC facility (including foreign ATC in the 
case of foreign airspace designated in the United States) providing air 
traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain 
those communications while within that airspace.
    (2) Departing flight. Each person--
    (i) From the primary airport or satellite airport with an operating 
control tower must establish and maintain two-way radio communications 
with

[[Page 736]]

the control tower, and thereafter as instructed by ATC while operating 
in the Class D airspace area; or
    (ii) From a satellite airport without an operating control tower, 
must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC 
facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area as soon as 
practicable after departing.
    (d) Communications failure. Each person who operates an aircraft in 
a Class D airspace area must maintain two-way radio communications with 
the ATC facility having jurisdiction over that area.
    (1) If the aircraft radio fails in flight under IFR, the pilot must 
comply with Sec. 91.185 of the part.
    (2) If the aircraft radio fails in flight under VFR, the pilot in 
command may operate that aircraft and land if--
    (i) Weather conditions are at or above basic VFR weather minimums;
    (ii) Visual contact with the tower is maintained; and
    (iii) A clearance to land is received.
    (e) Minimum altitudes when operating to an airport in Class D 
airspace. (1) Unless required by the applicable distance-from-cloud 
criteria, each pilot operating a large or turbine-powered airplane must 
enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet above 
the elevation of the airport and maintain at least 1,500 feet until 
further descent is required for a safe landing.
    (2) Each pilot operating a large or turbine-powered airplane 
approaching to land on a runway served by an instrument approach 
procedure with vertical guidance, if the airplane is so equipped, must:
    (i) Operate that airplane at an altitude at or above the glide path 
between the published final approach fix and the decision altitude (DA), 
or decision height (DH), as applicable; or
    (ii) If compliance with the applicable distance-from-cloud criteria 
requires glide path interception closer in, operate that airplane at or 
above the glide path, between the point of interception of glide path 
and the DA or the DH.
    (3) Each pilot operating an airplane approaching to land on a runway 
served by a visual approach slope indicator must maintain an altitude at 
or above the glide path until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe 
landing.
    (4) Paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section do not prohibit 
normal bracketing maneuvers above or below the glide path that are 
conducted for the purpose of remaining on the glide path.
    (f) Approaches. Except when conducting a circling approach under 
part 97 of this chapter or unless otherwise required by ATC, each pilot 
must--
    (1) Circle the airport to the left, if operating an airplane; or
    (2) Avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft, if operating a 
helicopter.
    (g) Departures. No person may operate an aircraft departing from an 
airport except in compliance with the following:
    (1) Each pilot must comply with any departure procedures established 
for that airport by the FAA.
    (2) Unless otherwise required by the prescribed departure procedure 
for that airport or the applicable distance from clouds criteria, each 
pilot of a turbine-powered airplane and each pilot of a large airplane 
must climb to an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface as rapidly as 
practicable.
    (h) Noise abatement. Where a formal runway use program has been 
established by the FAA, each pilot of a large or turbine-powered 
airplane assigned a noise abatement runway by ATC must use that runway. 
However, consistent with the final authority of the pilot in command 
concerning the safe operation of the aircraft as prescribed in Sec. 
91.3(a), ATC may assign a different runway if requested by the pilot in 
the interest of safety.
    (i) Takeoff, landing, taxi clearance. No person may, at any airport 
with an operating control tower, operate an aircraft on a runway or 
taxiway, or take off or land an aircraft, unless an appropriate 
clearance is received from ATC. A clearance to ``taxi to'' the takeoff 
runway assigned to the aircraft is not a clearance to cross that 
assigned takeoff runway, or to taxi on that runway at any point, but is 
a clearance to cross other runways that intersect the taxi route to that 
assigned takeoff runway. A clearance to ``taxi to'' any point other than 
an assigned takeoff runway

[[Page 737]]

is clearance to cross all runways that intersect the taxi route to that 
point.

[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-234, 
58 FR 48793, Sept. 20, 1993; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31678, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 91.130  Operations in Class C airspace.

    (a) General. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each aircraft 
operation in Class C airspace must be conducted in compliance with this 
section and Sec. 91.129. For the purpose of this section, the primary 
airport is the airport for which the Class C airspace area is 
designated. A satellite airport is any other airport within the Class C 
airspace area.
    (b) Traffic patterns. No person may take off or land an aircraft at 
a satellite airport within a Class C airspace area except in compliance 
with FAA arrival and departure traffic patterns.
    (c) Communications. Each person operating an aircraft in Class C 
airspace must meet the following two-way radio communications 
requirements:
    (1) Arrival or through flight. Each person must establish two-way 
radio communications with the ATC facility (including foreign ATC in the 
case of foreign airspace designated in the United States) providing air 
traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain 
those communications while within that airspace.
    (2) Departing flight. Each person--
    (i) From the primary airport or satellite airport with an operating 
control tower must establish and maintain two-way radio communications 
with the control tower, and thereafter as instructed by ATC while 
operating in the Class C airspace area; or
    (ii) From a satellite airport without an operating control tower, 
must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC 
facility having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area as soon as 
practicable after departing.
    (d) Equipment requirements. Unless otherwise authorized by the ATC 
having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area, no person may 
operate an aircraft within a Class C airspace area designated for an 
airport unless that aircraft is equipped with the applicable equipment 
specified in Sec. 91.215.
    (e) Deviations. An operator may deviate from any provision of this 
section under the provisions of an ATC authorization issued by the ATC 
facility having jurisdiction over the airspace concerned. ATC may 
authorize a deviation on a continuing basis or for an individual flight, 
as appropriate.

[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65659, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-232, 
58 FR 40736, July 30, 1993; Amdt. 91-239, 59 FR 11693, Mar. 11, 1994]



Sec. 91.131  Operations in Class B airspace.

    (a) Operating rules. No person may operate an aircraft within a 
Class B airspace area except in compliance with Sec. 91.129 and the 
following rules:
    (1) The operator must receive an ATC clearance from the ATC facility 
having jurisdiction for that area before operating an aircraft in that 
area.
    (2) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating a 
large turbine engine-powered airplane to or from a primary airport for 
which a Class B airspace area is designated must operate at or above the 
designated floors of the Class B airspace area while within the lateral 
limits of that area.
    (3) Any person conducting pilot training operations at an airport 
within a Class B airspace area must comply with any procedures 
established by ATC for such operations in that area.
    (b) Pilot requirements. (1) No person may take off or land a civil 
aircraft at an airport within a Class B airspace area or operate a civil 
aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless--
    (i) The pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate;
    (ii) The pilot in command holds a recreational pilot certificate and 
has met--
    (A) The requirements of Sec. 61.101(d) of this chapter; or
    (B) The requirements for a student pilot seeking a recreational 
pilot certificate in Sec. 61.94 of this chapter;
    (iii) The pilot in command holds a sport pilot certificate and has 
met--
    (A) The requirements of Sec. 61.325 of this chapter; or

[[Page 738]]

    (B) The requirements for a student pilot seeking a recreational 
pilot certificate in Sec. 61.94 of this chapter; or
    (iv) The aircraft is operated by a student pilot who has met the 
requirements of Sec. 61.94 or Sec. 61.95 of this chapter, as 
applicable.
    (2) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (b)(1)(ii), 
(b)(1)(iii) and (b)(1)(iv) of this section, no person may take off or 
land a civil aircraft at those airports listed in section 4 of appendix 
D to this part unless the pilot in command holds at least a private 
pilot certificate.
    (c) Communications and navigation equipment requirements. Unless 
otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within a 
Class B airspace area unless that aircraft is equipped with--
    (1) For IFR operation. An operable VOR or TACAN receiver or an 
operable and suitable RNAV system; and
    (2) For all operations. An operable two-way radio capable of 
communications with ATC on appropriate frequencies for that Class B 
airspace area.
    (d) Transponder requirements. No person may operate an aircraft in a 
Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with the 
applicable operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting 
equipment specified in paragraph (a) of Sec. 91.215, except as provided 
in paragraph (d) of that section.

[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-282, 
69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31678, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 91.133  Restricted and prohibited areas.

    (a) No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area 
(designated in part 73) contrary to the restrictions imposed, or within 
a prohibited area, unless that person has the permission of the using or 
controlling agency, as appropriate.
    (b) Each person conducting, within a restricted area, an aircraft 
operation (approved by the using agency) that creates the same hazards 
as the operations for which the restricted area was designated may 
deviate from the rules of this subpart that are not compatible with the 
operation of the aircraft.



Sec. 91.135  Operations in Class A airspace.

    Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, each person 
operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must conduct that operation 
under instrument flight rules (IFR) and in compliance with the 
following:
    (a) Clearance. Operations may be conducted only under an ATC 
clearance received prior to entering the airspace.
    (b) Communications. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each 
aircraft operating in Class A airspace must be equipped with a two-way 
radio capable of communicating with ATC on a frequency assigned by ATC. 
Each pilot must maintain two-way radio communications with ATC while 
operating in Class A airspace.
    (c) Transponder requirement. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no 
person may operate an aircraft within Class A airspace unless that 
aircraft is equipped with the applicable equipment specified in Sec. 
91.215.
    (d) ATC authorizations. An operator may deviate from any provision 
of this section under the provisions of an ATC authorization issued by 
the ATC facility having jurisdiction of the airspace concerned. In the 
case of an inoperative transponder, ATC may immediately approve an 
operation within a Class A airspace area allowing flight to continue, if 
desired, to the airport of ultimate destination, including any 
intermediate stops, or to proceed to a place where suitable repairs can 
be made, or both. Requests for deviation from any provision of this 
section must be submitted in writing, at least 4 days before the 
proposed operation. ATC may authorize a deviation on a continuing basis 
or for an individual flight.

[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65659, Dec. 17, 1991]



Sec. 91.137  Temporary flight restrictions in the vicinity of disaster/hazard 

areas.

    (a) The Administrator will issue a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) 
designating an area within which temporary flight restrictions apply and 
specifying the hazard or condition requiring their imposition, whenever 
he determines it is necessary in order to--

[[Page 739]]

    (1) Protect persons and property on the surface or in the air from a 
hazard associated with an incident on the surface;
    (2) Provide a safe environment for the operation of disaster relief 
aircraft; or
    (3) Prevent an unsafe congestion of sightseeing and other aircraft 
above an incident or event which may generate a high degree of public 
interest.

The Notice to Airmen will specify the hazard or condition that requires 
the imposition of temporary flight restrictions.
    (b) When a NOTAM has been issued under paragraph (a)(1) of this 
section, no person may operate an aircraft within the designated area 
unless that aircraft is participating in the hazard relief activities 
and is being operated under the direction of the official in charge of 
on scene emergency response activities.
    (c) When a NOTAM has been issued under paragraph (a)(2) of this 
section, no person may operate an aircraft within the designated area 
unless at least one of the following conditions are met:
    (1) The aircraft is participating in hazard relief activities and is 
being operated under the direction of the official in charge of on scene 
emergency response activities.
    (2) The aircraft is carrying law enforcement officials.
    (3) The aircraft is operating under the ATC approved IFR flight 
plan.
    (4) The operation is conducted directly to or from an airport within 
the area, or is necessitated by the impracticability of VFR flight above 
or around the area due to weather, or terrain; notification is given to 
the Flight Service Station (FSS) or ATC facility specified in the NOTAM 
to receive advisories concerning disaster relief aircraft operations; 
and the operation does not hamper or endanger relief activities and is 
not conducted for the purpose of observing the disaster.
    (5) The aircraft is carrying properly accredited news 
representatives, and, prior to entering the area, a flight plan is filed 
with the appropriate FAA or ATC facility specified in the Notice to 
Airmen and the operation is conducted above the altitude used by the 
disaster relief aircraft, unless otherwise authorized by the official in 
charge of on scene emergency response activities.
    (d) When a NOTAM has been issued under paragraph (a)(3) of this 
section, no person may operate an aircraft within the designated area 
unless at least one of the following conditions is met:
    (1) The operation is conducted directly to or from an airport within 
the area, or is necessitated by the impracticability of VFR flight above 
or around the area due to weather or terrain, and the operation is not 
conducted for the purpose of observing the incident or event.
    (2) The aircraft is operating under an ATC approved IFR flight plan.
    (3) The aircraft is carrying incident or event personnel, or law 
enforcement officials.
    (4) The aircraft is carrying properly accredited news 
representatives and, prior to entering that area, a flight plan is filed 
with the appropriate FSS or ATC facility specified in the NOTAM.
    (e) Flight plans filed and notifications made with an FSS or ATC 
facility under this section shall include the following information:
    (1) Aircraft identification, type and color.
    (2) Radio communications frequencies to be used.
    (3) Proposed times of entry of, and exit from, the designated area.
    (4) Name of news media or organization and purpose of flight.
    (5) Any other information requested by ATC.



Sec. 91.138  Temporary flight restrictions in national disaster areas in the 

State of Hawaii.

    (a) When the Administrator has determined, pursuant to a request and 
justification provided by the Governor of the State of Hawaii, or the 
Governor's designee, that an inhabited area within a declared national 
disaster area in the State of Hawaii is in need of protection for 
humanitarian reasons, the Administrator will issue a Notice to Airmen 
(NOTAM) designating an area within which temporary

[[Page 740]]

flight restrictions apply. The Administrator will designate the extent 
and duration of the temporary flight restrictions necessary to provide 
for the protection of persons and property on the surface.
    (b) When a NOTAM has been issued in accordance with this section, no 
person may operate an aircraft within the designated area unless at 
least one of the following conditions is met:
    (1) That person has obtained authorization from the official in 
charge of associated emergency or disaster relief response activities, 
and is operating the aircraft under the conditions of that 
authorization.
    (2) The aircraft is carrying law enforcement officials.
    (3) The aircraft is carrying persons involved in an emergency or a 
legitimate scientific purpose.
    (4) The aircraft is carrying properly accredited newspersons, and 
that prior to entering the area, a flight plan is filed with the 
appropriate FAA or ATC facility specified in the NOTAM and the operation 
is conducted in compliance with the conditions and restrictions 
established by the official in charge of on-scene emergency response 
activities.
    (5) The aircraft is operating in accordance with an ATC clearance or 
instruction.
    (c) A NOTAM issued under this section is effective for 90 days or 
until the national disaster area designation is terminated, whichever 
comes first, unless terminated by notice or extended by the 
Administrator at the request of the Governor of the State of Hawaii or 
the Governor's designee.

[Doc. No. 26476, 56 FR 23178, May 20, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-270, 
66 FR 47377, Sept. 11, 2001]



Sec. 91.139  Emergency air traffic rules.

    (a) This section prescribes a process for utilizing Notices to 
Airmen (NOTAMs) to advise of the issuance and operations under emergency 
air traffic rules and regulations and designates the official who is 
authorized to issue NOTAMs on behalf of the Administrator in certain 
matters under this section.
    (b) Whenever the Administrator determines that an emergency 
condition exists, or will exist, relating to the FAA's ability to 
operate the air traffic control system and during which normal flight 
operations under this chapter cannot be conducted consistent with the 
required levels of safety and efficiency--
    (1) The Administrator issues an immediately effective air traffic 
rule or regulation in response to that emergency condition; and
    (2) The Administrator or the Associate Administrator for Air Traffic 
may utilize the NOTAM system to provide notification of the issuance of 
the rule or regulation.


Those NOTAMs communicate information concerning the rules and 
regulations that govern flight operations, the use of navigation 
facilities, and designation of that airspace in which the rules and 
regulations apply.
    (c) When a NOTAM has been issued under this section, no person may 
operate an aircraft, or other device governed by the regulation 
concerned, within the designated airspace except in accordance with the 
authorizations, terms, and conditions prescribed in the regulation 
covered by the NOTAM.



Sec. 91.141  Flight restrictions in the proximity of the Presidential and 

other parties.

    No person may operate an aircraft over or in the vicinity of any 
area to be visited or traveled by the President, the Vice President, or 
other public figures contrary to the restrictions established by the 
Administrator and published in a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM).



Sec. 91.143  Flight limitation in the proximity of space flight operations.

    When a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) is issued in accordance with this 
section, no person may operate any aircraft of U.S. registry, or pilot 
any aircraft under the authority of an airman certificate issued by the 
Federal Aviation Administration, within areas designated in a NOTAM for 
space flight operation except when authorized by ATC.

[Doc. No. FAA-2004-19246, 69 FR 59753, Oct. 5, 2004]

[[Page 741]]



Sec. 91.144  Temporary restriction on flight operations during abnormally high 

barometric pressure conditions.

    (a) Special flight restrictions. When any information indicates that 
barometric pressure on the route of flight currently exceeds or will 
exceed 31 inches of mercury, no person may operate an aircraft or 
initiate a flight contrary to the requirements established by the 
Administrator and published in a Notice to Airmen issued under this 
section.
    (b) Waivers. The Administrator is authorized to waive any 
restriction issued under paragraph (a) of this section to permit 
emergency supply, transport, or medical services to be delivered to 
isolated communities, where the operation can be conducted with an 
acceptable level of safety.

[Amdt. 91-240, 59 FR 17452, Apr. 12, 1994; 59 FR 37669, July 25, 1994]



Sec. 91.145  Management of aircraft operations in the vicinity of aerial 

demonstrations and major sporting events.

    (a) The FAA will issue a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) designating an 
area of airspace in which a temporary flight restriction applies when it 
determines that a temporary flight restriction is necessary to protect 
persons or property on the surface or in the air, to maintain air safety 
and efficiency, or to prevent the unsafe congestion of aircraft in the 
vicinity of an aerial demonstration or major sporting event. These 
demonstrations and events may include:
    (1) United States Naval Flight Demonstration Team (Blue Angels);
    (2) United States Air Force Air Demonstration Squadron 
(Thunderbirds);
    (3) United States Army Parachute Team (Golden Knights);
    (4) Summer/Winter Olympic Games;
    (5) Annual Tournament of Roses Football Game;
    (6) World Cup Soccer;
    (7) Major League Baseball All-Star Game;
    (8) World Series;
    (9) Kodak Albuquerque International Balloon Fiesta;
    (10) Sandia Classic Hang Gliding Competition;
    (11) Indianapolis 500 Mile Race;
    (12) Any other aerial demonstration or sporting event the FAA 
determines to need a temporary flight restriction in accordance with 
paragraph (b) of this section.
    (b) In deciding whether a temporary flight restriction is necessary 
for an aerial demonstration or major sporting event not listed in 
paragraph (a) of this section, the FAA considers the following factors:
    (1) Area where the event will be held.
    (2) Effect flight restrictions will have on known aircraft 
operations.
    (3) Any existing ATC airspace traffic management restrictions.
    (4) Estimated duration of the event.
    (5) Degree of public interest.
    (6) Number of spectators.
    (7) Provisions for spectator safety.
    (8) Number and types of participating aircraft.
    (9) Use of mixed high and low performance aircraft.
    (10) Impact on non-participating aircraft.
    (11) Weather minimums.
    (12) Emergency procedures that will be in effect.
    (c) A NOTAM issued under this section will state the name of the 
aerial demonstration or sporting event and specify the effective dates 
and times, the geographic features or coordinates, and any other 
restrictions or procedures governing flight operations in the designated 
airspace.
    (d) When a NOTAM has been issued in accordance with this section, no 
person may operate an aircraft or device, or engage in any activity 
within the designated airspace area, except in accordance with the 
authorizations, terms, and conditions of the temporary flight 
restriction published in the NOTAM, unless otherwise authorized by:
    (1) Air traffic control; or
    (2) A Flight Standards Certificate of Waiver or Authorization issued 
for the demonstration or event.
    (e) For the purpose of this section:
    (1) Flight restricted airspace area for an aerial demonstration--The 
amount of airspace needed to protect persons and property on the surface 
or in the air, to maintain air safety and efficiency, or to prevent the 
unsafe congestion of aircraft will vary depending on the aerial

[[Page 742]]

demonstration and the factors listed in paragraph (b) of this section. 
The restricted airspace area will normally be limited to a 5 nautical 
mile radius from the center of the demonstration and an altitude 17000 
mean sea level (for high performance aircraft) or 13000 feet above the 
surface (for certain parachute operations), but will be no greater than 
the minimum airspace necessary for the management of aircraft operations 
in the vicinity of the specified area.
    (2) Flight restricted area for a major sporting event--The amount of 
airspace needed to protect persons and property on the surface or in the 
air, to maintain air safety and efficiency, or to prevent the unsafe 
congestion of aircraft will vary depending on the size of the event and 
the factors listed in paragraph (b) of this section. The restricted 
airspace will normally be limited to a 3 nautical mile radius from the 
center of the event and 2500 feet above the surface but will not be 
greater than the minimum airspace necessary for the management of 
aircraft operations in the vicinity of the specified area.
    (f) A NOTAM issued under this section will be issued at least 30 
days in advance of an aerial demonstration or a major sporting event, 
unless the FAA finds good cause for a shorter period and explains this 
in the NOTAM.
    (g) When warranted, the FAA Administrator may exclude the following 
flights from the provisions of this section:
    (1) Essential military.
    (2) Medical and rescue.
    (3) Presidential and Vice Presidential.
    (4) Visiting heads of state.
    (5) Law enforcement and security.
    (6) Public health and welfare.

[Doc. No. FAA-2000-8274, 66 FR 47378, Sept. 11, 2001]



Sec. 91.146  Passenger-carrying flights for the benefit of a charitable, 

nonprofit, or community event.

    (a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following 
definitions apply:
    Charitable event means an event that raises funds for the benefit of 
a charitable organization recognized by the Department of the Treasury 
whose donors may deduct contributions under section 170 of the Internal 
Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. Section 170).
    Community event means an event that raises funds for the benefit of 
any local or community cause that is not a charitable event or non-
profit event.
    Non-profit event means an event that raises funds for the benefit of 
a non-profit organization recognized under State or Federal law, as long 
as one of the organization's purposes is the promotion of aviation 
safety.
    (b) Passenger carrying flights for the benefit of a charitable, 
nonprofit, or community event identified in paragraph (c) of this 
section are not subject to the certification requirements of part 119 or 
the drug and alcohol testing requirements in part 121, appendices I and 
J, of this chapter, provided the following conditions are satisfied and 
the limitations in paragraphs (c) and (d) are not exceeded:
    (1) The flight is nonstop and begins and ends at the same airport 
and is conducted within a 25-statute mile radius of that airport;
    (2) The flight is conducted from a public airport that is adequate 
for the airplane or helicopter used, or from another location the FAA 
approves for the operation;
    (3) The airplane or helicopter has a maximum of 30 seats, excluding 
each crewmember seat, and a maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds;
    (4) The flight is not an aerobatic or a formation flight;
    (5) Each airplane or helicopter holds a standard airworthiness 
certificate, is airworthy, and is operated in compliance with the 
applicable requirements of subpart E of this part;
    (6) Each flight is made during day VFR conditions;
    (7) Reimbursement of the operator of the airplane or helicopter is 
limited to that portion of the passenger payment for the flight that 
does not exceed the pro rata cost of owning, operating, and maintaining 
the aircraft for that flight, which may include fuel, oil, airport 
expenditures, and rental fees;
    (8) The beneficiary of the funds raised is not in the business of 
transportation by air;

[[Page 743]]

    (9) A private pilot acting as pilot in command has at least 500 
hours of flight time;
    (10) Each flight is conducted in accordance with the safety 
provisions of part 136, subpart A of this chapter; and
    (11) Flights are not conducted over a national park, unit of a 
national park, or abutting tribal lands, unless the operator has secured 
a letter of agreement from the FAA, as specified under subpart B of part 
136 of this chapter, and is operating in accordance with that agreement 
during the flights.
    (c) (1) Passenger-carrying flights or series of flights are limited 
to a total of four charitable events or non-profit events per year, with 
no event lasting more than three consecutive days.
    (2) Passenger-carrying flights or series of flights are limited to 
one community event per year, with no event lasting more than three 
consecutive days.
    (d) Pilots and sponsors of events described in this section are 
limited to no more than 4 events per calendar year.
    (e) At least seven days before the event, each sponsor of an event 
described in this section must furnish to the FAA Flight Standards 
District Office with jurisdiction over the geographical area where the 
event is scheduled:
    (1) A signed letter detailing the name of the sponsor, the purpose 
of the event, the date and time of the event, the location of the event, 
all prior events under this section participated in by the sponsor in 
the current calendar year;
    (2) A photocopy of each pilot in command's pilot certificate, 
medical certificate, and logbook entries that show the pilot is current 
in accordance with Sec. Sec. 61.56 and 61.57 of this chapter and that 
any private pilot has at least 500 hours of flight time; and
    (3) A signed statement from each pilot that lists all prior events 
under this section in which the pilot has participated during the 
current calendar year.

[Doc. No. FAA-1998-4521, 72 FR 6910, Feb. 13, 2007]



Sec. 91.147  Passenger carrying flights for compensation or hire.

    Each Operator conducting passenger-carrying flights for compensation 
or hire must meet the following requirements unless all flights are 
conducted under Sec. 91.146.
    (a) For the purposes of this section and for drug and alcohol 
testing, Operator means any person conducting nonstop passenger-carrying 
flights in an airplane or helicopter for compensation or hire in 
accordance with Sec. Sec. 119.1(e)(2), 135.1(a)(5), or 121.1(d), of 
this chapter that begin and end at the same airport and are conducted 
within a 25-statute mile radius of that airport.
    (b) An Operator must comply with the safety provisions of part 136, 
subpart A of this chapter, and apply for and receive a Letter of 
Authorization from the Flight Standards District Office nearest to its 
principal place of business by September 11, 2007.
    (c) Each application for a Letter of Authorization must include the 
following information:
    (1) Name of Operator, agent, and any d/b/a (doing-business-as) under 
which that Operator does business;
    (2) Principal business address and mailing address;
    (3) Principal place of business (if different from business 
address);
    (4) Name of person responsible for management of the business;
    (5) Name of person responsible for aircraft maintenance;
    (6) Type of aircraft, registration number(s), and make/model/series; 
and
    (7) An Antidrug and Alcohol Misuse Prevention Program registration.
    (d) The Operator must register and implement its drug and alcohol 
testing programs in accordance with part 121, appendices I and J, of 
this chapter.
    (e) The Operator must comply with the provisions of the Letter of 
Authorization received.

[Doc. No. FAA-1998-4521, 72 FR 6911, Feb. 13, 2007]

[[Page 744]]



Sec. Sec. 91.148-91.149  [Reserved]

                           Visual Flight Rules



Sec. 91.151  Fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions.

    (a) No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions 
unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is 
enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming 
normal cruising speed--
    (1) During the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes; or
    (2) At night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.
    (b) No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR 
conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) 
there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, 
assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 20 
minutes.



Sec. 91.153  VFR flight plan: Information required.

    (a) Information required. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each 
person filing a VFR flight plan shall include in it the following 
information:
    (1) The aircraft identification number and, if necessary, its radio 
call sign.
    (2) The type of the aircraft or, in the case of a formation flight, 
the type of each aircraft and the number of aircraft in the formation.
    (3) The full name and address of the pilot in command or, in the 
case of a formation flight, the formation commander.
    (4) The point and proposed time of departure.
    (5) The proposed route, cruising altitude (or flight level), and 
true airspeed at that altitude.
    (6) The point of first intended landing and the estimated elapsed 
time until over that point.
    (7) The amount of fuel on board (in hours).
    (8) The number of persons in the aircraft, except where that 
information is otherwise readily available to the FAA.
    (9) Any other information the pilot in command or ATC believes is 
necessary for ATC purposes.
    (b) Cancellation. When a flight plan has been activated, the pilot 
in command, upon canceling or completing the flight under the flight 
plan, shall notify an FAA Flight Service Station or ATC facility.



Sec. 91.155  Basic VFR weather minimums.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section and Sec. 
91.157, no person may operate an aircraft under VFR when the flight 
visibility is less, or at a distance from clouds that is less, than that 
prescribed for the corresponding altitude and class of airspace in the 
following table:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                          Distance from
           Airspace                Flight visibility         clouds
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Class A.......................  Not Applicable........  Not Applicable.
Class B.......................  3 statute miles.......  Clear of Clouds.
Class C.......................  3 statute miles.......  500 feet below.
                                                        1,000 feet
                                                         above.
                                                        2,000 feet
                                                         horizontal.
Class D.......................  3 statute miles.......  500 feet below.
                                                        1,000 feet
                                                         above.
                                                        2,000 feet
                                                         horizontal.
Class E:
  Less than 10,000 feet MSL...  3 statute miles.......  500 feet below.
                                                        1,000 feet
                                                         above.
                                                        2,000 feet
                                                         horizontal
  At or above 10,000 feet MSL.  5 statute miles.......  1,000 feet
                                                         below.
                                                        1,000 feet
                                                         above.
                                                        1 statute mile
                                                         horizontal.
Class G:
  1,200 feet or less above the
   surface (regardless of MSL
   altitude).
Day, except as provided in      1 statute mile........  Clear of clouds.
 Sec.  91.155(b).
Night, except as provided in    3 statute miles.......  500 feet below.
 Sec.  91.155(b).                                      1,000 feet
                                                         above.
                                                        2,000 feet
                                                         horizontal.
More than 1,200 feet above the
 surface but less than 10,000
 feet MSL
Day...........................  1 statute mile........  500 feet below.
                                                        1,000 feet
                                                         above.
                                                        2,000 feet
                                                         horizontal.
Night.........................  3 statute miles.......  500 feet below.
                                                        1,000 feet
                                                         above.
                                                        2,000 feet
                                                         horizontal.

[[Page 745]]

 
More than 1,200 feet above the  5 statute miles.......  1,000 feet
 surface and at or above                                 below.
 10,000 feet MSL.                                       1,000 feet
                                                         above.
                                                        1 statute mile
                                                         horizontal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (b) Class G Airspace. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph 
(a) of this section, the following operations may be conducted in Class 
G airspace below 1,200 feet above the surface:
    (1) Helicopter. A helicopter may be operated clear of clouds if 
operated at a speed that allows the pilot adequate opportunity to see 
any air traffic or obstruction in time to avoid a collision.
    (2) Airplane, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft. 
If the visibility is less than 3 statute miles but not less than 1 
statute mile during night hours and you are operating in an airport 
traffic pattern within \1/2\ mile of the runway, you may operate an 
airplane, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft clear of 
clouds.
    (c) Except as provided in Sec. 91.157, no person may operate an 
aircraft beneath the ceiling under VFR within the lateral boundaries of 
controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the 
ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
    (d) Except as provided in Sec. 91.157 of this part, no person may 
take off or land an aircraft, or enter the traffic pattern of an 
airport, under VFR, within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas 
of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an 
airport--
    (1) Unless ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 statute 
miles; or
    (2) If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, unless 
flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the 
traffic pattern is at least 3 statute miles.
    (e) For the purpose of this section, an aircraft operating at the 
base altitude of a Class E airspace area is considered to be within the 
airspace directly below that area.

[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65660, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-235, 
58 FR 51968, Oct. 5, 1993; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 91.157  Special VFR weather minimums.

    (a) Except as provided in appendix D, section 3, of this part, 
special VFR operations may be conducted under the weather minimums and 
requirements of this section, instead of those contained in Sec. 
91.155, below 10,000 feet MSL within the airspace contained by the 
upward extension of the lateral boundaries of the controlled airspace 
designated to the surface for an airport.
    (b) Special VFR operations may only be conducted--
    (1) With an ATC clearance;
    (2) Clear of clouds;
    (3) Except for helicopters, when flight visibility is at least 1 
statute mile; and
    (4) Except for helicopters, between sunrise and sunset (or in 
Alaska, when the sun is 6 degrees or more below the horizon) unless--
    (i) The person being granted the ATC clearance meets the applicable 
requirements for instrument flight under part 61 of this chapter; and
    (ii) The aircraft is equipped as required in Sec. 91.205(d).
    (c) No person may take off or land an aircraft (other than a 
helicopter) under special VFR--
    (1) Unless ground visibility is at least 1 statute mile; or
    (2) If ground visibility is not reported, unless flight visibility 
is at least 1 statute mile. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term 
flight visibility includes the visibility from the cockpit of an 
aircraft in takeoff position if:
    (i) The flight is conducted under this part 91; and
    (ii) The airport at which the aircraft is located is a satellite 
airport that does not have weather reporting capabilities.
    (d) The determination of visibility by a pilot in accordance with 
paragraph (c)(2) of this section is not an official weather report or an 
official ground visibility report.

[Amdt. 91-235, 58 FR 51968, Oct. 5, 1993, as amended by Amdt. 91-247, 60 
FR 66874, Dec. 27, 1995; Amdt. 91-262, 65 FR 16116, Mar. 24, 2000]

[[Page 746]]



Sec. 91.159  VFR cruising altitude or flight level.

    Except while holding in a holding pattern of 2 minutes or less, or 
while turning, each person operating an aircraft under VFR in level 
cruising flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface shall maintain 
the appropriate altitude or flight level prescribed below, unless 
otherwise authorized by ATC:
    (a) When operating below 18,000 feet MSL and--
    (1) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any 
odd thousand foot MSL altitude +500 feet (such as 3,500, 5,500, or 
7,500); or
    (2) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any 
even thousand foot MSL altitude +500 feet (such as 4,500, 6,500, or 
8,500).
    (b) When operating above 18,000 feet MSL, maintain the altitude or 
flight level assigned by ATC.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-276, 
68 FR 61321, Oct. 27, 2003; 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003]



Sec. 91.161  Special awareness training required for pilots flying under 

visual flight rules within a 60-nautical mile radius of the Washington, DC 

VOR/DME.

    (a) Operations within a 60-nautical mile radius of the Washington, 
DC VOR/DME under visual flight rules (VFR). Except as provided under 
paragraph (e) of this section, no person may serve as a pilot in command 
or as second in command of an aircraft while flying within a 60-nautical 
mile radius of the DCA VOR/DME, under VFR, unless that pilot has 
completed Special Awareness Training and holds a certificate of training 
completion.
    (b) Special Awareness Training. The Special Awareness Training 
consists of information to educate pilots about the procedures for 
flying in the Washington, DC area and, more generally, in other types of 
special use airspace. This free training is available on the FAA's Web 
site. Upon completion of the training, each person will need to print 
out a copy of the certificate of training completion.
    (c) Inspection of certificate of training completion. Each person 
who holds a certificate for completing the Special Awareness Training 
must present it for inspection upon request from:
    (1) An authorized representative of the FAA;
    (2) An authorized representative of the National Transportation 
Safety Board;
    (3) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer; or
    (4) An authorized representative of the Transportation Security 
Administration.
    (d) Emergency declared. The failure to complete the Special 
Awareness Training course on flying in and around the Washington, DC 
Metropolitan Area is not a violation of this section if an emergency is 
declared by the pilot, as described under Sec. 91.3(b), or there was a 
failure of two-way radio communications when operating under IFR as 
described under Sec. 91.185.
    (e) Exceptions. The requirements of this section do not apply if the 
flight is being performed in an aircraft of an air ambulance operator 
certificated to conduct part 135 operations under this chapter, the U.S. 
Armed Forces, or a law enforcement agency.

[Doc. No. FAA-2006-25250, 73 FR 46803, Aug. 12, 2008]

    Effective Date Note: By Amdt. 91-302, 73 FR 46803, Aug. 12, 2008, 
Sec. 91.161 was added, effective Feb. 9, 2009.



Sec. Sec. 91.162-91.165  [Reserved]

                         Instrument Flight Rules



Sec. 91.167  Fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions.

    (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft in IFR conditions unless 
it carries enough fuel (considering weather reports and forecasts and 
weather conditions) to--
    (1) Complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing;
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, fly from 
that airport to the alternate airport; and
    (3) Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed or, for 
helicopters, fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
    (b) Paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply if:

[[Page 747]]

    (1) Part 97 of this chapter prescribes a standard instrument 
approach procedure to, or a special instrument approach procedure has 
been issued by the Administrator to the operator for, the first airport 
of intended landing; and
    (2) Appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a 
combination of them, indicate the following:
    (i) For aircraft other than helicopters. For at least 1 hour before 
and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be 
at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation and the visibility will 
be at least 3 statute miles.
    (ii) For helicopters. At the estimated time of arrival and for 1 
hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 
1,000 feet above the airport elevation, or at least 400 feet above the 
lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and the 
visibility will be at least 2 statute miles.

[Doc. No. 98-4390, 65 FR 3546, Jan. 21, 2000]



Sec. 91.169  IFR flight plan: Information required.

    (a) Information required. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each 
person filing an IFR flight plan must include in it the following 
information:
    (1) Information required under Sec. 91.153 (a) of this part;
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an 
alternate airport.
    (b) Paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply if :
    (1) Part 97 of this chapter prescribes a standard instrument 
approach procedure to, or a special instrument approach procedure has 
been issued by the Administrator to the operator for, the first airport 
of intended landing; and
    (2) Appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a 
combination of them, indicate the following:
    (i) For aircraft other than helicopters. For at least 1 hour before 
and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be 
at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation and the visibility will 
be at least 3 statute miles.
    (ii) For helicopters. At the estimated time of arrival and for 1 
hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 
1,000 feet above the airport elevation, or at least 400 feet above the 
lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and the 
visibility will be at least 2 statute miles.
    (c) IFR alternate airport weather minima. Unless otherwise 
authorized by the Administrator, no person may include an alternate 
airport in an IFR flight plan unless appropriate weather reports or 
weather forecasts, or a combination of them, indicate that, at the 
estimated time of arrival at the alternate airport, the ceiling and 
visibility at that airport will be at or above the following weather 
minima:
    (1) If an instrument approach procedure has been published in part 
97 of this chapter, or a special instrument approach procedure has been 
issued by the Administrator to the operator, for that airport, the 
following minima:
    (i) For aircraft other than helicopters: The alternate airport 
minima specified in that procedure, or if none are specified the 
following standard approach minima:
    (A) For a precision approach procedure. Ceiling 600 feet and 
visibility 2 statute miles.
    (B) For a nonprecision approach procedure. Ceiling 800 feet and 
visibility 2 statute miles.
    (ii) For helicopters: Ceiling 200 feet above the minimum for the 
approach to be flown, and visibility at least 1 statute mile but never 
less than the minimum visibility for the approach to be flown, and
    (2) If no instrument approach procedure has been published in part 
97 of this chapter and no special instrument approach procedure has been 
issued by the Administrator to the operator, for the alternate airport, 
the ceiling and visibility minima are those allowing descent from the 
MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR.
    (d) Cancellation. When a flight plan has been activated, the pilot 
in command, upon canceling or completing the flight under the flight 
plan, shall notify an FAA Flight Service Station or ATC facility.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-259, 
65 FR 3546, Jan. 21, 2000]

[[Page 748]]



Sec. 91.171  VOR equipment check for IFR operations.

    (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft under IFR using the VOR 
system of radio navigation unless the VOR equipment of that aircraft--
    (1) Is maintained, checked, and inspected under an approved 
procedure; or
    (2) Has been operationally checked within the preceding 30 days, and 
was found to be within the limits of the permissible indicated bearing 
error set forth in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, each person 
conducting a VOR check under paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall--
    (1) Use, at the airport of intended departure, an FAA-operated or 
approved test signal or a test signal radiated by a certificated and 
appropriately rated radio repair station or, outside the United States, 
a test signal operated or approved by an appropriate authority to check 
the VOR equipment (the maximum permissible indicated bearing error is 
plus or minus 4 degrees); or
    (2) Use, at the airport of intended departure, a point on the 
airport surface designated as a VOR system checkpoint by the 
Administrator, or, outside the United States, by an appropriate 
authority (the maximum permissible bearing error is plus or minus 4 
degrees);
    (3) If neither a test signal nor a designated checkpoint on the 
surface is available, use an airborne checkpoint designated by the 
Administrator or, outside the United States, by an appropriate authority 
(the maximum permissible bearing error is plus or minus 6 degrees); or
    (4) If no check signal or point is available, while in flight--
    (i) Select a VOR radial that lies along the centerline of an 
established VOR airway;
    (ii) Select a prominent ground point along the selected radial 
preferably more than 20 nautical miles from the VOR ground facility and 
maneuver the aircraft directly over the point at a reasonably low 
altitude; and
    (iii) Note the VOR bearing indicated by the receiver when over the 
ground point (the maximum permissible variation between the published 
radial and the indicated bearing is 6 degrees).
    (c) If dual system VOR (units independent of each other except for 
the antenna) is installed in the aircraft, the person checking the 
equipment may check one system against the other in place of the check 
procedures specified in paragraph (b) of this section. Both systems 
shall be tuned to the same VOR ground facility and note the indicated 
bearings to that station. The maximum permissible variation between the 
two indicated bearings is 4 degrees.
    (d) Each person making the VOR operational check, as specified in 
paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, shall enter the date, place, 
bearing error, and sign the aircraft log or other record. In addition, 
if a test signal radiated by a repair station, as specified in paragraph 
(b)(1) of this section, is used, an entry must be made in the aircraft 
log or other record by the repair station certificate holder or the 
certificate holder's representative certifying to the bearing 
transmitted by the repair station for the check and the date of 
transmission.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)



Sec. 91.173  ATC clearance and flight plan required.

    No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR 
unless that person has--
    (a) Filed an IFR flight plan; and
    (b) Received an appropriate ATC clearance.



Sec. 91.175  Takeoff and landing under IFR.

    (a) Instrument approaches to civil airports. Unless otherwise 
authorized by the FAA, when it is necessary to use an instrument 
approach to a civil airport, each person operating an aircraft must use 
a standard instrument approach procedure prescribed in part 97 of this 
chapter for that airport. This paragraph does not apply to United States 
military aircraft.
    (b) Authorized DA/DH or MDA. For the purpose of this section, when 
the approach procedure being used provides for and requires the use of a 
DA/DH or

[[Page 749]]

MDA, the authorized DA/DH or MDA is the highest of the following:
    (1) The DA/DH or MDA prescribed by the approach procedure.
    (2) The DA/DH or MDA prescribed for the pilot in command.
    (3) The DA/DH or MDA appropriate for the aircraft equipment 
available and used during the approach.
    (c) Operation below DA/ DH or MDA. Except as provided in paragraph 
(l) of this section, where a DA/DH or MDA is applicable, no pilot may 
operate an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, 
below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized 
DA/DH unless--
    (1) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent 
to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of 
descent using normal maneuvers, and for operations conducted under part 
121 or part 135 unless that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur 
within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing;
    (2) The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed 
in the standard instrument approach being used; and
    (3) Except for a Category II or Category III approach where any 
necessary visual reference requirements are specified by the 
Administrator, at least one of the following visual references for the 
intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
    (i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend 
below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach 
lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side 
row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
    (ii) The threshold.
    (iii) The threshold markings.
    (iv) The threshold lights.
    (v) The runway end identifier lights.
    (vi) The visual approach slope indicator.
    (vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.
    (viii) The touchdown zone lights.
    (ix) The runway or runway markings.
    (x) The runway lights.
    (d) Landing. No pilot operating an aircraft, except a military 
aircraft of the United States, may land that aircraft when--
    (1) For operations conducted under paragraph (l) of this section, 
the requirements of (l)(4) of this section are not met; or
    (2) For all other part 91 operations and parts 121, 125, 129, and 
135 operations, the flight visibility is less than the visibility 
prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used.
    (e) Missed approach procedures. Each pilot operating an aircraft, 
except a military aircraft of the United States, shall immediately 
execute an appropriate missed approach procedure when either of the 
following conditions exist:
    (1) Whenever operating an aircraft pursuant to paragraph (c) or (l) 
of this section and the requirements of that paragraph are not met at 
either of the following times:
    (i) When the aircraft is being operated below MDA; or
    (ii) Upon arrival at the missed approach point, including a DA/DH 
where a DA/DH is specified and its use is required, and at any time 
after that until touchdown.
    (2) Whenever an identifiable part of the airport is not distinctly 
visible to the pilot during a circling maneuver at or above MDA, unless 
the inability to see an identifiable part of the airport results only 
from a normal bank of the aircraft during the circling approach.
    (f) Civil airport takeoff minimums. This paragraph applies to 
persons operating an aircraft under part 121, 125, 129, or 135 of this 
chapter.
    (1) Unless otherwise authorized by the FAA, no pilot may takeoff 
from a civil airport under IFR unless the weather conditions at time of 
takeoff are at or above the weather minimums for IFR takeoff prescribed 
for that airport under part 97 of this chapter.
    (2) If takeoff weather minimums are not prescribed under part 97 of 
this chapter for a particular airport, the following weather minimums 
apply to takeoffs under IFR:
    (i) For aircraft, other than helicopters, having two engines or 
less--1 statute mile visibility.
    (ii) For aircraft having more than two engines--\1/2\ statute mile 
visibility.
    (iii) For helicopters--\1/2\ statute mile visibility.

[[Page 750]]

    (3) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(4) of this section, no pilot 
may takeoff under IFR from a civil airport having published obstacle 
departure procedures (ODPs) under part 97 of this chapter for the 
takeoff runway to be used, unless the pilot uses such ODPs.
    (4) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this 
section, no pilot may takeoff from an airport under IFR unless:
    (i) For part 121 and part 135 operators, the pilot uses a takeoff 
obstacle clearance or avoidance procedure that ensures compliance with 
the applicable airplane performance operating limitations requirements 
under part 121, subpart I or part 135, subpart I for takeoff at that 
airport; or
    (ii) For part 129 operators, the pilot uses a takeoff obstacle 
clearance or avoidance procedure that ensures compliance with the 
airplane performance operating limitations prescribed by the State of 
the operator for takeoff at that airport.
    (g) Military airports. Unless otherwise prescribed by the 
Administrator, each person operating a civil aircraft under IFR into or 
out of a military airport shall comply with the instrument approach 
procedures and the takeoff and landing minimum prescribed by the 
military authority having jurisdiction of that airport.
    (h) Comparable values of RVR and ground visibility. (1) Except for 
Category II or Category III minimums, if RVR minimums for takeoff or 
landing are prescribed in an instrument approach procedure, but RVR is 
not reported for the runway of intended operation, the RVR minimum shall 
be converted to ground visibility in accordance with the table in 
paragraph (h)(2) of this section and shall be the visibility minimum for 
takeoff or landing on that runway.
    (2)

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                              Visibility
                         RVR (feet)                            (statute
                                                                miles)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1,600......................................................        \1/4\
2,400......................................................        \1/2\
3,200......................................................        \5/8\
4,000......................................................        \3/4\
4,500......................................................        \7/8\
5,000......................................................            1
6,000......................................................       1\1/4\
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (i) Operations on unpublished routes and use of radar in instrument 
approach procedures. When radar is approved at certain locations for ATC 
purposes, it may be used not only for surveillance and precision radar 
approaches, as applicable, but also may be used in conjunction with 
instrument approach procedures predicated on other types of radio 
navigational aids. Radar vectors may be authorized to provide course 
guidance through the segments of an approach to the final course or fix. 
When operating on an unpublished route or while being radar vectored, 
the pilot, when an approach clearance is received, shall, in addition to 
complying with Sec. 91.177, maintain the last altitude assigned to that 
pilot until the aircraft is established on a segment of a published 
route or instrument approach procedure unless a different altitude is 
assigned by ATC. After the aircraft is so established, published 
altitudes apply to descent within each succeeding route or approach 
segment unless a different altitude is assigned by ATC. Upon reaching 
the final approach course or fix, the pilot may either complete the 
instrument approach in accordance with a procedure approved for the 
facility or continue a surveillance or precision radar approach to a 
landing.
    (j) Limitation on procedure turns. In the case of a radar vector to 
a final approach course or fix, a timed approach from a holding fix, or 
an approach for which the procedure specifies ``No PT,'' no pilot may 
make a procedure turn unless cleared to do so by ATC.
    (k) ILS components. The basic components of an ILS are the 
localizer, glide slope, and outer marker, and, when installed for use 
with Category II or Category III instrument approach procedures, an 
inner marker. The following means may be used to substitute for the 
outer marker: Compass locator; precision approach radar (PAR) or airport 
surveillance radar (ASR); DME, VOR, or nondirectional beacon fixes 
authorized in the standard instrument approach procedure; or a suitable 
RNAV system in conjunction with a fix identified in the standard 
instrument approach procedure. Applicability of, and substitution for, 
the inner marker

[[Page 751]]

for a Category II or III approach is determined by the appropriate 14 
CFR part 97 approach procedure, letter of authorization, or operations 
specifications issued to an operator.
    (l) Approach to straight-in landing operations below DH, or MDA 
using an enhanced flight vision system (EFVS). For straight-in 
instrument approach procedures other than Category II or Category III, 
no pilot operating under this section or Sec. Sec. 121.651, 125.381, 
and 135.225 of this chapter may operate an aircraft at any airport below 
the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DH and 
land unless--
    (1) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent 
to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of 
descent using normal maneuvers, and, for operations conducted under part 
121 or part 135 of this chapter, the descent rate will allow touchdown 
to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing;
    (2) The pilot determines that the enhanced flight visibility 
observed by use of a certified enhanced flight vision system is not less 
than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach 
procedure being used;
    (3) The following visual references for the intended runway are 
distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot using the enhanced 
flight vision system:
    (i) The approach light system (if installed); or
    (ii) The following visual references in both paragraphs 
(l)(3)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section:
    (A) The runway threshold, identified by at least one of the 
following:
    (1) The beginning of the runway landing surface;
    (2) The threshold lights; or
    (3) The runway end identifier lights.
    (B) The touchdown zone, identified by at least one of the following:
    (1) The runway touchdown zone landing surface;
    (2) The touchdown zone lights;
    (3) The touchdown zone markings; or
    (4) The runway lights.
    (4) At 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation of the runway of 
intended landing and below that altitude, the flight visibility must be 
sufficient for the following to be distinctly visible and identifiable 
to the pilot without reliance on the enhanced flight vision system to 
continue to a landing:
    (i) The lights or markings of the threshold; or
    (ii) The lights or markings of the touchdown zone;
    (5) The pilot(s) is qualified to use an EFVS as follows--
    (i) For parts 119 and 125 certificate holders, the applicable 
training, testing and qualification provisions of parts 121, 125, and 
135 of this chapter;
    (ii) For foreign persons, in accordance with the requirements of the 
civil aviation authority of the State of the operator; or
    (iii) For persons conducting any other operation, in accordance with 
the applicable currency and proficiency requirements of part 61 of this 
chapter;
    (6) For parts 119 and 125 certificate holders, and part 129 
operations specifications holders, their operations specifications 
authorize use of EFVS; and
    (7) The aircraft is equipped with, and the pilot uses, an enhanced 
flight vision system, the display of which is suitable for maneuvering 
the aircraft and has either an FAA type design approval or, for a 
foreign-registered aircraft, the EFVS complies with all of the EFVS 
requirements of this chapter.
    (m) For purposes of this section, ``enhanced flight vision system'' 
(EFVS) is an installed airborne system comprised of the following 
features and characteristics:
    (1) An electronic means to provide a display of the forward external 
scene topography (the natural or manmade features of a place or region 
especially in a way to show their relative positions and elevation) 
through the use of imaging sensors, such as a forward-looking infrared, 
millimeter wave radiometry, millimeter wave radar, and low-light level 
image intensifying;
    (2) The EFVS sensor imagery and aircraft flight symbology (i.e., at 
least airspeed, vertical speed, aircraft attitude, heading, altitude, 
command guidance as appropriate for the approach to be flown, path 
deviation indications, and flight path vector, and flight path angle 
reference cue) are presented on a

[[Page 752]]

head-up display, or an equivalent display, so that they are clearly 
visible to the pilot flying in his or her normal position and line of 
vision and looking forward along the flight path, to include:
    (i) The displayed EFVS imagery, attitude symbology, flight path 
vector, and flight path angle reference cue, and other cues, which are 
referenced to this imagery and external scene topography, must be 
presented so that they are aligned with and scaled to the external view; 
and
    (ii) The flight path angle reference cue must be displayed with the 
pitch scale, selectable by the pilot to the desired descent angle for 
the approach, and suitable for monitoring the vertical flight path of 
the aircraft on approaches without vertical guidance; and
    (iii) The displayed imagery and aircraft flight symbology do not 
adversely obscure the pilot's outside view or field of view through the 
cockpit window;
    (3) The EFVS includes the display element, sensors, computers and 
power supplies, indications, and controls. It may receive inputs from an 
airborne navigation system or flight guidance system; and
    (4) The display characteristics and dynamics are suitable for manual 
control of the aircraft.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-267, 
66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-281, 69 FR 1640, Jan. 9, 2004; 
Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31678, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 91.177  Minimum altitudes for IFR operations.

    (a) Operation of aircraft at minimum altitudes. Except when 
necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft 
under IFR below--
    (1) The applicable minimum altitudes prescribed in parts 95 and 97 
of this chapter. However, if both a MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a 
particular route or route segment, a person may operate an aircraft 
below the MEA down to, but not below, the MOCA, provided the applicable 
navigation signals are available. For aircraft using VOR for navigation, 
this applies only when the aircraft is within 22 nautical miles of that 
VOR (based on the reasonable estimate by the pilot operating the 
aircraft of that distance); or
    (2) If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed in parts 95 and 
97 of this chapter, then--
    (i) In the case of operations over an area designated as a 
mountainous area in part 95 of this chapter, an altitude of 2,000 feet 
above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical 
miles from the course to be flown; or
    (ii) In any other case, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest 
obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the 
course to be flown.
    (b) Climb. Climb to a higher minimum IFR altitude shall begin 
immediately after passing the point beyond which that minimum altitude 
applies, except that when ground obstructions intervene, the point 
beyond which that higher minimum altitude applies shall be crossed at or 
above the applicable MCA.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-296, 
72 FR 31678, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 91.179  IFR cruising altitude or flight level.

    Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, the following rules apply--
    (a) In controlled airspace. Each person operating an aircraft under 
IFR in level cruising flight in controlled airspace shall maintain the 
altitude or flight level assigned that aircraft by ATC. However, if the 
ATC clearance assigns ``VFR conditions on-top,'' that person shall 
maintain an altitude or flight level as prescribed by Sec. 91.159.
    (b) In uncontrolled airspace. Except while in a holding pattern of 2 
minutes or less or while turning, each person operating an aircraft 
under IFR in level cruising flight in uncontrolled airspace shall 
maintain an appropriate altitude as follows:
    (1) When operating below 18,000 feet MSL and--
    (i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any 
odd thousand foot MSL altitude (such as 3,000, 5,000, or 7,000); or
    (ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any 
even thousand foot MSL altitude (such as 2,000, 4,000, or 6,000).

[[Page 753]]

    (2) When operating at or above 18,000 feet MSL but below flight 
level 290, and--
    (i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any 
odd flight level (such as 190, 210, or 230); or
    (ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any 
even flight level (such as 180, 200, or 220).
    (3) When operating at flight level 290 and above in non-RVSM 
airspace, and--
    (i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any 
flight level, at 4,000-foot intervals, beginning at and including flight 
level 290 (such as flight level 290, 330, or 370); or
    (ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any 
flight level, at 4,000-foot intervals, beginning at and including flight 
level 310 (such as flight level 310, 350, or 390).
    (4) When operating at flight level 290 and above in airspace 
designated as Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace and--
    (i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any 
odd flight level, at 2,000-foot intervals beginning at and including 
flight level 290 (such as flight level 290, 310, 330, 350, 370, 390, 
410); or
    (ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any 
even flight level, at 2000-foot intervals beginning at and including 
flight level 300 (such as 300, 320, 340, 360, 380, 400).

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-276, 
68 FR 61321, Oct. 27, 2003; 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003; Amdt. 91-296, 72 
FR 31679, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 91.180  Operations within airspace designated as Reduced Vertical 

Separation Minimum airspace.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person 
may operate a civil aircraft in airspace designated as Reduced Vertical 
Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace unless:
    (1) The operator and the operator's aircraft comply with the minimum 
standards of appendix G of this part; and
    (2) The operator is authorized by the Administrator or the country 
of registry to conduct such operations.
    (b) The Administrator may authorize a deviation from the 
requirements of this section.

[Amdt. 91-276, 68 FR 70133, Dec. 17, 2003]



Sec. 91.181  Course to be flown.

    Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an 
aircraft within controlled airspace under IFR except as follows:
    (a) On an ATS route, along the centerline of that airway.
    (b) On any other route, along the direct course between the 
navigational aids or fixes defining that route. However, this section 
does not prohibit maneuvering the aircraft to pass well clear of other 
air traffic or the maneuvering of the aircraft in VFR conditions to 
clear the intended flight path both before and during climb or descent.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-296, 
72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 91.183  IFR communications.

    Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, the pilot in command of each 
aircraft operated under IFR in controlled airspace must ensure that a 
continuous watch is maintained on the appropriate frequency and must 
report the following as soon as possible--
    (a) The time and altitude of passing each designated reporting 
point, or the reporting points specified by ATC, except that while the 
aircraft is under radar control, only the passing of those reporting 
points specifically requested by ATC need be reported;
    (b) Any unforecast weather conditions encountered; and
    (c) Any other information relating to the safety of flight.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-296, 
72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 91.185  IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure.

    (a) General. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each pilot who has 
two-way radio communications failure when operating under IFR shall 
comply with the rules of this section.

[[Page 754]]

    (b) VFR conditions. If the failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if 
VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall 
continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
    (c) IFR conditions. If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, or if 
paragraph (b) of this section cannot be complied with, each pilot shall 
continue the flight according to the following:
    (1) Route. (i) By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance 
received;
    (ii) If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of 
radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector 
clearance;
    (iii) In the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has 
advised may be expected in a further clearance; or
    (iv) In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has 
advised may be expected in a further clearance, by the route filed in 
the flight plan.
    (2) Altitude. At the highest of the following altitudes or flight 
levels for the route segment being flown:
    (i) The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance 
received;
    (ii) The minimum altitude (converted, if appropriate, to minimum 
flight level as prescribed in Sec. 91.121(c)) for IFR operations; or
    (iii) The altitude or flight level ATC has advised may be expected 
in a further clearance.
    (3) Leave clearance limit. (i) When the clearance limit is a fix 
from which an approach begins, commence descent or descent and approach 
as close as possible to the expect-further-clearance time if one has 
been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to 
the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended 
(with ATC) estimated time en route.
    (ii) If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach 
begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time 
if one has been received, or if none has been received, upon arrival 
over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach 
begins and commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible 
to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended 
(with ATC) estimated time en route.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 91-211, 54 FR 41211, 
Oct. 5, 1989]



Sec. 91.187  Operation under IFR in controlled airspace: Malfunction reports.

    (a) The pilot in command of each aircraft operated in controlled 
airspace under IFR shall report as soon as practical to ATC any 
malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communication equipment 
occurring in flight.
    (b) In each report required by paragraph (a) of this section, the 
pilot in command shall include the--
    (1) Aircraft identification;
    (2) Equipment affected;
    (3) Degree to which the capability of the pilot to operate under IFR 
in the ATC system is impaired; and
    (4) Nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC.



Sec. 91.189  Category II and III operations: General operating rules.

    (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft in a Category II or III 
operation unless--
    (1) The flight crew of the aircraft consists of a pilot in command 
and a second in command who hold the appropriate authorizations and 
ratings prescribed in Sec. 61.3 of this chapter;
    (2) Each flight crewmember has adequate knowledge of, and 
familiarity with, the aircraft and the procedures to be used; and
    (3) The instrument panel in front of the pilot who is controlling 
the aircraft has appropriate instrumentation for the type of flight 
control guidance system that is being used.
    (b) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may 
operate a civil aircraft in a Category II or Category III operation 
unless each ground component required for that operation and the related 
airborne equipment is installed and operating.
    (c) Authorized DA/DH. For the purpose of this section, when the 
approach procedure being used provides for and requires the use of a DA/
DH, the authorized DA/DH is the highest of the following:
    (1) The DA/DH prescribed by the approach procedure.

[[Page 755]]

    (2) The DA/DH prescribed for the pilot in command.
    (3) The DA/DH for which the aircraft is equipped.
    (d) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no pilot 
operating an aircraft in a Category II or Category III approach that 
provides and requires use of a DA/DH may continue the approach below the 
authorized decision height unless the following conditions are met:
    (1) The aircraft is in a position from which a descent to a landing 
on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using 
normal maneuvers, and where that descent rate will allow touchdown to 
occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing.
    (2) At least one of the following visual references for the intended 
runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
    (i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend 
below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach 
lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side 
row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
    (ii) The threshold.
    (iii) The threshold markings.
    (iv) The threshold lights.
    (v) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.
    (vi) The touchdown zone lights.
    (e) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, each pilot 
operating an aircraft shall immediately execute an appropriate missed 
approach whenever, prior to touchdown, the requirements of paragraph (d) 
of this section are not met.
    (f) No person operating an aircraft using a Category III approach 
without decision height may land that aircraft except in accordance with 
the provisions of the letter of authorization issued by the 
Administrator.
    (g) Paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section do not apply to 
operations conducted by certificate holders operating under part 121, 
125, 129, or 135 of this chapter, or holders of management 
specifications issued in accordance with subpart K of this part. Holders 
of operations specifications or management specifications may operate a 
civil aircraft in a Category II or Category III operation only in 
accordance with their operations specifications or management 
specifications, as applicable.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 
68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 91.191  Category II and Category III manual.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, after 
August 4, 1997, no person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft 
in a Category II or a Category III operation unless--
    (1) There is available in the aircraft a current and approved 
Category II or Category III manual, as appropriate, for that aircraft;
    (2) The operation is conducted in accordance with the procedures, 
instructions, and limitations in the appropriate manual; and
    (3) The instruments and equipment listed in the manual that are 
required for a particular Category II or Category III operation have 
been inspected and maintained in accordance with the maintenance program 
contained in the manual.
    (b) Each operator must keep a current copy of each approved manual 
at its principal base of operations and must make each manual available 
for inspection upon request by the Administrator.
    (c) This section does not apply to operations conducted by a 
certificate holder operating under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter 
or a holder of management specifications issued in accordance with 
subpart K of this part.

[Doc. No. 26933, 61 FR 34560, July 2, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 
68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003]



Sec. 91.193  Certificate of authorization for certain Category II operations.

    The Administrator may issue a certificate of authorization 
authorizing deviations from the requirements of Sec. Sec. 91.189, 
91.191, and 91.205(f) for the operation of small aircraft identified as 
Category A aircraft in Sec. 97.3 of this chapter in Category II 
operations if the Administrator finds that the proposed operation can be 
safely conducted under the terms of the certificate.

[[Page 756]]

Such authorization does not permit operation of the aircraft carrying 
persons or property for compensation or hire.



Sec. Sec. 91.195-91.199  [Reserved]



      Subpart C_Equipment, Instrument, and Certificate Requirements

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.201  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.203  Civil aircraft: Certifications required.

    (a) Except as provided in Sec. 91.715, no person may operate a 
civil aircraft unless it has within it the following:
    (1) An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate. Each U.S. 
airworthiness certificate used to comply with this subparagraph (except 
a special flight permit, a copy of the applicable operations 
specifications issued under Sec. 21.197(c) of this chapter, appropriate 
sections of the air carrier manual required by parts 121 and 135 of this 
chapter containing that portion of the operations specifications issued 
under Sec. 21.197(c), or an authorization under Sec. 91.611) must have 
on it the registration number assigned to the aircraft under part 47 of 
this chapter. However, the airworthiness certificate need not have on it 
an assigned special identification number before 10 days after that 
number is first affixed to the aircraft. A revised airworthiness 
certificate having on it an assigned special identification number, that 
has been affixed to an aircraft, may only be obtained upon application 
to an FAA Flight Standards district office.
    (2) An effective U.S. registration certificate issued to its owner 
or, for operation within the United States, the second duplicate copy 
(pink) of the Aircraft Registration Application as provided for in Sec. 
47.31(b), or a registration certificate issued under the laws of a 
foreign country.
    (b) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless the airworthiness 
certificate required by paragraph (a) of this section or a special 
flight authorization issued under Sec. 91.715 is displayed at the cabin 
or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.
    (c) No person may operate an aircraft with a fuel tank installed 
within the passenger compartment or a baggage compartment unless the 
installation was accomplished pursuant to part 43 of this chapter, and a 
copy of FAA Form 337 authorizing that installation is on board the 
aircraft.
    (d) No person may operate a civil airplane (domestic or foreign) 
into or out of an airport in the United States unless it complies with 
the fuel venting and exhaust emissions requirements of part 34 of this 
chapter.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-218, 
55 FR 32861, Aug. 10, 1990]



Sec. 91.205  Powered civil aircraft with standard category U.S. airworthiness 

certificates: Instrument and equipment requirements.

    (a) General. Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(3) and (e) of this 
section, no person may operate a powered civil aircraft with a standard 
category U.S. airworthiness certificate in any operation described in 
paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section unless that aircraft contains 
the instruments and equipment specified in those paragraphs (or FAA-
approved equivalents) for that type of operation, and those instruments 
and items of equipment are in operable condition.
    (b) Visual-flight rules (day). For VFR flight during the day, the 
following instruments and equipment are required:
    (1) Airspeed indicator.
    (2) Altimeter.
    (3) Magnetic direction indicator.
    (4) Tachometer for each engine.
    (5) Oil pressure gauge for each engine using pressure system.
    (6) Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine.
    (7) Oil temperature gauge for each air-cooled engine.
    (8) Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine.
    (9) Fuel gauge indicating the quantity of fuel in each tank.
    (10) Landing gear position indicator, if the aircraft has a 
retractable landing gear.

[[Page 757]]

    (11) For small civil airplanes certificated after March 11, 1996, in 
accordance with part 23 of this chapter, an approved aviation red or 
aviation white anticollision light system. In the event of failure of 
any light of the anticollision light system, operation of the aircraft 
may continue to a location where repairs or replacement can be made.
    (12) If the aircraft is operated for hire over water and beyond 
power-off gliding distance from shore, approved flotation gear readily 
available to each occupant and, unless the aircraft is operating under 
part 121 of this subchapter, at least one pyrotechnic signaling device. 
As used in this section, ``shore'' means that area of the land adjacent 
to the water which is above the high water mark and excludes land areas 
which are intermittently under water.
    (13) An approved safety belt with an approved metal-to-metal 
latching device for each occupant 2 years of age or older.
    (14) For small civil airplanes manufactured after July 18, 1978, an 
approved shoulder harness for each front seat. The shoulder harness must 
be designed to protect the occupant from serious head injury when the 
occupant experiences the ultimate inertia forces specified in Sec. 
23.561(b)(2) of this chapter. Each shoulder harness installed at a 
flight crewmember station must permit the crewmember, when seated and 
with the safety belt and shoulder harness fastened, to perform all 
functions necessary for flight operations. For purposes of this 
paragraph--
    (i) The date of manufacture of an airplane is the date the 
inspection acceptance records reflect that the airplane is complete and 
meets the FAA-approved type design data; and
    (ii) A front seat is a seat located at a flight crewmember station 
or any seat located alongside such a seat.
    (15) An emergency locator transmitter, if required by Sec. 91.207.
    (16) For normal, utility, and acrobatic category airplanes with a 
seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of 9 or less, manufactured 
after December 12, 1986, a shoulder harness for--
    (i) Each front seat that meets the requirements of Sec. 23.785 (g) 
and (h) of this chapter in effect on December 12, 1985;
    (ii) Each additional seat that meets the requirements of Sec. 
23.785(g) of this chapter in effect on December 12, 1985.
    (17) For rotorcraft manufactured after September 16, 1992, a 
shoulder harness for each seat that meets the requirements of Sec. 27.2 
or Sec. 29.2 of this chapter in effect on September 16, 1991.
    (c) Visual flight rules (night). For VFR flight at night, the 
following instruments and equipment are required:
    (1) Instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (b) of this 
section.
    (2) Approved position lights.
    (3) An approved aviation red or aviation white anticollision light 
system on all U.S.-registered civil aircraft. Anticollision light 
systems initially installed after August 11, 1971, on aircraft for which 
a type certificate was issued or applied for before August 11, 1971, 
must at least meet the anticollision light standards of part 23, 25, 27, 
or 29 of this chapter, as applicable, that were in effect on August 10, 
1971, except that the color may be either aviation red or aviation 
white. In the event of failure of any light of the anticollision light 
system, operations with the aircraft may be continued to a stop where 
repairs or replacement can be made.
    (4) If the aircraft is operated for hire, one electric landing 
light.
    (5) An adequate source of electrical energy for all installed 
electrical and radio equipment.
    (6) One spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind 
required, that are accessible to the pilot in flight.
    (d) Instrument flight rules. For IFR flight, the following 
instruments and equipment are required:
    (1) Instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (b) of this 
section, and, for night flight, instruments and equipment specified in 
paragraph (c) of this section.
    (2) Two-way radio communication and navigation equipment suitable 
for the route to be flown.
    (3) Gyroscopic rate-of-turn indicator, except on the following 
aircraft:
    (i) Airplanes with a third attitude instrument system usable through 
flight attitudes of 360 degrees of pitch and roll and installed in 
accordance with

[[Page 758]]

the instrument requirements prescribed in Sec. 121.305(j) of this 
chapter; and
    (ii) Rotorcraft with a third attitude instrument system usable 
through flight attitudes of 80 degrees of pitch 
and 120 degrees of roll and installed in 
accordance with Sec. 29.1303(g) of this chapter.
    (4) Slip-skid indicator.
    (5) Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.
    (6) A clock displaying hours, minutes, and seconds with a sweep-
second pointer or digital presentation.
    (7) Generator or alternator of adequate capacity.
    (8) Gyroscopic pitch and bank indicator (artificial horizon).
    (9) Gyroscopic direction indicator (directional gyro or equivalent).
    (e) Flight at and above 24,000 feet MSL (FL 240). If VOR navigation 
equipment is required under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, no person 
may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft within the 50 states and 
the District of Columbia at or above FL 240 unless that aircraft is 
equipped with approved DME or a suitable RNAV system. When the DME or 
RNAV system required by this paragraph fails at and above FL 240, the 
pilot in command of the aircraft must notify ATC immediately, and then 
may continue operations at and above FL 240 to the next airport of 
intended landing where repairs or replacement of the equipment can be 
made.
    (f) Category II operations. The requirements for Category II 
operations are the instruments and equipment specified in--
    (1) Paragraph (d) of this section; and
    (2) Appendix A to this part.
    (g) Category III operations. The instruments and equipment required 
for Category III operations are specified in paragraph (d) of this 
section.
    (h) Exclusions. Paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section do not apply 
to operations conducted by a holder of a certificate issued under part 
121 or part 135 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-220, 
55 FR 43310, Oct. 26, 1990; Amdt. 91-223, 56 FR 41052, Aug. 16, 1991; 
Amdt. 91-231, 57 FR 42672, Sept. 15, 1992; Amdt. 91-248, 61 FR 5171, 
Feb. 9, 1996; Amdt. 91-251, 61 FR 34560, July 2, 1996; Amdt. 91-285, 69 
FR 77599, Dec. 27, 2004; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 91.207  Emergency locator transmitters.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, no 
person may operate a U.S.-registered civil airplane unless--
    (1) There is attached to the airplane an approved automatic type 
emergency locator transmitter that is in operable condition for the 
following operations, except that after June 21, 1995, an emergency 
locator transmitter that meets the requirements of TSO-C91 may not be 
used for new installations:
    (i) Those operations governed by the supplemental air carrier and 
commercial operator rules of parts 121 and 125;
    (ii) Charter flights governed by the domestic and flag air carrier 
rules of part 121 of this chapter; and
    (iii) Operations governed by part 135 of this chapter; or
    (2) For operations other than those specified in paragraph (a)(1) of 
this section, there must be attached to the airplane an approved 
personal type or an approved automatic type emergency locator 
transmitter that is in operable condition, except that after June 21, 
1995, an emergency locator transmitter that meets the requirements of 
TSO-C91 may not be used for new installations.
    (b) Each emergency locator transmitter required by paragraph (a) of 
this section must be attached to the airplane in such a manner that the 
probability of damage to the transmitter in the event of crash impact is 
minimized. Fixed and deployable automatic type transmitters must be 
attached to the airplane as far aft as practicable.
    (c) Batteries used in the emergency locator transmitters required by 
paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must be replaced (or recharged, 
if the batteries are rechargeable)--

[[Page 759]]

    (1) When the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative 
hour; or
    (2) When 50 percent of their useful life (or, for rechargeable 
batteries, 50 percent of their useful life of charge) has expired, as 
established by the transmitter manufacturer under its approval.

The new expiration date for replacing (or recharging) the battery must 
be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter and entered in the 
aircraft maintenance record. Paragraph (c)(2) of this section does not 
apply to batteries (such as water-activated batteries) that are 
essentially unaffected during probable storage intervals.
    (d) Each emergency locator transmitter required by paragraph (a) of 
this section must be inspected within 12 calendar months after the last 
inspection for--
    (1) Proper installation;
    (2) Battery corrosion;
    (3) Operation of the controls and crash sensor; and
    (4) The presence of a sufficient signal radiated from its antenna.
    (e) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a person may--
    (1) Ferry a newly acquired airplane from the place where possession 
of it was taken to a place where the emergency locator transmitter is to 
be installed; and
    (2) Ferry an airplane with an inoperative emergency locator 
transmitter from a place where repairs or replacements cannot be made to 
a place where they can be made.

No person other than required crewmembers may be carried aboard an 
airplane being ferried under paragraph (e) of this section.
    (f) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to--
    (1) Before January 1, 2004, turbojet-powered aircraft;
    (2) Aircraft while engaged in scheduled flights by scheduled air 
carriers;
    (3) Aircraft while engaged in training operations conducted entirely 
within a 50-nautical mile radius of the airport from which such local 
flight operations began;
    (4) Aircraft while engaged in flight operations incident to design 
and testing;
    (5) New aircraft while engaged in flight operations incident to 
their manufacture, preparation, and delivery;
    (6) Aircraft while engaged in flight operations incident to the 
aerial application of chemicals and other substances for agricultural 
purposes;
    (7) Aircraft certificated by the Administrator for research and 
development purposes;
    (8) Aircraft while used for showing compliance with regulations, 
crew training, exhibition, air racing, or market surveys;
    (9) Aircraft equipped to carry not more than one person.
    (10) An aircraft during any period for which the transmitter has 
been temporarily removed for inspection, repair, modification, or 
replacement, subject to the following:
    (i) No person may operate the aircraft unless the aircraft records 
contain an entry which includes the date of initial removal, the make, 
model, serial number, and reason for removing the transmitter, and a 
placard located in view of the pilot to show ``ELT not installed.''
    (ii) No person may operate the aircraft more than 90 days after the 
ELT is initially removed from the aircraft; and
    (11) On and after January 1, 2004, aircraft with a maximum payload 
capacity of more than 18,000 pounds when used in air transportation.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-242, 
59 FR 32057, June 21, 1994; 59 FR 34578, July 6, 1994; Amdt. 91-265, 65 
FR 81319, Dec. 22, 2000; 66 FR 16316, Mar. 23, 2001]



Sec. 91.209  Aircraft lights.

    No person may:
    (a) During the period from sunset to sunrise (or, in Alaska, during 
the period a prominent unlighted object cannot be seen from a distance 
of 3 statute miles or the sun is more than 6 degrees below the 
horizon)--
    (1) Operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights;
    (2) Park or move an aircraft in, or in dangerous proximity to, a 
night flight operations area of an airport unless the aircraft--
    (i) Is clearly illuminated;
    (ii) Has lighted position lights; or

[[Page 760]]

    (iii) is in an area that is marked by obstruction lights;
    (3) Anchor an aircraft unless the aircraft--
    (i) Has lighted anchor lights; or
    (ii) Is in an area where anchor lights are not required on vessels; 
or
    (b) Operate an aircraft that is equipped with an anticollision light 
system, unless it has lighted anticollision lights. However, the 
anticollision lights need not be lighted when the pilot-in-command 
determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the 
interest of safety to turn the lights off.

[Doc. No. 27806, 61 FR 5171, Feb. 9, 1996]



Sec. 91.211  Supplemental oxygen.

    (a) General. No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. 
registry--
    (1) At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet (MSL) up to and 
including 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is 
provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight 
at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration;
    (2) At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the 
required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental 
oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes; and
    (3) At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet (MSL) unless each 
occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.
    (b) Pressurized cabin aircraft. (1) No person may operate a civil 
aircraft of U.S. registry with a pressurized cabin--
    (i) At flight altitudes above flight level 250 unless at least a 10-
minute supply of supplemental oxygen, in addition to any oxygen required 
to satisfy paragraph (a) of this section, is available for each occupant 
of the aircraft for use in the event that a descent is necessitated by 
loss of cabin pressurization; and
    (ii) At flight altitudes above flight level 350 unless one pilot at 
the controls of the airplane is wearing and using an oxygen mask that is 
secured and sealed and that either supplies oxygen at all times or 
automatically supplies oxygen whenever the cabin pressure altitude of 
the airplane exceeds 14,000 feet (MSL), except that the one pilot need 
not wear and use an oxygen mask while at or below flight level 410 if 
there are two pilots at the controls and each pilot has a quick-donning 
type of oxygen mask that can be placed on the face with one hand from 
the ready position within 5 seconds, supplying oxygen and properly 
secured and sealed.
    (2) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, if for any 
reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave the controls 
of the aircraft when operating at flight altitudes above flight level 
350, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use an oxygen 
mask until the other pilot has returned to that crewmember's station.



Sec. 91.213  Inoperative instruments and equipment.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person 
may take off an aircraft with inoperative instruments or equipment 
installed unless the following conditions are met:
    (1) An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft.
    (2) The aircraft has within it a letter of authorization, issued by 
the FAA Flight Standards district office having jurisdiction over the 
area in which the operator is located, authorizing operation of the 
aircraft under the Minimum Equipment List. The letter of authorization 
may be obtained by written request of the airworthiness certificate 
holder. The Minimum Equipment List and the letter of authorization 
constitute a supplemental type certificate for the aircraft.
    (3) The approved Minimum Equipment List must--
    (i) Be prepared in accordance with the limitations specified in 
paragraph (b) of this section; and
    (ii) Provide for the operation of the aircraft with the instruments 
and equipment in an inoperable condition.
    (4) The aircraft records available to the pilot must include an 
entry describing the inoperable instruments and equipment.
    (5) The aircraft is operated under all applicable conditions and 
limitations contained in the Minimum Equipment

[[Page 761]]

List and the letter authorizing the use of the list.
    (b) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in a 
Minimum Equipment List:
    (1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or 
otherwise required by the airworthiness requirements under which the 
aircraft is type certificated and which are essential for safe 
operations under all operating conditions.
    (2) Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive 
to be in operable condition unless the airworthiness directive provides 
otherwise.
    (3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations by 
this part.
    (c) A person authorized to use an approved Minimum Equipment List 
issued for a specific aircraft under subpart K of this part, part 121, 
125, or 135 of this chapter must use that Minimum Equipment List to 
comply with the requirements in this section.
    (d) Except for operations conducted in accordance with paragraph (a) 
or (c) of this section, a person may takeoff an aircraft in operations 
conducted under this part with inoperative instruments and equipment 
without an approved Minimum Equipment List provided--
    (1) The flight operation is conducted in a--
    (i) Rotorcraft, non-turbine-powered airplane, glider, lighter-than-
air aircraft, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft, for 
which a master minimum equipment list has not been developed; or
    (ii) Small rotorcraft, nonturbine-powered small airplane, glider, or 
lighter-than-air aircraft for which a Master Minimum Equipment List has 
been developed; and
    (2) The inoperative instruments and equipment are not--
    (i) Part of the VFR-day type certification instruments and equipment 
prescribed in the applicable airworthiness regulations under which the 
aircraft was type certificated;
    (ii) Indicated as required on the aircraft's equipment list, or on 
the Kinds of Operations Equipment List for the kind of flight operation 
being conducted;
    (iii) Required by Sec. 91.205 or any other rule of this part for 
the specific kind of flight operation being conducted; or
    (iv) Required to be operational by an airworthiness directive; and
    (3) The inoperative instruments and equipment are--
    (i) Removed from the aircraft, the cockpit control placarded, and 
the maintenance recorded in accordance with Sec. 43.9 of this chapter; 
or
    (ii) Deactivated and placarded ``Inoperative.'' If deactivation of 
the inoperative instrument or equipment involves maintenance, it must be 
accomplished and recorded in accordance with part 43 of this chapter; 
and
    (4) A determination is made by a pilot, who is certificated and 
appropriately rated under part 61 of this chapter, or by a person, who 
is certificated and appropriately rated to perform maintenance on the 
aircraft, that the inoperative instrument or equipment does not 
constitute a hazard to the aircraft.
    An aircraft with inoperative instruments or equipment as provided in 
paragraph (d) of this section is considered to be in a properly altered 
condition acceptable to the Administrator.
    (e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an aircraft 
with inoperable instruments or equipment may be operated under a special 
flight permit issued in accordance with Sec. Sec. 21.197 and 21.199 of 
this chapter.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 
68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 91.215  ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment and use.

    (a) All airspace: U.S.-registered civil aircraft. For operations not 
conducted under part 121 or 135 of this chapter, ATC transponder 
equipment installed must meet the performance and environmental 
requirements of any class of TSO-C74b (Mode A) or any class of TSO-C74c 
(Mode A with altitude reporting capability) as appropriate, or the 
appropriate class of TSO-C112 (Mode S).
    (b) All airspace. Unless otherwise authorized or directed by ATC, no 
person may operate an aircraft in the airspace described in paragraphs 
(b)(1) through

[[Page 762]]

(b)(5) of this section, unless that aircraft is equipped with an 
operable coded radar beacon transponder having either Mode 3/A 4096 code 
capability, replying to Mode 3/A interrogations with the code specified 
by ATC, or a Mode S capability, replying to Mode 3/A interrogations with 
the code specified by ATC and intermode and Mode S interrogations in 
accordance with the applicable provisions specified in TSO C-112, and 
that aircraft is equipped with automatic pressure altitude reporting 
equipment having a Mode C capability that automatically replies to Mode 
C interrogations by transmitting pressure altitude information in 100-
foot increments. This requirement applies--
    (1) All aircraft. In Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas;
    (2) All aircraft. In all airspace within 30 nautical miles of an 
airport listed in appendix D, section 1 of this part from the surface 
upward to 10,000 feet MSL;
    (3) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, any aircraft 
which was not originally certificated with an engine-driven electrical 
system or which has not subsequently been certified with such a system 
installed, balloon or glider may conduct operations in the airspace 
within 30 nautical miles of an airport listed in appendix D, section 1 
of this part provided such operations are conducted--
    (i) Outside any Class A, Class B, or Class C airspace area; and
    (ii) Below the altitude of the ceiling of a Class B or Class C 
airspace area designated for an airport or 10,000 feet MSL, whichever is 
lower; and
    (4) All aircraft in all airspace above the ceiling and within the 
lateral boundaries of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for 
an airport upward to 10,000 feet MSL; and
    (5) All aircraft except any aircraft which was not originally 
certificated with an engine-driven electrical system or which has not 
subsequently been certified with such a system installed, balloon, or 
glider--
    (i) In all airspace of the 48 contiguous states and the District of 
Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and 
below 2,500 feet above the surface; and
    (ii) In the airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL within a 
10-nautical-mile radius of any airport listed in appendix D, section 2 
of this part, excluding the airspace below 1,200 feet outside of the 
lateral boundaries of the surface area of the airspace designated for 
that airport.
    (c) Transponder-on operation. While in the airspace as specified in 
paragraph (b) of this section or in all controlled airspace, each person 
operating an aircraft equipped with an operable ATC transponder 
maintained in accordance with Sec. 91.413 of this part shall operate 
the transponder, including Mode C equipment if installed, and shall 
reply on the appropriate code or as assigned by ATC.
    (d) ATC authorized deviations. Requests for ATC authorized 
deviations must be made to the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the 
concerned airspace within the time periods specified as follows:
    (1) For operation of an aircraft with an operating transponder but 
without operating automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment having 
a Mode C capability, the request may be made at any time.
    (2) For operation of an aircraft with an inoperative transponder to 
the airport of ultimate destination, including any intermediate stops, 
or to proceed to a place where suitable repairs can be made or both, the 
request may be made at any time.
    (3) For operation of an aircraft that is not equipped with a 
transponder, the request must be made at least one hour before the 
proposed operation.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-221, 
56 FR 469, Jan. 4, 1991; Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65660, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 
91-227, 7 FR 328, Jan. 3, 1992; Amdt. 91-229, 57 FR 34618, Aug. 5, 1992; 
Amdt. 91-267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001]



Sec. 91.217  Data correspondence between automatically reported pressure 

altitude data and the pilot's altitude reference.

    No person may operate any automatic pressure altitude reporting 
equipment associated with a radar beacon transponder--

[[Page 763]]

    (a) When deactivation of that equipment is directed by ATC;
    (b) Unless, as installed, that equipment was tested and calibrated 
to transmit altitude data corresponding within 125 feet (on a 95 percent 
probability basis) of the indicated or calibrated datum of the altimeter 
normally used to maintain flight altitude, with that altimeter 
referenced to 29.92 inches of mercury for altitudes from sea level to 
the maximum operating altitude of the aircraft; or
    (c) Unless the altimeters and digitizers in that equipment meet the 
standards of TSO-C10b and TSO-C88, respectively.



Sec. 91.219  Altitude alerting system or device: Turbojet-powered civil 

airplanes.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person 
may operate a turbojet-powered U.S.-registered civil airplane unless 
that airplane is equipped with an approved altitude alerting system or 
device that is in operable condition and meets the requirements of 
paragraph (b) of this section.
    (b) Each altitude alerting system or device required by paragraph 
(a) of this section must be able to--
    (1) Alert the pilot--
    (i) Upon approaching a preselected altitude in either ascent or 
descent, by a sequence of both aural and visual signals in sufficient 
time to establish level flight at that preselected altitude; or
    (ii) Upon approaching a preselected altitude in either ascent or 
descent, by a sequence of visual signals in sufficient time to establish 
level flight at that preselected altitude, and when deviating above and 
below that preselected altitude, by an aural signal;
    (2) Provide the required signals from sea level to the highest 
operating altitude approved for the airplane in which it is installed;
    (3) Preselect altitudes in increments that are commensurate with the 
altitudes at which the aircraft is operated;
    (4) Be tested without special equipment to determine proper 
operation of the alerting signals; and
    (5) Accept necessary barometric pressure settings if the system or 
device operates on barometric pressure. However, for operation below 
3,000 feet AGL, the system or device need only provide one signal, 
either visual or aural, to comply with this paragraph. A radio altimeter 
may be included to provide the signal if the operator has an approved 
procedure for its use to determine DA/DH or MDA, as appropriate.
    (c) Each operator to which this section applies must establish and 
assign procedures for the use of the altitude alerting system or device 
and each flight crewmember must comply with those procedures assigned to 
him.
    (d) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to any operation of 
an airplane that has an experimental certificate or to the operation of 
any airplane for the following purposes:
    (1) Ferrying a newly acquired airplane from the place where 
possession of it was taken to a place where the altitude alerting system 
or device is to be installed.
    (2) Continuing a flight as originally planned, if the altitude 
alerting system or device becomes inoperative after the airplane has 
taken off; however, the flight may not depart from a place where repair 
or replacement can be made.
    (3) Ferrying an airplane with any inoperative altitude alerting 
system or device from a place where repairs or replacements cannot be 
made to a place where it can be made.
    (4) Conducting an airworthiness flight test of the airplane.
    (5) Ferrying an airplane to a place outside the United States for 
the purpose of registering it in a foreign country.
    (6) Conducting a sales demonstration of the operation of the 
airplane.
    (7) Training foreign flight crews in the operation of the airplane 
before ferrying it to a place outside the United States for the purpose 
of registering it in a foreign country.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34304, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-296, 
72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007]

[[Page 764]]



Sec. 91.221  Traffic alert and collision avoidance system equipment and use.

    (a) All airspace: U.S.-registered civil aircraft. Any traffic alert 
and collision avoidance system installed in a U.S.-registered civil 
aircraft must be approved by the Administrator.
    (b) Traffic alert and collision avoidance system, operation 
required. Each person operating an aircraft equipped with an operable 
traffic alert and collision avoidance system shall have that system on 
and operating.



Sec. 91.223  Terrain awareness and warning system.

    (a) Airplanes manufactured after March 29, 2002. Except as provided 
in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may operate a turbine-
powered U.S.-registered airplane configured with six or more passenger 
seats, excluding any pilot seat, unless that airplane is equipped with 
an approved terrain awareness and warning system that as a minimum meets 
the requirements for Class B equipment in Technical Standard Order 
(TSO)-C151.
    (b) Airplanes manufactured on or before March 29, 2002. Except as 
provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may operate a 
turbine-powered U.S.-registered airplane configured with six or more 
passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, after March 29, 2005, unless 
that airplane is equipped with an approved terrain awareness and warning 
system that as a minimum meets the requirements for Class B equipment in 
Technical Standard Order (TSO)-C151.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0631)

    (c) Airplane Flight Manual. The Airplane Flight Manual shall contain 
appropriate procedures for--
    (1) The use of the terrain awareness and warning system; and
    (2) Proper flight crew reaction in response to the terrain awareness 
and warning system audio and visual warnings.
    (d) Exceptions. Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply 
to--
    (1) Parachuting operations when conducted entirely within a 50 
nautical mile radius of the airport from which such local flight 
operations began.
    (2) Firefighting operations.
    (3) Flight operations when incident to the aerial application of 
chemicals and other substances.

[Doc. No. 29312, 65 FR 16755, Mar. 29, 2000]



Sec. Sec. 91.224-91.299  [Reserved]



                   Subpart D_Special Flight Operations

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.301  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.303  Aerobatic flight.

    No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight--
    (a) Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement;
    (b) Over an open air assembly of persons;
    (c) Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, 
Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport;
    (d) Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of any Federal 
airway;
    (e) Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or
    (f) When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.

For the purposes of this section, aerobatic flight means an intentional 
maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft's attitude, an 
abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal 
flight.

[Doc. No. 18834, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 
56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991]



Sec. 91.305  Flight test areas.

    No person may flight test an aircraft except over open water, or 
sparsely populated areas, having light air traffic.



Sec. 91.307  Parachutes and parachuting.

    (a) No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a parachute that is 
available for emergency use to be carried in that aircraft unless it is 
an approved type and has been packed by a certificated and appropriately 
rated parachute rigger--

[[Page 765]]

    (1) Within the preceding 180 days, if its canopy, shrouds, and 
harness are composed exclusively of nylon, rayon, or other similar 
synthetic fiber or materials that are substantially resistant to damage 
from mold, mildew, or other fungi and other rotting agents propagated in 
a moist environment; or
    (2) Within the preceding 60 days, if any part of the parachute is 
composed of silk, pongee, or other natural fiber or materials not 
specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
    (b) Except in an emergency, no pilot in command may allow, and no 
person may conduct, a parachute operation from an aircraft within the 
United States except in accordance with part 105 of this chapter.
    (c) Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved 
parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft carrying any person (other than 
a crewmember) may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds--
    (1) A bank of 60 degrees relative to the horizon; or
    (2) A nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30 degrees relative to the 
horizon.
    (d) Paragraph (c) of this section does not apply to--
    (1) Flight tests for pilot certification or rating; or
    (2) Spins and other flight maneuvers required by the regulations for 
any certificate or rating when given by--
    (i) A certificated flight instructor; or
    (ii) An airline transport pilot instructing in accordance with Sec. 
61.67 of this chapter.
    (e) For the purposes of this section, approved parachute means--
    (1) A parachute manufactured under a type certificate or a technical 
standard order (C-23 series); or
    (2) A personnel-carrying military parachute identified by an NAF, 
AAF, or AN drawing number, an AAF order number, or any other military 
designation or specification number.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-255, 
62 FR 68137, Dec. 30, 1997; Amdt. 91-268, 66 FR 23553, May 9, 2001; 
Amdt. 91-305, 73 FR 69530, Nov. 19, 2008]



Sec. 91.309  Towing: Gliders and unpowered ultralight vehicles.

    (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft towing a glider or 
unpowered ultralight vehicle unless--
    (1) The pilot in command of the towing aircraft is qualified under 
Sec. 61.69 of this chapter;
    (2) The towing aircraft is equipped with a tow-hitch of a kind, and 
installed in a manner, that is approved by the Administrator;
    (3) The towline used has breaking strength not less than 80 percent 
of the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider or unpowered 
ultralight vehicle and not more than twice this operating weight. 
However, the towline used may have a breaking strength more than twice 
the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider or unpowered 
ultralight vehicle if--
    (i) A safety link is installed at the point of attachment of the 
towline to the glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle with a breaking 
strength not less than 80 percent of the maximum certificated operating 
weight of the glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle and not greater 
than twice this operating weight;
    (ii) A safety link is installed at the point of attachment of the 
towline to the towing aircraft with a breaking strength greater, but not 
more than 25 percent greater, than that of the safety link at the towed 
glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle end of the towline and not 
greater than twice the maximum certificated operating weight of the 
glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle;
    (4) Before conducting any towing operation within the lateral 
boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E 
airspace designated for an airport, or before making each towing flight 
within such controlled airspace if required by ATC, the pilot in command 
notifies the control tower. If a control tower does not exist or is not 
in operation, the pilot in command must notify the FAA flight service 
station serving that controlled airspace before conducting any towing 
operations in that airspace; and
    (5) The pilots of the towing aircraft and the glider or unpowered 
ultralight

[[Page 766]]

vehicle have agreed upon a general course of action, including takeoff 
and release signals, airspeeds, and emergency procedures for each pilot.
    (b) No pilot of a civil aircraft may intentionally release a 
towline, after release of a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle, in a 
manner that endangers the life or property of another.

[Doc. No. 18834, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 
56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 91.311  Towing: Other than under Sec. 91.309.

    No pilot of a civil aircraft may tow anything with that aircraft 
(other than under Sec. 91.309) except in accordance with the terms of a 
certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator.



Sec. 91.313  Restricted category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.

    (a) No person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft--
    (1) For other than the special purpose for which it is certificated; 
or
    (2) In an operation other than one necessary to accomplish the work 
activity directly associated with that special purpose.
    (b) For the purpose of paragraph (a) of this section, operating a 
restricted category civil aircraft to provide flight crewmember training 
in a special purpose operation for which the aircraft is certificated is 
considered to be an operation for that special purpose.
    (c) No person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft 
carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. For the purposes 
of this paragraph, a special purpose operation involving the carriage of 
persons or material necessary to accomplish that operation, such as crop 
dusting, seeding, spraying, and banner towing (including the carrying of 
required persons or material to the location of that operation), and 
operation for the purpose of providing flight crewmember training in a 
special purpose operation, are not considered to be the carriage of 
persons or property for compensation or hire.
    (d) No person may be carried on a restricted category civil aircraft 
unless that person--
    (1) Is a flight crewmember;
    (2) Is a flight crewmember trainee;
    (3) Performs an essential function in connection with a special 
purpose operation for which the aircraft is certificated; or
    (4) Is necessary to accomplish the work activity directly associated 
with that special purpose.
    (e) Except when operating in accordance with the terms and 
conditions of a certificate of waiver or special operating limitations 
issued by the Administrator, no person may operate a restricted category 
civil aircraft within the United States--
    (1) Over a densely populated area;
    (2) In a congested airway; or
    (3) Near a busy airport where passenger transport operations are 
conducted.
    (f) This section does not apply to nonpassenger-carrying civil 
rotorcraft external-load operations conducted under part 133 of this 
chapter.
    (g) No person may operate a small restricted-category civil airplane 
manufactured after July 18, 1978, unless an approved shoulder harness is 
installed for each front seat. The shoulder harness must be designed to 
protect each occupant from serious head injury when the occupant 
experiences the ultimate inertia forces specified in Sec. 23.561(b)(2) 
of this chapter. The shoulder harness installation at each flight 
crewmember station must permit the crewmember, when seated and with the 
safety belt and shoulder harness fastened, to perform all functions 
necessary for flight operation. For purposes of this paragraph--
    (1) The date of manufacture of an airplane is the date the 
inspection acceptance records reflect that the airplane is complete and 
meets the FAA-approved type design data; and
    (2) A front seat is a seat located at a flight crewmember station or 
any seat located alongside such a seat.



Sec. 91.315  Limited category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.

    No person may operate a limited category civil aircraft carrying 
persons or property for compensation or hire.

[[Page 767]]



Sec. 91.317  Provisionally certificated civil aircraft: Operating limitations.

    (a) No person may operate a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft unless that person is eligible for a provisional airworthiness 
certificate under Sec. 21.213 of this chapter.
    (b) No person may operate a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft outside the United States unless that person has specific 
authority to do so from the Administrator and each foreign country 
involved.
    (c) Unless otherwise authorized by the Director, Flight Standards 
Service, no person may operate a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft in air transportation.
    (d) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may 
operate a provisionally certificated civil aircraft except--
    (1) In direct conjunction with the type or supplemental type 
certification of that aircraft;
    (2) For training flight crews, including simulated air carrier 
operations;
    (3) Demonstration flight by the manufacturer for prospective 
purchasers;
    (4) Market surveys by the manufacturer;
    (5) Flight checking of instruments, accessories, and equipment that 
do not affect the basic airworthiness of the aircraft; or
    (6) Service testing of the aircraft.
    (e) Each person operating a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft shall operate within the prescribed limitations displayed in 
the aircraft or set forth in the provisional aircraft flight manual or 
other appropriate document. However, when operating in direct 
conjunction with the type or supplemental type certification of the 
aircraft, that person shall operate under the experimental aircraft 
limitations of Sec. 21.191 of this chapter and when flight testing, 
shall operate under the requirements of Sec. 91.305 of this part.
    (f) Each person operating a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft shall establish approved procedures for--
    (1) The use and guidance of flight and ground personnel in operating 
under this section; and
    (2) Operating in and out of airports where takeoffs or approaches 
over populated areas are necessary. No person may operate that aircraft 
except in compliance with the approved procedures.
    (g) Each person operating a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft shall ensure that each flight crewmember is properly 
certificated and has adequate knowledge of, and familiarity with, the 
aircraft and procedures to be used by that crewmember.
    (h) Each person operating a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft shall maintain it as required by applicable regulations and as 
may be specially prescribed by the Administrator.
    (i) Whenever the manufacturer, or the Administrator, determines that 
a change in design, construction, or operation is necessary to ensure 
safe operation, no person may operate a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft until that change has been made and approved. Section 21.99 of 
this chapter applies to operations under this section.
    (j) Each person operating a provisionally certificated civil 
aircraft--
    (1) May carry in that aircraft only persons who have a proper 
interest in the operations allowed by this section or who are 
specifically authorized by both the manufacturer and the Administrator; 
and
    (2) Shall advise each person carried that the aircraft is 
provisionally certificated.
    (k) The Administrator may prescribe additional limitations or 
procedures that the Administrator considers necessary, including 
limitations on the number of persons who may be carried in the aircraft.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-212, 
54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989]



Sec. 91.319  Aircraft having experimental certificates: Operating limitations.

    (a) No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental 
certificate--
    (1) For other than the purpose for which the certificate was issued; 
or
    (2) Carrying persons or property for compensation or hire.
    (b) No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental 
certificate outside of an area assigned by the Administrator until it is 
shown that--

[[Page 768]]

    (1) The aircraft is controllable throughout its normal range of 
speeds and throughout all the maneuvers to be executed; and
    (2) The aircraft has no hazardous operating characteristics or 
design features.
    (c) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator in special 
operating limitations, no person may operate an aircraft that has an 
experimental certificate over a densely populated area or in a congested 
airway. The Administrator may issue special operating limitations for 
particular aircraft to permit takeoffs and landings to be conducted over 
a densely populated area or in a congested airway, in accordance with 
terms and conditions specified in the authorization in the interest of 
safety in air commerce.
    (d) Each person operating an aircraft that has an experimental 
certificate shall--
    (1) Advise each person carried of the experimental nature of the 
aircraft;
    (2) Operate under VFR, day only, unless otherwise specifically 
authorized by the Administrator; and
    (3) Notify the control tower of the experimental nature of the 
aircraft when operating the aircraft into or out of airports with 
operating control towers.
    (e) No person may operate an aircraft that is issued an experimental 
certificate under Sec. 21.191(i) of this chapter for compensation or 
hire, except a person may operate an aircraft issued an experimental 
certificate under Sec. 21.191(i)(1) for compensation or hire to--
    (1) Tow a glider that is a light-sport aircraft or unpowered 
ultralight vehicle in accordance with Sec. 91.309; or
    (2) Conduct flight training in an aircraft which that person 
provides prior to January 31, 2010.
    (f) No person may lease an aircraft that is issued an experimental 
certificate under Sec. 21.191(i) of this chapter, except in accordance 
with paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
    (g) No person may operate an aircraft issued an experimental 
certificate under Sec. 21.191(i)(1) of this chapter to tow a glider 
that is a light-sport aircraft or unpowered ultralight vehicle for 
compensation or hire or to conduct flight training for compensation or 
hire in an aircraft which that persons provides unless within the 
preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has--
    (1) Been inspected by a certificated repairman (light-sport 
aircraft) with a maintenance rating, an appropriately rated mechanic, or 
an appropriately rated repair station in accordance with inspection 
procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable 
to the FAA; or
    (2) Received an inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness 
certificate in accordance with part 21 of this chapter.
    (h) The FAA may issue deviation authority providing relief from the 
provisions of paragraph (a) of this section for the purpose of 
conducting flight training. The FAA will issue this deviation authority 
as a letter of deviation authority.
    (1) The FAA may cancel or amend a letter of deviation authority at 
any time.
    (2) An applicant must submit a request for deviation authority to 
the FAA at least 60 days before the date of intended operations. A 
request for deviation authority must contain a complete description of 
the proposed operation and justification that establishes a level of 
safety equivalent to that provided under the regulations for the 
deviation requested.
    (i) The Administrator may prescribe additional limitations that the 
Administrator considers necessary, including limitations on the persons 
that may be carried in the aircraft.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-282, 
69 FR 44881, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 91.321  Carriage of candidates in elections.

    (a) As an aircraft operator, you may receive payment for carrying a 
candidate, agent of a candidate, or person traveling on behalf of a 
candidate, running for Federal, State, or local election, without having 
to comply with the rules in parts 121, 125 or 135 of this chapter, under 
the following conditions:

[[Page 769]]

    (1) Your primary business is not as an air carrier or commercial 
operator;
    (2) You carry the candidate, agent, or person traveling on behalf of 
a candidate, under the rules of part 91; and
    (3) By Federal, state or local law, you are required to receive 
payment for carrying the candidate, agent, or person traveling on behalf 
of a candidate. For federal elections, the payment may not exceed the 
amount required by the Federal Election Commission. For a state or local 
election, the payment may not exceed the amount required under the 
applicable state or local law.
    (b) For the purposes of this section, for Federal elections, the 
terms candidate and election have the same meaning as set forth in the 
regulations of the Federal Election Commission. For State or local 
elections, the terms candidate and election have the same meaning as 
provided by the applicable State or local law and those terms relate to 
candidates for election to public office in State and local government 
elections.

[Doc. No. FAA-2005-20168, 70 FR 4982, Jan. 31, 2005]



Sec. 91.323  Increased maximum certificated weights for certain airplanes 

operated in Alaska.

    (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Federal Aviation 
Regulations, the Administrator will approve, as provided in this 
section, an increase in the maximum certificated weight of an airplane 
type certificated under Aeronautics Bulletin No. 7-A of the U.S. 
Department of Commerce dated January 1, 1931, as amended, or under the 
normal category of part 4a of the former Civil Air Regulations (14 CFR 
part 4a, 1964 ed.) if that airplane is operated in the State of Alaska 
by--
    (1) A certificate holder conducting operations under part 121 or 
part 135 of this chapter; or
    (2) The U.S. Department of Interior in conducting its game and fish 
law enforcement activities or its management, fire detection, and fire 
suppression activities concerning public lands.
    (b) The maximum certificated weight approved under this section may 
not exceed--
    (1) 12,500 pounds;
    (2) 115 percent of the maximum weight listed in the FAA aircraft 
specifications;
    (3) The weight at which the airplane meets the positive maneuvering 
load factor requirement for the normal category specified in Sec. 
23.337 of this chapter; or
    (4) The weight at which the airplane meets the climb performance 
requirements under which it was type certificated.
    (c) In determining the maximum certificated weight, the 
Administrator considers the structural soundness of the airplane and the 
terrain to be traversed.
    (d) The maximum certificated weight determined under this section is 
added to the airplane's operation limitations and is identified as the 
maximum weight authorized for operations within the State of Alaska.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 91-211, 54 FR 41211, 
Oct. 5, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-253, 62 FR 13253, Mar. 19, 1997]



Sec. 91.325  Primary category aircraft: Operating limitations.

    (a) No person may operate a primary category aircraft carrying 
persons or property for compensation or hire.
    (b) No person may operate a primary category aircraft that is 
maintained by the pilot-owner under an approved special inspection and 
maintenance program except--
    (1) The pilot-owner; or
    (2) A designee of the pilot-owner, provided that the pilot-owner 
does not receive compensation for the use of the aircraft.

[Doc. No. 23345, 57 FR 41370, Sept. 9, 1992]



Sec. 91.327  Aircraft having a special airworthiness certificate in the light-

sport category: Operating limitations.

    (a) No person may operate an aircraft that has a special 
airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category for compensation 
or hire except--
    (1) To tow a glider or an unpowered ultralight vehicle in accordance 
with Sec. 91.309 of this chapter; or
    (2) To conduct flight training.

[[Page 770]]

    (b) No person may operate an aircraft that has a special 
airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category unless--
    (1) The aircraft is maintained by a certificated repairman with a 
light-sport aircraft maintenance rating, an appropriately rated 
mechanic, or an appropriately rated repair station in accordance with 
the applicable provisions of part 43 of this chapter and maintenance and 
inspection procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or a person 
acceptable to the FAA;
    (2) A condition inspection is performed once every 12 calendar 
months by a certificated repairman (light-sport aircraft) with a 
maintenance rating, an appropriately rated mechanic, or an appropriately 
rated repair station in accordance with inspection procedures developed 
by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA;
    (3) The owner or operator complies with all applicable airworthiness 
directives;
    (4) The owner or operator complies with each safety directive 
applicable to the aircraft that corrects an existing unsafe condition. 
In lieu of complying with a safety directive an owner or operator may--
    (i) Correct the unsafe condition in a manner different from that 
specified in the safety directive provided the person issuing the 
directive concurs with the action; or
    (ii) Obtain an FAA waiver from the provisions of the safety 
directive based on a conclusion that the safety directive was issued 
without adhering to the applicable consensus standard;
    (5) Each alteration accomplished after the aircraft's date of 
manufacture meets the applicable and current consensus standard and has 
been authorized by either the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the 
FAA;
    (6) Each major alteration to an aircraft product produced under a 
consensus standard is authorized, performed and inspected in accordance 
with maintenance and inspection procedures developed by the manufacturer 
or a person acceptable to the FAA; and
    (7) The owner or operator complies with the requirements for the 
recording of major repairs and major alterations performed on type-
certificated products in accordance with Sec. 43.9(d) of this chapter, 
and with the retention requirements in Sec. 91.417.
    (c) No person may operate an aircraft issued a special airworthiness 
certificate in the light-sport category to tow a glider or unpowered 
ultralight vehicle for compensation or hire or conduct flight training 
for compensation or hire in an aircraft which that persons provides 
unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft 
has--
    (1) Been inspected by a certificated repairman with a light-sport 
aircraft maintenance rating, an appropriately rated mechanic, or an 
appropriately rated repair station in accordance with inspection 
procedures developed by the aircraft manufacturer or a person acceptable 
to the FAA and been approved for return to service in accordance with 
part 43 of this chapter; or
    (2) Received an inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness 
certificate in accordance with part 21 of this chapter.
    (d) Each person operating an aircraft issued a special airworthiness 
certificate in the light-sport category must operate the aircraft in 
accordance with the aircraft's operating instructions, including any 
provisions for necessary operating equipment specified in the aircraft's 
equipment list.
    (e) Each person operating an aircraft issued a special airworthiness 
certificate in the light-sport category must advise each person carried 
of the special nature of the aircraft and that the aircraft does not 
meet the airworthiness requirements for an aircraft issued a standard 
airworthiness certificate.
    (f) The FAA may prescribe additional limitations that it considers 
necessary.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44881, July 27, 2004]



Sec. Sec. 91.328-91.399  [Reserved]



     Subpart E_Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alterations

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.

[[Page 771]]



Sec. 91.401  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart prescribes rules governing the maintenance, 
preventive maintenance, and alterations of U.S.-registered civil 
aircraft operating within or outside of the United States.
    (b) Sections 91.405, 91.409, 91.411, 91.417, and 91.419 of this 
subpart do not apply to an aircraft maintained in accordance with a 
continuous airworthiness maintenance program as provided in part 121, 
129, or Sec. Sec. 91.1411 or 135.411(a)(2) of this chapter.
    (c) Sections 91.405 and 91.409 of this part do not apply to an 
airplane inspected in accordance with part 125 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-267, 
66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-280, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003]



Sec. 91.403  General.

    (a) The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible 
for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including 
compliance with part 39 of this chapter.
    (b) No person may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or 
alterations on an aircraft other than as prescribed in this subpart and 
other applicable regulations, including part 43 of this chapter.
    (c) No person may operate an aircraft for which a manufacturer's 
maintenance manual or instructions for continued airworthiness has been 
issued that contains an airworthiness limitations section unless the 
mandatory replacement times, inspection intervals, and related 
procedures specified in that section or alternative inspection intervals 
and related procedures set forth in an operations specification approved 
by the Administrator under part 121 or 135 of this chapter or in 
accordance with an inspection program approved under Sec. 91.409(e) 
have been complied with.
    (d) A person must not alter an aircraft based on a supplemental type 
certificate unless the owner or operator of the aircraft is the holder 
of the supplemental type certificate, or has written permission from the 
holder.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-267, 
66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-293, 71 FR 56005, Sept. 26, 2006]



Sec. 91.405  Maintenance required.

    Each owner or operator of an aircraft--
    (a) Shall have that aircraft inspected as prescribed in subpart E of 
this part and shall between required inspections, except as provided in 
paragraph (c) of this section, have discrepancies repaired as prescribed 
in part 43 of this chapter;
    (b) Shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries 
in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been 
approved for return to service;
    (c) Shall have any inoperative instrument or item of equipment, 
permitted to be inoperative by Sec. 91.213(d)(2) of this part, 
repaired, replaced, removed, or inspected at the next required 
inspection; and
    (d) When listed discrepancies include inoperative instruments or 
equipment, shall ensure that a placard has been installed as required by 
Sec. 43.11 of this chapter.



Sec. 91.407  Operation after maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, 

or alteration.

    (a) No person may operate any aircraft that has undergone 
maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration unless--
    (1) It has been approved for return to service by a person 
authorized under Sec. 43.7 of this chapter; and
    (2) The maintenance record entry required by Sec. 43.9 or Sec. 
43.11, as applicable, of this chapter has been made.
    (b) No person may carry any person (other than crewmembers) in an 
aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that 
may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially 
affected its operation in flight until an appropriately rated pilot with 
at least a private pilot certificate flies the aircraft, makes an 
operational check of

[[Page 772]]

the maintenance performed or alteration made, and logs the flight in the 
aircraft records.
    (c) The aircraft does not have to be flown as required by paragraph 
(b) of this section if, prior to flight, ground tests, inspection, or 
both show conclusively that the maintenance, preventive maintenance, 
rebuilding, or alteration has not appreciably changed the flight 
characteristics or substantially affected the flight operation of the 
aircraft.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)



Sec. 91.409  Inspections.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person 
may operate an aircraft unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, 
it has had--
    (1) An annual inspection in accordance with part 43 of this chapter 
and has been approved for return to service by a person authorized by 
Sec. 43.7 of this chapter; or
    (2) An inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate 
in accordance with part 21 of this chapter.

No inspection performed under paragraph (b) of this section may be 
substituted for any inspection required by this paragraph unless it is 
performed by a person authorized to perform annual inspections and is 
entered as an ``annual'' inspection in the required maintenance records.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person 
may operate an aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) 
for hire, and no person may give flight instruction for hire in an 
aircraft which that person provides, unless within the preceding 100 
hours of time in service the aircraft has received an annual or 100-hour 
inspection and been approved for return to service in accordance with 
part 43 of this chapter or has received an inspection for the issuance 
of an airworthiness certificate in accordance with part 21 of this 
chapter. The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 
hours while en route to reach a place where the inspection can be done. 
The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done 
must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.
    (c) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to--
    (1) An aircraft that carries a special flight permit, a current 
experimental certificate, or a light-sport or provisional airworthiness 
certificate;
    (2) An aircraft inspected in accordance with an approved aircraft 
inspection program under part 125 or 135 of this chapter and so 
identified by the registration number in the operations specifications 
of the certificate holder having the approved inspection program;
    (3) An aircraft subject to the requirements of paragraph (d) or (e) 
of this section; or
    (4) Turbine-powered rotorcraft when the operator elects to inspect 
that rotorcraft in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
    (d) Progressive inspection. Each registered owner or operator of an 
aircraft desiring to use a progressive inspection program must submit a 
written request to the FAA Flight Standards district office having 
jurisdiction over the area in which the applicant is located, and shall 
provide--
    (1) A certificated mechanic holding an inspection authorization, a 
certificated airframe repair station, or the manufacturer of the 
aircraft to supervise or conduct the progressive inspection;
    (2) A current inspection procedures manual available and readily 
understandable to pilot and maintenance personnel containing, in 
detail--
    (i) An explanation of the progressive inspection, including the 
continuity of inspection responsibility, the making of reports, and the 
keeping of records and technical reference material;
    (ii) An inspection schedule, specifying the intervals in hours or 
days when routine and detailed inspections will be performed and 
including instructions for exceeding an inspection interval by not more 
than 10 hours while en route and for changing an inspection interval 
because of service experience;
    (iii) Sample routine and detailed inspection forms and instructions 
for their use; and
    (iv) Sample reports and records and instructions for their use;

[[Page 773]]

    (3) Enough housing and equipment for necessary disassembly and 
proper inspection of the aircraft; and
    (4) Appropriate current technical information for the aircraft.

The frequency and detail of the progressive inspection shall provide for 
the complete inspection of the aircraft within each 12 calendar months 
and be consistent with the manufacturer's recommendations, field service 
experience, and the kind of operation in which the aircraft is engaged. 
The progressive inspection schedule must ensure that the aircraft, at 
all times, will be airworthy and will conform to all applicable FAA 
aircraft specifications, type certificate data sheets, airworthiness 
directives, and other approved data. If the progressive inspection is 
discontinued, the owner or operator shall immediately notify the local 
FAA Flight Standards district office, in writing, of the discontinuance. 
After the discontinuance, the first annual inspection under Sec. 
91.409(a)(1) is due within 12 calendar months after the last complete 
inspection of the aircraft under the progressive inspection. The 100-
hour inspection under Sec. 91.409(b) is due within 100 hours after that 
complete inspection. A complete inspection of the aircraft, for the 
purpose of determining when the annual and 100-hour inspections are due, 
requires a detailed inspection of the aircraft and all its components in 
accordance with the progressive inspection. A routine inspection of the 
aircraft and a detailed inspection of several components is not 
considered to be a complete inspection.
    (e) Large airplanes (to which part 125 is not applicable), turbojet 
multiengine airplanes, turbopropeller-powered multiengine airplanes, and 
turbine-powered rotorcraft. No person may operate a large airplane, 
turbojet multiengine airplane, turbopropeller-powered multiengine 
airplane, or turbine-powered rotorcraft unless the replacement times for 
life-limited parts specified in the aircraft specifications, type data 
sheets, or other documents approved by the Administrator are complied 
with and the airplane or turbine-powered rotorcraft, including the 
airframe, engines, propellers, rotors, appliances, survival equipment, 
and emergency equipment, is inspected in accordance with an inspection 
program selected under the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section, 
except that, the owner or operator of a turbine-powered rotorcraft may 
elect to use the inspection provisions of Sec. 91.409(a), (b), (c), or 
(d) in lieu of an inspection option of Sec. 91.409(f).
    (f) Selection of inspection program under paragraph (e) of this 
section. The registered owner or operator of each airplane or turbine-
powered rotorcraft described in paragraph (e) of this section must 
select, identify in the aircraft maintenance records, and use one of the 
following programs for the inspection of the aircraft:
    (1) A continuous airworthiness inspection program that is part of a 
continuous airworthiness maintenance program currently in use by a 
person holding an air carrier operating certificate or an operating 
certificate issued under part 121 or 135 of this chapter and operating 
that make and model aircraft under part 121 of this chapter or operating 
that make and model under part 135 of this chapter and maintaining it 
under Sec. 135.411(a)(2) of this chapter.
    (2) An approved aircraft inspection program approved under Sec. 
135.419 of this chapter and currently in use by a person holding an 
operating certificate issued under part 135 of this chapter.
    (3) A current inspection program recommended by the manufacturer.
    (4) Any other inspection program established by the registered owner 
or operator of that airplane or turbine-powered rotorcraft and approved 
by the Administrator under paragraph (g) of this section. However, the 
Administrator may require revision of this inspection program in 
accordance with the provisions of Sec. 91.415.

Each operator shall include in the selected program the name and address 
of the person responsible for scheduling the inspections required by the 
program and make a copy of that program available to the person 
performing inspections on the aircraft and, upon request, to the 
Administrator.
    (g) Inspection program approved under paragraph (e) of this section. 
Each operator of an airplane or turbine-powered rotorcraft desiring to 
establish or change an approved inspection program

[[Page 774]]

under paragraph (f)(4) of this section must submit the program for 
approval to the local FAA Flight Standards district office having 
jurisdiction over the area in which the aircraft is based. The program 
must be in writing and include at least the following information:
    (1) Instructions and procedures for the conduct of inspections for 
the particular make and model airplane or turbine-powered rotorcraft, 
including necessary tests and checks. The instructions and procedures 
must set forth in detail the parts and areas of the airframe, engines, 
propellers, rotors, and appliances, including survival and emergency 
equipment required to be inspected.
    (2) A schedule for performing the inspections that must be performed 
under the program expressed in terms of the time in service, calendar 
time, number of system operations, or any combination of these.
    (h) Changes from one inspection program to another. When an operator 
changes from one inspection program under paragraph (f) of this section 
to another, the time in service, calendar times, or cycles of operation 
accumulated under the previous program must be applied in determining 
inspection due times under the new program.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 91-211, 54 FR 41211, 
Oct. 5, 1989; Amdt. 91-267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-282, 69 
FR 44882, July 27, 2004]



Sec. 91.410  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.411  Altimeter system and altitude reporting equipment tests and 

inspections.

    (a) No person may operate an airplane, or helicopter, in controlled 
airspace under IFR unless--
    (1) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, each static pressure 
system, each altimeter instrument, and each automatic pressure altitude 
reporting system has been tested and inspected and found to comply with 
appendices E and F of part 43 of this chapter;
    (2) Except for the use of system drain and alternate static pressure 
valves, following any opening and closing of the static pressure system, 
that system has been tested and inspected and found to comply with 
paragraph (a), appendix E, of part 43 of this chapter; and
    (3) Following installation or maintenance on the automatic pressure 
altitude reporting system of the ATC transponder where data 
correspondence error could be introduced, the integrated system has been 
tested, inspected, and found to comply with paragraph (c), appendix E, 
of part 43 of this chapter.
    (b) The tests required by paragraph (a) of this section must be 
conducted by--
    (1) The manufacturer of the airplane, or helicopter, on which the 
tests and inspections are to be performed;
    (2) A certificated repair station properly equipped to perform those 
functions and holding--
    (i) An instrument rating, Class I;
    (ii) A limited instrument rating appropriate to the make and model 
of appliance to be tested;
    (iii) A limited rating appropriate to the test to be performed;
    (iv) An airframe rating appropriate to the airplane, or helicopter, 
to be tested; or
    (3) A certificated mechanic with an airframe rating (static pressure 
system tests and inspections only).
    (c) Altimeter and altitude reporting equipment approved under 
Technical Standard Orders are considered to be tested and inspected as 
of the date of their manufacture.
    (d) No person may operate an airplane, or helicopter, in controlled 
airspace under IFR at an altitude above the maximum altitude at which 
all altimeters and the automatic altitude reporting system of that 
airplane, or helicopter, have been tested.

[Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34308, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-
269, 66 FR 41116, Aug. 6, 2001; 72 FR 7739, Feb. 20, 2007]



Sec. 91.413  ATC transponder tests and inspections.

    (a) No persons may use an ATC transponder that is specified in 
91.215(a), 121.345(c), or Sec. 135.143(c) of this chapter unless, 
within the preceding 24 calendar months, the ATC transponder has been 
tested and inspected and

[[Page 775]]

found to comply with appendix F of part 43 of this chapter; and
    (b) Following any installation or maintenance on an ATC transponder 
where data correspondence error could be introduced, the integrated 
system has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with paragraph 
(c), appendix E, of part 43 of this chapter.
    (c) The tests and inspections specified in this section must be 
conducted by--
    (1) A certificated repair station properly equipped to perform those 
functions and holding--
    (i) A radio rating, Class III;
    (ii) A limited radio rating appropriate to the make and model 
transponder to be tested;
    (iii) A limited rating appropriate to the test to be performed;
    (2) A holder of a continuous airworthiness maintenance program as 
provided in part 121 or Sec. 135.411(a)(2) of this chapter; or
    (3) The manufacturer of the aircraft on which the transponder to be 
tested is installed, if the transponder was installed by that 
manufacturer.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-267, 
66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 91-269, 66 FR 41116, Aug. 6, 2001]



Sec. 91.415  Changes to aircraft inspection programs.

    (a) Whenever the Administrator finds that revisions to an approved 
aircraft inspection program under Sec. 91.409(f)(4) or Sec. 91.1109 
are necessary for the continued adequacy of the program, the owner or 
operator must, after notification by the Administrator, make any changes 
in the program found to be necessary by the Administrator.
    (b) The owner or operator may petition the Administrator to 
reconsider the notice to make any changes in a program in accordance 
with paragraph (a) of this section.
    (c) The petition must be filed with the Director, Flight Standards 
Service within 30 days after the certificate holder or fractional 
ownership program manager receives the notice.
    (d) Except in the case of an emergency requiring immediate action in 
the interest of safety, the filing of the petition stays the notice 
pending a decision by the Administrator.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34311, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 
68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003]



Sec. 91.417  Maintenance records.

    (a) Except for work performed in accordance with Sec. Sec. 91.411 
and 91.413, each registered owner or operator shall keep the following 
records for the periods specified in paragraph (b) of this section:
    (1) Records of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and 
alteration and records of the 100-hour, annual, progressive, and other 
required or approved inspections, as appropriate, for each aircraft 
(including the airframe) and each engine, propeller, rotor, and 
appliance of an aircraft. The records must include--
    (i) A description (or reference to data acceptable to the 
Administrator) of the work performed; and
    (ii) The date of completion of the work performed; and
    (iii) The signature, and certificate number of the person approving 
the aircraft for return to service.
    (2) Records containing the following information:
    (i) The total time in service of the airframe, each engine, each 
propeller, and each rotor.
    (ii) The current status of life-limited parts of each airframe, 
engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
    (iii) The time since last overhaul of all items installed on the 
aircraft which are required to be overhauled on a specified time basis.
    (iv) The current inspection status of the aircraft, including the 
time since the last inspection required by the inspection program under 
which the aircraft and its appliances are maintained.
    (v) The current status of applicable airworthiness directives (AD) 
including, for each, the method of compliance, the AD number, and 
revision date. If the AD involves recurring action, the time and date 
when the next action is required.
    (vi) Copies of the forms prescribed by Sec. 43.9(a) of this chapter 
for each major

[[Page 776]]

alteration to the airframe and currently installed engines, rotors, 
propellers, and appliances.
    (b) The owner or operator shall retain the following records for the 
periods prescribed:
    (1) The records specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall 
be retained until the work is repeated or superseded by other work or 
for 1 year after the work is performed.
    (2) The records specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall 
be retained and transferred with the aircraft at the time the aircraft 
is sold.
    (3) A list of defects furnished to a registered owner or operator 
under Sec. 43.11 of this chapter shall be retained until the defects 
are repaired and the aircraft is approved for return to service.
    (c) The owner or operator shall make all maintenance records 
required to be kept by this section available for inspection by the 
Administrator or any authorized representative of the National 
Transportation Safety Board (NTSB). In addition, the owner or operator 
shall present Form 337 described in paragraph (d) of this section for 
inspection upon request of any law enforcement officer.
    (d) When a fuel tank is installed within the passenger compartment 
or a baggage compartment pursuant to part 43 of this chapter, a copy of 
FAA Form 337 shall be kept on board the modified aircraft by the owner 
or operator.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)



Sec. 91.419  Transfer of maintenance records.

    Any owner or operator who sells a U.S.-registered aircraft shall 
transfer to the purchaser, at the time of sale, the following records of 
that aircraft, in plain language form or in coded form at the election 
of the purchaser, if the coded form provides for the preservation and 
retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the Administrator:
    (a) The records specified in Sec. 91.417(a)(2).
    (b) The records specified in Sec. 91.417(a)(1) which are not 
included in the records covered by paragraph (a) of this section, except 
that the purchaser may permit the seller to keep physical custody of 
such records. However, custody of records by the seller does not relieve 
the purchaser of the responsibility under Sec. 91.417(c) to make the 
records available for inspection by the Administrator or any authorized 
representative of the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB).



Sec. 91.421  Rebuilt engine maintenance records.

    (a) The owner or operator may use a new maintenance record, without 
previous operating history, for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the 
manufacturer or by an agency approved by the manufacturer.
    (b) Each manufacturer or agency that grants zero time to an engine 
rebuilt by it shall enter in the new record--
    (1) A signed statement of the date the engine was rebuilt;
    (2) Each change made as required by airworthiness directives; and
    (3) Each change made in compliance with manufacturer's service 
bulletins, if the entry is specifically requested in that bulletin.
    (c) For the purposes of this section, a rebuilt engine is a used 
engine that has been completely disassembled, inspected, repaired as 
necessary, reassembled, tested, and approved in the same manner and to 
the same tolerances and limits as a new engine with either new or used 
parts. However, all parts used in it must conform to the production 
drawing tolerances and limits for new parts or be of approved oversized 
or undersized dimensions for a new engine.



Sec. Sec. 91.423-91.499  [Reserved]



Subpart F_Large and Turbine-Powered Multiengine Airplanes and Fractional 

                       Ownership Program Aircraft

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.501  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart prescribes operating rules, in addition to those 
prescribed in other subparts of this part, governing the operation of 
large airplanes of U.S.

[[Page 777]]

registry, turbojet-powered multiengine civil airplanes of U.S. registry, 
and fractional ownership program aircraft of U.S. registry that are 
operating under subpart K of this part in operations not involving 
common carriage. The operating rules in this subpart do not apply to 
those aircraft when they are required to be operated under parts 121, 
125, 129, 135, and 137 of this chapter. (Section 91.409 prescribes an 
inspection program for large and for turbine-powered (turbojet and 
turboprop) multiengine airplanes and turbine-powered rotorcraft of U.S. 
registry when they are operated under this part or part 129 or 137.)
    (b) Operations that may be conducted under the rules in this subpart 
instead of those in parts 121, 129, 135, and 137 of this chapter when 
common carriage is not involved, include--
    (1) Ferry or training flights;
    (2) Aerial work operations such as aerial photography or survey, or 
pipeline patrol, but not including fire fighting operations;
    (3) Flights for the demonstration of an airplane to prospective 
customers when no charge is made except for those specified in paragraph 
(d) of this section;
    (4) Flights conducted by the operator of an airplane for his 
personal transportation, or the transportation of his guests when no 
charge, assessment, or fee is made for the transportation;
    (5) Carriage of officials, employees, guests, and property of a 
company on an airplane operated by that company, or the parent or a 
subsidiary of the company or a subsidiary of the parent, when the 
carriage is within the scope of, and incidental to, the business of the 
company (other than transportation by air) and no charge, assessment or 
fee is made for the carriage in excess of the cost of owning, operating, 
and maintaining the airplane, except that no charge of any kind may be 
made for the carriage of a guest of a company, when the carriage is not 
within the scope of, and incidental to, the business of that company;
    (6) The carriage of company officials, employees, and guests of the 
company on an airplane operated under a time sharing, interchange, or 
joint ownership agreement as defined in paragraph (c) of this section;
    (7) The carriage of property (other than mail) on an airplane 
operated by a person in the furtherance of a business or employment 
(other than transportation by air) when the carriage is within the scope 
of, and incidental to, that business or employment and no charge, 
assessment, or fee is made for the carriage other than those specified 
in paragraph (d) of this section;
    (8) The carriage on an airplane of an athletic team, sports group, 
choral group, or similar group having a common purpose or objective when 
there is no charge, assessment, or fee of any kind made by any person 
for that carriage; and
    (9) The carriage of persons on an airplane operated by a person in 
the furtherance of a business other than transportation by air for the 
purpose of selling them land, goods, or property, including franchises 
or distributorships, when the carriage is within the scope of, and 
incidental to, that business and no charge, assessment, or fee is made 
for that carriage.
    (10) Any operation identified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(9) of 
this section when conducted--
    (i) By a fractional ownership program manager, or
    (ii) By a fractional owner in a fractional ownership program 
aircraft operated under subpart K of this part, except that a flight 
under a joint ownership arrangement under paragraph (b)(6) of this 
section may not be conducted. For a flight under an interchange 
agreement under paragraph (b)(6) of this section, the exchange of equal 
time for the operation must be properly accounted for as part of the 
total hours associated with the fractional owner's share of ownership.
    (c) As used in this section--
    (1) A time sharing agreement means an arrangement whereby a person 
leases his airplane with flight crew to another person, and no charge is 
made for the flights conducted under that arrangement other than those 
specified in paragraph (d) of this section;
    (2) An interchange agreement means an arrangement whereby a person 
leases his airplane to another person in exchange for equal time, when 
needed, on

[[Page 778]]

the other person's airplane, and no charge, assessment, or fee is made, 
except that a charge may be made not to exceed the difference between 
the cost of owning, operating, and maintaining the two airplanes;
    (3) A joint ownership agreement means an arrangement whereby one of 
the registered joint owners of an airplane employs and furnishes the 
flight crew for that airplane and each of the registered joint owners 
pays a share of the charge specified in the agreement.
    (d) The following may be charged, as expenses of a specific flight, 
for transportation as authorized by paragraphs (b) (3) and (7) and 
(c)(1) of this section:
    (1) Fuel, oil, lubricants, and other additives.
    (2) Travel expenses of the crew, including food, lodging, and ground 
transportation.
    (3) Hangar and tie-down costs away from the aircraft's base of 
operation.
    (4) Insurance obtained for the specific flight.
    (5) Landing fees, airport taxes, and similar assessments.
    (6) Customs, foreign permit, and similar fees directly related to 
the flight.
    (7) In flight food and beverages.
    (8) Passenger ground transportation.
    (9) Flight planning and weather contract services.
    (10) An additional charge equal to 100 percent of the expenses 
listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 
68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003]



Sec. 91.503  Flying equipment and operating information.

    (a) The pilot in command of an airplane shall ensure that the 
following flying equipment and aeronautical charts and data, in current 
and appropriate form, are accessible for each flight at the pilot 
station of the airplane:
    (1) A flashlight having at least two size ``D'' cells, or the 
equivalent, that is in good working order.
    (2) A cockpit checklist containing the procedures required by 
paragraph (b) of this section.
    (3) Pertinent aeronautical charts.
    (4) For IFR, VFR over-the-top, or night operations, each pertinent 
navigational en route, terminal area, and approach and letdown chart.
    (5) In the case of multiengine airplanes, one-engine inoperative 
climb performance data.
    (b) Each cockpit checklist must contain the following procedures and 
shall be used by the flight crewmembers when operating the airplane:
    (1) Before starting engines.
    (2) Before takeoff.
    (3) Cruise.
    (4) Before landing.
    (5) After landing.
    (6) Stopping engines.
    (7) Emergencies.
    (c) Each emergency cockpit checklist procedure required by paragraph 
(b)(7) of this section must contain the following procedures, as 
appropriate:
    (1) Emergency operation of fuel, hydraulic, electrical, and 
mechanical systems.
    (2) Emergency operation of instruments and controls.
    (3) Engine inoperative procedures.
    (4) Any other procedures necessary for safety.
    (d) The equipment, charts, and data prescribed in this section shall 
be used by the pilot in command and other members of the flight crew, 
when pertinent.



Sec. 91.505  Familiarity with operating limitations and emergency equipment.

    (a) Each pilot in command of an airplane shall, before beginning a 
flight, become familiar with the Airplane Flight Manual for that 
airplane, if one is required, and with any placards, listings, 
instrument markings, or any combination thereof, containing each 
operating limitation prescribed for that airplane by the Administrator, 
including those specified in Sec. 91.9(b).
    (b) Each required member of the crew shall, before beginning a 
flight, become familiar with the emergency equipment installed on the 
airplane to which that crewmember is assigned and with the procedures to 
be followed for the use of that equipment in an emergency situation.

[[Page 779]]



Sec. 91.507  Equipment requirements: Over-the-top or night VFR operations.

    No person may operate an airplane over-the-top or at night under VFR 
unless that airplane is equipped with the instruments and equipment 
required for IFR operations under Sec. 91.205(d) and one electric 
landing light for night operations. Each required instrument and item of 
equipment must be in operable condition.



Sec. 91.509  Survival equipment for overwater operations.

    (a) No person may take off an airplane for a flight over water more 
than 50 nautical miles from the nearest shore unless that airplane is 
equipped with a life preserver or an approved flotation means for each 
occupant of the airplane.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person 
may take off an airplane for flight over water more than 30 minutes 
flying time or 100 nautical miles from the nearest shore, whichever is 
less, unless it has on board the following survival equipment:
    (1) A life preserver, equipped with an approved survivor locator 
light, for each occupant of the airplane.
    (2) Enough liferafts (each equipped with an approved survival 
locator light) of a rated capacity and buoyancy to accommodate the 
occupants of the airplane.
    (3) At least one pyrotechnic signaling device for each liferaft.
    (4) One self-buoyant, water-resistant, portable emergency radio 
signaling device that is capable of transmission on the appropriate 
emergency frequency or frequencies and not dependent upon the airplane 
power supply.
    (5) A lifeline stored in accordance with Sec. 25.1411(g) of this 
chapter.
    (c) A fractional ownership program manager under subpart K of this 
part may apply for a deviation from paragraphs (b)(2) through (5) of 
this section for a particular over water operation or the Administrator 
may amend the management specifications to require the carriage of all 
or any specific items of the equipment listed in paragraphs (b)(2) 
through (5) of this section.
    (d) The required life rafts, life preservers, and signaling devices 
must be installed in conspicuously marked locations and easily 
accessible in the event of a ditching without appreciable time for 
preparatory procedures.
    (e) A survival kit, appropriately equipped for the route to be 
flown, must be attached to each required life raft.
    (f) As used in this section, the term shore means that area of the 
land adjacent to the water that is above the high water mark and 
excludes land areas that are intermittently under water.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 
68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003]



Sec. 91.511  Communication and navigation equipment for overwater operations.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (c), (d), and (f) of this 
section, no person may take off an airplane for a flight over water more 
than 30 minutes flying time or 100 nautical miles from the nearest shore 
unless it has at least the following operable equipment:
    (1) Radio communication equipment appropriate to the facilities to 
be used and able to transmit to, and receive from, at least one 
communication facility from any place along the route:
    (i) Two transmitters.
    (ii) Two microphones.
    (iii) Two headsets or one headset and one speaker.
    (iv) Two independent receivers.
    (2) Appropriate electronic navigational equipment consisting of at 
least two independent electronic navigation units capable of providing 
the pilot with the information necessary to navigate the airplane within 
the airspace assigned by air traffic control. However, a receiver that 
can receive both communications and required navigational signals may be 
used in place of a separate communications receiver and a separate 
navigational signal receiver or unit.
    (b) For the purposes of paragraphs (a)(1)(iv) and (a)(2) of this 
section, a receiver or electronic navigation unit is independent if the 
function of any part

[[Page 780]]

of it does not depend on the functioning of any part of another receiver 
or electronic navigation unit.
    (c) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, 
a person may operate an airplane on which no passengers are carried from 
a place where repairs or replacement cannot be made to a place where 
they can be made, if not more than one of each of the dual items of 
radio communication and navigational equipment specified in paragraphs 
(a)(1) (i) through (iv) and (a)(2) of this section malfunctions or 
becomes inoperative.
    (d) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, 
when both VHF and HF communications equipment are required for the route 
and the airplane has two VHF transmitters and two VHF receivers for 
communications, only one HF transmitter and one HF receiver is required 
for communications.
    (e) As used in this section, the term shore means that area of the 
land adjacent to the water which is above the high-water mark and 
excludes land areas which are intermittently under water.
    (f) Notwithstanding the requirements in paragraph (a)(2) of this 
section, a person may operate in the Gulf of Mexico, the Caribbean Sea, 
and the Atlantic Ocean west of a line which extends from 
44[deg]47[min]00[sec] N / 67[deg]00[min]00[sec] W to 
39[deg]00[min]00[sec] N / 67[deg]00[min]00[sec] W to 
38[deg]30[min]00[sec] N / 60[deg]00[min]00[sec] W south along the 
60[deg]00[min]00[sec] W longitude line to the point where the line 
intersects with the northern coast of South America, when:
    (1) A single long-range navigation system is installed, operational, 
and appropriate for the route; and
    (2) Flight conditions and the aircraft's capabilities are such that 
no more than a 30-minute gap in two-way radio very high frequency 
communications is expected to exist.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-249, 
61 FR 7190, Feb. 26, 1996; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 91.513  Emergency equipment.

    (a) No person may operate an airplane unless it is equipped with the 
emergency equipment listed in this section.
    (b) Each item of equipment--
    (1) Must be inspected in accordance with Sec. 91.409 to ensure its 
continued serviceability and immediate readiness for its intended 
purposes;
    (2) Must be readily accessible to the crew;
    (3) Must clearly indicate its method of operation; and
    (4) When carried in a compartment or container, must have that 
compartment or container marked as to contents and date of last 
inspection.
    (c) Hand fire extinguishers must be provided for use in crew, 
passenger, and cargo compartments in accordance with the following:
    (1) The type and quantity of extinguishing agent must be suitable 
for the kinds of fires likely to occur in the compartment where the 
extinguisher is intended to be used.
    (2) At least one hand fire extinguisher must be provided and located 
on or near the flight deck in a place that is readily accessible to the 
flight crew.
    (3) At least one hand fire extinguisher must be conveniently located 
in the passenger compartment of each airplane accommodating more than 
six but less than 31 passengers, and at least two hand fire 
extinguishers must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment 
of each airplane accommodating more than 30 passengers.
    (4) Hand fire extinguishers must be installed and secured in such a 
manner that they will not interfere with the safe operation of the 
airplane or adversely affect the safety of the crew and passengers. They 
must be readily accessible and, unless the locations of the fire 
extinguishers are obvious, their stowage provisions must be properly 
identified.
    (d) First aid kits for treatment of injuries likely to occur in 
flight or in minor accidents must be provided.
    (e) Each airplane accommodating more than 19 passengers must be 
equipped with a crash axe.
    (f) Each passenger-carrying airplane must have a portable battery-
powered megaphone or megaphones readily accessible to the crewmembers 
assigned to direct emergency evacuation, installed as follows:

[[Page 781]]

    (1) One megaphone on each airplane with a seating capacity of more 
than 60 but less than 100 passengers, at the most rearward location in 
the passenger cabin where it would be readily accessible to a normal 
flight attendant seat. However, the Administrator may grant a deviation 
from the requirements of this subparagraph if the Administrator finds 
that a different location would be more useful for evacuation of persons 
during an emergency.
    (2) On each airplane with a seating capacity of 100 or more 
passengers, one megaphone installed at the forward end and one installed 
at the most rearward location where it would be readily accessible to a 
normal flight attendant seat.



Sec. 91.515  Flight altitude rules.

    (a) Notwithstanding Sec. 91.119, and except as provided in 
paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate an airplane under 
VFR at less than--
    (1) One thousand feet above the surface, or 1,000 feet from any 
mountain, hill, or other obstruction to flight, for day operations; and
    (2) The altitudes prescribed in Sec. 91.177, for night operations.
    (b) This section does not apply--
    (1) During takeoff or landing;
    (2) When a different altitude is authorized by a waiver to this 
section under subpart J of this part; or
    (3) When a flight is conducted under the special VFR weather 
minimums of Sec. 91.157 with an appropriate clearance from ATC.



Sec. 91.517  Passenger information.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person 
may operate an airplane carrying passengers unless it is equipped with 
signs that are visible to passengers and flight attendants to notify 
them when smoking is prohibited and when safety belts must be fastened. 
The signs must be so constructed that the crew can turn them on and off. 
They must be turned on during airplane movement on the surface, for each 
takeoff, for each landing, and when otherwise considered to be necessary 
by the pilot in command.
    (b) The pilot in command of an airplane that is not required, in 
accordance with applicable aircraft and equipment requirements of this 
chapter, to be equipped as provided in paragraph (a) of this section 
shall ensure that the passengers are notified orally each time that it 
is necessary to fasten their safety belts and when smoking is 
prohibited.
    (c) If passenger information signs are installed, no passenger or 
crewmember may smoke while any ``no smoking'' sign is lighted nor may 
any passenger or crewmember smoke in any lavatory.
    (d) Each passenger required by Sec. 91.107(a)(3) to occupy a seat 
or berth shall fasten his or her safety belt about him or her and keep 
it fastened while any ``fasten seat belt'' sign is lighted.
    (e) Each passenger shall comply with instructions given him or her 
by crewmembers regarding compliance with paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of 
this section.

[Doc. No. 26142, 57 FR 42672, Sept. 15, 1992]



Sec. 91.519  Passenger briefing.

    (a) Before each takeoff the pilot in command of an airplane carrying 
passengers shall ensure that all passengers have been orally briefed 
on--
    (1) Smoking. Each passenger shall be briefed on when, where, and 
under what conditions smoking is prohibited. This briefing shall include 
a statement, as appropriate, that the Federal Aviation Regulations 
require passenger compliance with lighted passenger information signs 
and no smoking placards, prohibit smoking in lavatories, and require 
compliance with crewmember instructions with regard to these items;
    (2) Use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses. Each passenger shall 
be briefed on when, where, and under what conditions it is necessary to 
have his or her safety belt and, if installed, his or her shoulder 
harness fastened about him or her. This briefing shall include a 
statement, as appropriate, that Federal Aviation Regulations require 
passenger compliance with the lighted passenger sign and/or crewmember 
instructions with regard to these items;
    (3) Location and means for opening the passenger entry door and 
emergency exits;
    (4) Location of survival equipment;
    (5) Ditching procedures and the use of flotation equipment required 
under Sec. 91.509 for a flight over water; and

[[Page 782]]

    (6) The normal and emergency use of oxygen equipment installed on 
the airplane.
    (b) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section 
shall be given by the pilot in command or a member of the crew, but need 
not be given when the pilot in command determines that the passengers 
are familiar with the contents of the briefing. It may be supplemented 
by printed cards for the use of each passenger containing--
    (1) A diagram of, and methods of operating, the emergency exits; and
    (2) Other instructions necessary for use of emergency equipment.
    (c) Each card used under paragraph (b) must be carried in convenient 
locations on the airplane for the use of each passenger and must contain 
information that is pertinent only to the type and model airplane on 
which it is used.
    (d) For operations under subpart K of this part, the passenger 
briefing requirements of Sec. 91.1035 apply, instead of the 
requirements of paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-231, 
57 FR 42672, Sept. 15, 1992; Amdt. 91-280, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003]



Sec. 91.521  Shoulder harness.

    (a) No person may operate a transport category airplane that was 
type certificated after January 1, 1958, unless it is equipped at each 
seat at a flight deck station with a combined safety belt and shoulder 
harness that meets the applicable requirements specified in Sec. 25.785 
of this chapter, except that--
    (1) Shoulder harnesses and combined safety belt and shoulder 
harnesses that were approved and installed before March 6, 1980, may 
continue to be used; and
    (2) Safety belt and shoulder harness restraint systems may be 
designed to the inertia load factors established under the certification 
basis of the airplane.
    (b) No person may operate a transport category airplane unless it is 
equipped at each required flight attendant seat in the passenger 
compartment with a combined safety belt and shoulder harness that meets 
the applicable requirements specified in Sec. 25.785 of this chapter, 
except that--
    (1) Shoulder harnesses and combined safety belt and shoulder 
harnesses that were approved and installed before March 6, 1980, may 
continue to be used; and
    (2) Safety belt and shoulder harness restraint systems may be 
designed to the inertia load factors established under the certification 
basis of the airplane.



Sec. 91.523  Carry-on baggage.

    No pilot in command of an airplane having a seating capacity of more 
than 19 passengers may permit a passenger to stow baggage aboard that 
airplane except--
    (a) In a suitable baggage or cargo storage compartment, or as 
provided in Sec. 91.525; or
    (b) Under a passenger seat in such a way that it will not slide 
forward under crash impacts severe enough to induce the ultimate inertia 
forces specified in Sec. 25.561(b)(3) of this chapter, or the 
requirements of the regulations under which the airplane was type 
certificated. Restraining devices must also limit sideward motion of 
under-seat baggage and be designed to withstand crash impacts severe 
enough to induce sideward forces specified in Sec. 25.561(b)(3) of this 
chapter.



Sec. 91.525  Carriage of cargo.

    (a) No pilot in command may permit cargo to be carried in any 
airplane unless--
    (1) It is carried in an approved cargo rack, bin, or compartment 
installed in the airplane;
    (2) It is secured by means approved by the Administrator; or
    (3) It is carried in accordance with each of the following:
    (i) It is properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having 
enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting under all 
normally anticipated flight and ground conditions.
    (ii) It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to 
passengers.
    (iii) It does not impose any load on seats or on the floor structure 
that exceeds the load limitation for those components.

[[Page 783]]

    (iv) It is not located in a position that restricts the access to or 
use of any required emergency or regular exit, or the use of the aisle 
between the crew and the passenger compartment.
    (v) It is not carried directly above seated passengers.
    (b) When cargo is carried in cargo compartments that are designed to 
require the physical entry of a crewmember to extinguish any fire that 
may occur during flight, the cargo must be loaded so as to allow a 
crewmember to effectively reach all parts of the compartment with the 
contents of a hand fire extinguisher.



Sec. 91.527  Operating in icing conditions.

    (a) No pilot may take off an airplane that has--
    (1) Frost, snow, or ice adhering to any propeller, windshield, or 
powerplant installation or to an airspeed, altimeter, rate of climb, or 
flight attitude instrument system;
    (2) Snow or ice adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control 
surfaces; or
    (3) Any frost adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control 
surfaces, unless that frost has been polished to make it smooth.
    (b) Except for an airplane that has ice protection provisions that 
meet the requirements in section 34 of Special Federal Aviation 
Regulation No. 23, or those for transport category airplane type 
certification, no pilot may fly--
    (1) Under IFR into known or forecast moderate icing conditions; or
    (2) Under VFR into known light or moderate icing conditions unless 
the aircraft has functioning de-icing or anti-icing equipment protecting 
each propeller, windshield, wing, stabilizing or control surface, and 
each airspeed, altimeter, rate of climb, or flight attitude instrument 
system.
    (c) Except for an airplane that has ice protection provisions that 
meet the requirements in section 34 of Special Federal Aviation 
Regulation No. 23, or those for transport category airplane type 
certification, no pilot may fly an airplane into known or forecast 
severe icing conditions.
    (d) If current weather reports and briefing information relied upon 
by the pilot in command indicate that the forecast icing conditions that 
would otherwise prohibit the flight will not be encountered during the 
flight because of changed weather conditions since the forecast, the 
restrictions in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section based on forecast 
conditions do not apply.



Sec. 91.529  Flight engineer requirements.

    (a) No person may operate the following airplanes without a flight 
crewmember holding a current flight engineer certificate:
    (1) An airplane for which a type certificate was issued before 
January 2, 1964, having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more 
than 80,000 pounds.
    (2) An airplane type certificated after January 1, 1964, for which a 
flight engineer is required by the type certification requirements.
    (b) No person may serve as a required flight engineer on an airplane 
unless, within the preceding 6 calendar months, that person has had at 
least 50 hours of flight time as a flight engineer on that type airplane 
or has been checked by the Administrator on that type airplane and is 
found to be familiar and competent with all essential current 
information and operating procedures.



Sec. 91.531  Second in command requirements.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) and (d) of this section, no 
person may operate the following airplanes without a pilot who is 
designated as second in command of that airplane:
    (1) A large airplane, except that a person may operate an airplane 
certificated under SFAR 41 without a pilot who is designated as second 
in command if that airplane is certificated for operation with one 
pilot.
    (2) A turbojet-powered multiengine airplane for which two pilots are 
required under the type certification requirements for that airplane.
    (3) A commuter category airplane, except that a person may operate a 
commuter category airplane notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this 
section, that has a passenger seating configuration, excluding pilot 
seats, of nine or less without a pilot who is designated as second in 
command if that

[[Page 784]]

airplane is type certificated for operations with one pilot.
    (b) The Administrator may issue a letter of authorization for the 
operation of an airplane without compliance with the requirements of 
paragraph (a) of this section if that airplane is designed for and type 
certificated with only one pilot station. The authorization contains any 
conditions that the Administrator finds necessary for safe operation.
    (c) No person may designate a pilot to serve as second in command, 
nor may any pilot serve as second in command, of an airplane required 
under this section to have two pilots unless that pilot meets the 
qualifications for second in command prescribed in Sec. 61.55 of this 
chapter.
    (d) No person may operate an aircraft under subpart K of this part 
without a pilot who is designated as second in command of that aircraft 
in accordance with Sec. 91.1049(d). The second in command must meet the 
experience requirements of Sec. 91.1053.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34314, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-280, 
68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003]



Sec. 91.533  Flight attendant requirements.

    (a) No person may operate an airplane unless at least the following 
number of flight attendants are on board the airplane:
    (1) For airplanes having more than 19 but less than 51 passengers on 
board, one flight attendant.
    (2) For airplanes having more than 50 but less than 101 passengers 
on board, two flight attendants.
    (3) For airplanes having more than 100 passengers on board, two 
flight attendants plus one additional flight attendant for each unit (or 
part of a unit) of 50 passengers above 100.
    (b) No person may serve as a flight attendant on an airplane when 
required by paragraph (a) of this section unless that person has 
demonstrated to the pilot in command familiarity with the necessary 
functions to be performed in an emergency or a situation requiring 
emergency evacuation and is capable of using the emergency equipment 
installed on that airplane.



Sec. 91.535  Stowage of food, beverage, and passenger service equipment during 

aircraft movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.

    (a) No operator may move an aircraft on the surface, take off, or 
land when any food, beverage, or tableware furnished by the operator is 
located at any passenger seat.
    (b) No operator may move an aircraft on the surface, take off, or 
land unless each food and beverage tray and seat back tray table is 
secured in its stowed position.
    (c) No operator may permit an aircraft to move on the surface, take 
off, or land unless each passenger serving cart is secured in its stowed 
position.
    (d) No operator may permit an aircraft to move on the surface, take 
off, or land unless each movie screen that extends into the aisle is 
stowed.
    (e) Each passenger shall comply with instructions given by a 
crewmember with regard to compliance with this section.

[Doc. No. 26142, 57 FR 42672, Sept. 15, 1992]



Sec. Sec. 91.536-91.599  [Reserved]



Subpart G_Additional Equipment and Operating Requirements for Large and 

                       Transport Category Aircraft

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34318, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.601  Applicability.

    This subpart applies to operation of large and transport category 
U.S.-registered civil aircraft.



Sec. 91.603  Aural speed warning device.

    No person may operate a transport category airplane in air commerce 
unless that airplane is equipped with an aural speed warning device that 
complies with Sec. 25.1303(c)(1).



Sec. 91.605  Transport category civil airplane weight limitations.

    (a) No person may take off any transport category airplane (other 
than a turbine-engine-powered airplane certificated after September 30, 
1958) unless--

[[Page 785]]

    (1) The takeoff weight does not exceed the authorized maximum 
takeoff weight for the elevation of the airport of takeoff;
    (2) The elevation of the airport of takeoff is within the altitude 
range for which maximum takeoff weights have been determined;
    (3) Normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight to the airport of 
intended landing will leave a weight on arrival not in excess of the 
authorized maximum landing weight for the elevation of that airport; and
    (4) The elevations of the airport of intended landing and of all 
specified alternate airports are within the altitude range for which the 
maximum landing weights have been determined.
    (b) No person may operate a turbine-engine-powered transport 
category airplane certificated after September 30, 1958, contrary to the 
Airplane Flight Manual, or take off that airplane unless--
    (1) The takeoff weight does not exceed the takeoff weight specified 
in the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the airport and for 
the ambient temperature existing at the time of takeoff;
    (2) Normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight to the airport of 
intended landing and to the alternate airports will leave a weight on 
arrival not in excess of the landing weight specified in the Airplane 
Flight Manual for the elevation of each of the airports involved and for 
the ambient temperatures expected at the time of landing;
    (3) The takeoff weight does not exceed the weight shown in the 
Airplane Flight Manual to correspond with the minimum distances required 
for takeoff, considering the elevation of the airport, the runway to be 
used, the effective runway gradient, the ambient temperature and wind 
component at the time of takeoff, and, if operating limitations exist 
for the minimum distances required for takeoff from wet runways, the 
runway surface condition (dry or wet). Wet runway distances associated 
with grooved or porous friction course runways, if provided in the 
Airplane Flight Manual, may be used only for runways that are grooved or 
treated with a porous friction course (PFC) overlay, and that the 
operator determines are designed, constructed, and maintained in a 
manner acceptable to the Administrator.
    (4) Where the takeoff distance includes a clearway, the clearway 
distance is not greater than one-half of--
    (i) The takeoff run, in the case of airplanes certificated after 
September 30, 1958, and before August 30, 1959; or
    (ii) The runway length, in the case of airplanes certificated after 
August 29, 1959.
    (c) No person may take off a turbine-engine-powered transport 
category airplane certificated after August 29, 1959, unless, in 
addition to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section--
    (1) The accelerate-stop distance is no greater than the length of 
the runway plus the length of the stopway (if present); and
    (2) The takeoff distance is no greater than the length of the runway 
plus the length of the clearway (if present); and
    (3) The takeoff run is no greater than the length of the runway.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34318, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-256, 
63 FR 8321, Feb. 18, 1998]



Sec. 91.607  Emergency exits for airplanes carrying passengers for hire.

    (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, no person 
may operate a large airplane (type certificated under the Civil Air 
Regulations effective before April 9, 1957) in passenger-carrying 
operations for hire, with more than the number of occupants--
    (1) Allowed under Civil Air Regulations Sec. 4b.362 (a), (b), and 
(c) as in effect on December 20, 1951; or
    (2) Approved under Special Civil Air Regulations SR-387, SR-389, SR-
389A, or SR-389B, or under this section as in effect.

However, an airplane type listed in the following table may be operated 
with up to the listed number of occupants (including crewmembers) and 
the corresponding number of exits (including emergency exits and doors) 
approved for the emergency exit of passengers or with an occupant-exit 
configuration approved under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.

[[Page 786]]



------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                           Corresponding
                                          Maximum number     number of
              Airplane type                of occupants        exits
                                           including all  authorized for
                                            crewmembers    passenger use
------------------------------------------------------------------------
B-307...................................              61               4
B-377...................................              96               9
C-46....................................              67               4
CV-240..................................              53               6
CV-340 and CV-440.......................              53               6
DC-3....................................              35               4
DC-3 (Super)............................              39               5
DC-4....................................              86               5
DC-6....................................              87               7
DC-6B...................................             112              11
L-18....................................              17               3
L-049, L-649, L-749.....................              87               7
L-1049 series...........................              96               9
M-202...................................              53               6
M-404...................................              53               7
Viscount 700 series.....................              53               7
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    (b) Occupants in addition to those authorized under paragraph (a) of 
this section may be carried as follows:
    (1) For each additional floor-level exit at least 24 inches wide by 
48 inches high, with an unobstructed 20-inch-wide access aisleway 
between the exit and the main passenger aisle, 12 additional occupants.
    (2) For each additional window exit located over a wing that meets 
the requirements of the airworthiness standards under which the airplane 
was type certificated or that is large enough to inscribe an ellipse 
19x26 inches, eight additional occupants.
    (3) For each additional window exit that is not located over a wing 
but that otherwise complies with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, five 
additional occupants.
    (4) For each airplane having a ratio (as computed from the table in 
paragraph (a) of this section) of maximum number of occupants to number 
of exits greater than 14:1, and for each airplane that does not have at 
least one full-size, door-type exit in the side of the fuselage in the 
rear part of the cabin, the first additional exit must be a floor-level 
exit that complies with paragraph (b)(1) of this section and must be 
located in the rear part of the cabin on the opposite side of the 
fuselage from the main entrance door. However, no person may operate an 
airplane under this section carrying more than 115 occupants unless 
there is such an exit on each side of the fuselage in the rear part of 
the cabin.
    (c) No person may eliminate any approved exit except in accordance 
with the following:
    (1) The previously authorized maximum number of occupants must be 
reduced by the same number of additional occupants authorized for that 
exit under this section.
    (2) Exits must be eliminated in accordance with the following 
priority schedule: First, non-over-wing window exits; second, over-wing 
window exits; third, floor-level exits located in the forward part of 
the cabin; and fourth, floor-level exits located in the rear of the 
cabin.
    (3) At least one exit must be retained on each side of the fuselage 
regardless of the number of occupants.
    (4) No person may remove any exit that would result in a ratio of 
maximum number of occupants to approved exits greater than 14:1.
    (d) This section does not relieve any person operating under part 
121 of this chapter from complying with Sec. 121.291.



Sec. 91.609  Flight data recorders and cockpit voice recorders.

    (a) No holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an 
operating certificate may conduct any operation under this part with an 
aircraft listed in the holder's operations specifications or current 
list of aircraft used in air transportation unless that aircraft 
complies with any applicable flight recorder and cockpit voice recorder 
requirements of the part under which its certificate is issued except 
that the operator may--
    (1) Ferry an aircraft with an inoperative flight recorder or cockpit 
voice recorder from a place where repair or replacement cannot be made 
to a place where they can be made;
    (2) Continue a flight as originally planned, if the flight recorder 
or cockpit voice recorder becomes inoperative after the aircraft has 
taken off;
    (3) Conduct an airworthiness flight test during which the flight 
recorder or cockpit voice recorder is turned off to test it or to test 
any communications or electrical equipment installed in the aircraft; or
    (4) Ferry a newly acquired aircraft from the place where possession 
of it is

[[Page 787]]

taken to a place where the flight recorder or cockpit voice recorder is 
to be installed.
    (b) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c) and (e) of this section, an 
operator other than the holder of an air carrier or a commercial 
operator certificate may--
    (1) Ferry an aircraft with an inoperative flight recorder or cockpit 
voice recorder from a place where repair or replacement cannot be made 
to a place where they can be made;
    (2) Continue a flight as originally planned if the flight recorder 
or cockpit voice recorder becomes inoperative after the aircraft has 
taken off;
    (3) Conduct an airworthiness flight test during which the flight 
recorder or cockpit voice recorder is turned off to test it or to test 
any communications or electrical equipment installed in the aircraft;
    (4) Ferry a newly acquired aircraft from a place where possession of 
it was taken to a place where the flight recorder or cockpit voice 
recorder is to be installed; or
    (5) Operate an aircraft:
    (i) For not more than 15 days while the flight recorder and/or 
cockpit voice recorder is inoperative and/or removed for repair provided 
that the aircraft maintenance records contain an entry that indicates 
the date of failure, and a placard is located in view of the pilot to 
show that the flight recorder or cockpit voice recorder is inoperative.
    (ii) For not more than an additional 15 days, provided that the 
requirements in paragraph (b)(5)(i) are met and that a certificated 
pilot, or a certificated person authorized to return an aircraft to 
service under Sec. 43.7 of this chapter, certifies in the aircraft 
maintenance records that additional time is required to complete repairs 
or obtain a replacement unit.
    (c)(1) No person may operate a U.S. civil registered, multiengine, 
turbine-powered airplane or rotorcraft having a passenger seating 
configuration, excluding any pilot seats of 10 or more that has been 
manufactured after October 11, 1991, unless it is equipped with one or 
more approved flight recorders that utilize a digital method of 
recording and storing data and a method of readily retrieving that data 
from the storage medium, that are capable of recording the data 
specified in appendix E to this part, for an airplane, or appendix F to 
this part, for a rotorcraft, of this part within the range, accuracy, 
and recording interval specified, and that are capable of retaining no 
less than 8 hours of aircraft operation.
    (2) All airplanes subject to paragraph (c)(1) of this section that 
are manufactured before April 7, 2010, by April 7, 2012, must meet the 
requirements of Sec. 23.1459(a)(7) or Sec. 25.1459(a)(8) of this 
chapter, as applicable.
    (3) All airplanes and rotorcraft subject to paragraph (c)(1) of this 
section that are manufactured on or after April 7, 2010, must meet the 
flight data recorder requirements of Sec. 23.1459, Sec. 25.1459, Sec. 
27.1459, or Sec. 29.1459 of this chapter, as applicable, and retain at 
least the last 25 hours of recorded information using a recorder that 
meets the standards of TSO-C124a, or later revision.
    (d) Whenever a flight recorder, required by this section, is 
installed, it must be operated continuously from the instant the 
airplane begins the takeoff roll or the rotorcraft begins lift-off until 
the airplane has completed the landing roll or the rotorcraft has landed 
at its destination.
    (e) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, after October 
11, 1991, no person may operate a U.S. civil registered multiengine, 
turbine-powered airplane or rotorcraft having a passenger seating 
configuration of six passengers or more and for which two pilots are 
required by type certification or operating rule unless it is equipped 
with an approved cockpit voice recorder that:
    (1) Is installed in compliance with Sec. 23.1457(a) (1) and (2), 
(b), (c), (d), (e), (f), and (g); Sec. 25.1457(a) (1) and (2), (b), 
(c), (d), (e), (f), and (g); Sec. 27.1457(a) (1) and (2), (b), (c), 
(d), (e), (f), and (g); or Sec. 29.1457(a) (1) and (2), (b), (c), (d), 
(e), (f), and (g) of this chapter, as applicable; and
    (2) Is operated continuously from the use of the checklist before 
the flight to completion of the final checklist at the end of the 
flight.
    (f) In complying with this section, an approved cockpit voice 
recorder having an erasure feature may be used, so that

[[Page 788]]

at any time during the operation of the recorder, information recorded 
more than 15 minutes earlier may be erased or otherwise obliterated.
    (g) In the event of an accident or occurrence requiring immediate 
notification to the National Transportation Safety Board under part 830 
of its regulations that results in the termination of the flight, any 
operator who has installed approved flight recorders and approved 
cockpit voice recorders shall keep the recorded information for at least 
60 days or, if requested by the Administrator or the Board, for a longer 
period. Information obtained from the record is used to assist in 
determining the cause of accidents or occurrences in connection with the 
investigation under part 830. The Administrator does not use the cockpit 
voice recorder record in any civil penalty or certificate action.
    (h) All airplanes required by this section to have a cockpit voice 
recorder and a flight data recorder, that are manufactured before April 
7, 2010, must by April 7, 2012, have a cockpit voice recorder that 
also--
    (1) Meets the requirements of Sec. 23.1457(d)(6) or Sec. 
25.1457(d)(6) of this chapter, as applicable; and
    (2) If transport category, meets the requirements of Sec. 
25.1457(a)(3), (a)(4), and (a)(5) of this chapter.
    (i) All airplanes or rotorcraft required by this section to have a 
cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder, that are manufactured 
on or after April 7, 2010, must have a cockpit voice recorder installed 
that also--
    (1) Meets the requirements of Sec. 23.1457, Sec. 25.1457, Sec. 
27.1457, or Sec. 29.1457 of this chapter, as applicable; and
    (2) Retains at least the last 2 hours of recorded information using 
a recorder that meets the standards of TSO-C123a, or later revision.
    (j) All airplanes or rotorcraft required by this section to have a 
cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder, that install datalink 
communication equipment on or after April 7, 2010, must record all 
datalink messages as required by the certification rule applicable to 
the aircraft.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34318, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-226, 
56 FR 51621, Oct. 11, 1991; Amdt. 91-228, 57 FR 19353, May 5, 1992; 
Amdt. 91-300, 73 FR 12564, Mar. 7, 2008]

    Effective Date Note: At 73 FR 73178, Dec. 2, 2008, Sec. 91.609 was 
amended by adding a new paragraph (k), effective Feb. 2, 2009. For the 
convenience of the user, the added text is set forth as follows:



Sec. 91.609  Flight data recorders and cockpit voice recorders.

                                * * * * *

    (k) An aircraft operated under this part under deviation authority 
from part 125 of this chapter must comply with all of the applicable 
flight data recorder requirements of part 125 applicable to the 
aircraft, notwithstanding such deviation authority.



Sec. 91.611  Authorization for ferry flight with one engine inoperative.

    (a) General. The holder of an air carrier operating certificate or 
an operating certificate issued under part 125 may conduct a ferry 
flight of a four-engine airplane or a turbine-engine-powered airplane 
equipped with three engines, with one engine inoperative, to a base for 
the purpose of repairing that engine subject to the following:
    (1) The airplane model has been test flown and found satisfactory 
for safe flight in accordance with paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, 
as appropriate. However, each operator who before November 19, 1966, has 
shown that a model of airplane with an engine inoperative is 
satisfactory for safe flight by a test flight conducted in accordance 
with performance data contained in the applicable Airplane Flight Manual 
under paragraph (a)(2) of this section need not repeat the test flight 
for that model.
    (2) The approved Airplane Flight Manual contains the following 
performance data and the flight is conducted in accordance with that 
data:
    (i) Maximum weight.
    (ii) Center of gravity limits.
    (iii) Configuration of the inoperative propeller (if applicable).
    (iv) Runway length for takeoff (including temperature 
accountability).
    (v) Altitude range.
    (vi) Certificate limitations.

[[Page 789]]

    (vii) Ranges of operational limits.
    (viii) Performance information.
    (ix) Operating procedures.
    (3) The operator has FAA approved procedures for the safe operation 
of the airplane, including specific requirements for--
    (i) Limiting the operating weight on any ferry flight to the minimum 
necessary for the flight plus the necessary reserve fuel load;
    (ii) A limitation that takeoffs must be made from dry runways 
unless, based on a showing of actual operating takeoff techniques on wet 
runways with one engine inoperative, takeoffs with full controllability 
from wet runways have been approved for the specific model aircraft and 
included in the Airplane Flight Manual:
    (iii) Operations from airports where the runways may require a 
takeoff or approach over populated areas; and
    (iv) Inspection procedures for determining the operating condition 
of the operative engines.
    (4) No person may take off an airplane under this section if--
    (i) The initial climb is over thickly populated areas; or
    (ii) Weather conditions at the takeoff or destination airport are 
less than those required for VFR flight.
    (5) Persons other than required flight crewmembers shall not be 
carried during the flight.
    (6) No person may use a flight crewmember for flight under this 
section unless that crewmember is thoroughly familiar with the operating 
procedures for one-engine inoperative ferry flight contained in the 
certificate holder's manual and the limitations and performance 
information in the Airplane Flight Manual.
    (b) Flight tests: reciprocating-engine-powered airplanes. The 
airplane performance of a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane with one 
engine inoperative must be determined by flight test as follows:
    (1) A speed not less than 1.3 VS1 must be chosen at which 
the airplane may be controlled satisfactorily in a climb with the 
critical engine inoperative (with its propeller removed or in a 
configuration desired by the operator and with all other engines 
operating at the maximum power determined in paragraph (b)(3) of this 
section.
    (2) The distance required to accelerate to the speed listed in 
paragraph (b)(1) of this section and to climb to 50 feet must be 
determined with--
    (i) The landing gear extended;
    (ii) The critical engine inoperative and its propeller removed or in 
a configuration desired by the operator; and
    (iii) The other engines operating at not more than maximum power 
established under paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
    (3) The takeoff, flight and landing procedures, such as the 
approximate trim settings, method of power application, maximum power, 
and speed must be established.
    (4) The performance must be determined at a maximum weight not 
greater than the weight that allows a rate of climb of at least 400 feet 
per minute in the en route configuration set forth in Sec. 25.67(d) of 
this chapter in effect on January 31, 1977, at an altitude of 5,000 
feet.
    (5) The performance must be determined using temperature 
accountability for the takeoff field length, computed in accordance with 
Sec. 25.61 of this chapter in effect on January 31, 1977.
    (c) Flight tests: Turbine-engine-powered airplanes. The airplane 
performance of a turbine-engine-powered airplane with one engine 
inoperative must be determined by flight tests, including at least three 
takeoff tests, in accordance with the following:
    (1) Takeoff speeds VR and V2, not less than 
the corresponding speeds under which the airplane was type certificated 
under Sec. 25.107 of this chapter, must be chosen at which the airplane 
may be controlled satisfactorily with the critical engine inoperative 
(with its propeller removed or in a configuration desired by the 
operator, if applicable) and with all other engines operating at not 
more than the power selected for type certification as set forth in 
Sec. 25.101 of this chapter.
    (2) The minimum takeoff field length must be the horizontal distance 
required to accelerate and climb to the 35-foot height at V2 
speed (including

[[Page 790]]

any additional speed increment obtained in the tests) multiplied by 115 
percent and determined with--
    (i) The landing gear extended;
    (ii) The critical engine inoperative and its propeller removed or in 
a configuration desired by the operator (if applicable); and
    (iii) The other engine operating at not more than the power selected 
for type certification as set forth in Sec. 25.101 of this chapter.
    (3) The takeoff, flight, and landing procedures such as the 
approximate trim setting, method of power application, maximum power, 
and speed must be established. The airplane must be satisfactorily 
controllable during the entire takeoff run when operated according to 
these procedures.
    (4) The performance must be determined at a maximum weight not 
greater than the weight determined under Sec. 25.121(c) of this chapter 
but with--
    (i) The actual steady gradient of the final takeoff climb 
requirement not less than 1.2 percent at the end of the takeoff path 
with two critical engines inoperative; and
    (ii) The climb speed not less than the two-engine inoperative trim 
speed for the actual steady gradient of the final takeoff climb 
prescribed by paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section.
    (5) The airplane must be satisfactorily controllable in a climb with 
two critical engines inoperative. Climb performance may be shown by 
calculations based on, and equal in accuracy to, the results of testing.
    (6) The performance must be determined using temperature 
accountability for takeoff distance and final takeoff climb computed in 
accordance with Sec. 25.101 of this chapter.

For the purpose of paragraphs (c)(4) and (5) of this section, two 
critical engines means two adjacent engines on one side of an airplane 
with four engines, and the center engine and one outboard engine on an 
airplane with three engines.



Sec. 91.613  Materials for compartment interiors.

    (a) No person may operate an airplane that conforms to an amended or 
supplemental type certificate issued in accordance with SFAR No. 41 for 
a maximum certificated takeoff weight in excess of 12,500 pounds unless 
within 1 year after issuance of the initial airworthiness certificate 
under that SFAR the airplane meets the compartment interior requirements 
set forth in Sec. 25.853 (a), (b), (b-1), (b-2), and (b-3) of this 
chapter in effect on September 26, 1978.
    (b) Thermal/acoustic insulation materials. For transport category 
airplanes type certificated after January 1, 1958:
    (1) For airplanes manufactured before September 2, 2005, when 
thermal/acoustic insulation is installed in the fuselage as replacements 
after September 2, 2005, the insulation must meet the flame propagation 
requirements of Sec. 25.856 of this chapter, effective September 2, 
2003, if it is:
    (i) Of a blanket construction or
    (ii) Installed around air ducting.
    (2) For airplanes manufactured after September 2, 2005, thermal/
acoustic insulation materials installed in the fuselage must meet the 
flame propagation requirements of Sec. 25.856 of this chapter, 
effective September 2, 2003.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34318, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-279, 
68 FR 45083, July 31, 2003; Amdt. 91-290, 70 FR 77752, Dec. 30, 2005]



Sec. Sec. 91.615-91.699  [Reserved]



Subpart H_Foreign Aircraft Operations and Operations of U.S.-Registered 

Civil Aircraft Outside of the United States; and Rules Governing Persons 

                         on Board Such Aircraft

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34320, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.701  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart applies to the operations of civil aircraft of U.S. 
registry outside of the United States and the operations of foreign 
civil aircraft within the United States.
    (b) Section 91.702 of this subpart also applies to each person on 
board an aircraft operated as follows:
    (1) A U.S. registered civil aircraft operated outside the United 
States;

[[Page 791]]

    (2) Any aircraft operated outside the United States--
    (i) That has its next scheduled destination or last place of 
departure in the United States if the aircraft next lands in the United 
States; or
    (ii) If the aircraft lands in the United States with the individual 
still on the aircraft regardless of whether it was a scheduled or 
otherwise planned landing site.

[Doc. No. FAA-1998-4954, 64 FR 1079, Jan. 7, 1999]



Sec. 91.702  Persons on board.

    Section 91.11 of this part (Prohibitions on interference with 
crewmembers) applies to each person on board an aircraft.

[Doc. No. FAA-1998-4954, 64 FR 1079, Jan. 7, 1999]



Sec. 91.703  Operations of civil aircraft of U.S. registry outside of the 

United States.

    (a) Each person operating a civil aircraft of U.S. registry outside 
of the United States shall--
    (1) When over the high seas, comply with annex 2 (Rules of the Air) 
to the Convention on International Civil Aviation and with Sec. Sec. 
91.117(c), 91.127, 91.129, and 91.131;
    (2) When within a foreign country, comply with the regulations 
relating to the flight and maneuver of aircraft there in force;
    (3) Except for Sec. Sec. 91.117(a), 91.307(b), 91.309, 91.323, and 
91.711, comply with this part so far as it is not inconsistent with 
applicable regulations of the foreign country where the aircraft is 
operated or annex 2 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation; 
and
    (4) When operating within airspace designated as Minimum Navigation 
Performance Specifications (MNPS) airspace, comply with Sec. 91.705. 
When operating within airspace designated as Reduced Vertical Separation 
Minimum (RVSM) airspace, comply with Sec. 91.706.
    (b) Annex 2 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, Ninth 
Edition--July 1990, with Amendments through Amendment 32 effective 
February 19, 1996, to which reference is made in this part, is 
incorporated into this part and made a part hereof as provided in 5 
U.S.C. Sec. 552 and pursuant to 1 CFR part 51. Annex 2 (including a 
complete historic file of changes thereto) is available for public 
inspection at the Rules Docket, AGC-200, Federal Aviation 
Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; or at 
the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information 
on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go 
to: http://www.archives.gov/federal--register/code--of--federal--
regulations/ibr--locations.html. In addition, Annex 2 may be purchased 
from the International Civil Aviation Organization (Attention: 
Distribution Officer), P.O. Box 400, Succursale, Place de L'Aviation 
Internationale, 1000 Sherbrooke Street West, Montreal, Quebec, Canada 
H3A 2R2.

[Doc. No. 18834, 54 FR 34320, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 
56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-254, 62 FR 17487, Apr. 9, 1997; 69 
FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004; Amdt. 91-299, 73 FR 10143, Feb. 26, 2008]



Sec. 91.705  Operations within airspace designated as Minimum Navigation 

Performance Specification Airspace.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person 
may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry in airspace designated as 
Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications airspace unless--
    (1) The aircraft has approved navigation performance capability that 
complies with the requirements of appendix C of this part; and
    (2) The operator is authorized by the Administrator to perform such 
operations.
    (b) The Administrator may authorize a deviation from the 
requirements of this section in accordance with Section 3 of appendix C 
to this part.

[Doc. No. 28870, 62 FR 17487, Apr. 9, 1997]



Sec. 91.706  Operations within airspace designed as Reduced Vertical 

Separation Minimum Airspace.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person 
may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry in airspace designated as 
Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace unless:

[[Page 792]]

    (1) The operator and the operator's aircraft comply with the 
requirements of appendix G of this part; and
    (2) The operator is authorized by the Administrator to conduct such 
operations.
    (b) The Administrator may authorize a deviation from the 
requirements of this section in accordance with Section 5 of appendix G 
to this part.

[Doc. No. 28870, 62 FR 17487, Apr. 9, 1997]



Sec. 91.707  Flights between Mexico or Canada and the United States.

    Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate a civil 
aircraft between Mexico or Canada and the United States without filing 
an IFR or VFR flight plan, as appropriate.



Sec. 91.709  Operations to Cuba.

    No person may operate a civil aircraft from the United States to 
Cuba unless--
    (a) Departure is from an international airport of entry designated 
in Sec. 6.13 of the Air Commerce Regulations of the Bureau of Customs 
(19 CFR 6.13); and
    (b) In the case of departure from any of the 48 contiguous States or 
the District of Columbia, the pilot in command of the aircraft has 
filed--
    (1) A DVFR or IFR flight plan as prescribed in Sec. 99.11 or Sec. 
99.13 of this chapter; and
    (2) A written statement, within 1 hour before departure, with the 
Office of Immigration and Naturalization Service at the airport of 
departure, containing--
    (i) All information in the flight plan;
    (ii) The name of each occupant of the aircraft;
    (iii) The number of occupants of the aircraft; and
    (iv) A description of the cargo, if any.

This section does not apply to the operation of aircraft by a scheduled 
air carrier over routes authorized in operations specifications issued 
by the Administrator.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)



Sec. 91.711  Special rules for foreign civil aircraft.

    (a) General. In addition to the other applicable regulations of this 
part, each person operating a foreign civil aircraft within the United 
States shall comply with this section.
    (b) VFR. No person may conduct VFR operations which require two-way 
radio communications under this part unless at least one crewmember of 
that aircraft is able to conduct two-way radio communications in the 
English language and is on duty during that operation.
    (c) IFR. No person may operate a foreign civil aircraft under IFR 
unless--
    (1) That aircraft is equipped with--
    (i) Radio equipment allowing two-way radio communication with ATC 
when it is operated in controlled airspace; and
    (ii) Navigation equipment suitable for the route to be flown.
    (2) Each person piloting the aircraft--
    (i) Holds a current United States instrument rating or is authorized 
by his foreign airman certificate to pilot under IFR; and
    (ii) Is thoroughly familiar with the United States en route, 
holding, and letdown procedures; and
    (3) At least one crewmember of that aircraft is able to conduct two-
way radiotelephone communications in the English language and that 
crewmember is on duty while the aircraft is approaching, operating 
within, or leaving the United States.
    (d) Over water. Each person operating a foreign civil aircraft over 
water off the shores of the United States shall give flight notification 
or file a flight plan in accordance with the Supplementary Procedures 
for the ICAO region concerned.
    (e) Flight at and above FL 240. If VOR navigation equipment is 
required under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, no person may 
operate a foreign civil aircraft within the 50 States and the District 
of Columbia at or above FL 240, unless the aircraft is equipped with 
approved DME or a suitable RNAV system. When the DME or RNAV system 
required by this paragraph fails at and above FL 240, the pilot in 
command of

[[Page 793]]

the aircraft must notify ATC immediately and may then continue 
operations at and above FL 240 to the next airport of intended landing 
where repairs or replacement of the equipment can be made. A foreign 
civil aircraft may be operated within the 50 States and the District of 
Columbia at or above FL 240 without DME or an RNAV system when operated 
for the following purposes, and ATC is notified before each takeoff:
    (1) Ferry flights to and from a place in the United States where 
repairs or alterations are to be made.
    (2) Ferry flights to a new country of registry.
    (3) Flight of a new aircraft of U.S. manufacture for the purpose 
of--
    (i) Flight testing the aircraft;
    (ii) Training foreign flight crews in the operation of the aircraft; 
or
    (iii) Ferrying the aircraft for export delivery outside the United 
States.
    (4) Ferry, demonstration, and test flight of an aircraft brought to 
the United States for the purpose of demonstration or testing the whole 
or any part thereof.

[Doc. No. 18834, 54 FR 34320, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 
56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 91-296, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 91.713  Operation of civil aircraft of Cuban registry.

    No person may operate a civil aircraft of Cuban registry except in 
controlled airspace and in accordance with air traffic clearance or air 
traffic control instructions that may require use of specific airways or 
routes and landings at specific airports.



Sec. 91.715  Special flight authorizations for foreign civil aircraft.

    (a) Foreign civil aircraft may be operated without airworthiness 
certificates required under Sec. 91.203 if a special flight 
authorization for that operation is issued under this section. 
Application for a special flight authorization must be made to the 
Flight Standards Division Manager or Aircraft Certification Directorate 
Manager of the FAA region in which the applicant is located or to the 
region within which the U.S. point of entry is located. However, in the 
case of an aircraft to be operated in the U.S. for the purpose of 
demonstration at an airshow, the application may be made to the Flight 
Standards Division Manager or Aircraft Certification Directorate Manager 
of the FAA region in which the airshow is located.
    (b) The Administrator may issue a special flight authorization for a 
foreign civil aircraft subject to any conditions and limitations that 
the Administrator considers necessary for safe operation in the U.S. 
airspace.
    (c) No person may operate a foreign civil aircraft under a special 
flight authorization unless that operation also complies with part 375 
of the Special Regulations of the Department of Transportation (14 CFR 
part 375).

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34320, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-212, 
54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989]



Sec. Sec. 91.717-91.799  [Reserved]



                    Subpart I_Operating Noise Limits

    Source: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34321, Aug. 18, 1989, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.801  Applicability: Relation to part 36.

    (a) This subpart prescribes operating noise limits and related 
requirements that apply, as follows, to the operation of civil aircraft 
in the United States.
    (1) Sections 91.803, 91.805, 91.807, 91.809, and 91.811 apply to 
civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplanes with maximum weights of more 
than 75,000 pounds and--
    (i) If U.S. registered, that have standard airworthiness 
certificates; or
    (ii) If foreign registered, that would be required by this chapter 
to have a U.S. standard airworthiness certificate in order to conduct 
the operations intended for the airplane were it registered in the 
United States. Those sections apply to operations to or from airports in 
the United States under this part and parts 121, 125, 129, and 135 of 
this chapter.
    (2) Section 91.813 applies to U.S. operators of civil subsonic jet 
(turbojet) airplanes covered by this subpart. This section applies to 
operators operating to or from airports in the United

[[Page 794]]

States under this part and parts 121, 125, and 135, but not to those 
operating under part 129 of this chapter.
    (3) Sections 91.803, 91.819, and 91.821 apply to U.S.-registered 
civil supersonic airplanes having standard airworthiness certificates 
and to foreign-registered civil supersonic airplanes that, if registered 
in the United States, would be required by this chapter to have U.S. 
standard airworthiness certificates in order to conduct the operations 
intended for the airplane. Those sections apply to operations under this 
part and under parts 121, 125, 129, and 135 of this chapter.
    (b) Unless otherwise specified, as used in this subpart ``part 36'' 
refers to 14 CFR part 36, including the noise levels under appendix C of 
that part, notwithstanding the provisions of that part excepting certain 
airplanes from the specified noise requirements. For purposes of this 
subpart, the various stages of noise levels, the terms used to describe 
airplanes with respect to those levels, and the terms ``subsonic 
airplane'' and ``supersonic airplane'' have the meanings specified under 
part 36 of this chapter. For purposes of this subpart, for subsonic 
airplanes operated in foreign air commerce in the United States, the 
Administrator may accept compliance with the noise requirements under 
annex 16 of the International Civil Aviation Organization when those 
requirements have been shown to be substantially compatible with, and 
achieve results equivalent to those achievable under, part 36 for that 
airplane. Determinations made under these provisions are subject to the 
limitations of Sec. 36.5 of this chapter as if those noise levels were 
part 36 noise levels.
    (c) Sections 91.851 through 91.877 of this subpart prescribe 
operating noise limits and related requirements that apply to any civil 
subsonic jet (turbojet) airplane (for which an airworthiness certificate 
other than an experimental certificate has been issued by the 
Administrator) with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 
75,000 pounds operating to or from an airport in the 48 contiguous 
United States and the District of Columbia under this part, parts 121, 
125, 129, or 135 of this chapter on and after September 25, 1991.
    (d) Section 91.877 prescribes reporting requirements that apply to 
any civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplane with a maximum weight of more 
than 75,000 pounds operated by an air carrier or foreign air carrier 
between the contiguous United States and the State of Hawaii, between 
the State of Hawaii and any point outside of the 48 contiguous United 
States, or between the islands of Hawaii in turnaround service, under 
part 121 or 129 of this chapter on or after November 5, 1990.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34321, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 91-211, 54 FR 41211, 
Oct. 5, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-225, 56 FR 48658, Sept. 25, 1991; 
Amdt. 91-252, 61 FR 66185, Dec. 16, 1996; Amdt. 91-275, 67 FR 45237, 
July 8, 2002; Amdt. 91-276, 67 FR 46571, July 15, 2002]



Sec. 91.803  Part 125 operators: Designation of applicable regulations.

    For airplanes covered by this subpart and operated under part 125 of 
this chapter, the following regulations apply as specified:
    (a) For each airplane operation to which requirements prescribed 
under this subpart applied before November 29, 1980, those requirements 
of this subpart continue to apply.
    (b) For each subsonic airplane operation to which requirements 
prescribed under this subpart did not apply before November 29, 1980, 
because the airplane was not operated in the United States under this 
part or part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter, the requirements 
prescribed under Sec. 91.805 of this subpart apply.
    (c) For each supersonic airplane operation to which requirements 
prescribed under this subpart did not apply before November 29, 1980, 
because the airplane was not operated in the United States under this 
part or part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter, the requirements of 
Sec. Sec. 91.819 and 91.821 of this subpart apply.
    (d) For each airplane required to operate under part 125 for which a 
deviation under that part is approved to operate, in whole or in part, 
under this part or part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter, 
notwithstanding the approval, the

[[Page 795]]

requirements prescribed under paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this 
section continue to apply.

[Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34321, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-
276, 67 FR 46571, July 15, 2002]



Sec. 91.805  Final compliance: Subsonic airplanes.

    Except as provided in Sec. Sec. 91.809 and 91.811, on and after 
January 1, 1985, no person may operate to or from an airport in the 
United States any subsonic airplane covered by this subpart unless that 
airplane has been shown to comply with Stage 2 or Stage 3 noise levels 
under part 36 of this chapter.



Sec. Sec. 91.807-91.813  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.815  Agricultural and fire fighting airplanes: Noise operating 

limitations.

    (a) This section applies to propeller-driven, small airplanes having 
standard airworthiness certificates that are designed for ``agricultural 
aircraft operations'' (as defined in Sec. 137.3 of this chapter, as 
effective on January 1, 1966) or for dispensing fire fighting materials.
    (b) If the Airplane Flight Manual, or other approved manual material 
information, markings, or placards for the airplane indicate that the 
airplane has not been shown to comply with the noise limits under part 
36 of this chapter, no person may operate that airplane, except--
    (1) To the extent necessary to accomplish the work activity directly 
associated with the purpose for which it is designed;
    (2) To provide flight crewmember training in the special purpose 
operation for which the airplane is designed; and
    (3) To conduct ``nondispensing aerial work operations'' in 
accordance with the requirements under Sec. 137.29(c) of this chapter.



Sec. 91.817  Civil aircraft sonic boom.

    (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft in the United States at a 
true flight Mach number greater than 1 except in compliance with 
conditions and limitations in an authorization to exceed Mach 1 issued 
to the operator under appendix B of this part.
    (b) In addition, no person may operate a civil aircraft for which 
the maximum operating limit speed MM0 exceeds a Mach number 
of 1, to or from an airport in the United States, unless--
    (1) Information available to the flight crew includes flight 
limitations that ensure that flights entering or leaving the United 
States will not cause a sonic boom to reach the surface within the 
United States; and
    (2) The operator complies with the flight limitations prescribed in 
paragraph (b)(1) of this section or complies with conditions and 
limitations in an authorization to exceed Mach 1 issued under appendix B 
of this part.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0005)



Sec. 91.819  Civil supersonic airplanes that do not comply with part 36.

    (a) Applicability. This section applies to civil supersonic 
airplanes that have not been shown to comply with the Stage 2 noise 
limits of part 36 in effect on October 13, 1977, using applicable trade-
off provisions, and that are operated in the United States, after July 
31, 1978.
    (b) Airport use. Except in an emergency, the following apply to each 
person who operates a civil supersonic airplane to or from an airport in 
the United States:
    (1) Regardless of whether a type design change approval is applied 
for under part 21 of this chapter, no person may land or take off an 
airplane covered by this section for which the type design is changed, 
after July 31, 1978, in a manner constituting an ``acoustical change'' 
under Sec. 21.93 unless the acoustical change requirements of part 36 
are complied with.
    (2) No flight may be scheduled, or otherwise planned, for takeoff or 
landing after 10 p.m. and before 7 a.m. local time.



Sec. 91.821  Civil supersonic airplanes: Noise limits.

    Except for Concorde airplanes having flight time before January 1, 
1980, no person may operate in the United States, a civil supersonic 
airplane that

[[Page 796]]

does not comply with Stage 2 noise limits of part 36 in effect on 
October 13, 1977, using applicable trade-off provisions.



Sec. Sec. 91.823-91.849  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.851  Definitions.

    For the purposes of Sec. Sec. 91.851 through 91.877 of this 
subpart:
    Chapter 4 noise level means a noise level at or below the maximum 
noise level prescribed in Chapter 4, Paragraph 4.4, Maximum Noise 
Levels, of the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Annex 
16, Volume I, Amendment 7, effective March 21, 2002. The Director of the 
Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51 
approved the incorporation by reference of this document, which can be 
obtained from the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), 
Document Sales Unit, 999 University Street, Montreal, Quebec H3C 5H7, 
Canada. Also, you may obtain documents on the Internet at http://
www.ICAO.int/eshop/index.cfm. Copies may be reviewed at the U.S. 
Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, West Building Ground 
Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590 
or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For 
information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-
6030, or go to: http://www.archives.gov/federal--register/code--of--
federal--regulations/ibr--locations.html.
    Contiguous United States means the area encompassed by the 48 
contiguous United States and the District of Columbia.
    Fleet means those civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplanes with a 
maximum certificated weight of more than 75,000 pounds that are listed 
on an operator's operations specifications as eligible for operation in 
the contiguous United States.
    Import means a change in ownership of an airplane from a non-U.S. 
person to a U.S. person when the airplane is brought into the United 
States for operation.
    Operations specifications means an enumeration of airplanes by type, 
model, series, and serial number operated by the operator or foreign air 
carrier on a given day, regardless of how or whether such airplanes are 
formally listed or designated by the operator.
    Owner means any person that has indicia of ownership sufficient to 
register the airplane in the United States pursuant to part 47 of this 
chapter.
    New entrant means an air carrier or foreign air carrier that, on or 
before November 5, 1990, did not conduct operations under part 121 or 
129 of this chapter using an airplane covered by this subpart to or from 
any airport in the contiguous United States, but that initiates such 
operation after that date.
    Stage 2 noise levels mean the requirements for Stage 2 noise levels 
as defined in part 36 of this chapter in effect on November 5, 1990.
    Stage 3 noise levels mean the requirements for Stage 3 noise levels 
as defined in part 36 of this chapter in effect on November 5, 1990.
    Stage 4 noise level means a noise level at or below the Stage 4 
noise limit prescribed in part 36 of this chapter.
    Stage 2 airplane means a civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplane with 
a maximum certificated weight of 75,000 pounds or more that complies 
with Stage 2 noise levels as defined in part 36 of this chapter.
    Stage 3 airplane means a civil subsonic jet (turbojet) airplane with 
a maximum certificated weight of 75,000 pounds or more that complies 
with Stage 3 noise levels as defined in part 36 of this chapter.
    Stage 4 airplane means an airplane that has been shown not to exceed 
the Stage 4 noise limit prescribed in part 36 of this chapter. A Stage 4 
airplane complies with all of the noise operating rules of this part.

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48658, Sept. 25, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-
252, 61 FR 66185, Dec. 16, 1996; Amdt. 91-275, 67 FR 45237, July 8, 
2002; Amdt. 91-288, 70 FR 38749, July 5, 2005; 72 FR 68475, Dec. 5, 
2007]



Sec. 91.853  Final compliance: Civil subsonic airplanes.

    Except as provided in Sec. 91.873, after December 31, 1999, no 
person shall operate to or from any airport in the contiguous United 
States any airplane

[[Page 797]]

subject to Sec. 91.801(c) of this subpart, unless that airplane has 
been shown to comply with Stage 3 or Stage 4 noise levels.

[Doc. No. FAA-2003-16526, 70 FR 38749, July 5, 2005]



Sec. 91.855  Entry and nonaddition rule.

    No person may operate any airplane subject to Sec. 91.801(c) of 
this subpart to or from an airport in the contiguous United States 
unless one or more of the following apply:
    (a) The airplane complies with Stage 3 or Stage 4 noise levels.
    (b) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels and was owned by 
a U.S. person on and since November 5, 1990. Stage 2 airplanes that meet 
these criteria and are leased to foreign airlines are also subject to 
the return provisions of paragraph (e) of this section.
    (c) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels, is owned by a 
non-U.S. person, and is the subject of a binding lease to a U.S. person 
effective before and on September 25, 1991. Any such airplane may be 
operated for the term of the lease in effect on that date, and any 
extensions thereof provided for in that lease.
    (d) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels and is operated 
by a foreign air carrier.
    (e) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels and is operated 
by a foreign operator other than for the purpose of foreign air 
commerce.
    (f) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels and--
    (1) On November 5, 1990, was owned by:
    (i) A corporation, trust, or partnership organized under the laws of 
the United States or any State (including individual States, 
territories, possessions, and the District of Columbia);
    (ii) An individual who is a citizen of the United States; or
    (iii) An entity owned or controlled by a corporation, trust, 
partnership, or individual described in paragraph (f)(1) (i) or (ii) of 
this section; and
    (2) Enters into the United States not later than 6 months after the 
expiration of a lease agreement (including any extensions thereof) 
between an owner described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section and a 
foreign airline.
    (g) The airplane complies with Stage 2 noise levels and was 
purchased by the importer under a written contract executed before 
November 5, 1990.
    (h) Any Stage 2 airplane described in this section is eligible for 
operation in the contiguous United States only as provided under Sec. 
91.865 or 91.867.

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48658, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 51167, Oct. 10, 
1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-288, 70 FR 38750, July 5, 2005]



Sec. 91.857  Stage 2 operations outside of the 48 contiguous United States.

    An operator of a Stage 2 airplane that is operating only between 
points outside the contiguous United States on or after November 5, 
1990, must include in its operations specifications a statement that 
such airplane may not be used to provide air transportation to or from 
any airport in the contiguous United States.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12771, 67 FR 46571, July 15, 2002]



Sec. 91.858  Special flight authorizations for non-revenue Stage 2 operations.

    (a) After December 31, 1999, any operator of a Stage 2 airplane over 
75,000 pounds may operate that airplane in nonrevenue service in the 
contiguous United States only for the following purposes:
    (1) Sell, lease, or scrap the airplane;
    (2) Obtain modifications to meet Stage 3 noise levels;
    (3) Obtain scheduled heavy maintenance or significant modifications;
    (4) Deliver the airplane to a lessee or return it to a lessor;
    (5) Park or store the airplane; and
    (6) Prepare the airplane for any of the purposes listed in paragraph 
(a)(1) thru (a)(5) of this section.
    (b) An operator of a Stage 2 airplane that needs to operate in the 
contiguous United States for any of the purposes listed above may apply 
to FAA's Office of Environment and Energy for a special flight 
authorization. The applicant must file in advance. Applications are due 
30 days in advance of the planned

[[Page 798]]

flight and must provide the information necessary for the FAA to 
determine that the planned flight is within the limits prescribed in the 
law.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-12771, 67 FR 46571, July 15, 2002]



Sec. 91.859  Modification to meet Stage 3 or Stage 4 noise levels.

    For an airplane subject to Sec. 91.801(c) of this subpart and 
otherwise prohibited from operation to or from an airport in the 
contiguous United States by Sec. 91.855, any person may apply for a 
special flight authorization for that airplane to operate in the 
contiguous United States for the purpose of obtaining modifications to 
meet Stage 3 or Stage 4 noise levels.

[Doc. No. FAA-2003-16526, 70 FR 38750, July 5, 2005]



Sec. 91.861  Base level.

    (a) U.S. Operators. The base level of a U.S. operator is equal to 
the number of owned or leased Stage 2 airplanes subject to Sec. 
91.801(c) of this subpart that were listed on that operator's operations 
specifications for operations to or from airports in the contiguous 
United States on any one day selected by the operator during the period 
January 1, 1990, through July 1, 1991, plus or minus adjustments made 
pursuant to paragraphs (a) (1) and (2).
    (1) The base level of a U.S. operator shall be increased by a number 
equal to the total of the following--
    (i) The number of Stage 2 airplanes returned to service in the 
United States pursuant to Sec. 91.855(f);
    (ii) The number of Stage 2 airplanes purchased pursuant to Sec. 
91.855(g); and
    (iii) Any U.S. operator base level acquired with a Stage 2 airplane 
transferred from another person under Sec. 91.863.
    (2) The base level of a U.S. operator shall be decreased by the 
amount of U.S. operator base level transferred with the corresponding 
number of Stage 2 airplanes to another person under Sec. 91.863.
    (b) Foreign air carriers. The base level of a foreign air carrier is 
equal to the number of owned or leased Stage 2 airplanes that were 
listed on that carrier's U.S. operations specifications on any one day 
during the period January 1, 1990, through July 1, 1991, plus or minus 
any adjustments to the base levels made pursuant to paragraphs (b) (1) 
and (2).
    (1) The base level of a foreign air carrier shall be increased by 
the amount of foreign air carrier base level acquired with a Stage 2 
airplane from another person under Sec. 91.863.
    (2) The base level of a foreign air carrier shall be decreased by 
the amount of foreign air carrier base level transferred with a Stage 2 
airplane to another person under Sec. 91.863.
    (c) New entrants do not have a base level.

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 51167, Oct. 10, 
1991]



Sec. 91.863  Transfers of Stage 2 airplanes with base level.

    (a) Stage 2 airplanes may be transferred with or without the 
corresponding amount of base level. Base level may not be transferred 
without the corresponding number of Stage 2 airplanes.
    (b) No portion of a U.S. operator's base level established under 
Sec. 91.861(a) may be used for operations by a foreign air carrier. No 
portion of a foreign air carrier's base level established under Sec. 
91.861(b) may be used for operations by a U.S. operator.
    (c) Whenever a transfer of Stage 2 airplanes with base level occurs, 
the transferring and acquiring parties shall, within 10 days, jointly 
submit written notification of the transfer to the FAA, Office of 
Environment and Energy. Such notification shall state:
    (1) The names of the transferring and acquiring parties;
    (2) The name, address, and telephone number of the individual 
responsible for submitting the notification on behalf of the 
transferring and acquiring parties;
    (3) The total number of Stage 2 airplanes transferred, listed by 
airplane type, model, series, and serial number;
    (4) The corresponding amount of base level transferred and whether 
it is U.S. operator or foreign air carrier base level; and
    (5) The effective date of the transaction.

[[Page 799]]

    (d) If, taken as a whole, a transaction or series of transactions 
made pursuant to this section does not produce an increase or decrease 
in the number of Stage 2 airplanes for either the acquiring or 
transferring operator, such transaction or series of transactions may 
not be used to establish compliance with the requirements of Sec. 
91.865.

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991]



Sec. 91.865  Phased compliance for operators with base level.

    Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, each operator 
that operates an airplane under part 91, 121, 125, 129, or 135 of this 
chapter, regardless of the national registry of the airplane, shall 
comply with paragraph (b) or (d) of this section at each interim 
compliance date with regard to its subsonic airplane fleet covered by 
Sec. 91.801(c) of this subpart.
    (a) This section does not apply to new entrants covered by Sec. 
91.867 or to foreign operators not engaged in foreign air commerce.
    (b) Each operator that chooses to comply with this paragraph 
pursuant to any interim compliance requirement shall reduce the number 
of Stage 2 airplanes it operates that are eligible for operation in the 
contiguous United States to a maximum of:
    (1) After December 31, 1994, 75 percent of the base level held by 
the operator;
    (2) After December 31, 1996, 50 percent of the base level held by 
the operator;
    (3) After December 31, 1998, 25 percent of the base level held by 
the operator.
    (c) Except as provided under Sec. 91.871, the number of Stage 2 
airplanes that must be reduced at each compliance date contained in 
paragraph (b) of this section shall be determined by reference to the 
amount of base level held by the operator on that compliance date, as 
calculated under Sec. 91.861.
    (d) Each operator that chooses to comply with this paragraph 
pursuant to any interim compliance requirement shall operate a fleet 
that consists of:
    (1) After December 31, 1994, not less than 55 percent Stage 3 
airplanes;
    (2) After December 31, 1996, not less than 65 percent Stage 3 
airplanes;
    (3) After December 31, 1998, not less than 75 percent Stage 3 
airplanes.
    (e) Calculations resulting in fractions may be rounded to permit the 
continued operation of the next whole number of Stage 2 airplanes.

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991]



Sec. 91.867  Phased compliance for new entrants.

    (a) New entrant U.S. air carriers.
    (1) A new entrant initiating operations under part 121 of this 
chapter on or before December 31, 1994, may initiate service without 
regard to the percentage of its fleet composed of Stage 3 airplanes.
    (2) After December 31, 1994, at least 25 percent of the fleet of a 
new entrant must comply with Stage 3 noise levels.
    (3) After December 31, 1996, at least 50 percent of the fleet of a 
new entrant must comply with Stage 3 noise levels.
    (4) After December 31, 1998, at least 75 percent of the fleet of a 
new entrant must comply with Stage 3 noise levels.
    (b) New entrant foreign air carriers.
    (1) A new entrant foreign air carrier initiating part 129 operations 
on or before December 31, 1994, may initiate service without regard to 
the percentage of its fleet composed of Stage 3 airplanes.
    (2) After December 31, 1994, at least 25 percent of the fleet on 
U.S. operations specifications of a new entrant foreign air carrier must 
comply with Stage 3 noise levels.
    (3) After December 31, 1996, at least 50 percent of the fleet on 
U.S. operations specifications of a new entrant foreign air carrier must 
comply with Stage 3 noise levels.
    (4) After December 31, 1998, at least 75 percent of the fleet on 
U.S. operations specifications of a new entrant foreign air carrier must 
comply with Stage 3 noise levels.
    (c) Calculations resulting in fractions may be rounded to permit the 
continued operation of the next whole number of Stage 2 airplanes.

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-
252, 61 FR 66185, Dec. 16, 1996]



Sec. 91.869  Carry-forward compliance.

    (a) Any operator that exceeds the requirements of paragraph (b) of 
Sec. 91.865 of this part on or before December 31, 1994, or on or 
before December 31, 1996,

[[Page 800]]

may claim a credit that may be applied at a subsequent interim 
compliance date.
    (b) Any operator that eliminates or modifies more Stage 2 airplanes 
pursuant to Sec. 91.865(b) than required as of December 31, 1994, or 
December 31, 1996, may count the number of additional Stage 2 airplanes 
reduced as a credit toward--
    (1) The number of Stage 2 airplanes it would otherwise be required 
to reduce following a subsequent interim compliance date specified in 
Sec. 91.865(b); or
    (2) The number of Stage 3 airplanes it would otherwise be required 
to operate in its fleet following a subsequent interim compliance date 
to meet the percentage requirements specified in Sec. 91.865(d).

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48659, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 65783, Dec. 18, 
1991]



Sec. 91.871  Waivers from interim compliance requirements.

    (a) Any U.S. operator or foreign air carrier subject to the 
requirements of Sec. 91.865 or 91.867 of this subpart may request a 
waiver from any individual compliance requirement.
    (b) Applications must be filed with the Secretary of Transportation 
at least 120 days prior to the compliance date from which the waiver is 
requested.
    (c) Applicants must show that a grant of waiver would be in the 
public interest, and must include in its application its plans and 
activities for modifying its fleet, including evidence of good faith 
efforts to comply with the requirements of Sec. 91.865 or Sec. 91.867. 
The application should contain all information the applicant considers 
relevant, including, as appropriate, the following:
    (1) The applicant's balance sheet and cash flow positions;
    (2) The composition of the applicant's current fleet; and
    (3) The applicant's delivery position with respect to new airplanes 
or noise-abatement equipment.
    (d) Waivers will be granted only upon a showing by the applicant 
that compliance with the requirements of Sec. 91.865 or 91.867 at a 
particular interim compliance date is financially onerous, physically 
impossible, or technologically infeasible, or that it would have an 
adverse effect on competition or on service to small communities.
    (e) The conditions of any waiver granted under this section shall be 
determined by the circumstances presented in the application, but in no 
case may the term extend beyond the next interim compliance date.
    (f) A summary of any request for a waiver under this section will be 
published in the Federal Register, and public comment will be invited. 
Unless the Secretary finds that circumstances require otherwise, the 
public comment period will be at least 14 days.

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48660, Sept. 25, 1991]



Sec. 91.873  Waivers from final compliance.

    (a) A U.S. air carrier or a foreign air carrier may apply for a 
waiver from the prohibition contained in Sec. 91.853 of this part for 
its remaining Stage 2 airplanes, provided that, by July 1, 1999, at 
least 85 percent of the airplanes used by the carrier to provide service 
to or from an airport in the contiguous United States will comply with 
the Stage 3 noise levels.
    (b) An application for the waiver described in paragraph (a) of this 
section must be filed with the Secretary of Transportation no later than 
January 1, 1999, or, in the case of a foreign air carrier, no later than 
April 20, 2000. Such application must include a plan with firm orders 
for replacing or modifying all airplanes to comply with Stage 3 noise 
levels at the earliest practicable time.
    (c) To be eligible to apply for the waiver under this section, a new 
entrant U.S. air carrier must initiate service no later than January 1, 
1999, and must comply fully with all provisions of this section.
    (d) The Secretary may grant a waiver under this section if the 
Secretary finds that granting such waiver is in the public interest. In 
making such a finding, the Secretary shall include consideration of the 
effect of granting such waiver on competition in the air carrier 
industry and the effect on small community air service, and any other 
information submitted by the applicant that the Secretary considers 
relevant.

[[Page 801]]

    (e) The term of any waiver granted under this section shall be 
determined by the circumstances presented in the application, but in no 
case will the waiver permit the operation of any Stage 2 airplane 
covered by this subchapter in the contiguous United States after 
December 31, 2003.
    (f) A summary of any request for a waiver under this section will be 
published in the Federal Register, and public comment will be invited. 
Unless the secretary finds that circumstances require otherwise, the 
public comment period will be at least 14 days.

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48660, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 51167 Oct. 10, 1991; 
Amdt. 91-276, 67 FR 46571, July 15, 2002]



Sec. 91.875  Annual progress reports.

    (a) Each operator subject to Sec. 91.865 or Sec. 91.867 of this 
chapter shall submit an annual report to the FAA, Office of Environment 
and Energy, on the progress it has made toward complying with the 
requirements of that section. Such reports shall be submitted no later 
than 45 days after the end of a calendar year. All progress reports must 
provide the information through the end of the calendar year, be 
certified by the operator as true and complete (under penalty of 18 
U.S.C. 1001), and include the following information:
    (1) The name and address of the operator;
    (2) The name, title, and telephone number of the person designated 
by the operator to be responsible for ensuring the accuracy of the 
information in the report;
    (3) The operator's progress during the reporting period toward 
compliance with the requirements of Sec. 91.853, Sec. 91.865 or Sec. 
91.867. For airplanes on U.S. operations specifications, each operator 
shall identify the airplanes by type, model, series, and serial number.
    (i) Each Stage 2 airplane added or removed from operation or U.S. 
operations specifications (grouped separately by those airplanes 
acquired with and without base level);
    (ii) Each Stage 2 airplane modified to Stage 3 noise levels 
(identifying the manufacturer and model of noise abatement retrofit 
equipment;
    (iii) Each Stage 3 airplane on U.S. operations specifications as of 
the last day of the reporting period; and
    (iv) For each Stage 2 airplane transferred or acquired, the name and 
address of the recipient or transferor; and, if base level was 
transferred, the person to or from whom base level was transferred or 
acquired pursuant to Section 91.863 along with the effective date of 
each base level transaction, and the type of base level transferred or 
acquired.
    (b) Each operator subject to Sec. 91.865 or Sec. 91.867 of this 
chapter shall submit an initial progress report covering the period from 
January 1, 1990, through December 31, 1991, and provide:
    (1) For each operator subject to Sec. 91.865:
    (i) The date used to establish its base level pursuant to Sec. 
91.861(a); and
    (ii) A list of those Stage 2 airplanes (by type, model, series and 
serial number) in its base level, including adjustments made pursuant to 
Sec. 91.861 after the date its base level was established.
    (2) For each U.S. operator:
    (i) A plan to meet the compliance schedules in Sec. 91.865 or Sec. 
91.867 and the final compliance date of Sec. 91.853, including the 
schedule for delivery of replacement Stage 3 airplanes or the 
installation of noise abatement retrofit equipment; and
    (ii) A separate list (by type, model, series, and serial number) of 
those airplanes included in the operator's base level, pursuant to Sec. 
91.861(a)(1) (i) and (ii), under the categories ``returned'' or 
``purchased,'' along with the date each was added to its operations 
specifications.
    (c) Each operator subject to Sec. 91.865 or Sec. 91.867 of this 
chapter shall submit subsequent annual progress reports covering the 
calendar year preceding the report and including any changes in the 
information provided in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; 
including the use of any carry-forward credits pursuant to Sec. 91.869.
    (d) An operator may request, in any report, that specific planning 
data be considered proprietary.
    (e) If an operator's actions during any reporting period cause it to 
achieve compliance with Sec. 91.853, the report should include a 
statement to that

[[Page 802]]

effect. Further progress reports are not required unless there is any 
change in the information reported pursuant to paragraph (a) of this 
section.
    (f) For each U.S. operator subject to Sec. 91.865, progress reports 
submitted for calendar years 1994, 1996, and 1998, shall also state how 
the operator achieved compliance with the requirements of that section, 
i.e.--
    (1) By reducing the number of Stage 2 airplanes in its fleet to no 
more than the maximum permitted percentage of its base level under Sec. 
91.865(b), or
    (2) By operating a fleet that consists of at least the minimum 
required percentage of Stage 3 airplanes under Sec. 91.865(d).

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 
2120-0553)

[Doc. No. 26433, 56 FR 48660, Sept. 25, 1991; 56 FR 51168, Oct. 10, 
1991, as amended by 57 FR 5977, Feb. 19, 1992]



Sec. 91.877  Annual reporting of Hawaiian operations.

    (a) Each air carrier or foreign air carrier subject to Sec. 91.865 
or Sec. 91.867 of this part that conducts operations between the 
contiguous United States and the State of Hawaii, between the State of 
Hawaii and any point outside of the contiguous United States, or between 
the islands of Hawaii in turnaround service, on or since November 5, 
1990, shall include in its annual report the information described in 
paragraph (c) of this section.
    (b) Each air carrier or foreign air carrier not subject to Sec. 
91.865 or Sec. 91.867 of this part that conducts operations between the 
contiguous U.S. and the State of Hawaii, between the State of Hawaii and 
any point outside of the contiguous United States, or between the 
islands of Hawaii in turnaround service, on or since November 5, 1990, 
shall submit an annual report to the FAA, Office of Environment and 
Energy, on its compliance with the Hawaiian operations provisions of 49 
U.S.C. 47528. Such reports shall be submitted no later than 45 days 
after the end of a calendar year. All progress reports must provide the 
information through the end of the calendar year, be certified by the 
operator as true and complete (under penalty of 18 U.S.C. 1001), and 
include the following information--
    (1) The name and address of the air carrier or foreign air carrier;
    (2) The name, title, and telephone number of the person designated 
by the air carrier or foreign air carrier to be responsible for ensuring 
the accuracy of the information in the report; and
    (3) The information specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
    (c) The following information must be included in reports filed 
pursuant to this section--
    (1) For operations conducted between the contiguous United States 
and the State of Hawaii--
    (i) The number of Stage 2 airplanes used to conduct such operations 
as of November 5, 1990;
    (ii) Any change to that number during the calendar year being 
reported, including the date of such change;
    (2) For air carriers that conduct inter-island turnaround service in 
the State of Hawaii--
    (i) The number of Stage 2 airplanes used to conduct such operations 
as of November 5, 1990;
    (ii) Any change to that number during the calendar year being 
reported, including the date of such change;
    (iii) For an air carrier that provided inter-island trunaround 
service within the state of Hawaii on November 5, 1990, the number 
reported under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section may include all Stage 
2 airplanes with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 
75,000 pounds that were owned or leased by the air carrier on November 
5, 1990, regardless of whether such airplanes were operated by that air 
carrier or foreign air carrier on that date.
    (3) For operations conducted between the State of Hawaii and a point 
outside the contiguous United States--
    (i) The number of Stage 2 airplanes used to conduct such operations 
as of November 5, 1990; and
    (ii) Any change to that number during the calendar year being 
reported, including the date of such change.
    (d) Reports or amended reports for years predating this regulation 
are required to be filed concurrently with the next annual report.

[Doc. No. 28213, 61 FR 66185, Dec. 16, 1996]

[[Page 803]]



Sec. Sec. 91.879-91.899  [Reserved]



                            Subpart J_Waivers



Sec. 91.901  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.903  Policy and procedures.

    (a) The Administrator may issue a certificate of waiver authorizing 
the operation of aircraft in deviation from any rule listed in this 
subpart if the Administrator finds that the proposed operation can be 
safely conducted under the terms of that certificate of waiver.
    (b) An application for a certificate of waiver under this part is 
made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator and may 
be submitted to any FAA office.
    (c) A certificate of waiver is effective as specified in that 
certificate of waiver.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34325, Aug. 18, 1989]



Sec. 91.905  List of rules subject to waivers.

Sec.
91.107 Use of safety belts.
91.111 Operating near other aircraft.
91.113 Right-of-way rules: Except water operations.
91.115 Right-of-way rules: Water operations.
91.117 Aircraft speed.
91.119 Minimum safe altitudes: General.
91.121 Altimeter settings.
91.123 Compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
91.125 ATC light signals.
91.126 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class G 
          airspace.
91.127 Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class E 
          airspace.
91.129 Operations in Class D airspace.
91.130 Operations in Class C airspace.
91.131 Operations in Class B airspace.
91.133 Restricted and prohibited areas.
91.135 Operations in Class A airspace.
91.137 Temporary flight restrictions.
91.141 Flight restrictions in the proximity of the Presidential and 
          other parties.
91.143 Flight limitation in the proximity of space flight operations.
91.153 VFR flight plan: Information required.
91.155 Basic VFR weather minimums
91.157 Special VFR weather minimums.
91.159 VFR cruising altitude or flight level.
91.169 IFR flight plan: Information required.
91.173 ATC clearance and flight plan required.
91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR.
91.177 Minimum altitudes for IFR operations.
91.179 IFR cruising altitude or flight level.
91.181 Course to be flown.
91.183 IFR radio communications.
91.185 IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure.
91.187 Operation under IFR in controlled airspace: Malfunction reports.
91.209 Aircraft lights.
91.303 Aerobatic flights.
91.305 Flight test areas.
91.311 Towing: Other than under Sec. 91.309.
91.313(e) Restricted category civil aircraft: Operating limitations.
91.515 Flight altitude rules.
91.705 Operations within the North Atlantic Minimum Navigation 
          Performance Specifications Airspace.
91.707 Flights between Mexico or Canada and the United States.
91.713 Operation of civil aircraft of Cuban registry.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34325, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-227, 
56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991]



Sec. Sec. 91.907-91.999  [Reserved]



                Subpart K_Fractional Ownership Operations

    Source: Docket No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003, 
unless otherwise noted.



Sec. 91.1001  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart prescribes rules, in addition to those prescribed 
in other subparts of this part, that apply to fractional owners and 
fractional ownership program managers governing--
    (1) The provision of program management services in a fractional 
ownership program;
    (2) The operation of a fractional ownership program aircraft in a 
fractional ownership program; and
    (3) The operation of a program aircraft included in a fractional 
ownership program managed by an affiliate of the manager of the program 
to which the owner belongs.
    (b) As used in this part--
    (1) Affiliate of a program manager means a manager that, directly, 
or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, controls, is 
controlled by, or is under common control with, another program manager. 
The holding of at least forty percent (40 percent) of the equity and 
forty percent (40 percent) of the voting power of an entity will be

[[Page 804]]

presumed to constitute control for purposes of determining an 
affiliation under this subpart.
    (2) A dry-lease aircraft exchange means an arrangement, documented 
by the written program agreements, under which the program aircraft are 
available, on an as needed basis without crew, to each fractional owner.
    (3) A fractional owner or owner means an individual or entity that 
possesses a minimum fractional ownership interest in a program aircraft 
and that has entered into the applicable program agreements; provided, 
however, that in the case of the flight operations described in 
paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section, and solely for purposes of 
requirements pertaining to those flight operations, the fractional owner 
operating the aircraft will be deemed to be a fractional owner in the 
program managed by the affiliate.
    (4) A fractional ownership interest means the ownership of an 
interest or holding of a multi-year leasehold interest and/or a multi-
year leasehold interest that is convertible into an ownership interest 
in a program aircraft.
    (5) A fractional ownership program or program means any system of 
aircraft ownership and exchange that consists of all of the following 
elements:
    (i) The provision for fractional ownership program management 
services by a single fractional ownership program manager on behalf of 
the fractional owners.
    (ii) Two or more airworthy aircraft.
    (iii) One or more fractional owners per program aircraft, with at 
least one program aircraft having more than one owner.
    (iv) Possession of at least a minimum fractional ownership interest 
in one or more program aircraft by each fractional owner.
    (v) A dry-lease aircraft exchange arrangement among all of the 
fractional owners.
    (vi) Multi-year program agreements covering the fractional 
ownership, fractional ownership program management services, and dry-
lease aircraft exchange aspects of the program.
    (6) A fractional ownership program aircraft or program aircraft 
means:
    (i) An aircraft in which a fractional owner has a minimal fractional 
ownership interest and that has been included in the dry-lease aircraft 
exchange pursuant to the program agreements, or
    (ii) In the case of a fractional owner from one program operating an 
aircraft in a different fractional ownership program managed by an 
affiliate of the operating owner's program manager, the aircraft being 
operated by the fractional owner, so long as the aircraft is:
    (A) Included in the fractional ownership program managed by the 
affiliate of the operating owner's program manager, and
    (B) Included in the operating owner's program's dry-lease aircraft 
exchange pursuant to the program agreements of the operating owner's 
program.
    (iii) An aircraft owned in whole or in part by the program manager 
that has been included in the dry-lease aircraft exchange and is used to 
supplement program operations.
    (7) A Fractional Ownership Program Flight or Program Flight means a 
flight under this subpart when one or more passengers or property 
designated by a fractional owner are on board the aircraft.
    (8) Fractional ownership program management services or program 
management services mean administrative and aviation support services 
furnished in accordance with the applicable requirements of this subpart 
or provided by the program manager on behalf of the fractional owners, 
including, but not limited to, the--
    (i) Establishment and implementation of program safety guidelines;
    (ii) Employment, furnishing, or contracting of pilots and other 
crewmembers;
    (iii) Training and qualification of pilots and other crewmembers and 
personnel;
    (iv) Scheduling and coordination of the program aircraft and crews;
    (v) Maintenance of program aircraft;
    (vi) Satisfaction of recordkeeping requirements;
    (vii) Development and use of a program operations manual and 
procedures; and
    (viii) Application for and maintenance of management specifications 
and other authorizations and approvals.

[[Page 805]]

    (9) A fractional ownership program manager or program manager means 
the entity that offers fractional ownership program management services 
to fractional owners, and is designated in the multi-year program 
agreements referenced in paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section to fulfill 
the requirements of this chapter applicable to the manager of the 
program containing the aircraft being flown. When a fractional owner is 
operating an aircraft in a fractional ownership program managed by an 
affiliate of the owner's program manager, the references in this subpart 
to the flight-related responsibilities of the program manager apply, 
with respect to that particular flight, to the affiliate of the owner's 
program manager rather than to the owner's program manager.
    (10) A minimum fractional ownership interest means--
    (i) A fractional ownership interest equal to, or greater than, one-
sixteenth (\1/16\) of at least one subsonic, fixed-wing or powered-lift 
program aircraft; or
    (ii) A fractional ownership interest equal to, or greater than, one-
thirty-second (\1/32\) of at least one rotorcraft program aircraft.
    (c) The rules in this subpart that refer to a fractional owner or a 
fractional ownership program manager also apply to any person who 
engages in an operation governed by this subpart without the management 
specifications required by this subpart.



Sec. 91.1002  Compliance date.

    No person that conducted flights before November 17, 2003 under a 
program that meets the definition of fractional ownership program in 
Sec. 91.1001 may conduct such flights after February 17, 2005 unless it 
has obtained management specifications under this subpart.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-10047, 68 FR 54561, Sept. 17, 2003; 69 FR 74413, Dec. 
14, 2004]



Sec. 91.1003  Management contract between owner and program manager.

    Each owner must have a contract with the program manager that--
    (a) Requires the program manager to ensure that the program conforms 
to all applicable requirements of this chapter.
    (b) Provides the owner the right to inspect and to audit, or have a 
designee of the owner inspect and audit, the records of the program 
manager pertaining to the operational safety of the program and those 
records required to show compliance with the management specifications 
and all applicable regulations. These records include, but are not 
limited to, the management specifications, authorizations, approvals, 
manuals, log books, and maintenance records maintained by the program 
manager.
    (c) Designates the program manager as the owner's agent to receive 
service of notices pertaining to the program that the FAA seeks to 
provide to owners and authorizes the FAA to send such notices to the 
program manager in its capacity as the agent of the owner for such 
service.
    (d) Acknowledges the FAA's right to contact the owner directly if 
the Administrator determines that direct contact is necessary.



Sec. 91.1005  Prohibitions and limitations.

    (a) Except as provided in Sec. 91.321 or Sec. 91.501, no owner may 
carry persons or property for compensation or hire on a program flight.
    (b) During the term of the multi-year program agreements under which 
a fractional owner has obtained a minimum fractional ownership interest 
in a program aircraft, the flight hours used during that term by the 
owner on program aircraft must not exceed the total hours associated 
with the fractional owner's share of ownership.
    (c) No person may sell or lease an aircraft interest in a fractional 
ownership program that is smaller than that prescribed in the definition 
of ``minimum fractional ownership interest'' in Sec. 91.1001(b)(10) 
unless flights associated with that interest are operated under part 121 
or 135 of this chapter and are conducted by an air carrier or commercial 
operator certificated under part 119 of this chapter.



Sec. 91.1007  Flights conducted under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter.

    (a) Except as provided in Sec. 91.501(b), when a nonprogram 
aircraft is used to substitute for a program flight, the flight must be 
operated in compliance

[[Page 806]]

with part 121 or part 135 of this chapter, as applicable.
    (b) A program manager who holds a certificate under part 119 of this 
chapter may conduct a flight for the use of a fractional owner under 
part 121 or part 135 of this chapter if the aircraft is listed on that 
certificate holder's operations specifications for part 121 or part 135, 
as applicable.
    (c) The fractional owner must be informed when a flight is being 
conducted as a program flight or is being conducted under part 121 or 
part 135 of this chapter.

                           Operational Control



Sec. 91.1009  Clarification of operational control.

    (a) An owner is in operational control of a program flight when the 
owner--
    (1) Has the rights and is subject to the limitations set forth in 
Sec. Sec. 91.1003 through 91.1013;
    (2) Has directed that a program aircraft carry passengers or 
property designated by that owner; and
    (3) The aircraft is carrying those passengers or property.
    (b) An owner is not in operational control of a flight in the 
following circumstances:
    (1) A program aircraft is used for a flight for administrative 
purposes such as demonstration, positioning, ferrying, maintenance, or 
crew training, and no passengers or property designated by such owner 
are being carried; or
    (2) The aircraft being used for the flight is being operated under 
part 121 or 135 of this chapter.



Sec. 91.1011  Operational control responsibilities and delegation.

    (a) Each owner in operational control of a program flight is 
ultimately responsible for safe operations and for complying with all 
applicable requirements of this chapter, including those related to 
airworthiness and operations in connection with the flight. Each owner 
may delegate some or all of the performance of the tasks associated with 
carrying out this responsibility to the program manager, and may rely on 
the program manager for aviation expertise and program management 
services. When the owner delegates performance of tasks to the program 
manager or relies on the program manager's expertise, the owner and the 
program manager are jointly and individually responsible for compliance.
    (b) The management specifications, authorizations, and approvals 
required by this subpart are issued to, and in the sole name of, the 
program manager on behalf of the fractional owners collectively. The 
management specifications, authorizations, and approvals will not be 
affected by any change in ownership of a program aircraft, as long as 
the aircraft remains a program aircraft in the identified program.



Sec. 91.1013  Operational control briefing and acknowledgment.

    (a) Upon the signing of an initial program management services 
contract, or a renewal or extension of a program management services 
contract, the program manager must brief the fractional owner on the 
owner's operational control responsibilities, and the owner must review 
and sign an acknowledgment of these operational control 
responsibilities. The acknowledgment must be included with the program 
management services contract. The acknowledgment must define when a 
fractional owner is in operational control and the owner's 
responsibilities and liabilities under the program. These include:
    (1) Responsibility for compliance with the management specifications 
and all applicable regulations.
    (2) Enforcement actions for any noncompliance.
    (3) Liability risk in the event of a flight-related occurrence that 
causes personal injury or property damage.
    (b) The fractional owner's signature on the acknowledgment will 
serve as the owner's affirmation that the owner has read, understands, 
and accepts the operational control responsibilities described in the 
acknowledgment.
    (c) Each program manager must ensure that the fractional owner or 
owner's representatives have access to the acknowledgments for such 
owner's program aircraft. Each program manager must ensure that the FAA 
has access to the acknowledgments for all program aircraft.

[[Page 807]]

                           Program Management



Sec. 91.1014  Issuing or denying management specifications.

    (a) A person applying to the Administrator for management 
specifications under this subpart must submit an application--
    (1) In a form and manner prescribed by the Administrator; and
    (2) Containing any information the Administrator requires the 
applicant to submit.
    (b) Management specifications will be issued to the program manager 
on behalf of the fractional owners if, after investigation, the 
Administrator finds that the applicant:
    (1) Meets the applicable requirements of this subpart; and
    (2) Is properly and adequately equipped in accordance with the 
requirements of this chapter and is able to conduct safe operations 
under appropriate provisions of part 91 of this chapter and management 
specifications issued under this subpart.
    (c) An application for management specifications will be denied if 
the Administrator finds that the applicant is not properly or adequately 
equipped or is not able to conduct safe operations under this part.



Sec. 91.1015  Management specifications.

    (a) Each person conducting operations under this subpart or 
furnishing fractional ownership program management services to 
fractional owners must do so in accordance with management 
specifications issued by the Administrator to the fractional ownership 
program manager under this subpart. Management specifications must 
include:
    (1) The current list of all fractional owners and types of aircraft, 
registration markings and serial numbers;
    (2) The authorizations, limitations, and certain procedures under 
which these operations are to be conducted,
    (3) Certain other procedures under which each class and size of 
aircraft is to be operated;
    (4) Authorization for an inspection program approved under Sec. 
91.1109, including the type of aircraft, the registration markings and 
serial numbers of each aircraft to be operated under the program. No 
person may conduct any program flight using any aircraft not listed.
    (5) Time limitations, or standards for determining time limitations, 
for overhauls, inspections, and checks for airframes, engines, 
propellers, rotors, appliances, and emergency equipment of aircraft.
    (6) The specific location of the program manager's principal base of 
operations and, if different, the address that will serve as the primary 
point of contact for correspondence between the FAA and the program 
manager and the name and mailing address of the program manager's agent 
for service;
    (7) Other business names the program manager may use;
    (8) Authorization for the method of controlling weight and balance 
of aircraft;
    (9) Any authorized deviation and exemption granted from any 
requirement of this chapter; and
    (10) Any other information the Administrator determines is 
necessary.
    (b) The program manager may keep the current list of all fractional 
owners required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section at its principal 
base of operation or other location approved by the Administrator and 
referenced in its management specifications. Each program manager shall 
make this list of owners available for inspection by the Administrator.
    (c) Management specifications issued under this subpart are 
effective unless--
    (1) The management specifications are amended as provided in Sec. 
91.1017; or
    (2) The Administrator suspends or revokes the management 
specifications.
    (d) At least 30 days before it proposes to establish or change the 
location of its principal base of operations, its main operations base, 
or its main maintenance base, a program manager must provide written 
notification to the Flight Standards District Office that issued the 
program manager's management specifications.
    (e) Each program manager must maintain a complete and separate set 
of its management specifications at its principal base of operations, or 
at a place approved by the Administrator,

[[Page 808]]

and must make its management specifications available for inspection by 
the Administrator and the fractional owner(s) to whom the program 
manager furnishes its services for review and audit.
    (f) Each program manager must insert pertinent excerpts of its 
management specifications, or references thereto, in its program manual 
and must--
    (1) Clearly identify each such excerpt as a part of its management 
specifications; and
    (2) State that compliance with each management specifications 
requirement is mandatory.
    (g) Each program manager must keep each of its employees and other 
persons who perform duties material to its operations informed of the 
provisions of its management specifications that apply to that 
employee's or person's duties and responsibilities.



Sec. 91.1017  Amending program manager's management specifications.

    (a) The Administrator may amend any management specifications issued 
under this subpart if--
    (1) The Administrator determines that safety and the public interest 
require the amendment of any management specifications; or
    (2) The program manager applies for the amendment of any management 
specifications, and the Administrator determines that safety and the 
public interest allows the amendment.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, when the 
Administrator initiates an amendment of a program manager's management 
specifications, the following procedure applies:
    (1) The Flight Standards District Office that issued the program 
manager's management specifications will notify the program manager in 
writing of the proposed amendment.
    (2) The Flight Standards District Office that issued the program 
manager's management specifications will set a reasonable period (but 
not less than 7 days) within which the program manager may submit 
written information, views, and arguments on the amendment.
    (3) After considering all material presented, the Flight Standards 
District Office that issued the program manager's management 
specifications will notify the program manager of--
    (i) The adoption of the proposed amendment,
    (ii) The partial adoption of the proposed amendment, or
    (iii) The withdrawal of the proposed amendment.
    (4) If the Flight Standards District Office that issued the program 
manager's management specifications issues an amendment of the 
management specifications, it becomes effective not less than 30 days 
after the program manager receives notice of it unless--
    (i) The Flight Standards District Office that issued the program 
manager's management specifications finds under paragraph (e) of this 
section that there is an emergency requiring immediate action with 
respect to safety; or
    (ii) The program manager petitions for reconsideration of the 
amendment under paragraph (d) of this section.
    (c) When the program manager applies for an amendment to its 
management specifications, the following procedure applies:
    (1) The program manager must file an application to amend its 
management specifications--
    (i) At least 90 days before the date proposed by the applicant for 
the amendment to become effective, unless a shorter time is approved, in 
cases such as mergers, acquisitions of operational assets that require 
an additional showing of safety (for example, proving tests or 
validation tests), and resumption of operations following a suspension 
of operations as a result of bankruptcy actions.
    (ii) At least 15 days before the date proposed by the applicant for 
the amendment to become effective in all other cases.
    (2) The application must be submitted to the Flight Standards 
District Office that issued the program manager's management 
specifications in a form and manner prescribed by the Administrator.
    (3) After considering all material presented, the Flight Standards 
District Office that issued the program manager's management 
specifications will notify the program manager of--

[[Page 809]]

    (i) The adoption of the applied for amendment;
    (ii) The partial adoption of the applied for amendment; or
    (iii) The denial of the applied for amendment. The program manager 
may petition for reconsideration of a denial under paragraph (d) of this 
section.
    (4) If the Flight Standards District Office that issued the program 
manager's management specifications approves the amendment, following 
coordination with the program manager regarding its implementation, the 
amendment is effective on the date the Administrator approves it.
    (d) When a program manager seeks reconsideration of a decision of 
the Flight Standards District Office that issued the program manager's 
management specifications concerning the amendment of management 
specifications, the following procedure applies:
    (1) The program manager must petition for reconsideration of that 
decision within 30 days of the date that the program manager receives a 
notice of denial of the amendment of its management specifications, or 
of the date it receives notice of an FAA-initiated amendment of its 
management specifications, whichever circumstance applies.
    (2) The program manager must address its petition to the Director, 
Flight Standards Service.
    (3) A petition for reconsideration, if filed within the 30-day 
period, suspends the effectiveness of any amendment issued by the Flight 
Standards District Office that issued the program manager's management 
specifications unless that District Office has found, under paragraph 
(e) of this section, that an emergency exists requiring immediate action 
with respect to safety.
    (4) If a petition for reconsideration is not filed within 30 days, 
the procedures of paragraph (c) of this section apply.
    (e) If the Flight Standards District Office that issued the program 
manager's management specifications finds that an emergency exists 
requiring immediate action with respect to safety that makes the 
procedures set out in this section impracticable or contrary to the 
public interest--
    (1) The Flight Standards District Office amends the management 
specifications and makes the amendment effective on the day the program 
manager receives notice of it; and
    (2) In the notice to the program manager, the Flight Standards 
District Office will articulate the reasons for its finding that an 
emergency exists requiring immediate action with respect to safety or 
that makes it impracticable or contrary to the public interest to stay 
the effectiveness of the amendment.



Sec. 91.1019  Conducting tests and inspections.

    (a) At any time or place, the Administrator may conduct an 
inspection or test, other than an en route inspection, to determine 
whether a program manager under this subpart is complying with title 49 
of the United States Code, applicable regulations, and the program 
manager's management specifications.
    (b) The program manager must--
    (1) Make available to the Administrator at the program manager's 
principal base of operations, or at a place approved by the 
Administrator, the program manager's management specifications; and
    (2) Allow the Administrator to make any test or inspection, other 
than an en route inspection, to determine compliance respecting any 
matter stated in paragraph (a) of this section.
    (c) Each employee of, or person used by, the program manager who is 
responsible for maintaining the program manager's records required by or 
necessary to demonstrate compliance with this subpart must make those 
records available to the Administrator.
    (d) The Administrator may determine a program manager's continued 
eligibility to hold its management specifications on any grounds listed 
in paragraph (a) of this section, or any other appropriate grounds.
    (e) Failure by any program manager to make available to the 
Administrator upon request, the management specifications, or any 
required record, document, or report is grounds for suspension of all or 
any part of the program manager's management specifications.

[[Page 810]]



Sec. 91.1021  Internal safety reporting and incident/accident response.

    (a) Each program manager must establish an internal anonymous safety 
reporting procedure that fosters an environment of safety without any 
potential for retribution for filing the report.
    (b) Each program manager must establish procedures to respond to an 
aviation incident/accident.



Sec. 91.1023  Program operating manual requirements.

    (a) Each program manager must prepare and keep current a program 
operating manual setting forth procedures and policies acceptable to the 
Administrator. The program manager's management, flight, ground, and 
maintenance personnel must use this manual to conduct operations under 
this subpart. However, the Administrator may authorize a deviation from 
this paragraph if the Administrator finds that, because of the limited 
size of the operation, part of the manual is not necessary for guidance 
of management, flight, ground, or maintenance personnel.
    (b) Each program manager must maintain at least one copy of the 
manual at its principal base of operations.
    (c) No manual may be contrary to any applicable U.S. regulations, 
foreign regulations applicable to the program flights in foreign 
countries, or the program manager's management specifications.
    (d) The program manager must make a copy of the manual, or 
appropriate portions of the manual (and changes and additions), 
available to its maintenance and ground operations personnel and must 
furnish the manual to--
    (1) Its crewmembers; and
    (2) Representatives of the Administrator assigned to the program 
manager.
    (e) Each employee of the program manager to whom a manual or 
appropriate portions of it are furnished under paragraph (d)(1) of this 
section must keep it up-to-date with the changes and additions furnished 
to them.
    (f) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, the 
appropriate parts of the manual must be carried on each aircraft when 
away from the principal operations base. The appropriate parts must be 
available for use by ground or flight personnel.
    (g) For the purpose of complying with paragraph (d) of this section, 
a program manager may furnish the persons listed therein with all or 
part of its manual in printed form or other form, acceptable to the 
Administrator, that is retrievable in the English language. If the 
program manager furnishes all or part of the manual in other than 
printed form, it must ensure there is a compatible reading device 
available to those persons that provides a legible image of the 
maintenance information and instructions, or a system that is able to 
retrieve the maintenance information and instructions in the English 
language.
    (h) If a program manager conducts aircraft inspections or 
maintenance at specified facilities where the approved aircraft 
inspection program is available, the program manager is not required to 
ensure that the approved aircraft inspection program is carried aboard 
the aircraft en route to those facilities.
    (i) Program managers that are also certificated to operate under 
part 121 or 135 of this chapter may be authorized to use the operating 
manual required by those parts to meet the manual requirements of 
subpart K, provided:
    (1) The policies and procedures are consistent for both operations, 
or
    (2) When policies and procedures are different, the applicable 
policies and procedures are identified and used.



Sec. 91.1025  Program operating manual contents.

    Each program operating manual must have the date of the last 
revision on each revised page. Unless otherwise authorized by the 
Administrator, the manual must include the following:
    (a) Procedures for ensuring compliance with aircraft weight and 
balance limitations;
    (b) Copies of the program manager's management specifications or 
appropriate extracted information, including area of operations 
authorized, category and class of aircraft authorized, crew

[[Page 811]]

complements, and types of operations authorized;
    (c) Procedures for complying with accident notification 
requirements;
    (d) Procedures for ensuring that the pilot in command knows that 
required airworthiness inspections have been made and that the aircraft 
has been approved for return to service in compliance with applicable 
maintenance requirements;
    (e) Procedures for reporting and recording mechanical irregularities 
that come to the attention of the pilot in command before, during, and 
after completion of a flight;
    (f) Procedures to be followed by the pilot in command for 
determining that mechanical irregularities or defects reported for 
previous flights have been corrected or that correction of certain 
mechanical irregularities or defects have been deferred;
    (g) Procedures to be followed by the pilot in command to obtain 
maintenance, preventive maintenance, and servicing of the aircraft at a 
place where previous arrangements have not been made by the program 
manager or owner, when the pilot is authorized to so act for the 
operator;
    (h) Procedures under Sec. 91.213 for the release of, and 
continuation of flight if any item of equipment required for the 
particular type of operation becomes inoperative or unserviceable en 
route;
    (i) Procedures for refueling aircraft, eliminating fuel 
contamination, protecting from fire (including electrostatic 
protection), and supervising and protecting passengers during refueling;
    (j) Procedures to be followed by the pilot in command in the 
briefing under Sec. 91.1035.
    (k) Procedures for ensuring compliance with emergency procedures, 
including a list of the functions assigned each category of required 
crewmembers in connection with an emergency and emergency evacuation 
duties;
    (l) The approved aircraft inspection program, when applicable;
    (m) Procedures for the evacuation of persons who may need the 
assistance of another person to move expeditiously to an exit if an 
emergency occurs;
    (n) Procedures for performance planning that take into account take 
off, landing and en route conditions;
    (o) An approved Destination Airport Analysis, when required by Sec. 
91.1037(c), that includes the following elements, supported by aircraft 
performance data supplied by the aircraft manufacturer for the 
appropriate runway conditions--
    (1) Pilot qualifications and experience;
    (2) Aircraft performance data to include normal, abnormal and 
emergency procedures as supplied by the aircraft manufacturer;
    (3) Airport facilities and topography;
    (4) Runway conditions (including contamination);
    (5) Airport or area weather reporting;
    (6) Appropriate additional runway safety margins, if required;
    (7) Airplane inoperative equipment;
    (8) Environmental conditions; and
    (9) Other criteria that affect aircraft performance.
    (p) A suitable system (which may include a coded or electronic 
system) that provides for preservation and retrieval of maintenance 
recordkeeping information required by Sec. 91.1113 in a manner 
acceptable to the Administrator that provides--
    (1) A description (or reference to date acceptable to the 
Administrator) of the work performed:
    (2) The name of the person performing the work if the work is 
performed by a person outside the organization of the program manager; 
and
    (3) The name or other positive identification of the individual 
approving the work.
    (q) Flight locating and scheduling procedures; and
    (r) Other procedures and policy instructions regarding program 
operations that are issued by the program manager or required by the 
Administrator.



Sec. 91.1027  Recordkeeping.

    (a) Each program manager must keep at its principal base of 
operations or at other places approved by the Administrator, and must 
make available for inspection by the Administrator all of the following:

[[Page 812]]

    (1) The program manager's management specifications.
    (2) A current list of the aircraft used or available for use in 
operations under this subpart, the operations for which each is equipped 
(for example, MNPS, RNP5/10, RVSM.).
    (3) An individual record of each pilot used in operations under this 
subpart, including the following information:
    (i) The full name of the pilot.
    (ii) The pilot certificate (by type and number) and ratings that the 
pilot holds.
    (iii) The pilot's aeronautical experience in sufficient detail to 
determine the pilot's qualifications to pilot aircraft in operations 
under this subpart.
    (iv) The pilot's current duties and the date of the pilot's 
assignment to those duties.
    (v) The effective date and class of the medical certificate that the 
pilot holds.
    (vi) The date and result of each of the initial and recurrent 
competency tests and proficiency checks required by this subpart and the 
type of aircraft flown during that test or check.
    (vii) The pilot's flight time in sufficient detail to determine 
compliance with the flight time limitations of this subpart.
    (viii) The pilot's check pilot authorization, if any.
    (ix) Any action taken concerning the pilot's release from employment 
for physical or professional disqualification; and
    (x) The date of the satisfactory completion of initial, transition, 
upgrade, and differences training and each recurrent training phase 
required by this subpart.
    (4) An individual record for each flight attendant used in 
operations under this subpart, including the following information:
    (i) The full name of the flight attendant, and
    (ii) The date and result of training required by Sec. 91.1063, as 
applicable.
    (5) A current list of all fractional owners and associated aircraft. 
This list or a reference to its location must be included in the 
management specifications and should be of sufficient detail to 
determine the minimum fractional ownership interest of each aircraft.
    (b) Each program manager must keep each record required by paragraph 
(a)(2) of this section for at least 6 months, and must keep each record 
required by paragraphs (a)(3) and (a)(4) of this section for at least 12 
months. When an employee is no longer employed or affiliated with the 
program manager or fractional owner, each record required by paragraphs 
(a)(3) and (a)(4) of this section must be retained for at least 12 
months.
    (c) Each program manager is responsible for the preparation and 
accuracy of a load manifest in duplicate containing information 
concerning the loading of the aircraft. The manifest must be prepared 
before each takeoff and must include--
    (1) The number of passengers;
    (2) The total weight of the loaded aircraft;
    (3) The maximum allowable takeoff weight for that flight;
    (4) The center of gravity limits;
    (5) The center of gravity of the loaded aircraft, except that the 
actual center of gravity need not be computed if the aircraft is loaded 
according to a loading schedule or other approved method that ensures 
that the center of gravity of the loaded aircraft is within approved 
limits. In those cases, an entry must be made on the manifest indicating 
that the center of gravity is within limits according to a loading 
schedule or other approved method;
    (6) The registration number of the aircraft or flight number;
    (7) The origin and destination; and
    (8) Identification of crewmembers and their crew position 
assignments.
    (d) The pilot in command of the aircraft for which a load manifest 
must be prepared must carry a copy of the completed load manifest in the 
aircraft to its destination. The program manager must keep copies of 
completed load manifest for at least 30 days at its principal operations 
base, or at another location used by it and approved by the 
Administrator.
    (e) Each program manager is responsible for providing a written 
document that states the name of the entity having operational control 
on that flight and the part of this chapter under

[[Page 813]]

which the flight is operated. The pilot in command of the aircraft must 
carry a copy of the document in the aircraft to its destination. The 
program manager must keep a copy of the document for at least 30 days at 
its principal operations base, or at another location used by it and 
approved by the Administrator.
    (f) Records may be kept either in paper or other form acceptable to 
the Administrator.
    (g) Program managers that are also certificated to operate under 
part 121 or 135 of this chapter may satisfy the recordkeeping 
requirements of this section and of Sec. 91.1113 with records 
maintained to fulfill equivalent obligations under part 121 or 135 of 
this chapter.



Sec. 91.1029  Flight scheduling and locating requirements.

    (a) Each program manager must establish and use an adequate system 
to schedule and release program aircraft.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, each 
program manager must have adequate procedures established for locating 
each flight, for which a flight plan is not filed, that--
    (1) Provide the program manager with at least the information 
required to be included in a VFR flight plan;
    (2) Provide for timely notification of an FAA facility or search and 
rescue facility, if an aircraft is overdue or missing; and
    (3) Provide the program manager with the location, date, and 
estimated time for reestablishing radio or telephone communications, if 
the flight will operate in an area where communications cannot be 
maintained.
    (c) Flight locating information must be retained at the program 
manager's principal base of operations, or at other places designated by 
the program manager in the flight locating procedures, until the 
completion of the flight.
    (d) The flight locating requirements of paragraph (b) of this 
section do not apply to a flight for which an FAA flight plan has been 
filed and the flight plan is canceled within 25 nautical miles of the 
destination airport.



Sec. 91.1031  Pilot in command or second in command: Designation required.

    (a) Each program manager must designate a--
    (1) Pilot in command for each program flight; and
    (2) Second in command for each program flight requiring two pilots.
    (b) The pilot in command, as designated by the program manager, must 
remain the pilot in command at all times during that flight.



Sec. 91.1033  Operating information required.

    (a) Each program manager must, for all program operations, provide 
the following materials, in current and appropriate form, accessible to 
the pilot at the pilot station, and the pilot must use them--
    (1) A cockpit checklist;
    (2) For multiengine aircraft or for aircraft with retractable 
landing gear, an emergency cockpit checklist containing the procedures 
required by paragraph (c) of this section, as appropriate;
    (3) At least one set of pertinent aeronautical charts; and
    (4) For IFR operations, at least one set of pertinent navigational 
en route, terminal area, and instrument approach procedure charts.
    (b) Each cockpit checklist required by paragraph (a)(1) of this 
section must contain the following procedures:
    (1) Before starting engines;
    (2) Before takeoff;
    (3) Cruise;
    (4) Before landing;
    (5) After landing; and
    (6) Stopping engines.
    (c) Each emergency cockpit checklist required by paragraph (a)(2) of 
this section must contain the following procedures, as appropriate:
    (1) Emergency operation of fuel, hydraulic, electrical, and 
mechanical systems.
    (2) Emergency operation of instruments and controls.
    (3) Engine inoperative procedures.
    (4) Any other emergency procedures necessary for safety.

[[Page 814]]



Sec. 91.1035  Passenger awareness.

    (a) Prior to each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft 
carrying passengers on a program flight must ensure that all passengers 
have been orally briefed on--
    (1) Smoking: Each passenger must be briefed on when, where, and 
under what conditions smoking is prohibited. This briefing must include 
a statement, as appropriate, that the regulations require passenger 
compliance with lighted passenger information signs and no smoking 
placards, prohibit smoking in lavatories, and require compliance with 
crewmember instructions with regard to these items;
    (2) Use of safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and child restraint 
systems: Each passenger must be briefed on when, where and under what 
conditions it is necessary to have his or her safety belt and, if 
installed, his or her shoulder harness fastened about him or her, and if 
a child is being transported, the appropriate use of child restraint 
systems, if available. This briefing must include a statement, as 
appropriate, that the regulations require passenger compliance with the 
lighted passenger information sign and/or crewmember instructions with 
regard to these items;
    (3) The placement of seat backs in an upright position before 
takeoff and landing;
    (4) Location and means for opening the passenger entry door and 
emergency exits;
    (5) Location of survival equipment;
    (6) Ditching procedures and the use of flotation equipment required 
under Sec. 91.509 for a flight over water;
    (7) The normal and emergency use of oxygen installed in the 
aircraft; and
    (8) Location and operation of fire extinguishers.
    (b) Prior to each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft 
carrying passengers on a program flight must ensure that each person who 
may need the assistance of another person to move expeditiously to an 
exit if an emergency occurs and that person's attendant, if any, has 
received a briefing as to the procedures to be followed if an evacuation 
occurs. This paragraph does not apply to a person who has been given a 
briefing before a previous leg of that flight in the same aircraft.
    (c) Prior to each takeoff, the pilot in command must advise the 
passengers of the name of the entity in operational control of the 
flight.
    (d) The oral briefings required by paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of 
this section must be given by the pilot in command or another 
crewmember.
    (e) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section may 
be delivered by means of an approved recording playback device that is 
audible to each passenger under normal noise levels.
    (f) The oral briefing required by paragraph (a) of this section must 
be supplemented by printed cards that must be carried in the aircraft in 
locations convenient for the use of each passenger. The cards must--
    (1) Be appropriate for the aircraft on which they are to be used;
    (2) Contain a diagram of, and method of operating, the emergency 
exits; and
    (3) Contain other instructions necessary for the use of emergency 
equipment on board the aircraft.



Sec. 91.1037  Large transport category airplanes: Turbine engine powered; 

Limitations; Destination and alternate airports.

    (a) No program manager or any other person may permit a turbine 
engine powered large transport category airplane on a program flight to 
take off that airplane at a weight that (allowing for normal consumption 
of fuel and oil in flight to the destination or alternate airport) the 
weight of the airplane on arrival would exceed the landing weight in the 
Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the destination or alternate 
airport and the ambient temperature expected at the time of landing.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no program 
manager or any other person may permit a turbine engine powered large 
transport category airplane on a program flight to take off that 
airplane unless its weight on arrival, allowing for normal consumption 
of fuel and oil in flight (in accordance with the landing distance in 
the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the destination airport 
and

[[Page 815]]

the wind conditions expected there at the time of landing), would allow 
a full stop landing at the intended destination airport within 60 
percent of the effective length of each runway described below from a 
point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane 
and the runway. For the purpose of determining the allowable landing 
weight at the destination airport, the following is assumed:
    (1) The airplane is landed on the most favorable runway and in the 
most favorable direction, in still air.
    (2) The airplane is landed on the most suitable runway considering 
the probable wind velocity and direction and the ground handling 
characteristics of that airplane, and considering other conditions such 
as landing aids and terrain.
    (c) A program manager or other person flying a turbine engine 
powered large transport category airplane on a program flight may permit 
that airplane to take off at a weight in excess of that allowed by 
paragraph (b) of this section if all of the following conditions exist:
    (1) The operation is conducted in accordance with an approved 
Destination Airport Analysis in that person's program operating manual 
that contains the elements listed in Sec. 91.1025(o).
    (2) The airplane's weight on arrival, allowing for normal 
consumption of fuel and oil in flight (in accordance with the landing 
distance in the Airplane Flight Manual for the elevation of the 
destination airport and the wind conditions expected there at the time 
of landing), would allow a full stop landing at the intended destination 
airport within 80 percent of the effective length of each runway 
described below from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the 
obstruction clearance plane and the runway. For the purpose of 
determining the allowable landing weight at the destination airport, the 
following is assumed:
    (i) The airplane is landed on the most favorable runway and in the 
most favorable direction, in still air.
    (ii) The airplane is landed on the most suitable runway considering 
the probable wind velocity and direction and the ground handling 
characteristics of that airplane, and considering other conditions such 
as landing aids and terrain.
    (3) The operation is authorized by management specifications.
    (d) No program manager or other person may select an airport as an 
alternate airport for a turbine engine powered large transport category 
airplane unless (based on the assumptions in paragraph (b) of this 
section) that airplane, at the weight expected at the time of arrival, 
can be brought to a full stop landing within 80 percent of the effective 
length of the runway from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the 
obstruction clearance plane and the runway.
    (e) Unless, based on a showing of actual operating landing 
techniques on wet runways, a shorter landing distance (but never less 
than that required by paragraph (b) or (c) of this section) has been 
approved for a specific type and model airplane and included in the 
Airplane Flight Manual, no person may take off a turbojet airplane when 
the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of 
them, indicate that the runways at the destination or alternate airport 
may be wet or slippery at the estimated time of arrival unless the 
effective runway length at the destination airport is at least 115 
percent of the runway length required under paragraph (b) or (c) of this 
section.



Sec. 91.1039  IFR takeoff, approach and landing minimums.

    (a) No pilot on a program aircraft operating a program flight may 
begin an instrument approach procedure to an airport unless--
    (1) Either that airport or the alternate airport has a weather 
reporting facility operated by the U.S. National Weather Service, a 
source approved by the U.S. National Weather Service, or a source 
approved by the Administrator; and
    (2) The latest weather report issued by the weather reporting 
facility includes a current local altimeter setting for the destination 
airport. If no local altimeter setting is available at the destination 
airport, the pilot must obtain the current local altimeter setting from 
a source provided by the facility

[[Page 816]]

designated on the approach chart for the destination airport.
    (b) For flight planning purposes, if the destination airport does 
not have a weather reporting facility described in paragraph (a)(1) of 
this section, the pilot must designate as an alternate an airport that 
has a weather reporting facility meeting that criteria.
    (c) The MDA or Decision Altitude and visibility landing minimums 
prescribed in part 97 of this chapter or in the program manager's 
management specifications are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile 
respectively, but not to exceed the ceiling and visibility minimums for 
that airport when used as an alternate airport, for each pilot in 
command of a turbine-powered aircraft who has not served at least 100 
hours as pilot in command in that type of aircraft.
    (d) No person may take off an aircraft under IFR from an airport 
where weather conditions are at or above takeoff minimums but are below 
authorized IFR landing minimums unless there is an alternate airport 
within one hour's flying time (at normal cruising speed, in still air) 
of the airport of departure.
    (e) Each pilot making an IFR takeoff or approach and landing at an 
airport must comply with applicable instrument approach procedures and 
take off and landing weather minimums prescribed by the authority having 
jurisdiction over the airport. In addition, no pilot may, at that 
airport take off when the visibility is less than 600 feet.



Sec. 91.1041  Aircraft proving and validation tests.

    (a) No program manager may permit the operation of an aircraft, 
other than a turbojet aircraft, for which two pilots are required by the 
type certification requirements of this chapter for operations under 
VFR, if it has not previously proved such an aircraft in operations 
under this part in at least 25 hours of proving tests acceptable to the 
Administrator including--
    (1) Five hours of night time, if night flights are to be authorized;
    (2) Five instrument approach procedures under simulated or actual 
conditions, if IFR flights are to be authorized; and
    (3) Entry into a representative number of en route airports as 
determined by the Administrator.
    (b) No program manager may permit the operation of a turbojet 
airplane if it has not previously proved a turbojet airplane in 
operations under this part in at least 25 hours of proving tests 
acceptable to the Administrator including--
    (1) Five hours of night time, if night flights are to be authorized;
    (2) Five instrument approach procedures under simulated or actual 
conditions, if IFR flights are to be authorized; and
    (3) Entry into a representative number of en route airports as 
determined by the Administrator.
    (c) No program manager may carry passengers in an aircraft during 
proving tests, except those needed to make the tests and those 
designated by the Administrator to observe the tests. However, pilot 
flight training may be conducted during the proving tests.
    (d) Validation testing is required to determine that a program 
manager is capable of conducting operations safely and in compliance 
with applicable regulatory standards. Validation tests are required for 
the following authorizations:
    (1) The addition of an aircraft for which two pilots are required 
for operations under VFR or a turbojet airplane, if that aircraft or an 
aircraft of the same make or similar design has not been previously 
proved or validated in operations under this part.
    (2) Operations outside U.S. airspace.
    (3) Class II navigation authorizations.
    (4) Special performance or operational authorizations.
    (e) Validation tests must be accomplished by test methods acceptable 
to the Administrator. Actual flights may not be required when an 
applicant can demonstrate competence and compliance with appropriate 
regulations without conducting a flight.
    (f) Proving tests and validation tests may be conducted 
simultaneously when appropriate.

[[Page 817]]

    (g) The Administrator may authorize deviations from this section if 
the Administrator finds that special circumstances make full compliance 
with this section unnecessary.



Sec. 91.1043  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.1045  Additional equipment requirements.

    No person may operate a program aircraft on a program flight unless 
the aircraft is equipped with the following--
    (a) Airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than 30 
seats or a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds:
    (1) A cockpit voice recorder as required by Sec. 121.359 of this 
chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section.
    (2) A flight recorder as required by Sec. 121.343 or Sec. 121.344 
of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section.
    (3) A terrain awareness and warning system as required by Sec. 
121.354 of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that 
section.
    (4) A traffic alert and collision avoidance system as required by 
Sec. 121.356 of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in 
that section.
    (5) Airborne weather radar as required by Sec. 121.357 of this 
chapter, as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section.
    (b) Airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of 30 seats or 
fewer, excluding each crewmember, and a payload capacity of 7,500 pounds 
or less, and any rotorcraft (as applicable):
    (1) A cockpit voice recorder as required by Sec. 135.151 of this 
chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section.
    (2) A flight recorder as required by Sec. 135.152 of this chapter 
as applicable to the aircraft specified in that section.
    (3) A terrain awareness and warning system as required by Sec. 
135.154 of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in that 
section.
    (4) A traffic alert and collision avoidance system as required by 
Sec. 135.180 of this chapter as applicable to the aircraft specified in 
that section.
    (5) As applicable to the aircraft specified in that section, either:
    (i) Airborne thunderstorm detection equipment as required by Sec. 
135.173 of this chapter; or
    (ii) Airborne weather radar as required by Sec. 135.175 of this 
chapter.



Sec. 91.1047  Drug and alcohol misuse education program.

    (a) Each program manager must provide each direct employee 
performing flight crewmember, flight attendant, flight instructor, or 
aircraft maintenance duties with drug and alcohol misuse education.
    (b) No program manager may use any contract employee to perform 
flight crewmember, flight attendant, flight instructor, or aircraft 
maintenance duties for the program manager unless that contract employee 
has been provided with drug and alcohol misuse education.
    (c) Program managers must disclose to their owners and prospective 
owners the existence of a company drug and alcohol misuse testing 
program. If the program manager has implemented a company testing 
program, the program manager's disclosure must include the following:
    (1) Information on the substances that they test for, for example, 
alcohol and a list of the drugs;
    (2) The categories of employees tested, the types of tests, for 
example, pre-employment, random, reasonable cause/suspicion, post 
accident, return to duty and follow-up; and
    (3) The degree to which the program manager's company testing 
program is comparable to the federally mandated drug and alcohol misuse 
prevention program required under part 121, appendices I and J, of this 
chapter, regarding the information in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of 
this section.
    (d) If a program aircraft is operated on a program flight into an 
airport at which no maintenance personnel are available that are subject 
to the requirements of paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section and 
emergency maintenance is required, the program manager may use persons 
not meeting the requirements of paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section to 
provide such emergency maintenance under both of the following 
conditions:

[[Page 818]]

    (1) The program manager must notify the Drug Abatement Program 
Division, AAM-800, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591 in 
writing within 10 days after being provided emergency maintenance in 
accordance with this paragraph. The program manager must retain copies 
of all such written notifications for two years.
    (2) The aircraft must be reinspected by maintenance personnel who 
meet the requirements of paragraph (a) or (b) of this section when the 
aircraft is next at an airport where such maintenance personnel are 
available.
    (e) For purposes of this section, emergency maintenance means 
maintenance that--
    (1) Is not scheduled, and
    (2) Is made necessary by an aircraft condition not discovered prior 
to the departure for that location.
    (f) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, drug and 
alcohol misuse education conducted under an FAA-approved drug and 
alcohol misuse prevention program may be used to satisfy these 
requirements.



Sec. 91.1049  Personnel.

    (a) Each program manager and each fractional owner must use in 
program operations on program aircraft flight crews meeting Sec. 
91.1053 criteria and qualified under the appropriate regulations. The 
program manager must provide oversight of those crews.
    (b) Each program manager must employ (either directly or by 
contract) an adequate number of pilots per program aircraft. Flight crew 
staffing must be determined based on the following factors, at a 
minimum:
    (1) Number of program aircraft.
    (2) Program manager flight, duty, and rest time considerations, and 
in all cases within the limits set forth in Sec. Sec. 91.1057 through 
91.1061.
    (3) Vacations.
    (4) Operational efficiencies.
    (5) Training.
    (6) Single pilot operations, if authorized by deviation under 
paragraph (d) of this section.
    (c) Each program manager must publish pilot and flight attendant 
duty schedules sufficiently in advance to follow the flight, duty, and 
rest time limits in Sec. Sec. 91.1057 through 91.1061 in program 
operations.
    (d) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, when any 
program aircraft is flown in program operations with passengers onboard, 
the crew must consist of at least two qualified pilots employed or 
contracted by the program manager or the fractional owner.
    (e) The program manager must ensure that trained and qualified 
scheduling or flight release personnel are on duty to schedule and 
release program aircraft during all hours that such aircraft are 
available for program operations.



Sec. 91.1051  Pilot safety background check.

    Within 90 days of an individual beginning service as a pilot, the 
program manager must request the following information:
    (a) FAA records pertaining to--
    (1) Current pilot certificates and associated type ratings.
    (2) Current medical certificates.
    (3) Summaries of legal enforcement actions resulting in a finding by 
the Administrator of a violation.
    (b) Records from all previous employers during the five years 
preceding the date of the employment application where the applicant 
worked as a pilot. If any of these firms are in bankruptcy, the records 
must be requested from the trustees in bankruptcy for those employees. 
If the previous employer is no longer in business, a documented good 
faith effort must be made to obtain the records. Records from previous 
employers must include, as applicable--
    (1) Crew member records.
    (2) Drug testing--collection, testing, and rehabilitation records 
pertaining to the individual.
    (3) Alcohol misuse prevention program records pertaining to the 
individual.
    (4) The applicant's individual record that includes certifications, 
ratings, aeronautical experience, effective date and class of the 
medical certificate.



Sec. 91.1053  Crewmember experience.

    (a) No program manager or owner may use any person, nor may any 
person serve, as a pilot in command or

[[Page 819]]

second in command of a program aircraft, or as a flight attendant on a 
program aircraft, in program operations under this subpart unless that 
person has met the applicable requirements of part 61 of this chapter 
and has the following experience and ratings:
    (1) Total flight time for all pilots:
    (i) Pilot in command--A minimum of 1,500 hours.
    (ii) Second in command--A minimum of 500 hours.
    (2) For multi-engine turbine-powered fixed-wing and powered-lift 
aircraft, the following FAA certification and ratings requirements:
    (i) Pilot in command--Airline transport pilot and applicable type 
ratings.
    (ii) Second in command--Commercial pilot and instrument ratings.
    (iii) Flight attendant (if required or used)--Appropriately trained 
personnel.
    (3) For all other aircraft, the following FAA certification and 
rating requirements:
    (i) Pilot in command--Commercial pilot and instrument ratings.
    (ii) Second in command--Commercial pilot and instrument ratings.
    (iii) Flight attendant (if required or used)--Appropriately trained 
personnel.
    (b) The Administrator may authorize deviations from paragraph (a)(1) 
of this section if the Flight Standards District Office that issued the 
program manager's management specifications finds that the crewmember 
has comparable experience, and can effectively perform the functions 
associated with the position in accordance with the requirements of this 
chapter. Grants of deviation under this paragraph may be granted after 
consideration of the size and scope of the operation, the qualifications 
of the intended personnel and the circumstances set forth in Sec. 
91.1055(b)(1) through (3). The Administrator may, at any time, terminate 
any grant of deviation authority issued under this paragraph.



Sec. 91.1055  Pilot operating limitations and pairing requirement.

    (a) If the second in command of a fixed-wing program aircraft has 
fewer than 100 hours of flight time as second in command flying in the 
aircraft make and model and, if a type rating is required, in the type 
aircraft being flown, and the pilot in command is not an appropriately 
qualified check pilot, the pilot in command shall make all takeoffs and 
landings in any of the following situations:
    (1) Landings at the destination airport when a Destination Airport 
Analysis is required by Sec. 91.1037(c); and
    (2) In any of the following conditions:
    (i) The prevailing visibility for the airport is at or below 3/4 
mile.
    (ii) The runway visual range for the runway to be used is at or 
below 4,000 feet.
    (iii) The runway to be used has water, snow, slush, ice or similar 
contamination that may adversely affect aircraft performance.
    (iv) The braking action on the runway to be used is reported to be 
less than ``good.''
    (v) The crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess 
of 15 knots.
    (vi) Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport.
    (vii) Any other condition in which the pilot in command determines 
it to be prudent to exercise the pilot in command's authority.
    (b) No program manager may release a program flight under this 
subpart unless, for that aircraft make or model and, if a type rating is 
required, for that type aircraft, either the pilot in command or the 
second in command has at least 75 hours of flight time, either as pilot 
in command or second in command. The Administrator may, upon application 
by the program manager, authorize deviations from the requirements of 
this paragraph by an appropriate amendment to the management 
specifications in any of the following circumstances:
    (1) A newly authorized program manager does not employ any pilots 
who meet the minimum requirements of this paragraph.
    (2) An existing program manager adds to its fleet a new category and 
class aircraft not used before in its operation.
    (3) An existing program manager establishes a new base to which it 
assigns pilots who will be required to become

[[Page 820]]

qualified on the aircraft operated from that base.
    (c) No person may be assigned in the capacity of pilot in command in 
a program operation to more than two aircraft types that require a 
separate type rating.



Sec. 91.1057  Flight, duty and rest time requirements: All crewmembers.

    (a) For purposes of this subpart--
    Augmented flight crew means at least three pilots.
    Calendar day means the period of elapsed time, using Coordinated 
Universal Time or local time that begins at midnight and ends 24 hours 
later at the next midnight.
    Duty period means the period of elapsed time between reporting for 
an assignment involving flight time and release from that assignment by 
the program manager. All time between these two points is part of the 
duty period, even if flight time is interrupted by nonflight-related 
duties. The time is calculated using either Coordinated Universal Time 
or local time to reflect the total elapsed time.
    Extension of flight time means an increase in the flight time 
because of circumstances beyond the control of the program manager or 
flight crewmember (such as adverse weather) that are not known at the 
time of departure and that prevent the flightcrew from reaching the 
destination within the planned flight time.
    Flight attendant means an individual, other than a flight 
crewmember, who is assigned by the program manager, in accordance with 
the required minimum crew complement under the program manager's 
management specifications or in addition to that minimum complement, to 
duty in an aircraft during flight time and whose duties include but are 
not necessarily limited to cabin-safety-related responsibilities.
    Multi-time zone flight means an easterly or westerly flight or 
multiple flights in one direction in the same duty period that results 
in a time zone difference of 5 or more hours and is conducted in a 
geographic area that is south of 60 degrees north latitude and north of 
60 degrees south latitude.
    Reserve status means that status in which a flight crewmember, by 
arrangement with the program manager: Holds himself or herself fit to 
fly to the extent that this is within the control of the flight 
crewmember; remains within a reasonable response time of the aircraft as 
agreed between the flight crewmember and the program manager; and 
maintains a ready means whereby the flight crewmember may be contacted 
by the program manager. Reserve status is not part of any duty period or 
rest period.
    Rest period means a period of time required pursuant to this subpart 
that is free of all responsibility for work or duty prior to the 
commencement of, or following completion of, a duty period, and during 
which the flight crewmember or flight attendant cannot be required to 
receive contact from the program manager. A rest period does not include 
any time during which the program manager imposes on a flight crewmember 
or flight attendant any duty or restraint, including any actual work or 
present responsibility for work should the occasion arise.
    Standby means that portion of a duty period during which a flight 
crewmember is subject to the control of the program manager and holds 
himself or herself in a condition of readiness to undertake a flight. 
Standby is not part of any rest period.
    (b) A program manager may assign a crewmember and a crewmember may 
accept an assignment for flight time only when the applicable 
requirements of this section and Sec. Sec. 91.1059-91.1062 are met.
    (c) No program manager may assign any crewmember to any duty during 
any required rest period.
    (d) Time spent in transportation, not local in character, that a 
program manager requires of a crewmember and provides to transport the 
crewmember to an airport at which he or she is to serve on a flight as a 
crewmember, or from an airport at which he or she was relieved from duty 
to return to his or her home station, is not considered part of a rest 
period.
    (e) A flight crewmember may continue a flight assignment if the 
flight to which he or she is assigned would normally terminate within 
the flight time limitations, but because of circumstances beyond the 
control of the

[[Page 821]]

program manager or flight crewmember (such as adverse weather 
conditions), is not at the time of departure expected to reach its 
destination within the planned flight time. The extension of flight time 
under this paragraph may not exceed the maximum time limits set forth in 
Sec. 91.1059.
    (f) Each flight assignment must provide for at least 10 consecutive 
hours of rest during the 24-hour period that precedes the completion 
time of the assignment.
    (g) The program manager must provide each crewmember at least 13 
rest periods of at least 24 consecutive hours each in each calendar 
quarter.
    (h) A flight crewmember may decline a flight assignment if, in the 
flight crewmember's determination, to do so would not be consistent with 
the standard of safe operation required under this subpart, this part, 
and applicable provisions of this title.
    (i) Any rest period required by this subpart may occur concurrently 
with any other rest period.
    (j) If authorized by the Administrator, a program manager may use 
the applicable unscheduled flight time limitations, duty period 
limitations, and rest requirements of part 121 or part 135 of this 
chapter instead of the flight time limitations, duty period limitations, 
and rest requirements of this subpart.



Sec. 91.1059  Flight time limitations and rest requirements: One or two pilot 

crews.

    (a) No program manager may assign any flight crewmember, and no 
flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for flight time as a member 
of a one- or two-pilot crew if that crewmember's total flight time in 
all commercial flying will exceed--
    (1) 500 hours in any calendar quarter;
    (2) 800 hours in any two consecutive calendar quarters;
    (3) 1,400 hours in any calendar year.
    (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, during any 
24 consecutive hours the total flight time of the assigned flight, when 
added to any commercial flying by that flight crewmember, may not 
exceed--
    (1) 8 hours for a flight crew consisting of one pilot; or
    (2) 10 hours for a flight crew consisting of two pilots qualified 
under this subpart for the operation being conducted.
    (c) No program manager may assign any flight crewmember, and no 
flight crewmember may accept an assignment, if that crewmember's flight 
time or duty period will exceed, or rest time will be less than--

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                 Normal duty                   Extension of flight time
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(1) Minimum Rest Immediately Before      10 Hours..................  10 Hours.
 Duty.
(2) Duty Period........................  Up to 14 Hours............  Up to 14 Hours.
(3) Flight Time For 1 Pilot............  Up to 8 Hours.............  Exceeding 8 Hours up to 9 Hours.
(4) Flight Time For 2 Pilots...........  Up to 10 Hours............  Exceeding 10 Hours up to 12 Hours.
(5) Minimum After Duty Rest............  10 Hours..................  12 Hours.
(6) Minimum After Duty Rest Period for   14 Hours..................  18 Hours.
 Multi-Time Zone Flights.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------



Sec. 91.1061  Augmented flight crews.

    (a) No program manager may assign any flight crewmember, and no 
flight crewmember may accept an assignment, for flight time as a member 
of an augmented crew if that crewmember's total flight time in all 
commercial flying will exceed--
    (1) 500 hours in any calendar quarter;
    (2) 800 hours in any two consecutive calendar quarters;
    (3) 1,400 hours in any calendar year.
    (b) No program manager may assign any pilot to an augmented crew, 
unless the program manager ensures:
    (1) Adequate sleeping facilities are installed on the aircraft for 
the pilots.
    (2) No more than 8 hours of flight deck duty is accrued in any 24 
consecutive hours.
    (3) For a three-pilot crew, the crew must consist of at least the 
following:
    (i) A pilot in command (PIC) who meets the applicable flight 
crewmember requirements of this subpart and Sec. 61.57 of this chapter.

[[Page 822]]

    (ii) A PIC qualified pilot who meets the applicable flight 
crewmember requirements of this subpart and Sec. 61.57(c) and (d) of 
this chapter.
    (iii) A second in command (SIC) who meets the SIC qualifications of 
this subpart. For flight under IFR, that person must also meet the 
recent instrument experience requirements of part 61 of this chapter.
    (4) For a four-pilot crew, at least three pilots who meet the 
conditions of paragraph (b)(3) of this section, plus a fourth pilot who 
meets the SIC qualifications of this subpart. For flight under IFR, that 
person must also meet the recent instrument experience requirements of 
part 61 of this chapter.
    (c) No program manager may assign any flight crewmember, and no 
flight crewmember may accept an assignment, if that crewmember's flight 
time or duty period will exceed, or rest time will be less than--

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                    3-Pilot crew                         4-Pilot crew
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(1) Minimum Rest Immediately Before     10 Hours...........................  10 Hours
 Duty.
(2) Duty Period.......................  Up to 16 Hours.....................  Up to 18 Hours
(3) Flight Time.......................  Up to 12 Hours.....................  Up to 16 Hours
(4) Minimum After Duty Rest...........  12 Hours...........................  18 Hours
(5) Minimum After Duty Rest Period for  18 hours...........................  24 hours
 Multi-Time Zone Flights.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------



Sec. 91.1062  Duty periods and rest requirements: Flight attendants.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a program 
manager may assign a duty period to a flight attendant only when the 
assignment meets the applicable duty period limitations and rest 
requirements of this paragraph.
    (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(4), (a)(5), and (a)(6) of 
this section, no program manager may assign a flight attendant to a 
scheduled duty period of more than 14 hours.
    (2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a flight 
attendant scheduled to a duty period of 14 hours or less as provided 
under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be given a scheduled rest 
period of at least 9 consecutive hours. This rest period must occur 
between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the commencement 
of the subsequent duty period.
    (3) The rest period required under paragraph (a)(2) of this section 
may be scheduled or reduced to 8 consecutive hours if the flight 
attendant is provided a subsequent rest period of at least 10 
consecutive hours; this subsequent rest period must be scheduled to 
begin no later than 24 hours after the beginning of the reduced rest 
period and must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty 
period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period.
    (4) A program manager may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled 
duty period of more than 14 hours, but no more than 16 hours, if the 
program manager has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty 
period at least one flight attendant in addition to the minimum flight 
attendant complement required for the flight or flights in that duty 
period under the program manager's management specifications.
    (5) A program manager may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled 
duty period of more than 16 hours, but no more than 18 hours, if the 
program manager has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty 
period at least two flight attendants in addition to the minimum flight 
attendant complement required for the flight or flights in that duty 
period under the program manager's management specifications.
    (6) A program manager may assign a flight attendant to a scheduled 
duty period of more than 18 hours, but no more than 20 hours, if the 
scheduled duty period includes one or more flights that land or take off 
outside the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia, and if 
the program manager has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty 
period at least three flight attendants in addition to the minimum 
flight attendant complement required for the flight or flights in that 
duty period under the program manager's management specifications.

[[Page 823]]

    (7) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, a flight 
attendant scheduled to a duty period of more than 14 hours but no more 
than 20 hours, as provided in paragraphs (a)(4), (a)(5), and (a)(6) of 
this section, must be given a scheduled rest period of at least 12 
consecutive hours. This rest period must occur between the completion of 
the scheduled duty period and the commencement of the subsequent duty 
period.
    (8) The rest period required under paragraph (a)(7) of this section 
may be scheduled or reduced to 10 consecutive hours if the flight 
attendant is provided a subsequent rest period of at least 14 
consecutive hours; this subsequent rest period must be scheduled to 
begin no later than 24 hours after the beginning of the reduced rest 
period and must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty 
period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period.
    (9) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(4), (a)(5), and (a)(6) of this 
section, if a program manager elects to reduce the rest period to 10 
hours as authorized by paragraph (a)(8) of this section, the program 
manager may not schedule a flight attendant for a duty period of more 
than 14 hours during the 24-hour period commencing after the beginning 
of the reduced rest period.
    (b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a program manager 
may apply the flight crewmember flight time and duty limitations and 
rest requirements of this part to flight attendants for all operations 
conducted under this part provided that the program manager establishes 
written procedures that--
    (1) Apply to all flight attendants used in the program manager's 
operation;
    (2) Include the flight crewmember rest and duty requirements of 
Sec. Sec. 91.1057, 91.1059, and 91.1061, as appropriate to the 
operation being conducted, except that rest facilities on board the 
aircraft are not required;
    (3) Include provisions to add one flight attendant to the minimum 
flight attendant complement for each flight crewmember who is in excess 
of the minimum number required in the aircraft type certificate data 
sheet and who is assigned to the aircraft under the provisions of Sec. 
91.1061; and
    (4) Are approved by the Administrator and described or referenced in 
the program manager's management specifications.



Sec. 91.1063  Testing and training: Applicability and terms used.

    (a) Sections 91.1065 through 91.1107:
    (1) Prescribe the tests and checks required for pilots and flight 
attendant crewmembers and for the approval of check pilots in operations 
under this subpart;
    (2) Prescribe the requirements for establishing and maintaining an 
approved training program for crewmembers, check pilots and instructors, 
and other operations personnel employed or used by the program manager 
in program operations;
    (3) Prescribe the requirements for the qualification, approval and 
use of aircraft simulators and flight training devices in the conduct of 
an approved training program; and
    (4) Permits training center personnel authorized under part 142 of 
this chapter who meet the requirements of Sec. 91.1075 to conduct 
training, testing and checking under contract or other arrangements to 
those persons subject to the requirements of this subpart.
    (b) If authorized by the Administrator, a program manager may comply 
with the applicable training and testing sections of subparts N and O of 
part 121 of this chapter instead of Sec. Sec. 91.1065 through 91.1107, 
except for the operating experience requirements of Sec. 121.434 of 
this chapter.
    (c) If authorized by the Administrator, a program manager may comply 
with the applicable training and testing sections of subparts G and H of 
part 135 of this chapter instead of Sec. Sec. 91.1065 through 91.1107, 
except for the operating experience requirements of Sec. 135.244 of 
this chapter.
    (d) For the purposes of this subpart, the following terms and 
definitions apply:
    (1) Initial training. The training required for crewmembers who have 
not qualified and served in the same capacity on an aircraft.
    (2) Transition training. The training required for crewmembers who 
have

[[Page 824]]

qualified and served in the same capacity on another aircraft.
    (3) Upgrade training. The training required for crewmembers who have 
qualified and served as second in command on a particular aircraft type, 
before they serve as pilot in command on that aircraft.
    (4) Differences training. The training required for crewmembers who 
have qualified and served on a particular type aircraft, when the 
Administrator finds differences training is necessary before a 
crewmember serves in the same capacity on a particular variation of that 
aircraft.
    (5) Recurrent training. The training required for crewmembers to 
remain adequately trained and currently proficient for each aircraft 
crewmember position, and type of operation in which the crewmember 
serves.
    (6) In flight. The maneuvers, procedures, or functions that will be 
conducted in the aircraft.
    (7) Training center. An organization governed by the applicable 
requirements of part 142 of this chapter that conducts training, 
testing, and checking under contract or other arrangement to program 
managers subject to the requirements of this subpart.
    (8) Requalification training. The training required for crewmembers 
previously trained and qualified, but who have become unqualified 
because of not having met within the required period any of the 
following:
    (i) Recurrent crewmember training requirements of Sec. 91.1107.
    (ii) Instrument proficiency check requirements of Sec. 91.1069.
    (iii) Testing requirements of Sec. 91.1065.
    (iv) Recurrent flight attendant testing requirements of Sec. 
91.1067.



Sec. 91.1065  Initial and recurrent pilot testing requirements.

    (a) No program manager or owner may use a pilot, nor may any person 
serve as a pilot, unless, since the beginning of the 12th month before 
that service, that pilot has passed either a written or oral test (or a 
combination), given by the Administrator or an authorized check pilot, 
on that pilot's knowledge in the following areas--
    (1) The appropriate provisions of parts 61 and 91 of this chapter 
and the management specifications and the operating manual of the 
program manager;
    (2) For each type of aircraft to be flown by the pilot, the aircraft 
powerplant, major components and systems, major appliances, performance 
and operating limitations, standard and emergency operating procedures, 
and the contents of the accepted operating manual or equivalent, as 
applicable;
    (3) For each type of aircraft to be flown by the pilot, the method 
of determining compliance with weight and balance limitations for 
takeoff, landing and en route operations;
    (4) Navigation and use of air navigation aids appropriate to the 
operation or pilot authorization, including, when applicable, instrument 
approach facilities and procedures;
    (5) Air traffic control procedures, including IFR procedures when 
applicable;
    (6) Meteorology in general, including the principles of frontal 
systems, icing, fog, thunderstorms, and windshear, and, if appropriate 
for the operation of the program manager, high altitude weather;
    (7) Procedures for--
    (i) Recognizing and avoiding severe weather situations;
    (ii) Escaping from severe weather situations, in case of inadvertent 
encounters, including low-altitude windshear (except that rotorcraft 
aircraft pilots are not required to be tested on escaping from low-
altitude windshear); and
    (iii) Operating in or near thunderstorms (including best penetration 
altitudes), turbulent air (including clear air turbulence), icing, hail, 
and other potentially hazardous meteorological conditions; and
    (8) New equipment, procedures, or techniques, as appropriate.
    (b) No program manager or owner may use a pilot, nor may any person 
serve as a pilot, in any aircraft unless, since the beginning of the 
12th month before that service, that pilot has passed a competency check 
given by the Administrator or an authorized check pilot in that class of 
aircraft, if single-engine aircraft other than turbojet, or that type of 
aircraft, if rotorcraft, multiengine aircraft, or turbojet

[[Page 825]]

airplane, to determine the pilot's competence in practical skills and 
techniques in that aircraft or class of aircraft. The extent of the 
competency check will be determined by the Administrator or authorized 
check pilot conducting the competency check. The competency check may 
include any of the maneuvers and procedures currently required for the 
original issuance of the particular pilot certificate required for the 
operations authorized and appropriate to the category, class and type of 
aircraft involved. For the purposes of this paragraph, type, as to an 
airplane, means any one of a group of airplanes determined by the 
Administrator to have a similar means of propulsion, the same 
manufacturer, and no significantly different handling or flight 
characteristics. For the purposes of this paragraph, type, as to a 
rotorcraft, means a basic make and model.
    (c) The instrument proficiency check required by Sec. 91.1069 may 
be substituted for the competency check required by this section for the 
type of aircraft used in the check.
    (d) For the purpose of this subpart, competent performance of a 
procedure or maneuver by a person to be used as a pilot requires that 
the pilot be the obvious master of the aircraft, with the successful 
outcome of the maneuver never in doubt.
    (e) The Administrator or authorized check pilot certifies the 
competency of each pilot who passes the knowledge or flight check in the 
program manager's pilot records.
    (f) All or portions of a required competency check may be given in 
an aircraft simulator or other appropriate training device, if approved 
by the Administrator.



Sec. 91.1067  Initial and recurrent flight attendant crewmember testing 

requirements.

    No program manager or owner may use a flight attendant crewmember, 
nor may any person serve as a flight attendant crewmember unless, since 
the beginning of the 12th month before that service, the program manager 
has determined by appropriate initial and recurrent testing that the 
person is knowledgeable and competent in the following areas as 
appropriate to assigned duties and responsibilities--
    (a) Authority of the pilot in command;
    (b) Passenger handling, including procedures to be followed in 
handling deranged persons or other persons whose conduct might 
jeopardize safety;
    (c) Crewmember assignments, functions, and responsibilities during 
ditching and evacuation of persons who may need the assistance of 
another person to move expeditiously to an exit in an emergency;
    (d) Briefing of passengers;
    (e) Location and operation of portable fire extinguishers and other 
items of emergency equipment;
    (f) Proper use of cabin equipment and controls;
    (g) Location and operation of passenger oxygen equipment;
    (h) Location and operation of all normal and emergency exits, 
including evacuation slides and escape ropes; and
    (i) Seating of persons who may need assistance of another person to 
move rapidly to an exit in an emergency as prescribed by the program 
manager's operations manual.



Sec. 91.1069  Flight crew: Instrument proficiency check requirements.

    (a) No program manager or owner may use a pilot, nor may any person 
serve, as a pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR unless, since the 
beginning of the 6th month before that service, that pilot has passed an 
instrument proficiency check under this section administered by the 
Administrator or an authorized check pilot.
    (b) No program manager or owner may use a pilot, nor may any person 
serve, as a second command pilot of an aircraft under IFR unless, since 
the beginning of the 12th month before that service, that pilot has 
passed an instrument proficiency check under this section administered 
by the Administrator or an authorized check pilot.
    (c) No pilot may use any type of precision instrument approach 
procedure under IFR unless, since the beginning of the 6th month before 
that use, the pilot satisfactorily demonstrated that type of approach 
procedure. No pilot may use any type of nonprecision approach procedure 
under IFR unless,

[[Page 826]]

since the beginning of the 6th month before that use, the pilot has 
satisfactorily demonstrated either that type of approach procedure or 
any other two different types of nonprecision approach procedures. The 
instrument approach procedure or procedures must include at least one 
straight-in approach, one circling approach, and one missed approach. 
Each type of approach procedure demonstrated must be conducted to 
published minimums for that procedure.
    (d) The instrument proficiency checks required by paragraphs (a) and 
(b) of this section consists of either an oral or written equipment test 
(or a combination) and a flight check under simulated or actual IFR 
conditions. The equipment test includes questions on emergency 
procedures, engine operation, fuel and lubrication systems, power 
settings, stall speeds, best engine-out speed, propeller and 
supercharger operations, and hydraulic, mechanical, and electrical 
systems, as appropriate. The flight check includes navigation by 
instruments, recovery from simulated emergencies, and standard 
instrument approaches involving navigational facilities which that pilot 
is to be authorized to use.
    (e) Each pilot taking the instrument proficiency check must show 
that standard of competence required by Sec. 91.1065(d).
    (1) The instrument proficiency check must--
    (i) For a pilot in command of an aircraft requiring that the PIC 
hold an airline transport pilot certificate, include the procedures and 
maneuvers for an airline transport pilot certificate in the particular 
type of aircraft, if appropriate; and
    (ii) For a pilot in command of a rotorcraft or a second in command 
of any aircraft requiring that the SIC hold a commercial pilot 
certificate include the procedures and maneuvers for a commercial pilot 
certificate with an instrument rating and, if required, for the 
appropriate type rating.
    (2) The instrument proficiency check must be given by an authorized 
check pilot or by the Administrator.
    (f) If the pilot is assigned to pilot only one type of aircraft, 
that pilot must take the instrument proficiency check required by 
paragraph (a) of this section in that type of aircraft.
    (g) If the pilot in command is assigned to pilot more than one type 
of aircraft, that pilot must take the instrument proficiency check 
required by paragraph (a) of this section in each type of aircraft to 
which that pilot is assigned, in rotation, but not more than one flight 
check during each period described in paragraph (a) of this section.
    (h) If the pilot in command is assigned to pilot both single-engine 
and multiengine aircraft, that pilot must initially take the instrument 
proficiency check required by paragraph (a) of this section in a 
multiengine aircraft, and each succeeding check alternately in single-
engine and multiengine aircraft, but not more than one flight check 
during each period described in paragraph (a) of this section.
    (i) All or portions of a required flight check may be given in an 
aircraft simulator or other appropriate training device, if approved by 
the Administrator.



Sec. 91.1071  Crewmember: Tests and checks, grace provisions, training to 

accepted standards.

    (a) If a crewmember who is required to take a test or a flight check 
under this subpart, completes the test or flight check in the month 
before or after the month in which it is required, that crewmember is 
considered to have completed the test or check in the month in which it 
is required.
    (b) If a pilot being checked under this subpart fails any of the 
required maneuvers, the person giving the check may give additional 
training to the pilot during the course of the check. In addition to 
repeating the maneuvers failed, the person giving the check may require 
the pilot being checked to repeat any other maneuvers that are necessary 
to determine the pilot's proficiency. If the pilot being checked is 
unable to demonstrate satisfactory performance to the person conducting 
the check, the program manager may not use the pilot, nor may the pilot 
serve, as a flight crewmember in operations under this subpart until the 
pilot has satisfactorily completed the check. If a pilot who 
demonstrates unsatisfactory performance is employed

[[Page 827]]

as a pilot for a certificate holder operating under part 121, 125, or 
135 of this chapter, he or she must notify that certificate holder of 
the unsatisfactory performance.



Sec. 91.1073  Training program: General.

    (a) Each program manager must have a training program and must:
    (1) Establish, obtain the appropriate initial and final approval of, 
and provide a training program that meets this subpart and that ensures 
that each crewmember, including each flight attendant if the program 
manager uses a flight attendant crewmember, flight instructor, check 
pilot, and each person assigned duties for the carriage and handling of 
hazardous materials (as defined in 49 CFR 171.8) is adequately trained 
to perform these assigned duties.
    (2) Provide adequate ground and flight training facilities and 
properly qualified ground instructors for the training required by this 
subpart.
    (3) Provide and keep current for each aircraft type used and, if 
applicable, the particular variations within the aircraft type, 
appropriate training material, examinations, forms, instructions, and 
procedures for use in conducting the training and checks required by 
this subpart.
    (4) Provide enough flight instructors, check pilots, and simulator 
instructors to conduct required flight training and flight checks, and 
simulator training courses allowed under this subpart.
    (b) Whenever a crewmember who is required to take recurrent training 
under this subpart completes the training in the month before, or the 
month after, the month in which that training is required, the 
crewmember is considered to have completed it in the month in which it 
was required.
    (c) Each instructor, supervisor, or check pilot who is responsible 
for a particular ground training subject, segment of flight training, 
course of training, flight check, or competence check under this subpart 
must certify as to the proficiency and knowledge of the crewmember, 
flight instructor, or check pilot concerned upon completion of that 
training or check. That certification must be made a part of the 
crewmember's record. When the certification required by this paragraph 
is made by an entry in a computerized recordkeeping system, the 
certifying instructor, supervisor, or check pilot, must be identified 
with that entry. However, the signature of the certifying instructor, 
supervisor, or check pilot is not required for computerized entries.
    (d) Training subjects that apply to more than one aircraft or 
crewmember position and that have been satisfactorily completed during 
previous training while employed by the program manager for another 
aircraft or another crewmember position, need not be repeated during 
subsequent training other than recurrent training.
    (e) Aircraft simulators and other training devices may be used in 
the program manager's training program if approved by the Administrator.
    (f) Each program manager is responsible for establishing safe and 
efficient crew management practices for all phases of flight in program 
operations including crew resource management training for all 
crewmembers used in program operations.
    (g) If an aircraft simulator has been approved by the Administrator 
for use in the program manager's training program, the program manager 
must ensure that each pilot annually completes at least one flight 
training session in an approved simulator for at least one program 
aircraft. The training session may be the flight training portion of any 
of the pilot training or check requirements of this subpart, including 
the initial, transition, upgrade, requalification, differences, or 
recurrent training, or the accomplishment of a competency check or 
instrument proficiency check. If there is no approved simulator for that 
aircraft type in operation, then all flight training and checking must 
be accomplished in the aircraft.



Sec. 91.1075  Training program: Special rules.

    Other than the program manager, only the following are eligible 
under this subpart to conduct training, testing, and checking under 
contract or other arrangement to those persons subject to the 
requirements of this subpart.

[[Page 828]]

    (a) Another program manager operating under this subpart:
    (b) A training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter to 
conduct training, testing, and checking required by this subpart if the 
training center--
    (1) Holds applicable training specifications issued under part 142 
of this chapter;
    (2) Has facilities, training equipment, and courseware meeting the 
applicable requirements of part 142 of this chapter;
    (3) Has approved curriculums, curriculum segments, and portions of 
curriculum segments applicable for use in training courses required by 
this subpart; and
    (4) Has sufficient instructors and check pilots qualified under the 
applicable requirements of Sec. Sec. 91.1089 through 91.1095 to conduct 
training, testing, and checking to persons subject to the requirements 
of this subpart.
    (c) A part 119 certificate holder operating under part 121 or part 
135 of this chapter.
    (d) As authorized by the Administrator, a training center that is 
not certificated under part 142 of this chapter.



Sec. 91.1077  Training program and revision: Initial and final approval.

    (a) To obtain initial and final approval of a training program, or a 
revision to an approved training program, each program manager must 
submit to the Administrator--
    (1) An outline of the proposed or revised curriculum, that provides 
enough information for a preliminary evaluation of the proposed training 
program or revision; and
    (2) Additional relevant information that may be requested by the 
Administrator.
    (b) If the proposed training program or revision complies with this 
subpart, the Administrator grants initial approval in writing after 
which the program manager may conduct the training under that program. 
The Administrator then evaluates the effectiveness of the training 
program and advises the program manager of deficiencies, if any, that 
must be corrected.
    (c) The Administrator grants final approval of the proposed training 
program or revision if the program manager shows that the training 
conducted under the initial approval in paragraph (b) of this section 
ensures that each person who successfully completes the training is 
adequately trained to perform that person's assigned duties.
    (d) Whenever the Administrator finds that revisions are necessary 
for the continued adequacy of a training program that has been granted 
final approval, the program manager must, after notification by the 
Administrator, make any changes in the program that are found necessary 
by the Administrator. Within 30 days after the program manager receives 
the notice, it may file a petition to reconsider the notice with the 
Administrator. The filing of a petition to reconsider stays the notice 
pending a decision by the Administrator. However, if the Administrator 
finds that there is an emergency that requires immediate action in the 
interest of safety, the Administrator may, upon a statement of the 
reasons, require a change effective without stay.



Sec. 91.1079  Training program: Curriculum.

    (a) Each program manager must prepare and keep current a written 
training program curriculum for each type of aircraft for each 
crewmember required for that type aircraft. The curriculum must include 
ground and flight training required by this subpart.
    (b) Each training program curriculum must include the following:
    (1) A list of principal ground training subjects, including 
emergency training subjects, that are provided.
    (2) A list of all the training devices, mock-ups, systems trainers, 
procedures trainers, or other training aids that the program manager 
will use.
    (3) Detailed descriptions or pictorial displays of the approved 
normal, abnormal, and emergency maneuvers, procedures and functions that 
will be performed during each flight training phase or flight check, 
indicating those maneuvers, procedures and functions that are to be 
performed during the inflight portions of flight training and flight 
checks.

[[Page 829]]



Sec. 91.1081  Crewmember training requirements.

    (a) Each program manager must include in its training program the 
following initial and transition ground training as appropriate to the 
particular assignment of the crewmember:
    (1) Basic indoctrination ground training for newly hired crewmembers 
including instruction in at least the--
    (i) Duties and responsibilities of crewmembers as applicable;
    (ii) Appropriate provisions of this chapter;
    (iii) Contents of the program manager's management specifications 
(not required for flight attendants); and
    (iv) Appropriate portions of the program manager's operating manual.
    (2) The initial and transition ground training in Sec. Sec. 91.1101 
and 91.1105, as applicable.
    (3) Emergency training in Sec. 91.1083.
    (b) Each training program must provide the initial and transition 
flight training in Sec. 91.1103, as applicable.
    (c) Each training program must provide recurrent ground and flight 
training as provided in Sec. 91.1107.
    (d) Upgrade training in Sec. Sec. 91.1101 and 91.1103 for a 
particular type aircraft may be included in the training program for 
crewmembers who have qualified and served as second in command on that 
aircraft.
    (e) In addition to initial, transition, upgrade and recurrent 
training, each training program must provide ground and flight training, 
instruction, and practice necessary to ensure that each crewmember--
    (1) Remains adequately trained and currently proficient for each 
aircraft, crewmember position, and type of operation in which the 
crewmember serves; and
    (2) Qualifies in new equipment, facilities, procedures, and 
techniques, including modifications to aircraft.



Sec. 91.1083  Crewmember emergency training.

    (a) Each training program must provide emergency training under this 
section for each aircraft type, model, and configuration, each 
crewmember, and each kind of operation conducted, as appropriate for 
each crewmember and the program manager.
    (b) Emergency training must provide the following:
    (1) Instruction in emergency assignments and procedures, including 
coordination among crewmembers.
    (2) Individual instruction in the location, function, and operation 
of emergency equipment including--
    (i) Equipment used in ditching and evacuation;
    (ii) First aid equipment and its proper use; and
    (iii) Portable fire extinguishers, with emphasis on the type of 
extinguisher to be used on different classes of fires.
    (3) Instruction in the handling of emergency situations including--
    (i) Rapid decompression;
    (ii) Fire in flight or on the surface and smoke control procedures 
with emphasis on electrical equipment and related circuit breakers found 
in cabin areas;
    (iii) Ditching and evacuation;
    (iv) Illness, injury, or other abnormal situations involving 
passengers or crewmembers; and
    (v) Hijacking and other unusual situations.
    (4) Review and discussion of previous aircraft accidents and 
incidents involving actual emergency situations.
    (c) Each crewmember must perform at least the following emergency 
drills, using the proper emergency equipment and procedures, unless the 
Administrator finds that, for a particular drill, the crewmember can be 
adequately trained by demonstration:
    (1) Ditching, if applicable.
    (2) Emergency evacuation.
    (3) Fire extinguishing and smoke control.
    (4) Operation and use of emergency exits, including deployment and 
use of evacuation slides, if applicable.
    (5) Use of crew and passenger oxygen.
    (6) Removal of life rafts from the aircraft, inflation of the life 
rafts, use of lifelines, and boarding of passengers and crew, if 
applicable.
    (7) Donning and inflation of life vests and the use of other 
individual flotation devices, if applicable.
    (d) Crewmembers who serve in operations above 25,000 feet must 
receive instruction in the following:
    (1) Respiration.
    (2) Hypoxia.

[[Page 830]]

    (3) Duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen at 
altitude.
    (4) Gas expansion.
    (5) Gas bubble formation.
    (6) Physical phenomena and incidents of decompression.



Sec. 91.1085  Hazardous materials recognition training.

    No program manager may use any person to perform, and no person may 
perform, any assigned duties and responsibilities for the handling or 
carriage of hazardous materials (as defined in 49 CFR 171.8), unless 
that person has received training in the recognition of hazardous 
materials.



Sec. 91.1087  Approval of aircraft simulators and other training devices.

    (a) Training courses using aircraft simulators and other training 
devices may be included in the program manager's training program if 
approved by the Administrator.
    (b) Each aircraft simulator and other training device that is used 
in a training course or in checks required under this subpart must meet 
the following requirements:
    (1) It must be specifically approved for--
    (i) The program manager; and
    (ii) The particular maneuver, procedure, or crewmember function 
involved.
    (2) It must maintain the performance, functional, and other 
characteristics that are required for approval.
    (3) Additionally, for aircraft simulators, it must be--
    (i) Approved for the type aircraft and, if applicable, the 
particular variation within type for which the training or check is 
being conducted; and
    (ii) Modified to conform with any modification to the aircraft being 
simulated that changes the performance, functional, or other 
characteristics required for approval.
    (c) A particular aircraft simulator or other training device may be 
used by more than one program manager.
    (d) In granting initial and final approval of training programs or 
revisions to them, the Administrator considers the training devices, 
methods, and procedures listed in the program manager's curriculum under 
Sec. 91.1079.



Sec. 91.1089  Qualifications: Check pilots (aircraft) and check pilots 

(simulator).

    (a) For the purposes of this section and Sec. 91.1093:
    (1) A check pilot (aircraft) is a person who is qualified to conduct 
flight checks in an aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight 
training device for a particular type aircraft.
    (2) A check pilot (simulator) is a person who is qualified to 
conduct flight checks, but only in a flight simulator, in a flight 
training device, or both, for a particular type aircraft.
    (3) Check pilots (aircraft) and check pilots (simulator) are those 
check pilots who perform the functions described in Sec. 91.1073(a)(4) 
and (c).
    (b) No program manager may use a person, nor may any person serve as 
a check pilot (aircraft) in a training program established under this 
subpart unless, with respect to the aircraft type involved, that 
person--
    (1) Holds the pilot certificates and ratings required to serve as a 
pilot in command in operations under this subpart;
    (2) Has satisfactorily completed the training phases for the 
aircraft, including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a 
pilot in command in operations under this subpart;
    (3) Has satisfactorily completed the proficiency or competency 
checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations 
under this subpart;
    (4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training 
requirements of Sec. 91.1093;
    (5) Holds at least a Class III medical certificate unless serving as 
a required crewmember, in which case holds a Class I or Class II medical 
certificate as appropriate; and
    (6) Has been approved by the Administrator for the check pilot 
duties involved.
    (c) No program manager may use a person, nor may any person serve as 
a check pilot (simulator) in a training program established under this 
subpart unless, with respect to the aircraft type involved, that person 
meets the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, or--

[[Page 831]]

    (1) Holds the applicable pilot certificates and ratings, except 
medical certificate, required to serve as a pilot in command in 
operations under this subpart;
    (2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases for 
the aircraft, including recurrent training, that are required to serve 
as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart;
    (3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency or 
competency checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command in 
operations under this subpart;
    (4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training 
requirements of Sec. 91.1093; and
    (5) Has been approved by the Administrator for the check pilot 
(simulator) duties involved.
    (d) Completion of the requirements in paragraphs (b)(2), (3), and 
(4) or (c)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, as applicable, must be 
entered in the individual's training record maintained by the program 
manager.
    (e) A check pilot who does not hold an appropriate medical 
certificate may function as a check pilot (simulator), but may not serve 
as a flightcrew member in operations under this subpart.
    (f) A check pilot (simulator) must accomplish the following--
    (1) Fly at least two flight segments as a required crewmember for 
the type, class, or category aircraft involved within the 12-month 
period preceding the performance of any check pilot duty in a flight 
simulator; or
    (2) Before performing any check pilot duty in a flight simulator, 
satisfactorily complete an approved line-observation program within the 
period prescribed by that program.
    (g) The flight segments or line-observation program required in 
paragraph (f) of this section are considered to be completed in the 
month required if completed in the month before or the month after the 
month in which they are due.



Sec. 91.1091  Qualifications: Flight instructors (aircraft) and flight 

instructors (simulator).

    (a) For the purposes of this section and Sec. 91.1095:
    (1) A flight instructor (aircraft) is a person who is qualified to 
instruct in an aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training 
device for a particular type, class, or category aircraft.
    (2) A flight instructor (simulator) is a person who is qualified to 
instruct in a flight simulator, in a flight training device, or in both, 
for a particular type, class, or category aircraft.
    (3) Flight instructors (aircraft) and flight instructors (simulator) 
are those instructors who perform the functions described in Sec. 
91.1073(a)(4) and (c).
    (b) No program manager may use a person, nor may any person serve as 
a flight instructor (aircraft) in a training program established under 
this subpart unless, with respect to the type, class, or category 
aircraft involved, that person--
    (1) Holds the pilot certificates and ratings required to serve as a 
pilot in command in operations under this subpart or part 121 or 135 of 
this chapter;
    (2) Has satisfactorily completed the training phases for the 
aircraft, including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a 
pilot in command in operations under this subpart;
    (3) Has satisfactorily completed the proficiency or competency 
checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command in operations 
under this subpart;
    (4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training 
requirements of Sec. 91.1095; and
    (5) Holds at least a Class III medical certificate.
    (c) No program manager may use a person, nor may any person serve as 
a flight instructor (simulator) in a training program established under 
this subpart, unless, with respect to the type, class, or category 
aircraft involved, that person meets the provisions of paragraph (b) of 
this section, or--
    (1) Holds the pilot certificates and ratings, except medical 
certificate, required to serve as a pilot in command in operations under 
this subpart or part 121 or 135 of this chapter;

[[Page 832]]

    (2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases for 
the aircraft, including recurrent training, that are required to serve 
as a pilot in command in operations under this subpart;
    (3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency or 
competency checks that are required to serve as a pilot in command in 
operations under this subpart; and
    (4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training 
requirements of Sec. 91.1095.
    (d) Completion of the requirements in paragraphs (b)(2), (3), and 
(4) or (c)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, as applicable, must be 
entered in the individual's training record maintained by the program 
manager.
    (e) A pilot who does not hold a medical certificate may function as 
a flight instructor in an aircraft if functioning as a non-required 
crewmember, but may not serve as a flightcrew member in operations under 
this subpart.
    (f) A flight instructor (simulator) must accomplish the following--
    (1) Fly at least two flight segments as a required crewmember for 
the type, class, or category aircraft involved within the 12-month 
period preceding the performance of any flight instructor duty in a 
flight simulator; or
    (2) Satisfactorily complete an approved line-observation program 
within the period prescribed by that program and that must precede the 
performance of any check pilot duty in a flight simulator.
    (g) The flight segments or line-observation program required in 
paragraph (f) of this section are considered completed in the month 
required if completed in the month before, or in the month after, the 
month in which they are due.



Sec. 91.1093  Initial and transition training and checking: Check pilots 

(aircraft), check pilots (simulator).

    (a) No program manager may use a person nor may any person serve as 
a check pilot unless--
    (1) That person has satisfactorily completed initial or transition 
check pilot training; and
    (2) Within the preceding 24 months, that person satisfactorily 
conducts a proficiency or competency check under the observation of an 
FAA inspector or an aircrew designated examiner employed by the program 
manager. The observation check may be accomplished in part or in full in 
an aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device.
    (b) The observation check required by paragraph (a)(2) of this 
section is considered to have been completed in the month required if 
completed in the month before or the month after the month in which it 
is due.
    (c) The initial ground training for check pilots must include the 
following:
    (1) Check pilot duties, functions, and responsibilities.
    (2) The applicable provisions of the Code of Federal Regulations and 
the program manager's policies and procedures.
    (3) The applicable methods, procedures, and techniques for 
conducting the required checks.
    (4) Proper evaluation of student performance including the detection 
of--
    (i) Improper and insufficient training; and
    (ii) Personal characteristics of an applicant that could adversely 
affect safety.
    (5) The corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory checks.
    (6) The approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing 
the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures in the aircraft.
    (d) The transition ground training for a check pilot must include 
the approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the 
required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures applicable to the 
aircraft to which the check pilot is in transition.
    (e) The initial and transition flight training for a check pilot 
(aircraft) must include the following--
    (1) The safety measures for emergency situations that are likely to 
develop during a check;
    (2) The potential results of improper, untimely, or nonexecution of 
safety measures during a check;
    (3) Training and practice in conducting flight checks from the left 
and

[[Page 833]]

right pilot seats in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency 
procedures to ensure competence to conduct the pilot flight checks 
required by this subpart; and
    (4) The safety measures to be taken from either pilot seat for 
emergency situations that are likely to develop during checking.
    (f) The requirements of paragraph (e) of this section may be 
accomplished in full or in part in flight, in a flight simulator, or in 
a flight training device, as appropriate.
    (g) The initial and transition flight training for a check pilot 
(simulator) must include the following:
    (1) Training and practice in conducting flight checks in the 
required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence 
to conduct the flight checks required by this subpart. This training and 
practice must be accomplished in a flight simulator or in a flight 
training device.
    (2) Training in the operation of flight simulators, flight training 
devices, or both, to ensure competence to conduct the flight checks 
required by this subpart.



Sec. 91.1095  Initial and transition training and checking: Flight instructors 

(aircraft), flight instructors (simulator).

    (a) No program manager may use a person nor may any person serve as 
a flight instructor unless--
    (1) That person has satisfactorily completed initial or transition 
flight instructor training; and
    (2) Within the preceding 24 months, that person satisfactorily 
conducts instruction under the observation of an FAA inspector, a 
program manager check pilot, or an aircrew designated examiner employed 
by the program manager. The observation check may be accomplished in 
part or in full in an aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight 
training device.
    (b) The observation check required by paragraph (a)(2) of this 
section is considered to have been completed in the month required if 
completed in the month before, or the month after, the month in which it 
is due.
    (c) The initial ground training for flight instructors must include 
the following:
    (1) Flight instructor duties, functions, and responsibilities.
    (2) The applicable Code of Federal Regulations and the program 
manager's policies and procedures.
    (3) The applicable methods, procedures, and techniques for 
conducting flight instruction.
    (4) Proper evaluation of student performance including the detection 
of--
    (i) Improper and insufficient training; and
    (ii) Personal characteristics of an applicant that could adversely 
affect safety.
    (5) The corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory training 
progress.
    (6) The approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing 
the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures in the aircraft.
    (7) Except for holders of a flight instructor certificate--
    (i) The fundamental principles of the teaching-learning process;
    (ii) Teaching methods and procedures; and
    (iii) The instructor-student relationship.
    (d) The transition ground training for flight instructors must 
include the approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing 
the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures applicable to 
the type, class, or category aircraft to which the flight instructor is 
in transition.
    (e) The initial and transition flight training for flight 
instructors (aircraft) must include the following--
    (1) The safety measures for emergency situations that are likely to 
develop during instruction;
    (2) The potential results of improper or untimely safety measures 
during instruction;
    (3) Training and practice from the left and right pilot seats in the 
required normal, abnormal, and emergency maneuvers to ensure competence 
to conduct the flight instruction required by this subpart; and
    (4) The safety measures to be taken from either the left or right 
pilot seat for emergency situations that are likely to develop during 
instruction.

[[Page 834]]

    (f) The requirements of paragraph (e) of this section may be 
accomplished in full or in part in flight, in a flight simulator, or in 
a flight training device, as appropriate.
    (g) The initial and transition flight training for a flight 
instructor (simulator) must include the following:
    (1) Training and practice in the required normal, abnormal, and 
emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the flight 
instruction required by this subpart. These maneuvers and procedures 
must be accomplished in full or in part in a flight simulator or in a 
flight training device.
    (2) Training in the operation of flight simulators, flight training 
devices, or both, to ensure competence to conduct the flight instruction 
required by this subpart.



Sec. 91.1097  Pilot and flight attendant crewmember training programs.

    (a) Each program manager must establish and maintain an approved 
pilot training program, and each program manager who uses a flight 
attendant crewmember must establish and maintain an approved flight 
attendant training program, that is appropriate to the operations to 
which each pilot and flight attendant is to be assigned, and will ensure 
that they are adequately trained to meet the applicable knowledge and 
practical testing requirements of Sec. Sec. 91.1065 through 91.1071.
    (b) Each program manager required to have a training program by 
paragraph (a) of this section must include in that program ground and 
flight training curriculums for--
    (1) Initial training;
    (2) Transition training;
    (3) Upgrade training;
    (4) Differences training;
    (5) Recurrent training; and
    (6) Requalification training.
    (c) Each program manager must provide current and appropriate study 
materials for use by each required pilot and flight attendant.
    (d) The program manager must furnish copies of the pilot and flight 
attendant crewmember training program, and all changes and additions, to 
the assigned representative of the Administrator. If the program manager 
uses training facilities of other persons, a copy of those training 
programs or appropriate portions used for those facilities must also be 
furnished. Curricula that follow FAA published curricula may be cited by 
reference in the copy of the training program furnished to the 
representative of the Administrator and need not be furnished with the 
program.



Sec. 91.1099  Crewmember initial and recurrent training requirements.

    No program manager may use a person, nor may any person serve, as a 
crewmember in operations under this subpart unless that crewmember has 
completed the appropriate initial or recurrent training phase of the 
training program appropriate to the type of operation in which the 
crewmember is to serve since the beginning of the 12th month before that 
service.



Sec. 91.1101  Pilots: Initial, transition, and upgrade ground training.

    Initial, transition, and upgrade ground training for pilots must 
include instruction in at least the following, as applicable to their 
duties:
    (a) General subjects--
    (1) The program manager's flight locating procedures;
    (2) Principles and methods for determining weight and balance, and 
runway limitations for takeoff and landing;
    (3) Enough meteorology to ensure a practical knowledge of weather 
phenomena, including the principles of frontal systems, icing, fog, 
thunderstorms, windshear and, if appropriate, high altitude weather 
situations;
    (4) Air traffic control systems, procedures, and phraseology;
    (5) Navigation and the use of navigational aids, including 
instrument approach procedures;
    (6) Normal and emergency communication procedures;
    (7) Visual cues before and during descent below Decision Altitude or 
MDA; and
    (8) Other instructions necessary to ensure the pilot's competence.
    (b) For each aircraft type--
    (1) A general description;
    (2) Performance characteristics;
    (3) Engines and propellers;
    (4) Major components;

[[Page 835]]

    (5) Major aircraft systems (that is, flight controls, electrical, 
and hydraulic), other systems, as appropriate, principles of normal, 
abnormal, and emergency operations, appropriate procedures and 
limitations;
    (6) Knowledge and procedures for--
    (i) Recognizing and avoiding severe weather situations;
    (ii) Escaping from severe weather situations, in case of inadvertent 
encounters, including low-altitude windshear (except that rotorcraft 
pilots are not required to be trained in escaping from low-altitude 
windshear);
    (iii) Operating in or near thunderstorms (including best penetration 
altitudes), turbulent air (including clear air turbulence), inflight 
icing, hail, and other potentially hazardous meteorological conditions; 
and
    (iv) Operating airplanes during ground icing conditions, (that is, 
any time conditions are such that frost, ice, or snow may reasonably be 
expected to adhere to the aircraft), if the program manager expects to 
authorize takeoffs in ground icing conditions, including:
    (A) The use of holdover times when using deicing/anti-icing fluids;
    (B) Airplane deicing/anti-icing procedures, including inspection and 
check procedures and responsibilities;
    (C) Communications;
    (D) Airplane surface contamination (that is, adherence of frost, 
ice, or snow) and critical area identification, and knowledge of how 
contamination adversely affects airplane performance and flight 
characteristics;
    (E) Types and characteristics of deicing/anti-icing fluids, if used 
by the program manager;
    (F) Cold weather preflight inspection procedures;
    (G) Techniques for recognizing contamination on the airplane;
    (7) Operating limitations;
    (8) Fuel consumption and cruise control;
    (9) Flight planning;
    (10) Each normal and emergency procedure; and
    (11) The approved Aircraft Flight Manual or equivalent.



Sec. 91.1103  Pilots: Initial, transition, upgrade, requalification, and 

differences flight training.

    (a) Initial, transition, upgrade, requalification, and differences 
training for pilots must include flight and practice in each of the 
maneuvers and procedures contained in each of the curriculums that are a 
part of the approved training program.
    (b) The maneuvers and procedures required by paragraph (a) of this 
section must be performed in flight, except to the extent that certain 
maneuvers and procedures may be performed in an aircraft simulator, or 
an appropriate training device, as allowed by this subpart.
    (c) If the program manager's approved training program includes a 
course of training using an aircraft simulator or other training device, 
each pilot must successfully complete--
    (1) Training and practice in the simulator or training device in at 
least the maneuvers and procedures in this subpart that are capable of 
being performed in the aircraft simulator or training device; and
    (2) A flight check in the aircraft or a check in the simulator or 
training device to the level of proficiency of a pilot in command or 
second in command, as applicable, in at least the maneuvers and 
procedures that are capable of being performed in an aircraft simulator 
or training device.



Sec. 91.1105  Flight attendants: Initial and transition ground training.

    Initial and transition ground training for flight attendants must 
include instruction in at least the following--
    (a) General subjects--
    (1) The authority of the pilot in command; and
    (2) Passenger handling, including procedures to be followed in 
handling deranged persons or other persons whose conduct might 
jeopardize safety.
    (b) For each aircraft type--
    (1) A general description of the aircraft emphasizing physical 
characteristics that may have a bearing on ditching, evacuation, and 
inflight emergency procedures and on other related duties;

[[Page 836]]

    (2) The use of both the public address system and the means of 
communicating with other flight crewmembers, including emergency means 
in the case of attempted hijacking or other unusual situations; and
    (3) Proper use of electrical galley equipment and the controls for 
cabin heat and ventilation.



Sec. 91.1107  Recurrent training.

    (a) Each program manager must ensure that each crewmember receives 
recurrent training and is adequately trained and currently proficient 
for the type aircraft and crewmember position involved.
    (b) Recurrent ground training for crewmembers must include at least 
the following:
    (1) A quiz or other review to determine the crewmember's knowledge 
of the aircraft and crewmember position involved.
    (2) Instruction as necessary in the subjects required for initial 
ground training by this subpart, as appropriate, including low-altitude 
windshear training and training on operating during ground icing 
conditions, as prescribed in Sec. 91.1097 and described in Sec. 
91.1101, and emergency training.
    (c) Recurrent flight training for pilots must include, at least, 
flight training in the maneuvers or procedures in this subpart, except 
that satisfactory completion of the check required by Sec. 91.1065 
within the preceding 12 months may be substituted for recurrent flight 
training.



Sec. 91.1109  Aircraft maintenance: Inspection program.

    Each program manager must establish an aircraft inspection program 
for each make and model program aircraft and ensure each aircraft is 
inspected in accordance with that inspection program.
    (a) The inspection program must be in writing and include at least 
the following information:
    (1) Instructions and procedures for the conduct of inspections for 
the particular make and model aircraft, including necessary tests and 
checks. The instructions and procedures must set forth in detail the 
parts and areas of the airframe, engines, propellers, rotors, and 
appliances, including survival and emergency equipment required to be 
inspected.
    (2) A schedule for performing the inspections that must be 
accomplished under the inspection program expressed in terms of the time 
in service, calendar time, number of system operations, or any 
combination thereof.
    (3) The name and address of the person responsible for scheduling 
the inspections required by the inspection program. A copy of the 
inspection program must be made available to the person performing 
inspections on the aircraft and, upon request, to the Administrator.
    (b) Each person desiring to establish or change an approved 
inspection program under this section must submit the inspection program 
for approval to the Flight Standards District Office that issued the 
program manager's management specifications. The inspection program must 
be derived from one of the following programs:
    (1) An inspection program currently recommended by the manufacturer 
of the aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, and survival 
and emergency equipment;
    (2) An inspection program that is part of a continuous airworthiness 
maintenance program currently in use by a person holding an air carrier 
or operating certificate issued under part 119 of this chapter and 
operating that make and model aircraft under part 121 or 135 of this 
chapter;
    (3) An aircraft inspection program approved under Sec. 135.419 of 
this chapter and currently in use under part 135 of this chapter by a 
person holding a certificate issued under part 119 of this chapter; or
    (4) An airplane inspection program approved under Sec. 125.247 of 
this chapter and currently in use under part 125 of this chapter.
    (5) An inspection program that is part of the program manager's 
continuous airworthiness maintenance program under Sec. Sec. 91.1411 
through 91.1443.
    (c) The Administrator may require revision of the inspection program 
approved under this section in accordance with the provisions of Sec. 
91.415.

[[Page 837]]



Sec. 91.1111  Maintenance training.

    The program manager must ensure that all employees who are 
responsible for maintenance related to program aircraft undergo 
appropriate initial and annual recurrent training and are competent to 
perform those duties.



Sec. 91.1113  Maintenance recordkeeping.

    Each fractional ownership program manager must keep (using the 
system specified in the manual required in Sec. 91.1025) the records 
specified in Sec. 91.417(a) for the periods specified in Sec. 
91.417(b).



Sec. 91.1115  Inoperable instruments and equipment.

    (a) No person may take off an aircraft with inoperable instruments 
or equipment installed unless the following conditions are met:
    (1) An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft.
    (2) The program manager has been issued management specifications 
authorizing operations in accordance with an approved Minimum Equipment 
List. The flight crew must have direct access at all times prior to 
flight to all of the information contained in the approved Minimum 
Equipment List through printed or other means approved by the 
Administrator in the program manager's management specifications. An 
approved Minimum Equipment List, as authorized by the management 
specifications, constitutes an approved change to the type design 
without requiring recertification.
    (3) The approved Minimum Equipment List must:
    (i) Be prepared in accordance with the limitations specified in 
paragraph (b) of this section.
    (ii) Provide for the operation of the aircraft with certain 
instruments and equipment in an inoperable condition.
    (4) Records identifying the inoperable instruments and equipment and 
the information required by (a)(3)(ii) of this section must be available 
to the pilot.
    (5) The aircraft is operated under all applicable conditions and 
limitations contained in the Minimum Equipment List and the management 
specifications authorizing use of the Minimum Equipment List.
    (b) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in 
the Minimum Equipment List:
    (1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or 
otherwise required by the airworthiness requirements under which the 
airplane is type certificated and that are essential for safe operations 
under all operating conditions.
    (2) Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive 
to be in operable condition unless the airworthiness directive provides 
otherwise.
    (3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations by 
this part.
    (c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(3) of this section, an 
aircraft with inoperable instruments or equipment may be operated under 
a special flight permit under Sec. Sec. 21.197 and 21.199 of this 
chapter.
    (d) A person authorized to use an approved Minimum Equipment List 
issued for a specific aircraft under part 121, 125, or 135 of this 
chapter must use that Minimum Equipment List to comply with this 
section.



Sec. 91.1411  Continuous airworthiness maintenance program use by fractional 

ownership program manager.

    Fractional ownership program aircraft may be maintained under a 
continuous airworthiness maintenance program (CAMP) under Sec. Sec. 
91.1413 through 91.1443. Any program manager who elects to maintain the 
program aircraft using a continuous airworthiness maintenance program 
must comply with Sec. Sec. 91.1413 through 91.1443.



Sec. 91.1413  CAMP: Responsibility for airworthiness.

    (a) For aircraft maintained in accordance with a Continuous 
Airworthiness Maintenance Program, each program manager is primarily 
responsible for the following:
    (1) Maintaining the airworthiness of the program aircraft, including 
airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, rotors, appliances, and parts.
    (2) Maintaining its aircraft in accordance with the requirements of 
this chapter.

[[Page 838]]

    (3) Repairing defects that occur between regularly scheduled 
maintenance required under part 43 of this chapter.
    (b) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP 
must--
    (1) Employ a Director of Maintenance or equivalent position. The 
Director of Maintenance must be a certificated mechanic with airframe 
and powerplant ratings who has responsibility for the maintenance 
program on all program aircraft maintained under a continuous 
airworthiness maintenance program. This person cannot also act as Chief 
Inspector.
    (2) Employ a Chief Inspector or equivalent position. The Chief 
Inspector must be a certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant 
ratings who has overall responsibility for inspection aspects of the 
CAMP. This person cannot also act as Director of Maintenance.
    (3) Have the personnel to perform the maintenance of program 
aircraft, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, rotors, 
appliances, emergency equipment and parts, under its manual and this 
chapter; or make arrangements with another person for the performance of 
maintenance. However, the program manager must ensure that any 
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration that is performed by 
another person is performed under the program manager's operating manual 
and this chapter.



Sec. 91.1415  CAMP: Mechanical reliability reports.

    (a) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP 
must report the occurrence or detection of each failure, malfunction, or 
defect in an aircraft concerning--
    (1) Fires during flight and whether the related fire-warning system 
functioned properly;
    (2) Fires during flight not protected by related fire-warning 
system;
    (3) False fire-warning during flight;
    (4) An exhaust system that causes damage during flight to the 
engine, adjacent structure, equipment, or components;
    (5) An aircraft component that causes accumulation or circulation of 
smoke, vapor, or toxic or noxious fumes in the crew compartment or 
passenger cabin during flight;
    (6) Engine shutdown during flight because of flameout;
    (7) Engine shutdown during flight when external damage to the engine 
or aircraft structure occurs;
    (8) Engine shutdown during flight because of foreign object 
ingestion or icing;
    (9) Shutdown of more than one engine during flight;
    (10) A propeller feathering system or ability of the system to 
control overspeed during flight;
    (11) A fuel or fuel-dumping system that affects fuel flow or causes 
hazardous leakage during flight;
    (12) An unwanted landing gear extension or retraction or opening or 
closing of landing gear doors during flight;
    (13) Brake system components that result in loss of brake actuating 
force when the aircraft is in motion on the ground;
    (14) Aircraft structure that requires major repair;
    (15) Cracks, permanent deformation, or corrosion of aircraft 
structures, if more than the maximum acceptable to the manufacturer or 
the FAA; and
    (16) Aircraft components or systems that result in taking emergency 
actions during flight (except action to shut down an engine).
    (b) For the purpose of this section, during flight means the period 
from the moment the aircraft leaves the surface of the earth on takeoff 
until it touches down on landing.
    (c) In addition to the reports required by paragraph (a) of this 
section, each program manager must report any other failure, 
malfunction, or defect in an aircraft that occurs or is detected at any 
time if, in the manager's opinion, the failure, malfunction, or defect 
has endangered or may endanger the safe operation of the aircraft.
    (d) Each program manager must send each report required by this 
section, in writing, covering each 24-hour period beginning at 0900 
hours local time of each day and ending at 0900 hours local time on the 
next day to the Flight Standards District Office that issued the program 
manager's management

[[Page 839]]

specifications. Each report of occurrences during a 24-hour period must 
be mailed or transmitted to that office within the next 72 hours. 
However, a report that is due on Saturday or Sunday may be mailed or 
transmitted on the following Monday and one that is due on a holiday may 
be mailed or transmitted on the next workday. For aircraft operated in 
areas where mail is not collected, reports may be mailed or transmitted 
within 72 hours after the aircraft returns to a point where the mail is 
collected.
    (e) The program manager must transmit the reports required by this 
section on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator, and 
must include as much of the following as is available:
    (1) The type and identification number of the aircraft.
    (2) The name of the program manager.
    (3) The date.
    (4) The nature of the failure, malfunction, or defect.
    (5) Identification of the part and system involved, including 
available information pertaining to type designation of the major 
component and time since last overhaul, if known.
    (6) Apparent cause of the failure, malfunction or defect (for 
example, wear, crack, design deficiency, or personnel error).
    (7) Other pertinent information necessary for more complete 
identification, determination of seriousness, or corrective action.
    (f) A program manager that is also the holder of a type certificate 
(including a supplemental type certificate), a Parts Manufacturer 
Approval, or a Technical Standard Order Authorization, or that is the 
licensee of a type certificate need not report a failure, malfunction, 
or defect under this section if the failure, malfunction, or defect has 
been reported by it under Sec. 21.3 of this chapter or under the 
accident reporting provisions of part 830 of the regulations of the 
National Transportation Safety Board.
    (g) No person may withhold a report required by this section even 
when not all information required by this section is available.
    (h) When the program manager receives additional information, 
including information from the manufacturer or other agency, concerning 
a report required by this section, the program manager must 
expeditiously submit it as a supplement to the first report and 
reference the date and place of submission of the first report.



Sec. 91.1417  CAMP: Mechanical interruption summary report.

    Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP 
must mail or deliver, before the end of the 10th day of the following 
month, a summary report of the following occurrences in multiengine 
aircraft for the preceding month to the Flight Standards District Office 
that issued the management specifications:
    (a) Each interruption to a flight, unscheduled change of aircraft en 
route, or unscheduled stop or diversion from a route, caused by known or 
suspected mechanical difficulties or malfunctions that are not required 
to be reported under Sec. 91.1415.
    (b) The number of propeller featherings in flight, listed by type of 
propeller and engine and aircraft on which it was installed. Propeller 
featherings for training, demonstration, or flight check purposes need 
not be reported.



Sec. 91.1423  CAMP: Maintenance organization.

    (a) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP 
that has its personnel perform any of its maintenance (other than 
required inspections), preventive maintenance, or alterations, and each 
person with whom it arranges for the performance of that work, must have 
an organization adequate to perform the work.
    (b) Each program manager who has personnel perform any inspections 
required by the program manager's manual under Sec. 91.1427(b) (2) or 
(3), (in this subpart referred to as required inspections), and each 
person with whom the program manager arranges for the performance of 
that work, must have an organization adequate to perform that work.

[[Page 840]]

    (c) Each person performing required inspections in addition to other 
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, must organize the 
performance of those functions so as to separate the required inspection 
functions from the other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or 
alteration functions. The separation must be below the level of 
administrative control at which overall responsibility for the required 
inspection functions and other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or 
alterations is exercised.



Sec. 91.1425  CAMP: Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration 

programs.

    Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP 
must have an inspection program and a program covering other 
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations that ensures that--
    (a) Maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations performed by 
its personnel, or by other persons, are performed under the program 
manager's manual;
    (b) Competent personnel and adequate facilities and equipment are 
provided for the proper performance of maintenance, preventive 
maintenance, or alterations; and
    (c) Each aircraft released to service is airworthy and has been 
properly maintained for operation under this part.



Sec. 91.1427  CAMP: Manual requirements.

    (a) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP 
must put in the operating manual the chart or description of the program 
manager's organization required by Sec. 91.1423 and a list of persons 
with whom it has arranged for the performance of any of its required 
inspections, and other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or 
alterations, including a general description of that work.
    (b) Each program manager must put in the operating manual the 
programs required by Sec. 91.1425 that must be followed in performing 
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations of that program 
manager's aircraft, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, 
rotors, appliances, emergency equipment, and parts, and must include at 
least the following:
    (1) The method of performing routine and nonroutine maintenance 
(other than required inspections), preventive maintenance, or 
alterations.
    (2) A designation of the items of maintenance and alteration that 
must be inspected (required inspections) including at least those that 
could result in a failure, malfunction, or defect endangering the safe 
operation of the aircraft, if not performed properly or if improper 
parts or materials are used.
    (3) The method of performing required inspections and a designation 
by occupational title of personnel authorized to perform each required 
inspection.
    (4) Procedures for the reinspection of work performed under previous 
required inspection findings (buy-back procedures).
    (5) Procedures, standards, and limits necessary for required 
inspections and acceptance or rejection of the items required to be 
inspected and for periodic inspection and calibration of precision 
tools, measuring devices, and test equipment.
    (6) Procedures to ensure that all required inspections are 
performed.
    (7) Instructions to prevent any person who performs any item of work 
from performing any required inspection of that work.
    (8) Instructions and procedures to prevent any decision of an 
inspector regarding any required inspection from being countermanded by 
persons other than supervisory personnel of the inspection unit, or a 
person at the level of administrative control that has overall 
responsibility for the management of both the required inspection 
functions and the other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or 
alterations functions.
    (9) Procedures to ensure that maintenance (including required 
inspections), preventive maintenance, or alterations that are not 
completed because of work interruptions are properly completed before 
the aircraft is released to service.
    (c) Each program manager must put in the manual a suitable system 
(which

[[Page 841]]

may include an electronic or coded system) that provides for the 
retention of the following information--
    (1) A description (or reference to data acceptable to the 
Administrator) of the work performed;
    (2) The name of the person performing the work if the work is 
performed by a person outside the organization of the program manager; 
and
    (3) The name or other positive identification of the individual 
approving the work.
    (d) For the purposes of this part, the program manager must prepare 
that part of its manual containing maintenance information and 
instructions, in whole or in part, in a format acceptable to the 
Administrator, that is retrievable in the English language.



Sec. 91.1429  CAMP: Required inspection personnel.

    (a) No person who maintains an aircraft under a CAMP may use any 
person to perform required inspections unless the person performing the 
inspection is appropriately certificated, properly trained, qualified, 
and authorized to do so.
    (b) No person may allow any person to perform a required inspection 
unless, at the time the work was performed, the person performing that 
inspection is under the supervision and control of the chief inspector.
    (c) No person may perform a required inspection if that person 
performed the item of work required to be inspected.
    (d) Each program manager must maintain, or must ensure that each 
person with whom it arranges to perform required inspections maintains, 
a current listing of persons who have been trained, qualified, and 
authorized to conduct required inspections. The persons must be 
identified by name, occupational title, and the inspections that they 
are authorized to perform. The program manager (or person with whom it 
arranges to perform its required inspections) must give written 
information to each person so authorized, describing the extent of that 
person's responsibilities, authorities, and inspectional limitations. 
The list must be made available for inspection by the Administrator upon 
request.



Sec. 91.1431  CAMP: Continuing analysis and surveillance.

    (a) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP 
must establish and maintain a system for the continuing analysis and 
surveillance of the performance and effectiveness of its inspection 
program and the program covering other maintenance, preventive 
maintenance, and alterations and for the correction of any deficiency in 
those programs, regardless of whether those programs are carried out by 
employees of the program manager or by another person.
    (b) Whenever the Administrator finds that the programs described in 
paragraph (a) of this section does not contain adequate procedures and 
standards to meet this part, the program manager must, after 
notification by the Administrator, make changes in those programs 
requested by the Administrator.
    (c) A program manager may petition the Administrator to reconsider 
the notice to make a change in a program. The petition must be filed 
with the Director, Flight Standards Service, within 30 days after the 
program manager receives the notice. Except in the case of an emergency 
requiring immediate action in the interest of safety, the filing of the 
petition stays the notice pending a decision by the Administrator.



Sec. 91.1433  CAMP: Maintenance and preventive maintenance training program.

    Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP or 
a person performing maintenance or preventive maintenance functions for 
it must have a training program to ensure that each person (including 
inspection personnel) who determines the adequacy of work done is fully 
informed about procedures and techniques and new equipment in use and is 
competent to perform that person's duties.



Sec. 91.1435  CAMP: Certificate requirements.

    (a) Except for maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, and 
required inspections performed by repair stations located outside the 
United

[[Page 842]]

States certificated under the provisions of part 145 of this chapter, 
each person who is directly in charge of maintenance, preventive 
maintenance, or alterations for a CAMP, and each person performing 
required inspections for a CAMP must hold an appropriate airman 
certificate.
    (b) For the purpose of this section, a person ``directly in charge'' 
is each person assigned to a position in which that person is 
responsible for the work of a shop or station that performs maintenance, 
preventive maintenance, alterations, or other functions affecting 
airworthiness. A person who is directly in charge need not physically 
observe and direct each worker constantly but must be available for 
consultation and decision on matters requiring instruction or decision 
from higher authority than that of the person performing the work.



Sec. 91.1437  CAMP: Authority to perform and approve maintenance.

    A program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP may 
employ maintenance personnel, or make arrangements with other persons to 
perform maintenance and preventive maintenance as provided in its 
maintenance manual. Unless properly certificated, the program manager 
may not perform or approve maintenance for return to service.



Sec. 91.1439  CAMP: Maintenance recording requirements.

    (a) Each program manager who maintains program aircraft under a CAMP 
must keep (using the system specified in the manual required in Sec. 
91.1427) the following records for the periods specified in paragraph 
(b) of this section:
    (1) All the records necessary to show that all requirements for the 
issuance of an airworthiness release under Sec. 91.1443 have been met.
    (2) Records containing the following information:
    (i) The total time in service of the airframe, engine, propeller, 
and rotor.
    (ii) The current status of life-limited parts of each airframe, 
engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
    (iii) The time since last overhaul of each item installed on the 
aircraft that are required to be overhauled on a specified time basis.
    (iv) The identification of the current inspection status of the 
aircraft, including the time since the last inspections required by the 
inspection program under which the aircraft and its appliances are 
maintained.
    (v) The current status of applicable airworthiness directives, 
including the date and methods of compliance, and, if the airworthiness 
directive involves recurring action, the time and date when the next 
action is required.
    (vi) A list of current major alterations and repairs to each 
airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
    (b) Each program manager must retain the records required to be kept 
by this section for the following periods:
    (1) Except for the records of the last complete overhaul of each 
airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance the records specified 
in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be retained until the work is 
repeated or superseded by other work or for one year after the work is 
performed.
    (2) The records of the last complete overhaul of each airframe, 
engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance must be retained until the work 
is superseded by work of equivalent scope and detail.
    (3) The records specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section must 
be retained as specified unless transferred with the aircraft at the 
time the aircraft is sold.
    (c) The program manager must make all maintenance records required 
to be kept by this section available for inspection by the Administrator 
or any representative of the National Transportation Safety Board.



Sec. 91.1441  CAMP: Transfer of maintenance records.

    When a U.S.-registered fractional ownership program aircraft 
maintained under a CAMP is removed from the list of program aircraft in 
the management specifications, the program manager must transfer to the 
purchaser, at the time of the sale, the following records of that 
aircraft, in plain language form or in coded form that provides for the 
preservation and retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the 
Administrator:

[[Page 843]]

    (a) The records specified in Sec. 91.1439(a)(2).
    (b) The records specified in Sec. 91.1439(a)(1) that are not 
included in the records covered by paragraph (a) of this section, except 
that the purchaser may allow the program manager to keep physical 
custody of such records. However, custody of records by the program 
manager does not relieve the purchaser of its responsibility under Sec. 
91.1439(c) to make the records available for inspection by the 
Administrator or any representative of the National Transportation 
Safety Board.



Sec. 91.1443  CAMP: Airworthiness release or aircraft maintenance log entry.

    (a) No program aircraft maintained under a CAMP may be operated 
after maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations are performed 
unless qualified, certificated personnel employed by the program manager 
prepare, or cause the person with whom the program manager arranges for 
the performance of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or 
alterations, to prepare--
    (1) An airworthiness release; or
    (2) An appropriate entry in the aircraft maintenance log.
    (b) The airworthiness release or log entry required by paragraph (a) 
of this section must--
    (1) Be prepared in accordance with the procedure in the program 
manager's manual;
    (2) Include a certification that--
    (i) The work was performed in accordance with the requirements of 
the program manager's manual;
    (ii) All items required to be inspected were inspected by an 
authorized person who determined that the work was satisfactorily 
completed;
    (iii) No known condition exists that would make the aircraft 
unairworthy;
    (iv) So far as the work performed is concerned, the aircraft is in 
condition for safe operation; and
    (3) Be signed by an authorized certificated mechanic.
    (c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(3) of this section, after 
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations performed by a 
repair station certificated under the provisions of part 145 of this 
chapter, the approval for return to service or log entry required by 
paragraph (a) of this section may be signed by a person authorized by 
that repair station.
    (d) Instead of restating each of the conditions of the certification 
required by paragraph (b) of this section, the program manager may state 
in its manual that the signature of an authorized certificated mechanic 
or repairman constitutes that certification.



        Subpart L_Continued Airworthiness and Safety Improvements

    Source: Amdt. 91-297, 72 FR 63410, Nov. 8, 2007, unless otherwise 
noted.



Sec. 91.1501  Purpose and definition.

    (a) This subpart requires operators to support the continued 
airworthiness of each airplane. These requirements may include, but are 
not limited to, revising the inspection program, incorporating design 
changes, and incorporating revisions to Instructions for Continued 
Airworthiness.
    (b) For purposes of this subpart, the ``FAA Oversight Office'' is 
the aircraft certification office or office of the Transport Airplane 
Directorate with oversight responsibility for the relevant type 
certificate or supplemental type certificate, as determined by the 
Administrator.



Sec. 91.1503  [Reserved]



Sec. 91.1505  Repairs assessment for pressurized fuselages.

    (a) No person may operate an Airbus Model A300 (excluding the -600 
series), British Aerospace Model BAC 1-11, Boeing Model, 707, 720, 727, 
737 or 747, McDonnell Douglas Model DC-8, DC-9/MD-80 or DC-10, Fokker 
Model F28, or Lockheed Model L-1011 airplane beyond applicable flight 
cycle implementation time specified below, or May 25, 2001, whichever 
occurs later, unless repair assessment guidelines applicable to the 
fuselage pressure boundary (fuselage skin, door skin, and bulkhead webs) 
that have been approved by the FAA Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 
or office of the Transport Airplane Directorate, having cognizance over 
the type certificate for the affected airplane are

[[Page 844]]

incorporated within its inspection program:
    (1) For the Airbus Model A300 (excluding the -600 series), the 
flight cycle implementation time is:
    (i) Model B2: 36,000 flights.
    (ii) Model B4-100 (including Model B4-2C): 30,000 flights above the 
window line, and 36,000 flights below the window line.
    (iii) Model B4-200: 25,500 flights above the window line, and 34,000 
flights below the window line.
    (2) For all models of the British Aerospace BAC 1-11, the flight 
cycle implementation time is 60,000 flights.
    (3) For all models of the Boeing 707, the flight cycle 
implementation time is 15,000 flights.
    (4) For all models of the Boeing 720, the flight cycle 
implementation time is 23,000 flights.
    (5) For all models of the Boeing 727, the flight cycle 
implementation time is 45,000 flights.
    (6) For all models of the Boeing 737, the flight cycle 
implementation time is 60,000 flights.
    (7) For all models of the Boeing 747, the flight cycle 
implementation time is 15,000 flights.
    (8) For all models of the McDonnell Douglas DC-8, the flight cycle 
implementation time is 30,000 flights.
    (9) For all models of the McDonnell Douglas DC-9/MD-80, the flight 
cycle implementation time is 60,000 flights.
    (10) For all models of the McDonnell Douglas DC-10, the flight cycle 
implementation time is 30,000 flights.
    (11) For all models of the Lockheed L-1011, the flight cycle 
implementation time is 27,000 flights.
    (12) For the Fokker F-28 Mark 1000, 2000, 3000, and 4000, the flight 
cycle implementation time is 60,000 flights.
    (b) [Reserved]

[Doc. No. 29104, 65 FR 24125, Apr. 25, 2000; 65 FR 35703, June 5, 2000; 
65 FR 50744, Aug. 21, 2000, as amended by Amdt. 91-266, 66 FR 23130, May 
7, 2001; Amdt. 91-277, 67 FR 72834, Dec. 9, 2002; Amdt. 91-283, 69 FR 
45941, July 30, 2004. Redesignated and amended by Amdt. 91-297, 72 FR 
63410, Nov. 8, 2007]



Sec. 91.1507  Fuel tank system inspection program.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, this 
section applies to transport category, turbine-powered airplanes with a 
type certificate issued after January 1, 1958, that, as a result of 
original type certification or later increase in capacity, have--
    (1) A maximum type-certificated passenger capacity of 30 or more, or
    (2) A maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or more.
    (b) For each airplane on which an auxiliary fuel tank is installed 
under a field approval, before June 16, 2008, the operator must submit 
to the FAA Oversight Office proposed maintenance instructions for the 
tank that meet the requirements of Special Federal Aviation Regulation 
No. 88 (SFAR 88) of this chapter.
    (c) After December 16, 2008, no operator may operate an airplane 
identified in paragraph (a) of this section unless the inspection 
program for that airplane has been revised to include applicable 
inspections, procedures, and limitations for fuel tank systems.
    (d) The proposed fuel tank system inspection program revisions 
specified in paragraph (c) of this section must be based on fuel tank 
system Instructions for Continued Airworthiness (ICA) that have been 
developed in accordance with the applicable provisions of SFAR 88 of 
this chapter or Sec. 25.1529 and part 25, Appendix H, of this chapter, 
in effect on June 6, 2001 (including those developed for auxiliary fuel 
tanks, if any, installed under supplemental type certificates or other 
design approval) and that have been approved by the FAA Oversight 
Office.
    (e) After December 16, 2008, before returning an airplane to service 
after any alterations for which fuel tank ICA are developed under SFAR 
88, or under Sec. 25.1529 in effect on June 6, 2001, the operator must 
include in the inspection program for the airplane inspections and 
procedures for the fuel tank system based on those ICA.
    (f) The fuel tank system inspection program changes identified in 
paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section and any later fuel tank system 
revisions must be submitted to the Flight Standards District Office 
(FSDO) responsible for review and approval.
    (g) This section does not apply to the following airplane models:

(1) Bombardier CL-44
(2) Concorde

[[Page 845]]

(3) deHavilland D.H. 106 Comet 4C
(4) VFW-Vereinigte Flugtechnische Werk VFW-614
(5) Illyushin Aviation IL 96T
(6) Bristol Aircraft Britannia 305
(7) Handley Page Herald Type 300
(8) Avions Marcel Dassault--Breguet Aviation Mercure 100C
(9) Airbus Caravelle
(10) Lockheed L-300



Sec. Appendix A to Part 91--Category II Operations: Manual, Instruments, 

                       Equipment, and Maintenance

                          1. Category II Manual

    (a) Application for approval. An applicant for approval of a 
Category II manual or an amendment to an approved Category II manual 
must submit the proposed manual or amendment to the Flight Standards 
District Office having jurisdiction of the area in which the applicant 
is located. If the application requests an evaluation program, it must 
include the following:
    (1) The location of the aircraft and the place where the 
demonstrations are to be conducted; and
    (2) The date the demonstrations are to commence (at least 10 days 
after filing the application).
    (b) Contents. Each Category II manual must contain:
    (1) The registration number, make, and model of the aircraft to 
which it applies;
    (2) A maintenance program as specified in section 4 of this 
appendix; and
    (3) The procedures and instructions related to recognition of 
decision height, use of runway visual range information, approach 
monitoring, the decision region (the region between the middle marker 
and the decision height), the maximum permissible deviations of the 
basic ILS indicator within the decision region, a missed approach, use 
of airborne low approach equipment, minimum altitude for the use of the 
autopilot, instrument and equipment failure warning systems, instrument 
failure, and other procedures, instructions, and limitations that may be 
found necessary by the Administrator.

                  2. Required Instruments and Equipment

    The instruments and equipment listed in this section must be 
installed in each aircraft operated in a Category II operation. This 
section does not require duplication of instruments and equipment 
required by Sec. 91.205 or any other provisions of this chapter.
    (a) Group I. (1) Two localizer and glide slope receiving systems. 
Each system must provide a basic ILS display and each side of the 
instrument panel must have a basic ILS display. However, a single 
localizer antenna and a single glide slope antenna may be used.
    (2) A communications system that does not affect the operation of at 
least one of the ILS systems.
    (3) A marker beacon receiver that provides distinctive aural and 
visual indications of the outer and the middle markers.
    (4) Two gyroscopic pitch and bank indicating systems.
    (5) Two gyroscopic direction indicating systems.
    (6) Two airspeed indicators.
    (7) Two sensitive altimeters adjustable for barometric pressure, 
each having a placarded correction for altimeter scale error and for the 
wheel height of the aircraft. After June 26, 1979, two sensitive 
altimeters adjustable for barometric pressure, having markings at 20-
foot intervals and each having a placarded correction for altimeter 
scale error and for the wheel height of the aircraft.
    (8) Two vertical speed indicators.
    (9) A flight control guidance system that consists of either an 
automatic approach coupler or a flight director system. A flight 
director system must display computed information as steering command in 
relation to an ILS localizer and, on the same instrument, either 
computed information as pitch command in relation to an ILS glide slope 
or basic ILS glide slope information. An automatic approach coupler must 
provide at least automatic steering in relation to an ILS localizer. The 
flight control guidance system may be operated from one of the receiving 
systems required by subparagraph (1) of this paragraph.
    (10) For Category II operations with decision heights below 150 feet 
either a marker beacon receiver providing aural and visual indications 
of the inner marker or a radio altimeter.
    (b) Group II. (1) Warning systems for immediate detection by the 
pilot of system faults in items (1), (4), (5), and (9) of Group I and, 
if installed for use in Category III operations, the radio altimeter and 
autothrottle system.
    (2) Dual controls.
    (3) An externally vented static pressure system with an alternate 
static pressure source.
    (4) A windshield wiper or equivalent means of providing adequate 
cockpit visibility for a safe visual transition by either pilot to 
touchdown and rollout.
    (5) A heat source for each airspeed system pitot tube installed or 
an equivalent means of preventing malfunctioning due to icing of the 
pitot system.

                  3. Instruments and Equipment Approval

    (a) General. The instruments and equipment required by section 2 of 
this appendix must be approved as provided in this section before being 
used in Category II operations.

[[Page 846]]

Before presenting an aircraft for approval of the instruments and 
equipment, it must be shown that since the beginning of the 12th 
calendar month before the date of submission--
    (1) The ILS localizer and glide slope equipment were bench checked 
according to the manufacturer's instructions and found to meet those 
standards specified in RTCA Paper 23-63/DO-117 dated March 14, 1963, 
``Standard Adjustment Criteria for Airborne Localizer and Glide Slope 
Receivers,'' which may be obtained from the RTCA Secretariat, 1425 K 
St., NW., Washington, DC 20005.
    (2) The altimeters and the static pressure systems were tested and 
inspected in accordance with appendix E to part 43 of this chapter; and
    (3) All other instruments and items of equipment specified in 
section 2(a) of this appendix that are listed in the proposed 
maintenance program were bench checked and found to meet the 
manufacturer's specifications.
    (b) Flight control guidance system. All components of the flight 
control guidance system must be approved as installed by the evaluation 
program specified in paragraph (e) of this section if they have not been 
approved for Category III operations under applicable type or 
supplemental type certification procedures. In addition, subsequent 
changes to make, model, or design of the components must be approved 
under this paragraph. Related systems or devices, such as the 
autothrottle and computed missed approach guidance system, must be 
approved in the same manner if they are to be used for Category II 
operations.
    (c) Radio altimeter. A radio altimeter must meet the performance 
criteria of this paragraph for original approval and after each 
subsequent alteration.
    (1) It must display to the flight crew clearly and positively the 
wheel height of the main landing gear above the terrain.
    (2) It must display wheel height above the terrain to an accuracy of 
plus or minus 5 feet or 5 percent, whichever is greater, under the 
following conditions:
    (i) Pitch angles of zero to plus or minus 5 degrees about the mean 
approach attitude.
    (ii) Roll angles of zero to 20 degrees in either direction.
    (iii) Forward velocities from minimum approach speed up to 200 
knots.
    (iv) Sink rates from zero to 15 feet per second at altitudes from 
100 to 200 feet.
    (3) Over level ground, it must track the actual altitude of the 
aircraft without significant lag or oscillation.
    (4) With the aircraft at an altitude of 200 feet or less, any abrupt 
change in terrain representing no more than 10 percent of the aircraft's 
altitude must not cause the altimeter to unlock, and indicator response 
to such changes must not exceed 0.1 seconds and, in addition, if the 
system unlocks for greater changes, it must reacquire the signal in less 
than 1 second.
    (5) Systems that contain a push-to-test feature must test the entire 
system (with or without an antenna) at a simulated altitude of less than 
500 feet.
    (6) The system must provide to the flight crew a positive failure 
warning display any time there is a loss of power or an absence of 
ground return signals within the designed range of operating altitudes.
    (d) Other instruments and equipment. All other instruments and items 
of equipment required by Sec. 2 of this appendix must be capable of 
performing as necessary for Category II operations. Approval is also 
required after each subsequent alteration to these instruments and items 
of equipment.
    (e) Evaluation program--(1) Application. Approval by evaluation is 
requested as a part of the application for approval of the Category II 
manual.
    (2) Demonstrations. Unless otherwise authorized by the 
Administrator, the evaluation program for each aircraft requires the 
demonstrations specified in this paragraph. At least 50 ILS approaches 
must be flown with at least five approaches on each of three different 
ILS facilities and no more than one half of the total approaches on any 
one ILS facility. All approaches shall be flown under simulated 
instrument conditions to a 100-foot decision height and 90 percent of 
the total approaches made must be successful. A successful approach is 
one in which--
    (i) At the 100-foot decision height, the indicated airspeed and 
heading are satisfactory for a normal flare and landing (speed must be 
plus or minus 5 knots of programmed airspeed, but may not be less than 
computed threshold speed if autothrottles are used);
    (ii) The aircraft at the 100-foot decision height, is positioned so 
that the cockpit is within, and tracking so as to remain within, the 
lateral confines of the runway extended;
    (iii) Deviation from glide slope after leaving the outer marker does 
not exceed 50 percent of full-scale deflection as displayed on the ILS 
indicator;
    (iv) No unusual roughness or excessive attitude changes occur after 
leaving the middle marker; and
    (v) In the case of an aircraft equipped with an approach coupler, 
the aircraft is sufficiently in trim when the approach coupler is 
disconnected at the decision height to allow for the continuation of a 
normal approach and landing.
    (3) Records. During the evaluation program the following information 
must be maintained by the applicant for the aircraft with respect to 
each approach and made available to the Adninistrator upon request:
    (i) Each deficiency in airborne instruments and equipment that 
prevented the initiation of an approach.

[[Page 847]]

    (ii) The reasons for discontinuing an approach, including the 
altitude above the runway at which it was discontinued.
    (iii) Speed control at the 100-foot decision height if auto 
throttles are used.
    (iv) Trim condition of the aircraft upon disconnecting the auto 
coupler with respect to continuation to flare and landing.
    (v) Position of the aircraft at the middle marker and at the 
decision height indicated both on a diagram of the basic ILS display and 
a diagram of the runway extended to the middle marker. Estimated 
touchdown point must be indicated on the runway diagram.
    (vi) Compatibility of flight director with the auto coupler, if 
applicable.
    (vii) Quality of overall system performance.
    (4) Evaluation. A final evaluation of the flight control guidance 
system is made upon successful completion of the demonstrations. If no 
hazardous tendencies have been displayed or are otherwise known to 
exist, the system is approved as installed.

                         4. Maintenance program

    (a) Each maintenance program must contain the following:
    (1) A list of each instrument and item of equipment specified in 
Sec. 2 of this appendix that is installed in the aircraft and approved 
for Category II operations, including the make and model of those 
specified in Sec. 2(a).
    (2) A schedule that provides for the performance of inspections 
under subparagraph (5) of this paragraph within 3 calendar months after 
the date of the previous inspection. The inspection must be performed by 
a person authorized by part 43 of this chapter, except that each 
alternate inspection may be replaced by a functional flight check. This 
functional flight check must be performed by a pilot holding a Category 
II pilot authorization for the type aircraft checked.
    (3) A schedule that provides for the performance of bench checks for 
each listed instrument and item of equipment that is specified in 
section 2(a) within 12 calendar months after the date of the previous 
bench check.
    (4) A schedule that provides for the performance of a test and 
inspection of each static pressure system in accordance with appendix E 
to part 43 of this chapter within 12 calendar months after the date of 
the previous test and inspection.
    (5) The procedures for the performance of the periodic inspections 
and functional flight checks to determine the ability of each listed 
instrument and item of equipment specified in section 2(a) of this 
appendix to perform as approved for Category II operations including a 
procedure for recording functional flight checks.
    (6) A procedure for assuring that the pilot is informed of all 
defects in listed instruments and items of equipment.
    (7) A procedure for assuring that the condition of each listed 
instrument and item of equipment upon which maintenance is performed is 
at least equal to its Category II approval condition before it is 
returned to service for Category II operations.
    (8) A procedure for an entry in the maintenance records required by 
Sec. 43.9 of this chapter that shows the date, airport, and reasons for 
each discontinued Category II operation because of a malfunction of a 
listed instrument or item of equipment.
    (b) Bench check. A bench check required by this section must comply 
with this paragraph.
    (1) It must be performed by a certificated repair station holding 
one of the following ratings as appropriate to the equipment checked:
    (i) An instrument rating.
    (ii) A radio rating.
    (2) It must consist of removal of an instrument or item of equipment 
and performance of the following:
    (i) A visual inspection for cleanliness, impending failure, and the 
need for lubrication, repair, or replacement of parts;
    (ii) Correction of items found by that visual inspection; and
    (iii) Calibration to at least the manufacturer's specifications 
unless otherwise specified in the approved Category II manual for the 
aircraft in which the instrument or item of equipment is installed.
    (c) Extensions. After the completion of one maintenance cycle of 12 
calendar months, a request to extend the period for checks, tests, and 
inspections is approved if it is shown that the performance of 
particular equipment justifies the requested extension.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34325, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-269, 
66 FR 41116, Aug. 6, 2001]



   Sec. Appendix B to Part 91--Authorizations To Exceed Mach 1 (Sec. 

                                 91.817)

                         Section 1. Application

    (a) An applicant for an authorization to exceed Mach 1 must apply in 
a form and manner prescribed by the Administrator and must comply with 
this appendix.
    (b) In addition, each application for an authorization to exceed 
Mach 1 covered by section 2(a) of this appendix must contain all 
information requested by the Administrator necessary to assist him in 
determining whether the designation of a particular test area or 
issuance of a particular authorization is a ``major Federal action 
significantly affecting the quality of the human environment'' within 
the meaning of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 
4321 et seq.), and to assist him in complying

[[Page 848]]

with that act and with related Executive Orders, guidelines, and orders 
prior to such action.
    (c) In addition, each application for an authorization to exceed 
Mach 1 covered by section 2(a) of this appendix must contain--
    (1) Information showing that operation at a speed greater than Mach 
1 is necessary to accomplish one or more of the purposes specified in 
section 2(a) of this appendix, including a showing that the purpose of 
the test cannot be safely or properly accomplished by overocean testing;
    (2) A description of the test area proposed by the applicant, 
including an environmental analysis of that area meeting the 
requirements of paragraph (b) of this section; and
    (3) Conditions and limitations that will ensure that no measurable 
sonic boom overpressure will reach the surface outside of the designated 
test area.
    (d) An application is denied if the Administrator finds that such 
action is necessary to protect or enhance the environment.

                           Section 2. Issuance

    (a) For a flight in a designated test area, an authorization to 
exceed Mach 1 may be issued when the Administrator has taken the 
environmental protective actions specified in section 1(b) of this 
appendix and the applicant shows one or more of the following:
    (1) The flight is necessary to show compliance with airworthiness 
requirements.
    (2) The flight is necessary to determine the sonic boom 
characteristics of the airplane or to establish means of reducing or 
eliminating the effects of sonic boom.
    (3) The flight is necessary to demonstrate the conditions and 
limitations under which speeds greater than a true flight Mach number of 
1 will not cause a measurable sonic boom overpressure to reach the 
surface.
    (b) For a flight outside of a designated test area, an authorization 
to exceed Mach 1 may be issued if the applicant shows conservatively 
under paragraph (a)(3) of this section that--
    (1) The flight will not cause a measurable sonic boom overpressure 
to reach the surface when the aircraft is operated under conditions and 
limitations demonstrated under paragraph (a)(3) of this section; and
    (2) Those conditions and limitations represent all foreseeable 
operating conditions.

                           Section 3. Duration

    (a) An authorization to exceed Mach 1 is effective until it expires 
or is surrendered, or until it is suspended or terminated by the 
Administrator. Such an authorization may be amended or suspended by the 
Administrator at any time if the Administrator finds that such action is 
necessary to protect the environment. Within 30 days of notification of 
amendnent, the holder of the authorization must request reconsideration 
or the amendnent becomes final. Within 30 days of notification of 
suspension, the holder of the authorization must request reconsideration 
or the authorization is automatically terminated. If reconsideration is 
requested within the 30-day period, the amendment or suspension 
continues until the holder shows why the authorization should not be 
amended or terminated. Upon such showing, the Administrator may 
terminate or amend the authorization if the Administrator finds that 
such action is necessary to protect the environment, or he may reinstate 
the authorization without amendment if he finds that termination or 
amendnent is not necessary to protect the environment.
    (b) Findings and actions by the Administrator under this section do 
not affect any certificate issued under title VI of the Federal Aviation 
Act of 1958.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34327, Aug. 18, 1989]



   Sec. Appendix C to Part 91--Operations in the North Atlantic (NAT) 

      Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications (MNPS) Airspace

                                Section 1

    NAT MNPS airspace is that volume of airspace between FL 285 and FL 
420 extending between latitude 27 degrees north and the North Pole, 
bounded in the east by the eastern boundaries of control areas Santa 
Maria Oceanic, Shanwick Oceanic, and Reykjavik Oceanic and in the west 
by the western boundary of Reykjavik Oceanic Control Area, the western 
boundary of Gander Oceanic Control Area, and the western boundary of New 
York Oceanic Control Area, excluding the areas west of 60 degrees west 
and south of 38 degrees 30 minutes north.

                                Section 2

    The navigation performance capability required for aircraft to be 
operated in the airspace defined in section 1 of this appendix is as 
follows:
    (a) The standard deviation of lateral track errors shall be less 
than 6.3 NM (11.7 Km). Standard deviation is a statistical measure of 
data about a mean value. The mean is zero nautical miles. The overall 
form of data is such that the plus and minus 1 standard deviation about 
the mean encompasses approximately 68 percent of the data and plus or 
minus 2 deviations encompasses approximately 95 percent.
    (b) The proportion of the total flight time spent by aircraft 30 NM 
(55.6 Km) or more off the cleared track shall be less than 5.3 x 
10-4 (less than 1 hour in 1,887 flight hours).
    (c) The proportion of the total flight time spent by aircraft 
between 50 NM and 70 NM (92.6 Km and 129.6 Km) off the cleared track

[[Page 849]]

shall be less than 13 x 10-5 (less than 1 hour in 7,693 
flight hours.)

                                Section 3

    Air traffic control (ATC) may authorize an aircraft operator to 
deviate from the requirements of Sec. 91.705 for a specific flight if, 
at the time of flight plan filing for that flight, ATC determines that 
the aircraft may be provided appropriate separation and that the flight 
will not interfere with, or impose a burden upon, the operations of 
other aircraft which meet the requirements of Sec. 91.705.

[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34327, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-254, 
62 FR 17487, Apr. 9, 1997]



   Sec. Appendix D to Part 91--Airports/Locations: Special Operating 

                              Restrictions

    Section 1. Locations at which the requirements of Sec. 91.215(b)(2) 
apply.
    The requirements of Sec. 91.215(b)(2) apply below 10,000 feet above 
the surface within a 30-nautical-mile radius of each location in the 
following list:

Atlanta, GA (The William B. Hartsfield Atlanta International Airport)
Baltimore, MD (Baltimore Washington International Airport)
Boston, MA (General Edward Lawrence Logan International Airport)
Chantilly, VA (Washington Dulles International Airport)
Charlotte, NC (Charlotte/Douglas International Airport)
Chicago, IL Chicago-O'Hare International Airport)
Cleveland, OH (Cleveland-Hopkins International Airport)
Covington, KY (Cincinnati Northern Kentucky International Airport)
Dallas, TX (Dallas/Fort Worth Regional Airport)
Denver, CO (Denver International Airport)
Detroit, MI (Metropolitan Wayne County Airport)
Honolulu, HI (Honolulu International Airport)
Houston, TX (George Bush Intercontinental Airport/Houston)
Kansas City, KS (Mid-Continent International Airport)
Las Vegas, NV (McCarran International Airport)
Los Angeles, CA (Los Angeles International Airport)
Memphis, TN (Memphis International Airport)
Miami, FL (Miami International Airport)
Minneapolis, MN (Minneapolis-St. Paul International Airport)
Newark, NJ (Newark International Airport)
New Orleans, LA (New Orleans International Airport-Moisant Field)
New York, NY (John F. Kennedy International Airport)
New York, NY (LaGuardia Airport)
Orlando, FL (Orlando International Airport)
Philadelphia, PA (Philadelphia International Airport)
Phoenix, AZ (Phoenix Sky Harbor International Airport)
Pittsburgh, PA (Greater Pittsburgh International Airport)
St. Louis, MO (Lambert-St. Louis International Airport)
Salt Lake City, UT (Salt Lake City International Airport)
San Diego, CA (San Diego International Airport)
San Francisco, CA (San Francisco International Airport)
Seattle, WA (Seattle-Tacoma International Airport)
Tampa, FL (Tampa International Airport)
Washington, DC (Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport and Andrews 
Air Force Base, MD)

    Section 2. Airports at which the requirements of Sec. 
91.215(b)(5)(ii) apply. [Reserved]
    Section 3. Locations at which fixed-wing Special VFR operations are 
prohibited.
    The Special VFR weather minimums of Sec. 91.157 do not apply to the 
following airports:

Atlanta, GA (The William B. Hartsfield Atlanta International Airport)
Baltimore, MD (Baltimore/Washington International Airport)
Boston, MA (General Edward Lawrence Logan International Airport)
Buffalo, NY (Greater Buffalo International Airport)
Chicago, IL (Chicago-O'Hare International Airport)
Cleveland, OH (Cleveland-Hopkins International Airport)
Columbus, OH (Port Columbus International Airport)
Covington, KY (Cincinnati Northern Kentucky International Airport)
Dallas, TX (Dallas/Fort Worth Regional Airport)
Dallas, TX (Love Field)
Denver, CO (Denver International Airport)
Detroit, MI (Metropolitan Wayne County Airport)
Honolulu, HI (Honolulu International Airport)
Houston, TX (George Bush Intercontinental Airport/Houston)
Indianapolis, IN (Indianapolis International Airport)
Los Angeles, CA (Los Angeles International Airport)
Louisville, KY (Standiford Field)
Memphis, TN (Memphis International Airport)
Miami, FL (Miami International Airport)
Minneapolis, MN (Minneapolis-St. Paul International Airport)

[[Page 850]]

Newark, NJ (Newark International Airport)
New York, NY (John F. Kennedy International Airport)
New York, NY (LaGuardia Airport)
New Orleans, LA (New Orleans International Airport-Moisant Field)
Philadelphia, PA (Philadelphia International Airport)
Pittsburgh, PA (Greater Pittsburgh International Airport)
Portland, OR (Portland International Airport)
San Francisco, CA (San Francisco International Airport)
Seattle, WA (Seattle-Tacoma International Airport)
St. Louis, MO (Lambert-St. Louis International Airport)
Tampa, FL (Tampa International Airport)
Washington, DC (Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport and Andrews 
Air Force Base, MD)

    Section 4. Locations at which solo student, sport, and recreational 
pilot activity is not permitted.
    Pursuant to Sec. 91.131(b)(2), solo student, sport, and 
recreational pilot operations are not permitted at any of the following 
airports.

Atlanta, GA (The William B. Hartsfield Atlanta International Airport)
Boston, MA (General Edward Lawrence Logan International Airport)
Chicago, IL (Chicago-O'Hare International Airport)
Dallas, TX (Dallas/Fort Worth Regional Airport)
Los Angeles, CA (Los Angeles International Airport)
Miami, FL (Miami International Airport)
Newark, NJ (Newark International Airport)
New York, NY (John F. Kennedy International Airport)
New York, NY (LaGuardia Airport)
San Francisco, CA (San Francisco International Airport)
Washington, DC (Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport)
Andrews Air Force Base, MD

[Amdt. 91-227, 56 FR 65661, Dec. 17, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 91-235, 
58 FR 51968, Oct. 5, 1993; Amdt. 91-236, 59 FR 2918, Jan. 19, 1994; 
Amdt. 91-237, 59 FR 6547, Feb. 11, 1994; 59 FR 37667, July 25, 1994; 
Amdt. 91-258, 64 FR 66769, Nov. 30, 1999; Amdt. 91-278, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 
28, 2003; Amdt. 91-282, 69 FR 44882, July 27, 2004]

    Effective Date Note: By Amdt. 91-236, 59 FR 2918, Jan. 19, 1994, as 
corrected by Amdt. 91-237, 59 FR 6547, Feb. 11, 1994, appendix D to part 
91 was amended in sections 1 and 3 in the Denver, CO entry by revising 
``Stapleton'' to read ``Denver'' effective March 9, 1994. By Amdt. 91-
238, 59 FR 10958, Mar. 9, 1994, the effective date was delayed to May 
15, 1994. By Amdt. 91-241, 59 FR 24916, May 13, 1994, the effective date 
was suspended indefinitely.

     Appendix E to Part 91--Airplane Flight Recorder Specifications

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                       Installed system
                                                          \1\ minimum      Sampling interval    Resolution \4\
           Parameters                    Range           accuracy (to        (per second)          read out
                                                        recovered data)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Relative Time (From Recorded on   8 hr minimum......  0.125% per
                                                       hour.
Indicated Airspeed..............  Vso to VD (KIAS)..  5% or 1
                                                       0 kts., whichever
                                                       is greater.
                                                       Resolution 2 kts.
                                                       below 175 KIAS.
Altitude........................  -1,000 ft. to max   100 to 7
                                                       00 ft. (see Table
                                                       1, TSO C51-a).
Magnetic Heading................  360[deg]..........  5[deg].
Vertical Acceleration...........  -3g to +6g........  0.2g in          where peaks, ref.
                                                       addition to 0   recorded).
                                                       .3g maximum datum.
Longitudinal Acceleration.......  1.0g.            eq>1.5% max.
                                                       range excluding
                                                       datum error of
                                                       5%.
Pitch Attitude..................  100% of usable....  2[deg].
Roll Attitude...................  60[deg] or       eq>2[deg].
                                   100% of usable
                                   range, whichever
                                   is greater.
Stabilizer Trim Position, or....  Full Range........  3% unless
                                                       higher uniquely
                                                       required.
Pitch Control Position \5\......

[[Page 851]]

 
Engine Power, Each Engine:        Full Range........  3% unless
                                                       higher uniquely
                                                       required.
    Fan or N \1\ Speed or EPR or  Maximum Range.....  5%.
     for Aircraft Certification
     OR.
    Prop. speed and Torque        ..................  ..................  1 (prop Speed)....  1%\3\
     (Sample Once/Sec as Close                                            1 (torque)........  1% \3\
     together as Practicable).
Altitude Rate \2\ (need depends   8,000 fpm.       eq>10%.                                 12,000
                                                       Resolution 250
                                                       fpm below 12,000
                                                       ft. indicated.
Angle of Attack \2\ (need         -20[deg] to         2[deg].
                                   of usable range.
Radio Transmitter Keying          On/Off............  ..................  1.................
 (Discrete).
TE Flaps (Discrete or Analog)...  Each discrete       ..................  1.................
                                   position (U, D, T/
                                   O, AAP) OR.
LE Flaps (Discrete or Analog)...  Analog 0-100%       3%.
                                  Each discrete       ..................  1.................
                                   position (U, D, T/
                                   O, AAP) OR.
Thrust Reverser, Each Engine      Analog 0-100%       3[deg].
                                  Stowed or full
                                   reverse.
Spoiler/Speedbrake (Discrete)...  Stowed or out.....  ..................  1.................
Autopilot Engaged (Discrete)....  Engaged or          ..................  1.................
                                   Disengaged.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
\1\ When data sources are aircraft instruments (except altimeters) of acceptable quality to fly the aircraft the
  recording system excluding these sensors (but including all other characteristics of the recording system)
  shall contribute no more than half of the values in this column.
\2\ If data from the altitude encoding altimeter (100 ft. resolution) is used, then either one of these
  parameters should also be recorded. If however, altitude is recorded at a minimum resolution of 25 feet, then
  these two parameters can be omitted.
\3\ Per cent of full range.
\4\ This column applies to aircraft manufactured after October 11, 1991.
\5\ For Pitch Control Position only, for all aircraft manufactured on or after April 7, 2010, the sampling
  interval (per second) is 8. Each input must be recorded at this rate. Alternately sampling inputs
  (interleaving) to meet this sampling interval is prohibited.


[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34327, Aug. 18, 1989, as amended by Amdt. 91-300, 
73 FR 12565, Mar. 7, 2008; 73 FR 15280, Mar. 21, 2008]



  Sec. Appendix F to Part 91--Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                       Installed system
                                                          \1\ minimum      Sampling interval   Resolution 3 read
           Parameters                    Range           accuracy (to        (per second)             out
                                                        recovered data)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Relative Time (From Recorded on   4 hr minimum......  0.125% per
                                                       hour.
Indicated Airspeed..............  VM in to VD (KIAS)  5% or 1
                                   with installed      0 kts., whichever
                                   pilot-static        is greater.
                                   system).
Altitude........................  -1,000 ft. to       100 to 7
                                                       00 ft. (see Table
                                                       1, TSO C51-a).
Magnetic Heading................  360[deg]..........  5[deg].
Vertical Acceleration...........  -3g to +6g........  0.2g in          where peaks, ref.
                                                       addition to 0   recorded).
                                                       .3g maximum datum.
Longitudinal Acceleration.......  1.0g.            eq>1.5% max.
                                                       range excluding
                                                       datum error of
                                                       5%.
Pitch Attitude..................  100% of usable      2[deg].

[[Page 852]]

 
Roll Attitude...................  60 or 100% of    eq>2[deg].
                                   usable range,
                                   whichever is
                                   greater.
Altitude Rate...................  8,000 fpm.       eq>10% Resolution                       12,000.
                                                       250 fpm below
                                                       12,000 ft.
                                                       indicated.
 
    Engine Power, Each Engine
 
Main Rotor Speed................  Maximum Range.....  5%.
Free or Power Turbine...........  Maximum Range.....  5%.
Engine Torque...................  Maximum Range.....  5%.
 
    Flight Control Hydraulic
            Pressure
 
Primary (Discrete)..............  High/Low..........  ..................  1.................
Secondary--if applicable          High/Low..........  ..................  1.................
 (Discrete).
Radio Transmitter Keying          On/Off............  ..................  1.................
 (Discrete).
Autopilot Engaged (Discrete)....  Engaged or          ..................  1.................
                                   Disengaged.
SAS Status-Engaged (Discrete)...  Engaged or          ..................  1.................
                                   Disengaged.
SAS Fault Status (Discrete).....  Fault/OK..........  ..................  1.................
 
         Flight Controls
 
Collective \4\..................  Full range........  3%.
Pedal Position \4\..............  Full range........  3%.
Lat. Cyclic \4\.................  Full range........  3%.
Long. Cyclic \4\................  Full range........  3%.
Controllable Stabilator Position  Full range........  3%.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
\1\ When data sources are aircraft instruments (except altimeters) of acceptable quality to fly the aircraft the
  recording system excluding these sensors (but including all other characteristics of the recording system)
  shall contribute no more than half of the values in this column.
\2\ Per cent of full range.
\3\ This column applies to aircraft manufactured after October 11, 1991.
\4\ For all aircraft manufactured on or after April 7, 2010, the sampling interval per second is 4.


[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34328, Aug. 18, 1989; 54 FR 41211, Oct. 5, 1989; 
54 FR 53036, Dec. 26, 1989; Amdt. 91-300, 73 FR 12565, Mar. 7, 2008; 73 
FR 15280, Mar. 21, 2008]



 Sec. Appendix G to Part 91--Operations in Reduced Vertical Separation 

                         Minimum (RVSM) Airspace

                         Section 1. Definitions

    Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) Airspace. Within RVSM 
airspace, air traffic control (ATC) separates aircraft by a minimum of 
1,000 feet vertically between flight level (FL) 290 and FL 410 
inclusive. RVSM airspace is special qualification airspace; the operator 
and the aircraft used by the operator must be approved by the 
Administrator. Air-traffic control notifies operators of RVSM by 
providing route planning information. Section 8 of this appendix 
identifies airspace where RVSM may be applied.
    RVSM Group Aircraft. Aircraft within a group of aircraft, approved 
as a group by the Administrator, in which each of the aircraft satisfy 
each of the following:
    (a) The aircraft have been manufactured to the same design, and have 
been approved under the same type certificate, amended type certificate, 
or supplemental type certificate.
    (b) The static system of each aircraft is installed in a manner and 
position that is the same as those of the other aircraft in the group. 
The same static source error correction is incorporated in each aircraft 
of the group.
    (c) The avionics units installed in each aircraft to meet the 
minimum RVSM equipment requirements of this appendix are:
    (1) Manufactured to the same manufacturer specification and have the 
same part number; or
    (2) Of a different manufacturer or part number, if the applicant 
demonstrates that the equipment provides equivalent system performance.

[[Page 853]]

    RVSM Nongroup Aircraft. An aircraft that is approved for RVSM 
operations as an individual aircraft.
    RVSM Flight envelope. An RVSM flight envelope includes the range of 
Mach number, weight divided by atmospheric pressure ratio, and altitudes 
over which an aircraft is approved to be operated in cruising flight 
within RVSM airspace. RVSM flight envelopes are defined as follows:
    (a) The full RVSM flight envelope is bounded as follows:
    (1) The altitude flight envelope extends from FL 290 upward to the 
lowest altitude of the following:
    (i) FL 410 (the RVSM altitude limit);
    (ii) The maximum certificated altitude for the aircraft; or
    (iii) The altitude limited by cruise thrust, buffet, or other flight 
limitations.
    (2) The airspeed flight envelope extends:
    (i) From the airspeed of the slats/flaps-up maximum endurance 
(holding) airspeed, or the maneuvering airspeed, whichever is lower;
    (ii) To the maximum operating airspeed (Vmo/
Mmo), or airspeed limited by cruise thrust buffet, or other 
flight limitations, whichever is lower.
    (3) All permissible gross weights within the flight envelopes 
defined in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition.
    (b) The basic RVSM flight envelope is the same as the full RVSM 
flight envelope except that the airspeed flight envelope extends:
    (1) From the airspeed of the slats/flaps-up maximum endurance 
(holding) airspeed, or the maneuver airspeed, whichever is lower;
    (2) To the upper Mach/airspeed boundary defined for the full RVSM 
flight envelope, or a specified lower value not less than the long-range 
cruise Mach number plus .04 Mach, unless further limited by available 
cruise thrust, buffet, or other flight limitations.

                      Section 2. Aircraft Approval

    (a) An operator may be authorized to conduct RVSM operations if the 
Administrator finds that its aircraft comply with this section.
    (b) The applicant for authorization shall submit the appropriate 
data package for aircraft approval. The package must consist of at least 
the following:
    (1) An identification of the RVSM aircraft group or the nongroup 
aircraft;
    (2) A definition of the RVSM flight envelopes applicable to the 
subject aircraft;
    (3) Documentation that establishes compliance with the applicable 
RVSM aircraft requirements of this section; and
    (4) The conformity tests used to ensure that aircraft approved with 
the data package meet the RVSM aircraft requirements.
    (c) Altitude-keeping equipment: All aircraft. To approve an aircraft 
group or a nongroup aircraft, the Administrator must find that the 
aircraft meets the following requirements:
    (1) The aircraft must be equipped with two operational independent 
altitude measurement systems.
    (2) The aircraft must be equipped with at least one automatic 
altitude control system that controls the aircraft altitude--
    (i) Within a tolerance band of 65 feet about 
an acquired altitude when the aircraft is operated in straight and level 
flight under nonturbulent, nongust conditions; or
    (ii) Within a tolerance band of 130 feet under 
nonturbulent, nongust conditions for aircraft for which application for 
type certification occurred on or before April 9, 1997 that are equipped 
with an automatic altitude control system with flight management/
performance system inputs.
    (3) The aircraft must be equipped with an altitude alert system that 
signals an alert when the altitude displayed to the flight crew deviates 
from the selected altitude by more than:
    (i) 300 feet for aircraft for which 
application for type certification was made on or before April 9, 1997; 
or
    (ii) 200 feet for aircraft for which 
application for type certification is made after April 9, 1997.
    (d) Altimetry system error containment: Group aircraft for which 
application for type certification was made on or before April 9, 1997. 
To approve group aircraft for which application for type certification 
was made on or before April 9, 1997, the Administrator must find that 
the altimetry system error (ASE) is contained as follows:
    (1) At the point in the basic RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE 
reaches its largest absolute value, the absolute value may not exceed 80 
feet.
    (2) At the point in the basic RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE 
plus three standard deviations reaches its largest absolute value, the 
absolute value may not exceed 200 feet.
    (3) At the point in the full RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE 
reaches its largest absolute value, the absolute value may not exceed 
120 feet.
    (4) At the point in the full RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE 
plus three standard deviations reaches its largest absolute value, the 
absolute value may not exceed 245 feet.
    (5) Necessary operating restrictions. If the applicant demonstrates 
that its aircraft otherwise comply with the ASE containment 
requirements, the Administrator may establish an operating restriction 
on that applicant's aircraft to restrict the aircraft from operating in 
areas of the basic RVSM flight envelope where the absolute value of mean 
ASE exceeds 80 feet, and/or the absolute

[[Page 854]]

value of mean ASE plus three standard deviations exceeds 200 feet; or 
from operating in areas of the full RVSM flight envelope where the 
absolute value of the mean ASE exceeds 120 feet and/or the absolute 
value of the mean ASE plus three standard deviations exceeds 245 feet.
    (e) Altimetry system error containment: Group aircraft for which 
application for type certification is made after April 9, 1997. To 
approve group aircraft for which application for type certification is 
made after April 9, 1997, the Administrator must find that the altimetry 
system error (ASE) is contained as follows:
    (1) At the point in the full RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE 
reaches its largest absolute value, the absolute value may not exceed 80 
feet.
    (2) At the point in the full RVSM flight envelope where mean ASE 
plus three standard deviations reaches its largest absolute value, the 
absolute value may not exceed 200 feet.
    (f) Altimetry system error containment: Nongroup aircraft. To 
approve a nongroup aircraft, the Administrator must find that the 
altimetry system error (ASE) is contained as follows:
    (1) For each condition in the basic RVSM flight envelope, the 
largest combined absolute value for residual static source error plus 
the avionics error may not exceed 160 feet.
    (2) For each condition in the full RVSM flight envelope, the largest 
combined absolute value for residual static source error plus the 
avionics error may not exceed 200 feet.
    (g) Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) 
Compatibility With RVSM Operations: All aircraft. After March 31, 2002, 
unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, if you operate an 
aircraft that is equipped with TCAS II in RVSM airspace, it must be a 
TCAS II that meets TSO C-119b (Version 7.0), or a later version.
    (h) If the Administrator finds that the applicant's aircraft comply 
with this section, the Administrator notifies the applicant in writing.

                    Section 3. Operator Authorization

    (a) Authority for an operator to conduct flight in airspace where 
RVSM is applied is issued in operations specifications, a Letter of 
Authorization, or management specifications issued under subpart K of 
this part, as appropriate. To issue an RVSM authorization, the 
Administrator must find that the operator's aircraft have been approved 
in accordance with Section 2 of this appendix and the operator complies 
with this section.
    (b) An applicant for authorization to operate within RVSM airspace 
shall apply in a form and manner prescribed by the Administrator. The 
application must include the following:
    (1) An approved RVSM maintenance program outlining procedures to 
maintain RVSM aircraft in accordance with the requirements of this 
appendix. Each program must contain the following:
    (i) Periodic inspections, functional flight tests, and maintenance 
and inspection procedures, with acceptable maintenance practices, for 
ensuring continued compliance with the RVSM aircraft requirements.
    (ii) A quality assurance program for ensuring continuing accuracy 
and reliability of test equipment used for testing aircraft to determine 
compliance with the RVSM aircraft requirements.
    (iii) Procedures for returning noncompliant aircraft to service.
    (2) For an applicant who operates under part 121 or 135 of this 
chapter or under subpart K of this part, initial and recurring pilot 
training requirements.
    (3) Policies and procedures: An applicant who operates under part 
121 or 135 of this chapter or under subpart K of this part must submit 
RVSM policies and procedures that will enable it to conduct RVSM 
operations safely.
    (c) Validation and Demonstration. In a manner prescribed by the 
Administrator, the operator must provide evidence that:
    (1) It is capable to operate and maintain each aircraft or aircraft 
group for which it applies for approval to operate in RVSM airspace; and
    (2) Each pilot has an adequate knowledge of RVSM requirements, 
policies, and procedures.

                       Section 4. RVSM Operations

    (a) Each person requesting a clearance to operate within RVSM 
airspace shall correctly annotate the flight plan filed with air traffic 
control with the status of the operator and aircraft with regard to RVSM 
approval. Each operator shall verify RVSM applicability for the flight 
planned route through the appropriate flight planning information 
sources.
    (b) No person may show, on the flight plan filed with air traffic 
control, an operator or aircraft as approved for RVSM operations, or 
operate on a route or in an area where RVSM approval is required, 
unless:
    (1) The operator is authorized by the Administrator to perform such 
operations; and
    (2) The aircraft has been approved and complies with the 
requirements of Section 2 of this appendix.

                 Section 5. Deviation Authority Approval

    The Administrator may authorize an aircraft operator to deviate from 
the requirements of Sec. 91.180 or Sec. 91.706 for a specific flight 
in RVSM airspace if that operator has not been approved in accordance 
with section 3 of this appendix if:

[[Page 855]]

    (a) The operator submits a request in a time and manner acceptable 
to the Administrator; and
    (b) At the time of filing the flight plan for that flight, ATC 
determines that the aircraft may be provided appropriate separation and 
that the flight will not interfere with, or impose a burden on, the 
operations of operators who have been approved for RVSM operations in 
accordance with Section 3 of this appendix.

              Section 6. Reporting Altitude-Keeping Errors

    Each operator shall report to the Administrator each event in which 
the operator's aircraft has exhibited the following altitude-keeping 
performance:
    (a) Total vertical error of 300 feet or more;
    (b) Altimetry system error of 245 feet or more; or
    (c) Assigned altitude deviation of 300 feet or more.

              Section 7. Removal or Amendment of Authority

    The Administrator may amend operations specifications or management 
specifications issued under subpart K of this part to revoke or restrict 
an RVSM authorization, or may revoke or restrict an RVSM letter of 
authorization, if the Administrator determines that the operator is not 
complying, or is unable to comply, with this appendix or subpart H of 
this part. Examples of reasons for amendment, revocation, ore 
restriction include, but are not limited to, an operator's:
    (a) Committing one or more altitude-keeping errors in RVSM airspace;
    (b) Failing to make an effective and timely response to identify and 
correct an altitude-keeping error; or
    (c) Failing to report an altitude-keeping error.

                     Section 8. Airspace Designation

    (a) RVSM in the North Atlantic. (1) RVSM may be applied in the NAT 
in the following ICAO Flight Information Regions (FIRs): New York 
Oceanic, Gander Oceanic, Sondrestrom FIR, Reykjavik Oceanic, Shanwick 
Oceanic, and Santa Maria Oceanic.
    (2) RVSM may be effective in the Minimum Navigation Performance 
Specification (MNPS) airspace within the NAT. The MNPS airspace within 
the NAT is defined by the volume of airspace between FL 285 and FL 420 
(inclusive) extending between latitude 27 degrees north and the North 
Pole, bounded in the east by the eastern boundaries of control areas 
Santa Maria Oceanic, Shanwick Oceanic, and Reykjavik Oceanic and in the 
west by the western boundaries of control areas Reykjavik Oceanic, 
Gander Oceanic, and New York Oceanic, excluding the areas west of 60 
degrees west and south of 38 degrees 30 minutes north.
    (b) RVSM in the Pacific. (1) RVSM may be applied in the Pacific in 
the following ICAO Flight Information Regions (FIRs): Anchorage Arctic, 
Anchorage Continental, Anchorage Oceanic, Auckland Oceanic, Brisbane, 
Edmonton, Honiara, Los Angeles, Melbourne, Nadi, Naha, Nauru, New 
Zealand, Oakland, Oakland Oceanic, Port Moresby, Seattle, Tahiti, Tokyo, 
Ujung Pandang and Vancouver.
    (c) RVSM in the West Atlantic Route System (WATRS). RVSM may be 
applied in the New York FIR portion of the West Atlantic Route System 
(WATRS). The area is defined as beginning at a point 38[deg]30[min] N/
60[deg]00[min]W direct to 38[deg]30[min]N/69[deg]15[min] W direct to 
38[deg]20[min] N/69[deg]57[min] W direct to 37[deg]31[min] N/
71[deg]41[min] W direct to 37[deg]13[min] N/72[deg]40[min] W direct to 
35[deg]05[min] N/72[deg]40[min] W direct to 34[deg]54[min] N/
72[deg]57[min] W direct to 34[deg]29[min] N/73[deg]34[min] W direct to 
34[deg]33[min] N/73[deg]41[min] W direct to 34[deg]19[min] N/
74[deg]02[min] W direct to 34[deg]14[min] N/73[deg]57[min] W direct to 
32[deg]12[min] N/76[deg]49[min] W direct to 32[deg]20[min] N/
77[deg]00[min] W direct to 28[deg]08[min] N/77[deg]00[min] W direct to 
27[deg]50[min] N/76[deg]32[min] W direct to 27[deg]50[min] N/
74[deg]50[min] W direct to 25[deg]00[min] N/73[deg]21[min] W direct to 
25[deg]00[min]05[min] N/69[deg]13[min]06[min] W direct to 25[deg]00[min] 
N/69[deg]07[min] W direct to 23[deg]30[min] N/68[deg]40[min] W direct to 
23[deg]30[min] N/60[deg]00[min] W to the point of beginning.
    (d) RVSM in the United States. RVSM may be applied in the airspace 
of the 48 contiguous states, District of Columbia, and Alaska, including 
that airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the 
coast.
    (e) RVSM in the gulf of Mexico. RVSM may be applied in the Gulf of 
Mexico in the following areas: Gulf of Mexico High Offshore Airspace, 
Houston Oceanic ICAO FIR and Miami Oceanic ICAO FIR.
    (f) RVSM in Atlantic High Offshore Airspace and the San Juan FIR. 
RVSM may be applied in Atlantic High Offshore Airspace and in the San 
Juan ICAO FIR.

[Doc. No. 28870, 62 FR 17487, Apr. 9, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 91-261, 
65 FR 5942, Feb. 7, 2000; Amdt. 91-271, 66 FR 63895, Dec. 10, 2001; 
Amdt. 91-274, 68 FR 54584, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 91-276, 68 FR 70133, 
Dec. 17, 2003]



PART 93_SPECIAL AIR TRAFFIC RULES--Table of Contents




Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 60 [Note]
Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 105

                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
93.1 Applicability.

Subpart B_Congestion and Delay Reduction at Chicago O'Hare International 
                                 Airport

93.21 Applicability.
93.22 Definitions.

[[Page 856]]

93.23 Arrival Authorizations.
93.24 [Reserved]
93.25 Initial assignment of Arrival Authorizations to U.S. and Canadian 
          air carriers for domestic and U.S./Canada transborder service.
93.26 Reversion and withdrawal of Arrival Authorizations.
93.27 Sale and lease of Arrival Authorizations.
93.28 One-for-one trade of Arrival Authorizations.
93.29 International Arrival Authorizations.
93.30 Assignment provisions for domestic and U.S./Canada transborder 
          service.
93.31 Minimum usage requirement.
93.32 Administrative provisions.
93.33 [Reserved]

                Subpart C_LaGuardia Airport Traffic Rules

93.35 Applicability.
93.36 Definitions.
93.37 Slots for scheduled arrivals and departures.
93.38 Categories of slots.
93.39 Initial assignment of slots.
93.40 Assignment of new or returned slots.
93.41 Reversion and withdrawal of slots.
93.42 Sublease and transfer of slots.
93.43 One-for-one trade of slots.
93.44 Minimum usage requirements.
93.45 Unscheduled operations.
93.46 Reporting requirements.
93.47 Administrative provisions.

               Subpart D_Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area

93.51 Applicability.
93.53 Description of area.
93.55 Subdivision of Terminal Area.
93.57 General rules: All segments.
93.59 General rules: International segment.
93.61 General rules: Lake Hood segment.
93.63 General rules: Merrill segment.
93.65 General rules: Elmendorf segment.
93.67 General rules: Bryant segment.
93.68 General rules: Seward Highway segment.
93.69 Special requirements, Lake Campbell and Sixmile Lake Airports.

Subpart E_Flight Restrictions in the Vicinity of Niagara Falls, New York

93.71 General operating procedures.

              Subpart F_Valparaiso, Florida, Terminal Area

93.80 Applicability.
93.81 Applicability and description of area.
93.83 Aircraft operations.

     Subpart G_Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of Los Angeles 
                          International Airport

93.91 Applicability.
93.93 Description of area.
93.95 General operating procedures.
93.97 Operations in the SFRA.

Subparts H-I [Reserved]

          Subpart J_Lorain County Regional Airport Traffic Rule

93.117 Applicability.
93.119 Aircraft operations.

                 Subpart K_High Density Traffic Airports

93.121 Applicability.
93.123 High density traffic airports.
93.125 Arrival or departure reservation.
93.129 Additional operations.
93.130 Suspension of allocations.
93.133 Exceptions.

Subpart L [Reserved]

         Subpart M_Ketchikan International Airport Traffic Rule

93.151 Applicability.
93.152 Description of area.
93.153 Communications.
93.155 Aircraft operations.

   Subpart N_John F. Kennedy International Airport and Newark Liberty 
                   International Airport Traffic Rules

93.161 Applicability.
93.162 Definitions.
93.163 Slots for scheduled arrivals and departures.
93.164 Categories of slots.
93.165 Initial assignment of slots.
93.166 Assignment of new or returned slots.
93.167 Reversion and withdrawal of slots.
93.168 Sublease and transfer of slots.
93.169 One-for-one trade of slots.
93.170 Minimum usage requirements.
93.171 Unscheduled operations.
93.172 Reporting requirements.
93.173 Administrative provisions.

Subparts O-R [Reserved]

Subpart S_Allocation of Commuter and Air Carrier IFR Operations at High 
                        Density Traffic Airports

93.211 Applicability.
93.213 Definitions and general provisions.
93.215 Initial allocation of slots.
93.217 Allocation of slots for international operations and applicable 
          limitations.
93.218 Slots for transborder service to and from Canada.

[[Page 857]]

93.219 Allocation of slots for essential air service operations and 
          applicable limitations.
93.221 Transfer of slots.
93.223 Slot withdrawal.
93.224 Return of slots.
93.225 Lottery of available slots.
93.226 Allocation of slots in low-demand periods.
93.227 Slot use and loss.

    Subpart T_Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport Traffic Rules

93.251 Applicability.
93.253 Nonstop operations.

Subpart U_Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of Grand Canyon National 
                                Park, AZ

93.301 Applicability.
93.303 Definitions.
93.305 Flight-free zones and flight corridors.
93.307 Minimum flight altitudes.
93.309 General operating procedures.
93.311 Minimum terrain clearance.
93.313 Communications.
93.315 Requirements for commercial Special Flight Rules Area operations.
93.316 [Reserved]
93.317 Commercial Special Flight Rules Area operation curfew.
93.319 Commercial air tour limitations.
93.321 Transfer and termination of allocations.
93.323 Flight plans.
93.325 Quarterly reporting.

Appendix to Subpart U--Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of the Grand 
          Canyon National Park, AZ
Appendix A to Subpart U of Part 93--GCNP Quiet Aircraft Technology 
          Designation

  Subpart V_Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area

93.331 Purpose and applicability of this subpart.
93.333 Failure to comply with this subpart.
93.335 Definitions.
93.337 Requirements for operating in the DC SFRA.
93.339 Requirements for operating in the DC SFRA, including the DC FRZ.
93.341 Aircraft operations in the DC FRZ.
93.343 Requirements for aircraft operations to or from College Park 
          Airport, Potomac Airfield, or Washington Executive/Hyde Field 
          Airport.
93.345 VFR outbound procedures for fringe airports.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40109, 40113, 44502, 
44514, 44701, 44719, 46301.



             Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 60

    Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 60, see part 91 of this 
chapter.



Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 105--Operating Limitations 

  for Unscheduled Operations at Chicago's O'Hare International Airport

    Section 1. Applicability. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation 
(SFAR) No. 105 applies to persons conducting unscheduled arrivals under 
instrument flight rules (IFR) to Chicago's O'Hare International Airport 
(O'Hare) during the hours of 7 a.m. through 8:59 p.m., central time, 
Monday through Friday, and 12 p.m. through 8:59 p.m., central time on 
Sunday. This SFAR does not apply to helicopter operations, flights 
conducted under visual flight rules (VFR), or by foreign air carriers, 
except those flights conducted by Canadian air carriers or operators.
    Section 2. Terms. For purposes of this SFAR:
    ``Additional Reservation'' is an approved reservation above the 
operational limit in section 3. Additional Reservations are available 
for unscheduled arrivals only, and are allocated in accordance with the 
procedures described in section 7 of this SFAR.
    ``Airport Reservation Office (ARO)'' is an operational unit of the 
FAA's David J. Hurley Air Traffic Control System Command Center. It is 
responsible for the administration of reservations for the ``other'' 
category of operations, i.e. unscheduled flights at High Density Traffic 
Airports (14 CFR, part 93, subpart k), unscheduled flights under Special 
Traffic Management Programs, and the O'Hare Arrival Reservation Program 
(excluding public charter flights allocated in accordance with section 
6).
    ``Enhanced Computer Voice Reservation System (e-CVRS)'' is the 
system used by the FAA to make arrival and/or departure reservations at 
designated airports requiring reservations. Reservations are made 
through a touch-tone telephone interface, an Internet Web interface, or 
directly through the ARO.
    ``Public Charter'' is defined in 14 CFR 380.2 as a one-way or 
roundtrip charter flight to be performed by one or more direct air 
carriers that is arranged and sponsored by a charter operator.
    ``Public Charter Operator'' is defined in 14 CFR 380.2 as a U.S. or 
foreign public charter operator.
    ``Reservation'' is an authorization received in compliance with 
applicable Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) and procedures established by the 
FAA Administrator to operate an unscheduled arrival flight to O'Hare 
during peak hours.

[[Page 858]]

    ``Unscheduled Arrival'' is an arrival other than one regularly 
conducted and scheduled by an air carrier or other operator between 
O'Hare and another service point. However, certain types of air carrier 
operations are also considered as unscheduled for the purposes of this 
rule, including public, on-demand, and other charter flights; hired 
aircraft service; ferry flights; and other non-passenger flights.
    Section 3. Operational Limits. Except as provided for in section 7 
below, Unscheduled IFR Arrivals to O'Hare are limited to four Arrival 
Reservations per hour and no more than two Arrival Reservations during 
each half-hour, for the peak hours described in section 1.
    Section 4. Reservation Requirement. Each person conducting an 
unscheduled IFR flight to O'Hare during the peak hours described in 
section 1 must obtain, for such flight operation, an Arrival Reservation 
allocated by the ARO or, in the case of public charters, in accordance 
with the procedures in section 6. An Arrival Reservation is not an air 
traffic control clearance. Additionally, it is the separate 
responsibility of the pilot/operator to comply with all NOTAMs, security 
or other regulatory requirements to operate at O'Hare.
    Section 5. Reservation Procedures.
    a. The FAA's ARO will receive and process all Reservation requests 
for Unscheduled Arrivals at O'Hare during the effective period, except 
for requests for public charter flights. Requests for Reservations for 
public charter flights are addressed in section 6. Reservations are 
allocated on a ``first-come, first-served'' basis determined by the time 
the request is received at the ARO. Standby lists are not maintained. 
The computer reservation system may be accessed using a touch-tone 
telephone, via the Internet, or by telephoning the ARO directly. 
Requests for Reservations will be accepted beginning 72 hours prior to 
the proposed time of arrival at O'Hare. For example, a request for an 11 
a.m. Reservation on a Thursday will be accepted beginning at 11 a.m. on 
the previous Monday.
    b. A maximum of two transactions per telephone call/Internet session 
will be accepted.
    c. The ARO will allocate Reservations on a 30-minute basis. 
Reservation periods are half-hourly from the top and bottom of the hour 
(00 through 29 and 30 through 59) regardless of the arrival time within 
the period. For example, a 1920 arrival uses a 1900-1929 Reservation.
    d. An Arrival Reservation does not ensure against traffic delays, 
nor does it guarantee arrival within the allocated time period. Aircraft 
specifically delayed by ATC traffic management initiatives are not 
required to obtain a new Reservation based on the revised arrival time.
    e. Operators must check current NOTAMs in effect for the airport. A 
reservation from e-CVRS does not constitute permission to operate if 
additional operational limits or procedures are required by NOTAM and/or 
regulation.
    f. The filing of a request for a Reservation does not constitute the 
filing of an IFR flight plan as required by regulation. The IFR flight 
plan must be filed only after the Reservation is obtained, and must be 
filed in accordance with FAA regulations and procedures. The ARO does 
not accept or process flight plans.
    g. Operators may obtain Reservations by (1) accessing the Internet; 
(2) calling the ARO's interactive computer system via touch-tone 
telephone; or (3) calling the ARO directly. The telephone number for the 
e-CVRS computer is 1-800-875-9694. This toll free number is valid for 
calls originating within the United States, Canada, and the Caribbean. 
Operators outside those areas may access e-CVRS by calling the toll 
number of (703) 707-0568. The Internet Web address for accessing e-CVRS 
is http://www.fly.faa.gov/ecvrs. Operators may contact the ARO at (703) 
904-4452 if they have a technical problem making a Reservation using the 
automated interfaces, if they have a question concerning the procedures, 
or if they wish to make a telephone Reservation from outside the United 
States, Canada, or the Caribbean.
    h. When filing a request for an Arrival Reservation at O'Hare, the 
operator must provide the following information:
    (1) Date(s) and hour(s) (UTC) of the proposed arrival(s).
    (2) Aircraft call sign, flight identification, or tail/registration 
number. Operators using a 3-letter identifier and flight number for air 
traffic control (ATC) communication must obtain a reservation using that 
same information. Operators communicating with ATC using an aircraft 
tail number or other flight identification must obtain a reservation 
using that information.
    (3) Aircraft type identifier.
    (4) Departure airport (3 or 4-letter identifier) immediately prior 
to arriving at O'Hare.

Should the requested time not be available, the closest available time 
before and after the requested time will be offered.
    i. Changes must be made to an e-CVRS Reservation using the telephone 
interface, the Internet web interface, or by calling the ARO before the 
time of the allocated Arrival Reservation at O'Hare.
    j. The operator must cancel the Reservation if it will not be used. 
Cancellations must be made through e-CVRS as soon as practical using the 
telephone interface, the Internet web interface, or by calling the ARO 
in order to release the Arrival Reservation for reallocation.

[[Page 859]]

    k. The following information is needed to change or cancel a 
Reservation:
    (1) Aircraft 3-letter identifier and flight number or registration/
tail number used to make the original reservation.
    (2) Date and Time (UTC) of Reservation.
    (3) Reservation number.
    Section 6. Special Procedures for Public Charter Arrivals.
    a. One Arrival Reservation in each hour will be available for 
allocation to Public Charter operations prior to the adopted 72-hour 
Reservation window in section 5.
    b. The Public Charter Operator may request an Arrival Reservation up 
to six months from the date of the flight operation. Reservations should 
be submitted to Federal Aviation Administration, Slot Administration 
Office, AGC-220, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591. 
Submissions may be made by facsimile to (202) 267-7277 or by e-mail to 
[email protected].
    c. The Public Charter Operator must certify that its prospectus has 
been accepted by the Department of Transportation in accordance with 14 
CFR part 380.
    d. The Public Charter Operator must identify the call sign/flight 
number or aircraft registration number of the direct air carrier, the 
date and time of the proposed arrival(s), origin airport immediately 
prior to O'Hare, and aircraft type. Any changes to an approved 
Reservation must be approved in advance by the Slot Administration 
Office.
    e. If Arrival Reservations under paragraph (a) above have been 
allocated and are unavailable, the public charter operator may request 
Reservations under section 5.
    Section. 7. Additional Reservations.
    a. Notwithstanding the restrictions in section 1, if the Air Traffic 
Organization determines that ATC weather and capacity conditions are 
favorable and significant delay is not likely, the FAA may determine 
that additional Reservations may be accommodated for a specific time 
period. Generally, the availability of additional Reservations will not 
be determined more than 8 hours in advance. Unused Arrival Reservations 
allocated for scheduled operations may also be made available for 
Unscheduled Arrivals. If available, additional Reservations will be 
added to e-CVRS and granted on a first-come, first-served basis using 
the procedures described in section 5 of this SFAR. Reservations for 
additional arrival operations are not granted by the local ATC facility 
and must be obtained through e-CVRS or the ARO.
    b. An operator who has been unable to obtain a Reservation at the 
beginning of the 72-hour window may find that a Reservation may be 
available on the scheduled date of operation due to additional 
Reservations or cancellations.
    c. ATC will accommodate declared emergencies without regard to 
Reservations. Non-emergency flights in support of national security, law 
enforcement, military aircraft operations or public-use aircraft 
operations may be accommodated above the Reservation limits with the 
prior approval of the Vice President, System Operations Services, Air 
Traffic Organization. Procedures for obtaining the appropriate waiver 
will be included on the Internet at the e-CVS Web site at http://
www.fly.faa.gov/ecvrs.
    Section 8. Making Arrival Reservations Using e-CVRS.
    a. Telephone users. When using a touch-tone telephone to make a 
Reservation, you are prompted for a response. All input is accomplished 
using the keypad on the telephone. One issue with a touch-tone telephone 
entry is that most keys have a letter and number associated with them. 
When the system asks for a date or time, it is expecting an input of 
numbers. A problem arises when entering a tail number, or 3-letter 
identifier. The system does not detect if you are entering a letter 
(alpha character) or a number. Therefore, when entering an aircraft 
identifier and flight number or aircraft registration/tail number, two 
keys are used to represent each letter or number. When entering a 
number, precede the number you wish by the number 0 (zero) i.e., 01, 02, 
03, 04, * * * If you wish to enter a letter, first press the key on 
which the letter appears and then press 1, 2, or 3, depending upon 
whether the letter you desire is the first, second, or third letter on 
that key. For example to enter the letter ``N,'' first press the ``6'' 
key because ``N'' is on that key, then press the ``2'' key because the 
letter ``N'' is the second letter on the ``6'' key. Since there are no 
keys for the letters ``Q'' and ``Z,'' e-CVRS pretends they are on the 
number ``1'' key. Therefore, to enter the letter ``Q,'' press 11, and to 
enter the letter ``Z,'' press 12.

    Note: The ``N'' character must be entered along with an aircraft 
tail number (see Table 1). Operators using a 3-letter identifier and 
flight number to communicate with ATC facilities must enter that same 
information when making a Reservation.

             Table 1--Codes for Call Sign/Tail Number Input
------------------------------------------------------------------------
 
------------------------------------------------------------------------
               Codes for Call Sign/Tail Number Input Only
------------------------------------------------------------------------
       A-21               J-51               S-73              1-01
       B-22               K-52               T-81              2-02
           C-23           L-53               U-82              3-03
       D-31               M-61               V-83              4-04
       E-32               N-62               W-91              5-05
       F-33               O-63               X-92              6-06
       G-41               P-71               Y-93              7-07
       H-42               Q-11               Z-12              8-08
       I-43               R-72               0-00              9-09
------------------------------------------------------------------------


[[Page 860]]

    b. Additional helpful key entries:
    (See Table 2).

                      Table 2--Helpful Key Entries
------------------------------------------------------------------------
 
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                      After entering a call sign/tail number,
                                depressing the ``pound key'' ()
                                twice will indicate the end of the tail
                                number.
*                              Will return to the start of the process.
2
*                              Will repeat the call sign/tail number
3                               used in a previous reservation.
*                              Will repeat the previous question.
5
*                              Tutorial Mode: Each prompt for input
8                               includes a more detailed description of
                                what is expected as input. *8 are a
                                toggle on/off switch. Entering *8 in
                                tutorial mode will return you to the
                                normal mode.
*                              Expert Mode: In the expert mode each
0                               prompt for input is brief with little or
                                no explanation. Expert mode is also on/
                                off toggle.
------------------------------------------------------------------------

    c. Internet Web Based Interface. The e-CVRS reservation system 
includes a Web-based interface. The Internet option provides a fast, 
user-friendly environment for making Reservations. The Internet address 
is http://www.fly.faa.gov/ecvrs. Flight information may be added or 
edited using e-CVRS after the reservation is initially obtained.
    All users of e-CVRS must complete a one-time registration form 
containing the following information: full name; e-mail address; a 
personal password; password confirmation; and company affiliation 
(optional). Your e-mail and password are required each time you login to 
use e-CVRS. Instructions are provided on each page to guide you through 
the reservation process. If you need help at any time, you can access 
page-specific help by clicking the question mark ``?'' located in the 
upper right corner of the page.
    Section 9. Expiration. This Special Federal Aviation Regulation 
expires at 9 p.m., Central Time, on October 31, 2010 unless sooner 
terminated.

[70 FR 39620, July 8, 2005]

    Effective Date Note: By Doc. No. FAA-2004-19411, 70 FR 39620, July 
8, 2005, SFAR No. 105 was added, and amended by revising section 9 at 70 
FR 66255, Nov. 2, 2005, effective Aug. 8, 2005 until Mar. 31, 2006. At 
71 FR 16219, Mar. 31, 2006, section 9 was revised and the effective date 
was extended from Mar. 31, 2006, until Oct. 28, 2006. By Doc. No. FAA-
2005-19411, 71 FR 64113, Nov. 1, 2006, filed in the Office of the 
Federal Register on Oct. 27, 2006, section 9 was revised and the 
effective date of SFAR No. 105 was extended through Oct. 31, 2008. By 
Amdt. 93-89, 73 FR 64517, Oct. 30, 2008, section 9 was revised and the 
effective date was extended through Oct. 31, 2010.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 93.1  Applicability.

    This part prescribes special air traffic rules for operating 
aircraft in certain areas described in this part, unless otherwise 
authorized by air traffic control.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]



Subpart B_Congestion and Delay Reduction at Chicago O'Hare International 

                                 Airport

    Source: Doc. No. FAA-2005-20704, 71 FR 51400, Aug. 29, 2006, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 93.21  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart prescribes the air traffic rules for the arrival of 
aircraft used for scheduled service, other than helicopters, at 
Chicago's O'Hare International Airport (O'Hare).
    (b) This subpart also prescribes procedures for the assignment, 
transfer, sale, lease, and withdrawal of Arrival Authorizations issued 
by the FAA for scheduled operations by U.S. and foreign air carriers at 
O'Hare.
    (c) The provisions of this subpart apply to O'Hare during the hours 
of 7 a.m. through 8:59 p.m. Central Time, Monday through Friday, and 12 
p.m. through 8:59 p.m. Central Time on Sunday. No person shall operate 
any scheduled arrival into O'Hare during such hours without first 
obtaining an Arrival Authorization in accordance with this subpart.
    (d) Carriers that have Common Ownership shall be considered to be a 
single U.S. air carrier or foreign air carrier for purposes of this 
rule.
    (e) The provisions of this subpart are applicable beginning October 
29, 2006, and terminate at 9 p.m. on October 31, 2008.



Sec. 93.22  Definitions.

    For the purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
    Arrival Authorization is the operational authority assigned by the 
FAA to a U.S. or foreign air carrier to conduct one scheduled arrival 
operation on a specific day of the week during a specific 30-minute 
period at O'Hare.

[[Page 861]]

    Carrier is a U.S. air carrier, Canadian air carrier or foreign air 
carrier with authority to conduct scheduled service at O'Hare under 
Parts 121, 129, 135 of the Chapter and the appropriate economic 
authority for scheduled service under Title 49 of the United States 
Code.
    Common Ownership with respect to two or more carriers means having 
in common at least 50 percent beneficial ownership or control by the 
same entity or entities.
    Incumbent is any U.S. or Canadian air carrier that is not a New 
Entrant or Limited Incumbent.
    International Arrival Authorization is the operational authority 
assigned by the FAA to a Carrier to conduct one scheduled arrival 
operation at O'Hare from a foreign point or a continuation of a flight 
that began at a foreign point, except for arrivals at O'Hare from Canada 
by U.S. and Canadian air carriers.
    Limited Incumbent is any U.S. or Canadian air carrier that holds or 
operates, on its own behalf, 8 or fewer Arrival Authorizations provided 
that it has not sold or otherwise transferred Arrival Authorizations, 
other than one-for-one transfers permitted in this subpart. Any Limited 
Incumbent that sells or otherwise transfers an Arrival Authorization 
shall thereafter be treated as an Incumbent for purposes of this rule.
    New Entrant is any U.S. or Canadian air carrier that does not hold 
or operate, and has never held or operated any Arrival Authorization at 
O'Hare, on its own behalf.
    Preferred Lottery is a lottery conducted by the FAA to assign 
Arrival Authorizations, with initial preference for New Entrants and 
Limited Incumbents.
    Scheduled Arrival is the arrival segment of any operation regularly 
conducted by a carrier between O'Hare and another point regularly served 
by that carrier.
    Summer Scheduling Season is the period of time from the first Sunday 
in April until the last Sunday in October. Beginning March 11, 2007, the 
summer scheduling season is the period of time from the second Sunday in 
March until the first Sunday in November.
    Winter Scheduling Season is the period of time from the last Sunday 
in October until the first Sunday in April. Beginning March 11, 2007, 
the winter scheduling season is the first Sunday in November until the 
second Sunday in March.



Sec. 93.23  Arrival Authorizations.

    (a) Except as otherwise established by the FAA under paragraph (d) 
of this section and Sec. 93.29 of this subpart, the number of Arrival 
Authorizations shall be limited to:
    (1) 88 per hour between the hours of 7 a.m. and 7:59 p.m. Monday 
through Friday and 12 p.m. and 7:59 p.m. Sunday,
    (i) Not to exceed 50 during each half-hour beginning at 7 a.m. and 
ending at 7:59 p.m.
    (ii) Not to exceed 88 within any two consecutive 30-minute periods.
    (2) 98 between 8 p.m. and 8:59 p.m. Monday through Friday, and 
Sunday, not to exceed 50 between 8 p.m. and 8:29 p.m. and 50 between 
8:30 p.m and 8:59 p.m.
    (b) An Arrival Authorization is a temporary operating privilege 
subject to FAA control. Only Carriers may hold Arrival Authorizations. 
Arrival Authorizations may not be bought, sold, leased, or otherwise 
transferred to another Carrier, except as provided in Sec. Sec. 93.27 
and 93.28 of this subpart.
    (c) Beginning six months from the effective date of this rule and on 
each six-month anniversary thereafter, the FAA shall conduct a review of 
existing capacity at O'Hare, to determine whether to increase the number 
of Arrival Authorizations. The FAA will consider the following factors:
    (1) The number of delays;
    (2) The length of delays;
    (3) Weather conditions;
    (4) On-time arrivals and departures;
    (5) The number of actual arrival operations;
    (6) Runway utilization and capacity plans; and
    (7) Other factors relating to the efficient management of the 
national air space system.
    (d) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), the Administrator may increase 
the number of Arrival Authorizations based on the review conducted in 
paragraph (c) of this section.

[[Page 862]]



Sec. 93.24  [Reserved]



Sec. 93.25  Initial assignment of Arrival Authorizations to U.S. and Canadian 

air carriers for domestic and U.S./Canada transborder service.

    (a) The FAA shall assign to each U.S. and Canadian air carrier, 
conducting scheduled service at O'Hare, as of the effective date of this 
rule, Arrival Authorizations for each scheduled arrival that it 
published for either domestic or U.S./Canada transborder service for any 
day during the 7-day period of November 1 through 7, 2004, as evidenced 
by the FAA's records, not to exceed the peak-day limits for each carrier 
established under the August 18, 2004, ``Order Limiting Scheduled 
Operations at O'Hare International Airport.'' A carrier's total 
assignment under this paragraph shall be reduced accordingly by (i) any 
international Arrival Authorizations assigned under Sec. 93.29 (a), and 
(ii) if the carrier transferred or traded for consideration any arrival 
authorizations to another carrier under the October 2006 order amending 
the August 18, 2004 order and the transferee carrier meets the 
conditions of paragraph (b) of this section, the number of such traded 
or transferred authorizations.
    (b) The FAA shall assign an Arrival Authorization to each U.S. and 
Canadian air carrier that did not publish a scheduled domestic or U.S./
Canada transborder arrival during the period of time referenced in 
paragraph (a) of this section for arrivals for which the carrier:
    (1) Was entitled to under the August 18, 2004, ``Order Limiting 
Scheduled Operations at O'Hare International Airport,'' as amended, and 
is conducting scheduled service at O'Hare as of the effective date of 
this rule; or
    (2) Has initiated scheduled service or received FAA approval of a 
trade or transfer under the August 18, 2004, ``Order Limiting Scheduled 
Operations at O'Hare International Airport,'' as amended, as long as 
operations conducted under the Arrival Authorization begin no later than 
January 27, 2007.
    (c) Arrival Authorizations will be assigned to the U.S. or Canadian 
air carrier that actually operated the flight regardless of any 
codeshare or marketing arrangement unless such carrier did not market 
the flight under its own code and the inventory of the flight was under 
the control of another Carrier. If the inventory was under the control 
of another Carrier, the FAA shall assign the Arrival Authorization to 
that Carrier. Carriers may subsequently transfer Arrival Authorizations 
for use by other Carriers under their marketing control in accordance 
with Sec. 93.2(m).
    (d) Any Arrival Authorization not assigned under paragraphs (a) or 
(b) of this section will be assigned to carriers conducting scheduled 
international service under Sec. 93.29. Any remaining Arrival 
Authorizations will be assigned by preferred lottery under Sec. 93.30.
    (e) The FAA Vice President, System Operations Services, is the final 
decision-maker for determinations under this section.

[Doc. No. FAA-2005-20704, 71 FR 51400, Aug. 29, 2006, as amended by 
Amdt. 93-86, 71 FR 60426, Oct. 13, 2006]



Sec. 93.26  Reversion and withdrawal of Arrival Authorizations.

    (a) A U.S. or Canadian air carrier's Arrival Authorizations assigned 
under Sec. Sec. 93.25 or 93.27 revert automatically to the FAA 30 days 
after the Carrier has ceased all operations at O'Hare for any reason 
other than a strike.
    (b) The FAA may withdraw or temporarily suspend Arrival 
Authorizations at any time as a result of reduced airport capacity or to 
fulfill operational needs. Whenever Arrival Authorizations must be 
withdrawn, they will be withdrawn in the required 30-minute Arrival 
Authorization time periods in accordance with the priority list 
established under Sec. 93.32 of this subpart.
    (c) Any Arrival Authorization that is withdrawn or temporarily 
suspended under paragraph (b) will, if reassigned, be reassigned to the 
Carrier from which it was taken, provided that the Carrier continues to 
conduct scheduled operations at O'Hare.
    (d) The FAA shall not withdraw or temporarily suspend under 
paragraph (b) any Arrival Authorizations if the result would be to 
reduce a Carrier's total number of Arrival Authorizations below eight.

[[Page 863]]

    (e) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a) of this section, 
the FAA will notify the affected Carrier before withdrawing or 
temporarily suspending any Arrival Authorization and specify the date by 
which operations under the authorizations must cease. The FAA will 
provide at least 45 days' notice unless otherwise required by 
operational needs.



Sec. 93.27  Sale and lease of Arrival Authorizations.

    (a) No U.S. or Canadian air carriers may sell or lease its Arrival 
Authorizations at O'Hare except in accordance with the procedures in 
this section and in the manner prescribed by the FAA. Carriers may not 
buy, sell, lease or otherwise transfer control of Arrival Authorizations 
assigned under Sec. 93.29.
    (b) Only monetary consideration may be provided in any transaction 
conducted under this section.
    (c) New Entrants and Limited Incumbents may not sell, lease, or 
otherwise transfer control of any Arrival Authorizations assigned 
through a Preferred Lottery within 12 months of such assignment, except 
to another New Entrant or Limited Incumbent. One-for-one trades to other 
Carriers under Sec. 93.28 are permitted.
    (d) A U.S. or Canadian air carrier seeking to sell or lease an 
Arrival Authorization must provide the following information in writing 
to the FAA:
    (1) Arrival Authorization number and time;
    (2) Frequency;
    (3) Planned effective date(s) of transfer;
    (4) Minimum reserve price, if established by the offering carrier;
    (5) Other pertinent information, if applicable; and
    (6) Carrier's authorized representative.
    (e) The FAA will post a notice of the available Arrival 
Authorization and specific information concerning the proposed sale or 
lease transaction on the FAA Web site at http://www.fly.faa.gov. The Web 
site will include information regarding registration to be advised of 
posted transactions, and other relevant information pertaining to this 
section. The FAA will post the notice within two business days after 
receipt of all required information from the U.S or Canadian air carrier 
offering the Arrival Authorization for sale or lease. The notice will 
provide ten business days for bids to be received and will specify a bid 
closing date and time. Only U.S. and Canadian air carriers may bid on 
Arrival Authorizations. Information identifying the Carrier providing 
the Arrival Authorization for sale or lease will not be posted or 
released by the FAA until after the FAA has approved the transfer.
    (f) All bids must be sent to the FAA electronically, via the FAA Web 
site, by the closing date and time, and no extensions of time will be 
granted. Late bids will not be considered. All bids will be held 
confidential, with each bidder certifying in a form acceptable to the 
FAA that its bid has not been disclosed to any person not its agent.
    (g) The FAA will forward the highest qualifying bid to the selling 
or leasing U.S. or Canadian air carrier without identifying the bidder. 
The selling or leasing Carrier will have up to three business days to 
accept or reject the bid. The selling or leasing Carrier must notify the 
FAA via the Web site or in writing of its acceptance no later than 5 
p.m. Eastern Time on the third business day. If the selling or leasing 
Carrier does not notify the FAA of its acceptance within the allotted 
time, the transaction will terminate.
    (h) Upon acceptance, the FAA will notify the U. S. or Canadian air 
carrier, who submitted the highest bid, and request that the buyer/
lessee and the seller/lessor submit to the FAA the information (such as 
Arrival Authorization number, frequency and effective date(s) of 
transfer) required to transfer the Arrival Authorization.
    (i) Each U.S. or Canadian air carrier must provide the FAA evidence 
of its consent and each Carrier must certify that only monetary 
consideration will be or has been exchanged.
    (j) The FAA will approve requested transfers of Arrival 
Authorizations that comply with these regulations. The recipient U.S. or 
Canadian air carrier of the transfer may not use the Arrival 
Authorization until the conditions in paragraph (i) of this section

[[Page 864]]

have been met and the FAA has approved the transfer.
    (k) The FAA will keep a record of all bids received and of each 
Arrival Authorization transfer, including the identity of both Carriers 
and the winning bid price, all of which will be made available to the 
public.
    (l) U.S. or Canadian air carriers may request the FAA post notice 
that it is seeking to lease or purchase an Arrival Authorization at 
O'Hare. The Carrier may submit information in writing or via the FAA's 
Web site. This information may include the effective date, number or 
timing of Arrival Authorizations sought, whether a Carrier is seeking to 
purchase or lease, maximum price offered, or other pertinent 
information. The FAA may edit any submissions, or choose not to post 
certain information, in order to ensure the integrity of the 
solicitation process. Information identifying the Carrier seeking an 
Arrival Authorization for sale or lease will not be posted or released 
by the FAA. The FAA will post such requests within two business days of 
receipt for a period of at least 30 days. Any resulting offers to sell 
or lease Arrival Authorizations shall be conducted in accordance with 
this subsection.
    (m) A U.S. or Canadian air carrier may transfer an Arrival 
Authorization to another U.S. or Canadian air carrier that conducts 
operations at O'Hare solely under the transferring Carrier's marketing 
control, including the entire inventory of the flight. Each Carrier must 
provide written evidence of its consent to the transfer. The FAA will 
approve requested transfers that comply with these regulations. The FAA 
Vice President, System Operations Services, is the final decision-maker 
for determinations under this subsection. The recipient Carrier of the 
transfer may not use the Arrival Authorization until the FAA has 
provided written confirmation. A record of each Arrival Authorization 
will be kept on file by the FAA and made available to the public on 
request.



Sec. 93.28  One-for-one trade of Arrival Authorizations.

    (a) Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, any Carrier may 
exchange an Arrival Authorization it has been assigned with another 
Carrier on a one-for-one basis for the purpose of conducting that 
operation in a different half-hour time period.
    (b) Written evidence of each Carrier's consent to the transfer must 
be provided to the FAA.
    (c) The FAA will approve requested transfers of Arrival 
Authorizations that comply with these regulations. The recipient Carrier 
of the transfer may not use the Arrival Authorization until written 
confirmation has been received from the FAA.
    (d) A U.S. or Canadian air carrier assigned Arrival Authorizations 
under Sec. 93.29 may trade on a one-for-one basis within its own base 
of Arrival Authorizations subject to FAA approval, provided that the 
purpose is to operate the arrival flight from a foreign point outside 
Canada in a different half-hour time period than assigned. The FAA must 
confirm the transfer prior to operation.
    (e) A record of each Arrival Authorization exchange will be kept on 
file by the FAA and made available to the public upon request.
    (f) Carriers participating in a one-for-one transfer must certify to 
the FAA that no other consideration will be or has been provided for the 
exchange.



Sec. 93.29  International Arrival Authorizations.

    (a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d) of this section, 
the FAA shall make an initial assignment of Arrival Authorizations to 
U.S. and Canadian carriers arriving from a foreign point, excluding 
Canada, or any other foreign carrier arriving from a foreign point or 
the continuation of a flight that begins at a foreign point for the 
winter and summer scheduling seasons as follows. This section does not 
apply to arrivals at O'Hare from Canada by U.S. or Canadian air 
carriers.
    (1) Winter Scheduling Season. Upon request, the FAA shall assign to 
each Carrier that published a scheduled arrival during the Winter 2006 
Scheduling Season, as evidenced by the FAA's records, a corresponding 
Arrival Authorization for the Winter 2007 Scheduling Season.
    (2) Summer Scheduling Season. Upon request, the FAA shall assign to 
each

[[Page 865]]

Carrier that published a scheduled arrival for the Summer 2006 
Scheduling Season, as evidenced by the FAA's records, a corresponding 
Arrival Authorization for the Summer 2007 Scheduling Season.
    (3) Arrival Authorizations will be assigned to the Carrier that 
actually operated the flight regardless of any codeshare or marketing 
arrangement unless the flight was predominately marketed, by contract, 
under the control of another Carrier. If the flight was under the 
marketing control of another Carrier or the entire inventory was under 
the control of another Carrier, the FAA shall assign the Arrival 
Authorization to that Carrier.
    (4) The FAA Vice President, System Operations Services, is the final 
decision-maker for determinations under this subsection.
    (b) Notwithstanding the limit on Arrival Authorization in Sec. 
93.23(a), any U.S. or Canadian air carrier arriving at O'Hare from a 
foreign point, excluding Canada, shall be assigned an Arrival 
Authorization under this section for that flight.
    (c) Notwithstanding the limit on Arrival Authorizations in Sec. 
93.23(a), any non-Canadian, foreign air carrier conducting scheduled 
service and arriving at O'Hare shall be assigned an Arrival 
Authorization under this section for that flight.
    (d) The Department of Transportation reserves the right to withhold 
the assignment of an Arrival Authorization to any foreign air carrier of 
a country that does not provide equivalent rights of access to its 
airports for U.S. air carriers, as determined by the Secretary of 
Transportation.
    (e) For each scheduling season, Carriers must request Arrival 
Authorizations under this section in accordance with the procedures 
announced by the FAA in the Federal Register. A Carrier may request to 
operate more flights from foreign points than the number for which it 
received Arrival Authorizations under Sec. 93.29(a) or to operate 
historic arrivals in a different half-hour than initially assigned for 
the previous corresponding scheduling season. The Arrival Authorizations 
will be assigned at the time requested unless:
    (1) An Arrival Authorization is available within one hour of the 
requested time, in which case, the unassigned Arrival Authorization will 
be used to satisfy the request; or
    (2) Operational efficiencies support assignment within one hour of 
the requested period. The FAA Vice President, System Operations 
Services, is the final decision-maker for determinations under this 
subsection.
    (f) Each request for Arrival Authorizations under this section shall 
specify the complete flight information including the carrier 
identifier, flight number, complete flight itinerary, frequency, 
scheduled arrival time, aircraft and service type, effective dates and 
whether the Arrival Authorization is for a new or historic flight.
    (g) Arrival Authorizations assigned under this section cannot be 
bought, sold, leased or transferred under Sec. 93.27 but subject to FAA 
approval may be traded on a one-for-one basis under Sec. 93.28 to meet 
the Carrier's operational needs.
    (h) Arrival Authorizations assigned under this section are not 
subject to minimum usage requirements of Sec. 93.31 of this subpart but 
will revert to the FAA if not used for 15 consecutive days. Arrival 
Authorizations assigned under this section may only be used for a flight 
arriving from a foreign point or for non-Canadian, foreign air carriers, 
the continuation of a flight that begins at a foreign point.



Sec. 93.30  Assignment provisions for domestic and U.S./Canada transborder 

service.

    (a) Whenever the FAA has determined that sufficient Arrival 
Authorizations are available, they will be assigned by lottery in 
accordance with this section. Only U.S. and Canadian air carriers are 
eligible to participate in a lottery. U.S. and Canadian air carriers 
must hold appropriate economic authority for scheduled service under 
Title 49 of the U.S.C. and FAA operating authority under parts 121, 129, 
or 135 of this chapter to select Arrival Authorizations in a lottery.
    (b) Arrival Authorizations not assigned under Sec. 93.25, or 
returned to the

[[Page 866]]

FAA under Sec. Sec. 93.26(a) or 93.31 for reassignment shall be 
assigned by a Preferred Lottery.
    (c) Any Arrival Authorization available as the result of an increase 
in the hourly limits under Sec. 93.23(a) of this part from 88 Arrival 
Authorizations to 89 or 90 shall be assigned by Preferred Lottery.
    (d) Any Arrival Authorizations available as the result of an 
increase above 90 in the hourly limits specified in Sec. 93.23(a) of 
this subpart shall be assigned by lottery that is open to all U.S. and 
Canadian air carriers eligible to participate.
    (e) The FAA will publish a notice in the Federal Register announcing 
the lottery dates and any special procedures for the lotteries.
    (f) Any U.S. or Canadian air carrier seeking to participate in any 
lottery must notify the FAA in writing, and such notification must be 
received by the FAA 15 days prior to the lottery date. The U.S. or 
Canadian air carrier must specify if it is requesting to participate in 
a lottery as a New Entrant or Limited Incumbent. The U.S. or Canadian 
air carrier must also disclose in its notification whether it has Common 
Ownership with any other Carrier and, if so, identify such Carrier.
    (g) A random lottery shall be held to determine the order in which 
participating Carriers shall select an Arrival Authorization.
    (h) In any Preferred Lottery, each New Entrant and Limited Incumbent 
will have the opportunity to select Arrival Authorizations, if available 
as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, until it holds a total of 
eight Arrival Authorizations. Arrival Authorizations remaining after all 
New Entrants and Limited Incumbents have been accommodated may be 
assigned to any other Carrier participating in the lottery. Arrival 
Authorizations remaining after all New Entrants and Limited Incumbents 
have been accommodated may be assigned to any U.S. or Canadian air 
carrier participating in the lottery for a minimum of 12 months, and 
then until the next lottery, when such Arrival Authorizations would 
again be available on a preferred basis to New Entrants and Limited 
Incumbents.
    (i) At the lottery, each Carrier must make its selection within 5 
minutes after being called or it shall lose its turn. If Arrival 
Authorizations still remain after each Carrier has had an opportunity to 
select Arrival Authorizations, the assignment sequence will be repeated 
in the same order. A Carrier may select one Arrival Authorization during 
each sequence, except that New Entrants may select two Arrival 
Authorizations, if available, in the first sequence of a Preferred 
Lottery.
    (j) If there are available Arrival Authorizations for a temporary 
period, for example, Arrival Authorizations pending assignment in a 
lottery or international arrivals that are temporarily returned, the FAA 
may assign these Authorizations on a non-permanent, first-come, first-
served basis.



Sec. 93.31  Minimum usage requirement.

    (a) Except as provided in Sec. 93.29 and paragraphs (b) and (c) of 
this section, any Arrival Authorizations not used at least 80 percent of 
the time over a two-month period shall be withdrawn by the FAA.
    (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to Arrival 
Authorizations obtained under Sec. 93.30 or bought under Sec. 93.27 
during the first 90 days after assignment.
    (c) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to Arrival 
Authorizations of U.S. or Canadian air carrier forced by a strike to 
cease operations using those Arrival Authorizations.
    (d) Every U.S. and Canadian air carrier holding Arrival 
Authorizations shall forward in writing to the FAA Slot Administration 
Office in a format specified by the FAA a list of all Arrival 
Authorizations held by the Carrier along with a listing of the Arrival 
Authorizations actually operated for each day of the 2-month reporting 
period within 14 days after the last day of the 2-month reporting period 
beginning January 1 and every 2 months thereafter. The report shall 
identify for each assigned Arrival Authorization the withdrawal priority 
number and half-hour period, the flight number, 3-letter identifier of 
the operating Carrier used for air traffic control communications, 
scheduled time of operation, origin airport, and whether a scheduled 
arrival

[[Page 867]]

was actually operated by the Carrier on a specified day. The report 
shall identify any Common Ownership or control of, by, or with any other 
carrier. A senior official of the Carrier shall sign the report.
    (e) The Administrator may waive the requirements of paragraph (a) of 
this section in the event of a highly unusual and unpredictable 
condition which is beyond the control of the Carrier and which exists 
for a period of 5 consecutive days or more. Examples of conditions that 
could justify waiver under this paragraph are weather conditions that 
result in the restricted operation of an airport for an extended period 
of time or the grounding of any aircraft type.
    (f) The FAA will treat as used any Arrival Authorization held by a 
carrier on Thanksgiving Day, the Friday following Thanksgiving Day, and 
the period from December 24 through the first Sunday in January.



Sec. 93.32  Administrative provisions.

    (a) The FAA will assign, by random lottery, withdrawal priority 
numbers for the recall priority of Arrival Authorizations at O'Hare. The 
lowest numbered Arrival Authorization will be the last withdrawn. Newly 
created Arrival Authorizations will be assigned a priority withdrawal 
number and that number will be higher than any other Arrival 
Authorization withdrawal number previously assigned. Each Arrival 
Authorization will be assigned a designation consisting of the 
applicable withdrawal priority number, and the 30-minute time period for 
the Arrival Authorization. The designation will also indicate, as 
appropriate, if the Arrival Authorization is daily or for certain days 
of the week only; and is a summer or winter Arrival Authorization.
    (b) All transactions regarding Arrival Authorizations under this 
subpart must be in a written or electronic format approved by the FAA.



Sec. 93.33  [Reserved]



                Subpart C_LaGuardia Airport Traffic Rules

    Source: Doc. No. FAA-2006-25709, 73 FR 60598, Oct. 10, 2008, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 93.35  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart prescribes the air traffic rules for the arrival 
and departure of aircraft used for scheduled and unscheduled service, 
other than helicopters, at LaGuardia Airport (LaGuardia).
    (b) This subpart also prescribes procedures for the assignment, 
transfer, sublease and withdrawal of Slots issued by the FAA for 
scheduled operations at LaGuardia.
    (c) The provisions of this subpart apply to LaGuardia during the 
hours of 6:00 a.m. through 9:59 p.m., Eastern Time, Monday through 
Friday and from 12 noon through 9:59 p.m., Eastern Time, Sunday. No 
person shall operate any scheduled arrival or departure into or out of 
LaGuardia during such hours without first obtaining a slot in accordance 
with this subpart. No person shall conduct an unscheduled operation to 
or from LaGuardia during such hours without first obtaining a 
reservation.
    (d) Carriers that have common ownership shall be considered a single 
air carrier for purposes of this rule.
    (e) The slots assigned under this subpart terminate at 10:00 p.m. on 
March 9, 2019.



Sec. 93.36  Definitions.

    For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
    Airport Reservation Office (ARO) is an operational unit of the FAA's 
David J. Hurley Air Traffic Control System Command Center. It is 
responsible for the administration of reservations for unscheduled 
operations at LaGuardia.
    Base of operations are those common slots held by a carrier at 
LaGuardia on December 9, 2008, that do not exceed 20 operations per day 
and all slots guaranteed under The Air Transport Agreement between the 
Government of the United States of America and the Government of Canada.

[[Page 868]]

    Carrier is a U.S. or foreign air carrier with authority to conduct 
scheduled service under Parts 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter and the 
appropriate economic authority for scheduled service under 14 CFR 
chapter II and 49 U.S.C. chapters 411 and 413.
    Common ownership with respect to two or more carriers means having 
in common at least 50 percent beneficial ownership or control by the 
same entity or entities.
    Common slot is a slot that is allocated by the FAA as a lease under 
its cooperative agreement authority for the length of this rule.
    Enhanced computer voice reservation system (e-CVRS) is the system 
used by the FAA to make arrival and/or departure reservations for 
unscheduled operations at LaGuardia and other designated airports.
    Limited slot is a slot, the lease for which expires prior to the 
expiration of this rule for retirement or subsequent allocation by the 
FAA as an unrestricted slot.
    Public charter is defined in 14 CFR 380.2 as a one-way or roundtrip 
charter flight to be performed by one or more direct air carriers that 
is arranged and sponsored by a public charter operator.
    Public charter operator is defined in 14 CFR 380.2 as a U.S. or 
foreign public charter operator.
    Reservation is an authorization received by a carrier or other 
operator of an aircraft, excluding helicopters, in accordance with 
procedures established by the FAA to operate an unscheduled arrival or 
departure on a particular day during a specific 60-minute period.
    Scheduled operation is the arrival or departure segment of any 
operation regularly conducted by a carrier between LaGuardia and another 
point regularly served by that carrier.
    Slot is the operational authority assigned by the FAA to a carrier 
to conduct one scheduled operation or a series of scheduled operations 
at LaGuardia on a particular day(s) of the week during a specific 30-
minute period.
    Unrestricted slot is a slot that is allocated to a carrier by the 
FAA via the auction of a lease.
    Unscheduled operation is an arrival or departure segment of any 
operation that is not regularly conducted by a carrier or other operator 
of an aircraft, excluding helicopters, between LaGuardia and another 
service point. The following types of carrier operations shall be 
considered unscheduled operations for the purposes of this rule: Public, 
on-demand, and other charter flights; hired aircraft service; extra 
sections of scheduled flights; ferry flights; and other non-passenger 
flights.



Sec. 93.37  Slots for scheduled arrivals and departures.

    (a) During the hours of 6 a.m. through 9:59 p.m., Eastern Time, 
Monday through Friday and from 12 noon through 9:59 p.m., Eastern Time, 
Sunday, no person shall operate any scheduled arrival or departure into 
or out of LaGuardia without first obtaining a slot in accordance with 
this subpart.
    (b)(1) Prior to March 8, 2009, the number of slots shall be limited 
to no more than seventy-five (75) per hour unless otherwise provided by 
the Administrator. The number of slots may not exceed 38 in any 30-
minute period, and 75 in any 60-minute period.
    (2) Effective March 8, 2009, and except as otherwise established by 
the FAA under paragraph (c) of this section, the number of slots 
available from 6 a.m. through 9:59 p.m. shall be limited to no more than 
seventy-one (71) per hour. The number of slots may not exceed 38 in any 
30-minute period, and 71 in any 60-minute period. The number of arrival 
and departure slots in any period may be adjusted by the FAA as 
necessary based on the actual or potential delays created by such number 
or other considerations relating to congestion, airfield capacity and 
the air traffic control system.
    (c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, the Administrator 
may increase the number of slots based on a review of the following:
    (1) The number of delays;
    (2) The length of delays;
    (3) On-time arrivals and departures;
    (4) The number of actual operations;
    (5) Runway utilization and capacity plans; and
    (6) Other factors relating to the efficient management of the 
National Airspace System.

[[Page 869]]



Sec. 93.38  Categories of slots.

    Each slot shall be designated as a common slot, limited slot or 
unrestricted slot and shall be assigned to the carrier under a lease 
agreement. A lease for a common or limited slot shall be assigned via a 
cooperative agreement. A lease for an unrestricted slot shall be awarded 
via an auction.
    (a) Common slots.
    (1) All slots within any carrier's base of operations as determined 
on December 9, 2008 shall be designated as common slots.
    (2) 176 slots at LaGuardia on December 9, 2008 shall be designated 
as limited slots or unrestricted slots. All other slots shall be 
designated as common slots.
    (b) Limited slots. Those slots assigned to a carrier subject to 
return to the FAA under Sec. 93.39(c) and (d) shall be designated as 
limited slots until the date of their reassignment by the FAA as 
unrestricted slots or their retirement by the FAA. A carrier may 
continue to use a limited slot that has reverted to the FAA until the 
second Sunday in the following March.
    (1) Each carrier with a total number of daily operations at 
LaGuardia in excess of its base of operations, will be notified by no 
later than December 9, 2008 how many of its slots will be designated as 
limited slots pursuant to paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section.
    (2) A carrier shall designate 50 percent of its limited slots. The 
carrier must notify the FAA of its designation by December 19, 2008.
    (3) The FAA will designate the remaining limited slots, initially 
excluding those hours in which five or more slots have been designated 
as limited slots by the carriers.
    (4) No later than December 29, 2008, the FAA will publish a list of 
all limited slots and the dates upon which they will expire.
    (c) Unrestricted slots. Unrestricted slots are slots acquired by a 
carrier through a lease with the FAA awarded via an auction. 
Unrestricted slots are not subject to withdrawal by the FAA.



Sec. 93.39  Initial assignment of slots.

    (a) Except as provided for under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this 
section, any carrier allocated operating rights under the Order, 
Operating Limitations at New York LaGuardia Airport, during the week of 
September 28-October 4, 2008, as evidenced by the FAA's records, will be 
assigned corresponding slots in 30-minute periods consistent with the 
limits under Sec. 93.37(b). If necessary, the FAA may utilize 
administrative measures such as voluntary measures or a lottery to re-
time the assigned slots within the same hour to meet the 30-minute 
limits under Sec. 93.37(b). The FAA Vice President, System Operations 
Services, is the final decision-maker for determinations under this 
section.
    (b) If a carrier was allocated operating rights under the Order 
Limiting Operations at LaGuardia Airport during the week of September 
28-October 4, 2008, but the operating rights were held by another 
carrier regularly conducting operations at the airport as of that week, 
then the corresponding slots will be assigned to the carrier that held 
the operating rights for that period, as evidenced by the FAA's records.
    (c)(1) In accordance with the schedule published under Sec. 
93.38(b)(4),
    (i) Twenty-four (24) limited slots shall revert to the FAA on 
January 8, 2009 and be auctioned as unrestricted slots by the FAA.
    (ii) Every year thereafter, twenty-two (22) limited slots shall 
revert to the FAA and be auctioned as unrestricted slots by the FAA.
    (2) Any slot receiving no responsive bids will be retired until the 
next auction.
    (3) An affected carrier will be allowed to use the limited slot 
until the following second Sunday in March.
    (d) On March 8, 2009, the FAA will retire 64 of the limited slots 
returned to the FAA under Sec. 93.38(b).

[Doc. No. FAA-2006-25709, 73 FR 60598, Oct. 10, 2008; 73 FR 66517, Nov. 
10, 2008]



Sec. 93.40  Assignment of new or returned slots.

    (a) New capacity or capacity returned to the FAA pursuant to the 
provisions of Sec. 93.44 will be reassigned by the FAA via an auction. 
Slots acquired from the FAA under the auction proceeding shall be 
designated as unrestricted slots.

[[Page 870]]

    (b) The FAA may decide to accumulate a quantity of slots prior to 
conducting an auction.



Sec. 93.41  Reversion and withdrawal of slots.

    (a) This section does not apply to unrestricted slots.
    (b) A carrier's common slots or limited slots revert back to the FAA 
30 days after the carrier has ceased all operations at LaGuardia for any 
reasons other than a strike.
    (c) The FAA may retime, withdraw or temporarily suspend common slots 
and limited slots at any time to fulfill operational needs.
    (d) Common slots and limited slots temporarily withdrawn for 
operational need will be withdrawn in accordance with the priority list 
established under Sec. 93.47.
    (e) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a) of this section, 
the FAA will notify an affected carrier before withdrawing or 
temporarily suspending a common slot or limited slot and specify the 
date by which operations under the common slot or limited slot must 
cease. The FAA will provide at least 45 days' notice unless otherwise 
required by operational needs.
    (f) Any common slot or limited slot that is temporarily withdrawn 
under this paragraph will be reassigned, if at all, only to the carrier 
from which it was withdrawn, provided the carrier continues to conduct 
scheduled operations at LaGuardia.
    (g) Should the Administrator determine that the cap on scheduled 
operations at LaGuardia is too high, he may withdraw common slots to 
reduce the cap. Any such action by the Administrator shall be subject to 
the notice and comment provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act.



Sec. 93.42  Sublease and transfer of slots.

    (a) A carrier may sublease its slots to another carrier in 
accordance with this section and subject to the provisions of the 
carrier's lease agreement with the FAA. The character of the slot (e.g., 
common slot) will not change.
    (b) A carrier must provide notice to the FAA to sublease a slot. 
Such notice must contain: The slot number and time, effective dates and, 
if appropriate, the duration of the lease. The carrier may also provide 
the FAA with a minimum bid price.
    (c) The FAA will post a notice of the offer to sublease the slot and 
relevant details on the FAA Web site at http://www.faa.gov. An opening 
date, closing date and time by which bids must be received will be 
provided.
    (d) Upon consummation of the transaction, written evidence of each 
carrier's consent to sublease must be provided to the FAA, as well as 
all bids received and the terms of the sublease, including but not 
limited to:
    (1) The names of all bidders and all parties to the transaction;
    (2) The offered and final length of the sublease;
    (3) The consideration offered by all bidders and provided by the 
sublessee.
    (e) The slot may not be used until the conditions of paragraph (d) 
of this section have been met, and the FAA provides notice of its 
approval of the sublease.
    (f) A carrier may transfer a slot to another carrier that conducts 
operations at LaGuardia solely under the transferring carrier's 
marketing control, including the entire inventory of the flight. Each 
party to such transfer must provide written evidence of its consent to 
the transfer, and the FAA must confirm and approve these transfers in 
writing prior to the effective date of the transaction. However, the FAA 
will approve transfers under this paragraph up to five business days 
after the actual operation to accommodate operational disruptions that 
occur on the same day of the scheduled operation. The FAA Vice 
President, System Operations Services is the final decision maker for 
any determinations under this section.
    (g) A carrier wishing to sublease a slot via an FAA auction under 
Sec. 93.39(c), rather than pursuant to this section may do so. The 
carrier shall retain the proceeds and the slot shall retain the same 
designation that it had prior to the carrier placing it up for auction.



Sec. 93.43  One-for-one trade of slots.

    (a) A carrier may trade a slot with another carrier on a one-for-one 
basis.

[[Page 871]]

    (b) Written evidence of each carrier's consent to the trade must be 
provided to the FAA.
    (c) No recipient of the trade may use the acquired slot until 
written confirmation has been received from the FAA.
    (d) Carriers participating in a one-for-one trade must certify to 
the FAA that no consideration or promise of consideration was provided 
by either party to the trade.



Sec. 93.44  Minimum Usage Requirements.

    (a) This section does not apply to unrestricted slots.
    (b) Any common slot or limited slot that is not used at least 80 
percent of the time over a consecutive two-month period shall be 
withdrawn by the FAA.
    (c) The FAA may waive the requirements of paragraph (b) of this 
section in the event of a highly unusual and unpredictable condition 
which is beyond the control of the carrier and which affects carrier 
operations for a period of five or more consecutive days. Examples of 
conditions which could justify a waiver under this paragraph are weather 
conditions that result in the restricted operation of the airport for an 
extended period of time or the grounding of an aircraft type.
    (d) The FAA will treat as used any common slot or limited slot held 
by a carrier on Thanksgiving Day, the Friday following Thanksgiving Day, 
and the period from December 24 through the first Sunday of January.



Sec. 93.45  Unscheduled operations.

    (a) During the hours of 6 a.m. through 9:59 p.m., Monday through 
Friday, and 12 noon through 9:59 p.m. on Sunday, no person may operate 
an aircraft other than a helicopter to or from LaGuardia unless he or 
she has received, for that unscheduled operation, a reservation that is 
assigned by the Airport Reservation Office (ARO) or in the case of 
public charters, in accordance with the procedures in paragraph (d) of 
this section. Requests for reservations will be accepted through the e-
CVRS beginning 72 hours prior to the proposed time of arrival to or 
departure from LaGuardia. Additional information on procedures for 
obtaining a reservation is available on the Internet at http://
www.fly.faa.gov/ecvrs.
    (b) Three reservations are available per hour, including those 
assigned to public charter operations under paragraph (d) of this 
section. The ARO will assign reservations on a 60-minute basis.
    (c) The ARO will receive and process all reservation requests for 
unscheduled arrivals and departures at LaGuardia. Reservations are 
assigned on a ``first-come, first-served'' basis determined by the time 
the request is received at the ARO. Reservations must be cancelled if 
they will not be used as assigned.
    (d) One reservation per hour will be available for allocation to 
public charter operations prior to the 72-hour Reservation window in 
paragraph (a) of this section.
    (1) The public charter operator may request a reservation up to six 
months in advance of the date of flight operation. Reservation requests 
should be submitted to Federal Aviation Administration, Slot 
Administration Office, AGC-200, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., 
Washington, DC 20591. Submissions may be made via facsimile to (202) 
267-7277 or by e-mail to [email protected].
    (2) The public charter operator must certify that its prospectus has 
been accepted by the Department of Transportation in accordance with 14 
CFR part 380.
    (3) The public charter operator must identify the call sign/flight 
number or aircraft registration number of the direct air carrier, the 
date and time of the proposed operation(s), the airport served 
immediately prior to or after LaGuardia, and aircraft type. Any changes 
to an approved reservation must be approved in advance by the Slot 
Administration Office.
    (4) If reservations under paragraph (d)(1) of this section have 
already been allocated, the public charter operator may request a 
reservation under paragraph (a) of this section.
    (e) The filing of a request for a reservation does not constitute 
the filing of an IFR flight plan as required by regulation. The IFR 
flight plan may be filed only after the reservation is obtained, must 
include the reservation

[[Page 872]]

number in the ``Remarks'' section, and must be filed in accordance with 
FAA regulations and procedures.
    (f) Air Traffic Control will accommodate declared emergencies 
without regard to reservations. Non-emergency flights in direct support 
of national security, law enforcement, military aircraft operations, or 
public-use aircraft operations may be accommodated above the reservation 
limits with the prior approval of the Vice President, System Operations 
Services, Air Traffic Organization. Procedures for obtaining the 
appropriate waiver are available on the Internet at http://
www.fly.faa.gov/ecvrs.
    (g) Notwithstanding the limits in paragraph (b) of this section, if 
the Air Traffic Organization determines that air traffic control, 
weather and capacity conditions are favorable and significant delay is 
unlikely, the FAA may determine that additional reservations may be 
accommodated for a specific time period. Unused slots may also be made 
available temporarily for unscheduled operations. Reservations for 
additional operations must be obtained through the ARO.
    (h) Reservations may not be bought, sold or leased.



Sec. 93.46  Reporting requirements.

    (a) Within 14 days after the last day of the two-month period 
beginning January 1, 2009 and every two months thereafter, each carrier 
must report, in a format acceptable to the FAA, the following 
information for each slot:
    (1) The slot number, time, and arrival or departure designation;
    (2) The operating carrier;
    (3) The date and scheduled time of each of the operations conducted 
pursuant to the slot, including the flight number and origin/
destination;
    (4) The aircraft type identifier.
    (b) The FAA may withdraw the common slot or limited slot of any 
carrier that does not meet the reporting requirements of paragraph (a) 
of this section.



Sec. 93.47  Administrative provisions.

    (a) Each slot shall be assigned a number for administrative 
convenience.
    (b) The FAA will assign priority numbers by random lottery for 
common slots and limited slots at LaGuardia. Each common slot and 
limited slot will be assigned a withdrawal priority number, and the 30-
minute time period for the common slot or limited slot, frequency, and 
the arrival or departure designation.
    (c) If the FAA determines that operations need to be reduced for 
operational reasons, the lowest assigned priority number common slot or 
limited slot will be the last withdrawn.
    (d) Any slot available on a temporary basis may be assigned by the 
FAA to a carrier on a non-permanent, first-come, first-served basis 
subject to permanent assignment under this subpart. Any remaining slots 
may be made available for unscheduled operations on a non-permanent 
basis and will be assigned under the same procedures applicable to other 
operating reservations.
    (e) All transactions under this subpart must be in a written or 
electronic format approved by the FAA.



               Subpart D_Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area

    Source: Docket No. 29029, 64 FR 14976, Mar. 29, 1999, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 93.51  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft 
operating in the Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]



Sec. 93.53  Description of area.

    The Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area is designated as that airspace 
extending upward from the surface to the upper limit of each of the 
segments described in Sec. 93.55. It is bounded by a line beginning at 
Point MacKenzie, extending westerly along the bank of Knik Arm to a 
point intersecting the 350[deg] bearing from the Anchorage International 
ATCT; thence north to intercept the 5.2-mile arc centered on the 
geographical center of Anchorage, Alaska, ATCT; thence counterclockwise 
along that arc to its intersection with a line bearing 180[deg] from the 
intersection of the new Seward Highway and International Airport Road; 
thence due north to O'Malley

[[Page 873]]

Road; thence east along O'Malley Road to its intersection with Lake Otis 
Parkway; thence northerly along Lake Otis Parkway to its intersection 
with Abbott Road; thence east along Abbott Road to its intersection with 
Abbott Loop Road; thence north to its intersection with Tudor Road; 
thence easterly along Tudor Road to its intersection with Muldoon Road; 
thence northerly along Muldoon Road to the intersection of the Glenn 
Highway; thence north and east along the Glenn Highway to Ski Bowl Road; 
thence southeast along the Ski Bowl Road to a point one-half mile south 
of the Glenn Highway; thence north and east one-half mile south of and 
parallel to the Glenn Highway to its intersection with a line one-half 
mile east of and parallel to the Bryant Airport Runway 16/34 extended 
centerline; thence northeast along a line one-half mile east of and 
parallel to Bryant Airport Runway 16/34 extended centerline to lat. 
61[deg]17[min]13[sec]N., long. 149[deg]37[min]35[sec]W.; thence west 
along lat. 61[deg]17[min]13[sec]N., to long. 149[deg]43[min]08[sec]W.; 
thence north along long. 149[deg]43[min]08[sec]W., to lat. 
61[deg]17[min]30[sec]N.; thence to lat. 61[deg]17[min]58[sec]N., long 
149[deg]44[min]08[sec]W.; thence to lat. 61[deg]19[min]10[sec]N., long. 
149[deg]46[min]44[sec]W.; thence north along long. 
149[deg]46[min]44[sec]W., to intercept the 4.7-mile radius arc centered 
on Elmendorf Air Force Base (AFB), Alaska; thence counterclockwise along 
the 4.7-mile radius arc to its intersection with the west bank of Knik 
Arm; thence southerly along the west bank of Knik Arm to the point of 
beginning.

[Doc. No. 29029, 64 FR 14976, Mar. 29, 1999; Amdt. 93-77, 64 FR 17439, 
Apr. 9, 1999]



Sec. 93.55  Subdivision of Terminal Area.

    The Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area is subdivided as follows:
    (a) International segment. That area from the surface to and 
including 4,100 feet MSL, within a 5.2-mile radius of the Anchorage 
International ATCT; excluding that airspace east of the 350[deg] bearing 
from the Anchorage International ATCT and north of the 090[deg] bearing 
from the Anchorage International ATCT and east of a line bearing 
180[deg] and 360[deg] from the intersection of the new Seward Highway 
and International Airport Road and the airspace extending upward from 
the surface to but not including 600 feet MSL, south of lat. 
61[deg]08[min]28[sec]N.
    (b) Merrill segment. That area from the surface to and including 
2,500 feet MSL, within a line beginning at Point Noname; thence direct 
to the mouth of Ship Creek; thence direct to the intersection of the 
Glenn Highway and Muldoon Road; thence south along Muldoon Road to Tudor 
Road; thence west along Tudor Road to the new Seward Highway; thence 
direct to West Anchorage High School; thence direct to Point MacKenzie; 
thence via the north bank of Knik Arm to the point of beginning.
    (c) Lake Hood segment. That area from the surface to and including 
2,500 feet MSL, within a line beginning at Point MacKenzie; thence 
direct to West Anchorage High School; thence direct to the intersection 
of Tudor Road and the new Seward Highway; thence south along the new 
Seward Highway to the 090[deg] bearing from the Anchorage International 
ATCT; thence west direct to the Anchorage International ATCT; thence 
north along the 350[deg] bearing from the Anchorage International ATCT 
to the north bank of Knik arm; thence via the north bank of Knik Arm to 
the point of beginning.
    (d) Elmendorf segment. That area from the surface to and including 
3,000 feet MSL, within a line beginning at Point Noname; thence via the 
north bank of Knik Arm to the intersection of the 4.7-mile radius of 
Elmendorf AFB; thence clockwise along the 4.7-mile radius of Elmendorf 
AFB to long. 149[deg]46[min]44[sec]W.; thence south along long. 
149[deg]46[min]44[sec]W. to lat. 61[deg]19[min]10[sec]N.; thence to lat. 
61[deg]17[min]58[sec]N., long. 149[deg]44[min]08[sec]W.; thence to lat. 
61[deg]17[min]30[sec]N., long. 149[deg]43[min]08[sec]W.; thence south 
along long. 149[deg]43[min]08[sec]W. to the Glenn Highway; thence south 
and west along the Glenn Highway to Muldoon Road; thence direct to the 
mouth of Ship Creek; thence direct to the point of beginning.
    (e) Bryant segment. That area from the surface to and including 
2,000 feet MSL, within a line beginning at lat. 61[deg]17[min]13[sec]N., 
long. 149[deg]37[min]35[sec]W.; thence west along lat. 
61[deg]17[min]13[sec]N., to long. 149[deg]43[min]08[sec]W.; thence south 
along long. 149[deg]43[min]08[sec]W., to the Glenn Highway; thence north 
and east along the Glenn Highway to Ski Bowl Road; thence

[[Page 874]]

southeast along the Ski Bowl Road to a point one-half mile south of the 
Glenn Highway; thence north and east one-half mile south of and parallel 
to the Glenn Highway to its intersection with a line one-half mile east 
of and parallel to the Bryant Airport Runway 16/34 extended centerline; 
thence northeast along a line one-half mile east of and parallel to 
Bryant Airport runway 16/34 extended centerline to the point of 
beginning.
    (f) Seward Highway segment. That area from the surface to and 
including 4,100 feet MSL, within a line beginning at the intersection of 
a line bearing 180[deg] from the intersection of the new Seward Highway 
and International Airport Road, and O'Malley Road; thence east along 
O'Malley Road to its intersection with Lake Otis Park Way, lat. 
61[deg]07[min]23[sec]N., long 149[deg]50[min]03[sec]W.; thence northerly 
along Lake Otis Park Way to its intersection with Abbott Road, lat. 
61[deg]08[min]14[sec]N., long. 149[deg]50[min]03[sec]W.; thence east 
along Abbott Road to its intersection with Abbott Loop Road, lat. 
61[deg]08[min]14[sec]N., long. 149[deg]48[min]16[sec]W.; thence due 
north to intersect with Tudor Road, lat. 61[deg]10[min]51[sec]N., long. 
149[deg]48[min]16[sec]W.; thence west along Tudor Road to its 
intersection with the new Seward Highway, lat. 61[deg]10[min]51[sec]N., 
long. 149[deg]51[min]38[sec]W.; thence south along the new Seward 
Highway to its intersection with a line bearing 180[deg] and 360[deg] 
from the intersection of the new Seward Highway and International 
Airport Road; thence south to the point of beginning.

[Doc. No. 29029, 64 FR 14976, Mar. 29, 1999; Amdt. 93-77, 64 FR 17439, 
Apr. 9, 1999]



Sec. 93.57  General rules: All segments.

    (a) Each person operating an aircraft to, from, or on an airport 
within the Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area shall operate that aircraft 
according to the rules set forth in this section and Sec. Sec. 93.59, 
93.61, 93.63, 93.65, 93.67, or 93.68 as applicable, unless otherwise 
authorized or required by ATC.
    (b) Each person operating an airplane within the Anchorage, Alaska 
Terminal Area shall conform to the flow of traffic depicted on the 
appropriate aeronautical charts.
    (c) Each person operating a helicopter shall operate it in a manner 
so as to avoid the flow of airplanes.
    (d) Except as provided in Sec. 93.65 (d) and (e), and Sec. 
93.67(b), each person operating an aircraft in the Anchorage, Alaska, 
Terminal Area shall operate that aircraft only within the designated 
segment containing the arrival or departure airport.
    (e) Except as provided in Sec. Sec. 93.63(d) and 93.67(b), each 
person operating an aircraft in the Anchorage, Alaska, Terminal Area 
shall maintain two-way radio communications with the ATCT serving the 
segment containing the arrival or departure airport.



Sec. 93.59  General rules: International segment.

    (a) No person may operate an aircraft at an altitude between 1,200 
feet MSL and 2,000 feet MSL in that portion of this segment lying north 
of the midchannel of Knik Arm.
    (b) Each person operating an airplane at a speed of more than 105 
knots within this segment (except that part described in paragraph (a) 
of this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 
1,600 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further 
descent.
    (c) Each person operating an airplane at a speed of 105 knots or 
less within this segment (except that part described in paragraph (a) of 
this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 900 
feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.



Sec. 93.61  General rules: Lake Hood segment.

    (a) No person may operate an aircraft at an altitude between 1,200 
feet MSL and 2,000 feet MSL in that portion of this segment lying north 
of the midchannel of Knik Arm.
    (b) Each person operating an airplane within this segment (except 
that part described in paragraph (a) of this section) shall operate that 
airplane at an altitude of at least 600 feet MSL until maneuvering for a 
safe landing requires further descent.

[[Page 875]]



Sec. 93.63  General rules: Merrill segment.

    (a) No person may operate an aircraft at an altitude between 600 
feet MSL and 2,000 feet MSL in that portion of this segment lying north 
of the midchannel of Knik Arm.
    (b) Each person operating an airplane at a speed of more than 105 
knots within this segment (except for that part described in paragraph 
(a) of this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at 
least 1,200 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires 
further descent.
    (c) Each person operating an airplane at a speed of 105 knots or 
less within this segment (except for that part described in paragraph 
(a) of this section) shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at 
least 900 feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further 
descent.
    (d) Whenever the Merrill ATCT is not operating, each person 
operating an aircraft either in that portion of the Merrill segment 
north of midchannel of Knik Arm, or in the Seward Highway segment at or 
below 1200 feet MSL, shall contact Anchorage Approach Control for wake 
turbulence and other advisories. Aircraft operating within the remainder 
of the segment should self-announce intentions on the Merrill Field 
CTAF.



Sec. 93.65  General rules: Elmendorf segment.

    (a) Each person operating a turbine-powered aircraft within this 
segment shall operate that aircraft at an altitude of at least 1,700 
feet MSL until maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.
    (b) Each person operating an airplane (other than turbine-powered 
aircraft) at a speed of more than 105 knots within this segment shall 
operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,200 feet MSL until 
maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.
    (c) Each person operating an airplane (other than turbine-powered 
aircraft) at a speed of 105 knots or less within the segment shall 
operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 800 feet MSL until 
maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.
    (d) A person landing or departing from Elmendorf AFB, may operate 
that aircraft at an altitude between 1,500 feet MSL and 1,700 feet MSL 
within that portion of the International and Lake Hood segments lying 
north of the midchannel of Knik Arm.
    (e) A person landing or departing from Elmendorf AFB, may operate 
that aircraft at an altitude between 900 feet MSL and 1,700 feet MSL 
within that portion of the Merrill segment lying north of the midchannel 
of Knik Arm.
    (f) A person operating in VFR conditions, at or below 600 feet MSL, 
north of a line beginning at the intersection of Farrell Road and the 
long. 149[deg]43[min]08[sec]W.; thence west along Farrell Road to the 
east end of Sixmile Lake; thence west along a line bearing on the middle 
of Lake Lorraine to the northwest bank of Knik Arm; is not required to 
establish two-way radio communications with ATC.

[Doc. No. 29029, 64 FR 14977, Mar. 29, 1999; Amdt. 93-77, 64 FR 17439, 
Apr. 9, 1999]



Sec. 93.67  General rules: Bryant segment.

    (a) Each person operating an airplane to or from the Bryant Airport 
shall conform to the flow of traffic shown on the appropriate 
aeronautical charts, and while in the traffic pattern, shall operate 
that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet MSL until 
maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.
    (b) Each person operating an aircraft within the Bryant segment 
should self-announce intentions on the Bryant Airport CTAF.



Sec. 93.68  General rules: Seward Highway segment.

    (a) Each person operating an airplane in the Seward Highway segment 
shall operate that airplane at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet MSL 
unless maneuvering for a safe landing requires further descent.
    (b) Each person operating an aircraft at or below 1,200 feet MSL 
that will transition to or from the Lake Hood or Merrill segment shall 
contact the appropriate ATCT prior to entering the Seward Highway 
segment. All other persons operating an airplane at or below 1,200 feet 
MSL in this segment shall contact Anchorage Approach Control.

[[Page 876]]

    (c) At all times, each person operating an aircraft above 1,200 MSL 
shall contact Anchorage Approach Control prior to entering the Seward 
Highway segment.



Sec. 93.69  Special requirements, Lake Campbell and Sixmile Lake Airports.

    Each person operating an aircraft to or from Lake Campbell or 
Sixmile Lake Airport shall conform to the flow of traffic for the Lake 
operations that are depicted on the appropriate aeronautical charts.



Subpart E_Flight Restrictions in the Vicinity of Niagara Falls, New York



Sec. 93.71  General operating procedures.

    (a) Flight restrictions are in effect below 3,500 feet MSL in the 
airspace above Niagara Falls, New York, west of a line from latitude 
43[deg]06[min]33[sec] N., longitude 79[deg]03[min]30[sec] W. (the 
Whirlpool Rapids Bridge) to latitude 43[deg]04[min]47[sec] N., longitude 
79[deg]02[min]44[sec] W. (the Niagara River Inlet) to latitude 
43[deg]04[min]29[sec] N., longitude 79[deg]03[min]30[sec] W. (the 
International Control Dam) to the United States/Canadian Border and 
thence along the border to the point of origin.
    (b) No flight is authorized below 3,500 feet MSL in the area 
described in paragraph (a) of this section, except for aircraft 
operations conducted directly to or from an airport/heliport within the 
area, aircraft operating on an ATC-approved IFR flight plan, aircraft 
operating the Scenic Falls Route pursuant to approval of Transport 
Canada, aircraft carrying law enforcement officials, or aircraft 
carrying properly accredited news representatives for which a flight 
plan has been filed with Buffalo NY (BUF) Automated Flight Service 
Station (AFSS).
    (c) Check with Transport Canada for flight restrictions in Canadian 
airspace. Commercial air tour operations approved by Transport Canada 
will be conducting a north/south orbit of the Niagara Falls area below 
3,500 feet MSL over the Niagara River.
    (d) The minimum altitude for VFR flight over the Scenic Falls area 
is 3,500 feet MSL.
    (e) Comply with the following procedures when conducting flight over 
the area described in paragraph (a) of this section:
    (1) Fly a clockwise pattern;
    (2) Do not proceed north of the Rainbow Bridge;
    (3) Prior to joining the pattern, broadcast flight intentions on 
frequency 122.05 Mhz, giving altitude and position, and monitor the 
frequency while in the pattern;
    (4) Use the Niagara Falls airport altimeter setting. Contact Niagara 
Falls Airport Traffic Control Tower to obtain the current altimeter 
setting, to facilitate the exchange of traffic advisories/restrictions, 
and to reduce the risk of midair collisions between aircraft operating 
in the vicinity of the Falls. If the Control Tower is closed, use the 
appropriate Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) Frequency;
    (5) Do not exceed 130 knots;
    (6) Anticipate heavy congestion of VFR traffic at or above 3,500 
feet MSL; and
    (7) Use caution to avoid high-speed civil and military aircraft 
transiting the area to or from Niagara Falls Airport.
    (f) These procedures do not relieve pilots from the requirements of 
Sec. 91.113 of this chapter to see and avoid other aircraft.
    (g) Flight following, to and from the area, is available through 
Buffalo Approach.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]



              Subpart F_Valparaiso, Florida, Terminal Area



Sec. 93.80  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft 
operating in the Valparaiso, Florida, Terminal Area.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]



Sec. 93.81  Applicability and description of area.

    The Valparaiso, Florida Terminal Area is designated as follows:

[[Page 877]]

    (a) North-South Corridor. The North-South Corridor includes the 
airspace extending upward from the surface up to, but not including, 
18,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line beginning at:

Latitude 30[deg]42[min]51[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]38[min]02[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]43[min]18[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]27[min]37[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]37[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]27[min]37[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]37[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]25[min]30[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]33[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]25[min]30[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]33[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]25[min]00[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]25[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]25[min]00[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]25[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]38[min]12[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]29[min]02[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]38[min]02[sec] W.; 
to point of beginning.

    (b) East-West Corridor--The East-West Corridor is divided into three 
sections to accommodate the different altitudes as portions of the 
corridor underlie restricted areas R-2915C, R-2919B, and R-2914B.
    (1) The west section would include that airspace extending upward 
from the surface to but not including 8,500 feet MSL, bounded by a line 
beginning at: Latitude 30[deg]22[min]47[sec] N., Longitude 
86[deg]51[min]30[sec] W.: then along the shoreline to Latitude 
30[deg]23[min]46[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]38[min]15[sec] W.; to 
Latitude 30[deg]20[min]51[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]38[min]50[sec] W.; 
then 3 NM from and parallel to the shoreline to Latitude 
30[deg]19[min]31[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]51[min]30[sec] W.; to the 
beginning.
    (2) The center section would include that airspace extending upward 
from the surface to but not including 18,000 feet MSL, bounded by a line 
beginning at:

Latitude 30[deg]25[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]38[min]12[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]25[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]25[min]00[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]25[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]22[min]26[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]19[min]46[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]23[min]45[sec] W.; 
then 3 NM from and parallel to the shoreline to Latitude 
30[deg]20[min]51[sec] N.,
Longitude 86[deg]38[min]50[sec] W.; to Latitude 30[deg]23[min]46[sec] 
N.,
Longitude 86[deg]38[min]15[sec] W.; to the beginning.

    (3) The east section would include that airspace extending upward 
from the surface to but not including 8,500 feet MSL, bounded by a line 
beginning at:

Latitude 30[deg]25[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]22[min]26[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]22[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]08[min]00[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]19[min]16[sec] N., Longitude 85[deg]56[min]00[sec] W.; 
to
Latitude 30[deg]11[min]01[sec] N., Longitude 85[deg]56[min]00[sec] W.; 
then 3 NM from and parallel to the shoreline to Latitude 
30[deg]19[min]46[sec] N., Longitude 86[deg]23[min]45[sec] W.; to the 
beginning.

[Amdt. 93-70, 59 FR 46154, Sept. 6, 1994 as amended by Amdt. 93-82, 68 
FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]



Sec. 93.83  Aircraft operations.

    (a) North-South Corridor. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC 
(including the Eglin Radar Control Facility), no person may operate an 
aircraft in flight within the North-South Corridor designated in Sec. 
93.81(b)(1) unless--
    (1) Before operating within the corridor, that person obtains a 
clearance from the Eglin Radar Control Facility or an appropriate FAA 
ATC facility; and
    (2) That person maintains two-way radio communication with the Eglin 
Radar Control Facility or an appropriate FAA ATC facility while within 
the corridor.
    (b) East-West Corridor. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC 
(including the Eglin Radar Control Facility), no person may operate an 
aircraft in flight within the East-West Corridor designated in Sec. 
93.81(b)(2) unless--
    (1) Before operating within the corridor, that person establishes 
two-way radio communications with Eglin Radar Control Facility or an 
appropriate FAA ATC facility and receives an ATC advisory concerning 
operations being conducted therein; and
    (2) That person maintains two-way radio communications with the 
Eglin Radar Control Facility or an appropriate FAA ATC facility while 
within the corridor.

[Amdt. 93-70, 59 FR 46155, Sept. 6, 1994]



     Subpart G_Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of Los Angeles 

                          International Airport

    Source: Doc. No. FAA-2002-14149, 68 FR 41214, July 10, 2003, unless 
otherwise noted.

[[Page 878]]



Sec. 93.91  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft 
conducting VFR operations in the Los Angeles, California Special Flight 
Rules Area.



Sec. 93.93  Description of area.

    The Los Angeles Special Flight Rules Area is designated as that part 
of Area A of the Los Angeles Class B airspace area at 3,500 feet above 
mean sea level (MSL) and at 4,500 feet MSL, beginning at Ballona Creek/
Pacific Ocean (lat. 33[deg]57[min]42[sec] N, long. 
118[deg]27[min]23[sec] W), then eastbound along Manchester Blvd. to the 
intersection of Manchester/405 Freeway (lat. 33[deg]57[min]42[sec] N, 
long. 118[deg]22[min]10[sec] W), then southbound along the 405 Freeway 
to the intersection of the 405 Freeway/lmperial Highway (lat. 
33[deg]55[min]51[sec] N, long. 118[deg] 22[min]06[sec] W), then 
westbound along Imperial Highway to the intersection of Imperial 
Highway/Pacific Ocean (lat. 33[deg]55[min]51[sec] N, long. 
118[deg]26[min]05[sec] W), then northbound along the shoreline to the 
point of beginning.



Sec. 93.95  General operating procedures.

    Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may 
operate an aircraft in the airspace described in Sec. 93.93 unless the 
operation is conducted in accordance with the following procedures:
    (a) The flight must be conducted under VFR and only when operation 
may be conducted in compliance with Sec. 91.155(a) of this chapter.
    (b) The aircraft must be equipped as specified in Sec. 91.215(b) of 
this chapter replying on code 1201 prior to entering and while operating 
in this area.
    (c) The pilot shall have a current Los Angeles Terminal Area Chart 
in the aircraft.
    (d) The pilot shall operate on the Santa Monica very high frequency 
omni-directional radio range (VOR) 132[deg] radial.
    (e) Aircraft navigating in a southeasterly direction shall be in 
level flight at 3,500 feet MSL.
    (f) Aircraft navigating in a northwesterly direction shall be in 
level flight at 4,500 feet MSL.
    (g) Indicated airspeed shall not exceed 140 knots.
    (h) Anti-collision lights and aircraft position/navigation lights 
shall be on. Use of landing lights is recommended.
    (i) Turbojet aircraft are prohibited from VFR operations in this 
area.



Sec. 93.97  Operations in the SFRA.

    Notwithstanding the provisions of Sec. 91.131(a) of this chapter, 
an air traffic control authorization is not required in the Los Angeles 
Special Flight Rules Area for operations in compliance with Sec. 93.95. 
All other provisions of Sec. 91.131 of this chapter apply to operations 
in the Los Angeles Special Flight Rules Area.

Subparts H-I [Reserved]



          Subpart J_Lorain County Regional Airport Traffic Rule



Sec. 93.117  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes a special air traffic rule for aircraft 
operating at the Lorain County Regional Airport, Lorain County, Ohio.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]



Sec. 93.119  Aircraft operations.

    Each person piloting an airplane landing at the Lorain County 
Regional Airport shall enter the traffic pattern north of the airport 
and shall execute a right traffic pattern for a landing to the southwest 
or a left traffic pattern for a landing to the northeast. Each person 
taking off from the airport shall execute a departure turn to the north 
as soon as practicable after take off.

[Doc. No. 8669, 33 FR 11749, Aug. 20, 1968]



                 Subpart K_High Density Traffic Airports



Sec. 93.121  Applicability.

    This subpart designates high density traffic airports and prescribes 
air traffic rules for operating aircraft, other than helicopters, to or 
from those airports.

[Doc. No. 9974, 35 FR 16592, Oct. 24, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 93-27, 
38 FR 29464, Oct. 25, 1973]

[[Page 879]]



Sec. 93.123  High density traffic airports.

    (a) Each of the following airports is designated as a high density 
traffic airport and, except as provided in Sec. 93.129 and paragraph 
(b) of this section, or unless otherwise authorized by ATC, is limited 
to the hourly number of allocated IFR operations (takeoffs and landings) 
that may be reserved for the specified classes of users for that 
airport:

                         IFR Operations per Hour

                                 Airport
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                                 Ronald
                              LaGuardia               O'Hare     Reagan
        Class of user          \4\, \5\    Newark   \2\, \3\,   National
                                                       \5\        \1\
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Air carriers................        48         40        120         37
Commuters...................        14         10         25         11
Other.......................         6         10         10         12
------------------------------------------------------------------------


                             John F. Kennedy
------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                Air carriers    Commuters       Other
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1500..........................           69            15             2
1600..........................           74            12             2
1700..........................           80            13             0
1800..........................           75            10             2
1900..........................           63            12             2
------------------------------------------------------------------------
\1\ Washington National Airport operations are subject to modifications
  per Section 93.124.
\2\ The hour period in effect at O'Hare begins at 6:45 a.m. and
  continues in 30-minute increments until 9:15 p.m.
\3\ Operations at O'Hare International Airport shall not--
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of the note, exceed 62 for air
  carriers and 13 for commuters and 5 for ``other'' during any 30-minute
  period beginning at 6:45 a.m. and continuing every 30 minutes
  thereafter.
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of the note, exceed more than
  120 for air carriers, 25 for commuters, and 10 for ``other'' in any
  two consecutive 30-minute periods.
(c) For the hours beginning at 6:45 a.m., 7:45 a.m., 11:45 a.m., 7:45
  p.m. and 8:45 p.m., the hourly limitations shall be 105 for air
  carriers, 40 for commuters and 10 for ``other,'' and the 30-minute
  limitations shall be 55 for air carriers, 20 for commuters and 5 for
  ``other.'' For the hour beginning at 3:45 p.m., the hourly limitations
  shall be 115 for air carriers, 30 for commuters and 10 for ``others'',
  and the 30-minute limitations shall be 60 for air carriers, 15 for
  commuters and 5 for ``other.''
\4\ Operations at LaGuardia Airport shall not--
(a) Exceed 26 for air carriers, 7 for commuters and 3 for ``other''
  during any 30-minute period.
(b) Exceed 48 for air carriers, 14 for commuters, and 6 for ``other'' in
  any two consecutive 30-minute periods.
\5\ Pursuant to bilateral agreement, 14 slots at LaGuardia and 24 slots
  at O'Hare are allocated to the Canadian carriers. These slots are
  excluded from the hourly quotas set forth in Sec.  93.123 above.

    (b) The following exceptions apply to the allocations of 
reservations prescribed in paragraph (a) Of this section.
    (1) The allocations of reservations among the several classes of 
users do not apply from 12 midnight to 6 a.m. local time, but the total 
hourly limitation remains applicable.
    (2) [Reserved]
    (3) The allocation of 37 IFR reservations per hour for air carriers 
except commuters at Washington National Airport does not include charter 
flights, or other nonscheduled flights of scheduled or supplemental air 
carriers. These flights may be conducted without regard to the 
limitation of 37 IFR reservations per hour.
    (4) The allocation of IFR reservations for air carriers except 
commuters at LaGuardia, Newark, O'Hare, and Washington National Airports 
does not include extra sections of scheduled flights. The allocation of 
IFR reservations for scheduled commuters at Washington National Airport 
does not include extra sections of scheduled flights. These flights may 
be conducted without regard to the limitation upon the hourly IFR 
reservations at those airports.
    (5) Any reservation allocated to, but not taken by, air carrier 
operations (except commuters) is available for a scheduled commuter 
operation.
    (6) Any reservation allocated to, but not taken by, air carrier 
operations (except commuters) or scheduled commuter operations is 
available for other operations.
    (c) For purposes of this subpart--
    (1) The number of operations allocated to air carriers except 
commuters, as used in paragraph (a) of this section refers to the number 
of operations conducted by air carriers with turboprop and reciprocating 
engine aircraft having a certificated maximum passenger seating capacity 
of 75 or more or with turbojet powered aircraft having a certificated 
maximum passenger seating capacity of 56 or more, or, if used for cargo 
service in air transportation, with any aircraft having a maximum 
payload capacity of 18,000 pounds or more.
    (2) The number of operations allocated to scheduled commuters, as 
used in paragraph (a) of this section, refers to the number of 
operations conducted by air carriers with turboprop and reciprocating 
engine aircraft having a certificated maximum passenger seating capacity 
of less than 75 or by turbojet aircraft having a certificated maximum 
passenger seating capacity

[[Page 880]]

of less than 56, or if used for cargo service in air transportation, 
with any aircraft having a maximum payload capacity of less than 18,000 
pounds. For purposes of aircraft operations at Ronald Reagan Washington 
National Airport, the term ``commuters'' means aircraft operations using 
aircraft having a certificated maximum seating capacity of 76 or less.
    (3) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (c)(2) of this 
section, a limited number of operations allocated for ``scheduled 
commuters'' under paragraph (a) of this section may be conducted with 
aircraft described in Sec. 93.221(e) of this part pursuant to the 
requirements of Sec. 93.221(e).

[Doc. No. 9113, 34 FR 2603, Feb. 26, 1969, as amended by Amdt. 93-37, 45 
FR 62408, Sept. 18, 1980; Amdt. 93-44, 46 FR 58048, Nov. 27, 1981; Amdt. 
93-46, 49 FR 8244, Mar. 6, 1984; Amdt. 93-57, 54 FR 34906, Aug. 22, 
1989; 54 FR 37303, Sept. 8, 1989; Amdt. 93-59, 54 FR 39843, Sept. 28, 
1989; Amdt. 93-62, 56 FR 41207, Aug. 19, 1991; Amdt. 93-78, 64 FR 53564, 
Oct. 1, 1999; Amdt. 93-84, 70 FR 29063, May 19, 2005]



Sec. 93.125  Arrival or departure reservation.

    Except between 12 Midnight and 6 a.m. local time, no person may 
operate an aircraft to or from an airport designated as a high density 
traffic airport unless he has received, for that operation, an arrival 
or departure reservation from ATC.

[Doc. No. 9974, 37 FR 22794, Oct. 25, 1972]



Sec. 93.129  Additional operations.

    (a) IFR. The operator of an aircraft may take off or land the 
aircraft under IFR at a designated high density traffic airport without 
regard to the maximum number of operations allocated for that airport if 
the operation is not a scheduled operation to or from a high density 
airport and he obtains a departure or arrival reservation, as 
appropriate, from ATC. The reservation is granted by ATC whenever the 
aircraft may be accommodated without significant additional delay to the 
operations allocated for the airport for which the reservations is 
requested.
    (b) VFR. The operator of an aircraft may take off and land the 
aircraft under VFR at a designated high density traffic airport without 
regard to the maximum number of operations allocated for that airport if 
the operation is not a scheduled operation to or from a high density 
airport and he obtains a departure or arrival reservation, as 
appropriate, from ATC. The reservation is granted by ATC whenever the 
aircraft may be accommodated without significant additional delay to the 
operations allocated for the airport for which the reservation is 
requested and the ceiling reported at the airport is at least 1,000 feet 
and the ground visibility reported at the airport is at least 3 miles.
    (c) For the purpose of this section a scheduled operation to or from 
the high density airport is any operation regularly conducted by an air 
carrier or commuter between a high density airport and another point 
regularly served by that operator unless the service is conducted 
pursuant to irregular charter or hiring of aircraft or is a nonpassenger 
flight.
    (d) An aircraft operator must obtain an IFR reservation in 
accordance with procedures established by the Administrator. For IFR 
flights to or from a high density airport, reservations for takeoff and 
arrival shall be obtained prior to takeoff.

[Doc. No. 9113, 34 FR 2603, Feb. 26, 1969, as amended by Amdt. 93-25, 37 
FR 22794, Oct. 25, 1972; Amdt. 93-44, 46 FR 58049, Nov. 27, 1981; Amdt. 
93-46, 49 FR 8244, Mar. 6, 1984]



Sec. 93.130  Suspension of allocations.

    The Administrator may suspend the effectiveness of any allocation 
prescribed in Sec. 93.123 and the reservation requirements prescribed 
in Sec. 93.125 if he finds such action to be consistent with the 
efficient use of the airspace. Such suspension may be terminated 
whenever the Administrator determines that such action is necessary for 
the efficient use of the airspace.

[Doc. No. 9974, 35 FR 16592, Oct. 24, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 93-21, 
35 FR 16636, Oct. 27, 1970; Amdt. 93-27, 38 FR 29464, Oct. 25, 1973]



Sec. 93.133  Exceptions.

    Except as provided in Sec. 93.130, the provisions of Sec. Sec. 
93.123 and 93.125 do not apply to--
    (a) The Newark Airport, Newark, NJ;
    (b) The Kennedy International Airport, New York, NY, except during 
the

[[Page 881]]

hours from 3 p.m. through 7:59 p.m., local time; and
    (c) O'Hare International Airport from 9:15 p.m. to 6:44 a.m., local 
time.

[Doc. No. 24471, 49 FR 8244, Mar. 6, 1984]

Subpart L [Reserved]



         Subpart M_Ketchikan International Airport Traffic Rule

    Source: Docket No. 14687, 41 FR 14879, Apr. 8, 1976, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 93.151  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes a special air traffic rule for aircraft 
conducting VFR operations in the vicinity of the Ketchikan International 
Airport or Ketchikan Harbor, Alaska.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]



Sec. 93.152  Description of area.

    Within that airspace below 3,000 feet MSL within the lateral 
boundary of the surface area of the Ketchikan Class E airspace 
regardless of whether that airspace is in effect.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-13235, 68 FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003]



Sec. 93.153  Communications.

    (a) When the Ketchikan Flight Service Station is in operation, no 
person may operate an aircraft within the airspace specified in Sec. 
93.151, or taxi onto the runway at Ketchikan International Airport, 
unless that person has established two-way radio communications with the 
Ketchikan Flight Service Station for the purpose of receiving traffic 
advisories and continues to monitor the advisory frequency at all times 
while operating within the specified airspace.
    (b) When the Ketchikan Flight Service Station is not in operation, 
no person may operate an aircraft within the airspace specified in Sec. 
93.151, or taxi onto the runway at Ketchikan International Airport, 
unless that person continuously monitors and communicates, as 
appropriate, on the designated common traffic advisory frequency as 
follows:
    (1) For inbound flights. Announces position and intentions when no 
less than 10 miles from Ketchikan International Airport, and monitors 
the designated frequency until clear of the movement area on the airport 
or Ketchikan Harbor.
    (2) For departing flights. Announces position and intentions prior 
to taxiing onto the active runway on the airport or onto the movement 
area of Ketchikan Harbor and monitors the designated frequency until 
outside the airspace described in Sec. 93.151 and announces position 
and intentions upon departing that airspace.
    (c) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this 
section, if two-way radio communications failure occurs in flight, a 
person may operate an aircraft within the airspace specified in Sec. 
93.151, and land, if weather conditions are at or above basic VFR 
weather minimums.

[Doc. No. 26653, 56 FR 48094, Sept. 23, 1991]



Sec. 93.155  Aircraft operations.

    (a) When an advisory is received from the Ketchikan Flight Service 
Station stating that an aircraft is on final approach to the Ketchikan 
International Airport, no person may taxi onto the runway of that 
airport until the approaching aircraft has landed and has cleared the 
runway.
    (b) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating a 
large airplane or a turbine engine powered airplane shall--
    (1) When approaching to land at the Ketchikan International Airport, 
maintain an altitude of at least 900 feet MSL until within three miles 
of the airport; and
    (2) After takeoff from the Ketchikan International Airport, maintain 
runway heading until reaching an altitude of 900 feet MSL.



   Subpart N_John F. Kennedy International Airport and Newark Liberty 

                   International Airport Traffic Rules

    Source: Doc. No. FAA-2008-0517, 73 FR 60568, Oct. 10, 2008, unless 
otherwise noted.

[[Page 882]]



Sec. 93.161  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart prescribes the air traffic rules for the arrival 
and departure of aircraft used for scheduled and unscheduled service, 
other than helicopters, at John F. Kennedy International Airport (JFK) 
and Newark Liberty International Airport (Newark).
    (b) This subpart also prescribes procedures for the assignment, 
transfer, sublease and withdrawal of slots issued by the FAA for 
scheduled operations at JFK and Newark.
    (c) The provisions of this subpart apply to JFK and Newark during 
the hours of 6 a.m. through 10:59 p.m., Eastern Time. No person shall 
operate any scheduled arrival or departure into or out of JFK or Newark 
during such hours without first obtaining a slot in accordance with this 
subpart. No person shall conduct an unscheduled operation to or from JFK 
or Newark during such hours without first obtaining a reservation.
    (d) A U.S. Air Carrier conducting operations solely under another 
carrier's marketing control with unified inventory control shall not be 
considered a separate carrier for purposes of this rule.
    (e) The slots assigned under this subpart terminate at 11 p.m. on 
March 30, 2019.



Sec. 93.162  Definitions.

    For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
    Airport Reservation Office (ARO) is an operational unit of the FAA's 
David J. Hurley Air Traffic Control System Command Center. It is 
responsible for the administration of reservations for unscheduled 
operations at JFK and Newark.
    Baseline operations are those common slots held by a carrier at JFK 
or Newark on December 9, 2008, that do not exceed 20 operations per day.
    Carrier is a U.S. or foreign carrier with authority to conduct 
scheduled service under parts 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter and the 
appropriate economic authority for scheduled service under 14 CFR 
chapter II and 49 U.S.C. chapter 401, 411 and 413.
    Common slot is a slot that is assigned by the FAA as a lease under 
its cooperative agreement authority for the length of this rule.
    Enhanced Computer Voice Reservation System (e-CVRS) is the system 
used by the FAA to make arrival or departure reservations for 
unscheduled operations at JFK, Newark, and other designated airports.
    Limited slot is a slot held every day, the lease for which expires 
prior to the expiration of this rule for subsequent award by the FAA as 
an unrestricted slot.
    New Entrant is any carrier that is administratively allocated a 
total of 8 or fewer slots on any day of the week at JFK or Newark, 
respectively, during controlled hours at any point during the duration 
of the rule.
    Public charter is defined in 14 CFR 380.2 as a one-way or roundtrip 
charter flight to be performed by one or more direct carriers that is 
arranged and sponsored by a public charter operator.
    Public Charter Operator is defined in 14 CFR 380.2 as a U.S. or 
foreign public charter operator.
    Reservation is an authorization received by a carrier or other 
operator of an aircraft, excluding helicopters, in accordance with 
procedures established by the FAA to operate an unscheduled arrival or 
departure on a particular day of the week during a specific 60-minute 
period.
    Scheduled operation is the arrival or departure segment of any 
operation regularly conducted by a carrier between either JFK or Newark 
and another point regularly served by that carrier.
    Slot is the operational authority assigned by the FAA to a carrier 
to conduct one scheduled operation or a series of scheduled operations 
at JFK or Newark on a particular day(s) of the week during a specific 
30-minute period.
    Summer Scheduling Season begins on the last Sunday of March.
    Unrestricted slot is a slot that is awarded to a carrier by the FAA 
via the auction of a lease.
    Unscheduled operation is an arrival or departure segment of any 
operation that is not regularly conducted by a carrier or other operator 
of an aircraft, excluding helicopters, between JFK or Newark and another 
service point. The

[[Page 883]]

following types of carrier operations shall be considered unscheduled 
operations for the purposes of this rule: public, on-demand, and other 
charter flights; hired aircraft service; extra sections of scheduled 
flights; ferry flights; and other non-passenger flights.
    Winter Scheduling Season begins on the last Sunday in October.



Sec. 93.163  Slots for Scheduled Arrivals and Departures.

    (a) During the hours of 6 a.m. through 10:59 p.m., Eastern Time, no 
person shall operate any scheduled arrival or departure into or out of 
JFK or Newark without first obtaining a slot in accordance with this 
subpart.
    (b) Except as otherwise established by the FAA under paragraph (c) 
of this section, the number of slots shall be limited to no more than 
eighty-one (81) per hour at JFK and eighty-one (81) per hour at Newark. 
At JFK, the number of slots may not exceed 44 in any 30-minute period, 
and 81 in any 60-minute period. At Newark, the number of slots may not 
exceed 44 in any 30-minute period and 81 in any 60-minute period. The 
number of arrival and departure slots in any period may be adjusted by 
the FAA as necessary based on the actual or potential delays created by 
such number or other considerations relating to congestion, airfield 
capacity and the air traffic control system.
    (c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, the Administrator 
may increase the number of slots based on a review of the following:
    (1) The number of delays;
    (2) The length of delays;
    (3) On-time arrivals and departures;
    (4) The number of actual operations;
    (5) Runway utilization and capacity plans; and
    (6) Other factors relating to the efficient management of the 
National Airspace System.



Sec. 93.164  Categories of Slots.

    (a) General. Each slot shall be designated as a common slot, limited 
slot or unrestricted slot and shall be allocated to the carrier under a 
lease agreement. A lease for a common or limited slot shall be assigned 
via a cooperative agreement. A lease for an unrestricted slot shall be 
awarded via an auction.
    (b) Common slots.
    (1) All slots within any carrier's baseline operations, as 
determined on December 9, 2008, shall be designated as common slots.
    (2) Ten percent of the slots at JFK and Newark on December 9, 2008 
not otherwise designated as common slots under paragraph (b)(1) of this 
section shall be designated as limited slots. All other slots shall be 
designated as common slots.
    (c) Limited slots. Those slots assigned to a carrier subject to 
return to the FAA under Sec. 93.165(c) shall be designated as limited 
slots until the date of their reallocation by the FAA as unrestricted 
slots. A carrier may continue to use a limited slot that has reverted to 
the FAA until the date of its reallocation.
    (1) Each carrier with a total number of daily operations at JFK or 
Newark in excess of its baseline operations will be notified by no later 
than December 9, 2008 how many of its slots will be designated as 
limited slots pursuant to paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section.
    (2) A carrier shall designate 50 percent of its limited slots. The 
carrier must notify the FAA of its determination by December 19, 2008.
    (3) The FAA will designate the remaining limited slots initially 
excluding those hours in which two or more slots have been designated as 
limited slots by the carriers.
    (4) No later than December 29, 2008, the FAA will publish a list of 
all limited slots and the dates upon which they will expire.
    (d) Unrestricted slots. Unrestricted slots are slots acquired by a 
carrier through a lease with the FAA awarded via an auction. 
Unrestricted slots are not subject to withdrawal by the FAA.



Sec. 93.165  Initial assignment of slots.

    (a) Except as provided for under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this 
section, any carrier utilizing operating rights allocated under the 
Order limiting operations at JFK or the Order limiting operations at 
Newark as evidenced by the FAA's records, will be assigned corresponding 
slots in 30-minute periods consistent with the limits under

[[Page 884]]

Sec. 93.163(b) and its summer and winter season schedules as approved 
by the FAA. If necessary, the FAA may utilize administrative measures 
such as voluntary measures or a lottery to re-time the assigned slots 
within the same hour to meet the 30-minute limits under Sec. 93.163(b). 
The FAA Vice President, System Operations Services, is the final 
decision-maker for determinations under this section.
    (b) If a carrier was allocated operating rights under the Order 
limiting operations at JFK or the Order limiting operations at Newark, 
but the operating rights were held by another carrier, then the 
corresponding slots will be assigned to the carrier that held the 
operating rights for that period, as evidenced by the FAA's records.
    (c) Starting January 8, 2009, and every year thereafter through 
2013, one-fifth of the total number of Limited slots shall revert to the 
FAA in accordance with the schedule published under Sec. 93.164(c)(4) 
and be auctioned as unrestricted slots by the FAA. Any slot receiving no 
responsive bids will be retired until the next auction. An affected 
carrier will be allowed to use the limited slot until the date of its 
reallocation by the FAA as an unrestricted slot.

[Doc. No. FAA-2008-0517, 73 FR 60568, Oct. 10, 2008; 73 FR 66517, Nov. 
10, 2008]



Sec. 93.166  Assignment of new or returned slots.

    (a) This section describes the process by which the FAA assigns new 
slots, as well as slots returned to the FAA pursuant to the provisions 
of Sec. 93.170. These slots will be assigned by the FAA to requesting 
carriers for the summer and winter scheduling seasons.
    (b) Requests for the new slots or returned slots or both must be 
submitted to the Federal Aviation Administration, Slot Administration 
Office, AGC-200, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591 
(Facsimile: (202) 267-7277; e-mail: [email protected]), by the 
deadline as published by the FAA in a Federal Register notice for each 
summer and winter scheduling season. The requesting carrier must submit 
its entire schedule at JFK and Newark for the particular season, noting 
which requests are in addition to, or changes from, the previous 
corresponding season at the respective airports.
    (c) Before assigning new or returned slots under this section, the 
FAA will first accommodate carrier requests to retime slots for 
operational reasons or to bring the flight time closer to the time 
originally requested by the applicant carrier in previous corresponding 
seasons, as reflected in FAA records.
    (d) After accommodating carrier requests for retiming of slots, the 
FAA will assign 50% of the new slots and returned slots to new entrants, 
unless requests by new entrants constitute fewer than 50% of available 
slots.
    (e) With the remaining available slots, if all requests for slots 
under this section cannot be accommodated, the FAA will give priority to 
requests to introduce year-round service or to extend an existing 
operation to a year-round operation.
    (f) Thereafter, the FAA will assign slots considering all relevant 
factors including:
    (1) The effective period of operation;
    (2) The extent and regularity of intended use of a slot;
    (3) Schedule constraints of carriers requesting slots.



Sec. 93.167  Reversion and withdrawal of slots.

    (a) This section does not apply to unrestricted slots.
    (b) A carrier's common slots or limited slots at JFK or Newark 
revert back to the FAA 30 days after the carrier has ceased all 
operations at the respective airport(s) for any reasons other than a 
strike.
    (c) The FAA may retime, withdraw, or temporarily suspend common 
slots and limited slots at any time to fulfill operational needs.
    (d) Common slots and limited slots temporarily withdrawn for 
operational need will be withdrawn in accordance with the priority list 
established under Sec. 93.173 and international obligations.
    (e) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a) of this section, 
the FAA will notify an affected carrier before withdrawing or 
temporarily suspending a common slot or limited slot and specify the 
date by which operations under the common slot or limited slot

[[Page 885]]

must cease. The FAA will provide at least 45 days' notice unless 
otherwise required by operational needs.
    (f) Any common slot or limited slot that is temporarily withdrawn 
under this paragraph will be reassigned, if at all, only to the carrier 
from which it was withdrawn, provided the carrier continues to conduct 
scheduled operations at the respective airport.
    (g) Should the Administrator determine that the cap on scheduled 
operations at Newark or JFK is too high, he may withdraw common slots to 
reduce the cap. Any such action by the Administrator shall be subject to 
the notice and comment provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act.



Sec. 93.168  Sublease and transfer of slots.

    (a) A carrier may sublease its slots to another carrier in 
accordance with this section and subject to the provisions of the 
carrier's lease agreement with the FAA. The character of the slot (e.g., 
common slot) will not change.
    (b) A carrier must provide notice to the FAA to sublease a slot. 
Such notice must contain: the slot number and time, effective dates and, 
if appropriate, the duration of the lease. The carrier may also provide 
the FAA with a minimum bid price.
    (c) The FAA will post a notice of the offer to sublease the slot and 
relevant details on the FAA Web site at http://www.faa.gov. An opening 
date, closing date and time by which bids must be received will be 
provided.
    (d) Upon consummation of the transaction, written evidence of each 
carrier's consent to sublease must be provided to the FAA, as well as 
all bids received and the terms of the sublease, including but not 
limited to:
    (1) The names of all bidders and all parties to the transaction;
    (2) The offered and final length of the sublease;
    (3) The consideration offered by all bidders and provided by the 
sublessee.
    (e) The slot may not be used until the conditions of paragraph (d) 
of this section have been met, and the FAA provides notice of its 
approval of the sublease.
    (f) Slots may be transferred among a U.S. carrier and another 
carrier that conducts operations at JFK or Newark solely under the 
transferring carrier's marketing control, including the entire inventory 
of the flight. Each party to such transfer must provide written evidence 
of its consent to the transfer and the FAA must confirm and approve 
these transfers in writing prior to the effective date of the 
transaction. However, the FAA will approve transfers under this 
paragraph up to five business days after the actual operation to 
accommodate operational disruptions that occur on the same day of the 
scheduled operation. The FAA Vice President, System Operations Services 
is the final decision-maker for any determinations under this section.
    (g) A carrier wishing to sublease a slot via an FAA auction under 
Sec. 93.165, rather than pursuant to this section, may do so. The 
carrier shall retain the proceeds and the slot shall retain the same 
designation that it had prior to the carrier placing it up for auction.



Sec. 93.169  One-for-one trade of slots.

    (a) A carrier may trade a slot with another carrier on a one-for-one 
basis.
    (b) Written evidence of each carrier's consent to the trade must be 
provided to the FAA.
    (c) No recipient of the trade may use the acquired slot until 
written confirmation has been received from the FAA.
    (d) Carriers participating in a one-for-one trade must certify to 
the FAA that no consideration or promise of consideration was provided 
by either party to the trade.



Sec. 93.170  Minimum usage requirements.

    (a) This section does not apply to unrestricted slots.
    (b) Any common slot or limited slot included in a summer or winter 
season schedule approved by the FAA that is not used at least 80 percent 
of the time during the period for which it is assigned will be withdrawn 
by the FAA.
    (c) The FAA may waive the requirements of paragraph (b) of this 
section in the event of a highly unusual and unpredictable condition 
which is beyond the control of the carrier and which affects carrier 
operations for a period of five or more consecutive days. Examples of 
conditions which

[[Page 886]]

could justify a waiver under this paragraph are weather conditions that 
result in the restricted operation of the airport for an extended period 
of time or the grounding of an aircraft type.
    (d) The FAA will treat as used any common slot or limited slot held 
by a carrier on Thanksgiving Day, the Friday following Thanksgiving Day, 
and the period from December 24 through the first Sunday of January.



Sec. 93.171  Unscheduled operations.

    (a) During the hours of 6 a.m. through 10:59 p.m. Eastern Time, no 
person may operate an aircraft other than a helicopter to or from JFK or 
Newark unless he or she has received, for that unscheduled operation, a 
reservation that is assigned by the Airport Reservation Office (ARO) or 
in the case of public charters, in accordance with the procedures in 
paragraph (d) of this section. Requests for reservations will be 
accepted through the e-CVRS beginning 72 hours prior to the proposed 
time of arrival to or departure from JFK or Newark. Additional 
information on procedures for obtaining a reservation is available on 
the Internet at http://www.fly.faa.gov/ecvrs.
    (b) Reservations, including those assigned to public charter 
operations under paragraph (d) of this section, will be available to be 
assigned by the ARO on a 60-minute basis as follows:
    (1) At JFK, two reservations per hour between 6 a.m. and 1:59 p.m. 
and between 10 p.m. and 10:59 p.m. and one reservation per hour between 
2 p.m. and 9:59 p.m.
    (2) At Newark, two reservations per hour between 6 a.m. and 11:59 
a.m. and between 10 p.m. and 10:59 p.m. and one reservation per hour 
between 12 noon and 9:59 p.m.
    (c) The ARO will receive and process all reservation requests for 
unscheduled arrivals and departures at JFK and Newark. Reservations are 
assigned on a ``first-come, first-served'' basis determined by the time 
the request is received at the ARO. Reservations must be cancelled if 
they will not be used as assigned.
    (d) One reservation per hour will be available for assignment to 
public charter operations prior to the 72-hour reservation window in 
paragraph (a) of this section. No more than 25 percent of the 
reservations available from 12 noon through 9:59 p.m. will be made 
available to public charter operations under this paragraph.
    (1) The public charter operator may request a reservation up to six 
months in advance of the date of the flight operation. Reservation 
requests should be submitted to Federal Aviation Administration, Slot 
Administration Office, AGC-200, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., 
Washington, DC 20591. Submissions may be made via facsimile to (202) 
267-7277 or by e-mail to: [email protected].
    (2) The public charter operator must certify that its prospectus has 
been accepted by the Department of Transportation in accordance with 14 
CFR part 380.
    (3) The public charter operator must identify the call sign/flight 
number or aircraft registration number of the direct air carrier, the 
date and time of the proposed operation(s), the airport served 
immediately prior to or after JFK or Newark, aircraft type, and the 
nature of the operation (e.g., ferry or passenger). Any changes to an 
approved reservation must be approved in advance by the Slot 
Administration Office.
    (4) If reservations under paragraph (d)(1) of this section have 
already been assigned, the public charter operator may request a 
reservation under paragraph (a) of this section.
    (e) The filing of a request for a reservation does not constitute 
the filing of an IFR flight plan as required by regulation. The IFR 
flight plan may be filed only after the reservation is obtained, must 
include the reservation number in the ``Remarks'' section, and must be 
filed in accordance with FAA regulations and procedures.
    (f) Air Traffic Control will accommodate declared emergencies 
without regard to reservations. Non-emergency flights in direct support 
of national security, law enforcement, military aircraft operations, or 
public-use aircraft operations may be accommodated above the reservation 
limits with the prior approval of the Vice President, System Operations 
Services, Air Traffic Organization. Procedures for obtaining the 
appropriate waiver will be

[[Page 887]]

available on the Internet at http://www.fly.faa.gov/ecvrs.
    (g) Notwithstanding the limits in paragraph (b) of this section, if 
the Air Traffic Organization determines that air traffic control, 
weather and capacity conditions are favorable and significant delay is 
unlikely, the FAA may determine that additional reservations may be 
accommodated for a specific time period. Unused slots may also be made 
available temporarily for unscheduled operations. Reservations for 
additional operations must be obtained through the ARO.
    (h) Reservations may not be bought, sold or leased.



Sec. 93.172  Reporting requirements.

    (a)(1) No later than September 1 for the summer scheduling season 
and February 1 for the winter scheduling season, each carrier holding a 
common slot or limited slot must submit an interim report of slot usage 
for each day of the applicable scheduling season. (2) No later than 30 
days after the last day of the applicable scheduling season, each 
carrier must submit a final report of the completed operations for each 
day of the entire scheduling season.
    (b) Such reports, in a format acceptable to the FAA, must contain 
the following information for each common slot or limited slot:
    (1) The slot number, time, and arrival or departure designation;
    (2) The operating carrier;
    (3) The date and scheduled time of each of the operations conducted 
pursuant to the slot, including the flight number, and origin/
destination, and aircraft type identifier; and
    (4) Whether a flight was actually operated.
    (c) The FAA may withdraw the slot of any carrier that does not meet 
the reporting requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.



Sec. 93.173  Administrative provisions.

    (a) Each slot shall be assigned a number for administrative 
convenience.
    (b) The FAA will assign priority numbers by random lottery for 
common slots and limited slots at JFK and Newark. Each common slot and 
limited slot will be assigned a withdrawal priority number, and the 30-
minute time period for the common slot or limited slot, frequency, and 
the arrival or departure designation.
    (c) If the FAA determines that operations need to be reduced for 
operational reasons, the lowest assigned priority number common slot or 
limited slot will be the last withdrawn.
    (d) Any slot available on a temporary basis may be assigned by the 
FAA to a carrier on a non-permanent, first-come, first-served basis 
subject to permanent assignment under this subpart. Any remaining slots 
may be made available for unscheduled operations on a non-permanent 
basis and will be assigned under the same procedures applicable to other 
operating reservations.
    (e) All transactions under this subpart must be in a written or 
electronic format approved by the FAA.

Subparts O-R [Reserved]



Subpart S_Allocation of Commuter and Air Carrier IFR Operations at High 

                        Density Traffic Airports

    Source: Docket No. 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 93.211  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart prescribes rules applicable to the allocation and 
withdrawal of IFR operational authority (takeoffs and landings) to 
individual air carriers and commuter operators at the High Density 
Traffic Airports identified in subpart K of this part except for Newark 
Airport.
    (b) This subpart also prescribes rules concerning the transfer of 
allocated IFR operational authority and the use of that authority once 
allocated.



Sec. 93.213  Definitions and general provisions.

    (a) For purposes of this subpart--
    (1) New entrant carrier means a commuter operator or air carrier 
which does not hold a slot at a particular airport and has never sold or 
given up a slot at that airport after December 16, 1985.
    (2) Slot means the operational authority to conduct one IFR landing 
or takeoff operation each day during a specific

[[Page 888]]

hour or 30 minute period at one of the High Density Traffic Airports, as 
specified in subpart K of this part.
    (3) Summer season means the period of time from the first Sunday in 
April until the last Sunday in October.
    (4) Winter season means the period of time from the last Sunday in 
October until the first Sunday in April.
    (5) Limited incumbent carrier means an air carrier or commuter 
operator that holds or operates fewer than 12 air carrier or commuter 
slots, in any combination, at a particular airport, not including 
international slots, Essential Air Service Program slots, or slots 
between the hours of 2200 and 0659 at Washington National Airport or 
LaGuardia Airport. However, for the purposes of this paragraph (a)(5), 
the carrier is considered to hold the number of slots at that airport 
that the carrier has, since December 16, 1985:
    (i) Returned to the FAA;
    (ii) Had recalled by the FAA under Sec. 93.227(a); or
    (iii) Transferred to another party other than by trade for one or 
more slots at the same airport.
    (b) The definitions specified in subpart K of this part also apply 
to this subpart.
    (c) For purposes of this subpart, if an air carrier, commuter 
operator, or other person has more than a 50-percent ownership or 
control of one or more other air carriers, commuter operators, or other 
persons, they shall be considered to be a single air carrier, commuter 
operator, or person. In addition, if a single company has more than a 
50-percent ownership or control of two or more air carriers and/or 
commuter operators or any combination thereof, those air carriers and/or 
commuter operators shall be considered to be a single operator. A single 
operator may be considered to be both an air carrier and commuter 
operator for purposes of this subpart.

[Doc. No. 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 
51 FR 21717, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-57, 54 FR 34906, Aug. 22, 1989; 54 
FR 37303, Sept. 8, 1989; Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37314, Aug. 18, 1992]



Sec. 93.215  Initial allocation of slots.

    (a) Each air carrier and commuter operator holding a permanent slot 
on December 16, 1985, as evidenced by the records of the air carrier and 
commuter operator scheduling committees, shall be allocated those slots 
subject to withdrawal under the provisions of this subpart. The Chief 
Counsel of the FAA shall be the final decisionmaker for initial 
allocation determinations.
    (b) Any permanent slot whose use on December 16, 1985 is divided 
among different operators, by day of the week, or otherwise, as 
evidenced by records of the scheduling committees, shall be allocated in 
conformity with those records. The Chief Counsel of the FAA shall be the 
final decisionmaker for these determinations.
    (c) A carrier may permanently designate a slot it holds at Kennedy 
International Airport as a seasonal slot, to be held by the carrier only 
during the corresponding season in future years, if it notifies the FAA 
(at the address specified in Sec. 93.225(e)), in writing, the preceding 
winter seasons or by October 15 of the preceding year for summer 
seasons.
    (d) Within 30 days after December 16, 1985, each U.S. air carrier 
and commuter operator must notify the office specified in Sec. 
93.221(a)(1), in writing, of those slots used for operations described 
in Sec. 93.217(a)(1) on December 16, 1985.
    (e) Any slot not held by an operator on December 16, 1985 shall be 
allocated in accordance with the provisions of Sec. Sec. 93.217, 93.219 
or 93.225 of this subpart.

[Doc. No. 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 
51 FR 21717, June 13, 1986]



Sec. 93.217  Allocation of slots for international operations and applicable 

limitations.

    (a) Any air carrier of commuter operator having the authority to 
conduct international operations shall be provided slots for those 
operations, excluding transborder service solely between HDR airports 
and Canada, subject to the following conditions and the other provisions 
of this section:
    (1) The slot may be used only for a flight segment in which either 
the takeoff or landing is at a foreign point or, for foreign operators, 
the flight segment is a continuation of a flight that begins or ends at 
a foreign point. Slots

[[Page 889]]

may be obtained and used under this section only for operations at 
Kennedy and O'Hare airports unless otherwise required by bilateral 
agreement and only for scheduled service unless the requesting carrier 
qualifies for the slot on the basis of historic seasonal operations, 
under Sec. 93.217(a)(5).
    (2) Slots used for an operation described in paragraph (a)(1) of 
this section may not be bought, sold, leased, or otherwise transferred, 
except that such a slot may be traded to another slot-holder on a one-
for-one basis for a slot at the same airport in a different hour or 
half-hour period if the trade is for the purpose of conducting such an 
operation in a different hour or half-hour period.
    (3) Slots used for operations described in paragraph (a)(1) of this 
section must be returned to the FAA if the slot will not be used for 
such operations for more than a 2-week period.
    (4) Each air carrier or commuter operator having a slot that is used 
for operations described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section but is not 
used every day of the week shall notify the office specified in Sec. 
93.221(a)(1) in writing of those days on which the slots will not be 
used.
    (5) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(10) of this section, at 
Kennedy and O'Hare Airports, a slot shall be allocated, upon request, 
for seasonal international operations, including charter operations, if 
the Chief Counsel of the FAA determines that the slot had been 
permanently allocated to and used by the requesting carrier in the same 
hour and for the same time period during the corresponding season of the 
preceding year. Requests for such slots must be submitted to the office 
specified in Sec. 93.221(a)(1), by the deadline published in a Federal 
Register notice for each season. For operations during the 1986 summer 
season, requests under this paragraph must have been submitted to the 
FAA on or before February 1, 1986. Each carrier requesting a slot under 
this paragraph must submit its entire international schedule at the 
relevant airport for the particular season, noting which requests are in 
addition to or changes from the previous year.
    (6) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(10) of this section, 
additional slots shall be allocated at O'Hare Airport for international 
scheduled air carrier and commuter operations (beyond those slots 
allocated under Sec. Sec. 93.215 and 93.217(a)(5) if a request is 
submitted to the office specified in Sec. 93.221(a)(1) and filed by the 
deadline published in a Federal Register notice for each season. These 
slots will be allocated at the time requested unless a slot is available 
within one hour of the requested time, in which case the unallocated 
slots will be used to satisfy the request.
    (7) If required by bilateral agreement, additional slots shall be 
allocated at LaGuardia Airport for international scheduled passenger 
operations within the hour requested.
    (8) To the extent vacant slots are available, additional slots 
during the high density hours shall be allocated at Kennedy Airport for 
new international scheduled air carrier and commuter operations (beyond 
those operations for which slots have been allocated under Sec. Sec. 
93.215 and 93.217(a)(5)), if a request is submitted to the office 
specified in Sec. 93.221(a)(1) by the deadline published in a Federal 
Register notice for each season. In addition, slots may be withdrawn 
from domestic operations for operations at Kennedy Airport under this 
paragraph if required by international obligations.
    (9) In determining the hour in which a slot request under Sec. Sec. 
93.217(a)(6) and 93.217(a)(8) will be granted, the following will be 
taken into consideration, among other things:
    (i) The availability of vacant slot times;
    (ii) International obligations;
    (iii) Airport terminal capacity, including facilities and personnel 
of the U.S. Customs Service and the U.S. Immigration and Naturalization 
Service;
    (iv) The extent and regularity of intended use of a slot; and
    (v) Schedule constraints of carriers requesting slots.
    (10) At O'Hare Airport, a slot will not be allocated under this 
section to a carrier holding or operating 100 or more permanent slots on 
the previous May 15 for a winter season or October 15 for a summer 
season unless:

[[Page 890]]

    (i) Allocation of the slot does not result in a total allocation to 
that carrier under this section that exceeds the number of slots 
allocated to and scheduled by that carrier under this section on 
February 23, 1990, and as reduced by the number of slots reclassified 
under Sec. 93.218, and does not exceed by more than 2 the number of 
slots allocated to and scheduled by that carrier during any half hour of 
that day, or
    (ii) Notwithstanding the number of slots allocated under paragraph 
(a)(10)(i) of this section, a slot is available for allocation without 
withdrawal of a permanent slot from any carrier.
    (b) If a slot allocated under Sec. 93.215 was scheduled for an 
operation described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section on December 16, 
1985, its use shall be subject to the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) 
through (a)(4) of this section. The requirements also apply to slots 
used for international operations at LaGuardia Airport.
    (c) If a slot is offered to a carrier in other than the hour 
requested, the carrier shall have 14 days after the date of the offer to 
accept the newly offered slot. Acceptance must be in writing and sent to 
the office specified in Sec. 93.221(a)(1) and must repeat the certified 
statements required by paragraph (e) of this section.
    (d) The Office of the Secretary of Transportation reserves the right 
not to apply the provisions of this section, concerning the allocation 
of slots, to any foreign air carrier or commuter operator of a country 
that provides slots to U.S. air carriers and commuter operators on a 
basis more restrictive than provided by this subpart. Decisions not to 
apply the provisions of this section will be made by the Office of the 
Secretary of Transportation.
    (e) Each request for slots under this section shall state the 
airport, days of the week and time of the day of the desired slots and 
the period of time the slots are to be used. Each request shall identify 
whether the slot is requested under paragraph (a)(5), (6), or (8) and 
identify any changes from the previous year if requested under both 
paragraphs. The request must be accompanied by a certified statement 
signed by an officer of the operator indicating that the operator has or 
has contracted for aircraft capable of being utilized in using the slots 
requested and that the operator has bona fide plans to use the requested 
slots for operations described in paragraph (a).

[Doc. No. 24105, 51 FR 21717, June 13, 1986, as amended by Amdt. 93-61, 
55 FR 53243, Dec. 27, 1990; 56 FR 1059, Jan. 10, 1991; Amdt. 93-78, 64 
FR 53565, Oct. 1, 1999]



Sec. 93.218  Slots for transborder service to and from Canada.

    (a) Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, international 
slots identified by U.S. carriers for international operations in 
December 1985 and the equivalent number of international slots held as 
of February 24, 1998, will be domestic slots. The Chief Counsel of the 
FAA shall be the final decisionmaker for these determinations.
    (b) Canadian carriers shall have a guaranteed base level of slots of 
42 slots at LaGuardia, 36 slots at O'Hare for the Sumner season, and 32 
slots at O'Hare in the Winter season.
    (c) Any modification to the slot base by the Government of Canada or 
the Canadian carriers that results in a decrease of the guaranteed base 
in paragraph (b) of this section shall permanently modify the base 
number of slots.

[Doc. No. FAA-1999-4971, 64 FR 53565, Oct. 1, 1999]



Sec. 93.219  Allocation of slots for essential air service operations and 

applicable limitations.

    Whenever the Office of the Secretary of Transportation determines 
that slots are needed for operations to or from a High Density Traffic 
Airport under the Department of Transportation's Essential Air Service 
(EAS) Program, those slots shall be provided to the designated air 
carrier or commuter operator subject to the following limitations:
    (a) Slots obtained under this section may not be bought, sold, 
leased or otherwise transferred, except that such slots may be traded 
for other slots on a one-for-one basis at the same airport.
    (b) Any slot obtained under this section must be returned to the FAA 
if it will not be used for EAS purposes for

[[Page 891]]

more than a 2-week period. A slot returned under this paragraph may be 
reallocated to the operator which returned it upon request to the FAA 
office specified in Sec. 93.221(a)(1) if that slot has not been 
reallocated to an operator to provide substitute essential air service.
    (c) Slots shall be allocated for EAS purposes in a time period 
within 90 minutes of the time period requested.
    (d) The Department will not honor requests for slots for EAS 
purposes to a point if the requesting carrier has previously traded away 
or sold slots it had used or obtained for use in providing essential air 
service to that point.
    (e) Slots obtained under Civil Aeronautics Board Order No. 84-11-40 
shall be considered to have been obtained under this section.



Sec. 93.221  Transfer of slots.

    (a) Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, effective April 1, 
1986, slots may be bought, sold or leased for any consideration and any 
time period and they may be traded in any combination for slots at the 
same airport or any other high density traffic airport. Transfers, 
including leases, shall comply with the following conditions:
    (1) Requests for confirmation must be submitted in writing to Slot 
Administration Office, AGC-230, Office of the Chief Counsel, Federal 
Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 
20591, in a format to be prescribed by the Administrator. Requests will 
provide the names of the transferor and recipient; business address and 
telephone number of the persons representing the transferor and 
recipient; whether the slot is to be used for an arrival or departure; 
the date the slot was acquired by the transferor; the section of this 
subpart under which the slot was allocated to the transferor; whether 
the slot has been used by the transferor for international or essential 
air service operations; and whether the slot will be used by the 
recipient for international or essential air service operations. After 
withdrawal priorities have been established under Sec. 93.223 of this 
part, the requests must include the slot designations of the transferred 
slots as described in Sec. 93.223(b)(5).
    (2) The slot transferred must come from the transferor's then-
current FAA-approved base.
    (3) Written evidence of each transferor's consent to the transfer 
must be provided to the FAA.
    (4) The recipient of a transferred slot may not use the slot until 
written confirmation has been received from the FAA.
    (5)(i) Until a slot obtained by a new entrant or limited incumbent 
carrier in a lottery held under Sec. 93.225 after June 1, 1991, has 
been used by the carrier that obtained it for a continuous 24-month 
period after the lottery in accordance with Sec. 93.227(a), that slot 
may be transferred only by trade for one or more slots at the same 
airport or to other new entrant or limited incumbent carriers under 
Sec. 93.221(a)(5)(iii). This transfer restriction shall apply to the 
same extent to any slot or slots acquired by trading the slot obtained 
in a lottery. To remove the transfer restriction, documentation of 24 
months' continuous use must be submitted to the FAA Office of the Chief 
Counsel.
    (ii) Failure to use a slot acquired by trading a slot obtained in a 
lottery for a continuous 24-month period after the lottery, shall void 
all trades involving the lottery slot, which shall be returned to the 
FAA. All use of the lottery slot shall be counted toward fulfilling the 
minimum use requirements under Sec. 93.227(a) applicable to the slot or 
slots for which the lottery slot was traded, including subsequent 
trades.
    (iii) Slots obtained by new entrant or limited incumbent carriers in 
a lottery may be sold, leased, or otherwise transferred to another 
entrant or limited incumbent carrier after a minimum of 60 days of use 
by the obtaining carrier. The transfer restrictions of Sec. 
93.221(a)(5)(i) shall continue to apply to the slot until documentation 
of 24 months' continuous use has been submitted and the transfer 
restriction removed.
    (6) The Office of the Secretary of Transportation must determine 
that the transfer will not be injurious to the essential air service 
program.
    (b) A record of each slot transfer shall be kept on file by the 
office specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section

[[Page 892]]

and will be made available to the public upon request.
    (c) Any person may buy or sell slots and any air carrier or commuter 
may use them. Notwithstanding Sec. 93.123, air carrier slots may be 
used with aircraft of the kind described in Sec. 93.123 (c)(1) or 
(c)(2) but commuter slots may only be used with aircraft of the kind 
described in Sec. 93.0123(c)(2).
    (d) Air carriers and commuter operators considered to be a single 
operator under the provisions of Sec. 93.213(c) of this subpart but 
operating under separate names shall report transfers of slots between 
them.
    (e) Notwithstanding Sec. 93.123(c)(2) of this part, a commuter slot 
at O'Hare International Airport may be used with an aircraft described 
in Sec. 93.123(c)(1) of this part on the following conditions:
    (1) Air carrier aircraft that may be operated under this paragraph 
are limited to aircraft:
    (i) Having an actual seating configuration of 110 or fewer 
passengers; and
    (ii) Having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of less than 
126,000 pounds.
    (2) No more than 50 percent of the total number of commuter slots 
held by a slot holder at O'Hare International Airport may be used with 
aircraft described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
    (3) An air carrier or commuter operator planning to operate an 
aircraft described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section in a commuter 
slot shall notify ATC at least 75 days in advance of the planned start 
date of such operation. The notice shall include the slot number, 
proposed time of operation, aircraft type, aircraft series, actual 
aircraft seating configuration, and planned start date. ATC will approve 
or disapprove the proposed operation no later than 45 days prior to the 
planned start date. If an operator does not initiate operation of a 
commuter slot under this section within 30 days of the planned start 
date first submitted to the FAA, the ATC approval for that operation 
will expire. That operator may file a new or revised notice for the same 
half-hour slot time.
    (4) An operation may not be conducted under paragraph (e)(1) of this 
section unless a gate is available for that operation without planned 
waiting time.
    (5) For the purposes of this paragraph (e), notice to ATC shall be 
submitted in writing to: Director, Air Traffic System Management, ATM-1, 
Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., 
Washington, DC 20591.

[Doc. No. 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 
51 FR 21717, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-58, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; 
Amdt. 93-62, 56 FR 41208, Aug. 19, 1991; Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37314, Aug. 
18, 1992; Amdt. 93-68, 58 FR 39616, July 23, 1993]



Sec. 93.223  Slot withdrawal.

    (a) Slots do not represent a property right but represent an 
operating privilege subject to absolute FAA control. Slots may be 
withdrawn at any time to fulfill the Department's operational needs, 
such as providing slots for international or essential air service 
operations or eliminating slots. Before withdrawing any slots under this 
section to provide them for international operations, essential air 
services or other operational needs, those slots returned under Sec. 
93.224 of this part and those recalled by the agency under Sec. 93.227 
will be allocated.
    (b) Separate slot pools shall be established for air carriers and 
commuter operators at each airport. The FAA shall assign, by random 
lottery, withdrawal priority numbers for the recall priority of slots at 
each airport. Each additional permanent slot, if any, will be assigned 
the next higher number for air carrier or commuter slots, as 
appropriate, at each airport. Each slot shall be assigned a designation 
consisting of the applicable withdrawal priority number; the airport 
code; a code indicating whether the slot is an air carrier or commuter 
operator slot; and the time period of the slot. The designation shall 
also indicate, as appropriate, if the slot is daily or for certain days 
of the week only; is limited to arrivals or departures; is allocated for 
international operations or for EAS purposes; and, at Kennedy 
International Airport, is a summer or winter slot.

[[Page 893]]

    (c) Whenever slots must be withdrawn, they will be withdrawn in 
accordance with the priority list established under paragraph (b) of 
this section, except:
    (1) Slots obtained in a lottery held pursuant to Sec. 93.225 of 
this part shall be subject to withdrawal pursuant to paragraph (i) of 
that section, and
    (2) Slots necessary for international and essential air service 
operations shall be exempt from withdrawal for use for other 
international or essential air service operations.
    (3) Except as provided in Sec. 93.227(a), the FAA shall not 
withdraw slots held at an airport by an air carrier or commuter operator 
holding and operating 12 or fewer slots at that airport (excluding slots 
used for operations described in Sec. 93.212(a)(1)), if withdrawal 
would reduce the number of slots held below the number of slots 
operated.
    (4) No slot comprising the guaranteed base of slots, as defined in 
section 93.318(b), shall be withdrawn for use for international 
operations or for new entrants.
    (d) The following withdrawal priority rule shall be used to permit 
application of the one-for-one trade provisions for international and 
essential air service slots and the slot withdrawal provisions where the 
slots are needed for other than international or essential air service 
operations. If an operator has more than one slot in a specific time 
period in which it also has a slot being used for international or 
essential air service operations, the international and essential air 
service slots will be considered to be those with the lowest withdrawal 
priority.
    (e) The operator(s) using each slot to be withdrawn shall be 
notified by the FAA of the withdrawal and shall cease operations using 
that slot on the date indicated in the notice. Generally, the FAA will 
provide at least 30 days after notification for the operator to cease 
operations unless exigencies require a shorter time period.
    (f) For 24 months following a lottery held after June 1, 1991, a 
slot acquired in that lottery shall be withdrawn by the FAA upon the 
sale, merger, or acquisition of more than 50 percent ownership or 
control of the carrier using that slot or one acquired by trade of that 
slot, if the resulting total of slots held or operated at the airport by 
the surviving entity would exceed 12 slots.

[Doc. No. 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 
51 FR 21718, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-57, 54 FR 34906, Aug. 22, 1989; 
Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37314, Aug. 18, 1992; Amdt. 93-78, 64 FR 53565, Oct. 
1, 1999]



Sec. 93.224  Return of slots.

    (a) Whenever a slot is required to be returned under this subpart, 
the holder must notify the office specified in Sec. 93.221(a)(1) in 
writing of the date after which the slot will not be used.
    (b) Slots may be voluntarily returned for use by other operators by 
notifying the office specified in Sec. 93.221(a)(1) in writing.



Sec. 93.225  Lottery of available slots.

    (a) Whenever the FAA determines that sufficient slots have become 
available for distribution for purposes other than international or 
essential air service operations, but generally not more than twice a 
year, they shall be allocated in accordance with the provisions of this 
section.
    (b) A random lottery shall be held to determine the order of slot 
selection.
    (c) Slot allocation lotteries shall be held on an airport-by-airport 
basis with separate lotteries for air carrier and commuter operator 
slots. The slots to be allocated in each lottery will be each 
unallocated slot not necessary for international or Essential Air 
Service Program operations, including any slot created by an increase in 
the operating limits set forth in Sec. 93.123(a).
    (d) The FAA shall publish a notice in the Federal Register 
announcing any lottery dates. The notice may include special procedures 
to be in effect for the lotteries.
    (e) Participation in a lottery is open to each U.S. air carrier or 
commuter operator operating at the airport and providing scheduled 
passenger service at the airport, as well as where provided for by 
bilateral agreement. Any U.S. carrier, or foreign air carrier where 
provided for by bilateral agreement, that is not operating scheduled 
service at the airport and has not failed to operate slots obtained in 
the previous lottery, or slots traded for those obtained by lottery, but 
wishes

[[Page 894]]

to initiate scheduled passenger service at the airport, shall be 
included in the lottery if that operator notifies, in writing, the Slot 
Administration Office, AGC-230, Office of the Chief Counsel, Federal 
Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 
20591. The notification must be received 15 days prior to the lottery 
date and state whether there is any common ownership or control of, by, 
or with any other air carrier or commuter operator as defined in Sec. 
93.213(c). New entrant and limited incumbent carriers will be permitted 
to complete their selections before participation by other incumbent 
carriers is initiated.
    (f) At the lottery, each operator must make its selection within 5 
minutes after being called or it shall lose its turn. If capacity still 
remains after each operator has had an opportunity to select slots, the 
allocation sequence will be repeated in the same order. An operator may 
select any two slots available at the airport during each sequence, 
except that new entrant carriers may select four slots, if available, in 
the first sequence.
    (g) To select slots during a slot lottery session, a carrier must 
have appropriate economic authority for scheduled passenger service 
under Title IV of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 
U.S.C. App. 1371 et seq.), and must hold FAA operating authority under 
part 121 or part 135 of this chapter as appropriate for the slots the 
operator seeks to select.
    (h) During the first selection sequence, 25 percent of the slots 
available but no less than two slots shall be reserved for selection by 
new entrant carriers. If new entrant carriers do not select all of the 
slots set aside for new entrant carriers, limited incumbent carriers may 
select the remaining slots. If every participating new entrant carrier 
and limited incumbent carrier has ceased selection of available slots or 
has obtained 12 slots at that airport, other incumbent carriers may 
participate in selecting the remaining slots; however, slots selected by 
non-limited incumbent carriers will be allocated only until the date of 
the next lottery.
    (i) Slots obtained under this section shall retain their withdrawal 
priority as established under Sec. 93.223. If the slot is newly 
created, a withdrawal priority shall be assigned. That priority number 
shall be higher than any other slot assigned a withdrawal number 
previously.

[Doc. No. 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 
51 FR 21718, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-58, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989; 
Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37314, Aug. 18, 1992; 57 FR 47993, Oct. 21, 1992; 
Amdt. 93-78, 64 FR 53565, Oct. 1, 1999]



Sec. 93.226  Allocation of slots in low-demand periods.

    (a) If there are available slots in the following time periods and 
there are no pending requests for international or EAS operations at 
these times, FAA will allocate slots upon request on a first-come, 
first-served basis, as set forth in this section:
    (1) Any period for which a slot is available less than 5 days per 
week.
    (2) Any time period for which a slot is available for less than a 
full season.
    (3) For LaGuardia and Washington National Airports:
    (i) 6:00 a.m.-6:59 a.m.
    (ii) 10:00 p.m.-midnight.
    (b) Slots will be allocated only to operators with the economic and 
operating authority and aircraft required to use the slots.
    (c) Requests for allocations under this section shall be submitted 
in writing to the address listed in Sec. 93.221(a)(1) and shall 
identify the request as made under this section.
    (d) The FAA may deny requests made under this section after a 
determination that all remaining slots in a particular category should 
be distributed by lottery.
    (e) Slots may be allocated on a seasonal or temporary basis under 
this provision.

[Doc. No. 24105, 51 FR 21718, June 13, 1986]



Sec. 93.227  Slot use and loss.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), (d), (g), and (l) of 
this section, any slot not utilized 80 percent of the time over a 2-
month period shall be recalled by the FAA.
    (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to slots obtained 
under Sec. 93.225 of this part during:

[[Page 895]]

    (1) The first 90 days after they are allocated to a new entrant 
carrier; or
    (2) The first 60 days after they are allocated to a limited 
incumbent or other incumbent carrier.
    (c) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to slots of an 
operator forced by a strike to cease operations using those slots.
    (d) In the case of a carrier that files for protection under the 
Federal bankruptcy laws and has not received a Notice of Withdrawal from 
the FAA for the subject slot or slots, paragraph (a) of this section 
does not apply:
    (1) During a period after the initial petition in bankruptcy, to any 
slot held or operated by that carrier, for:
    (i) 60 days after the carrier files the initial petition in 
bankruptcy; and
    (ii) 30 days after the carrier, in anticipation of transferring 
slots, submits information to a Federal government agency in connection 
with a statutory antitrust, economic impact, or similar review of the 
transfer, provided that the information is submitted more than 30 days 
after filing the initial petition in bankruptcy, and provided further 
that any slot to be transferred has not become subject to withdrawal 
under any other provision of this Sec. 93.227; and
    (2) During a period after a carrier ceases operations at an airport, 
to any slot held or operated by that carrier at that airport, for:
    (i) 30 days after the carrier ceases operations at that airport, 
provided that the slot has not become subject to withdrawal under any 
other provision of this Sec. 93.227; and
    (ii) 30 days after the parties to a proposed transfer of any such 
slot comply with requests for additional information by a Federal 
government agency in connection with an antitrust, economic impact, or 
similar investigation of the transfer, provided that--
    (A) The original notice of the transfer is filed with the Federal 
agency within 30 days after the carrier ceases operation at the airport;
    (B) The request for additional information is made within 10 days of 
the filing of the notice by the carrier;
    (C) The carrier submits the additional information to the Federal 
agency within 15 days of the request by such agency; and
    (D) Any slot to be transferred has not become subject to withdrawal 
under any other provision of this Sec. 93.227.
    (e) Persons having slots withdrawn pursuant to paragraph (a) of this 
section must cease all use of those slots upon receipt of notice from 
the FAA.
    (f) Persons holding slots but not using them pursuant to the 
provisions of paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) may lease those slots for use 
by others. A slot obtained in a lottery may not be leased after the 
expiration of the applicable time period specified in paragraph (b) of 
this section unless it has been operated for a 2-month period at least 
65 percent of the time by the operator which obtained it in the lottery.
    (g) This section does not apply to slots used for the operations 
described in Sec. 93.217(a)(1) except that a U.S. air carrier or 
commuter operator required to file a report under paragraph (i) of this 
section shall include all slots operated at the airport, including slots 
described in Sec. 93.217(a)(1).
    (h) Within 30 days after an operator files for protection under the 
Federal bankruptcy laws, the FAA shall recall any slots of that 
operator, if--(1) the slots were formerly used for essential air service 
and (2) the Office of the Secretary of Transportation determines those 
slots are required to provide substitute essential air service to or 
from the same points.
    (i) Every air carrier and commuter operator or other person holding 
a slot at a high density airport shall, within 14 days after the last 
day of the 2-month period beginning January 1, 1986, and every 2 months 
thereafter, forward, in writing, to the address identified in Sec. 
93.221(a)(1), a list of all slots held by the air carrier, commuter 
operator or other person along with a listing of which air carrier or 
commuter operator actually operated the slot for each day of the 2-month 
period. The report shall identify the flight number for which the slot 
was used and the equipment used, and shall identify the flight as an 
arrival or departure. The report shall identify any common ownership or 
control of, by, or with any other carrier as defined in Sec. 93.213(c) 
of this subpart. The report

[[Page 896]]

shall be signed by a senior official of the air carrier or commuter 
operator. If the slot is held by an ``other person,'' the report must be 
signed by an official representative.
    (j) The Chief Counsel of the FAA may waive the requirements of 
paragraph (a) of this section in the event of a highly unusual and 
unpredictable condition which is beyond the control of the slot-holder 
and which exists for a period of 9 or more days. Examples of conditions 
which could justify waiver under this paragraph are weather conditions 
which result in the restricted operation of an airport for an extended 
period of time or the grounding of an aircraft type.
    (k) The Chief Counsel of the FAA may, upon request, grant a waiver 
from the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section for a slot used 
for the domestic segment of an intercontinental all-cargo flight. To 
qualify for a waiver, a carrier must operate the slot a substantial 
percentage of the time and must return the slot to the FAA in advance 
for the time periods it will not be used.
    (l) The FAA will treat as used any slot held by a carrier at a High 
Density Traffic Airport on Thanksgiving Day, the Friday following 
Thanksgiving Day, and the period from December 24 through the first 
Saturday in January.

[Doc. No. 24105, 50 FR 52195, Dec. 20, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 93-52, 
51 FR 21718, June 13, 1986; Amdt. 93-65, 57 FR 37315, Aug. 18, 1992; 
Amdt. 93-71, 59 FR 58771, Nov. 15, 1994]



    Subpart T_Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport Traffic Rules

    Source: Docket No. 25143, 51 FR 43587, Dec. 3, 1986; Admt. 93-82, 68 
FR 9795, Feb. 28, 2003, unless otherwise noted.



Sec. 93.251  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes rules applicable to the operation of 
aircraft to or from Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport.



Sec. 93.253  Nonstop operations.

    No person may operate an aircraft nonstop in air transportation 
between Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport and another airport 
that is more than 1,250 miles away from Ronald Reagan Washington 
National Airport.



Subpart U_Special Flight Rules in the Vicinity of Grand Canyon National 

                                Park, AZ

    Source: Doc. No. 28537, 61 FR 69330, Dec. 31, 1996, unless otherwise 
noted.



Sec. 93.301  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribes special operating rules for all persons 
operating aircraft in the following airspace, designated as the Grand 
Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area: That airspace extending 
from the surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL within an area 
bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 35[deg]55[min]12[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]04[min]05[sec] W.; east to Lat. 35[deg]55[min]30[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]45[min]00[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]59[min]02[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]36[min]03[sec] W.; north to Lat. 36[deg]15[min]30[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]36[min]06[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]24[min]49[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]47[min]45[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]52[min]23[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]33[min]10[sec] W.; west-northwest to Lat. 36[deg]53[min]37[sec] 
N., Long. 111[deg]38[min]29[sec] W.; southwest to Lat. 
36[deg]35[min]02[sec] N., Long. 111[deg]53[min]28[sec] W.; to Lat. 
36[deg]21[min]30[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]00[min]03[sec] W.; west-
northwest to Lat. 36[deg]30[min]30[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]35[min]59[sec] 
W.; southwest to Lat. 36[deg]24[min]46[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]51[min]10[sec] W., thence west along the boundary of Grand 
Canyon National Park (GCNP) to Lat. 36[deg]14[min]08[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]10[min]07[sec] W.; west-southwest to Lat. 36[deg]09[min]30[sec] 
N., Long. 114[deg]03[min]03[sec] W.; southeast to Lat. 
36[deg]05[min]11[sec] N., Long. 113[deg]58[min]46[sec] W.; thence south 
along the boundary of GCNP to Lat. 35[deg]58[min]23[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]54[min]14[sec] W.; north to Lat. 36[deg]00[min]10[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]53[min]48[sec] W.; northeast to Lat. 36[deg]02[min]14[sec] N., 
Long. 113[deg]50[min]16[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]02[min]17[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]53[min]48[sec] W.; northeast to Lat. 36[deg]02[min]14[sec] N., 
Long. 113[deg]50[min]16[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]02[min]17[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]49[min]11[sec] W.; southeast to Lat. 36[deg]01[min]22[sec] N., 
Long. 113[deg]48[min]21[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]59[min]15[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]47[min]13[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]57[min]51[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]46[min]01[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]57[min]45[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]45[min]23[sec] W.; southwest to Lat. 35[deg]54[min]48[sec] N., 
Long. 113[deg]50[min]24[sec] W.; southeast to Lat. 35[deg]41[min]01[sec] 
N., Long. 113[deg]35[min]27[sec] W.; thence clockwise via the 4.2-
nautical mile radius of the Peach Springs VORTAC to Lat. 
36[deg]38[min]53[sec] N., Long.

[[Page 897]]

113[deg]27[min]49[sec] W.; northeast to Lat. 35[deg]42[min]58[sec] N., 
Long. 113[deg]10[min]57[sec] W.; north to Lat. 35[deg]57[min]51[sec] N., 
Long. 113[deg]11[min]06[sec] W.; east to Lat. 35[deg]57[min]44[sec] N., 
Long. 112[deg]14[min]04[sec] W.; thence clockwise via the 4.3-nautical 
mile radius of the Grand Canyon National Park Airport reference point 
(Lat. 35[deg]57[min]08[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]08[min]49[sec] W.) to the 
point of origin.

[Doc. No. 5926, 65 FR 17742, Apr. 4, 2000]



Sec. 93.303  Definitions.

    For the purposes of this subpart:
    Allocation means authorization to conduct a commercial air tour in 
the Grand Canyon National Park (GCNP) Special Flight Rules Area (SFRA).
    Commercial air tour means any flight conducted for compensation or 
hire in a powered aircraft where a purpose of the flight is sightseeing. 
If the operator of a flight asserts that the flight is not a commercial 
air tour, factors that can be considered by the Administrator in making 
a determination of whether the flight is a commercial air tour include, 
but are not limited to--
    (1) Whether there was a holding out to the public of willingness to 
conduct a sightseeing flight for compensation or hire;
    (2) Whether a narrative was provided that referred to areas or 
points of interest on the surface;
    (3) The area of operation;
    (4) The frequency of flights;
    (5) The route of flight;
    (6) The inclusion of sightseeing flights as part of any travel 
arrangement package; or
    (7) Whether the flight in question would or would not have been 
canceled based on poor visibility of the surface.
    Commercial Special Flight Rules Area Operation means any portion of 
any flight within the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules 
Area that is conducted by a certificate holder that has operations 
specifications authorizing flights within the Grand Canyon National Park 
Special Flight Rules Area. This term does not include operations 
conducted under an FAA Form 7711-1, Certificate of Waiver or 
Authorization. The types of flights covered by this definition are set 
forth in the ``Las Vegas Flight Standards District Office Grand Canyon 
National Park Special Flight Rules Area Procedures Manual'' which is 
available from the Las Vegas Flight Standards District Office.
    Flight Standards District Office means the FAA Flight Standards 
District Office with jurisdiction for the geographical area containing 
the Grand Canyon.
    GCNP quiet aircraft technology designation means an aircraft that is 
subject to Sec. 93.301 and has been shown to comply with the noise 
limit specified in appendix A of this part.
    Number of passenger seats means the number of passenger seats for 
which an individual aircraft is configured.
    Park means Grand Canyon National Park.
    Special Flight Rules Area means the Grand Canyon National Park 
Special Flight Rules Area.

[65 FR 17732, Apr. 4, 2000, as amended at 70 FR 16092, Mar. 29, 2005]



Sec. 93.305  Flight-free zones and flight corridors.

    Except in an emergency or if otherwise necessary for safety of 
flight, or unless otherwise authorized by the Flight Standards District 
Office for a purpose listed in 93.309, no person may operate an aircraft 
in the Special Flight Rules Area within the following flight-free zones:
    (a) Desert View Flight-free Zone. That airspace extending from the 
surface up to but not including 14,500 feet MSL within an area bounded 
by a line beginning at Lat. 35[deg]59[min]58[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]52[min]47[sec] W.; thence east to Lat. 36[deg]00[min]00[sec] N., 
Long. 111[deg]51[min]04[sec] W.; thence north to 36[deg]00[min]24[sec] 
N., Long. 111[deg]51[min]04[sec] W.; thence east to 
36[deg]00[min]24[sec] N., Long. 111[deg]45[min]44[sec] W.; thence north 
along the GCNP boundary to Lat. 36[deg]14[min]05[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]48[min]34[sec] W.; thence southwest to Lat. 
36[deg]12[min]06[sec] N., Long. 111[deg]51[min]14[sec] W.; to the point 
of origin; but not including the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL 
within 1 nautical mile of the western boundary of the zone. The corridor 
to the west between the Desert View and Bright Angel Flight-free Zones, 
is designated the ``Zuni Point Corridor.'' This corridor is 2 nautical 
miles wide for commercial air tour flights and 4 nautical miles wide for 
transient and general aviation operations.

[[Page 898]]

    (b) Bright Angel Flight-free Zone. That airspace extending from the 
surface up to but not including 14,500 feet MSL within an area bounded 
by a line beginning at Lat. 35[deg]58[min]39[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]55[min]43[sec] W.; north to Lat. 36[deg]12[min]41[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]53[min]54[sec] W.; northwest to Lat. 36[deg]18[min]18[sec] N., 
Long. 111[deg]58[min]15[sec] W.; thence west along the GCNP boundary to 
Lat. 36[deg]20[min]11[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]06[min]25[sec] W.; south-
southwest to Lat. 36[deg]09[min]31[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]11[min]15[sec] 
W.; to Lat. 36[deg]04[min]16[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]17[min]20[sec] W.; 
thence southeast along the GCNP boundary to Lat. 36[deg]01[min]54[sec] 
N., Long. 112[deg]11[min]24[sec] W.; thence clockwise via the 4.3-
nautical mile radius of the Grand Canyon National Park Airport reference 
point (Lat. 35[deg]57[min]08[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]08[min]49[sec] W.) 
to Lat. 35[deg]59[min]37[sec] N., Long. 112[deg]04[min]29[sec] W.; 
thence east along the GCNP boundary to the point of origin; but not 
including the airspace at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 1 nautical 
mile of the eastern boundary or the airspace at and above 10,500 feet 
MSL within 2 nautical miles of the northwestern boundary. The corridor 
to the east, between this flight-free zone and the Desert View Flight-
free Zone, is designated the ``Zuni Point Corridor.'' The corridor to 
the west, between the Bright Angel and Toroweap/Shinumo Flight-free 
Zones, is designated the ``Dragon Corridor.'' This corridor is 2 
nautical miles wide for commercial air tour flights and 4 nautical miles 
wide for transient and general aviation operations. The Bright Angel 
Flight-free Zone does not include the following airspace designated as 
the Bright Angel Corridor: That airspace one-half nautical mile on 
either side of a line extending from Lat. 36[deg]14[min]57[sec] N., 
Long. 112[deg]08[min]45[sec] W. and Lat. 36[deg]15[min]01[sec] N., Long. 
111[deg]55[min]39[sec] W.
    (c) Toroweap/Shinumo Flight-free Zone. That airspace extending from 
the surface up to but not including 14,500 feet MSL within an area 
bounded by a line beginning at Lat. 36[deg]05[min]44[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]19[min]27[sec] W.; north-northeast to Lat. 36[deg]10[min]49[sec] 
N., Long. 112[deg]13[min]19[sec] W.; to Lat. 36[deg]21[min]02[sec] N., 
Long. 112[deg]08[min]47[sec] W.; thence west and south along the GCNP 
boundary to Lat 36[deg]10[min]58[sec] N., Long. 113[deg]08[min]35[sec] 
W.; south to Lat. 36[deg]10[min]12[sec] N., Long. 113[deg]08[min]34[sec] 
W.; thence in an easterly direction along the park boundary to the point 
of origin; but not including the following airspace designated as the 
``Tuckup Corridor'': at or above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 nautical miles 
either side of a line extending between Lat. 36[deg]24[min]42[sec] N., 
Long. 112[deg]48[min]47[sec] W. and Lat. 36[deg]14[min]17[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]48[min]31[sec] W. The airspace designated as the ``Fossil Canyon 
Corridor'' is also excluded from the Toroweap/Shinumo Flight-free Zone 
at or above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 nautical miles either side of a 
line extending between Lat. 36[deg]16[min]26[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]34[min]35[sec] W. and Lat. 36[deg]22[min]51[sec] N., Long. 
112[deg]18[min]18[sec] W. The Fossil Canyon Corridor is to be used for 
transient and general aviation operations only.
    (d) Sanup Flight-free Zone. That airspace extending from the surface 
up to but not including 8,000 feet MSL within an area bounded by a line 
beginning at Lat. 35[deg]59[min]32[sec] N., Long. 113[deg]20[min]28[sec] 
W.; west to Lat. 36[deg]00[min]55[sec] N., Long. 113[deg]42[min]09[sec] 
W.; southeast to Lat. 35[deg]59[min]57[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]41[min]09[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]59[min]09[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]40[min]53[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]58[min]45[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]40[min]15[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]57[min]52[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]39[min]34[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]56[min]44[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]39[min]07[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]56[min]04[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]39[min]20[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]55[min]02[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]40[min]43[sec] W.; to Lat. 35[deg]54[min]47[sec] N., Long. 
113[deg]40[min]51[sec] W.; southeast to Lat. 35[deg]50[min]16[sec] N., 
Long. 113[deg]37[min]13[sec] W.; thence along the park boundary to the 
point of origin.

[Doc. No. 28537, 61 FR 69330, Dec. 31, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 93-80, 
65 FR 17742, Apr. 4, 2000]

    Effective Date Note: By Doc. No. FAA-2001-8690, 68 FR 9498, Feb. 27, 
2003, Sec. 93.305 was amended by staying paragraphs (a) and (b), 
effective Feb. 20, 2003, until Feb. 20, 2006. At 71 FR 9441, Feb. 24, 
2006, the stay was further extended until Feb. 20, 2011.



Sec. 93.307  Minimum flight altitudes.

    Except in an emergency, or if otherwise necessary for safety of 
flight, or unless otherwise authorized by the Flight Standards District 
Office for a purpose listed in 93.309, no person may operate an aircraft 
in the Special Flight Rules Area at an altitude lower than the 
following:
    (a) Minimum sector altitudes--(1) Commercial air tours--(i) Marble 
Canyon Sector. Lees Ferry to Boundary Ridge: 6,000 feet MSL.
    (ii) Supai Sector. Boundary Ridge to Supai Point: 7,500 feet MSL.

[[Page 899]]

    (iii) Diamond Creek Sector. Supai Point to Diamond Creek: 6,500 feet 
MSL.
    (iv) Pearce Ferry Sector. Diamond Creek to the Grand Wash Cliffs: 
5,000 feet MSL.
    (2) Transient and general aviation operations--(i) Marble Canyon 
Sector. Lees Ferry to Boundary Ridge: 8,000 feet MSL.
    (ii) Supai Sector. Boundary Ridge to Supai Point: 10,000 feet MSL.
    (iii) Diamond Creek Sector. Supai Point to Diamond Creek: 9,000 feet 
MSL.
    (iv) Pearce Ferry Sector. Diamond Creek to the Grand Wash Cliffs: 
8,000 feet MSL.
    (b) Minimum corridor altitudes--(1) Commercial air tours--(i) Zuni 
Point Corridors. 7,500 feet MSL.
    (ii) Dragon Corridor. 7,500 feet MSL.
    (2) Transient and general aviation operations--(i) Zuni Point 
Corridor. 10,500 feet MSL.
    (ii) Dragon Corridor. 10,500 feet MSL.
    (iii) Tuckup Corridor. 10,500 feet MSL.
    (iv) Fossil Canyon Corridor. 10,500 feet

[Doc. No. 28537, 61 FR 69330, Dec. 31, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 93-80, 
65 FR 17742, 17743, Apr. 4, 2000]



Sec. 93.309  General operating procedures.

    Except in an emergency, no person may operate an aircraft in the 
Special Flight Rules Area unless the operation is conducted in 
accordance with the following procedures. (Note: The following 
procedures do not relieve the pilot from see-and-avoid responsibility or 
compliance with the minimum safe altitude requirements specified in 
Sec. 91.119 of this chapter.):
    (a) Unless necessary to maintain a safe distance from other aircraft 
or terrain remain clear of the flight-free zones described in Sec. 
93.305;
    (b) Unless necessary to maintain a safe distance from other aircraft 
or terrain, proceed through the Zuni Point, Dragon, Tuckup, and Fossil 
Canyon Flight Corridors described in Sec. 93.305 at the following 
altitudes unless otherwise authorized in writing by the Flight Standards 
District Office:
    (1) Northbound. 11,500 or 13,500 feet MSL.
    (2) Southbound. 10,500 or 12,500 feet MSL.
    (c) For operation in the flight-free zones described in Sec. 
93.305, or flight below the altitudes listed in Sec. 93.307, is 
authorized in writing by the Flight Standards District Office and is 
conducted in compliance with the conditions contained in that 
authorization. Normally authorization will be granted for operation in 
the areas described in Sec. 93.305 or below the altitudes listed in 
Sec. 93.307 only for operations of aircraft necessary for law 
enforcement, firefighting, emergency medical treatment/evacuation of 
persons in the vicinity of the Park; for support of Park maintenance or 
activities; or for aerial access to and maintenance of other property 
located within the Special Flight Rules Area. Authorization may be 
issued on a continuing basis;
    (d) Is conducted in accordance with a specific authorization to 
operate in that airspace incorporated in the operator's operations 
specifications and approved by the Flight Standards District Office in 
accordance with the provisions of this subpart;
    (e) Is a search and rescue mission directed by the U.S. Air Force 
Rescue Coordination Center;
    (f) Is conducted within 3 nautical miles of Grand Canyon Bar Ten 
Airstrip, Pearce Ferry Airstrip, Cliff Dwellers Airstrip, Marble Canyon 
Airstrip, or Tuweep Airstrip at an altitude less than 3,000 feet above 
airport elevation, for the purpose of landing at or taking off from that 
facility; or
    (g) Is conducted under an instrument flight rules (IFR) clearance 
and the pilot is acting in accordance with ATC instructions. An IFR 
flight plan may not be filed on a route or at an altitude that would 
require operation in an area described in Sec. 93.305.

[Doc. No. 28537, 61 FR 69330, Dec. 31, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 93-80, 
65 FR 17742, 17743, Apr. 4, 2000]



Sec. 93.311  Minimum terrain clearance.

    Except in an emergency, when necessary for takeoff or landing, or 
unless otherwise authorized by the Flight Standards District Office for 
a purpose listed in Sec. 93.309(c), no person may operate an aircraft 
within 500 feet of any terrain or structure located between

[[Page 900]]

the north and south rims of the Grand Canyon.



Sec. 93.313  Communications.

    Except when in contact with the Grand Canyon National Park Airport 
Traffic Control Tower during arrival or departure or on a search and 
rescue mission directed by the U.S. Air Force Rescue Coordination 
Center, no person may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules 
Area unless he monitors the appropriate frequency continuously while in 
that airspace.



Sec. 93.315  Requirements for commercial Special Flight Rules Area operations.

    Each person conducting commercial Special Flight Rules Area 
operations must be certificated in accordance with Part 119 for Part 135 
or 121 operations and hold appropriate Grand Canyon National Park 
Special Flight Rules Area operations specifications.

[65 FR 17732, Apr. 4, 2000]



Sec. 93.316  [Reserved]



Sec. 93.317  Commercial Special Flight Rules Area operation curfew.

    Unless otherwise authorized by the Flight Standards District Office, 
no person may conduct a commercial Special Flight Rules Area operation 
in the Dragon and Zuni Point corridors during the following flight-free 
periods:
    (a) Summer season (May 1-September 30)-6 p.m. to 8 a.m. daily; and
    (b) Winter season (October 1-April 30)-5 p.m. to 9 a.m. daily.

[65 FR 17732, Apr. 4, 2000]



Sec. 93.319  Commercial air tour limitations.

    (a) Unless excepted under paragraph (f) or (g) of this section, no 
certificate holder certificated in accordance with part 119 for part 121 
or 135 operations may conduct more commercial air tours in the Grand 
Canyon National Park in any calendar year than the number of allocations 
specified on the certificate holder's operations specifications.
    (b) The Administrator determines the number of initial allocations 
for each certificate holder based on the total number of commercial air 
tours conducted by the certificate holder and reported to the FAA during 
the period beginning on May 1, 1997 and ending on April 30, 1998, unless 
excepted under paragraph (g).
    (c) Certificate holders who conducted commercial air tours during 
the base year and reported them to the FAA receive an initial 
allocation.
    (d) A certificate holder must use one allocation for each flight 
that is a commercial air tour, unless excepted under paragraph (f) or 
(g) of this section.
    (e) Each certificate holder's operation specifications will identify 
the following information, as applicable:
    (1) Total SFRA allocations; and
    (2) Dragon corridor and Zuni Point corridor allocations.
    (f) Certificate holders satisfying the requirements of Sec. 93.315 
of this subpart are not required to use a commercial air tour allocation 
for each commercial air tour flight in the GCNP SFRA provided the 
following conditions are satisfied:
    (1) The certificate holder conducts its operations in conformance 
with the routes and airspace authorizations as specified in its Grand 
Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area operations 
specifications;
    (2) The certificate holder must have executed a written contract 
with the Hualapai Indian Nation which grants the certificate holder a 
trespass permit and specifies the maximum number of flights to be 
permitted to land at Grand Canyon West Airport and at other sites 
located in the vicinity of that airport and operates in compliance with 
that contract; and
    (3) The certificate holder must have a valid operations 
specification that authorizes the certificate holder to conduct the 
operations specified in the contract with the Hualapai Indian Nation and 
specifically approves the number of operations that may transit the 
Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area under this 
exception.
    (g) Certificate holders conducting commercial air tours at or above 
14,500 feet MSL but below 18,000 feet MSL who did not receive initial 
allocations in 1999 because they were not required to report during the 
base year may operate without an allocation when conducting air tours at 
those altitudes.

[[Page 901]]

Certificate holders conducting commercial air tours in the area affected 
by the eastward shift of the SFRA who did not receive initial 
allocations in 1999 because they were not required to report during the 
base year may continue to operate on the specified routes without an 
allocation in the area bounded by longitude line 111 degrees 42 minutes 
east and longitude line 111 degrees 36 minutes east. This exception does 
not include operation in the Zuni Point corridor.

[65 FR 17732, Apr. 4, 2000]



Sec. 93.321  Transfer and termination of allocations.

    (a) Allocations are not a property interest; they are an operating 
privilege subject to absolute FAA control.
    (b) Allocations are subject to the following conditions:
    (1) The Administrator will re-authorize and re-distribute 
allocations no earlier than two years from the effective date of this 
rule.
    (2) Allocations that are held by the FAA at the time of reallocation 
may be distributed among remaining certificate holders, proportionate to 
the size of each certificate holder's allocation.
    (3) The aggregate SFRA allocations will not exceed the number of 
operations reported to the FAA for the base year beginning on May 1, 
1997 and ending on April 30, 1998, except as adjusted to incorporate 
operations occurring for the base year of April 1, 2000 and ending on 
March 31, 2001, that operate at or above 14,500 feet MSL and below 
18,000 feet MSL and operations in the area affected by the eastward 
shift of the SFRA bounded by longitude line 111 degrees 42 minutes east 
to longitude 111 degrees 36 minutes east.
    (4) Allocations may be transferred among Part 135 or Part 121 
certificate holders, subject to all of the following:
    (i) Such transactions are subject to all other applicable 
requirements of this chapter.
    (ii) Allocations authorizing commercial air tours outside the Dragon 
and Zuni Point corridors may not be transferred into the Dragon and Zuni 
Point corridors. Allocations authorizing commercial air tours within the 
Dragon and Zuni Point corridors may be transferred outside of the Dragon 
and Zuni Point corridors.
    (iii) A certificate holder must notify in writing the Las Vegas 
Flight Standards District Office within 10 calendar days of a transfer 
of allocations. This notification must identify the parties involved, 
the type of transfer (permanent or temporary) and the number of 
allocations transferred. Permanent transfers are not effective until the 
Flight Standards District Office reissues the operations specifications 
reflecting the transfer. Temporary transfers are effective upon 
notification.
    (5) An allocation will revert to the FAA upon voluntary cessation of 
commercial air tours within the SFRA for any consecutive 180-day period 
unless the certificate holder notifies the FSDO in writing, prior to the 
expiration of the 180-day time period, of the following: the reason why 
the certificate holder has not conducted any commercial air tours during 
the consecutive 180-day period; and the date the certificate holder 
intends on resuming commercial air tours operations. The FSDO will 
notify the certificate holder of any extension to the consecutive 180-
days. A certificate holder may be granted one extension.
    (6) The FAA retains the right to re-distribute, reduce, or revoke 
allocations based on:
    (i) Efficiency of airspace;
    (ii) Voluntary surrender of allocations;
    (iii) Involuntary cessation of operations; and
    (iv) Aviation safety.

[65 FR 17733, Apr. 4, 2000]



Sec. 93.323  Flight plans.

    Each certificate holder conducting a commercial SFRA operation must 
file a visual flight rules (VFR) flight plan in accordance with Sec. 
91.153. This section does not apply to operations conducted in 
accordance with Sec. 93.309(g). The flight plan must be on file with a 
FAA Flight Service Station prior to each flight. Each VFR flight plan 
must identify the purpose of the flight in the ``remarks'' section 
according to one of the types set forth in the ``Las Vegas Flight 
Standards District Office Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight 
Rules Area Procedures Manual'' which

[[Page 902]]

is available from the Las Vegas Flight Standards District Office.

[65 FR 17733, Apr. 4, 2000]



Sec. 93.325  Quarterly reporting.

    (a) Each certificate holder must submit in writing, within 30 days 
of the end of each calendar quarter, the total number of commercial SFRA 
operations conducted for that quarter. Quarterly reports must be filed 
with the Las Vegas Flight Standards District Office.
    (b) Each quarterly report must contain the following information.
    (1) Make and model of aircraft;
    (2) Identification number (registration number) for each aircraft;
    (3) Departure airport for each segment flown;
    (4) Departure date and actual Universal Coordinated Time, as 
applicable for each segment flown;
    (5) Type of operation; and
    (6) Route(s) flown.

[65 FR 17733, Apr. 4, 2000]

[[Page 903]]



   Sec. Appendix to Subpart U of Part 93--Special Flight Rules in the 

             Vicinity of the Grand Canyon National Park, AZ

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.001



Sec. Appendix A to Subpart U of Part 93--GCNP Quiet Aircraft Technology 

                               Designation

    This appendix contains procedures for determining the GCNP quiet 
aircraft technology designation status for each aircraft subject to 
Sec. 93.301 determined during the noise certification process as 
prescribed under part 36 of this chapter. Where no certificated noise 
level is available, the Administrator may approve an alternative 
measurement procedure.
    Aircraft Noise Limit for GCNP Quiet Aircraft Technology Designation

[[Page 904]]

    A. For helicopters with a flyover noise level obtained in accordance 
with the measurement procedures prescribed in Appendix H of 14 CFR part 
36, the limit is 80 dB for helicopters having a seating configuration of 
two or fewer passenger seats, increasing at 3 dB per doubling of the 
number of passenger seats for helicopters having a seating configuration 
of three or more passenger seats. The noise limit for helicopters with 
three or more passenger seats can be calculated by the formula:

EPNL(H) = 80 +10log( PAX seats/2) dB

    B. For helicopters with a flyover noise level obtained in accordance 
with the measurement procedures prescribed in Appendix J of 14 CFR part 
36, the limit is 77 dB for helicopters having a seating configuration of 
two or fewer passenger seats, increasing at 3 dB per doubling of the 
number of passenger seats for helicopters having a seating configuration 
of three or more passenger seats. The noise limit for helicopters with 
three or more passenger seats can be calculated by the formula:

SEL(J) = 77 + 10log( PAX seats/2) dB

    C. For propeller-driven airplanes with a measured flyover noise 
level obtained in accordance with the measurement procedures prescribed 
in Appendix F of 14 CFR part 36 without the performance correction 
defined in Sec. F35.201(c), the limit is 69 dB for airplanes having a 
seating configuration of two or fewer passenger seats, increasing at 3 
dB per doubling of the number of passenger seats for airplanes having a 
seating configuration of three or more passenger seats. The noise limit 
for propeller-driven airplanes with three or more passenger seats can be 
calculated by the formula:

LAmax(F) = 69 + 10log( PAX seats/2) dB

    D. In the event that a flyover noise level is not available in 
accordance with Appendix F of 14 CFR part 36, the noise limit for 
propeller-driven airplanes with a takeoff noise level obtained in 
accordance with the measurement procedures prescribed in Appendix G is 
74 dB or 77 dB, depending on 14 CFR part 36 amendment level, for 
airplanes having a seating configuration of two or fewer passenger 
seats, increasing at 3 dB per doubling of the number of passenger seats 
for airplanes having a seating configuration of three or more passenger 
seats. The noise limit for propeller-driven airplanes with three or more 
passenger seats can be calculated by the formula:

LAmax(G) = 74 + 10log( PAX seats/2) dB for certifications 
          obtained under 14 CFR part 36, Amendment 21 or earlier;

LAmax(G) = 77 + 10log( PAX seats/2) dB for certifications 
          obtained under 14 CFR part 36, Amendment 22 or later.

[FAA-2003-14715, 70 FR 16092, Mar. 29, 2005]



  Subpart V_Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area

    Source: Doc. No. FAA-2004-17005, 73 FR 76213, Dec. 16, 2008, unless 
otherwise noted.

    Effective Date Note: At 73 FR 76213, Dec. 16, 2008, subpart V was 
added, effective Feb. 17, 2009.



Sec. 93.331  Purpose and applicability of this subpart.

    This subpart prescribes special air traffic rules for aircraft 
operating in the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area. Because 
identification and control of aircraft is required for reasons of 
national security, the areas described in this subpart constitute 
national defense airspace. The purpose of establishing this area is to 
facilitate the tracking of, and communication with, aircraft to deter 
persons who would use an aircraft as a weapon, or as a means of 
delivering weapons, to conduct an attack on persons, property, or 
buildings in the area. This subpart applies to pilots conducting any 
type of flight operations in the airspace designated as the Washington, 
DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area (DC SFRA) (as defined in 
Sec. 93.335), which includes the airspace designated as the Washington, 
DC Metropolitan Area Flight Restricted Zone (DC FRZ) (as defined in 
Sec. 93.335).



Sec. 93.333  Failure to comply with this subpart.

    (a) Any violation. The FAA may take civil enforcement action against 
a pilot for violations, whether inadvertent or intentional, including 
imposition of civil penalties and suspension or revocation of airmen's 
certificates.
    (b) Knowing or willful violations. The DC FRZ and DC SFRA were 
established for reasons of national security under the provisions of 49 
U.S.C. 40103(b)(3). Areas established by the FAA under that authority 
constitute ``national defense airspace'' as that term is used in 49 
U.S.C. 46307. In addition to being subject to the provisions of 
paragraph (a) of this section, persons who knowingly or willfully 
violate national defense airspace established pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 
40103(b)(3) may be subject to criminal prosecution.

[[Page 905]]



Sec. 93.335  Definitions.

    For purposes of this subpart--
    DC FRZ flight plan is a flight plan filed for the sole purpose of 
complying with the requirements for VFR operations into, out of, and 
through the DC FRZ. This flight plan is separate and distinct from a 
standard VFR flight plan, and does not include search and rescue 
services.
    DC SFRA flight plan is a flight plan filed for the sole purpose of 
complying with the requirements for VFR operations into, out of, and 
through the DC SFRA. This flight plan is separate and distinct from a 
standard VFR flight plan, and does not include search and rescue 
services.
    Fringe airports are the following airports located near the outer 
boundary of the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules 
Area: Barnes (MD47), Flying M Farms (MD77), Mountain Road (MD43), 
Robinson (MD14), and Skyview (51VA).
    Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Flight Restricted Zone (DC FRZ) is 
an area bounded by a line beginning at the Washington VOR/DME (DCA) 
311[deg] radial at 15 nautical miles (NM) (Lat. 38[deg]59[min]31[sec] 
N., Long. 077[deg]18[min]30[sec] W.); then clockwise along the DCA 15 
nautical mile arc to the DCA 002[deg] radial at 15 NM (Lat. 
39[deg]06[min]28[sec] N., Long 077[deg]04[min]32[sec] W.); then 
southeast via a line drawn to the DCA 049[deg] radial at 14 NM (Lat. 
39[deg]02[min]18[sec] N., Long. 076[deg]50[min]38[sec] W.); thence south 
via a line drawn to the DCA 064[deg] radial at 13 NM (Lat. 
38[deg]59[min]01[sec] N., Long. 076[deg]48[min]32[sec] W.); thence 
clockwise along the 13 NM arc to the DCA 276[deg] radial at 13 NM 
(Lat.38[deg]50[min]53[sec] N., Long 077[deg]18[min]48[sec] W.); thence 
north to the point of beginning, excluding the airspace within a one 
nautical mile radius of the Freeway Airport, W00, Mitchellville, MD from 
the surface up to but not including flight level (FL) 180. The DC FRZ is 
within and part of the Washington, DC Metropolitan Area SFRA.
    Washington, DC Metropolitan Area Special Flight Rules Area (DC SFRA) 
is an area of airspace over the surface of the earth where the ready 
identification, location, and control of aircraft is required in the 
interests of national security. Specifically, the DC SFRA is that 
airspace, from the surface to, but not including, FL 180, within a 30-
mile radius of Lat. 38[deg]51[min]34[sec] N., Long. 
077[deg]02[min]11[sec] W., or the DCA VOR/DME. The DC SFRA includes the 
DC FRZ.

[Doc. No. FAA-2004-17005, 73 FR 76213, Dec. 16, 2008; Amdt. 93-91, 73 FR 
79314, Dec. 29, 2008]



Sec. 93.337  Requirements for operating in the DC SFRA.

    A pilot conducting any type of flight operation in the DC SFRA must 
comply with the restrictions listed in this subpart and all special 
instructions issued by the FAA in the interest of national security. 
Those special instructions may be issued in any manner the FAA considers 
appropriate, including a NOTAM. Additionally, a pilot must comply with 
all of the applicable requirements of this chapter.



Sec. 93.339  Requirements for operating in the DC SFRA, including the DC FRZ.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and 
in Sec. 93.345, or unless authorized by Air Traffic Control, no pilot 
may operate an aircraft, including an ultralight vehicle or any civil 
aircraft or public aircraft, in the DC SFRA, including the DC FRZ, 
unless--
    (1) The aircraft is equipped with an operable two-way radio capable 
of communicating with Air Traffic Control on appropriate radio 
frequencies;
    (2) Before operating an aircraft in the DC SFRA, including the DC 
FRZ, the pilot establishes two-way radio communications with the 
appropriate Air Traffic Control facility and maintains such 
communications while operating the aircraft in the DC SFRA, including 
the DC FRZ;
    (3) The aircraft is equipped with an operating automatic altitude 
reporting transponder;
    (4) Before operating an aircraft in the DC SFRA, including the DC 
FRZ, the pilot obtains and transmits a discrete transponder code from 
Air Traffic Control, and the aircraft's transponder continues to 
transmit the assigned code while operating within the DC SFRA;
    (5) For VFR operations, the pilot must file and activate a DC FRZ or 
DC SFRA flight plan by obtaining a discrete transponder code. The flight 
plan

[[Page 906]]

is closed upon landing at an airport within the DC SFRA or when the 
aircraft exits the DC SFRA;
    (6) Before operating the aircraft into, out of, or through the 
Washington, DC Tri-Area Class B Airspace Area, the pilot receives a 
specific Air Traffic Control clearance to operate in the Class B 
airspace area; and
    (7) Before operating the aircraft into, out of, or through Class D 
airspace area that is within the DC SFRA, the pilot complies with Sec. 
91.129 of this chapter.
    (b) Paragraph (a)(5) of this section does not apply to operators of 
Department of Defense aircraft, law enforcement operations, or lifeguard 
or air ambulance operations under an FAA/TSA airspace authorization, if 
the flight crew is in contact with Air Traffic Control and is 
transmitting an Air Traffic Control-assigned discrete transponder code.
    (c) When operating an aircraft in the VFR traffic pattern at an 
airport within the DC SFRA (but not within the DC FRZ) that does not 
have an airport traffic control tower, a pilot must--
    (1) File a DC SFRA flight plan for traffic pattern work;
    (2) Communicate traffic pattern position via the published Common 
Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF);
    (3) Monitor VHF frequency 121.5 or UHF frequency 243.0, if the 
aircraft is suitably equipped;
    (4) Obtain and transmit the Air Traffic Control-assigned discrete 
transponder code; and
    (5) When exiting the VFR traffic pattern, comply with paragraphs 
(a)(1) through (a)(7) of this section.
    (d) When operating an aircraft in the VFR traffic pattern at an 
airport within the DC SFRA (but not within the DC FRZ) that has an 
operating airport traffic control tower, a pilot must--
    (1) Before departure or before entering the traffic pattern, request 
to remain in the traffic pattern;
    (2) Remain in two-way radio communications with the tower. If the 
aircraft is suitably equipped, the pilot must also monitor VHF frequency 
121.5 or UHF frequency 243.0;
    (3) Continuously operate the aircraft transponder on code 1234 
unless Air Traffic Control assigns a different code; and
    (4) Before exiting the traffic pattern, comply with paragraphs 
(a)(1) through (a)(7) of this section.
    (e) Pilots must transmit the assigned transponder code. No pilot may 
use transponder code 1200 while in the DC SFRA.



Sec. 93.341  Aircraft operations in the DC FRZ.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no pilot 
may conduct any flight operation under part 91, 101, 103, 105, 125, 133, 
135, or 137 of this chapter in the DC FRZ, unless the specific flight is 
operating under an FAA/TSA authorization.
    (b) Department of Defense (DOD) operations, law enforcement 
operations, and lifeguard or air ambulance operations under an FAA/TSA 
airspace authorization are excepted from the prohibition in paragraph 
(a) of this section if the pilot is in contact with Air Traffic Control 
and operates the aircraft transponder on an Air Traffic Control-assigned 
beacon code.
    (c) The following aircraft operations are permitted in the DC FRZ:
    (1) Aircraft operations under the DCA Access Standard Security 
Program (DASSP) (49 CFR part 1562) with a Transportation Security 
Administration (TSA) flight authorization.
    (2) Law enforcement and other U.S. Federal aircraft operations with 
prior FAA approval.
    (3) Foreign-operated military and state aircraft operations with a 
State Department-authorized diplomatic clearance, with State Department 
notification to the FAA and TSA.
    (4) Federal, State, Federal DOD contract, local government agency 
aircraft operations and part 121, 129 or 135 air carrier flights with 
TSA-approved full aircraft operator standard security programs/
procedures, if operating with DOD permission and notification to the FAA 
and the National Capital Regional Coordination Center (NCRCC). These 
flights may land and depart Andrews Air Force Base, MD, with prior 
permission, if required.
    (5) Aircraft operations maintaining radio contact with Air Traffic 
Control and continuously transmitting an Air

[[Page 907]]

Traffic Control-assigned discrete transponder code. The pilot must 
monitor VHF frequency 121.5 or UHF frequency 243.0.
    (d) Before departing from an airport within the DC FRZ, or before 
entering the DC FRZ, all aircraft, except DOD, law enforcement, and 
lifeguard or air ambulance aircraft operating under an FAA/TSA airspace 
authorization must file and activate an IFR or a DC FRZ or a DC SFRA 
flight plan and transmit a discrete transponder code assigned by an Air 
Traffic Control facility. Aircraft must transmit the discrete 
transponder code at all times while in the DC FRZ or DC SFRA.



Sec. 93.343  Requirements for aircraft operations to or from College Park 

Airport, Potomac Airfield, or Washington Executive/Hyde Field Airport.

    (a) A pilot may not operate an aircraft to or from College Park 
Airport, MD, Potomac Airfield, MD, or Washington Executive/Hyde Field 
Airport, MD unless--
    (1) The aircraft and its crew and passengers comply with security 
rules issued by the TSA in 49 CFR part 1562, subpart A;
    (2) Before departing, the pilot files an IFR or DC FRZ or DC SFRA 
flight plan with the Washington Hub Flight Service Station (FSS) for 
each departure and arrival from/to College Park, Potomac Airfield, and 
Washington Executive/Hyde Field airports, whether or not the aircraft 
makes an intermediate stop;
    (3) When filing a flight plan with the Washington Hub FSS, the pilot 
identifies himself or herself by providing the assigned pilot 
identification code. The Washington Hub FSS will accept the flight plan 
only after verifying the code; and
    (4) The pilot complies with the applicable IFR or VFR egress 
procedures in paragraph (b), (c) or (d) of this section.
    (b) If using IFR procedures, a pilot must--
    (1) Obtain an Air Traffic Control clearance from the Potomac TRACON; 
and
    (2) Comply with Air Traffic Control departure instructions from 
Washington Executive/Hyde Field, Potomac Airport, or College Park 
Airport. The pilot must then proceed on the Air Traffic Control-assigned 
course and remain clear of the DC FRZ.
    (c) If using VFR egress procedures, a pilot must--
    (1) Depart as instructed by Air Traffic Control and expect a heading 
directly out of the DC FRZ until the pilot establishes two-way radio 
communication with Potomac Approach; and
    (2) Operate as assigned by Air Traffic Control until clear of the DC 
FRZ, the DC SFRA, and the Class B or Class D airspace area.
    (d) If using VFR ingress procedures, the aircraft must remain 
outside the DC SFRA until the pilot establishes communications with Air 
Traffic Control and receives authorization for the aircraft to enter the 
DC SFRA.
    (e) VFR arrivals:
    (1) If landing at College Park Airport a pilot may receive routing 
via the vicinity of Freeway Airport; or
    (2) If landing at Washington Executive/Hyde Field or Potomac 
Airport, the pilot may receive routing via the vicinity of Maryland 
Airport or the Nottingham VORTAC.



Sec. 93.345  VFR outbound procedures for fringe airports.

    (a) A pilot may depart from a fringe airport as defined in Sec. 
93.335 without filing a flight plan or communicating with Air Traffic 
Control, unless requested, provided:
    (1) The aircraft's transponder transmits code 1205;
    (2) The pilot exits the DC SFRA by the most direct route before 
proceeding on course; and
    (3) The pilot monitors VHF frequency 121.5 or UHF frequency 243.0.
    (b) No pilot may operate an aircraft arriving at a fringe airport or 
transit the DC SFRA unless that pilot complies with the DC SFRA 
operating procedures in this subpart.



PART 95_IFR ALTITUDES--Table of Contents




Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97 [Note]

                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
95.1 Applicability.

[[Page 908]]

95.3 Symbols.

                 Subpart B_Designated Mountainous Areas

95.11 General.
95.13 Eastern United States Mountainous Area.
95.15 Western United States Mountainous Area.
95.17 Alaska Mountainous Area.
95.19 Hawaii Mountainous Area.
95.21 Puerto Rico Mountainous Area.

      Subpart C_En Route IFR Altitudes Over Particular Routes and 
                              Intersections

95.31 General.

                       Subpart D_Changeover Points

95.8001 General.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40103, 40113, and 14 CFR 11.49(b)(2).



             Sec. Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97

    Editorial Note: For the text of SFAR No. 97, see part 91 of this 
chapter.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 95.1  Applicability.

    (a) This part prescribes altitudes governing the operation of 
aircraft under IFR on ATS routes, or other direct routes for which an 
MEA is designated in this part. In addition, it designates mountainous 
areas and changeover points.
    (b) The MAA is the highest altitude on an ATS route, or other direct 
route for which an MEA is designated, at which adequate reception of VOR 
signals is assured.
    (c) The MCA applies to the operation of an aircraft proceeding to a 
higher minimum en route altitude when crossing specified fixes.
    (d) The MEA is the minimum en route IFR altitude on an ATS route, 
ATS route segment, or other direct route. The MEA applies to the entire 
width of the ATS route, ATS route segment, or other direct route between 
fixes defining that route. Unless otherwise specified, an MEA prescribed 
for an off airway route or route segment applies to the airspace 4 
nautical miles on each side of a direct course between the navigation 
fixes defining that route or route segment.
    (e) The MOCA assures obstruction clearance on an ATS route, ATS 
route segment, or other direct route, and adequate reception of VOR 
navigation signals within 22 nautical miles of a VOR station used to 
define the route.
    (f) The MRA applies to the operation of an aircraft over an 
intersection defined by ground-based navigation aids. The MRA is the 
lowest altitude at which the intersection can be determined using the 
ground-based navigation aids.
    (g) The changeover point (COP) applies to operation of an aircraft 
along a Federal airway, jet route, or other direct route; for which an 
MEA is designated in this part. It is the point for transfer of the 
airborne navigation reference from the ground-based navigation aid 
behind the aircraft to the next appropriate ground-based navigation aid 
to ensure continuous reception of signals.

[Doc. No. FAA-2003-14698, 68 FR 16947, Apr. 8, 2003]



Sec. 95.3  Symbols.

    For the purposes of this part--
    (a) COP means changeover point.
    (b) L means compass locator;
    (c) LF/MF means low frequency, medium frequency;
    (d) LFR means low frequency radio range;
    (e) VOR-E means VOR and distance measuring equipment; and
    (f) Z means a very high frequency location marker.

[Doc. No. 1580, 28 FR 6718, June 29, 1963, as amended by Amdt. 95-118, 
29 FR 13166, Sept. 23, 1964]



                 Subpart B_Designated Mountainous Areas



Sec. 95.11  General.

    The areas described in this subpart are designated mountainous 
areas.

[Doc. No. 1580, 28 FR 6718, June 29, 1963]



Sec. 95.13  Eastern United States Mountainous Area.

    All of the following area excluding those portions specified in the 
exceptions.
    (a) Area.

[[Page 909]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.005

    Beginning at latitude 47[deg]10[min] N., longitude 67[deg]55[min] 
W.; thence west and south along the Canadian Border to latitude 
45[deg]00[min] N., longitude 74[deg]15[min] W.; thence to latitude 
44[deg]20[min] N., longitude 75[deg]30[min] W.; thence to latitude 
43[deg]05[min] N., longitude 75[deg]30[min] W.; thence to latitude 
42[deg]57[min] N., longitude 77[deg]30[min] W.; thence to latitude 
42[deg]52[min] N., longitude 78[deg]42[min] W.; thence to

[[Page 910]]

latitude 42[deg]26[min] N., longitude 79[deg]13[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 42[deg]05[min] N., longitude 80[deg]00[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 40[deg]50[min] N., longitude 80[deg]00[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 40[deg]26[min] N., longitude 79[deg]54[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 38[deg]25[min] N., longitude 81[deg]46[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 36[deg]00[min] N., longitude 86[deg]00[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 33[deg]37[min] N., longitude 86[deg]45[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 32[deg]30[min] N., longitude 86[deg]25[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 33[deg]22[min] N., longitude 85[deg]00[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 36[deg]35[min] N., longitude 79[deg]20[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 40[deg]11[min] N., longitude 76[deg]24[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 41[deg]24[min] N., longitude 74[deg]30[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 41[deg]43[min] N., longitude 72[deg]40[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 42[deg]13[min] N., longitude 72[deg]44[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 43[deg]12[min] N., longitude 71[deg]30[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 43[deg]45[min] N., longitude 70[deg]30[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 45[deg]00[min] N., longitude 69[deg]30[min] W.; thence to 
latitude 47[deg]10[min] N., longitude 67[deg]55[min] W., point of 
beginning.

    (b) Exceptions. The area bounded by the following coordinates:

    Beginning at latitude 45[deg]00[min] N., longitude 73[deg]26[min] 
W.; thence to latitude 44[deg]32[min] N., longitude 73[deg]04[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 42[deg]51[min] N., longitude 73[deg]41[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 41[deg]38[min] N., longitude 73[deg]46[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 41[deg]16[min] N., longitude 73[deg]50[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 41[deg]17[min] N., longitude 74[deg]00[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 41[deg]25[min] N., longitude 73[deg]58[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 41[deg]26[min] N., longitude 74[deg]01[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 41[deg]37[min] N., longitude 73[deg]58[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 42[deg]41[min] N., longitude 73[deg]55[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 43[deg]02[min] N., longitude 76[deg]15[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 43[deg]17[min] N., longitude 75[deg]21[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 42[deg]59[min] N., longitude 74[deg]43[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 42[deg]52[min] N., longitude 73[deg]53[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 44[deg]30[min] N., longitude 73[deg]18[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 45[deg]00[min] N., longitude 73[deg]39[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 45[deg]00[min] N., longitude 73[deg]26[min] W., point 
of beginning.

[21 FR 2750, Apr. 28, 1956. Redesignated by Amdt. 1-1, 28 FR 6718, June 
29, 1963, as amended at 73 FR 63885, Oct. 28, 2008]



Sec. 95.15  Western United States Mountainous Area.

    All of the following area excluding that portion specified in the 
exceptions:
    (a) Area. From the Pacific coastline of the United States, eastward 
along the Canadian and Mexican borders, to the following coordinates:

    Beginning at latitude 49[deg]00[min] N., longitude 108[deg]00[min] 
W.; thence to latitude 46[deg]45[min] N., longitude 104[deg]00[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 44[deg]06[min] N., longitude 103[deg]15[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 43[deg]00[min] N., longitude 103[deg]15[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 41[deg]52[min] N., longitude 103[deg]39[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 35[deg]11[min] N., longitude 103[deg]39[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 33[deg]17[min] N., longitude 104[deg]27[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 32[deg]17[min] N., longitude 104[deg]14[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 29[deg]48[min] N., longitude 102[deg]00[min] W.

    (b) Exceptions.

    (1) Beginning at latitude 35[deg]25[min] N., longitude 
119[deg]09[min] W.; thence to latitude 35[deg]29[min] N., longitude 
118[deg]58[min] W.; thence to latitude 36[deg]49[min] N., longitude 
119[deg]37[min] W.; thence to latitude 38[deg]30[min] N., longitude 
121[deg]24[min] W.; thence to latitude 39[deg]30[min] N., longitude 
121[deg]32[min] W.; thence to latitude 40[deg]08[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]08[min] W.; thence to latitude 40[deg]06[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]20[min] W.; thence to latitude 39[deg]05[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]12[min] W.; thence to latitude 38[deg]01[min] N., longitude 
121[deg]51[min] W.; thence to latitude 37[deg]37[min] N., longitude 
121[deg]12[min] W.; thence to latitude 37[deg]00[min] N., longitude 
120[deg]58[min] W.; thence to latitude 36[deg]14[min] N., longitude 
120[deg]11[min] W., point of beginning.
    (2) Beginning at latitude 49[deg]00[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]21[min] W.; thence to latitude 48[deg]34[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]21[min] W.; thence to latitude 48[deg]08[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]00[min] W.; thence to latitude 47[deg]12[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]00[min] W.; thence to latitude 46[deg]59[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]13[min] W.; thence to latitude 46[deg]52[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]16[min] W.; thence to latitude 46[deg]50[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]40[min] W.; thence to latitude 46[deg]35[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]48[min] W.; thence to latitude 46[deg]35[min] N., longitude 
123[deg]17[min] W.; thence to latitude 47[deg]15[min] N., longitude 
123[deg]17[min] W.; thence to latitude 47[deg]41[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]54[min] W.; thence to latitude 48[deg]03[min] N., longitude 
122[deg]48[min] W.; thence to latitude 48[deg]17[min] N., longitude 
123[deg]15[min] W.; thence North and East along the United States and 
Canada Boundary to latitude 49[deg]00[min] N., longitude 122[deg]21[min] 
W., point of beginning.

[21 FR 2750, Apr. 28, 1956. Redesignated by Amdt. 1-1, 28 FR 6718, June 
29, 1963, and amended by Amdt. 95-255, 40 FR 2579, Jan. 14, 1975]



Sec. 95.17  Alaska Mountainous Area.

    All of the following area excluding those portions specified in the 
exceptions:
    (a) Area. The State of Alaska.
    (b) Exceptions;
    (1) Fairbanks--Nenana Area. Beginning at latitude 64[deg]54[min] N, 
longitude 147[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 64[deg]50[min] N, 
longitude 151[deg]22[min] W, thence to latitude 63[deg]50[min] N, 
longitude 152[deg]50[min] W; thence to latitude 63[deg]30[min] N, 
longitude 152[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 63[deg]30[min] N, 
longitude 151[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 64[deg]05[min] N, 
longitude 150[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 64[deg]20[min] N, 
longitude 149[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 64[deg]07[min] N, 
longitude 146[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 63[deg]53[min] N, 
longitude 146[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 63[deg]53[min] N, 
longitude 145[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude

[[Page 911]]

64[deg]09[min] N, longitude 145[deg]16[min] W; thence to latitude 
64[deg]12[min] N, longitude 146[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 
64[deg]25[min] N, longitude 146[deg]37[min] W; thence to latitude 
64[deg]54[min] N, longitude 147[deg]00[min] W, point of beginning.
    (2) Anchorage--Homer Area. Beginning at latitude 61[deg]50[min] N, 
longitude 151[deg]12[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]24[min] N, 
longitude 150[deg]28[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]08[min] N, 
longitude 151[deg]47[min] W; thence to latitude 59[deg]49[min] N, 
longitude 152[deg]40[min] W; thence to latitude 59[deg]25[min] N, 
longitude 153[deg]10[min] W; thence to latitude 59[deg]00[min] N, 
longitude 153[deg]10[min] W; thence to latitude 59[deg]33[min] N, 
longitude 151[deg]28[min] W; thence to latitude 60[deg]31[min] N, 
longitude 150[deg]43[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]13[min] N, 
longitude 149[deg]39[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]37[min] N, 
longitude 149[deg]15[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]44[min] N, 
longitude 149[deg]48[min] W; thence to latitude 62[deg]23[min] N, 
longitude 149[deg]54[min] W; thence to latitude 62[deg]23[min] N, 
longitude 150[deg]14[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]50[min] N, 
longitude 151[deg]12[min] W, point of beginning.
    (3) King Salmon--Port Heiden Area. Beginning at latitude 
58[deg]49[min] N, longitude 159[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 
59[deg]40[min] N, longitude 157[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 
59[deg]40[min] N, longitude 155[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 
59[deg]50[min] N, longitude 154[deg]50[min] W; thence to latitude 
59[deg]35[min] N, longitude 154[deg]40[min] W; thence to latitude 
58[deg]57[min] N, longitude 156[deg]05[min] W; thence to latitude 
58[deg]00[min] N, longitude 156[deg]20[min] W; thence to latitude 
57[deg]00[min] N, longitude 158[deg]20[min] W; thence to latitude 
56[deg]43[min] N, longitude 158[deg]39[min] W; thence to latitude 
56[deg]27[min] N, longitude 160[deg]00[min] W; thence along the 
shoreline to latitude 58[deg]49[min] N, longitude 159[deg]30[min] W, 
point of beginning.
    (4) Bethel--Aniak Area. Beginning at latitude 63[deg]28[min] N, 
longitude 161[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 62[deg]40[min] N, 
longitude 163[deg]03[min] W; thence to latitude 62[deg]05[min] N, 
longitude 162[deg]38[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]51[min] N, 
longitude 160[deg]43[min] W; thence to latitude 62[deg]55[min] N, 
longitude 160[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 63[deg]00[min] N, 
longitude 158[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]45[min] N, 
longitude 159[deg]30[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]34[min] N, 
longitude 159[deg]15[min] W; thence to latitude 61[deg]07[min] N, 
longitude 160[deg]20[min] W; thence to latitude 60[deg]25[min] N, 
longitude 160[deg]40[min] W; thence to latitude 59[deg]36[min] N, 
longitude 161[deg]49[min] W; thence along the shoreline to latitude 
63[deg]28[min] N, longitude 161[deg]30[min] W; point of beginning; and 
Nunivak Island.
    (5) North Slope Area. Beginning at a point where latitude 
69[deg]30[min] N intersects the northwest coast of Alaska and eastward 
along the 69[deg]30[min] parallel to latitude 69[deg]30[min] N, 
longitude 156[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 69[deg]10[min] N, 
longitude 153[deg]00[min] W; thence eastward along the 69[deg]10[min] N 
parallel to latitude 69[deg]10[min] N, longitude 149[deg]00[min] W; 
thence to latitude 69[deg]50[min] N, longitude 146[deg]00[min] W; thence 
eastward along the 69[deg]50[min] N parallel to latitude 69[deg]50[min] 
N, longitude 145[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 69[deg]35[min] N, 
longitude 141[deg]00[min] W; thence northward along the 141[deg]00[min] 
W Meridian to a point where the 141[deg]00[min] W Meridian intersects 
the northeast coastline of Alaska; thence westward along the northern 
coastline of Alaska to the intersection of latitude 69[deg]30[min] N; 
point of beginning .
    (6) Fort Yukon Area. Beginning at latitude 67[deg]20[min] N, 
longitude 144[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 66[deg]00[min] N, 
longitude 143[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 66[deg]05[min] N, 
longitude 149[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 66[deg]45[min] N, 
longitude 148[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 67[deg]00[min] N, 
longitude 147[deg]00[min] W; thence to latitude 67[deg]20[min] N, 
longitude 144[deg]00[min] W; point of beginning.
    (7) The islands of Saint Paul and Saint George, together known as 
the Pribilof Islands, in the Bering Sea.

[[Page 912]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR11FE05.004


[Doc. No. FAA-2004-19352, 70 FR 7360, Feb. 11, 2005]



Sec. 95.19  Hawaii Mountainous Area.

    The following islands of the State of Hawaii: Kauai, Oahu, Molokai, 
Lanai, Kehoolawe, Maui, and Hawaii.

[[Page 913]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.007


[Amdt. 88, 27 FR 4536, May 8, 1962. Redesignated by Amdt. 1-1, 28 FR 
6719, June 29, 1963]



Sec. 95.21  Puerto Rico Mountainous Area.

    The area bounded by the following coordinates:

    Beginning at latitude 18[deg]22[min] N., longitude 66[deg]58[min] 
W., thence to latitude 18[deg]19[min] N., longitude 66[deg]06[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 18[deg]20[min] N., longitude 65[deg]50[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 18[deg]20[min] N., longitude 65[deg]42[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 18[deg]03[min] N., longitude 65[deg]52[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 18[deg]02[min] N., longitude 65[deg]51[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 17[deg]59[min] N., longitude 65[deg]55[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 18[deg]05[min] N., longitude 66[deg]57[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 18[deg]11[min] N., longitude 67[deg]07[min] W.; 
thence to latitude 18[deg]22[min] N., longitude 66[deg]58[min] W.; the 
point of beginning.

[[Page 914]]

[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.008


[Amdt. 88, 27 FR 4536, May 8, 1962; 27 FR 5603, June 13, 1962. 
Redesignated by Amdt. 1-1, 28 FR 6719, June 29, 1963]

[[Page 915]]



      Subpart C_En Route IFR Altitudes Over Particular Routes and 

                              Intersections

    Editorial Note: The prescribed IFR altitudes for flights over 
particular routes and intersections in this subpart were formerly 
carried as Sec. Sec. 610.11 through 610.6887 of this title and were 
transferred to part 95 as Sec. Sec. 95.41 through 95.6887, 
respectively, but are not carried in the Code of Federal Regulations. 
For Federal Register citations affecting these routes, see the List of 
CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the 
printed volume and on GPO Access.



Sec. 95.31  General.

    This subpart prescribes IFR altitudes for flights along particular 
routes or route segments and over additional intersections not listed as 
a part of a route or route segment.

[Doc. No. 1580, 28 FR 6719, June 29, 1963]



                       Subpart D_Changeover Points

    Editorial Note: The prescribed COP's for Federal airways, jet 
routes, or other direct routes for which an MEA is designated in this 
part are not carried in the Code of Federal Regulations. For Federal 
Register citations affecting these routes see the List of CFR Sections 
Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed 
volume and on GPO Access.



Sec. 95.8001  General.

    This subpart prescribes COP's for Federal airways, jet routes, area 
navigation routes, or other direct routes for which an MEA is designated 
in this part. Unless otherwise specified the COP is midway between the 
navigation facilities or way points for straight route segments, or at 
the intersection of radials or courses forming a dogleg in the case of 
dogleg route segments.

[Doc. No. 10580, 35 FR 14610, Sept. 18, 1970]



PART 97_STANDARD INSTRUMENT PROCEDURES--Table of Contents




                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
97.1 Applicability.
97.3 Symbols and terms used in procedures.
97.5 Bearings, courses, tracks, headings, radials, miles.

                          Subpart B_Procedures

97.10 [Reserved]

                       Subpart C_TERPS Procedures

97.20 General.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 
44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, and 44721-44722.

    Source: Docket No. 1580, 28 FR 6719, June 29, 1963, unless otherwise 
noted.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 97.1  Applicability.

    (a) This part prescribes standard instrument approach procedures to 
civil airports in the United States and the weather minimums that apply 
to landings under IFR at those airports.
    (b) This part also prescribes obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) 
for certain civil airports in the United States and the weather minimums 
that apply to takeoffs under IFR at civil airports in the United States.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 97.3  Symbols and terms used in procedures.

    As used in the standard instrument procedures prescribed in this 
part--
    Aircraft approach category means a grouping of aircraft based on a 
speed of VREF, if specified, or if VREF is not specified, 1.3 
Vso at the maximum certificated landing weight. VREF, 
Vso, and the maximum certificated landing weight are those 
values as established for the aircraft by the certification authority of 
the country of registry. The categories are as follows--
    (1) Category A: Speed less than 91 knots.
    (2) Category B: Speed 91 knots or more but less than 121 knots.
    (3) Category C: Speed 121 knots or more but less than 141 knots.
    (4) Category D: Speed 141 knots or more but less than 166 knots.
    (5) Category E: Speed 166 knots or more.
    Approach procedure segments for which altitudes (minimum altitudes, 
unless otherwise specified) and paths are prescribed in procedures, are 
as follows--

[[Page 916]]

    (1) Initial approach is the segment between the initial approach fix 
and the intermediate fix or the point where the aircraft is established 
on the intermediate course or final approach course.
    (2) Initial approach altitude is the altitude (or altitudes, in high 
altitude procedure) prescribed for the initial approach segment of an 
instrument approach.
    (3) Intermediate approach is the segment between the intermediate 
fix or point and the final approach fix.
    (4) Final approach is the segment between the final approach fix or 
point and the runway, airport, or missed approach point.
    (5) Missed approach is the segment between the missed approach 
point, or point of arrival at decision altitude or decision height (DA/
DH), and the missed approach fix at the prescribed altitude.
    Ceiling means the minimum ceiling, expressed in feet above the 
airport elevation, required for takeoff or required for designating an 
airport as an alternate airport.
    Copter procedures means helicopter procedures, with applicable 
minimums as prescribed in Sec. 97.35. Helicopters may also use other 
procedures prescribed in subpart C of this part and may use the Category 
A minimum descent altitude (MDA), or decision altitude or decision 
height (DA/DH). For other than ``copter-only'' approaches, the required 
visibility minimum for Category I approaches may be reduced to one-half 
the published visibility minimum for Category A aircraft, but in no case 
may it be reduced to less than one-quarter mile prevailing visibility, 
or, if reported, 1,200 feet RVR. Reduction of visibility minima on 
Category II instrument approach procedures is prohibited.
    FAF means final approach fix.
    HAA means height above airport and is expressed in feet.
    HAL means height above landing and is the height of the DA/MDA above 
a designated helicopter landing area elevation used for helicopter 
instrument approach procedures and is expressed in feet.
    HAS means height above the surface and is the height of the DA/MDA 
above the highest terrain/surface within a 5,200-foot radius of the 
missed approach point used in helicopter instrument approach procedures 
and is expressed in feet above ground level (AGL).
    HAT means height above touchdown.
    HCH means helipoint crossing height and is the computed height of 
the vertical guidance path above the helipoint elevation at the 
helipoint expressed in feet.
    Helipoint means the aiming point for the final approach course. It 
is normally the center point of the touchdown and lift-off area (TLOF).
    Hold in lieu of PT means a holding pattern established under 
applicable FAA criteria, and used in lieu of a procedure turn to execute 
a course reversal.
    MAP means missed approach point.
    More than 65 knots means an aircraft that has a stalling speed of 
more than 65 knots (as established in an approved flight manual) at 
maximum certificated landing weight with full flaps, landing gear 
extended, and power off.
    MSA means minimum safe altitude, expressed in feet above mean sea 
level, depicted on an approach chart that provides at least 1,000 feet 
of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a certain distance from 
the specified navigation facility or fix.
    NA means not authorized.
    NOPT means no procedure turn required. Altitude prescribed applies 
only if procedure turn is not executed.
    Procedure turn means the maneuver prescribed when it is necessary to 
reverse direction to establish the aircraft on an intermediate or final 
approach course. The outbound course, direction of turn, distance within 
which the turn must be completed, and minimum altitude are specified in 
the procedure. However, the point at which the turn may be begun, and 
the type and rate of turn, is left to the discretion of the pilot.
    RA means radio altimeter setting height.
    RVV means runway visibility value.
    SIAP means standard instrument approach procedure.
    65 knots or less means an aircraft that has a stalling speed of 65 
knots or less (as established in an approved flight

[[Page 917]]

manual) at maximum certificated landing weight with full flaps, landing 
gear extended, and power off.
    T means nonstandard takeoff minimums or specified departure routes/
procedures or both.
    TDZ means touchdown zone.
    Visibility minimum means the minimum visibility specified for 
approach, landing, or takeoff, expressed in statute miles, or in feet 
where RVR is reported.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31679, June 7, 2007]



Sec. 97.5  Bearings, courses, tracks, headings, radials, miles.

    (a) All bearings, courses, tracks, headings, and radials in this 
part are magnetic, unless otherwise designated.
    (b) RVR values are stated in feet. Other visibility values are 
stated in statute miles. All other mileages are stated in nautical 
miles.

[Doc. No. 561, 32 FR 13912, Oct. 6, 1967, as amended by Amdt. 97-1336, 
72 FR 31680, June 7, 2007]



                          Subpart B_Procedures

    Editorial Note: The procedures set forth in this subpart were 
formerly carried as Sec. Sec. 609.100 through 609.500 of this title and 
were transferred to part 97 as Sec. Sec. 97.11 through 97.19, 
respectively, but are not carried in the Code of Federal Regulations. 
For Federal Register citations affecting these procedures, see the List 
of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of 
the printed volume and on GPO Access.



Sec. 97.10  [Reserved]



                       Subpart C_TERPS Procedures

    Source: Docket No. 8130, 32 FR 13912, Oct. 6, 1967, unless otherwise 
noted.

    Editorial Note: The procedures for Sec. Sec. 97.21 through 97.35, 
respectively, are not carried in the Code of Federal Regulations. For 
Federal Register citations affecting these procedures, see the List of 
CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the 
printed volume and on GPO Access.



Sec. 97.20  General.

    (a) This subpart prescribes standard instrument approach procedures 
and takeoff minimums and obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) based on 
the criteria contained in FAA Order 8260.3, U.S. Standard for Terminal 
Instrument Procedures (TERPs), and other related Orders in the 8260 
series that also address instrument procedure design criteria.
    (b) Standard instrument approach procedures and associated 
supporting data adopted by the FAA are documented on FAA Forms 8260-3, 
8260-4, 8260-5. Takeoff minimums and obstacle departure procedures 
(ODPs) are documented on FAA Form 8260-15A. These forms are incorporated 
by reference. The Director of the Federal Register approved this 
incorporation by reference pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 
51. The standard instrument approach procedures and takeoff minimums and 
obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) are available for examination at 
the FAA's Rules Docket (AGC-200) and at the National Flight Data Center, 
800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20590, or at the National 
Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the 
availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to 
http://www.archives.gov/federal--register/code--of--federal--
regulations/ibr--locations.html.
    (c) Standard instrument approach procedures and takeoff minimums and 
obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) are depicted on aeronautical charts 
published by the FAA National Aeronautical Charting Office. These charts 
are available for purchase from the FAA's National Aeronautical Charting 
Office, Distribution Division, 6303 Ivy Lane, Suite 400, Greenbelt, MD 
20770.

[Doc. No. FAA-2002-14002, 72 FR 31680, June 7, 2007]



PART 99_SECURITY CONTROL OF AIR TRAFFIC--Table of Contents




                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
99.1 Applicability.
99.3 Definitions.
99.5 Emergency situations.
99.7 Special security instructions.
99.9 Radio requirements.
99.11 ADIZ flight plan requirements.
99.12 [Reserved]

[[Page 918]]

99.13 Transponder-on requirements.
99.15 Position reports.
99.17 Deviation from flight plans and ATC clearances and instructions.
99.19-99.31 [Reserved]

          Subpart B_Designated Air Defense Identification Zones

99.41 General.
99.43 Contiguous U.S. ADIZ.
99.45 Alaska ADIZ.
99.47 Guam ADIZ.
99.49 Hawaii ADIZ.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40101, 40103, 40106, 40113, 40120, 
44502, 44721.

    Source: Docket No. 25113, 53 FR 18217, May 20, 1988, unless 
otherwise noted.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 99.1  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart prescribes rules for operating all aircraft (except 
for Department of Defense and law enforcement aircraft) in a defense 
area, or into, within, or out of the United States through an Air 
Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ) designated in subpart B.
    (b) Except for Sec. Sec. 99.7, 99.13, and 99.15 this subpart does 
not apply to the operation of any aircraft-
    (1) Within the 48 contiguous States and the District of Columbia, or 
within the State of Alaska, on a flight which remains within 10 nautical 
miles of the point of departure;
    (2) Operating at true airspeed of less than 180 knots in the Hawaii 
ADIZ or over any island, or within 12 nautical miles of the coastline of 
any island, in the Hawaii ADIZ;
    (3) Operating at true airspeed of less than 180 knots in the Alaska 
ADIZ while the pilot maintains a continuous listening watch on the 
appropriate frequency; or
    (4) Operating at true airspeed of less than 180 knots in the Guam 
ADIZ.
    (c) An FAA ATC center may exempt the following operations from this 
subpart (except Sec. 99.7) on a local basis only, with the concurrence 
of the U.S. military commanders concerned, or pursuant to an agreement 
with a U.S. Federal security or intelligence agency:
    (1) Aircraft operations that are conducted wholly within the 
boundaries of an ADIZ and are not currently significant to the air 
defense system.
    (2) Aircraft operations conducted in accordance with special 
procedures prescribed by a U.S. military authority, or a U.S. Federal 
security or intelligence agency concerned.

[Doc. No. 25113, 53 FR 18217, May 20, 1988, as amended by Amdt. 99-14, 
53 FR 44182, Nov. 2, 1988; 66 FR 49822, Sept. 28, 2001; 69 FR 16755, 
Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.3  Definitions.

    Aeronautical facility means, for the purposes of this subpart, a 
communications facility where flight plans or position reports are 
normally filed during flight operations.
    Air defense identification zone (ADIZ) means an area of airspace 
over land or water in which the ready identification, location, and 
control of all aircraft (except for Department of Defense and law 
enforcement aircraft) is required in the interest of national security.
    Defense area means any airspace of the contiguous United States that 
is not an ADIZ in which the control of aircraft is required for reasons 
of national security.
    Defense visual flight rules (DVFR) means, for the purposes of this 
subpart, a flight within an ADIZ conducted by any aircraft (except for 
Department of Defense and law enforcement aircraft) in accordance with 
visual flight rules in part 91 of this title.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-10693, 66 FR 49822, Sept. 28, 2001, as amended at 69 
FR 16755, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.5  Emergency situations.

    In an emergency that requires immediate decision and action for the 
safety of the flight, the pilot in command of an aircraft may deviate 
from the rules in this part to the extent required by that emergency. He 
shall report the reasons for the deviation to the communications 
facility where flight plans or position reports are normally filed 
(referred to in this part as ``an appropriate aeronautical facility'') 
as soon as possible.

[[Page 919]]



Sec. 99.7  Special security instructions.

    Each person operating an aircraft in an ADIZ or Defense Area must, 
in addition to the applicable rules of this part, comply with special 
security instructions issued by the Administrator in the interest of 
national security, pursuant to agreement between the FAA and the 
Department of Defense, or between the FAA and a U.S. Federal security or 
intelligence agency.

[69 FR 16756, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.9  Radio requirements.

    (a) A person who operates a civil aircraft into an ADIZ must have a 
functioning two-way radio, and the pilot must maintain a continuous 
listening watch on the appropriate aeronautical facility's frequency.
    (b) No person may operate an aircraft into, within, or whose 
departure point is within an ADIZ unless--
    (1) The person files a DVFR flight plan containing the time and 
point of ADIZ penetration, and
    (2) The aircraft departs within five minutes of the estimated 
departure time contained in the flight plan.
    (c) If the pilot operating an aircraft under DVFR in an ADIZ cannot 
maintain two-way radio communications, the pilot may proceed, in 
accordance with original DVFR flight plan, or land as soon as 
practicable. The pilot must report the radio failure to an appropriate 
aeronautical facility as soon as possible.
    (d) If a pilot operating an aircraft under IFR in an ADIZ cannot 
maintain two-way radio communications, the pilot must proceed in 
accordance with Sec. 91.185 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-10693, 66 FR 49822, Sept. 28, 2001, as amended at 69 
FR 16756, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.11  ADIZ flight plan requirements.

    (a) No person may operate an aircraft into, within, or from a 
departure point within an ADIZ, unless the person files, activates, and 
closes a flight plan with the appropriate aeronautical facility, or is 
otherwise authorized by air traffic control.
    (b) Unless ATC authorizes an abbreviated flight plan--
    (1) A flight plan for IFR flight must contain the information 
specified in Sec. 91.169; and
    (2) A flight plan for VFR flight must contain the information 
specified in Sec. 91.153(a) (1) through (6).
    (3) If airport of departure is within the Alaskan ADIZ and there is 
no facility for filing a flight plan then:
    (i) Immediately after takeoff or when within range of an appropriate 
aeronautical facility, comply with provisions of paragraph (b)(1) or 
(b)(2) as appropriate.
    (ii) Proceed according to the instructions issued by the appropriate 
aeronautical facility.
    (c) The pilot shall designate a flight plan for VFR flight as a DVFR 
flight plan.
    (d) The pilot in command of an aircraft for which a flight plan has 
been filed must file an arrival or completion notice with an appropriate 
aeronautical facility.

[Doc. No. 25113, 53 FR 18217, May 20, 1988; 53 FR 44182, Nov. 2, 1988, 
as amended by Amdt. 99-15, 54 FR 34331, Aug. 18, 1989; 66 FR 49822, 
Sept. 28, 2001; 69 FR 16756, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.12  [Reserved]



Sec. 99.13  Transponder-on requirements.

    (a) Aircraft transponder-on operation. Each person operating an 
aircraft into or out of the United States into, within, or across an 
ADIZ designated in subpart B of this part, if that aircraft is equipped 
with an operable radar beacon transponder, shall operate the 
transponder, including altitude encoding equipment if installed, and 
shall reply on the appropriate code or as assigned by ATC.
    (b) ATC transponder equipment and use. Effective September 7, 1990, 
unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate a civil 
aircraft into or out of the United States into, within, or across the 
contiguous U.S. ADIZ designated in subpart B of this part unless that 
aircraft is equipped with a coded radar beacon transponder.
    (c) ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment and use. 
Effective December 30, 1990, unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no 
person may operate a civil aircraft into or out of the United States 
into, within, or across

[[Page 920]]

the contiguous U.S. ADIZ unless that aircraft is equipped with a coded 
radar beacon transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting 
equipment having altitude reporting capability that automatically 
replies to interrogations by transmitting pressure altitude information 
in 100-foot increments.
    (d) Paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section do not apply to the 
operation of an aircraft which was not originally certificated with an 
engine-driven electrical system and which has not subsequently been 
certified with such a system installed, a balloon, or a glider.

[Doc. No. 24903, 55 FR 8395, Mar. 7, 1990. Redesignated at 69 FR 16756, 
Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.15  Position reports.

    (a) The pilot of an aircraft operating in or penetrating an ADIZ 
under IFR--
    (1) In controlled airspace, must make the position reports required 
in Sec. 91.183; and
    (2) In uncontrolled airspace, must make the position reports 
required in this section.
    (b) No pilot may operate an aircraft penetrating an ADIZ under DVFR 
unless--
    (1) The pilot reports to an appropriate aeronautical facility before 
penetration: the time, position, and altitude at which the aircraft 
passed the last reporting point before penetration and the estimated 
time of arrival over the next appropriate reporting point along the 
flight route;
    (2) If there is no appropriate reporting point along the flight 
route, the pilot reports at least 15 minutes before penetration: The 
estimated time, position, and altitude at which the pilot will 
penetrate; or
    (3) If the departure airport is within an ADIZ or so close to the 
ADIZ boundary that it prevents the pilot from complying with paragraphs 
(b)(1) or (2) of this section, the pilot must report immediately after 
departure: the time of departure, the altitude, and the estimated time 
of arrival over the first reporting point along the flight route.
    (c) In addition to any other reports as ATC may require, no pilot in 
command of a foreign civil aircraft may enter the United States through 
an ADIZ unless that pilot makes the reports required in this section or 
reports the position of the aircraft when it is not less that one hour 
and not more that 2 hours average direct cruising distance from the 
United States.

[69 FR 16756, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.17  Deviation from flight plans and ATC clearances and instructions.

    (a) No pilot may deviate from the provisions of an ATC clearance or 
ATC instruction except in accordance with Sec. 91.123 of this chapter.
    (b) No pilot may deviate from the filed IFR flight plan when 
operating an aircraft in uncontrolled airspace unless that pilot 
notifies an appropriate aeronautical facility before deviating.
    (c) No pilot may deviate from the filed DVFR flight plan unless that 
pilot notifies an appropriate aeronautical facility before deviating.

[69 FR 16756, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. Sec. 99.19-99.31  [Reserved]



          Subpart B_Designated Air Defense Identification Zones



Sec. 99.41  General.

    The airspace above the areas described in this subpart is 
established as an ADIZ. The lines between points described in this 
subpart are great circles except that the lines joining adjacent points 
on the same parallel of latitude are rhumb lines.

[69 FR 16756, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.43  Contiguous U.S. ADIZ.

    The area bounded by a line from 43[deg]15[min]N, 65[deg]55[min]W; 
44[deg]21[min]N; 67[deg]16[min]W; 43[deg]10[min]N; 69[deg]40[min]W; 
41[deg]05[min]N; 69[deg]40[min]W; 40[deg]32[min]N; 72[deg]15[min]W; 
39[deg]55[min]N; 73[deg]00[min]W; 39[deg]38[min]N; 73[deg]00[min]W; 
39[deg]36[min]N; 73[deg]40[min]W; 37[deg]00[min]N; 75[deg]30[min]W; 
36[deg]10[min]N; 75[deg]10[min]W; 35[deg]10[min]N; 75[deg]10[min]W; 
32[deg]00[min]N; 80[deg]30[min]W; 30[deg]30[min]N; 81[deg]00[min]W; 
26[deg]40[min]N; 79[deg]40[min]W; 25[deg]00[min]N; 80[deg]05[min]W; 
24[deg]25[min]N; 81[deg]15[min]W; 24[deg]20[min]N; 81[deg]45[min]W; 
24[deg]30[min]N; 82[deg]06[min]W; 24[deg]41[min]N; 82[deg]06[min]W; 
24[deg]43[min]N; 82[deg]00[min]W; 25[deg]00[min]N; 81[deg]30[min]W; 
25[deg]10[min]N; 81[deg]23[min]W; 25[deg]35[min]N; 81[deg]30[min]W; 
26[deg]15[min]N 82[deg]20[min]W; 27[deg]50[min]N; 83[deg]05[min]W; 
28[deg]55[min]N; 83[deg]30[min]W; 29[deg]42[min]N; 84[deg]00[min]W; 
29[deg]20[min]N; 85[deg]00[min]W; 30[deg]00[min]N; 87[deg]10[min]W; 
30[deg]00[min]N; 88[deg]30[min]W; 28[deg]45[min]N; 88[deg]55[min]W; 
28[deg]45[min]N; 90[deg]00[min]W; 29[deg]25[min]N; 94[deg]00[min]W; 
28[deg]20[min]N; 96[deg]00[min]W; 27[deg]30[min]N; 97[deg]00[min]W; 
26[deg]00[min]N; 97[deg]00[min]W; 25[deg]58[min]N; 97[deg]07[min]W; 
westward along the U.S./Mexico border to 32[deg]32[min]03[sec]N, 
117[deg]07[min]25[sec]W; 32[deg]30[min]N; 117[deg]25[min]W;

[[Page 921]]

32[deg]35[min]N; 118[deg]30[min]W; 33[deg]05[min]N; 119[deg]45[min]W; 
33[deg]55[min]N; 120[deg]40[min]W; 34[deg]50[min]N; 121[deg]10[min]W; 
38[deg]50[min]N; 124[deg]00[min]W; 40[deg]00[min]N; 124[deg]35[min]W; 
40[deg]25[min]N; 124[deg]40[min]W; 42[deg]50[min]N; 124[deg]50[min]W; 
46[deg]15[min]N; 124[deg]30[min]W; 48[deg]30[min]N; 125[deg]00[min]W; 
48[deg]20[min]N; 128[deg]00[min]W; 48[deg]20[min]N; 132[deg]00[min]W; 
37[deg]42[min]N; 130[deg]40[min]W; 29[deg]00[min]N; 124[deg]00[min]W; 
30[deg]45[min]N; 120[deg]50[min]W; 32[deg]00[min]N; 118[deg]24[min]W; 
32[deg]30[min]N; 117[deg]20[min]W; 32[deg]32[min]03[sec]N; 
117[deg]07[min]25[sec]W; eastward along the U.S./Mexico border to 
25[deg]58[min]N, 97[deg]07[min]W; 26[deg]00[min]N; 97[deg]00[min]W; 
26[deg]00[min]N; 95[deg]00[min]W; 26[deg]30[min]N; 95[deg]00[min]W; then 
via 26[deg]30[min]N; parallel to 26[deg]30[min]N; 84[deg]00[min]W; 
24[deg]00[min]N; 83[deg]00[min]W; then Via 24[deg]00[min]N; parallel to 
24[deg]00[min]N; 79[deg]25[min]W; 25[deg]40[min]N; 79[deg]25[min]W; 
27[deg]30[min]N; 78[deg]50[min]W; 30[deg]45[min]N; 74[deg]00[min]W; 
39[deg]30[min]N; 63[deg]45[min]W; 43[deg]00[min]N; 65[deg]48[min]W; to 
point of beginning.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-10693, 66 FR 49822, Sept. 28, 2001. Redesignated at 
69 FR 16756, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.45  Alaska ADIZ.

    The area is bounded by a line from 54[deg]00[min]N; 
136[deg]00[min]W; 56[deg]57[min]N; 144[deg]00[min]W; 57[deg]00[min]N; 
145[deg]00[min]W; 53[deg]00[min]N; 158[deg]00[min]W; 50[deg]00[min]N; 
169[deg]00[min]W; 50[deg]00[min]N; 180[deg]00[min]; 50[deg]00[min]N; 
170[deg]00[min]E; 53[deg]00[min]N; 170[deg]00[min]E; 
60[deg]00[min]00[sec]N; 180[deg]00[min]; 65[deg]00[min]N; 
169[deg]00[min]W; then along 169[deg]00[min]W; to 75[deg]00[min]N; 
169[deg]00[min]W; then along the 75[deg]00[min]N; parallel to 
75[deg]00[min]N, 141[deg]00[min]W; 69[deg]50[min]N; 141[deg]00[min]W 
71[deg]18[min]N; 156[deg]44[min]W; 68[deg]40[min]N; 167[deg]10[min]W; 
67[deg]00[min]N; 165[deg]00[min]W; 65[deg]40[min]N; 168[deg]15[min]W; 
63[deg]45[min]N; 165[deg]30[min]W; 61[deg]20[min]N; 166[deg]40[min]W; 
59[deg]00[min]N; 163[deg]00[min]W; then south along 163[deg]00[min]W to 
54[deg]00[min]N, 163[deg]00[min]W; 56[deg]30[min]N; 154[deg]00[min]W; 
59[deg]20[min]N; 146[deg]00[min]W; 59[deg]30[min]N; 140[deg]00[min]W; 
57[deg]00[min]N; 136[deg]00[min]W; 54[deg]35[min]N, 133[deg]00[min]W; to 
point of beginning.

[Doc. No. FAA-2001-10693, 66 FR 49822, Sept. 28, 2001. Redesignated at 
69 FR 16756, Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.47  Guam ADIZ.

    (a) Inner boundary. From a point 13[deg]52[min]07[sec] N, 
143[deg]59[min]16[sec] E, counterclockwise along the 50-nautical-mile 
radius arc of the NIMITZ VORTAC (located at 13[deg]27[min]11[sec] N, 
144[deg]43[min]51[sec] E); to a point 13[deg]02[min]08[sec] N, 
145[deg]28[min]17[sec] E; then to a point 14[deg]49[min]07[sec] N, 
146[deg]13[min]58[sec] E; counterclockwise along the 35-nautical-mile 
radius arc of the SAIPAN NDB (located at 15[deg]06[min]46[sec] N, 
145[deg]42[min]42[sec] E); to a point 15[deg]24[min]21[sec] N, 
145[deg]11[min]21[sec] E; then to the point of origin.
    (b) Outer boundary. The area bounded by a circle with a radius of 
250 NM centered at latitude 13[deg]32[min]41[sec] N, longitude 
144[deg]50[min]30[sec] E.

[Doc. No. 25113, 53 FR 18217, May 20, 1988. Redesignated at 69 FR 16756, 
Mar. 30, 2004]



Sec. 99.49  Hawaii ADIZ.

    (a) Outer boundary. The area included in the irregular octagonal 
figure formed by a line connecting 26[deg]30[min] N, 156[deg]00[min] W; 
26[deg]30[min] N, 161[deg]00[min] W; 24[deg]00[min] N, 164[deg]00[min] 
W; 20[deg]00[min] N, 164[deg]00[min] W; 17[deg]00[min] N, 
160[deg]00[min] W; 17[deg]00[min] N, 156[deg]00[min] W; 20[deg]00[min] 
N, 153[deg]00[min] W; 22[deg]00[min] N, 153[deg]00[min] W; to point of 
beginning.
    (b) Inner boundary. The inner boundary to follow a line connecting 
22[deg]30[min] N, 157[deg]00[min] W; 22[deg]30[min] N, 160[deg]00[min] 
W; 22[deg]00[min] N, 161[deg]00[min] W; 21[deg]00[min] N, 
161[deg]00[min] W; 20[deg]00[min] N, 160[deg]00[min] W; 20[deg]00[min] 
N, 156[deg]30[min] W; 21[deg]00[min] N, 155[deg]30[min] W; to point of 
beginning.

[Doc. No. 25113, 53 FR 18217, May 20, 1988. Redesignated at 69 FR 16756, 
Mar. 30, 2004]



PART 101_MOORED BALLOONS, KITES, UNMANNED ROCKETS AND UNMANNED FREE BALLOONS--

Table of Contents




                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
101.1 Applicability.
101.3 Waivers.
101.5 Operations in prohibited or restricted areas.
101.7 Hazardous operations.

                   Subpart B_Moored Balloons and Kites

101.11 Applicability.
101.13 Operating limitations.
101.15 Notice requirements.
101.17 Lighting and marking requirements.
101.19 Rapid deflation device.

                       Subpart C_Unmanned Rockets

101.21 Applicability.
101.22 Special provisions for large model rockets.
101.23 Operating limitations.
101.25 Notice requirements.
101.26 Operating limitations for Class 3--Advanced High-Power Rockets.

                    Subpart D_Unmanned Free Balloons

101.29 Information requirements.
101.31 Applicability.
101.33 Operating limitations.
101.35 Equipment and marking requirements.
101.37 Notice requirements.

[[Page 922]]

101.39 Balloon position reports.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40103, 40113-40114, 45302, 44502, 
44514, 44701-44702, 44721, 46308.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 101.1  Applicability.

    (a) This part prescribes rules governing the operation in the United 
States, of the following:
    (1) Except as provided for in Sec. 101.7, any balloon that is 
moored to the surface of the earth or an object thereon and that has a 
diameter of more than 6 feet or a gas capacity of more than 115 cubic 
feet.
    (2) Except as provided for in Sec. 101.7, any kite that weighs more 
than 5 pounds and is intended to be flown at the end of a rope or cable.
    (3) Any unmanned rocket except:
    (i) Aerial firework displays; and,
    (ii) Model rockets:
    (a) Using not more than four ounces of propellant;
    (b) Using a slow-burning propellant;
    (c) Made of paper, wood, or breakable plastic, containing no 
substantial metal parts and weighing not more than 16 ounces, including 
the propellant; and
    (d) Operated in a manner that does not create a hazard to persons, 
property, or other aircraft.
    (4) Except as provided for in Sec. 101.7, any unmanned free balloon 
that--
    (i) Carries a payload package that weighs more than four pounds and 
has a weight/size ratio of more than three ounces per square inch on any 
surface of the package, determined by dividing the total weight in 
ounces of the payload package by the area in square inches of its 
smallest surface;
    (ii) Carries a payload package that weighs more than six pounds;
    (iii) Carries a payload, of two or more packages, that weighs more 
than 12 pounds; or
    (iv) Uses a rope or other device for suspension of the payload that 
requires an impact force of more than 50 pounds to separate the 
suspended payload from the balloon.
    (b) For the purposes of this part, a gyroglider attached to a 
vehicle on the surface of the earth is considered to be a kite.

[Doc. No. 1580, 28 FR 6721, June 29, 1963, as amended by Amdt. 101-1, 29 
FR 46, Jan. 3, 1964; Amdt. 101-3, 35 FR 8213, May 26, 1970]

    Effective Date Note: At 73 FR 73781, Dec. 4, 2008, Sec. 101.1 was 
amended by revising paragraph (a)(3), effective Feb. 2, 2009. For the 
convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows:



Sec. 101.1  Applicability.

    (a) * * *
    (3) Any unmanned rocket except aerial firework displays.

                                * * * * *



Sec. 101.3  Waivers.

    No person may conduct operations that require a deviation from this 
part except under a certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator.

[Doc. No. 1580, 28 FR 6721, June 29, 1963]



Sec. 101.5  Operations in prohibited or restricted areas.

    No person may operate a moored balloon, kite, unmanned rocket, or 
unmanned free balloon in a prohibited or restricted area unless he has 
permission from the using or controlling agency, as appropriate.

[Doc. No. 1457, 29 FR 46, Jan. 3, 1964]



Sec. 101.7  Hazardous operations.

    (a) No person may operate any moored balloon, kite, unmanned rocket, 
or unmanned free balloon in a manner that creates a hazard to other 
persons, or their property.
    (b) No person operating any moored balloon, kite, unmanned rocket, 
or unmanned free balloon may allow an object to be dropped therefrom, if 
such action creates a hazard to other persons or their property.

(Sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))

[Doc. No. 12800, 39 FR 22252, June 21, 1974]



                   Subpart B_Moored Balloons and Kites

    Source: Docket No. 1580, 28 FR 6722, June 29, 1963, unless otherwise 
noted.

[[Page 923]]



Sec. 101.11  Applicability.

    This subpart applies to the operation of moored balloons and kites. 
However, a person operating a moored balloon or kite within a restricted 
area must comply only with Sec. 101.19 and with additional limitations 
imposed by the using or controlling agency, as appropriate.



Sec. 101.13  Operating limitations.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person 
may operate a moored balloon or kite--
    (1) Less than 500 feet from the base of any cloud;
    (2) More than 500 feet above the surface of the earth;
    (3) From an area where the ground visibility is less than three 
miles; or
    (4) Within five miles of the boundary of any airport.
    (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to the operation of 
a balloon or kite below the top of any structure and within 250 feet of 
it, if that shielded operation does not obscure any lighting on the 
structure.



Sec. 101.15  Notice requirements.

    No person may operate an unshielded moored balloon or kite more than 
150 feet above the surface of the earth unless, at least 24 hours before 
beginning the operation, he gives the following information to the FAA 
ATC facility that is nearest to the place of intended operation:
    (a) The names and addresses of the owners and operators.
    (b) The size of the balloon or the size and weight of the kite.
    (c) The location of the operation.
    (d) The height above the surface of the earth at which the balloon 
or kite is to be operated.
    (e) The date, time, and duration of the operation.



Sec. 101.17  Lighting and marking requirements.

    (a) No person may operate a moored balloon or kite, between sunset 
and sunrise unless the balloon or kite, and its mooring lines, are 
lighted so as to give a visual warning equal to that required for 
obstructions to air navigation in the FAA publication ``Obstruction 
Marking and Lighting''.
    (b) No person may operate a moored balloon or kite between sunrise 
and sunset unless its mooring lines have colored pennants or streamers 
attached at not more than 50 foot intervals beginning at 150 feet above 
the surface of the earth and visible for at least one mile.

(Sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))

[Doc. No. 1580, 28 FR 6722, June 29, 1963, as amended by Amdt. 101-4, 39 
FR 22252, June 21, 1974]



Sec. 101.19  Rapid deflation device.

    No person may operate a moored balloon unless it has a device that 
will automatically and rapidly deflate the balloon if it escapes from 
its moorings. If the device does not function properly, the operator 
shall immediately notify the nearest ATC facility of the location and 
time of the escape and the estimated flight path of the balloon.



                       Subpart C_Unmanned Rockets



Sec. 101.21  Applicability.

    This subpart applies to the operation of unmanned rockets. However, 
a person operating an unmanned rocket within a restricted area must 
comply only with Sec. 101.23(g) and with additional limitations imposed 
by the using or controlling agency, as appropriate.

[Doc. No. 1580, 28 FR 6722, June 29, 1963]

    Effective Date Note: At 73 FR 73781, Dec. 4, 2008, Sec. 101.21 was 
revised, effective Feb. 2, 2009. For the convenience of the user, the 
revised text is set forth as follows:



Sec. 101.21  Applicability.

    (a) This subpart applies to operating unmanned rockets. However, a 
person operating an unmanned rocket within a restricted area must comply 
with Sec. 101.25(b)(7)(ii) and with any additional limitations imposed 
by the using or controlling agency.
    (b) A person operating an unmanned rocket other than an amateur 
rocket as defined in Sec. 1.1 of this chapter must comply with 14 CFR 
Chapter III.



Sec. 101.22  Special provisions for large model rockets.

    Persons operating model rockets that use not more than 125 grams of 
propellant; that are made of paper, wood, or

[[Page 924]]

breakable plastic; that contain no substantial metal parts, and that 
weigh not more than 1,500 grams, including the propellant, need not 
comply with Sec. 101.23 (b), (c), (g), and (h), provided:
    (a) That person complies with all provisions of Sec. 101.25; and
    (b) The operation is not conducted within 5 miles of an airport 
runway or other landing area unless the information required in Sec. 
101.25 is also provided to the manager of that airport.

[Amdt. 101-6, 59 FR 50393, Oct. 3, 1994]

    Effective Date Note: At 73 FR 73781, Dec. 4, 2008, Sec. 101.22 was 
revised, effective Feb. 2, 2009. For the convenience of the user, the 
revised text is set forth as follows:



Sec. 101.22  Definitions.

    The following definitions apply to this subpart:
    (a) Class 1--Model Rocket means an amateur rocket that:
    (1) Uses no more than 125 grams (4.4 ounces) of propellant;
    (2) Uses a slow-burning propellant;
    (3) Is made of paper, wood, or breakable plastic;
    (4) Contains no substantial metal parts; and
    (5) Weighs no more than 1,500 grams (53 ounces), including the 
propellant.
    (b) Class 2--High-Power Rocket means an amateur rocket other than a 
model rocket that is propelled by a motor or motors having a combined 
total impulse of 40,960 Newton-seconds (9,208 pound-seconds) or less.
    (c) Class 3--Advanced High-Power Rocket means an amateur rocket 
other than a model rocket or high-power rocket.



Sec. 101.23  Operating limitations.

    No person may operate an unmanned rocket--
    (a) In a manner that creates a collision hazard with other aircraft;
    (b) In controlled airspace;
    (c) Within five miles of the boundary of any airport;
    (d) At any altitude where clouds or obscuring phenomena of more than 
five-tenths coverage prevails;
    (e) At any altitude where the horizontal visibility is less than 
five miles;
    (f) Into any cloud;
    (g) Within 1,500 feet of any person or property that is not 
associated with the operations; or
    (h) Between sunset and sunrise.

(Sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))

[Doc. No. 1580, 28 FR 6722, June 29, 1963, as amended by Amdt. 101-4, 39 
FR 22252, June 21, 1974]

    Effective Date Note: At 73 FR 73781, Dec. 4, 2008, Sec. 101.23 was 
revised, effective Feb. 2, 2009. For the convenience of the user, the 
revised text is set forth as follows:



Sec. 101.23  General operating limitations.

    (a) You must operate an amateur rocket in such a manner that it:
    (1) Is launched on a suborbital trajectory;
    (2) When launched, must not cross into the territory of a foreign 
country unless an agreement is in place between the United States and 
the country of concern;
    (3) Is unmanned; and
    (4) Does not create a hazard to persons, property, or other 
aircraft.
    (b) The FAA may specify additional operating limitations necessary 
to ensure that air traffic is not adversely affected, and public safety 
is not jeopardized.



Sec. 101.25  Notice requirements.

    No person may operate an unmanned rocket unless that person gives 
the following information to the FAA ATC facility nearest to the place 
of intended operation no less than 24 hours prior to and no more than 48 
hours prior to beginning the operation:
    (a) The names and addresses of the operators; except when there are 
multiple participants at a single event, the name and address of the 
person so designated as the event launch coordinator, whose duties 
include coordination of the required launch data estimates and 
coordinating the launch event;
    (b) The estimated number of rockets to be operated;
    (c) The estimated size and the estimated weight of each rocket; and
    (d) The estimated highest altitude or flight level to which each 
rocket will be operated.
    (e) The location of the operation.
    (f) The date, time, and duration of the operation.
    (g) Any other pertinent information requested by the ATC facility.

[Doc. No. 1580, 28 FR 6722, June 29, 1963, as amended by Amdt. 101-6, 59 
FR 50393, Oct. 3, 1994]

[[Page 925]]


    Effective Date Note: At 73 FR 73781, Dec. 4, 2008, Sec. 101.25 was 
redesignated as Sec. 101.27 and revised, effective Feb. 2, 2009. For 
the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows:



Sec. 101.27  ATC notification for all launches.

    No person may operate an unmanned rocket other than a Class 1--Model 
Rocket unless that person gives the following information to the FAA ATC 
facility nearest to the place of intended operation no less than 24 
hours before and no more than three days before beginning the operation:
    (a) The name and address of the operator; except when there are 
multiple participants at a single event, the name and address of the 
person so designated as the event launch coordinator, whose duties 
include coordination of the required launch data estimates and 
coordinating the launch event;
    (b) Date and time the activity will begin;
    (c) Radius of the affected area on the ground in statute miles;
    (d) Location of the center of the affected area in latitude and 
longitude coordinates;
    (e) Highest affected altitude;
    (f) Duration of the activity;
    (g) Any other pertinent information requested by the ATC facility.

    Effective Date Note: At 73 FR 73781, Dec. 4, 2008, a new Sec. 
101.25 was added, effective Feb. 2, 2009. For the convenience of the 
user, the added text is set forth as follows:



Sec. 101.25  Operating limitations for Class 2--High-Power Rockets.

    (a) You must comply with the General Operating Limitations of Sec. 
101.23.
    (b) In addition, you must not operate a Class 2--High-Power Rocket--
    (1) At any altitude where clouds or obscuring phenomena of more than 
five-tenths coverage prevails;
    (2) At any altitude where the horizontal visibility is less than 
five miles;
    (3) Into any cloud;
    (4) Between sunset and sunrise without prior authorization from the 
FAA;
    (5) Within 8 kilometers (5 statute miles) of any airport boundary 
without prior authorization from the FAA;
    (6) In controlled airspace without prior authorization from the FAA;
    (7) Unless you observe the greater of the following separation 
distances from any person or property that is not associated with the 
operations applies:
    (i) Not less than one-quarter the maximum expected altitude;
    (ii) 457 meters (1,500 ft.);
    (8) Unless a person at least eighteen years old is present, is 
charged with ensuring the safety of the operation, and has final 
approval authority for initiating high-power rocket flight; and
    (9) Unless reasonable precautions are provided to report and control 
a fire caused by rocket activities.



Sec. 101.26  Operating limitations for Class 3--Advanced High-Power Rockets.

    You must comply with:
    (a) The General Operating Limitations of Sec. 101.23;
    (b) The operating limitations contained in Sec. 101.25;
    (c) Any other operating limitations for Class 3--Advanced High-Power 
Rockets prescribed by the FAA that are necessary to ensure that air 
traffic is not adversely affected, and public safety is not jeopardized.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27390, 73 FR 73781, Dec. 4, 2008]

    Effective Date Note: By Amdt. 101-8, 73 FR 73781, Dec. 4, 2008, 
Sec. 101.26 was added, effective Feb. 2, 2009.



                    Subpart D_Unmanned Free Balloons

    Source: Docket No. 1457, 29 FR 47, Jan. 3, 1964, unless otherwise 
noted.



Sec. 101.29  Information requirements.

    (a) Class 2--High-Power Rockets. When a Class 2--High-Power Rocket 
requires a certificate of waiver or authorization, the person planning 
the operation must provide the information below on each type of rocket 
to the FAA at least 45 days before the proposed operation. The FAA may 
request additional information if necessary to ensure the proposed 
operations can be safely conducted. The information shall include for 
each type of Class 2 rocket expected to be flown:
    (1) Estimated number of rockets,
    (2) Type of propulsion (liquid or solid), fuel(s) and oxidizer(s),
    (3) Description of the launcher(s) planned to be used, including any 
airborne platform(s),
    (4) Description of recovery system,
    (5) Highest altitude, above ground level, expected to be reached,
    (6) Launch site latitude, longitude, and elevation, and
    (7) Any additional safety procedures that will be followed.
    (b) Class 3--Advanced High-Power Rockets. When a Class 3--Advanced

[[Page 926]]

High-Power Rocket requires a certificate of waiver or authorization the 
person planning the operation must provide the information below for 
each type of rocket to the FAA at least 45 days before the proposed 
operation. The FAA may request additional information if necessary to 
ensure the proposed operations can be safely conducted. The information 
shall include for each type of Class 3 rocket expected to be flown:
    (1) The information requirements of paragraph (a) of this section,
    (2) Maximum possible range,
    (3) The dynamic stability characteristics for the entire flight 
profile,
    (4) A description of all major rocket systems, including structural, 
pneumatic, propellant, propulsion, ignition, electrical, avionics, 
recovery, wind-weighting, flight control, and tracking,
    (5) A description of other support equipment necessary for a safe 
operation,
    (6) The planned flight profile and sequence of events,
    (7) All nominal impact areas, including those for any spent motors 
and other discarded hardware, within three standard deviations of the 
mean impact point,
    (8) Launch commit criteria,
    (9) Countdown procedures, and
    (10) Mishap procedures.

[Doc. No. FAA-2007-27390, 73 FR 73781, Dec. 4, 2008]

    Effective Date Note: By Amdt. 101-8, 73 FR 73781, Dec. 4, 2008, 
Sec. 101.29 was added, effective Feb. 2, 2009.



Sec. 101.31  Applicability.

    This subpart applies to the operation of unmanned free balloons. 
However, a person operating an unmanned free balloon within a restricted 
area must comply only with Sec. 101.33 (d) and (e) and with any 
additional limitations that are imposed by the using or controlling 
agency, as appropriate.



Sec. 101.33  Operating limitations.

    No person may operate an unmanned free balloon--
    (a) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, below 2,000 feet above the 
surface within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, 
Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport;
    (b) At any altitude where there are clouds or obscuring phenomena of 
more than five-tenths coverage;
    (c) At any altitude below 60,000 feet standard pressure altitude 
where the horizontal visibility is less than five miles;
    (d) During the first 1,000 feet of ascent, over a congested area of 
a city, town, or settlement or an open-air assembly of persons not 
associated with the operation; or
    (e) In such a manner that impact of the balloon, or part thereof 
including its payload, with the surface creates a hazard to persons or 
property not associated with the operation.

[Doc. No. 1457, 29 FR 47, Jan. 3, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 101-5, 56 FR 
65662, Dec. 17, 1991]



Sec. 101.35  Equipment and marking requirements.

    (a) No person may operate an unmanned free balloon unless--
    (1) It is equipped with at least two payload cut-down systems or 
devices that operate independently of each other;
    (2) At least two methods, systems, devices, or combinations thereof, 
that function independently of each other, are employed for terminating 
the flight of the balloon envelope; and
    (3) The balloon envelope is equipped with a radar reflective 
device(s) or material that will present an echo to surface radar 
operating in the 200 MHz to 2700 MHz frequency range.

The operator shall activate the appropriate devices required by 
paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section when weather conditions are 
less than those prescribed for operation under this subpart, or if a 
malfunction or any other reason makes the further operation hazardous to 
other air traffic or to persons and property on the surface.
    (b) No person may operate an unmanned free balloon below 60,000 feet 
standard pressure altitude between sunset and sunrise (as corrected to 
the altitude of operation) unless the balloon and its attachments and 
payload, whether or not they become separated during the operation, are 
equipped with lights that are visible for at least 5

[[Page 927]]

miles and have a flash frequency of at least 40, and not more than 100, 
cycles per minute.
    (c) No person may operate an unmanned free balloon that is equipped 
with a trailing antenna that requires an impact force of more than 50 
pounds to break it at any point, unless the antenna has colored pennants 
or streamers that are attached at not more than 50 foot intervals and 
that are visible for at least one mile.
    (d) No person may operate between sunrise and sunset an unmanned 
free balloon that is equipped with a suspension device (other than a 
highly conspicuously colored open parachute) more than 50 feet along, 
unless the suspension device is colored in alternate bands of high 
conspicuity colors or has colored pennants or streamers attached which 
are visible for at least one mile.

(Sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))

[Doc. No. 1457, 29 FR 47, Jan. 3, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 101-2, 32 FR 
5254, Mar. 29, 1967; Amdt. 101-4, 39 FR 22252, June 21, 1974]



Sec. 101.37  Notice requirements.

    (a) Prelaunch notice: Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this 
section, no person may operate an unmanned free balloon unless, within 6 
to 24 hours before beginning the operation, he gives the following 
information to the FAA ATC facility that is nearest to the place of 
intended operation:
    (1) The balloon identification.
    (2) The estimated date and time of launching, amended as necessary 
to remain within plus or minus 30 minutes.
    (3) The location of the launching site.
    (4) The cruising altitude.
    (5) The forecast trajectory and estimated time to cruising altitude 
or 60,000 feet standard pressure altitude, whichever is lower.
    (6) The length and diameter of the balloon, length of the suspension 
device, weight of the payload, and length of the trailing antenna.
    (7) The duration of flight.
    (8) The forecast time and location of impact with the surface of the 
earth.
    (b) For solar or cosmic disturbance investigations involving a 
critical time element, the information in paragraph (a) of this section 
shall be given within 30 minutes to 24 hours before beginning the 
operation.
    (c) Cancellation notice: If the operation is canceled, the person 
who intended to conduct the operation shall immediately notify the 
nearest FAA ATC facility.
    (d) Launch notice: Each person operating an unmanned free balloon 
shall notify the nearest FAA or military ATC facility of the launch time 
immediately after the balloon is launched.



Sec. 101.39  Balloon position reports.

    (a) Each person operating an unmanned free balloon shall:
    (1) Unless ATC requires otherwise, monitor the course of the balloon 
and record its position at least every two hours; and
    (2) Forward any balloon position reports requested by ATC.
    (b) One hour before beginning descent, each person operating an 
unmanned free balloon shall forward to the nearest FAA ATC facility the 
following information regarding the balloon:
    (1) The current geographical position.
    (2) The altitude.
    (3) The forecast time of penetration of 60,000 feet standard 
pressure altitude (if applicable).
    (4) The forecast trajectory for the balance of the flight.
    (5) The forecast time and location of impact with the surface of the 
earth.
    (c) If a balloon position report is not recorded for any two-hour 
period of flight, the person operating an unmanned free balloon shall 
immediately notify the nearest FAA ATC facility. The notice shall 
include the last recorded position and any revision of the forecast 
trajectory. The nearest FAA ATC facility shall be notified immediately 
when tracking of the balloon is re-established.
    (d) Each person operating an unmanned free balloon shall notify the 
nearest FAA ATC facility when the operation is ended.



PART 103_ULTRALIGHT VEHICLES--Table of Contents




                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
103.1 Applicability.
103.3 Inspection requirements.

[[Page 928]]

103.5 Waivers.
103.7 Certification and registration.

                        Subpart B_Operating Rules

103.9 Hazardous operations.
103.11 Daylight operations.
103.13 Operation near aircraft; right-of-way rules.
103.15 Operations over congested areas.
103.17 Operations in certain airspace.
103.19 Operations in prohibited or restricted areas.
103.20 Flight restrictions in the proximity of certain areas designated 
          by notice to airmen.
103.21 Visual reference with the surface.
103.23 Flight visibility and cloud clearance requirements.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40103-40104, 40113, 44701.

    Source: Docket No. 21631, 47 FR 38776, Sept. 2, 1982, unless 
otherwise noted.



                            Subpart A_General



Sec. 103.1  Applicability.

    This part prescribes rules governing the operation of ultralight 
vehicles in the United States. For the purposes of this part, an 
ultralight vehicle is a vehicle that:
    (a) Is used or intended to be used for manned operation in the air 
by a single occupant;
    (b) Is used or intended to be used for recreation or sport purposes 
only;
    (c) Does not have any U.S. or foreign airworthiness certificate; and
    (d) If unpowered, weighs less than 155 pounds; or
    (e) If powered:
    (1) Weighs less than 254 pounds empty weight, excluding floats and 
safety devices which are intended for deployment in a potentially 
catastrophic situation;
    (2) Has a fuel capacity not exceeding 5 U.S. gallons;
    (3) Is not capable of more than 55 knots calibrated airspeed at full 
power in level flight; and
    (4) Has a power-off stall speed which does not exceed 24 knots 
calibrated airspeed.



Sec. 103.3  Inspection requirements.

    (a) Any person operating an ultralight vehicle under this part 
shall, upon request, allow the Administrator, or his designee, to 
inspect the vehicle to determine the applicability of this part.
    (b) The pilot or operator of an ultralight vehicle must, upon 
request of the Administrator, furnish satisfactory evidence that the 
vehicle is subject only to the provisions of this part.



Sec. 103.5  Waivers.

    No person may conduct operations that require a deviation from this 
part except under a written waiver issued by the Administrator.



Sec. 103.7  Certification and registration.

    (a) Notwithstanding any other section pertaining to certification of 
aircraft or their parts or equipment, ultralight vehicles and their 
component parts and equipment are not required to meet the airworthiness 
certification standards specified for aircraft or to have certificates 
of airworthiness.
    (b) Notwithstanding any other section pertaining to airman 
certification, operators of ultralight vehicles are not required to meet 
any aeronautical knowledge, age, or experience requirements to operate 
those vehicles or to have airman or medical certificates.
    (c) Notwithstanding any other section pertaining to registration and 
marking of aircraft, ultralight vehicles are not required to be 
registered or to bear markings of any type.



                        Subpart B_Operating Rules



Sec. 103.9  Hazardous operations.

    (a) No person may operate any ultralight vehicle in a manner that 
creates a hazard to other persons or property.
    (b) No person may allow an object to be dropped from an ultralight 
vehicle if such action creates a hazard to other persons or property.



Sec. 103.11  Daylight operations.

    (a) No person may operate an ultralight vehicle except between the 
hours of sunrise and sunset.
    (b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, ultralight 
vehicles may be operated during the twilight periods 30 minutes before 
official sunrise and 30 minutes after official sunset or, in Alaska, 
during the period of civil twilight as defined in the Air Almanac, if:

[[Page 929]]

    (1) The vehicle is equipped with an operating anticollision light 
visible for at least 3 statute miles; and
    (2) All operations are conducted in uncontrolled airspace.



Sec. 103.13  Operation near aircraft; right-of-way rules.

    (a) Each person operating an ultralight vehicle shall maintain 
vigilance so as to see and avoid aircraft and shall yield the right-of-
way to all aircraft.
    (b) No person may operate an ultralight vehicle in a manner that 
creates a collision hazard with respect to any aircraft.
    (c) Powered ultralights shall yield the right-of-way to unpowered 
ultralights.



Sec. 103.15  Operations over congested areas.

    No person may operate an ultralight vehicle over any congested area 
of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of 
persons.



Sec. 103.17  Operations in certain airspace.

    No person may operate an ultralight vehicle within Class A, Class B, 
Class C, or Class D airspace or within the lateral boundaries of the 
surface area of Class E airspace designated for an airport unless that 
person has prior authorization from the ATC facility having jurisdiction 
over that airspace.

[Amdt. 103-17, 56 FR 65662, Dec. 17, 1991]



Sec. 103.19  Operations in prohibited or restricted areas.

    No person may operate an ultralight vehicle in prohibited or 
restricted areas unless that person has permission from the using or 
controlling agency, as appropriate.



Sec. 103.20  Flight restrictions in the proximity of certain areas designated 

by notice to airmen.

    No person may operate an ultralight vehicle in areas designated in a 
Notice to Airmen under Sec. 91.137, Sec. 91.138, Sec. 91.141, Sec. 
91.143 or Sec. 91.145 of this chapter, unless authorized by:
    (a) Air Traffic Control (ATC); or
    (b) A Flight Standards Certificate of Waiver or Authorization issued 
for the demonstration or event.

[Doc. No. FAA-2000-8274, 66 FR 47378, Sept. 11, 2001]



Sec. 103.21  Visual reference with the surface.

    No person may operate an ultralight vehicle except by visual 
reference with the surface.



Sec. 103.23  Flight visibility and cloud clearance requirements.

    No person may operate an ultralight vehicle when the flight 
visibility or distance from clouds is less than that in the table found 
below. All operations in Class A, Class B, Class C, and Class D airspace 
or Class E airspace designated for an airport must receive prior ATC 
authorization as required in Sec. 103.17 of this part.

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                                         Distance from
            Airspace               Flight visibility        clouds
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Class A.........................  Not applicable....  Not Applicable.
Class B.........................  3 statute miles...  Clear of Clouds.
Class C.........................  3 statute miles...  500 feet below.
                                                      1,000 feet above.
                                                      2,000 feet
                                                       horizontal.
Class D.........................  3 statute miles...  500 feet below.
                                                      1,000 feet above.
                                                      2,000 feet
                                                       horizontal.
Class E:
  Less than 10,000 feet MSL.....  3 statute miles...  500 feet below.
                                                      1,000 feet above.
                                                      2,000 feet
                                                       horizontal.
  At or above 10,000 feet MSL...  5 statute miles...  1,000 feet below.
                                                      1,000 feet above.
                                                      1 statute mile
                                                       horizontal.
Class G:
  1,200 feet or less above the    1 statute mile....  Clear of clouds.
   surface (regardless of MSL
   altitude).
  More than 1,200 feet above the  1 statute mile....  500 feet below.
   surface but less than 10,000                       1,000 feet above.
   feet MSL.                                          2,000 feet
                                                       horizontal.
  More than 1,200 feet above the  5 statute miles...  1,000 feet below.
   surface and at or above                            1,000 feet above.
   10,000 feet MSL.                                   1 statute mile
                                                       horizontal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------


[Amdt. 103-17, 56 FR 65662, Dec. 17, 1991]

[[Page 930]]



PART 105_PARACHUTE OPERATIONS--Table of Contents




                            Subpart A_General

Sec.
105.1 Applicability.
105.3 Definitions.
105.5 General.
105.7 use of alcohol and drugs.
105.9 Inspections.

                        Subpart B_Operating Rules

105.13 Radio equipment and use requirements.
105.15 Information required and notice of cancellation or postponement 
          of a parachute operation.
105.17 Flight visibility and clearance from cloud requirements.
105.19 Parachute operations between sunset and sunrise.
105.21 Parachute operations over or into a congested area or an open-air 
          assembly of persons.
105.23 Parachute operations over or onto airports.
105.25 Parachute operations in designated airspace.

                Subpart C_Parachute Equipment and Packing

105.41 Applicability.
105.43 Use of single-harness, dual-parachute systems.
105.45 Use of tandem parachute systems.
105.47 Use of static lines.
105.49 Foreign parachutists and equipment.

    Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113-40114, 44701-44702, 44721.

    Source: Doc. No. FAA-1999-5483, 66 FR 23553, May 9, 2001, unless 
otherwise noted.



Sec. 105.1  Applicability.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, 
this part prescribes rules governing parachute operations conducted in 
the United States.
    (b) This part does not apply to a parachute operation conducted--
    (1) In response to an in-flight emergency, or
    (2) To meet an emergency on the surface when it is conducted at the 
direction or with the approval of an agency of the United States, or of 
a State, Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, or a possession of the 
United States, or an agency or political subdivision thereof.
    (c) Sections 105.5, 105.9, 105.13, 105.15, 105.17, 105.19 through 
105.23, 105.25(a)(1) and 105.27 of this part do not apply to a parachute 
operation conducted by a member of an Armed Force--
    (1) Over or within a restricted area when that area is under the 
control of an Armed Force.
    (2) During military operations in uncontrolled airspace.



Sec. 105.3  Definitions.

    For the purposes of this part--
    Approved parachute means a parachute manufactured under a type 
certificate or a Technical Standard Order (C-23 series), or a personnel-
carrying U.S. military parachute (other than a high altitude, high 
speed, or ejection type) identified by a Navy Air Facility, an Army Air 
Field, and Air Force-Navy drawing number, an Army Air Field order 
number, or any other military designation or specification number.
    Automatic Activation Device means a self-contained mechanical or 
electro-mechanical device that is attached to the interior of the 
reserve parachute container, which automatically initiates parachute 
deployment of the reserve parachute at a pre-set altitude, time, 
percentage of terminal velocity, or combination thereof.
    Direct Supervision means that a certificated rigger personally 
observes a non-certificated person packing a main parachute to the 
extent necessary to ensure that it is being done properly, and takes 
responsibility for that packing.
    Drop Zone means any pre-determined area upon which parachutists or 
objects land after making an intentional parachute jump or drop. The 
center-point target of a drop zone is expressed in nautical miles from 
the nearest VOR facility when 30 nautical miles or less; or from the 
nearest airport, town, or city depicted on the appropriate Coast and 
Geodetic Survey World Aeronautical Chart or Sectional Aeronautical 
Chart, when the nearest VOR facility is more than 30 nautical miles from 
the drop zone.
    Foreign parachutist means a parachutist who is neither a U.S. 
citizen or a resident alien and is participating in parachute operations 
within the United

[[Page 931]]

States using parachute equipment not manufctured in the United States.
    Freefall means the portion of a parachute jump or drop between 
aircraft exit and parachute deployment in which the parachute is 
activated manually by the parachutist at the parachutist's discretion or 
automatically, or, in the case of an object, is activated automatically.
    Main parachute means a parachute worn as the primary parachute used 
or intended to be used in conjunction with a reserve parachute.
    Object means any item other than a person that descends to the 
surface from an aircraft in flight when a parachute is used or is 
intended to be used during all or part of the descent.
    Parachute drop means the descent of an object to the surface from an 
aircraft in flight when a parachute is used or intended to be used 
during all or part of that descent.
    Parachute jump means a parachute operation that involves the descent 
of one or more persons to the surface from an aircraft in flight when an 
aircraft is used or intended to be used during all or part of that 
descent.
    Parachute operation means the performance of all activity for the 
purpose of, or in support of, a parachute jump or a parachute drop. This 
parachute operation can involve, but is not limited to, the following 
persons: parachutist, parachutist in command and passenger in tandem 
parachute operations, drop zone or owner or operator, jump master, 
certificated parachute rigger, or pilot.
    Parachutist means a person who intends to exit an aircraft while in 
flight using a single-harness, dual parachute system to descend to the 
surface.
    Parachutist in command means the person responsible fro the 
operation and safety of a tandem parachute operation.
    Passenger parachutist means a person who boards an aircraft, acting 
as other than the parachutist in command of a tandem parachute 
operation, with the intent of exiting the aircraft while in-flight using 
the forward harness of a dual harness tandem parachute system to descend 
to the surface.
    Pilot chute means a small parachute used to initiate and/or 
accelerate deployment of a main or reserve parachute.
    Ram-air parachute means a parachute with a canopy consisting of an 
upper and lower surface that is inflated by ram air entering through 
specially designed openings in the front of the canopy to form a gliding 
airfoil.
    Reserve parachute means an approved parachute worn for emergency use 
to be activated only upon failure of the main parachute or in any other 
emergency where use of the main parachute is impractical or use of the 
main parachute would increase risk.
    Single-harness, dual parachute system: means the combination of a 
main parachute, approved reserve parachute, and approved single person 
harness and dual-parachute container. This parachute system may have an 
operational automatic activation device installed.
    Tandem parachute operation: means a parachute operation in which 
more than one person simultaneously uses the same tandem parachute 
system while descending to the surface from an aircraft in flight.
    Tandem parachute system: means the combination of a main parachute, 
approved reserve parachute, and approved harness and dual parachute 
container, and a separate approved forward harness for a passenger 
parachutist. This parachute system must have an operational automatic 
activation device installed.



Sec. 105.5  General.

    No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in command 
of an aircraft may allow a parachute operation to be conducted from an 
aircraft, if that operation creates a hazard to air traffic or to 
persons or property on the surface.



Sec. 105.7  Use of alcohol and drugs.

    No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in command 
of an aircraft may allow a person to conduct a parachute operation from 
that aircraft, if that person is or appears to be under the influence 
of--
    (a) Alcohol, or
    (b) Any drug that affects that person's faculties in any way 
contrary to safety.

[[Page 932]]



Sec. 105.9  Inspections.

    The Administrator may inspect any parachute operation to which this 
part applies (including inspections at the site where the parachute 
operation is being conducted) to determine compliance with the 
regulations of this part.



                        Subpart B_Operating Rules



Sec. 105.13  Radio equipment and use requirements.

    (a) Except when otherwise authorized by air traffic control--
    (1) No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in 
command of an aircraft may allow a parachute operation to be conducted 
from that aircraft, in or into controlled airspace unless, during that 
flight--
    (i) The aircraft is equipped with a functioning two-way radio 
communication system appropriate to the air traffic control facilities 
being used; and
    (ii) Radio communications have been established between the aircraft 
and the air traffic control facility having jurisdiction over the 
affected airspace of the first intended exit altitude at least 5 minutes 
before the parachute operation begins. The pilot in command must 
establish radio communications to receive information regarding air 
traffic activity in the vicinity of the parachute operation.
    (2) The pilot in command of an aircraft used for any parachute 
operation in or into controlled airspace must, during each flight--
    (i) Continuously monitor the appropriate frequency of the aircraft's 
radio communications system from the time radio communications are first 
established between the aircraft and air traffic control, until the 
pilot advises air traffic control that the parachute operation has ended 
for that flight.
    (ii) Advise air traffic control when the last parachutist or object 
leaves the aircraft.
    (b) Parachute operations must be aborted if, prior to receipt of a 
required air traffic control authorization, or during any parachute 
operation in or into controlled airspace, the required radio 
communications system is or becomes inoperative.



Sec. 105.15  Information required and notice of cancellation or postponement 

of a parachute operation.

    (a) Each person requesting an authorization under Sec. Sec. 
105.21(b) and 105.25(a)(2) of this part and each person submitting a 
notification under Sec. 105.25(a)(3) of this part must provide the 
following information (on an individual or group basis):
    (1) The date and time the parachute operation will begin.
    (2) The radius of the drop zone around the target expressed in 
nautical miles.
    (3) The location of the center of the drop zone in relation to--
    (i) The nearest VOR facility in terms of the VOR radial on which it 
is located and its distance in nautical miles from the VOR facility when 
that facility is 30 nautical miles or less from the drop zone target; or
    (ii) the nearest airport, town, or city depicted on the appropriate 
Coast and Geodetic Survey World Aeronautical Chart or Sectional 
Aeronautical Chart, when the nearest VOR facility is more than 30 
nautical miles from the drop zone target.
    (4) Each altitude above mean sea level at which the aircraft will be 
operated when parachutists or objects exist the aircraft.
    (5) The duration of the intended parachute operation.
    (6) The name, address, and telephone number of the person who 
requests the authorization or gives notice of the parachute operation.
    (7) The registration number of the aircraft to be used.
    (8) The name of the air traffic control facility with jurisdiction 
of the airspace at the first intended exit altitude to be used for the 
parachute operation.
    (b) Each holder of a certificate of authorization issued under 
Sec. Sec. 105.21(b) and 105.25(b) of this part must present that 
certificate for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or any 
Federal, State, or local official.
    (c) Each person requesting an authorization under Sec. Sec. 
105.21(b) and 105.25(a)(2) of this part and each person submitting a 
notice under Sec. 105.25(a)(3) of this part must promptly notify the 
air traffic control facility having jurisdiction

[[Page 933]]

over the affected airspace if the proposed or scheduled parachute 
operation is canceled or postponed.



Sec. 105.17  Flight visibility and clearance from cloud requirements.

    No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in command 
of an aircraft may allow a parachute operation to be conducted from that 
aircraft--
    (a) Into or through a cloud, or
    (b) When the flight visibility or the distance from any cloud is 
less than that prescribed in the following table:

------------------------------------------------------------------------
                                        Flight
                                      visibility
              Altitude                  (statute   Distance from clouds
                                        miles)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1,200 feet or less above the surface           3  500 feet below, 1,000
 regardless of the MSL altitude.                   feet above, 2,000
                                                   feet horizontal.
More than 1,200 feet above the                 3  500 feet below, 1,000
 surface but less than 10,000 feet                 feet above, 2,000
 MSL.                                              feet horizontal.
More than 1,200 feet above the                 5  1,000 feet below,
 surface and at or above 10,000 feet               1,000 feet above, 1
 MSL.                                              mile horizontal.
------------------------------------------------------------------------



Sec. 105.19  Parachute operations between sunset and sunrise.

    (a) No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in 
command of an aircraft may allow a person to conduct a parachute 
operation from an aircraft between sunset and sunrise, unless the person 
or object descending from the aircraft displays a light that is visible 
for at least 3 statute miles.
    (b) The light required by paragraph (a) of this section must be 
displayed from the time that the person or object is under a properly 
functioning open parachute until that person or object reaches the 
surface.



Sec. 105.21  Parachute operations over or into a congested area or an open-air 

assembly of persons.

    (a) No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in 
command of an aircraft may allow a parachute operation to be conducted 
from that aircraft, over or into a congested area of a city, town, or 
settlement, or an open-air assembly of persons unless a certificate of 
authorization for that parachute operation has been issued under this 
section. However, a parachutist may drift over a congested area or an 
open-air assembly of persons with a fully deployed and properly 
functioning parachute if that parachutist is at a sufficient altitude to 
avoid creating a hazard to persons or property on the surface.
    (b) An application for a certificate of authorization issued under 
this section must--
    (1) Be made in the form and manner prescribed by the Administrator, 
and
    (2) Contain the information required in Sec. 105.15(a) of this 
part.
    (c) Each holder of, and each person named as a participant in a 
certificate of authorization issued under this section must comply with 
all requirements contained in the certificate of authorization.
    (d) Each holder of a certificate of authorization issued under this 
section must present that certificate for inspection upon the request of 
the Administrator, or any Federal, State, or local official.



Sec. 105.23  Parachute operations over or onto airports.

    No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in command 
of an aircraft may allow a parachute operation to be conducted from that 
aircraft, over or onto any airport unless--
    (a) For airports with an operating control tower:
    (1) Prior approval has been obtained from the management of the 
airport to conduct parachute operations over or on that airport.
    (2) Approval has been obtained from the control tower to conduct 
parachute operations over or onto that airport.
    (3) Two-way radio communications are maintained between the pilot of 
the aircraft involved in the parachute operation and the control tower 
of the airport over or onto which the parachute operation is being 
conducted.
    (b) For airports without an operating control tower, prior approval 
has been obtained from the management of the airport to conduct 
parachute operations over or on that airport.
    (c) A parachutist may drift over that airport with a fully deployed 
and properly functioning parachute if the parachutist is at least 2,000 
feet above that

[[Page 934]]

airport's traffic pattern, and avoids creating a hazard to air traffic 
or to persons and property on the ground.



Sec. 105.25  Parachute operations in designated airspace.

    (a) No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in 
command of an aircraft may allow a parachute operation to be conducted 
from that aircraft--
    (1) Over or within a restricted area or prohibited area unless the 
controlling agency of the area concerned has authorized that parachute 
operation;
    (2) Within or into a Class A, B, C, D airspace area without, or in 
violation of the requirements of, an air traffic control authorization 
issued under this section;
    (3) Except as provided in paragraph (c) and (d) of this section, 
within or into Class E or G airspace area unless the air traffic control 
facility having jurisdiction over the airspace at the first intended 
exit altitude is notified of the parachute operation no earlier than 24 
hours before or no later than 1 hour before the parachute operation 
begins.
    (b) Each request for a parachute operation authorization or 
notification required under this section must be submitted to the air 
traffic control facility having jurisdiction over the airspace at the 
first intended exit altitude and must include the information prescribed 
by Sec. 105.15(a) of this part.
    (c) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, air 
traffic control facilities may accept a written notification from an 
organization that conducts parachute operations and lists the scheduled 
series of parachute operations to be conducted over a stated period of 
time not longer than 12 calendar months. The notification must contain 
the information prescribed by Sec. 105.15(a) of this part, identify the 
responsible persons associated with that parachute operation, and be 
submitted at least 15 days, but not more than 30 days, before the 
parachute operation begins. The FAA may revoke the acceptance of the 
notification for any failure of the organization conducting the 
parachute operations to comply with its requirements.
    (d) Paragraph (a)(3) of this section does not apply to a parachute 
operation conducted by a member of an Armed Force within a restricted 
area that extends upward from the surface when that area is under the 
control of an Armed Force.



                Subpart C_Parachute Equipment and Packing



Sec. 105.41  Applicability.

    This subpart prescribed rules governing parachute equipment used in 
civil parachute operations.



Sec. 105.43  Use of single-harness, dual-parachute systems.

    No person may conduct a parachute operation using a single-harness, 
dual-parachute system, and no pilot in command of an aircraft may allow 
any person to conduct a parachute operation from that aircraft using a 
single-harness, dual-parachute system, unless that system has at least 
one main parachute, one approved reserve parachute, and one approved 
single person harness and container that are packed as follows:
    (a) The main parachute must have been packed within 180 days before 
the date of its use by a certificated parachute rigger, the person 
making the next jump with that parachute, or a non-certificated person 
under the direct supervision of a certificated parachute rigger.
    (b) The reserve parachute must have been packed by a certificated 
parachute rigger--
    (1) Within 180 days before the date of its use, if its canopy, 
shroud, and harness are composed exclusively of nylon, rayon, or similar 
synthetic fiber or material that is substantially resistant to damage 
from mold, mildew, and other fungi, and other rotting agents propagated 
in a moist environment; or
    (2) Within 60 days before the date of its use, if it is composed of 
any amount of silk, pongee, or other natural fiber, or material not 
specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.

[[Page 935]]

    (c) If installed, the automatic activation device must be maintained 
in accordance with manufacturer instructions for that automatic 
activation device.

[Doc. No. FAA-1999-5483, 66 FR 23553, May 9, 2001, as amended by Amdt. 
105-13, 73 FR 69531, Nov. 19, 2008]



Sec. 105.45  Use of tandem parachute systems.

    (a) No person may conduct a parachute operation using a tandem 
parachute system, and no pilot in command of an aircraft may allow any 
person to conduct a parachute operation from that aircraft using a 
tandem parachute system, unless--
    (1) One of the parachutists using the tandem parachute system is the 
parachutist in command, and meets the following requirements:
    (i) Has a minimum of 3 years of experience in parachuting, and must 
provide documentation that the parachutist--
    (ii) Has completed a minimum of 500 freefall parachute jumps using a 
ram-air parachute, and
    (iii) Holds a master parachute license issued by an organization 
recognized by the FAA, and
    (iv) Has successfully completed a tandem instructor course given by 
the manufacturer of the tandem parachute system used in the parachute 
operation or a course acceptable to the Administrator.
    (v) Has been certified by the appropriate parachute manufacturer or 
tandem course provider as being properly trained on the use of the 
specific tandem parachute system to be used.
    (2) The person acting as parachutist in command:
    (i) Has briefed the passenger parachutist before boarding the 
aircraft. The briefing must include the procedures to be used in case of 
an emergency with the aircraft or after exiting the aircraft, while 
preparing to exit and exiting the aircraft, freefall, operating the 
parachute after freefall, landing approach, and landing.
    (ii) Uses the harness position prescribed by the manufacturer of the 
tandem parachute equipment.
    (b) No person may make a parachute jump with a tandem parachute 
system unless--
    (1) The main parachute has been packed by a certificated parachute 
rigger, the parachutist in command making the next jump with that 
parachute, or a person under the direct supervision of a certificated 
parachute rigger.
    (2) The reserve parachute has been packed by a certificated 
parachute rigger in accordance with Sec. 105.43(b) of this part.
    (3) The tandem parachute system contains an operational automatic 
activation device for the reserve parachute, approved by the 
manufacturer of that tandem parachute system. The device must--
    (i) Have been maintained in accordance with manufacturer 
instructions, and
    (ii) Be armed during each tandem parachute operation.
    (4) The passenger parachutist is provided with a manual main 
parachute activation device and instructed on the use of that device, if 
required by the owner/operator.
    (5) The main parachute is equipped with a single-point release 
system.
    (6) The reserve parachute meets Technical Standard Order C23 
specifications.



Sec. 105.47  Use of static lines.

    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person 
may conduct a parachute operation using a static line attached to the 
aircraft and the main parachute unless an assist device, described and 
attached as follows, is used to aid the pilot chute in performing its 
function, or, if no pilot chute is used, to aid in the direct deployment 
of the main parachute canopy. The assist device must--
    (1) Be long enough to allow the main parachute container to open 
before a load is placed on the device.
    (2) Have a static load strength of--
    (i) At least 28 pounds but not more than 160 pounds if it is used to 
aid the pilot chute in performing its function; or
    (ii) At least 56 pounds but not more than 320 pounds if it is used 
to aid in

[[Page 936]]

the direct deployment of the main parachute canopy; and
    (3) Be attached as follows:
    (i) At one end, to the static line above the static-line pins or, if 
static-line pins are not used, above the static-line ties to the 
parachute cone.
    (ii) At the other end, to the pilot chute apex, bridle cord, or 
bridle loop, or, if no pilot chute is used, to the main parachute 
canopy.
    (b) No person may attach an assist device required by paragraph (a) 
of this section to any main parachute unless that person is a 
certificated parachute rigger or that person makes the next parachute 
jump with that parachute.
    (c) An assist device is not required for parachute operations using 
direct-deployed, ram-air parachutes.



Sec. 105.49  Foreign parachutists and equipment.

    (a) No person may conduct a parachute operation, and no pilot in 
command of an aircraft may allow a parachute operation to be conducted 
from that aircraft with an unapproved foreign parachute system unless--
    (1) The parachute system is worn by a foreign parachutist who is the 
owner of that system.
    (2) The parachute system is of a single-harness dual parachute type.
    (3) The parachute system meets the civil aviation authority 
requirements of the foreign parachutist's country.
    (4) All foreign non-approved parachutes deployed by a foreign 
parachutist during a parachute operation conducted under this section 
shall be packed as follows--
    (i) The main parachute must be packed by the foreign parachutist 
making the next parachute jump with that parachute, a certificated 
parachute rigger, or any other person acceptable to the Administrator.
    (ii) The reserve parachute must be packed in accordance with the 
foreign parachutist's civil aviation authority requirements, by a 
certificated parachute rigger, or any other person acceptable to the 
Administrator.

                        PARTS 106-109 [RESERVED]


[[Page 937]]



                              FINDING AIDS




  --------------------------------------------------------------------

  A list of CFR titles, subtitles, chapters, subchapters and parts and 
an alphabetical list of agencies publishing in the CFR are included in 
the CFR Index and Finding Aids volume to the Code of Federal Regulations 
which is published separately and revised annually.

  Table of CFR Titles and Chapters
  Alphabetical List of Agencies Appearing in the CFR
  List of CFR Sections Affected

[[Page 939]]



                    Table of CFR Titles and Chapters




                     (Revised as of January 1, 2009)

                      Title 1--General Provisions

         I  Administrative Committee of the Federal Register 
                (Parts 1--49)
        II  Office of the Federal Register (Parts 50--299)
        IV  Miscellaneous Agencies (Parts 400--500)

                    Title 2--Grants and Agreements

            Subtitle A--Office of Management and Budget Guidance 
                for Grants and Agreements
         I  Office of Management and Budget Governmentwide 
                Guidance for Grants and Agreements (Parts 100--
                199)
        II  Office of Management and Budget Circulars and Guidance 
                (200--299)
            Subtitle B--Federal Agency Regulations for Grants and 
                Agreements
       III  Department of Health and Human Services (Parts 300-- 
                399)
        VI  Department of State (Parts 600--699)
      VIII  Department of Veterans Affairs (Parts 800--899)
        IX  Department of Energy (Parts 900--999)
        XI  Department of Defense (Parts 1100--1199)
       XII  Department of Transportation (Parts 1200--1299)
       XIV  Department of the Interior (Parts 1400--1499)
        XV  Environmental Protection Agency (Parts 1500--1599)
     XVIII  National Aeronautics and Space Administration (Parts 
                1880--1899)
      XXII  Corporation for National and Community Service (Parts 
                2200--2299)
     XXIII  Social Security Administration (Parts 2300--2399)
      XXIV  Housing and Urban Development (Parts 2400--2499)
       XXV  National Science Foundation (Parts 2500--2599)
      XXVI  National Archives and Records Administration (Parts 
                2600--2699)
     XXVII  Small Business Administration (Parts 2700--2799)
    XXVIII  Department of Justice (Parts 2800--2899)
      XXXI  Institute of Museum and Library Services (Parts 3100--
                3199)
     XXXII  National Endowment for the Arts (Parts 3200--3299)
    XXXIII  National Endowment for the Humanities (Parts 3300--
                3399)
      XXXV  Export-Import Bank of the United States (Parts 3500--
                3599)
    XXXVII  Peace Corps (Parts 3700--3799)

[[Page 940]]

                        Title 3--The President

         I  Executive Office of the President (Parts 100--199)

                           Title 4--Accounts

         I  Government Accountability Office (Parts 1--99)

                   Title 5--Administrative Personnel

         I  Office of Personnel Management (Parts 1--1199)
        II  Merit Systems Protection Board (Parts 1200--1299)
       III  Office of Management and Budget (Parts 1300--1399)
         V  The International Organizations Employees Loyalty 
                Board (Parts 1500--1599)
        VI  Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board (Parts 
                1600--1699)
      VIII  Office of Special Counsel (Parts 1800--1899)
        IX  Appalachian Regional Commission (Parts 1900--1999)
        XI  Armed Forces Retirement Home (Parts 2100--2199)
       XIV  Federal Labor Relations Authority, General Counsel of 
                the Federal Labor Relations Authority and Federal 
                Service Impasses Panel (Parts 2400--2499)
        XV  Office of Administration, Executive Office of the 
                President (Parts 2500--2599)
       XVI  Office of Government Ethics (Parts 2600--2699)
       XXI  Department of the Treasury (Parts 3100--3199)
      XXII  Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (Parts 3200--
                3299)
     XXIII  Department of Energy (Parts 3300--3399)
      XXIV  Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Parts 3400--
                3499)
       XXV  Department of the Interior (Parts 3500--3599)
      XXVI  Department of Defense (Parts 3600-- 3699)
    XXVIII  Department of Justice (Parts 3800--3899)
      XXIX  Federal Communications Commission (Parts 3900--3999)
       XXX  Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation (Parts 4000--
                4099)
      XXXI  Farm Credit Administration (Parts 4100--4199)
    XXXIII  Overseas Private Investment Corporation (Parts 4300--
                4399)
      XXXV  Office of Personnel Management (Parts 4500--4599)
        XL  Interstate Commerce Commission (Parts 5000--5099)
       XLI  Commodity Futures Trading Commission (Parts 5100--
                5199)
      XLII  Department of Labor (Parts 5200--5299)
     XLIII  National Science Foundation (Parts 5300--5399)
       XLV  Department of Health and Human Services (Parts 5500--
                5599)
      XLVI  Postal Rate Commission (Parts 5600--5699)
     XLVII  Federal Trade Commission (Parts 5700--5799)
    XLVIII  Nuclear Regulatory Commission (Parts 5800--5899)
         L  Department of Transportation (Parts 6000--6099)
       LII  Export-Import Bank of the United States (Parts 6200--
                6299)
      LIII  Department of Education (Parts 6300--6399)

[[Page 941]]

       LIV  Environmental Protection Agency (Parts 6400--6499)
        LV  National Endowment for the Arts (Parts 6500--6599)
       LVI  National Endowment for the Humanities (Parts 6600--
                6699)
      LVII  General Services Administration (Parts 6700--6799)
     LVIII  Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System 
                (Parts 6800--6899)
       LIX  National Aeronautics and Space Administration (Parts 
                6900--6999)
        LX  United States Postal Service (Parts 7000--7099)
       LXI  National Labor Relations Board (Parts 7100--7199)
      LXII  Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (Parts 7200--
                7299)
     LXIII  Inter-American Foundation (Parts 7300--7399)
      LXIV  Merit Systems Protection Board (Parts 7400--7499)
       LXV  Department of Housing and Urban Development (Parts 
                7500--7599)
      LXVI  National Archives and Records Administration (Parts 
                7600--7699)
     LXVII  Institute of Museum and Library Services (Parts 7700--
                7799)
    LXVIII  Commission on Civil Rights (Parts 7800--7899)
      LXIX  Tennessee Valley Authority (Parts 7900--7999)
      LXXI  Consumer Product Safety Commission (Parts 8100--8199)
    LXXIII  Department of Agriculture (Parts 8300--8399)
     LXXIV  Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission 
                (Parts 8400--8499)
     LXXVI  Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board (Parts 
                8600--8699)
    LXXVII  Office of Management and Budget (Parts 8700--8799)
     XCVII  Department of Homeland Security Human Resources 
                Management System (Department of Homeland 
                Security--Office of Personnel Management) (Parts 
                9700--9799)
      XCIX  Department of Defense Human Resources Management and 
                Labor Relations Systems (Department of Defense--
                Office of Personnel Management) (Parts 9900--9999)

                      Title 6--Domestic Security

         I  Department of Homeland Security, Office of the 
                Secretary (Parts 0--99)
         X  Privacy and Civil Liberties Oversight Board (Parts 
                1000--1099)

                         Title 7--Agriculture

            Subtitle A--Office of the Secretary of Agriculture 
                (Parts 0--26)
            Subtitle B--Regulations of the Department of 
                Agriculture
         I  Agricultural Marketing Service (Standards, 
                Inspections, Marketing Practices), Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 27--209)
        II  Food and Nutrition Service, Department of Agriculture 
                (Parts 210--299)

[[Page 942]]

       III  Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, Department 
                of Agriculture (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Federal Crop Insurance Corporation, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 400--499)
         V  Agricultural Research Service, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 500--599)
        VI  Natural Resources Conservation Service, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 600--699)
       VII  Farm Service Agency, Department of Agriculture (Parts 
                700--799)
      VIII  Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards 
                Administration (Federal Grain Inspection Service), 
                Department of Agriculture (Parts 800--899)
        IX  Agricultural Marketing Service (Marketing Agreements 
                and Orders; Fruits, Vegetables, Nuts), Department 
                of Agriculture (Parts 900--999)
         X  Agricultural Marketing Service (Marketing Agreements 
                and Orders; Milk), Department of Agriculture 
                (Parts 1000--1199)
        XI  Agricultural Marketing Service (Marketing Agreements 
                and Orders; Miscellaneous Commodities), Department 
                of Agriculture (Parts 1200--1299)
       XIV  Commodity Credit Corporation, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 1400--1499)
        XV  Foreign Agricultural Service, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 1500--1599)
       XVI  Rural Telephone Bank, Department of Agriculture (Parts 
                1600--1699)
      XVII  Rural Utilities Service, Department of Agriculture 
                (Parts 1700--1799)
     XVIII  Rural Housing Service, Rural Business-Cooperative 
                Service, Rural Utilities Service, and Farm Service 
                Agency, Department of Agriculture (Parts 1800--
                2099)
        XX  Local Television Loan Guarantee Board (Parts 2200--
                2299)
      XXVI  Office of Inspector General, Department of Agriculture 
                (Parts 2600--2699)
     XXVII  Office of Information Resources Management, Department 
                of Agriculture (Parts 2700--2799)
    XXVIII  Office of Operations, Department of Agriculture (Parts 
                2800--2899)
      XXIX  Office of Energy Policy and New Uses, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 2900--2999)
       XXX  Office of the Chief Financial Officer, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 3000--3099)
      XXXI  Office of Environmental Quality, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 3100--3199)
     XXXII  Office of Procurement and Property Management, 
                Department of Agriculture (Parts 3200--3299)
    XXXIII  Office of Transportation, Department of Agriculture 
                (Parts 3300--3399)
     XXXIV  Cooperative State Research, Education, and Extension 
                Service, Department of Agriculture (Parts 3400--
                3499)

[[Page 943]]

      XXXV  Rural Housing Service, Department of Agriculture 
                (Parts 3500--3599)
     XXXVI  National Agricultural Statistics Service, Department 
                of Agriculture (Parts 3600--3699)
    XXXVII  Economic Research Service, Department of Agriculture 
                (Parts 3700--3799)
   XXXVIII  World Agricultural Outlook Board, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 3800--3899)
       XLI  [Reserved]
      XLII  Rural Business-Cooperative Service and Rural Utilities 
                Service, Department of Agriculture (Parts 4200--
                4299)
         L  Rural Business-Cooperative Service, Rurual Housing 
                Service, and Rural Utilities Service, Department 
                of Agriculture (Parts 5000--5099)

                    Title 8--Aliens and Nationality

         I  Department of Homeland Security (Immigration and 
                Naturalization) (Parts 1--499)
         V  Executive Office for Immigration Review, Department of 
                Justice (Parts 1000--1399)

                 Title 9--Animals and Animal Products

         I  Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, Department 
                of Agriculture (Parts 1--199)
        II  Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards 
                Administration (Packers and Stockyards Programs), 
                Department of Agriculture (Parts 200--299)
       III  Food Safety and Inspection Service, Department of 
                Agriculture (Parts 300--599)

                           Title 10--Energy

         I  Nuclear Regulatory Commission (Parts 0--199)
        II  Department of Energy (Parts 200--699)
       III  Department of Energy (Parts 700--999)
         X  Department of Energy (General Provisions) (Parts 
                1000--1099)
      XIII  Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board (Parts 1303--
                1399)
      XVII  Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board (Parts 1700--
                1799)
     XVIII  Northeast Interstate Low-Level Radioactive Waste 
                Commission (Parts 1800--1899)

                      Title 11--Federal Elections

         I  Federal Election Commission (Parts 1--9099)
        II  Election Assistance Commission (Parts9400--9499)

[[Page 944]]

                      Title 12--Banks and Banking

         I  Comptroller of the Currency, Department of the 
                Treasury (Parts 1--199)
        II  Federal Reserve System (Parts 200--299)
       III  Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Export-Import Bank of the United States (Parts 400--
                499)
         V  Office of Thrift Supervision, Department of the 
                Treasury (Parts 500--599)
        VI  Farm Credit Administration (Parts 600--699)
       VII  National Credit Union Administration (Parts 700--799)
      VIII  Federal Financing Bank (Parts 800--899)
        IX  Federal Housing Finance Board (Parts 900--999)
        XI  Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council 
                (Parts 1100--1199)
       XII  Federal Housing Finance Agency (Parts 1200--1299)
       XIV  Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation (Parts 1400--
                1499)
        XV  Department of the Treasury (Parts 1500--1599)
      XVII  Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight, 
                Department of Housing and Urban Development (Parts 
                1700--1799)
     XVIII  Community Development Financial Institutions Fund, 
                Department of the Treasury (Parts 1800--1899)

               Title 13--Business Credit and Assistance

         I  Small Business Administration (Parts 1--199)
       III  Economic Development Administration, Department of 
                Commerce (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Emergency Steel Guarantee Loan Board (Parts 400--499)
         V  Emergency Oil and Gas Guaranteed Loan Board (Parts 
                500--599)

                    Title 14--Aeronautics and Space

         I  Federal Aviation Administration, Department of 
                Transportation (Parts 1--199)
        II  Office of the Secretary, Department of Transportation 
                (Aviation Proceedings) (Parts 200--399)
       III  Commercial Space Transportation, Federal Aviation 
                Administration, Department of Transportation 
                (Parts 400--499)
         V  National Aeronautics and Space Administration (Parts 
                1200--1299)
        VI  Air Transportation System Stabilization (Parts 1300--
                1399)

                 Title 15--Commerce and Foreign Trade

            Subtitle A--Office of the Secretary of Commerce (Parts 
                0--29)
            Subtitle B--Regulations Relating to Commerce and 
                Foreign Trade
         I  Bureau of the Census, Department of Commerce (Parts 
                30--199)

[[Page 945]]

        II  National Institute of Standards and Technology, 
                Department of Commerce (Parts 200--299)
       III  International Trade Administration, Department of 
                Commerce (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Department of Commerce 
                (Parts 400--499)
       VII  Bureau of Industry and Security, Department of 
                Commerce (Parts 700--799)
      VIII  Bureau of Economic Analysis, Department of Commerce 
                (Parts 800--899)
        IX  National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, 
                Department of Commerce (Parts 900--999)
        XI  Technology Administration, Department of Commerce 
                (Parts 1100--1199)
      XIII  East-West Foreign Trade Board (Parts 1300--1399)
       XIV  Minority Business Development Agency (Parts 1400--
                1499)
            Subtitle C--Regulations Relating to Foreign Trade 
                Agreements
        XX  Office of the United States Trade Representative 
                (Parts 2000--2099)
            Subtitle D--Regulations Relating to Telecommunications 
                and Information
     XXIII  National Telecommunications and Information 
                Administration, Department of Commerce (Parts 
                2300--2399)

                    Title 16--Commercial Practices

         I  Federal Trade Commission (Parts 0--999)
        II  Consumer Product Safety Commission (Parts 1000--1799)

             Title 17--Commodity and Securities Exchanges

         I  Commodity Futures Trading Commission (Parts 1--199)
        II  Securities and Exchange Commission (Parts 200--399)
        IV  Department of the Treasury (Parts 400--499)

          Title 18--Conservation of Power and Water Resources

         I  Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Department of 
                Energy (Parts 1--399)
       III  Delaware River Basin Commission (Parts 400--499)
        VI  Water Resources Council (Parts 700--799)
      VIII  Susquehanna River Basin Commission (Parts 800--899)
      XIII  Tennessee Valley Authority (Parts 1300--1399)

                       Title 19--Customs Duties

         I  Bureau of Customs and Border Protection, Department of 
                Homeland Security; Department of the Treasury 
                (Parts 0--199)

[[Page 946]]

        II  United States International Trade Commission (Parts 
                200--299)
       III  International Trade Administration, Department of 
                Commerce (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Bureau of Immigration and Customs Enforcement, 
                Department of Homeland Security (Parts 400--599)

                     Title 20--Employees' Benefits

         I  Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Department 
                of Labor (Parts 1--199)
        II  Railroad Retirement Board (Parts 200--399)
       III  Social Security Administration (Parts 400--499)
        IV  Employees Compensation Appeals Board, Department of 
                Labor (Parts 500--599)
         V  Employment and Training Administration, Department of 
                Labor (Parts 600--699)
        VI  Employment Standards Administration, Department of 
                Labor (Parts 700--799)
       VII  Benefits Review Board, Department of Labor (Parts 
                800--899)
      VIII  Joint Board for the Enrollment of Actuaries (Parts 
                900--999)
        IX  Office of the Assistant Secretary for Veterans' 
                Employment and Training Service, Department of 
                Labor (Parts 1000--1099)

                       Title 21--Food and Drugs

         I  Food and Drug Administration, Department of Health and 
                Human Services (Parts 1--1299)
        II  Drug Enforcement Administration, Department of Justice 
                (Parts 1300--1399)
       III  Office of National Drug Control Policy (Parts 1400--
                1499)

                      Title 22--Foreign Relations

         I  Department of State (Parts 1--199)
        II  Agency for International Development (Parts 200--299)
       III  Peace Corps (Parts 300--399)
        IV  International Joint Commission, United States and 
                Canada (Parts 400--499)
         V  Broadcasting Board of Governors (Parts 500--599)
       VII  Overseas Private Investment Corporation (Parts 700--
                799)
        IX  Foreign Service Grievance Board (Parts 900--999)
         X  Inter-American Foundation (Parts 1000--1099)
        XI  International Boundary and Water Commission, United 
                States and Mexico, United States Section (Parts 
                1100--1199)
       XII  United States International Development Cooperation 
                Agency (Parts 1200--1299)
      XIII  Millenium Challenge Corporation (Parts 1300--1399)

[[Page 947]]

       XIV  Foreign Service Labor Relations Board; Federal Labor 
                Relations Authority; General Counsel of the 
                Federal Labor Relations Authority; and the Foreign 
                Service Impasse Disputes Panel (Parts 1400--1499)
        XV  African Development Foundation (Parts 1500--1599)
       XVI  Japan-United States Friendship Commission (Parts 
                1600--1699)
      XVII  United States Institute of Peace (Parts 1700--1799)

                          Title 23--Highways

         I  Federal Highway Administration, Department of 
                Transportation (Parts 1--999)
        II  National Highway Traffic Safety Administration and 
                Federal Highway Administration, Department of 
                Transportation (Parts 1200--1299)
       III  National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, 
                Department of Transportation (Parts 1300--1399)

                Title 24--Housing and Urban Development

            Subtitle A--Office of the Secretary, Department of 
                Housing and Urban Development (Parts 0--99)
            Subtitle B--Regulations Relating to Housing and Urban 
                Development
         I  Office of Assistant Secretary for Equal Opportunity, 
                Department of Housing and Urban Development (Parts 
                100--199)
        II  Office of Assistant Secretary for Housing-Federal 
                HousingCommissioner, Department of Housing and 
                Urban Development (Parts 200--299)
       III  Government National Mortgage Association, Department 
                of Housing and Urban Development (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Office of Housing and Office of Multifamily Housing 
                Assistance Restructuring, Department of Housing 
                and Urban Development (Parts 400--499)
         V  Office of Assistant Secretary for Community Planning 
                and Development, Department of Housing and Urban 
                Development (Parts 500--599)
        VI  Office of Assistant Secretary for Community Planning 
                and Development, Department of Housing and Urban 
                Development (Parts 600--699) [Reserved]
       VII  Office of the Secretary, Department of Housing and 
                Urban Development (Housing Assistance Programs and 
                Public and Indian Housing Programs) (Parts 700--
                799)
      VIII  Office of the Assistant Secretary for Housing--Federal 
                Housing Commissioner, Department of Housing and 
                Urban Development (Section 8 Housing Assistance 
                Programs, Section 202 Direct Loan Program, Section 
                202 Supportive Housing for the Elderly Program and 
                Section 811 Supportive Housing for Persons With 
                Disabilities Program) (Parts 800--899)
        IX  Office of Assistant Secretary for Public and Indian 
                Housing, Department of Housing and Urban 
                Development (Parts 900--1699)

[[Page 948]]

         X  Office of Assistant Secretary for Housing--Federal 
                Housing Commissioner, Department of Housing and 
                Urban Development (Interstate Land Sales 
                Registration Program) (Parts 1700--1799)
       XII  Office of Inspector General, Department of Housing and 
                Urban Development (Parts 2000--2099)
        XX  Office of Assistant Secretary for Housing--Federal 
                Housing Commissioner, Department of Housing and 
                Urban Development (Parts 3200--3899)
       XXV  Neighborhood Reinvestment Corporation (Parts 4100--
                4199)

                           Title 25--Indians

         I  Bureau of Indian Affairs, Department of the Interior 
                (Parts 1--299)
        II  Indian Arts and Crafts Board, Department of the 
                Interior (Parts 300--399)
       III  National Indian Gaming Commission, Department of the 
                Interior (Parts 500--599)
        IV  Office of Navajo and Hopi Indian Relocation (Parts 
                700--799)
         V  Bureau of Indian Affairs, Department of the Interior, 
                and Indian Health Service, Department of Health 
                and Human Services (Part 900)
        VI  Office of the Assistant Secretary-Indian Affairs, 
                Department of the Interior (Parts 1000--1199)
       VII  Office of the Special Trustee for American Indians, 
                Department of the Interior (Parts 1200--1299)

                      Title 26--Internal Revenue

         I  Internal Revenue Service, Department of the Treasury 
                (Parts 1--899)

           Title 27--Alcohol, Tobacco Products and Firearms

         I  Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau, Department 
                of the Treasury (Parts 1--399)
        II  Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives, 
                Department of Justice (Parts 400--699)

                   Title 28--Judicial Administration

         I  Department of Justice (Parts 0--299)
       III  Federal Prison Industries, Inc., Department of Justice 
                (Parts 300--399)
         V  Bureau of Prisons, Department of Justice (Parts 500--
                599)
        VI  Offices of Independent Counsel, Department of Justice 
                (Parts 600--699)
       VII  Office of Independent Counsel (Parts 700--799)

[[Page 949]]

      VIII  Court Services and Offender Supervision Agency for the 
                District of Columbia (Parts 800--899)
        IX  National Crime Prevention and Privacy Compact Council 
                (Parts 900--999)
        XI  Department of Justice and Department of State (Parts 
                1100--1199)

                            Title 29--Labor

            Subtitle A--Office of the Secretary of Labor (Parts 
                0--99)
            Subtitle B--Regulations Relating to Labor
         I  National Labor Relations Board (Parts 100--199)
        II  Office of Labor-Management Standards, Department of 
                Labor (Parts 200--299)
       III  National Railroad Adjustment Board (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Office of Labor-Management Standards, Department of 
                Labor (Parts 400--499)
         V  Wage and Hour Division, Department of Labor (Parts 
                500--899)
        IX  Construction Industry Collective Bargaining Commission 
                (Parts 900--999)
         X  National Mediation Board (Parts 1200--1299)
       XII  Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service (Parts 
                1400--1499)
       XIV  Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (Parts 1600--
                1699)
      XVII  Occupational Safety and Health Administration, 
                Department of Labor (Parts 1900--1999)
        XX  Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission 
                (Parts 2200--2499)
       XXV  Employee Benefits Security Administration, Department 
                of Labor (Parts 2500--2599)
     XXVII  Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission 
                (Parts 2700--2799)
        XL  Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (Parts 4000--
                4999)

                      Title 30--Mineral Resources

         I  Mine Safety and Health Administration, Department of 
                Labor (Parts 1--199)
        II  Minerals Management Service, Department of the 
                Interior (Parts 200--299)
       III  Board of Surface Mining and Reclamation Appeals, 
                Department of the Interior (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Geological Survey, Department of the Interior (Parts 
                400--499)
       VII  Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, 
                Department of the Interior (Parts 700--999)

                 Title 31--Money and Finance: Treasury

            Subtitle A--Office of the Secretary of the Treasury 
                (Parts 0--50)

[[Page 950]]

            Subtitle B--Regulations Relating to Money and Finance
         I  Monetary Offices, Department of the Treasury (Parts 
                51--199)
        II  Fiscal Service, Department of the Treasury (Parts 
                200--399)
        IV  Secret Service, Department of the Treasury (Parts 
                400--499)
         V  Office of Foreign Assets Control, Department of the 
                Treasury (Parts 500--599)
        VI  Bureau of Engraving and Printing, Department of the 
                Treasury (Parts 600--699)
       VII  Federal Law Enforcement Training Center, Department of 
                the Treasury (Parts 700--799)
      VIII  Office of International Investment, Department of the 
                Treasury (Parts 800--899)
        IX  Federal Claims Collection Standards (Department of the 
                Treasury--Department of Justice) (Parts 900--999)

                      Title 32--National Defense

            Subtitle A--Department of Defense
         I  Office of the Secretary of Defense (Parts 1--399)
         V  Department of the Army (Parts 400--699)
        VI  Department of the Navy (Parts 700--799)
       VII  Department of the Air Force (Parts 800--1099)
            Subtitle B--Other Regulations Relating to National 
                Defense
       XII  Defense Logistics Agency (Parts 1200--1299)
       XVI  Selective Service System (Parts 1600--1699)
      XVII  Office of the Director of National Intelligence (Parts 
                1700--1799)
     XVIII  National Counterintelligence Center (Parts 1800--1899)
       XIX  Central Intelligence Agency (Parts 1900--1999)
        XX  Information Security Oversight Office, National 
                Archives and Records Administration (Parts 2000--
                2099)
       XXI  National Security Council (Parts 2100--2199)
      XXIV  Office of Science and Technology Policy (Parts 2400--
                2499)
     XXVII  Office for Micronesian Status Negotiations (Parts 
                2700--2799)
    XXVIII  Office of the Vice President of the United States 
                (Parts 2800--2899)

               Title 33--Navigation and Navigable Waters

         I  Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security (Parts 
                1--199)
        II  Corps of Engineers, Department of the Army (Parts 
                200--399)
        IV  Saint Lawrence Seaway Development Corporation, 
                Department of Transportation (Parts 400--499)

                          Title 34--Education

            Subtitle A--Office of the Secretary, Department of 
                Education (Parts 1--99)

[[Page 951]]

            Subtitle B--Regulations of the Offices of the 
                Department of Education
         I  Office for Civil Rights, Department of Education 
                (Parts 100--199)
        II  Office of Elementary and Secondary Education, 
                Department of Education (Parts 200--299)
       III  Office of Special Education and Rehabilitative 
                Services, Department of Education (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Office of Vocational and Adult Education, Department 
                of Education (Parts 400--499)
         V  Office of Bilingual Education and Minority Languages 
                Affairs, Department of Education (Parts 500--599)
        VI  Office of Postsecondary Education, Department of 
                Education (Parts 600--699)
       VII  Office of Educational Research and Improvmeent, 
                Department of Education [Reserved]
        XI  National Institute for Literacy (Parts 1100--1199)
            Subtitle C--Regulations Relating to Education
       XII  National Council on Disability (Parts 1200--1299)

                          Title 35 [Reserved]

             Title 36--Parks, Forests, and Public Property

         I  National Park Service, Department of the Interior 
                (Parts 1--199)
        II  Forest Service, Department of Agriculture (Parts 200--
                299)
       III  Corps of Engineers, Department of the Army (Parts 
                300--399)
        IV  American Battle Monuments Commission (Parts 400--499)
         V  Smithsonian Institution (Parts 500--599)
        VI  [Reserved]
       VII  Library of Congress (Parts 700--799)
      VIII  Advisory Council on Historic Preservation (Parts 800--
                899)
        IX  Pennsylvania Avenue Development Corporation (Parts 
                900--999)
         X  Presidio Trust (Parts 1000--1099)
        XI  Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance 
                Board (Parts 1100--1199)
       XII  National Archives and Records Administration (Parts 
                1200--1299)
        XV  Oklahoma City National Memorial Trust (Parts 1500--
                1599)
       XVI  Morris K. Udall Scholarship and Excellence in National 
                Environmental Policy Foundation (Parts 1600--1699)

             Title 37--Patents, Trademarks, and Copyrights

         I  United States Patent and Trademark Office, Department 
                of Commerce (Parts 1--199)
        II  Copyright Office, Library of Congress (Parts 200--299)
       III  Copyright Royalty Board, Library of Congress (Parts 
                301--399)

[[Page 952]]

        IV  Assistant Secretary for Technology Policy, Department 
                of Commerce (Parts 400--499)
         V  Under Secretary for Technology, Department of Commerce 
                (Parts 500--599)

           Title 38--Pensions, Bonuses, and Veterans' Relief

         I  Department of Veterans Affairs (Parts 0--99)

                       Title 39--Postal Service

         I  United States Postal Service (Parts 1--999)
       III  Postal Regulatory Commission (Parts 3000--3099)

                  Title 40--Protection of Environment

         I  Environmental Protection Agency (Parts 1--1099)
        IV  Environmental Protection Agency and Department of 
                Justice (Parts 1400--1499)
         V  Council on Environmental Quality (Parts 1500--1599)
        VI  Chemical Safety and Hazard Investigation Board (Parts 
                1600--1699)
       VII  Environmental Protection Agency and Department of 
                Defense; Uniform National Discharge Standards for 
                Vessels of the Armed Forces (Parts 1700--1799)

          Title 41--Public Contracts and Property Management

            Subtitle B--Other Provisions Relating to Public 
                Contracts
        50  Public Contracts, Department of Labor (Parts 50-1--50-
                999)
        51  Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or 
                Severely Disabled (Parts 51-1--51-99)
        60  Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs, Equal 
                Employment Opportunity, Department of Labor (Parts 
                60-1--60-999)
        61  Office of the Assistant Secretary for Veterans' 
                Employment and Training Service, Department of 
                Labor (Parts 61-1--61-999)
            Chapters 62--100 [Reserved]
            Subtitle C--Federal Property Management Regulations 
                System
       101  Federal Property Management Regulations (Parts 101-1--
                101-99)
       102  Federal Management Regulation (Parts 102-1--102-299)
            Chapters 103--104 [Reserved]
       105  General Services Administration (Parts 105-1--105-999)
       109  Department of Energy Property Management Regulations 
                (Parts 109-1--109-99)
       114  Department of the Interior (Parts 114-1--114-99)
       115  Environmental Protection Agency (Parts 115-1--115-99)
       128  Department of Justice (Parts 128-1--128-99)

[[Page 953]]

            Chapters 129--200 [Reserved]
            Subtitle D--Other Provisions Relating to Property 
                Management [Reserved]
            Subtitle E--Federal Information Resources Management 
                Regulations System [Reserved]
            Subtitle F--Federal Travel Regulation System
       300  General (Parts 300-1--300-99)
       301  Temporary Duty (TDY) Travel Allowances (Parts 301-1--
                301-99)
       302  Relocation Allowances (Parts 302-1--302-99)
       303  Payment of Expenses Connected with the Death of 
                Certain Employees (Part 303-1--303-99)
       304  Payment of Travel Expenses from a Non-Federal Source 
                (Parts 304-1--304-99)

                        Title 42--Public Health

         I  Public Health Service, Department of Health and Human 
                Services (Parts 1--199)
        IV  Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, Department 
                of Health and Human Services (Parts 400--499)
         V  Office of Inspector General-Health Care, Department of 
                Health and Human Services (Parts 1000--1999)

                   Title 43--Public Lands: Interior

            Subtitle A--Office of the Secretary of the Interior 
                (Parts 1--199)
            Subtitle B--Regulations Relating to Public Lands
         I  Bureau of Reclamation, Department of the Interior 
                (Parts 200--499)
        II  Bureau of Land Management, Department of the Interior 
                (Parts 1000--9999)
       III  Utah Reclamation Mitigation and Conservation 
                Commission (Parts 10000--10010)

             Title 44--Emergency Management and Assistance

         I  Federal Emergency Management Agency, Department of 
                Homeland Security (Parts 0--399)
        IV  Department of Commerce and Department of 
                Transportation (Parts 400--499)

                       Title 45--Public Welfare

            Subtitle A--Department of Health and Human Services 
                (Parts 1--199)
            Subtitle B--Regulations Relating to Public Welfare

[[Page 954]]

        II  Office of Family Assistance (Assistance Programs), 
                Administration for Children and Families, 
                Department of Health and Human Services (Parts 
                200--299)
       III  Office of Child Support Enforcement (Child Support 
                Enforcement Program), Administration for Children 
                and Families, Department of Health and Human 
                Services (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Office of Refugee Resettlement, Administration for 
                Children and Families, Department of Health and 
                Human Services (Parts 400--499)
         V  Foreign Claims Settlement Commission of the United 
                States, Department of Justice (Parts 500--599)
        VI  National Science Foundation (Parts 600--699)
       VII  Commission on Civil Rights (Parts 700--799)
      VIII  Office of Personnel Management (Parts 800--899) 
                [Reserved]
         X  Office of Community Services, Administration for 
                Children and Families, Department of Health and 
                Human Services (Parts 1000--1099)
        XI  National Foundation on the Arts and the Humanities 
                (Parts 1100--1199)
       XII  Corporation for National and Community Service (Parts 
                1200--1299)
      XIII  Office of Human Development Services, Department of 
                Health and Human Services (Parts 1300--1399)
       XVI  Legal Services Corporation (Parts 1600--1699)
      XVII  National Commission on Libraries and Information 
                Science (Parts 1700--1799)
     XVIII  Harry S. Truman Scholarship Foundation (Parts 1800--
                1899)
       XXI  Commission on Fine Arts (Parts 2100--2199)
     XXIII  Arctic Research Commission (Part 2301)
      XXIV  James Madison Memorial Fellowship Foundation (Parts 
                2400--2499)
       XXV  Corporation for National and Community Service (Parts 
                2500--2599)

                          Title 46--Shipping

         I  Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security (Parts 
                1--199)
        II  Maritime Administration, Department of Transportation 
                (Parts 200--399)
       III  Coast Guard (Great Lakes Pilotage), Department of 
                Homeland Security (Parts 400--499)
        IV  Federal Maritime Commission (Parts 500--599)

                      Title 47--Telecommunication

         I  Federal Communications Commission (Parts 0--199)
        II  Office of Science and Technology Policy and National 
                Security Council (Parts 200--299)

[[Page 955]]

       III  National Telecommunications and Information 
                Administration, Department of Commerce (Parts 
                300--399)

           Title 48--Federal Acquisition Regulations System

         1  Federal Acquisition Regulation (Parts 1--99)
         2  Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of 
                Defense (Parts 200--299)
         3  Department of Health and Human Services (Parts 300--
                399)
         4  Department of Agriculture (Parts 400--499)
         5  General Services Administration (Parts 500--599)
         6  Department of State (Parts 600--699)
         7  Agency for International Development (Parts 700--799)
         8  Department of Veterans Affairs (Parts 800--899)
         9  Department of Energy (Parts 900--999)
        10  Department of the Treasury (Parts 1000--1099)
        12  Department of Transportation (Parts 1200--1299)
        13  Department of Commerce (Parts 1300--1399)
        14  Department of the Interior (Parts 1400--1499)
        15  Environmental Protection Agency (Parts 1500--1599)
        16  Office of Personnel Management, Federal Employees 
                Health Benefits Acquisition Regulation (Parts 
                1600--1699)
        17  Office of Personnel Management (Parts 1700--1799)
        18  National Aeronautics and Space Administration (Parts 
                1800--1899)
        19  Broadcasting Board of Governors (Parts 1900--1999)
        20  Nuclear Regulatory Commission (Parts 2000--2099)
        21  Office of Personnel Management, Federal Employees 
                Group Life Insurance Federal Acquisition 
                Regulation (Parts 2100--2199)
        23  Social Security Administration (Parts 2300--2399)
        24  Department of Housing and Urban Development (Parts 
                2400--2499)
        25  National Science Foundation (Parts 2500--2599)
        28  Department of Justice (Parts 2800--2899)
        29  Department of Labor (Parts 2900--2999)
        30  Department of Homeland Security, Homeland Security 
                Acquisition Regulation (HSAR) (Parts 3000--3099)
        34  Department of Education Acquisition Regulation (Parts 
                3400--3499)
        51  Department of the Army Acquisition Regulations (Parts 
                5100--5199)
        52  Department of the Navy Acquisition Regulations (Parts 
                5200--5299)
        53  Department of the Air Force Federal Acquisition 
                Regulation Supplement [Reserved]
        54  Defense Logistics Agency, Department of Defense (Parts 
                5400--5499)

[[Page 956]]

        57  African Development Foundation (Parts 5700--5799)
        61  General Services Administration Board of Contract 
                Appeals (Parts 6100--6199)
        63  Department of Transportation Board of Contract Appeals 
                (Parts 6300--6399)
        99  Cost Accounting Standards Board, Office of Federal 
                Procurement Policy, Office of Management and 
                Budget (Parts 9900--9999)

                       Title 49--Transportation

            Subtitle A--Office of the Secretary of Transportation 
                (Parts 1--99)
            Subtitle B--Other Regulations Relating to 
                Transportation
         I  Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety 
                Administration, Department of Transportation 
                (Parts 100--199)
        II  Federal Railroad Administration, Department of 
                Transportation (Parts 200--299)
       III  Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, 
                Department of Transportation (Parts 300--399)
        IV  Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security (Parts 
                400--499)
         V  National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, 
                Department of Transportation (Parts 500--599)
        VI  Federal Transit Administration, Department of 
                Transportation (Parts 600--699)
       VII  National Railroad Passenger Corporation (AMTRAK) 
                (Parts 700--799)
      VIII  National Transportation Safety Board (Parts 800--999)
         X  Surface Transportation Board, Department of 
                Transportation (Parts 1000--1399)
        XI  Research and Innovative Technology Administration, 
                Department of Transportation [Reserved]
       XII  Transportation Security Administration, Department of 
                Homeland Security (Parts 1500--1699)

                   Title 50--Wildlife and Fisheries

         I  United States Fish and Wildlife Service, Department of 
                the Interior (Parts 1--199)
        II  National Marine Fisheries Service, National Oceanic 
                and Atmospheric Administration, Department of 
                Commerce (Parts 200--299)
       III  International Fishing and Related Activities (Parts 
                300--399)
        IV  Joint Regulations (United States Fish and Wildlife 
                Service, Department of the Interior and National 
                Marine Fisheries Service, National Oceanic and 
                Atmospheric Administration, Department of 
                Commerce); Endangered Species Committee 
                Regulations (Parts 400--499)
         V  Marine Mammal Commission (Parts 500--599)

[[Page 957]]

        VI  Fishery Conservation and Management, National Oceanic 
                and Atmospheric Administration, Department of 
                Commerce (Parts 600--699)

                      CFR Index and Finding Aids

            Subject/Agency Index
            List of Agency Prepared Indexes
            Parallel Tables of Statutory Authorities and Rules
            List of CFR Titles, Chapters, Subchapters, and Parts
            Alphabetical List of Agencies Appearing in the CFR

[[Page 959]]





           Alphabetical List of Agencies Appearing in the CFR




                     (Revised as of January 1, 2009)

                                                  CFR Title, Subtitle or 
                     Agency                               Chapter

Administrative Committee of the Federal Register  1, I
Advanced Research Projects Agency                 32, I
Advisory Council on Historic Preservation         36, VIII
African Development Foundation                    22, XV
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 57
Agency for International Development              22, II
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 7
Agricultural Marketing Service                    7, I, IX, X, XI
Agricultural Research Service                     7, V
Agriculture Department                            5, LXXIII
  Agricultural Marketing Service                  7, I, IX, X, XI
  Agricultural Research Service                   7, V
  Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service      7, III; 9, I
  Chief Financial Officer, Office of              7, XXX
  Commodity Credit Corporation                    7, XIV
  Cooperative State Research, Education, and      7, XXXIV
       Extension Service
  Economic Research Service                       7, XXXVII
  Energy, Office of                               2, IX; 7, XXIX
  Environmental Quality, Office of                7, XXXI
  Farm Service Agency                             7, VII, XVIII
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 4
  Federal Crop Insurance Corporation              7, IV
  Food and Nutrition Service                      7, II
  Food Safety and Inspection Service              9, III
  Foreign Agricultural Service                    7, XV
  Forest Service                                  36, II
  Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards        7, VIII; 9, II
       Administration
  Information Resources Management, Office of     7, XXVII
  Inspector General, Office of                    7, XXVI
  National Agricultural Library                   7, XLI
  National Agricultural Statistics Service        7, XXXVI
  Natural Resources Conservation Service          7, VI
  Operations, Office of                           7, XXVIII
  Procurement and Property Management, Office of  7, XXXII
  Rural Business-Cooperative Service              7, XVIII, XLII, L
  Rural Development Administration                7, XLII
  Rural Housing Service                           7, XVIII, XXXV, L
  Rural Telephone Bank                            7, XVI
  Rural Utilities Service                         7, XVII, XVIII, XLII, L
  Secretary of Agriculture, Office of             7, Subtitle A
  Transportation, Office of                       7, XXXIII
  World Agricultural Outlook Board                7, XXXVIII
Air Force Department                              32, VII
  Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement       48, 53
Air Transportation Stabilization Board            14, VI
Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau          27, I
Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives,       27, II
     Bureau of
AMTRAK                                            49, VII
American Battle Monuments Commission              36, IV
American Indians, Office of the Special Trustee   25, VII
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service        7, III; 9, I
Appalachian Regional Commission                   5, IX

[[Page 960]]

Architectural and Transportation Barriers         36, XI
     Compliance Board
Arctic Research Commission                        45, XXIII
Armed Forces Retirement Home                      5, XI
Army Department                                   32, V
  Engineers, Corps of                             33, II; 36, III
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 51
Benefits Review Board                             20, VII
Bilingual Education and Minority Languages        34, V
     Affairs, Office of
Blind or Severely Disabled, Committee for         41, 51
     Purchase From People Who Are
Broadcasting Board of Governors                   22, V
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 19
Census Bureau                                     15, I
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services          42, IV
Central Intelligence Agency                       32, XIX
Chief Financial Officer, Office of                7, XXX
Child Support Enforcement, Office of              45, III
Children and Families, Administration for         45, II, III, IV, X
Civil Rights, Commission on                       5, LXVIII; 45, VII
Civil Rights, Office for                          34, I
Coast Guard                                       33, I; 46, I; 49, IV
Coast Guard (Great Lakes Pilotage)                46, III
Commerce Department                               44, IV
  Census Bureau                                   15, I
  Economic Affairs, Under Secretary               37, V
  Economic Analysis, Bureau of                    15, VIII
  Economic Development Administration             13, III
  Emergency Management and Assistance             44, IV
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 13
  Fishery Conservation and Management             50, VI
  Foreign-Trade Zones Board                       15, IV
  Industry and Security, Bureau of                15, VII
  International Trade Administration              15, III; 19, III
  National Institute of Standards and Technology  15, II
  National Marine Fisheries Service               50, II, IV, VI
  National Oceanic and Atmospheric                15, IX; 50, II, III, IV, 
       Administration                             VI
  National Telecommunications and Information     15, XXIII; 47, III
       Administration
  National Weather Service                        15, IX
  Patent and Trademark Office, United States      37, I
  Productivity, Technology and Innovation,        37, IV
       Assistant Secretary for
  Secretary of Commerce, Office of                15, Subtitle A
  Technology, Under Secretary for                 37, V
  Technology Administration                       15, XI
  Technology Policy, Assistant Secretary for      37, IV
Commercial Space Transportation                   14, III
Commodity Credit Corporation                      7, XIV
Commodity Futures Trading Commission              5, XLI; 17, I
Community Planning and Development, Office of     24, V, VI
     Assistant Secretary for
Community Services, Office of                     45, X
Comptroller of the Currency                       12, I
Construction Industry Collective Bargaining       29, IX
     Commission
Consumer Product Safety Commission                5, LXXI; 16, II
Cooperative State Research, Education, and        7, XXXIV
     Extension Service
Copyright Office                                  37, II
Copyright Royalty Board                           37, III
Corporation for National and Community Service    2, XXII; 45, XII, XXV
Cost Accounting Standards Board                   48, 99
Council on Environmental Quality                  40, V
Court Services and Offender Supervision Agency    28, VIII
     for the District of Columbia
Customs and Border Protection Bureau              19, I
Defense Contract Audit Agency                     32, I
Defense Department                                5, XXVI; 32, Subtitle A; 
                                                  40, VII

[[Page 961]]

  Advanced Research Projects Agency               32, I
  Air Force Department                            32, VII
  Army Department                                 32, V; 33, II; 36, III, 
                                                  48, 51
  Defense Acquisition Regulations System          48, 2
  Defense Intelligence Agency                     32, I
  Defense Logistics Agency                        32, I, XII; 48, 54
  Engineers, Corps of                             33, II; 36, III
  National Imagery and Mapping Agency             32, I
  Navy Department                                 32, VI; 48, 52
  Secretary of Defense, Office of                 2, XI; 32, I
Defense Contract Audit Agency                     32, I
Defense Intelligence Agency                       32, I
Defense Logistics Agency                          32, XII; 48, 54
Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board           10, XVII
Delaware River Basin Commission                   18, III
District of Columbia, Court Services and          28, VIII
     Offender Supervision Agency for the
Drug Enforcement Administration                   21, II
East-West Foreign Trade Board                     15, XIII
Economic Affairs, Under Secretary                 37, V
Economic Analysis, Bureau of                      15, VIII
Economic Development Administration               13, III
Economic Research Service                         7, XXXVII
Education, Department of                          5, LIII
  Bilingual Education and Minority Languages      34, V
       Affairs, Office of
  Civil Rights, Office for                        34, I
  Educational Research and Improvement, Office    34, VII
       of
  Elementary and Secondary Education, Office of   34, II
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 34
  Postsecondary Education, Office of              34, VI
  Secretary of Education, Office of               34, Subtitle A
  Special Education and Rehabilitative Services,  34, III
       Office of
  Vocational and Adult Education, Office of       34, IV
Educational Research and Improvement, Office of   34, VII
Election Assistance Commission                    11, II
Elementary and Secondary Education, Office of     34, II
Emergency Oil and Gas Guaranteed Loan Board       13, V
Emergency Steel Guarantee Loan Board              13, IV
Employee Benefits Security Administration         29, XXV
Employees' Compensation Appeals Board             20, IV
Employees Loyalty Board                           5, V
Employment and Training Administration            20, V
Employment Standards Administration               20, VI
Endangered Species Committee                      50, IV
Energy, Department of                             5, XXIII; 10, II, III, X
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 9
  Federal Energy Regulatory Commission            5, XXIV; 18, I
  Property Management Regulations                 41, 109
Energy, Office of                                 7, XXIX
Engineers, Corps of                               33, II; 36, III
Engraving and Printing, Bureau of                 31, VI
Environmental Protection Agency                   2, XV; 5, LIV; 40, I, IV, 
                                                  VII
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 15
  Property Management Regulations                 41, 115
Environmental Quality, Office of                  7, XXXI
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission           5, LXII; 29, XIV
Equal Opportunity, Office of Assistant Secretary  24, I
     for
Executive Office of the President                 3, I
  Administration, Office of                       5, XV
  Environmental Quality, Council on               40, V
  Management and Budget, Office of                5, III, LXXVII; 14, VI; 
                                                  48, 99
  National Drug Control Policy, Office of         21, III
  National Security Council                       32, XXI; 47, 2

[[Page 962]]

  Presidential Documents                          3
  Science and Technology Policy, Office of        32, XXIV; 47, II
  Trade Representative, Office of the United      15, XX
       States
Export-Import Bank of the United States           2, XXXV; 5, LII; 12, IV
Family Assistance, Office of                      45, II
Farm Credit Administration                        5, XXXI; 12, VI
Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation          5, XXX; 12, XIV
Farm Service Agency                               7, VII, XVIII
Federal Acquisition Regulation                    48, 1
Federal Aviation Administration                   14, I
  Commercial Space Transportation                 14, III
Federal Claims Collection Standards               31, IX
Federal Communications Commission                 5, XXIX; 47, I
Federal Contract Compliance Programs, Office of   41, 60
Federal Crop Insurance Corporation                7, IV
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation             5, XXII; 12, III
Federal Election Commission                       11, I
Federal Emergency Management Agency               44, I
Federal Employees Group Life Insurance Federal    48, 21
     Acquisition Regulation
Federal Employees Health Benefits Acquisition     48, 16
     Regulation
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission              5, XXIV; 18, I
Federal Financial Institutions Examination        12, XI
     Council
Federal Financing Bank                            12, VIII
Federal Highway Administration                    23, I, II
Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation            1, IV
Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight Office       12, XVII
Federal Housing Finance Agency                    12, XII
Federal Housing Finance Board                     12, IX
Federal Labor Relations Authority, and General    5, XIV; 22, XIV
     Counsel of the Federal Labor Relations 
     Authority
Federal Law Enforcement Training Center           31, VII
Federal Management Regulation                     41, 102
Federal Maritime Commission                       46, IV
Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service        29, XII
Federal Mine Safety and Health Review Commission  5, LXXIV; 29, XXVII
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration       49, III
Federal Prison Industries, Inc.                   28, III
Federal Procurement Policy Office                 48, 99
Federal Property Management Regulations           41, 101
Federal Railroad Administration                   49, II
Federal Register, Administrative Committee of     1, I
Federal Register, Office of                       1, II
Federal Reserve System                            12, II
  Board of Governors                              5, LVIII
Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board        5, VI, LXXVI
Federal Service Impasses Panel                    5, XIV
Federal Trade Commission                          5, XLVII; 16, I
Federal Transit Administration                    49, VI
Federal Travel Regulation System                  41, Subtitle F
Fine Arts, Commission on                          45, XXI
Fiscal Service                                    31, II
Fish and Wildlife Service, United States          50, I, IV
Fishery Conservation and Management               50, VI
Food and Drug Administration                      21, I
Food and Nutrition Service                        7, II
Food Safety and Inspection Service                9, III
Foreign Agricultural Service                      7, XV
Foreign Assets Control, Office of                 31, V
Foreign Claims Settlement Commission of the       45, V
     United States
Foreign Service Grievance Board                   22, IX
Foreign Service Impasse Disputes Panel            22, XIV
Foreign Service Labor Relations Board             22, XIV
Foreign-Trade Zones Board                         15, IV
Forest Service                                    36, II
General Services Administration                   5, LVII; 41, 105
  Contract Appeals, Board of                      48, 61

[[Page 963]]

  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 5
  Federal Management Regulation                   41, 102
  Federal Property Management Regulations         41, 101
  Federal Travel Regulation System                41, Subtitle F
  General                                         41, 300
  Payment From a Non-Federal Source for Travel    41, 304
       Expenses
  Payment of Expenses Connected With the Death    41, 303
       of Certain Employees
  Relocation Allowances                           41, 302
  Temporary Duty (TDY) Travel Allowances          41, 301
Geological Survey                                 30, IV
Government Accountability Office                  4, I
Government Ethics, Office of                      5, XVI
Government National Mortgage Association          24, III
Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards          7, VIII; 9, II
     Administration
Harry S. Truman Scholarship Foundation            45, XVIII
Health and Human Services, Department of          2, III; 5, XLV; 45, 
                                                  Subtitle A,
  Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services        42, IV
  Child Support Enforcement, Office of            45, III
  Children and Families, Administration for       45, II, III, IV, X
  Community Services, Office of                   45, X
  Family Assistance, Office of                    45, II
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 3
  Food and Drug Administration                    21, I
  Human Development Services, Office of           45, XIII
  Indian Health Service                           25, V
  Inspector General (Health Care), Office of      42, V
  Public Health Service                           42, I
  Refugee Resettlement, Office of                 45, IV
Homeland Security, Department of                  6, I
  Coast Guard                                     33, I; 46, I; 49, IV
  Coast Guard (Great Lakes Pilotage)              46, III
  Customs and Border Protection Bureau            19, I
  Federal Emergency Management Agency             44, I
  Immigration and Customs Enforcement Bureau      19, IV
  Immigration and Naturalization                  8, I
  Transportation Security Administration          49, XII
HOPE for Homeowners Program, Board of Directors   24, XXIV
     of
Housing and Urban Development, Department of      2, XXIV; 5, LXV; 24, 
                                                  Subtitle B
  Community Planning and Development, Office of   24, V, VI
       Assistant Secretary for
  Equal Opportunity, Office of Assistant          24, I
       Secretary for
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 24
  Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight, Office    12, XVII
       of
  Government National Mortgage Association        24, III
  Housing--Federal Housing Commissioner, Office   24, II, VIII, X, XX
       of Assistant Secretary for
  Housing, Office of, and Multifamily Housing     24, IV
       Assistance Restructuring, Office of
  Inspector General, Office of                    24, XII
  Public and Indian Housing, Office of Assistant  24, IX
       Secretary for
  Secretary, Office of                            24, Subtitle A, VII
Housing--Federal Housing Commissioner, Office of  24, II, VIII, X, XX
     Assistant Secretary for
Housing, Office of, and Multifamily Housing       24, IV
     Assistance Restructuring, Office of
Human Development Services, Office of             45, XIII
Immigration and Customs Enforcement Bureau        19, IV
Immigration and Naturalization                    8, I
Immigration Review, Executive Office for          8, V
Independent Counsel, Office of                    28, VII
Indian Affairs, Bureau of                         25, I, V
Indian Affairs, Office of the Assistant           25, VI
     Secretary
Indian Arts and Crafts Board                      25, II
Indian Health Service                             25, V

[[Page 964]]

Industry and Security, Bureau of                  15, VII
Information Resources Management, Office of       7, XXVII
Information Security Oversight Office, National   32, XX
     Archives and Records Administration
Inspector General
  Agriculture Department                          7, XXVI
  Health and Human Services Department            42, V
  Housing and Urban Development Department        24, XII
Institute of Peace, United States                 22, XVII
Inter-American Foundation                         5, LXIII; 22, X
Interior Department
  American Indians, Office of the Special         25, VII
       Trustee
  Endangered Species Committee                    50, IV
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 14
  Federal Property Management Regulations System  41, 114
  Fish and Wildlife Service, United States        50, I, IV
  Geological Survey                               30, IV
  Indian Affairs, Bureau of                       25, I, V
  Indian Affairs, Office of the Assistant         25, VI
       Secretary
  Indian Arts and Crafts Board                    25, II
  Land Management, Bureau of                      43, II
  Minerals Management Service                     30, II
  National Indian Gaming Commission               25, III
  National Park Service                           36, I
  Reclamation, Bureau of                          43, I
  Secretary of the Interior, Office of            2, XIV; 43, Subtitle A
  Surface Mining and Reclamation Appeals, Board   30, III
       of
  Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement,     30, VII
       Office of
Internal Revenue Service                          26, I
International Boundary and Water Commission,      22, XI
     United States and Mexico, United States 
     Section
International Development, United States Agency   22, II
     for
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 7
International Development Cooperation Agency,     22, XII
     United States
International Fishing and Related Activities      50, III
International Joint Commission, United States     22, IV
     and Canada
International Organizations Employees Loyalty     5, V
     Board
International Trade Administration                15, III; 19, III
International Trade Commission, United States     19, II
Interstate Commerce Commission                    5, XL
Investment Security, Office of                    31, VIII
James Madison Memorial Fellowship Foundation      45, XXIV
Japan-United States Friendship Commission         22, XVI
Joint Board for the Enrollment of Actuaries       20, VIII
Justice Department                                2, XXVII; 5, XXVIII; 28, 
                                                  I, XI; 40, IV
  Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives,     27, II
       Bureau of
  Drug Enforcement Administration                 21, II
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 28
  Federal Claims Collection Standards             31, IX
  Federal Prison Industries, Inc.                 28, III
  Foreign Claims Settlement Commission of the     45, V
       United States
  Immigration Review, Executive Office for        8, V
  Offices of Independent Counsel                  28, VI
  Prisons, Bureau of                              28, V
  Property Management Regulations                 41, 128
Labor Department                                  5, XLII
  Benefits Review Board                           20, VII
  Employee Benefits Security Administration       29, XXV
  Employees' Compensation Appeals Board           20, IV
  Employment and Training Administration          20, V
  Employment Standards Administration             20, VI
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 29
  Federal Contract Compliance Programs, Office    41, 60
       of
  Federal Procurement Regulations System          41, 50

[[Page 965]]

  Labor-Management Standards, Office of           29, II, IV
  Mine Safety and Health Administration           30, I
  Occupational Safety and Health Administration   29, XVII
  Public Contracts                                41, 50
  Secretary of Labor, Office of                   29, Subtitle A
  Veterans' Employment and Training Service,      41, 61; 20, IX
       Office of the Assistant Secretary for
  Wage and Hour Division                          29, V
  Workers' Compensation Programs, Office of       20, I
Labor-Management Standards, Office of             29, II, IV
Land Management, Bureau of                        43, II
Legal Services Corporation                        45, XVI
Library of Congress                               36, VII
  Copyright Office                                37, II
  Copyright Royalty Board                         37, III
Local Television Loan Guarantee Board             7, XX
Management and Budget, Office of                  5, III, LXXVII; 14, VI; 
                                                  48, 99
Marine Mammal Commission                          50, V
Maritime Administration                           46, II
Merit Systems Protection Board                    5, II, LXIV
Micronesian Status Negotiations, Office for       32, XXVII
Millenium Challenge Corporation                   22, XIII
Mine Safety and Health Administration             30, I
Minerals Management Service                       30, II
Minority Business Development Agency              15, XIV
Miscellaneous Agencies                            1, IV
Monetary Offices                                  31, I
Morris K. Udall Scholarship and Excellence in     36, XVI
     National Environmental Policy Foundation
Museum and Library Services, Institute of         2, XXXI
National Aeronautics and Space Administration     2, XVIII; 5, LIX; 14, V
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 18
National Agricultural Library                     7, XLI
National Agricultural Statistics Service          7, XXXVI
National and Community Service, Corporation for   45, XII, XXV
National Archives and Records Administration      2, XXVI; 5, LXVI; 36, XII
  Information Security Oversight Office           32, XX
National Capital Planning Commission              1, IV
National Commission for Employment Policy         1, IV
National Commission on Libraries and Information  45, XVII
     Science
National Council on Disability                    34, XII
National Counterintelligence Center               32, XVIII
National Credit Union Administration              12, VII
National Crime Prevention and Privacy Compact     28, IX
     Council
National Drug Control Policy, Office of           21, III
National Endowment for the Arts                   2, XXXII
National Endowment for the Humanities             2, XXXIII
National Foundation on the Arts and the           45, XI
     Humanities
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration    23, II, III; 49, V
National Imagery and Mapping Agency               32, I
National Indian Gaming Commission                 25, III
National Institute for Literacy                   34, XI
National Institute of Standards and Technology    15, II
National Intelligence, Office of Director of      32, XVII
National Labor Relations Board                    5, LXI; 29, I
National Marine Fisheries Service                 50, II, IV, VI
National Mediation Board                          29, X
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration   15, IX; 50, II, III, IV, 
                                                  VI
National Park Service                             36, I
National Railroad Adjustment Board                29, III
National Railroad Passenger Corporation (AMTRAK)  49, VII
National Science Foundation                       2, XXV; 5, XLIII; 45, VI
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 25
National Security Council                         32, XXI
National Security Council and Office of Science   47, II
   and Technology Policy
[[Page 966]]

National Telecommunications and Information       15, XXIII; 47, III
     Administration
National Transportation Safety Board              49, VIII
Natural Resources Conservation Service            7, VI
Navajo and Hopi Indian Relocation, Office of      25, IV
Navy Department                                   32, VI
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 52
Neighborhood Reinvestment Corporation             24, XXV
Northeast Interstate Low-Level Radioactive Waste  10, XVIII
     Commission
Nuclear Regulatory Commission                     5, XLVIII; 10, I
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 20
Occupational Safety and Health Administration     29, XVII
Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission  29, XX
Offices of Independent Counsel                    28, VI
Oklahoma City National Memorial Trust             36, XV
Operations Office                                 7, XXVIII
Overseas Private Investment Corporation           5, XXXIII; 22, VII
Patent and Trademark Office, United States        37, I
Payment From a Non-Federal Source for Travel      41, 304
     Expenses
Payment of Expenses Connected With the Death of   41, 303
     Certain Employees
Peace Corps                                       22, III
Pennsylvania Avenue Development Corporation       36, IX
Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation              29, XL
Personnel Management, Office of                   5, I, XXXV; 45, VIII
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 17
  Federal Employees Group Life Insurance Federal  48, 21
       Acquisition Regulation
  Federal Employees Health Benefits Acquisition   48, 16
       Regulation
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety           49, I
     Administration
Postal Regulatory Commission                      5, XLVI; 39, III
Postal Service, United States                     5, LX; 39, I
Postsecondary Education, Office of                34, VI
President's Commission on White House             1, IV
     Fellowships
Presidential Documents                            3
Presidio Trust                                    36, X
Prisons, Bureau of                                28, V
Privacy and Civil Liberties Oversight Board       6, X
Procurement and Property Management, Office of    7, XXXII
Productivity, Technology and Innovation,          37, IV
     Assistant Secretary
Public Contracts, Department of Labor             41, 50
Public and Indian Housing, Office of Assistant    24, IX
     Secretary for
Public Health Service                             42, I
Railroad Retirement Board                         20, II
Reclamation, Bureau of                            43, I
Refugee Resettlement, Office of                   45, IV
Relocation Allowances                             41, 302
Research and Innovative Technology                49, XI
     Administration
Rural Business-Cooperative Service                7, XVIII, XLII, L
Rural Development Administration                  7, XLII
Rural Housing Service                             7, XVIII, XXXV, L
Rural Telephone Bank                              7, XVI
Rural Utilities Service                           7, XVII, XVIII, XLII, L
Saint Lawrence Seaway Development Corporation     33, IV
Science and Technology Policy, Office of          32, XXIV
Science and Technology Policy, Office of, and     47, II
     National Security Council
Secret Service                                    31, IV
Securities and Exchange Commission                17, II
Selective Service System                          32, XVI
Small Business Administration                     2, XXVII; 13, I
Smithsonian Institution                           36, V
Social Security Administration                    2, XXIII; 20, III; 48, 23
Soldiers' and Airmen's Home, United States        5, XI
Special Counsel, Office of                        5, VIII

[[Page 967]]

Special Education and Rehabilitative Services,    34, III
     Office of
State Department                                  2, VI; 22, I; 28, XI
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 6
Surface Mining and Reclamation Appeals, Board of  30, III
Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement,       30, VII
     Office of
Surface Transportation Board                      49, X
Susquehanna River Basin Commission                18, VIII
Technology Administration                         15, XI
Technology Policy, Assistant Secretary for        37, IV
Technology, Under Secretary for                   37, V
Tennessee Valley Authority                        5, LXIX; 18, XIII
Thrift Supervision Office, Department of the      12, V
     Treasury
Trade Representative, United States, Office of    15, XX
Transportation, Department of                     2, XII; 5, L
  Commercial Space Transportation                 14, III
  Contract Appeals, Board of                      48, 63
  Emergency Management and Assistance             44, IV
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 12
  Federal Aviation Administration                 14, I
  Federal Highway Administration                  23, I, II
  Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration     49, III
  Federal Railroad Administration                 49, II
  Federal Transit Administration                  49, VI
  Maritime Administration                         46, II
  National Highway Traffic Safety Administration  23, II, III; 49, V
  Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety         49, I
       Administration
  Saint Lawrence Seaway Development Corporation   33, IV
  Secretary of Transportation, Office of          14, II; 49, Subtitle A
  Surface Transportation Board                    49, X
  Transportation Statistics Bureau                49, XI
Transportation, Office of                         7, XXXIII
Transportation Security Administration            49, XII
Transportation Statistics Bureau                  49, XI
Travel Allowances, Temporary Duty (TDY)           41, 301
Treasury Department                               5, XXI; 12, XV; 17, IV; 
                                                  31, IX
  Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau        27, I
  Community Development Financial Institutions    12, XVIII
       Fund
  Comptroller of the Currency                     12, I
  Customs and Border Protection Bureau            19, I
  Engraving and Printing, Bureau of               31, VI
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 10
  Federal Claims Collection Standards             31, IX
  Federal Law Enforcement Training Center         31, VII
  Fiscal Service                                  31, II
  Foreign Assets Control, Office of               31, V
  Internal Revenue Service                        26, I
  Investment Security, Office of                  31, VIII
  Monetary Offices                                31, I
  Secret Service                                  31, IV
  Secretary of the Treasury, Office of            31, Subtitle A
  Thrift Supervision, Office of                   12, V
Truman, Harry S. Scholarship Foundation           45, XVIII
United States and Canada, International Joint     22, IV
     Commission
United States and Mexico, International Boundary  22, XI
     and Water Commission, United States Section
Utah Reclamation Mitigation and Conservation      43, III
     Commission
Veterans Affairs Department                       2, VIII; 38, I
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 8
Veterans' Employment and Training Service,        41, 61; 20, IX
     Office of the Assistant Secretary for
United States and Mexico, International Boundary  22, XI
     and Water Commission, United States Section
Utah Reclamation Mitigation and Conservation      43, III
     Commission
Veterans Affairs Department                       2, VIII; 38, I
  Federal Acquisition Regulation                  48, 8
Veterans' Employment and Training Service,        41, 61; 20, IX
   Office of the Assistant Secretary for
[[Page 968]]

Vice President of the United States, Office of    32, XXVIII
Vocational and Adult Education, Office of         34, IV
Wage and Hour Division                            29, V
Water Resources Council                           18, VI
Workers' Compensation Programs, Office of         20, I
World Agricultural Outlook Board                  7, XXXVIII

[[Page 969]]



List of CFR Sections Affected



All changes in this volume of the Code of Federal Regulations that were 
made by documents published in the Federal Register since January 1, 
2001, are enumerated in the following list. Entries indicate the nature 
of the changes effected. Page numbers refer to Federal Register pages. 
The user should consult the entries for chapters and parts as well as 
sections for revisions.
For the period before January 1, 2001, see the ``List of CFR Sections 
Affected, 1949-1963, 1964-1972, 1973-1985, and 1986-2000'' published in 
11 separate volumes.

                                  2001

14 CFR
                                                                   66 FR
                                                                    Page
Chapter I
61 Technical correction............................................31145
    SFAR No. 93 added..............................................52279
63 Technical correction............................................31145
    SFAR No. 93 added..............................................52279
65 Technical correction............................................31145
65.95 (a)(1) amended...............................................21066
65.111 (a) and (b) revised.........................................23553
65.125 (a)(2) and (b)(2) revised...................................23553
71.1...............................................................1832,
2214, 2802, 6457, 6458, 6459, 8169--8172, 8174, 8358, 8359, 8360, 8362, 
8363, 8365, 9911, 9912, 9913, 10190, 10812, 10813, 11231, 11530, 11531, 
11532, 12732, 13012, 15027, 15028, 15991, 16119, 16120, 16849, 16850, 
17352, 18051, 18187, 18529, 19083, 19084, 19853, 20389, 20587, 20588, 
21281, 21639, 23558-23561, 28369, 29017, 29018, 29019, 29691, 32538, 
32732, 32733, 32734, 32735, 32736, 32737, 33174, 34110, 34807, 34808, 
35080, 35541, 36701, 36909, 38147-38149, 38368, 38369, 38539, 39435, 
42107, 42108, 43078, 43079, 43080, 44049, 44050, 45162, 45596, 45598--
45603, 46216, 46367, 47577, 48541, 48793, 48795, 49517--49520, 50101, 
50102, 53951, 56607, 63623, 66741
    Corrected........1033, 6456, 9903, 9913, 17352, 18530, 29019, 33829, 
                                39560, 45597, 48953, 53950, 56902, 63489
    Eff. 2-21-02...................................................59136
    Eff. 2-21-02...................................................65835
    Eff. 4-18-02...................................................63490
    Eff. 2-21-02............................................64910, 64911
73.30..............................................................45661
73.32.......................................................34809, 50310
73.44..............................................................53951
73.63......................................................16392, 54436,
73.63 Corrected....................................................63433
91 SFAR No. 50-2 reinstated and amended.............................1003
    SFAR No. 50-2 revised..........................................16584
    Policy statement...............................................30310
    SFAR No.90 added...............................................48943
    SFAR No. 91 added..............................................50533
    Comment request................................................59692
91.23 (b)(1)(i) amended............................................21066
91.137 Heading revised.............................................47377
91.138 (b) revised.................................................47377
91.145 Added.......................................................47378
91.175 (f) amended.................................................21066
91.207 (f)(1) corrected............................................16316
91.215 (a) amended.................................................21066
91.307 (b) revised.................................................23553
91.401 (b) amended.................................................21066
91.403 (c) amended.................................................21066
91.409 (c)(2) and (f)(1) amended...................................21066
91.410 Heading revised; introductory text, (a) introductory text, 
        (1), (2), (3) and (b) through (l) redesignated as (a) 
        introductory text, (1) introductory text, (i), (ii), (iii) 
        and (2) through (12); new (b) added........................23130
91.411 (b)(2)(v) removed; eff. 4-6-03..............................41116
91.413 (a) and (c)(2) amended......................................21066
    (c)(1)(iv) removed; eff. 4-6-03................................41116
91 Appendix A amended; eff. 4-6-03.................................41116
    Appendix G amended.............................................63895

[[Page 970]]

93.301 Regulation at 65 FR 17742 eff. date delayed...........1005, 16584
93.305 Regulation at 65 FR 69847 eff. date delayed..................1005
    Regulations at 61 FR 69330 and 65 FR 17742 eff. dates delayed 
                                                                   16584
    (a) through (d) eff. date delayed to 2-20-03...................63296
93.307 Regulations at 65 FR 69846 and 69847 eff. dates delayed......1005
    Regulations at 61 FR 69330 and 65 FR 17743 eff. dates delayed 
                                                                   16584
93.309 Regulation at 65 FR 69847 eff. date delayed..................1005
    Regulation at 65 FR 17743 eff. date delayed....................16584
95...............................9914, 18530, 30057, 39634, 49101, 56205
97.21--97.35.......................................................2803,
2804, 9916, 9918, 9920, 9922, 9924, 11533, 11535, 14313, 14315, 15993, 
15994, 15996, 18534, 18536, 20390, 20392, 22436, 22438, 27451, 27453, 
29692, 29694, 33633, 33635, 34358, 34359, 34361, 37133, 37135, 39088, 
39090, 41773, 41775, 44300, 44302, 46941, 47075, 48542, 48544, 48546, 
50822, 50824, 53086, 53088, 55564, 55565, 57862, 57864, 59360, 64141, 
64142
99.1 (b)(2) revised; (c) removed; (d) redesignated as new (c)......49822
99.3 Heading and text revised......................................49822
99.9 Revised.......................................................49822
99.11 (a) revised..................................................49822
99.42 Revised......................................................49822
99.43 Revised......................................................49822
103.20 Revised.....................................................47378
105 Revised........................................................23553
107 Revised; eff. 11-14-01.........................................37317
107.209 Revised....................................................63481
108 Technical correction...........................................31145
    Revised; eff. 11-14-01.........................................37357
108.229 Revised....................................................63484

                                  2002

14 CFR
                                                                   67 FR
                                                                    Page
Chapter I
61 SFAR No. 96 added...............................................30527
61.3 (a) and (l) introductory text revised; (l)(4) added...........65861
63 SFAR No. 63 removed..............................................9553
    Amended........................................................30527
65 SFAR No. 63 removed..............................................9553
    Amended........................................................30527
71 Technical correction.....................................67253, 68785
    71.1.............510--517, 816, 2134, 2806, 4655, 4656, 4899, 5045, 
         6162, 6641--6644, 7066--7070, 8860, 9399, 10835, 10836, 10837, 
         10839--10843, 15478--15480, 18467, 18468, 18818, 19108, 19109, 
         19331, 19666, 21171, 21576, 30776--30784, 31727, 31946--31948, 
         35427, 35900, 35901, 36808, 37668, 37977, 39473, 40591, 40592, 
         40593, 41163, 41820, 42478, 45631, 45632, 46585, 46586, 46587, 
         46847, 46848, 48546, 48547, 51070, 51072--51074, 53302, 53877, 
         53878, 55111, 56476--56479, 56929, 57942, 58983, 63823, 63824, 
           63825, 65499, 68758, 70154, 70534, 70535, 71457--71461, 71816
    Corrected.......3264, 5199, 6643, 10833, 10834, 11746, 18059, 19514, 
         19515, 21990, 34990, 37321, 37473, 45192, 49564, 53482, 53483, 
                                54700, 58984, 70153, 70638, 72365, 72441
    Regulation at 67 FR 10835 withdrawn............................40591
    Regulation at 67 FR 35427 confirmed............................48753
    Regulation at 67 FR 19108 eff. date confirmed..................54086
    Regulation at 67 FR 46584 and 46585 eff. date confirmed........57329
    Regulation at 67 FR 46586 eff. date confirmed..................57330
    Regulation at 67 FR 36808 eff. date confirmed..................58984
        Eff. 1-23-03..........60561, 63825--63829, 65498, 65500, 68759, 
                                                                   76307
    Eff. 5-13-03...................................................65036
    Regulation at 67 FR 21576 eff. date delayed....................65872
    Regulation at 67 FR 37668 eff. date confirmed..................72365
    Eff. 3-20-03...................................................78352
71.1 Revised.......................................................61258
71.5 Amended.......................................................61259
71.31 Amended......................................................61259
71.33 (c) amended..................................................61259
71.41 Amended......................................................61259
71.51 Amended......................................................61259
71.61 Amended......................................................61259
71.71 (b) through (f) amended......................................61259
71.79 Amended......................................................61259
71.901 (a) amended.................................................61259
73 SFAR No. 53 removed..............................................9553
73.23--73.72.............................2808, 6645, 41821, 57943, 67789
91 SFAR No. 95 added................................................2781
    SFAR No. 90 removed.............................................5888
    SFAR No. 94 added...............................................7544
    SFAR No. 91 removed.............................................8350

[[Page 971]]

    SFAR Nos. 62, 64 and 66-2 removed...............................9553
    SFAR No. 67 removed.............................................9554
    SFAR No. 95 removed............................................31932
    SFAR No. 78 removed; eff. 1-23-03..............................65667
    Technical correction.............................57487, 63194, 63195
91.410 (b) amended.................................................72834
91.801 (a)(1) introductory text, (2), (c) and (d) amended..........45237
    (c) revised....................................................46571
91.803 (b) amended.................................................46571
91.807 Removed.....................................................46571
91.809 Removed.....................................................46571
91.811 Removed.....................................................46571
91.813 Removed.....................................................46571
91.851 Amended.....................................................45237
91.857 Revised.....................................................46571
91.858 Added.......................................................46571
91.859 Removed.....................................................46571
91.873 (a) and (b) revised.........................................46571
95........................2809, 11414, 30785, 44033, 45297, 55719, 65037
    Eff. 3-20-03...................................................78353
95.17 Corrected; CFR correction....................................78970
97 Authority citation revised......................................70828
97.3 (b) introductory text amended.................................70828
97.21--97.35...268, 270, 1289, 1290, 3609, 3611, 3612, 6164, 6166, 8708, 
          8710, 10320, 10321, 13268, 13271, 16014, 16015, 19668, 19670, 
         21991, 21993, 34829, 36512, 38196, 38198, 40594, 40596, 43531, 
         43533, 46103, 46849, 54728, 54729, 54731, 54732, 55112, 55114, 
         59158, 59159, 62639, 62641, 65308, 65309, 67107, 67300, 70155, 
                                       70157, 71817, 72554, 76676, 76678
107 Comment period extended....................................655, 3810
    Removed.........................................................8350
107.209 Corrected...................................................3782
108 Comment period extended....................................655, 3810
    Removed.........................................................8350
109 Removed.........................................................8350

                                  2003

14 CFR
                                                                   68 FR
                                                                    Page
Chapter I
61 SFAR No. 73 amended................................................43
    SFAR No. 96 removed; SFAR No. 100 added........................36905
61.18 Added.........................................................3774
61.55 (d)(1) and (2) revised.......................................54559
61.57 (d)(2)(iii) and (e)(3) revised...............................54559
61.58 (b) and (c) revised..........................................54559
61.63 (d)(7) introductory text and (ii) revised....................54559
61.157 (c) and (f)(1) revised......................................54560
61.159 (c)(1)(ii) revised..........................................54560
63 SFAR No. 96 removed; SFAR No. 100 added.........................36905
63.14 Added.........................................................3774
65 SFAR No. 96 removed; SFAR No. 100 added.........................36906
65.14 Added.........................................................3775
71 SFAR No. 97 cross-reference added...............................14077
71 Technical correction............................................35947
71.1--71.33 (Subpart A) Subpart designation transferred to 71.31--
        71.33 (Subpart A) Heading revised..........................16947
   71.1....44, 260--264, 491, 2186, 2187, 2188, 2421--2425, 2875, 4098, 
            6606, 6607, 7914, 7915, 7916, 8703--8707, 8997, 8998, 9000, 
          9528, 10368, 10369, 10655, 11737, 11738, 11739, 12814, 13812, 
         14315, 15344, 15346, 15347, 15349, 15350, 16208, 16409, 16411, 
         16950, 16951, 16952, 17730, 18115, 18116, 18118, 18858, 18859, 
          18861, 19343, 19344, 19946, 22593, 23578, 23580-23583, 24341, 
         24342, 24865, 24867, 24869, 24870, 24871, 24872, 24873, 24874, 
         25491, 25492, 25493, 25494, 25495, 26203, 26995, 28122, 28123, 
         28124, 28125, 28126, 28128, 28129, 28708, 32358, 32633, 33360, 
         33361, 35287, 35288, 35535, 35536, 36744, 36906, 36907, 36908, 
         36909, 36910, 40766, 41692, 41693, 41695, 42246, 42963, 43293, 
         44452--44455, 44200, 44201, 44202, 44875, 44876, 47448, 47449, 
         47845, 47847, 49346, 49347, 49349, 49350, 49691, 49692, 50068, 
         50465, 50466, 50467, 50468, 51686, 52089, 53032--53035, 53675, 
         53676, 54332, 55436, 55817, 55818, 55819, 59112, 59113, 62515, 
         62516, 62732, 62733, 62734, 63986, 64524, 66700, 66701, 66702, 
                                       69306, 74472, 74473, 74474, 74477
    Corrected....1657, 2423, 3808, 3934, 7913, 7917, 8997, 13225, 14315, 
         15349, 17153, 18115, 19885, 25684, 26687, 26993, 33231, 33361, 
         33623, 35288, 36910, 37617, 37963, 38425, 41694, 41695, 41696, 
         43427, 43922, 44203, 47637, 47844, 48994, 49350, 50222, 50468, 
         52075, 52487, 55435, 55819, 58009, 59113, 59248, 61339, 62735, 
                                              68449, 68508, 68973, 69599

[[Page 972]]

    Revised........................................................54329
    Technical correction.......................7651, 23579, 33579, 49546
    Regulation at 67 FR 70534 eff. date delayed to 5-15-03.........12583
    Regulation at 68 FR 15349 eff. date corrected..................16351
    Regulation at 68 FR 44875 eff. date confirmed..................57347
    Regulation at 68 FR 49350 eff. date confirmed..................58582
    Regulations at 68 FR 49347 and 49692 eff. dates confirmed......59713
    Regulation at 68 FR 50465 eff. date confirmed..................61097
    Regulation at 68 FR 50467 eff. date confirmed..................61098
    Regulation at 68 FR 50466 eff. date confirmed..................61098
    Regulation at 68 FR 53675 eff. date confirmed..................63017
         Eff. 2-19-04.........64523, 65160--65164, 65390, 67358, 68504, 
                                                     69598, 69599, 74472
         Eff. 4-15-04.........67359--67362, 67591, 68504, 68506, 68507, 
                                       68508, 70138, 70139, 74475, 74476
    Corrected; eff. 2-19-04 and 4-15-04............................70139
    Corrected; eff.2-19-04.........................................70140
71.5 Amended.......................................................54329
71.11 Added........................................................16947
71.13 Added........................................................16947
71.15 Added........................................................16947
71.31--71.33 (Subpart A) Subpart designation transferred from 
        71.1--71.33 (Subpart A); Heading revised...................16947
71.31 Amended......................................................54329
71.33 (c) amended..................................................54329
71.41 Amended......................................................54329
71.51 Amended......................................................54329
71.61 Amended......................................................54329
71.71 (b) through (f) amended......................................54329
71.73 Removed......................................................16947
71.75 Removed......................................................16947
71.77 Removed......................................................16947
71.79 Removed......................................................16947
71.901 (a) amended.................................................54329
73.23.................................................3175, 25496, 64525
73.48..............................................................42964
73.63..............................................................19947
73.66...............................................................3174
73.89...............................................................7918
77 SFAR No. 98 added; interim......................................19732
    SFAR No. 98 corrected..........................................23584
91 Technical correction...............................1512, 37735, 50054
    SFAR No. 94 amended.............................................7691
    SFAR No. 97 added..............................................14077
    SFAR No. 77 amended.....................................17870, 65382
    SFAR No. 61-2 removed..........................................35524
    SFAR No. 51-1 removed..........................................41214
    SFAR No. 71 amended............................................60839
91.159 (b) revised; (c) removed....................................61321
    (b) revised; (c) added (eff. through 1-26-04; (b) revised; (c) 
removed (eff. 1-26-04).............................................70133
91.179 (b)(3) introductory text revised; (b)(4) added..............61321
    (b)(3) introductory text revised; (b)(4) removed (eff. through 
1-26-04); (b)(3) introductory text revised; (b)(4) added (eff. 1-
26-04..............................................................70133
91.180 Added.......................................................61321
    Removed (eff. through 1-26-04); Added (eff. 1-26-04)...........70133
91.189 (g) revised.................................................56560
91.191 (c) revised.................................................56560
91.213 (c) revised.................................................56560
91.401 (b) revised.................................................56560
91.411 Regulation at 66 FR 41116 eff. date delayed to 10-6-03......12542
    Regulation at 66 FR 41116 eff. Date corrected to 10-3-03.......17546
    Regulation at 66 FR 41116 eff. date delayed to 1-31-04.........55819
91.413 Regulation at 66 FR 41116 eff. date delayed to 10-6-03......12542
    Regulation at 66 FR 41116 eff. Date corrected to 10-3-03.......17546
    Regulation at 66 FR 41116 eff. date delayed to 1-31-04.........55819
91.415 (a) and (c) revised.........................................56560
91.501--91.599 (Subpart F) Heading revised.........................54560
91.501 (a) revised; (b)(10) added..................................54560
91.509 (b) introductory text, (c), (d) and (e) revised; (f) added 
                                                                   54561
91.519 (d) added...................................................54561
91.531 (a) introductory text revised; (d) added....................54561
91.613 (a) redesignated; (b) added.................................45083
91.1001--91.1443 (Subpart K) Added.................................54561
91 Appendix A Regulation at 66 FR 41116 eff. date delayed to 10-6-
        03.........................................................12542
    Appendix D amended..............................................9795
    Appendix G amended......................................54584, 61321

[[Page 973]]

    Appendix G amended (eff. through 1-26-04); Appendix G amended 
(eff. 1-26-04).....................................................70133
93 Heading revised..................................................9795
    Policy statement...............................................15657
93.1 Revised........................................................9795
93.51 Revised.......................................................9795
93.71 (Subpart E) Added.............................................9795
93.80 Added.........................................................9795
93.81 (a) and (b) designation removed; (b)(1), (2), (2)(i), (ii) 
        and (iii) redesignated as (a), (b), (b)(1), (2) and (3).....9795
93.91--93.97 (Subpart G) Added.....................................41214
93.117 Revised......................................................9795
93.151 Revised......................................................9795
93.152 Added........................................................9795
93.251--93.253 (Subpart T) Nomenclature change......................9795
93.305 Regulation at 61 FR 69330 suspended in part to 2-2-06........9498
95...............................7918, 17731, 34523, 44612, 54802, 65391
95 SFAR No. 97 cross-reference added...............................14077
95.1 Revised.......................................................16947
97 Technical correction.............................................3096
97.20 Revised......................................................16948
97.21--97.35...265, 492, 1796, 1963, 3810, 3811, 6817, 6819, 8708, 8710, 
         10964, 13620, 13622, 16412, 16413, 19734, 19735, 23889, 23890, 
         26485, 26487, 32359, 32634, 35537, 35539, 38173, 38175, 41524, 
        41526, 44204, 44206, 48277, 48278, 51687, 51688,, 53036, 53288, 
         54999, 56159, 57348, 57350, 60031, 60287, 62235, 64984, 64986, 
                                                            67364, 69307

                                  2004

14 CFR
                                                                   69 FR
                                                                    Page
Title 14 Nomenclature change.......................................18803
Chapter I
61 Technical correction......................................6531, 62809
    Comment disposition............................................58232
61.1 (b)(3)(1) introductory text and (ii) introductory text 
        revised; (b)(3)(iii), (iv), (v) and (15) redesignated as 
        (b)(3)(v), (vi), (vii) and (16); new (b)(3)(iii), (iv) and 
        (15) added.................................................44864
61.3 (c)(2)(i) revised; (c)(2)(ii) through (vii) redesignated as 
        (c)(2)(vi) through (xi); new (c)(2)(viii) amended; new 
        (c)(2)(ii) through (v) added...............................44864
61.5 (a)(1)(ii) through (v), (b)(5) and (6) redesignated as 
        (a)(1)(iii) through (vi), (b)(7) and (8); new (a)(1)(ii), 
        (b)(1)(vi), (vii), (5), (6) and (c)(5) added...............44864
61.23 (a) introductory text, (3)(iii), (iv), (b) introductory text 
        and (1) through (4) revised; (c) redesignated as (d); new 
        (c) added..................................................44864
61.31 (k)(1) and (2)(iii) revised; (k)(2)(iv) and (v) amended; 
        (k)(2)(vi) added...........................................44865
61.45 (a)(1)(ii), (2)(i) and (b)(1)(iii) revised; (f) added........44865
61.51 (c)(1), (e)(1) introductory text and (i) revised; (i)(3) 
        redesignated as (i)(4); new (i)(3) and (5) added...........44865
61.52 Added........................................................44865
61.53 (c) added....................................................44866
61.63 (k) redesignated as (l); new (k) added.......................44866
61.69 Revised......................................................44866
61.87 (d) introductory text, (g) introductory text, (i) 
        introductory text, (j) introductory text and (k) 
        introductory text amended; (l), (m) and (n) redesignated 
        as (n), (o) and (p); new (l) and (m) added.................44866
61.89 (c) added....................................................44867
61.93 (l) and (m) added............................................44867
61.94 Added........................................................44867
61.95 (c) added....................................................44868
61.99 Introductory text revised....................................44868
61.101 (d) through (i) redesignated as (e) through (j); (b) 
        introductory text, (c) introductory text, new (e) 
        introductory text, (1), (2), (7), (11) and (12) revised; 
        new (d) added..............................................44868
61.107 (b)(9) and (10) added.......................................44868
61.109 (i) redesignated as (k); (a) introductory text, (b) 
        introductory text, (c) introductory text, (d) introductory 
        text, (e) introductory text and new (k)(1) amended; new 
        (i) and (j) added..........................................44868
61.110 (c) added...................................................44869
61.113 (g) revised.................................................44869
61.165 (f) added...................................................44869
61.181--61.201 (Subpart H) Heading revised.........................44869
61.181 Revised.....................................................44869

[[Page 974]]

61.213 (a)(4)(i) and (ii) revised..................................44869
61.215 (a) revised.................................................44869
61.301--61.329 (Subpart J) Added...................................44869
61.401--61.431 (Subpart K) Added...................................44875
65.85 Existing text designated as (a) and amended; (b) added.......44879
65.87 Existing text designated as (a) and amended; (b) added.......44879
65.101 (b) revised.................................................44879
65.103 (c) added...................................................44879
65.107 Added.......................................................44879
71 Technical correction......................................5461, 24225
   71.1......496, 1662--1665, 1667--1673, 2297, 3003, 5009, 5010, 5013, 
          5014, 5015, 5463, 8556, 8557, 8559, 8560, 8562, 10325--10329, 
         10331, 10603, 10605, 10607, 10609, 10611, 11792, 11794, 11795, 
         11796, 11798, 13467--13471, 15667, 17283, 19317--19320, 19923, 
         19924, 20820, 20821, 20822, 21405, 22394, 22397, 22399, 24065, 
         24066, 24068, 24069, 26030, 26031, 26032, 26034, 26035, 26036, 
         29059, 29060, 29061, 29652, 30192, 30194, 30572, 30573, 30574, 
         30819, 30820, 32253--32258, 32860, 32862, 32863, 33566, 34053, 
         34055, 34056, 34058, 34059, 34061, 34062, 34917, 40311, 41190, 
         42332, 47357, 48767, 51943--51950, 52596, 53614, 54749, 54750, 
                                       54751, 56931, 56932, 57841, 61761
    Regulation at 68 FR 65390 confirmed..............................497
    Corrected...1783, 2816, 4002, 5008, 5012, 7681, 11480, 11712, 11943, 
         15667, 19316, 22599, 22730, 25467, 29653, 30360, 31291, 31865, 
         32257, 34055, 36164, 39550, 39837, 47358, 48765, 53976, 55499, 
                                59303, 67052, 67215, 71701, 71702, 76042
    Regulation at 68 FR 66702 confirmed.............................2295
    Regulation at 68 FR 67358 confirmed.............................2296
    Regulation at 68 FR 66701 confirmed.............................2297
    Technical correction............................................2816
    Regulation at 68 FR 67360 confirmed.............................5011
    Regulation at 68 FR 67362 confirmed.............................5011
    Regulation at 68 FR 68507 confirmed.............................5012
    Regulation at 68 FR 68506 confirmed.............................5013
    Regulation at 68 FR 67361 confirmed.............................5461
    Regulation at 68 FR 67359 confirmed.............................5462
    Regulation at 68 FR 69591 confirmed.............................5462
    Regulation at 68 FR 69306 confirmed.............................5462
    Regulation at 68 FR 68508 confirmed.............................7681
    Regulation at 69 FR 5009 eff. date delayed......................8555
    Regulation at 69 FR 8557 eff. date corrected...................10103
    Regulation at 69 FR 1673 confirmed.............................10329
    Regulation at 69 FR 1668 confirmed.............................10331
    Regulations at 69 FR 1669 and 1671 confirmed...................10606
    Regulations at 69 FR 1664, 1667 and 1672 confirmed.............10609
    Regulation at 69 FR 1663 confirmed.............................10610
    Regulation at 69 FR 1665 confirmed.............................10611
    Regulations at 69 FR 496 and 1662 confirmed....................10612
    Regulation at 69 FR 2297 confirmed.............................11794
    Regulation at 67 FR 21576 confirmed............................19314
    Regulation at 69 FR 8556 confirmed.............................20823
    Regulation at 69 FR 8559 conirmed..............................20823
    Regulation at 69 FR 8556 confirmed.............................22394
    Regulation at 69 FR 10611 confirmed............................22395
    Regulation at 69 FR 10328 confirmed............................22395
    Regulation at 69 FR 11792 confirmed............................22395
    Regulation at 69 FR 11794 confirmed............................22396
    Regulation at 69 FR 10331 confirmed............................22397
    Regulation at 69 FR 8560 confirmed.............................22397
    Regulation at 69 FR 10607 confirmed............................24063
    Regulation at 69 FR 10609 confirmed............................24063
    Regulation at 69 FR 11798 confirmed............................24064
    Regulation at 69 FR 10605 confirmed............................24064

[[Page 975]]

    Regulation at 69 FR 11796 confirmed............................24067
    Regulation at 69 FR 11795 confirmed............................24067
    Regulation at 69 FR 10329 confirmed............................29059
    Regulation at 69 FR 24065 confirmed............................32860
    Regulation at 69 FR 22397 eff. date confirmed..................32861
    Regulation at 69 FR 24066 confirmed............................34053
    Regulation at 69 FR 26034 confirmed............................34054
    Regulation at 69 FR 26031 confirmed............................34054
    Regulation at 69 FR 26035 confirmed............................34056
    Regulation at 69 FR 22399 confirmed............................34059
    Regulation at 69 FR 26036 confirmed............................34060
    Regulation at 69 FR 26032 confirmed............................36007
    Regulation at 69 FR 26030 eff. date confirmed..................40542
    Regulations at 69 FR 30194, 32862 and 34917 confirmed..........41841
    Regulations at 69 FR 29652, 30572 and 30573 confirmed..........41842
    Regulations at 69 FR 30574, 32256 and 34062 confirmed..........41843
    Regulation at 69 FR 34061 confirmed............................41844
    Regulation at 69 FR 40311 confirmed............................51949
    Regulation at 69 FR 42332 confirmed............................52811
    Eff. 1-20-05........55948, 56692, 57170, 57171, 57172, 57840, 58048, 
         59130, 60286, 60287, 60957, 61440, 62402--62405, 63056, 63057, 
                  63059, 63060, 63062, 63064, 68074, 68075, 70372, 75455
    Corrected; eff. 1-20-05...................60284, 63062, 67811, 68782
    Regulation at 69 FR 48767 confirmed............................60286
    Eff. 3-17-05........64657, 67053, 67639, 70373, 70543, 74954, 74955, 
                                                                   76392
    Regulation at 69 FR 57171 confirmed; eff. 1-20-05..............65069
    Regulation at 69 FR 57840 confirmed; eff. 1-20-05..............65069
    Regulations at 69 FR 56692, 57170 and 57172 confirmed..........65367
    Regulation at 69 55948 confirmed...............................65368
    Regulation at 69 FR 58048 confirmed............................68782
    Regulation at 69 FR 60286 confirmed............................68783
    Regulation at 69 FR 60287 confirmed............................70053
    Regulation at 69 FR 61440 confirmed............................70185
    Regulation at 69 FR 62404 confirmed; eff. 1-20-05..............70541
    Regulation at 69 FR 62405 confirmed; eff. 1-20-05..............70542
    Regulation at 69 FR 63059 confirmed............................72111
    Regulation at 69 FR 63062 confirmed............................72111
    Regulation at 69 FR 63060 confirmed............................72111
    Regulation at 69 FR 63064 confirmed............................72112
    Regulation at 69 FR 62402 confirmed............................72112
    Regulation at 69 FR 62403 confirmed............................72112
    Eff. 5-12-05...................................................74956
71.1 Revised; Eff. 9-16-04 through 9-15-05.........................54001
71.5 Amended; Eff. 9-16-04 through 9-15-05.........................54001
71.31 Amended; Eff. 9-16-04 through 9-15-05........................54001
71.33 Amended; Eff. 9-16-04 through 9-15-05........................54001
71.41 Amended; Eff. 9-16-04 through 9-15-05........................54001
71.51 Amended; Eff. 9-16-04 through 9-15-05........................54001
71.61 Amended; Eff. 9-16-04 through 9-15-05........................54001
71.79 Amended; Eff. 9-16-04 through 9-15-05........................54001
71.901 Amended; Eff. 9-16-04 through 9-15-05.......................54001
73.22........................................................3003, 30577
    Corrected......................................................34425
73.23..............................................................53796
73.25..............................................................53797
73.29..............................................................18472
    Eff. 1-20-05...................................................68076
    Eff. date corrected............................................70888
73.38..............................................................21054
73.51..............................................................30575
    Eff. 1-20-05...................................................72113
73.58..............................................................47390

[[Page 976]]

    Corrected......................................................57841
73.63..............................................................30575
73.66..............................................................32259
77 Regulation at 68 FR 19730 confirmed..............................5682
    Policy statement...............................................22732
91 Technical correction.................................6531, 6532, 6555
    SFAR No. 104 added.............................................31719
    Interpretation.................................................21953
    Compliance notification........................................45940
    Comment period extension.......................................51940
    SFAR No. 65-1 removed..........................................60535
91.1 (b) revised...................................................44880
91.113 (d)(2) and (3) revised......................................44880
91.126 (b)(2) revised..............................................44880
91.131 (b)(1)(i), (ii) and (2) revised; (b)(1)(iii) and (iv) added
                                                                   44880
91.143 Revised.....................................................59753
91.155 (b)(2) revised..............................................44880
91.175 (c) introductory text, (d) and (e)(1) introductory text 
        revised; (l) and (m) added..................................1640
91.205 (b)(12) revised; eff. 2-7-05................................77599
91.213 (d)(1)(i) revised...........................................44880
91.309 Heading, (a) introductory text, (3), (5) and (b) revised....44880
91.319 (e) redesignated as (h); new (e), (f) and (g) added.........44881
    (e) correctly redesignated as (i); new (e) through (h) 
correctly added....................................................51162
    Technical correction...........................................53337
91.327 Added.......................................................44881
91.409 (c)(1) revised..............................................44882
91.410 (b) amended.................................................45941
91.1002 Amended....................................................74413
91 Appendix D amended..............................................44882
93 Technical correction.............................................6555
95...............................2830, 10613, 24956, 38829, 51951, 61998
    Eff. 1-20-05...................................................74414
97.21--97.35...1675, 5683, 5684, 5685, 8812, 10615, 12974, 17285, 24506, 
         28059, 30821, 33288, 36009, 41935, 44596, 48245, 51764, 53799, 
                         56161, 61147, 61593, 63319, 65539, 69508, 74416
99.1 (a), (b) introductory text and (c) revised....................16755
99.3 Amended.......................................................16755
99.7 Revised.......................................................16756
99.9 (c) and (d) added.............................................16756
99.11 (a) revised; (d) added.......................................16756
99.12 Redesignated as 99.13........................................16756
99.13 Redesignated from 99.12......................................16756
99.15 Revised......................................................16756
99.17 Revised......................................................16756
99.19 Removed......................................................16756
99.21 Removed......................................................16756
99.23 Removed......................................................16756
99.27 Removed......................................................16756
99.29 Removed......................................................16756
99.31 Removed......................................................16756
99.41 Revised......................................................16756
99.42 Redesignated as 99.43........................................16756
99.43 Redesignated as 99.45; redesignated from 99.42...............16756
99.45 Redesignated as 99.47; redesignated from 99.43...............16756
99.47 Redesignated as 99.49; redesignated from 99.45...............16756
99.49 Removed; new 99.49 redesignated from 99.47...................16756

                                  2005

14 CFR
                                                                   70 FR
                                                                    Page
61 Comment disposition.............................................25761
    SFAR No. 100-1 added...........................................37948
    Compliance notification and technical correction...............53560
    SFAR No. 58 removed............................................54814
61.5 (b)(7)(iv) added..............................................45271
61.55 (a) introductory text and (2) revised; (d) through (h) 
        redesignated as (f) through (j); (a)(3), new (d) and (e) 
        added......................................................45271
    (a) introductory text, (2), (b) introductory text, (2) 
introductory text, (d) introductory text, (e) introductory text, 
(f) introductory text, (i) and (j) correctly revised...............61890
61.58 (b) amended..................................................54814
63 Comment disposition.............................................25761
    SFAR No. 100-1 added...........................................37949
    SFAR No. 58 removed; nomenclature change.......................54815
65 Authority citation revised.......................................1636
    SFAR No. 103 added..............................................1636
    Comment disposition............................................25761
    Technical correction...........................................30624
    SFAR No. 100-1 added...........................................37949
    SFAR No. 58 removed; nomenclature change.......................54815
71 Technical correction............................................38740
    Eff. date confirmed............................................69897
71.1.........................................................1343, 2343,
2344, 2345--2348, 2950, 3615, 3616, 5371, 6335, 6336, 6337, 7021, 7022, 
7392, 10319, 10863, 11852--11855, 11857, 11858, 12128--12131, 12413, 
12414, 14530, 14976, 15755, 16409, 16932, 18295--18298, 18969, 20047,

[[Page 977]]

20048, 21146, 22247, 22590, 23787--23790, 23934, 23935, 24940, 28424, 
29941, 29944, 29946, 30625, 32230, 32484, 33347, 33348, 34340, 34649, 
35526, 36014, 36015, 36017, 36489, 36490--36494, 37029, 37030, 37998, 
39175, 39915, 39916, 39917, 41611, 41614, 41949, 41950, 41951, 43742, 
43743, 43745--43748, 44466, 45527, 46078, 46756, 49186, 49187, 49846, 
49847, 49848, 52288, 52904, 53918--53922, 54837, 55533, 57498, 57499, 
57746, 59652, 59653, 59991, 59993, 60425, 61027, 61362, 61552, 61734, 
62235, 62237, 70486
    Corrected.......3615, 3616, 4191, 11851, 13240, 16551. 24677, 29943, 
         33347, 33349, 35500, 36020, 37997, 38740, 41611, 41613, 45276, 
         48057, 48238, 49185, 53562, 55533, 58308, 58607, 59651, 59992, 
                                61883, 65832, 66253, 67217, 70486, 72905
    Regulations at 69 FR 63057, 67053 and 67639 confirmed...........1342
    Technical correction..............................8432, 48860, 60132
    Regulation at 69 FR 5009 eff. 5-15-05...........................9216
    Regulation at 69 FR 74954 eff. date delayed....................12127
    Regulations at 70 FR 2950 and 5371 confirmed...................12412
    Regulations at 70 FR 6335 confirmed............................13370
    Regulations at 70 FR 7021 and 7022 confirmed...................15580
    Regulations at 70 FR 10319, 10863 and 11857 confirmed..........23789
    Regulation at 70 FR 14977 confirmed............................24939
    Regulation at 70 FR 16409 confirmed............................29941
    Regulation at 70 FR 18297 confirmed............................29943
    Regulation at 70 FR 18298 confirmed and corrected..............32231
    Regulation at 70 FR 21146 confirmed............................37029
    Regulation at 70 FR 12414 eff. date corrected..................39175
    Regulation at 70 FR 39915 confirmed............................48057
    Regulation at 70 FR 37030 confirmed............................48859
    Regulation at 70 FR 41951 confirmed............................50958
    Regulation at 70 FR 41950 confirmed............................51250
    Revised; eff. 9-16-05 through 9-15-06..........................52012
    Regulation at 70 FR 41611 confirmed............................52905
    Regulation at 70 FR 43747 confirmed............................52905
    Regulation at 70 FR 41614 confirmed............................52905
    Corrected......................................................53918
    Eff. date corrected............................................55250
    Regulation at 70 FR 43743 confirmed............................56365
    Regulation at 70 FR 43742 confirmed............................56365
    Regulation at 70 FR 43746 confirmed............................56365
    Regulation at 70 FR 43745 confirmed............................56366
         Eff. 2-16-06.........61735, 61736, 68330, 69647--69650, 70488, 
         71235, 71237, 72906, 73131, 73135, 74198, 75393, 75394, 75395, 
                                                            75396, 76145
    Eff. 4-13-06...................................................69078
    Regulation at 70 FR 60425 eff. date delayed to 4-13-06.........69432
    Regulation at 70 FR 52904 confirmed............................72371
    Eff. 1-19-06...................................................72372
    Eff. 2-15-06...................................................73132
    Corrected; eff. 2-16-06..........................73133, 75392, 76140
    Eff. 4-13-06...................................................76684
71.5 Amended; eff. 9-16-05 through 9-15-06.........................52012
71.11 (b) removed; (c) redesignated as (b).........................23004
71.15 Amended; eff. 9-16-05 through 9-15-06........................52013
71.31 Amended; eff. 9-16-05 through 9-15-06........................52013
71.33 (c) amended; eff. 9-16-05 through 9-15-06....................52013
71.41 Amended; eff. 9-16-05 through 9-15-06........................52013
71.51 Amended; eff. 9-16-05 through 9-15-06........................52013
71.61 Amended; eff. 9-16-05 through 9-15-06........................52013
71.71 (b) through (f) amended; eff. 9-16-05 through 9-15-06........52013
71.901 (a) amended; eff. 9-16-05 through 9-15-06...................52013
73.22 Amended......................................................34650
    Corrected......................................................38740
73.23 Amended......................................................58608
73.25 Amended...............................................44466, 54838
73.30 Amended......................................................56366

[[Page 978]]

73.51 Eff. date corrected to 3-17-05................................2565
    Corrected......................................................33693
73.71 Amended......................................................45528
73.92 Added; eff. 2-16--06.........................................76149
73.93 Added........................................................29948
91 Policy statement................................................21618
91 Comment disposition.............................................40168
91.107 (a)(3)(iii)(B)(3) and (4) revised...........................50906
91.321 Revised......................................................4982
91.613 (b)(1) revised; eff. 1-30-06................................77752
91.851 Amended.....................................................38749
91.853 Revised.....................................................38749
91.855 (a) revised.................................................38750
91.859 Added.......................................................38750
93 SFAR No. 105 added..............................................39620
    SFAR No. 105 amended...........................................66255
93.123 (c)(2) revised..............................................29063
93.303 Amended.....................................................16092
93 Appendix A added................................................16092
95...............................6338, 18299, 34987, 44278, 57500, 71758
    Corrected......................................................52013
97.................................................................60716
95.17 Revised.......................................................7360
97.20 Revised......................................................23004
97.21--97.35....692, 1187, 4011, 6339, 8244, 12132, 13096, 17319, 19879, 
         22782, 25765, 30898, 34990, 36335, 39653, 43040, 47091, 48636, 
         52290, 54625, 57505, 57747, 61028, 65834, 69273, 69275, 72705, 
                                       72706, 73368, 73586, 76393, 76395
97.23 Amended......................................................66257

                                  2006

14 CFR
                                                                   71 FR
                                                                    Page
Chapter I
60 Added; eff. 10-30-07............................................63426
61.14 (a) revised..................................................35763
63.12b (a) revised.................................................35763
65 Comment disposition.............................................10607
65.23 (a) revised..................................................35763
65.46a (f) revised.................................................35763
67.107 (b)(2) revised..............................................35764
67.207 (b)(2) revised..............................................35764
67.307 (b)(2) revised..............................................35764
71 Technical correction.....................................44353, 46258
71.1....538, 3760, 3761, 3762, 4241, 4243, 4982, 7410, 7846, 7849, 8939, 
          9909, 10418, 10834, 11298, 11299, 14798, 15028, 16995--16998, 
         18213, 19634, 19814, 20872--20876, 30579, 30580, 30581, 31920, 
          32271, 32272,32822, 32823, 32824, 32826, 32827, 35151, 35152, 
         36190, 36191, 37492, 37493, 38517, 40395, 40652, 40653, 40654, 
         41727, 41728, 41729, 43354--43358, 44886, 46076, 46077, 46078, 
         47079, 47728, 49343, 49344, 51097, 57415, 58739, 60422, 60814--
                                                     60819, 64888, 69191
    Regulation at 70 FR 69078 withdrawn.............................2145
    Corrected........2997, 4240, 4981, 9695, 11709, 13247, 13683, 14095, 
         14797, 19117, 20872, 31920, 32825, 35151, 51097, 52741, 69438, 
                                                            70302, 74762
    Regulation at 70 FR 68330 confirmed.............................2998
    Regulation at 71 FR 538 confirmed...............................9260
    Regulation at 71 FR 7846 withdrawn..............................9694
    Regulation at 71 FR 4243 confirmed.............................14097
    Regulation at 71 FR 10418 confirmed............................19814
    Regulation at 71 FR 11298 comfirmed............................24812
    Regulation at 71 FR 19814 confirmed............................35152
    Regulation at 71 FR 32272 confirmed............................44188
    Regulations at 71 FR 36190 and 36191 confirmed.................47079
    Revised; eff. 9-15-06 through 9-15-07..........................51994
    Regulation at 71 FR 40652 confirmed............................52426
    Regulation at 71 FR 40654 confirmed............................52426
    Regulation at 71 FR 40395 confirmed............................52741
    Regulation at 71 FR 44886 confirmed............................57413
    Eff. 1-18-07........57413, 57414, 59373, 59007, 59008, 59009, 59373, 
                                61872, 62553, 62555, 67298, 68438, 75110
    Regulation at 71 FR 46077 confirmed............................58738
    Technical correction...........................................66445
    Corrected; eff. 1-18-07........................................70302
    Eff. 3-15-07........70465, 75111, 75858, 75859, 75860, 75861, 75862, 
                                                            75864, 78055
    Regulation at 71 FR 58739 withdrawn............................70650

[[Page 979]]

71.5 Amended; eff. 9-15-06 through 9-15-07.........................51994
71.15 Amended; eff. 9-15-06 through 9-15-07........................51994
71.31 Amended; eff. 9-15-06 through 9-15-07........................51994
71.33 (c) amended; eff. 9-15-06 through 9-15-07....................51994
71.41 Amended; eff. 9-15-06 through 9-15-07........................51994
71.51 Amended; eff. 9-15-06 through 9-15-07........................51994
71.61 Amended; eff. 9-15-06 through 9-15-07........................51994
71.71 (b) through (f) amended; eff. 9-15-06 through 9-15-07........51994
71.901 (a) amended; eff. 9-15-06 through 9-15-07...................51995
73.22 Amended; eff. 3-15-07........................................70466
73.25 Amended.......................................................2146
73.30 Amended...............................................26195, 29246
    Amended; eff. 1-18-07..........................................67783
73.56 Amended; eff. 3-15-07........................................76126
73.66 Amended; eff. 1-18-07........................................70467
91 Authority citation revised......................................52259
    Comment disposition.....................................52287, 66840
    Technical correction...........................................56005
91.17 (a)(4), (c)(1) introductory text and (2) revised.............35764
91.107 (a)(3)(iii)(B)(3)(iii) and (4) revised; 
        (a)(3)(iii)(B)(3)(iv) added................................40009
91.403 (d) added...................................................52259
93 SFAR No. 105 amended.....................................16219, 64113
93.21--93.33 (Subpart B) Added.....................................51400
    (Subpart B) OMB numbers........................................58495
93.25 (a) amended; (b) revised.....................................60426
93.305 Regulation at 61 FR 69330 stayed in part until 2-20-11.......9441
95...............................2998, 13750, 27603, 42578, 51470, 67784
    Eff. 1-18-07...................................................76578
97...4244, 6346, 19636, 26197, 27954, 34246, 36676, 39523, 41354, 44561, 
         44563, 48471, 54405, 58255, 58257, 61875, 63229, 66448, 69010, 
                                                            74765, 77594
97.21--97.35....1394, 1687, 4487, 6676, 8797, 8799, 11301, 11303, 13754, 
         13756, 17000, 17343, 19637, 25933, 30583, 30585, 30801, 34244, 
         39065, 39524, 41356, 50337, 53322, 53567, 54579, 61873, 63680, 
                                              66446, 69439, 74763, 78056

                                  2007

14 CFR
                                                                   72 FR
                                                                    Page
Chapter I
60 Regulation at 71 FR 63426 eff. date delayed to 5-30-08..........59598
60.5 (a) correctly amended; eff. 5-30-08...........................59599
60.7 (b)(5) and (6) correctly amended; eff. 5-30-08................59599
60.17 (a), (b) and (d) correctly amended; eff. 5-30-08.............59599
61.13 (a)(2) introductory text and (i) revised.....................18558
    Regulation at 72 FR 18558 confirmed............................55022
61.113 (d) revised..................................................6910
63.11 (a) revised..................................................18558
    Regulation at 72 FR 18558 confirmed............................55022
65 Authority citation revised.......................................4404
    Regulation at 72 FR 4404 confirmed.............................35151
65.11 (a) revised..................................................18559
    Regulation at 72 FR 18559 confirmed............................55022
65.92 (a) revised...................................................4404
    Regulation at 72 FR 4404 confirmed.............................35151
65.93 Revised.......................................................4404
    Regulation at 72 FR 4404 confirmed.............................35151
65.101 (a)(6) revised...............................................7739
71.1......652, 898, 899, 1279, 1280, 1281, 1436, 1658, 2180, 2182, 2183, 
            3365, 3366, 5607--5610, 5612, 5613, 8099, 8100, 8266, 8267, 
          8268, 12081, 13165, 18384, 23768, 23769, 25962, 25963, 25964, 
         26288, 27053, 27054, 27413, 27414, 27416--27419, 27421, 27422, 
         29885, 30254, 31715, 33151, 35350, 36346, 36594, 36869, 37629, 
         37630, 40717, 44375, 44955, 44956, 45317--45320, 45628, 48231, 
         48232, 50047, 51358--51364, 54815, 57486, 61052, 61293, 61294, 
                  61295, 61297, 61298, 61300, 61510, 62108, 62109, 62111
    Corrected.......1277, 4202, 6462, 10059, 10353, 10354, 13438, 13439, 
         13440, 15825, 16707--16710, 17804, 18569, 29056, 37430, 37431, 
                                39734, 48233, 49349, 58993, 60247, 62112
    Regulation at 71 FR 78055 confirmed.............................7928
    Regulation at 72 FR 1279 eff. date confirmed....................9238
    Regulation at 72 FR 2182 eff. date confirmed....................9239
    Regulation at 72 FR 8267 confirmed.............................18383

[[Page 980]]

    Regulation at 72 FR 27416 confirmed............................33644
    Regulations at 72 FR 27413, 27414 and 27417 confirmed..........33645
    Regulation at 72 FR 25964 confirmed............................36345
    Regulation at 72 FR 26288 confirmed............................36346
    Regulations at 72 FR 23768 and 23769 confirmed.................38999
    Revised; eff. 9-15-07 through 9-15-08..........................49191
    Eff. 4-10-08...................................................57485
    Eff. 2-14-08........60764, 61301, 63101, 64146, 64147, 70768, 70769, 
                  70771, 71060, 71757, 71759, 71761, 71762, 71764--71769
    Eff. date confirmed; corrected.................................62412
    Regulations at 72 FR 51359 and 51364 confirmed.................63100
71.5 Amended; eff. 9-15-07 through 9-15-08.........................49191
71.15 Amended; eff. 9-15-07 through 9-15-08........................49191
71.31 Amended; eff. 9-15-07 through 9-15-08........................49191
71.33 (c) amended; eff. 9-15-07 through 9-15-08....................49191
71.41 Amended; eff. 9-15-07 through 9-15-08........................49191
71.51 Amended; eff. 9-15-07 through 9-15-08........................49191
71.61 Amended; eff. 9-15-07 through 9-15-08........................49191
71.71 (b) through (f) amended; eff. 9-15-07 through 9-15-08........49191
71.901 Amended; eff. 9-15-07 through 9-15-08.......................49191
73.23 Amended.......................................................1437
73.36 Amended......................................................35918
73.37 Amended......................................................45157
73.63 Amended.......................................................1438
73.66 Amended......................................................12081
77 Policy statement................................................65448
91 Policy statement..........................................6689, 57196
    SFAR No. 50-2 amended...........................................9846
    SFAR No. 71 removed.............................................6910
    SFAR No. 107 added.............................................16712
91.1 (d) added.....................................................63410
91.129 (e) revised.................................................31678
91.131 (c)(1) revised..............................................31678
91.146 Added (OMB number pending)...................................6910
    OMB number.....................................................19382
91.147 Added (OMB number pending)...................................6911
    OMB number.....................................................19382
91.175 (a), (b), (c) introductory text, (e)(1)(ii), (f) and (k) 
        revised....................................................31678
91.177 (a) revised.................................................31678
91.179 Introductory text added.....................................31679
91.181 (a) amended.................................................31679
91.183 Heading and introductory text revised.......................31679
91.189 (c) and (d) amended.........................................31679
91.205 (d)(2) and (e) revised......................................31679
91.219 (b)(5) amended..............................................31679
91.410 Redesignated as 91.1505.....................................63411
91.411 (a)(1) and (2) revised.......................................7739
91.511 Heading and (a)(1) introductory text revised................31679
91.711 (c)(1)(ii) and (e) introductory text revised................31679
91.851 Amended.....................................................68475
91.1501--91.1507 (Subpart L) Added.................................63410
91.1505 Redesignated from 91.410; heading revised; (b) removed.....63411
95...............................8101, 18385, 32168, 43524, 56009, 67571
97.....1282, 3056, 4953, 7822, 10355, 13687, 15826, 18866, 23370, 27423, 
         30255, 32169, 35007, 38756, 41219, 44380, 48235, 51170, 56895, 
                                58510, 61511, 64535, 68063, 70773, 74167
    Heading revised................................................31679
97.1 Revised.......................................................31679
97.3 Revised.......................................................31679
97.5 Heading and (a) revised.......................................31680
97.10 Removed......................................................31680
97.20 Revised......................................................31680
97.21--97.37....900, 3057, 4951, 7824, 9847, 13166, 18868, 27242, 30257, 
         32792, 35153, 38470, 41010, 44034, 48234, 51172, 53681, 53683, 
                                       56266, 58508, 64534, 67250, 70772

                                  2008

14 CFR
                                                                   73 FR
                                                                    Page
Chapter I
60 Policy statement................................................23321
    Appendices A through F revised.................................26490
61.19 (e) revised; (h) added.......................................10668
61.23 (d)(1) revised...............................................43064
    (d) correctly revised..........................................48125
61.29 (b) revised..................................................43065
61 SFAR No. 108 added...............................................7050
    Regulation at 73 FR 7050 confirmed.............................14676
    SFAR No. 73 amended............................................17246

[[Page 981]]

63.15 (d) added....................................................10668
65.15 (d) added....................................................10668
65.16 (c) introductory text revised................................43065
67.3 Revised.......................................................43065
67.4 Added.........................................................43065
67.401 (j) revised.................................................43066
67.405 Revised.....................................................43066
67.411 Removed.....................................................43066
67.413 Revised.....................................................43066
71.1...1272, 3626, 5430, 5432, 5433, 5435, 5741, 6425, 6426, 7668, 7669, 
            8594, 8596, 8597, 8795, 8796, 9184, 9186, 9187, 9440, 9442, 
          9443, 9445, 9446, 9448, 9449, 9451, 9452, 9454, 12011, 13123, 
         14679, 14680, 14681, 14924, 15059, 15061, 15063, 15882, 16752, 
         17888, 17889, 18152, 18437--18440, 18957, 18958, 19143, 19996, 
         19998, 20161, 20162, 20163, 20781, 20782, 21814, 23322, 31022--
         31025, 32236, 36270, 36410, 37797, 38110, 38314, 38315, 39220, 
         40720, 40721, 41256, 42262, 42263, 42676, 43348--43354, 43848, 
         44148, 45606, 45607, 45608, 46552, 49090, 50721, 51357, 52209, 
                                       52210, 53113, 55438, 56473, 56474
    Corrected...............4071, 6424, 9454, 28321, 33666, 49934, 51358
    Corrected; eff. 1-15-09.................................78178, 78618
    Technical correction...........................................15049
    Revised; eff. 9-16-08 to 10-31-08..............................54495
    Regulation at 72 FR 61297 confirmed.............................4069
    Regulation at 72 FR 62109 confirmed.............................4070
    Regulation at 72 FR 61294 confirmed and corrected...............4070
    Regulation at 72 FR 61300 confirmed.............................4449
    Regulation at 72 FR 62111 confirmed.............................4449
    Regulation at 72 FR 61295 confirmed.............................4449
    Regulation at 72 FR 61293 confirmed and corrected...............4450
    Regulation at 72 FR 70771 confirmed.............................8594
    Regulation at 72 FR 71764 confirmed............................11002
    Regulation at 72 FR 70769 confirmed............................11002
    Regulation at 72 FR 71761 confirmed............................14677
    Regulation at 72 FR 71762 confirmed............................14677
    Regulations at 73 FR 6425, 7668 and 7669 withdrawn.............14925
    Regulation at 72 FR 71759 confirmed............................15061
    Regulation at 73 FR 8795 confirmed.............................19143
    Regulation at 73 FR 5430 confirmed.............................19998
    Regulation at 73 FR 8796 confirmed and corrected...............20526
    Regulation at 73 FR 6426 confirmed and corrected...............20527
    Regulation at 73 FR 5435 confirmed.............................20781
    Regulation at 73 FR 9449 corrected and confirmed...............23323
    Regulation at 73 FR 9442 confirmed.............................23323
    Regulation at 73 FR 9186 confirmed.............................23323
    Regulation at 73 FR 9448 confirmed.............................23323
    Regulation at 73 FR 9451 confirmed.............................23324
    Regulation at 73 FR 9452 confirmed.............................25506
    Regulation at 73 FR 9443 confirmed.............................25999
    Regulation at 73 FR 9184 confirmed.............................25999
    Regulation at 73 FR 9440 confirmed.............................27721
    Regulation at 73 FR 9445 confirmed.............................28032
    Regulation at 73 FR 8596 confirmed.............................28032
    Regulation at 73 FR 9454 confirmed.............................31608
    Regulation at 73 FR 15061 withdrawn............................33294
    Regulation at 73 FR 5741 confirmed and corrected...............33295
    Regulation at 73 FR 5432 confirmed and corrected...............33296
    Regulation at 73 FR 9187 confirmed.............................33296
    Regulation at 73 FR 8597 confirmed and corrected...............33296
    Regulation at 73 FR 19996 withdrawn............................33297
    Regulation at 73 FR 9446 confirmed and corrected...............33297
    Regulation at 73 FR 15882 confirmed............................33665
    Regulation at 73 FR 15059 confirmed............................36269

[[Page 982]]

    Regulation at 73 FR 14679 confirmed............................36270
    Regulation at 73 FR 14680 confirmed............................36270
    Regulation at 73 FR 17888 confirmed and corrected..............36408
    Regulation at 73 FR 8594 confirmed.............................36409
    Regulation at 73 FR 19998 withdrawn............................39221
    Regulation at 73 FR 15063 confirmed............................39221
    Regulation at 73 FR 5433 confirmed and corrected...............40719
    Regulation at 73 FR 31022 eff. date delayed....................40722
    Regulation at 73 FR 20526 withdrawn............................41254
    Regulation at 73 FR 17889 withdrawn............................41255
    Regulation at 73 FR 16752 confirmed............................50721
    Regulation at 73 FR 38315 confirmed and corrected..............55723
    Regulation at 73 FR 45606 eff. date changed to 11-20-08; 
corrected..........................................................56473
    Eff. 1-15-09........56471, 56476, 56477, 60623, 60941, 62878, 62879, 
           62880, 64882, 66515, 66516, 68317--68320, 70272, 70273, 70274
    Regulations at 73 FR 45607 and 45608 confirmed.................58871
    Revised........................................................60939
    Regulation at 73 FR 56473 confirmed and corrected..............70271
    Eff. 3-12-09........71918, 71919, 75938, 75939, 75940, 75942, 76518, 
                                       76519, 76520, 76940, 78179, 78180
    Regulation at 73 FR 56473 confirmed; eff. 1-15-09..............76517
    Regulation at 73 FR 56476 confirmed; eff. 1-15-09..............78618
    Regulation at 73 FR 68318 eff. date delayed to 3-12-09.........79313
71.5 Revised; eff. 9-16-08 to 10-31-08.............................54495
    Amended........................................................60940
71.15 Revised; eff. 9-16-08 to 10-31-08............................54495
    Amended........................................................60940
71.31 Revised; eff. 9-16-08 to 10-31-08............................54495
    Amended........................................................60940
71.33 (c) revised; eff. 9-16-08 to 10-31-08........................54495
    (c) amended....................................................60940
71.41 Revised; eff. 9-16-08 to 10-31-08............................54495
    Amended........................................................60940
71.51 Revised; eff. 9-16-08 to 10-31-08............................54495
    Amended........................................................60940
71.61 Revised; eff. 9-16-08 to 10-31-08............................54495
    Amended........................................................60940
71.71 Revised; eff. 9-16-08 to 10-31-08............................54495
    (b) through (f) amended........................................60940
71.901 Revised; eff. 9-16-08 to 10-31-08...........................54496
    (a) amended....................................................60940
73.22 Amended......................................................21247
73.38 Amended......................................................53359
73.48 Amended; eff. 3-12-09........................................76216
73.51 Amended......................................................49091
    Regulation at 73 FR 49091 eff. date delayed to 11-20-08........52916
73.52 Amended......................................................55726
73.53 Amended................................................8598, 30768
73.69 Amended; eff. 1-15-09........................................67103
91 Policy statement................................................62871
91.161 Added.......................................................46803
    Regulation at 73 FR 46803 confirmed............................63880
91.307 (a) revised.................................................69530
91.609 Heading revised;(c) redesignated as (c)(1); (c)(2), (3), 
        (h), (i) and (j) added.....................................12564
    (k) added; eff. 2-2-09.........................................73178
91.703 (a)(3) revised..............................................10143
91 SFAR No. 108 added...............................................7051
    Regulation at 73 FR 7051 confirmed.............................14676
    Appendices E and F amended.....................................12565
    Appendices E and F corrected...................................15280
93.35--93.47 (Subpart C) Added.....................................60598
93.39 Corrected....................................................66517
93.161--93.173 (Subpart N) Added...................................60568
    Clarification..................................................64883
93.165 (c) corrected...............................................66517
93.331--93.345 (Subpart V) Added; eff. 2-17-09.....................76213
93.335 Corrected; eff. 2-17-09.....................................79314
93 SFAR No. 105 amended............................................64517
95...............................4686, 14382, 23944, 36410, 51592, 63881
95.13 (a) amended..................................................63885
97.....4072, 4074, 7462, 9936, 12632, 14687, 19999, 20528, 24172, 27726, 
         30770, 33670, 37361, 40170, 42521, 45861, 51359, 52780, 54497, 
                                60624, 61349, 66518, 67727, 72331, 74929

[[Page 983]]

97.21--97.37........4076, 6841, 9938, 11552, 14682, 18153, 20529, 23325, 
         27722, 31013, 33667, 36272, 40168, 42677, 44910, 51216, 52783, 
                         54498, 59495, 60943, 64195, 67729, 72333, 74928
101.1 (a)(3) revised; eff. 2-2-09..................................73781
101.21 Revised; eff. 2-2-09........................................73781
101.22 Revised; eff. 2-2-09........................................73781
101.23 Revised; eff. 2-2-09........................................73781
101.25 Redesignated as 101.27; new 101.25 added; eff. 2-2-09.......73781
101.26 Added; eff. 2-2-09..........................................73781
101.27 Redesignated from 101.25 and revised; eff. 2-2-09...........73781
101.29 Added; eff. 2-2-09..........................................73781
105.43 (a) and (b)(1) revised......................................69531


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